Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 6. Match the terms in Column I with their

description in Column II and choose the correct
1. At the trophic level of consumers, the rate at option.
which food energy is assimilated, is called: Column I Column II
1. Secondary productivity 1. Many genes govern a single
2. Gross primary productivity A. Dominance
character
3. Net primary productivity 2. Ina heterozygous organism
4. None of these B. Codominance only one allele expresses
itself
2. When both male and female flowers are
3. In a heterozygous
present on the same plant, then plant is said to
C. Pleiotropy organism both alleles express
be:
themselves fully
1. Bisexual
2. Monoecious D. Polygenic 4. A single gene influences
3. Unisexual inheritance many characters
4. Dioecious
Codes :
3. To form a nucleoside, a nitrogenous base is
A B C D
linked to a pentose sugar:
(1) Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at carbon (1) 2 3 4 1
atom number 1 (2) 4 1 2 3
(2) Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at carbon (3) 4 3 1 2
atom number 5 (4) 2 1 4 3
(3) Through a N-Glycosidic linkage at carbon
atom number 1
(4) Through a N-Glycosidic linkage atcarbon 7. Vertical distribution of different species
atom number 5 occupying different levels in a biotic
community is
known as
4. Which of the following has maximum global 1. divergence
biodiversity? 2. stratification
1. Angiosperms 3. zonation
2. Algae 4. pyramid
3. Lichens
4. Mosses 8. Companion cells are closely associated with
(1) sieve elements
5. Select the wrong statement. (2) vessel elements
(1) Bacterial cell wall is made up of (3) trichomes
peptidoglycan (4) guard cells
(2) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in
motility of bacterial cells 9. The formula for exponential population
(3) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells growth is :-
(4) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism 1. dt/dN = rN
2. dN/rN = dt
3. rN/dN = dt
4. dN/dt = rN

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10. James Watson and Francis Crick got Nobel 16. Polymoniales includes-
prize in the year 1. Convolvulaceae
(1) 1960 2. Solanaceae
(2) 1962 3. Both 1 and 2
(3) 1959 4. Liliaceae only
(4) 1953
17. Epidermal tissue system consists of
11. Which of the following statements are (1)epidermal cells
correct with respect to Law of dominance : (2)stomata
i. Tall and dwarf traits were identical to their (3)trichomes, root hairs
parental type and didn’t show any blending (4)All of the above
ii. Only one of the parental traits was expressed
in F1 generation. 18. If only the mode of nutrition were to be
iii. Both traits were expressed in the F2 considered then how many Kingdoms has to be
generation. together under saprophytic mode of nutrition
iv. The contrasting trait showed blending at F2
generation. (1) Except plantae and Animalia all three
(1) ii, iii and iv (2) Except monera and plantae all three
(2) i, ii and iii (3) Except plantae all four
(3) ii and iii (4) Monera and protista
(4) i, ii, iii and iv

12. Photosynthesis is a-
a. Biochemical process 19. Fungi has symbiotic association with-
b. Physical process a. Algae
c. Chemical process b. Roots of higher plants
d. Physico-chemical process c. Animals
d. Algae and roots of higher plants
13. The step of decarboxylation during C4 cycle
occurs in: 20. Kinetochores are not
a. Only Mesophyll cells
b. Bundle Sheath cells 1. Formed by spindle Fibres
c. both a and b
d. Passage cells 2. Formed by asters

14. Which one(s) is/are correct about 3. Help in the attachment of chromosomes to
Cyclosporin A? the spindle Fibres
(1) It is produced by the fungus Trichoderma
polysporum 4. Disc-shaped structure
(2) It is used as an immuno-suppressive agent
during organ transplantation 21. Compaction of chromosomes occurs in
(3) It is produced by a type of yeast, Monascus
purpureus 1. Leptotene
(4) Both (1) and (2)
2. Zygotene
15. Scientific name does not ensure
a. Each organism has only one name 3. Diplotene
b. Description of any organism lead to the same
name of organism in any part of the world 4. Metaphase
c. No two organisms have the same name
d. Status of threat of extinction of that organism
holding a specific scientific name.

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22. To get rid of Aphids which of the following 26. Abscisic Acid and ABA are derivative of…..
is used? 1.Indol compounds
2.Adenine
(1) Beetle with red and black markings 3.carotenoids
(2) Ladybird 4.Terpenes
(3) Dragonflies
(4) Both A and B 27. Which of the following statements is
correct?
1. All GAs are basic
2. All GAs are Acidic
23. Rich biodiversity is not important for 3. Most of the GAs are Acidic
4. Most of the GAs are basic
(1) Healthy ecosystem
(2) Survival of human race on this planet
28. In numerical taxonomy
(3) Alien species
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) All the characters are given equal
importance
(2) All the characters are given unequal
importance
24. Study the diagram given below and mark