Basic Genetics MCQs

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BASIC GENETICS MCQS BY MNP, 03347758468

1. Term genetics was first used by:


A. Bateson B. Sutton C. Mendel D. Morgan

2. Genetics is a branch of biology, which deals with:


A. Laws of heredity and variations B. Process of cell division at gametogenesis
C. Formation of new species through natural selection D. None of these

3. Vapour theory of inheritance was put forward by:


A. Pythagoras B. Aristotle C. Graaf D. None of these

4. Who claimed to observe a mini form of man inside the sperm?


A. Hertsoeker B. Bateson C. Weismann D. Pythagorus

5. Who is considered father of genetics:


A. Mendel B. Weismann C. Bateson D. Morgan

6. John Mendel is famous for:


A. Mutation teory B. Laws of heredity
C. Discovery of genes D. Inheritance of acquired characters

7. Unit of inheritance is called :


A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Gene D. Chromosome

8. The term gene was first used by:


A. Johannsen B. Mendel C. Morgan D. None of these

9. Branch of biology, which deals with the laws of heredity or similarities and
dissimilarities between individuals related by descent, is called:
A. Genetics B. Eugenics C. Evolution D. None of these

10.Theory of continuity of germplasm suggests that:


A. Germinal material of body passes through gametes from one generation to another
B. Sex cells are provided with mankins of adult bodies
C. Embryo develops from a simple fertilized cell and becomes a baby during later stages of
pregnancy

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D. There is nothing like that

11.Law of dominance was given by:


A. Mendel B. Weismann C. de Vries D. Darwin

12.Who observed sperms for the first time?


A. Graff B. Leeuwenhock C. Swammerdon D. None of these

13.Who discovered the ova for the first time:


A. Graff B. Malpighi C. Swammerdon D. All of these

14.The worker who studied experimentally and proposed the laws of heredity was:
A. Muller B. Morgan C. Maipighi D. Mendel

15.Unit factor term for controlling characters of individuals was given by:
A. Mendel B. Morgan C. Malpighi D. None of these

16.Mendel selected which of the following traits for his studies:


A. Stem length (tall or dwarf), flower position (apical or axial)
B. Flower colour (purple or white), seed shape (round or wrinkled)
C. Colour of pod (green or yellow), cotyledon colour (yellow or green)
D. All of these

17.Which of these characters is dominant?


A. Axial position of flowers B. Apical position of flowers
C. Green colour of cotyledons D. Wrinkled shape of seeds

18.If a genotype is not known it is crossed with recessive parent to reveal what is hidden
then the cross is known as:
A. Backcross B. Monohydrid cross C. Test cross D. Dihybrid cross

19.Who formulated chromosomal theory of inheritance:


A. Sutton B. Morgan C. Bateson D. Johannsen

20.A cross between F1 hybrids with either of the parent is called:


A. Back-cross B. Test-cross C. Reverse-cross D. None of these

21.Which of these terms indicate a pair of contrasting characters or factors:

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A. Allele B. Phenotype C. Homozygous D. Heterozygous

22.In case red flower colour is dominant to white flower colour which of these statements
is correct:
A. All red-flowered plants from red flowered plants
B. A few red-flowered plants from red-flowered plants
C. Ration of red-flowered plants from white-flowered hybrid plants is 1:1
D. Only white-flowered plants from white-flowered plants

23.Why pea plants were most suitable for Mendel's experiments than dogs because:
A. There were no pidegree records of dogs
B. Pea plants can be selfed
C. All pea plants have two number of chromosomes
D. Dogs have many genetic traits

24.If opposite alleles come together, one of these only expresses while masking the other. It
can be described as:
A. Law of independent assortment
B. Law of dominance
C. Law of segregation
D. Law of inheritance

25.What will be the ration of plants in F2 generation when parents with tall stem (TT) are
crossed with dwarf parents (tt):
A. 2 tall : 2 dwarf B. 3 tall : 1 dwarf
C. 1 tall : 3 dwarf D. None of these

26.Which will be the correct genotypes of F2 plants obtained by cross between tall (TT)
and dwarf (tt) parents:
A. TT : Tt : Tt : tt B. TT : Tt : tt
C. 2 TT : 2 tt D. None of these

27.Phenotypic ration of F2 hybrids in cross between tall (TT) and dwarf (tt) plants is 3
Tall : 1 dwarf but genotypic ration will be:
A. 1 TT : 2Tt : 1tt B. 2 TT : 2 tt

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C. 1 TT : 1 Tt : 2 tt D. None of these

28.In a monohybrid cross between red plants (RR) and white plant the F1 hybrids (Rr) are
all pink. It is indication of the fact that gene R is:
A. Mutant B. Recessive
C. Incompletely dominant D. Hybrid

29.Visible characters in an organism are called:


A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Homozygous D. Heterozygous

30.Genotype of an organism is its:


A. Physical expression B. Genetic consititution
C. Homozygous nature D. Heterrozygous nature

31.In monohybrid cross between tall (TT) and dwarf (tt) parents F2 plants produced in the
ration of 3 tall : 1 dwarf are:
A. Only in phenotype B. Only in genotype
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

32.Two homologous genes are exactly similar in a genotype, which is:


A. Homozygous B. Heterozygous
C. Hemizygous D. None of these

33.Which of these is a heterozygous condition:


A. RR B. Rr C. rr D. RRrr

34. A true breeding tall pea plant when crossed with a true breeding dwarf plant
yielded tall plants in F1 generation which on selfing gives rise to 787 tall and 277 dwarf
plant in F2 generation. The plants of F1 generation are:
A. Homozygous B. Heterozygous C. Hemizygous D. None of these

35.In a dihybrid cross between round yellow and wrinkled green plants the F2 generation
will have 16 individuals in the ration of:
A. 9:3:3:1 B. 9:03:04 C. 9:3:1:3 D. 9:07

36.In a cross between blue and white Andalusian fowls the results due to incomplete
dominance will be:
A. 50% blue and 50% white fowls B. 50% blue and 50% black fowls

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C. 25% blue and 75% white fowls D. 25% black and 75% white fowls

37.Microbial genetics is:


A. Genetics of plants B. Genetics of animals
C. Genetics of man D. Genetics of bacteria and viruses

38.A complete set of chromosomes, which is inherited as a unit from one parent is called:
A. Genotype B. Genome C. Gamete D. Gene

39.A heterozygous individual which carries unexpressed recessive gene for a sex-linked
character is known as:
A. Carrier B. Mutant C. Variant D. None of these

40.Hybridization in pre-mendelian era:


A. Did not take place B. Was unsuccessful when attempted by workers
C. Did not result any effective change in nature
D. Occurred in nature but the phenomenon was not known

41.In which of the respect Mendel was lucky in selecting pea plants for his experiments in
explaining laws of inheritance:
A. Pea plants belong to family leguminosae B. Pea plants show red coloured flowers
C. Pea plants have large number of seeds
D. All the seven characters he selected were located upon different pairs of chromosomes

42.If F1 generation of a cross between tall and dwarf plants is of tall plants, it indicates the
character to be:
A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Mutant D. Sex linked

43.The fact that F1 plants when backcrossed with double recessive parent gave four types
of plants in equal proportions proves that the F1 plants produced:
A. Four type of gametes in equal number
B. Four types of gametes in ratio of 9:3:3:1
C. Two types of gametes in 3:1 ratio
D. Three types of gametes in 3:1:1 ratio

44.Mule is hybrid offspring of:

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A. Male and female donkey B. Female horse and male donkey
C. Male and female horse D. None of these

45.Mule is an example of:


A. Heterosis B. Hybrid vigour C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

46.The ratio of progeny of dwarf plants in a cross between heterozygous tall plant with
homozygous dwarf plant will be:
A. 35% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

47.Genetic complement is called:


A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Alleles D. None of these

48.Who gave laws of segregation and dominance?


A. Mendel B. Morgan C. Malpighi D. Muller

49.Law of dominance states that:


A. Out of the two unit factors of contrasting expression of a trait present in an
individual only one is expressed
B. Characters of parents are assorted independently during the gamete formation
C. Contrasting characters of parents are segregated at the time of gametogenesis
D. None of these things

50.The contrasting characters of individuals are represented by unit factors which


separate at the time of gamete formation is explained by Meddel's law of:
A. Dominance and Recessiveness B. Segregation
C. Independent Assortment D. None of these

51.In cross between more than one pair of contrasting characters the assortment of unit
factors is independent of parental combinations is the theme of:
A. Law of dominance and recessiiveness B. Law of segregation
C. Law of independent assortment D. None of these

52.In Drosophila, red eye character is dominant over white-eye character. When a homozygous
red eye individual is crossed with a homozygous white eye individual and individuals of F1
generation are intercrossed, 12 individuals are produced. White-eye individuals of these will
be:

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A. Three B. Six C. Nine D. Twelve

53.On the basis of which of these rations, we can prove law of independent assortment:
A. 9:3:3:1 B. 9:03:04 C. 1:02:01 D. 2:01:01

54.Which of these is a recessive trait in Drosophila (fruit fly):


A. Red eye colour B. White eye colour C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

55.Skin colour inheritance in mammals is usually:


A. Monogenic B. Multiple allelism
C. Polygenic D. Pseudoallelism

56.A ratio of 3:1 in F2 individuals is suggestive of:


A. Monohybrid cross B. Dihybrid cross
C. Trihybrid cross D. None of these

57.Ratio of 27:9:9:9:3:3:1 in F2 individuals is suggestive of:


A. Monohybrid cross B. Dihybrid cross

C. Trihybrid cross D. None of these

58.Which of these do not follow mendelian ratios:


A. Complementary and supplementary genes
B. Lethal genes and incomplete dominance
C. Modifier genes D. All of these

59.Segregation of alleles occurs at the time of:


A. Cleavage B. Meiosis C. Fertilization D. Crossing over

60.Before proposing his theory, Mendel:


A. Had no idea of factors and genes
B. Had idea that all the factors are carried by genes
C. Had idea of chromoscmes but not the genes
D. Had no idea of chromosomes and genes

61.In man certain characters may be dominant and recessive. Which of these characters
are dominant:

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A. Colour blindness and haemophilia
B. Normal coloured vision and normal clotting
C. Testelessness to PTC
D. Attached ear lobes

62.Out breeding in sheep produces improved strains of sheep which provide increased
amount of meat and wool than in breeds. This is an example of:
A. Heterosis B. Cross breeding C. Inbreeding D. All of these

63.When two pea plants with white flowers were crossed, F1 hybrids produced purple
colour unlike their parents but like their remote ancestors, this is an example of:
A. Supplementary genes B. Complementary genes
C. Lethal genes D. Atavism

64.Genes that reduce the viability of individual or cause its death of bearer are called:
A. Supplementary genes B. Compementary genes
C. Lethal genes D. None of these

65.When red and white cattles are crossed, they produce a roan offspring which has both
red and white hairs on skin, it is called:
A. Incomplete dominance B. Codominance
C. Atavism D. None of these

66.Ratio of 9:3:4 is obtained instead of 9:3:3:1 under the condition when there is gene
interaction involving:
A. Supplementary genes B. Complementary genes
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

67.Instead of usual mendelian ratio of 9:3:3:1 often ratio of 9:7 is obtained in some of the
crosses which is possibly due to interaction of:
A. Complementary genes B. Supplementary genes
C. Modifier genes D. None of these

68.In a gene interaction the gene that masks the expression of another gene is termed:
A. Epistatic gene B. Hypostatic gene
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

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69.Allelic gene interaction is exhibited by which of these:
A. Incomplete dominance B. Codominance
C. Lethal genes D. All of these

70.Examples of non-allelic gene interaction are:


A. Complementary genes B. Supplementary genes
C. Modifier genes D. All of these

71.Mating of closely related individuals is called:


A. Inbreeding B. Out breeding
C. Atavism D. None of these

72.Which of these workers coined terms 'homozygous' and 'heterozygous' that we use very
commonly in genetics:
A. Bateson B. Saunders
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

73.Punnet devised a geometrical method for determining genetic combinations during


crosses and know the possible expressions which is called:
A. Back-cross method B. Test-cross method
C. Checker-board method D. None of these

74.Besides devising checker-board method Bateson is also known for:


A. Coining the term allelomorph for genes of contrasting expressions of characters
B. Coining terms 'genotype' and 'phenotype'
C. Describing gene interactions D. None of these

75.DNA model was studied with help of x-rays by:


A. Wilkins B. Watson C. Crick D. Watson and Crick

76. Genetic information is encoded in the structure of which of these:


A. Enzymes B. DNA
C. Structure proteins D. Enzymes and DNA

77. Theory of one gene - one enzyme was proposed by:

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A. Watson and Crick B. Beadle and Tatum
C. Scleiden and Schwann D. Bateson and Punnet

78.Central dogma of molecular genetics is:


A. DNA - RNA - Proteins B. RNA - DNA - Proteins
C. Proteins - DNA - RNA D. None of these

79.Five major types of histones are:


A. H1, H2, H3, H4 and H5 B. H1, H2a, H2b, H3 and H4
C. H1a, H1b, H2a, H2b and H3 D. None of these

80. Genes are made up:


A. Histones B. Polynucleotides C. Hydrocarbons D. Lipoproteins

81.Term gene refers to:


A. A portion of DNA B. A portion of RNA
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

82.Which of these is carrier of genetic information:


A. tRNA B. DNA C. Mrna D. Nucleoproteins

83.Nucleic acid was discovered by:


A. Miescher B. Sutton C. Khorana D. Beadle

84.Chromosomes are made up of:


A. DNA and RNA B. RNA and proteins
C. DNA, RNA and proteins D. None of these

85. Dr. Khorana got Nobel Prize for his researches on:
A. Hormones B. Immunology
C. Genetic Code D. None of these

86.Biochemical nature of gene was established by:


A. Avery and Macleod B. Avery, Macleod and McCarty
C. Jacob and Monad D. Holley and Nirenberg

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87.Nucleosomes are beaded structure on chromosomes and formed of:
A. DNA and histones B. RNA and histones
C. RNA and proteins D. None of these

88.Beads in chromosomes are formed by:


A. DNA molecule taking one turn B. DNA molecule taking two turn
C. RNA molecule taking one turn D. RNA molecule taking two turn

89.The places in between beads of nucleosomes in chromosomes, where DNA is straight,


are termed:
A. Speacers B. Linkers
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

90.An individual with two identical members of a pan or genetic factors is called:
A. Heterozygote B. Homozygote C. Hybrid D. None of these

91.Genetic mutations occur in:


A. Chromosomes B. DNA C. RNA D. Nucleus

92.X-rays cause mutations by:


A. Altering the chromosome structure B. Routing the nuclear membrane
C. Breaking the spindle D. Dissolving the nucleus

93.A functional units of gene which specifies the synthesis of polypeptide is called:
A. Clone B. Recon C. Cistron D. Codon

94.Nucleosomes are the unit of:


A. DNA B. RNA C. Proteins D. Chromosomes

95.Unusual method of DNA duplication is called:


A. Semiconservative B. Nonconservative
C. Conservative D. None of these

96.. Mutations are harmful:


A. Always B. Never C. Rarely D. Mostly

97.A zygote has which of these number of chromosomes:

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A. x B. 2x C. 3x D. 4x

98.In chromosomes the material controlling heredity is:


A. Histones B. DNA C. Chromocentres D. RNA

99.Nuclein from nuclei of pus cells was separated by:


A. Miescher B. Sutton C. Altmann D. None of these

100. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by:


A. Sutton B. Altmann C. Miescher D. All of these

101. Spacer in chromosomes is associated with:


A. H1 B. H3 C. H2a D. None of these

102. Sperms do not have histones but they have


A. A basic protein protamine B. Acid protein spermin
C. Acid protein protamine D. None of these

103. Which of these do not code for proteins:


A. Operator B. Promotor
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

104. An operon is constituted by:


A. Operator genes B. Promotor genes
C. Regulator genes D. All of these

105. In positive regulation which of these genes are involved:


A. Promotor B. Regulator
C. Operator D. None of these

106. Promotor gene is stimulated to interact with RNA polymerase on interacting with:
A. CAP - cAMP B. ATP C. CMP D. None of these

107. Which of these in operon inhibits transcription of mRNA on combining with


repressor protein:
A. Regulator gene B. Promotor gene
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

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108. In negative regulation which of these gene of operon is involved:
A. Promotor B. Regulator C. Operator D. All of these

109. In eukaryotes the regulation of genes involves:


A. Chromosomal proteins B. Chormones
C. Both (a) & (b) ` D. None of these

110. Linkage was first suspected by:


A. Bateson and Punnet B. Sutton and Boveri
C. Beadle and Tatum D. All of these scientists

111. Chromosomal theory of linkage was given by:


A. Miescher B. Mendel C. Muller D. Morgan

112. In test cross between hybrids of F1 generation of gray body long winged and black
body vestigial winged parents Morgan found which of these ratios:
A. 1:1:1:1 B. 25:25:25:25
C. 46:37:8:9 D. None of these

113. Linkage is:


A. Tendency of two genes to remain together during process of inheritance
B. Tendency of two individual to remain together
C. Tendency of two different chromosomes to remain together
D. None of these

114. Crossing over which means an exchange of segments between members of a


homologous pair of chromosomes occurs during:
A. Amitosis B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis D. None of these

115. Amount of DNA in all cell of body is:


A. Constant B. Variable
C. Constant or variable D. None of these

116. Sutton and Boveri are associated with:

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A. Gene theory of inheritance B. Recapitulation theory
C. Chromosomal theory of inheritance D. Continuity of germplasm

117. Distance between two genes upon a chromosome is measured in cross over units
which represent:
A. Ratio of crossing over between them B. Percentage of crossing between them
C. Number of other gene between them D. None of these

118. In Morgan's experiment on linkage the recombinant types of test cross with F1,
hybrids of gray body long winged and black body vestigial winged parents are:
A. Gray body vestigial wings B. Black body long wings
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

119. Percentage of recombinant types in Morgan's experiment was:


A. 13% B. 17% C. 23% D. 27%

120. A rough idea of cell division was given by:


A. Hofmeister B. Von Mohl C. Flemmings D. Weismann

121. Who described the cell division first?


A. Hofmeister B. Hugo Von Mohl C. A. Weismann D. W. Flemmings

122. Who used the word karyockinecis for cell division?


A. Hugo Von Mohl B. A. Weismann
C. W. Flemmings D. None of these

123. Word mitosis was coined by:


A. W. Flemmings B. A. Weismann C. Hofmeister D. Strausberger

124. Cell division in plants was described first by:


A. Strausbeger B. Hofmeister C. Weistmann D. None of these

125. Who observed first that the reproductive cells have different division than somatic
cells?
A. Weismann B. Hofmeister C. Felmmings D. Sutton

126. Sutton emphasized:


A. Importance of cell division in heredity

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B. That reproductive cells divide differently than somatic cells
C. Cells come from pre-existing cells D. None of these

127. Importance of cell division in heredity was emphasized by:


A. Sutton B. Weismann C. Flemmings D. None of these

128. Strausberger observed


A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Cell division in plants D. None of these

129. Meiosis was termed by:


A. J.B. Farmer and Moore B. Hofmeister and Flemmings
C. Hugo Von Mohl and Strausberger D. None of these

130. Cell division in eukaryotic cells involves:


A. Karyokinesis only B. Cytokinesis only
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

131. Cell division in animal cells occur by:


A. Amitosis B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis D. All of these methods

132. During amitotic cell division in animals there is:


A. Formation of chromosomes, spindle, and division of chromatids
B. Reduction in the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells
C. Only elongation of nucleus and subsequent breaking into two daughters
D. None of these

133. Mitosis occurs:


A. Somatic cells only B. Reproductive cells only
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

134. Prophase in mitotic division is characterized by which of these events:


A. Nuclear membrane starts disintigrating
B. Chromatin material changes into chromosomes
C. Nucleolus starts disappearing and centrioles start moving towards opposite poles

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D. All of these

135. Spindle is formed during cell division by:


A. Centrioles and astral rays B. Nucleolus
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

136. Mitosis is a process of cell division during which there is:


A. Doubling of chromosomes at the end of the process
B. Reduction in the number of chromosomes at the end
C. Distribution of same number of chromosomes in daughter cells
D. None of these

137. Mitotic cell division results in the:


A. Reduction in chromosomal number B. Doubling of chromosomal
C. No change in chromosomal number D. Increase in cell volume

138. Meiosis differs from mitosis because in it:


A. Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments
B. Chromosomal number is halved
C. The four daughters-nuclei formed are genetically dissimilar
D. All of these

139. Separation of chromatids and their movement to opposite poles of the spindle occurs
in which of these:
A. Prophase B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase D. Telophase

140. How many mitotic divisions are required to make 256 daughter nuclei:
A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64

141. Which of these plays important role in cell division in animal cell:
A. Centriole B. Mitochondria C. Golgi complex D.None of these

142. Chromosomes during metaphase:


A. Occupy equatorial position B. Are not yet ready to divide

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C. Assemble at one end of spindle D. Occupy any place in spindle

143. Movement of chromosomes during anphase is:


A. Dependent on association of spindle fibres with kinetochore
B. Independent of spindle fibres
C. Due to streaming of cytoplasm
D. Due to excess of ATP formed in mitochondria

144. Chromosomes are composed of:


A. DNA only B. Proteins only C. DNA + Proteins D. RNA only

145. For mitotic division the DNA is:


A. Subdivided B. Replicated
C. Left unaffected D. Reduced to half

146. Some of microtubules of spindle attaching to centromeres of chromosomes are


called:
A. Chromosomal fibres B. Continous fibres
C. Interchromosomal fibres D. None of these

147. Continuous fibres in spindle are those which connect:


A. One centriole with other and attached pole to pole
B. Centromeres of chromosomes with spindle
C. Centrioles with spindle and also the poles
D. None of these

148. Some microtubules in spindle which remain attached to spindle and also to the poles
are called:
A. Interchromosomal fibres B. Chromosomal fibres
C. Continuous fibres D. None of these

149. Which of these changes mark the telophase in mitosis:


A. Chromosomes reaching poles and become thread like
B. Nucleolus start reappearing and nuclear membrane reappears

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C. Both of these changes
D. None of these changes

150. Which of these organelles are not shared by the daughter cells:
A. Golgicomplex B. Mitochondria
C. Endoplasmic reticula D. Lysosomes

151. Which of these divisions in necessary for the growth in the animals:
A. Amitosis B. Meiosis
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

152. Replacement and repair of body is done through which of these cell divisions:
A. Mitosis B. Amitosis C. Meiosis D. None of these

153. Which of these divisions helps in asexual reproduction of bacteria:


A. Amitosis B. Mitosis C. Meiosis D. All of these

154. Which of these divisions help sex cells to increase in their number:
A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

155. Mitosis is a regular feature of cells but a sudden as well rapid mitosis leads to
formation of:
A. New organs B. Cancer C. New Tissues D. None of these

156. Meiosis is the only division in which:


A. Nucleus divides by fission
B. Chromosomal number remains unchanged
C. Chromosomal number is reduced to half
D. Chromosomes undergo longitudinal splitting

157. Structure present in chromosomes is:


A. Nucleolus B. Centromere C. Centrosome D. None of these

158. Mitotic cell division occurs in:


A. Germ cells B. Somatic cells C. Roots only D. Shoots only

159. Which of these can best explain the significance of meiosis:

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A. It is essential for sexual reproduction
B. It suppresses mutations
C. It alternates with mitosis from generations to generations
D. It ensures transmission of same genetic material from generations to generations

160. Nucleous originates from:


A. Lysosomes B. Golgi complex C. Mitochondria D. Chromosomes

161. Mitotic spindle is formed in:


A. Amitotic division only B. Mitosis only
C. Meiosis only D. Both mitosis and meiosis

162. Anaphase occurs in:


A. Amitosis B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis D. Both mitosis and meiosis

163. Most important significance of mitosis lies in which of these:


A. It regulates karyo-cytoplasmic relation
B. It reduces chromosomal number to helf
C. It doubles the number of chromosomes
D. None of these

164. In a cell the number of chromosomes after first meiotic division is 46, the number of
chromosomes in its daughters after completion of the process will be:
A. Same B. Doubled C. Half D. None of these

165. Process of meiosis is seen to occur when a cell:


A. Is haploid B. Has attained maximum growth
C. Has to undergo sexual reproduction D. Has to form spores

166. In a cell, the cell division occurs when:


A. It is haploid B. It is diploid
C. It has attained optimum growth D. It is disintigrating

167. Daughter cells of meiotic division are haploid which shows:

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A. That chromosomes are located on genes
B. That genes are located on chromosomes
C. Genes are located on spindle fibres D. Chromosomes have no genes

168. The correct sequence of various substages in first meiotic prophase is:
A. Leptonema, zygonema, pachynema, diplonema and diakinesis
B. Diakinesis, leptonema, zygonema, pachynema and diplonema
C. Leptonema, zygonema, diplonema, diakinesis and pachynema D. None of these

169. The replication of chromosomes occurs in:


A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Prophase D. Interphase

170. Blueprint of heredity in chromosomes is:


A. RNA B. DNA C. Histones D. Proteins

171. Division of centromeres during mitosis occurs during:


A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase

172. During meiotic cell division the centromeres of chromosomes occurs during:
A. Anaphase of first meiotic division B. Anaphase of second meiotic division
C. Both of these stages D. None of these stages

173. Division of cytoplasm is termed:


A. Karyokinesis B. Cytokinesis
C. Karyocytokinesis D. None of them

174. Nucleic acid forming chromosomes is:


A. RNA B. DNA C. AMP D. GMP

175. Arrangement of chromosomes at equatorial place of spindle occur during:


A. Prophase B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase D. Telophase

176. First stage of cell division is marked by:


A. Prophase B. Interphase

BASIC GENETICS MCQS BY MNP, 03347758468


C. Anaphase D. Telophase

177. DNA polymerase is associated with:


A. Process of DNA duplication B. Process of RNA duplication
C. Process of protein synthesis D. None of these

178. When during meiotic cell division, chromosomes first appear duplicated, each
bivalent is called:
A. Tetramerous B. Tetrad
C. Tetraploid D. None of these

179. A gamete has:


A. x number of chromosomes B. 2 x number of chromosomes
C. 4 x number of chromosomes D. None of these

180. A zygote has:


A. x number of chromosomes B. 2 x number of chromosomes
C. 3 x number of chromosomes D. 4 x number of chromosomes

181. Number of chromosomes in human karyotype is:


A. 23 B. 46 C. 92 D. None of these

182. DNA duplication is:


A. Conservative B. Semiconservative C. Complete D. Incomplete

183. Which of these marks the beginning of diploid phase in our life cycle:
A. Zygote B. Sperm C. Ovum D. None of these

184. Commencement of diploid phase in the life cycle of an animal is marked by:
A. Zygote B. Microspore C. Megaspore D. Embryo

185. A cell cycle has which of the following phases:


A. G1 and G2 - phase B. S - phase
C. M or D - phase D. All of these

186. Interphase is constituted in cell cycle by:


A. G1 phase B. G2 - phase

BASIC GENETICS MCQS BY MNP, 03347758468


C. S - phase D. All of these

187. Duration of G1 - phase in cell cycle is:


A. 5 hours B. 10 hours C. 8 hours D. None of these

188. Duration of S-phase of cell cycle is:


A. 5 hours B. 8 hours C. 10 hours D. None of these

189. G2 - phase of cell cycle lasts for about:


A. 5 hours B. 8 hours C. 10 hours D. 1 hours

190. M-phase of cell cycle lasts for about:


A. 1 hour B. 5 hours C. 8 hours D. 10 hours

191. During G1 phase of cell cycle there is:


A. Synthesis of substances essential for biosynthesis of DNA
B. Duplication of DNA
C. Growth and duplication of cytoplasm
D. Cell division

192. S - phase of cell cycle is characterized by:


A. Duplication of DNA B. Duplication of cytoplasm
C. Growth and duplicate D. None of these

193. Cell division takes place in which of these phases of cell cycle:
A. G1 - phase B. S – phase C. G2 - phase D. D - phase

194. Intact nuclear membrane, chromatin fibres, double DNA etc, characterize which of
these phases:
A. M - phase B. D – phase C. Interphase D. None of these

BASIC GENETICS MCQS BY MNP, 03347758468

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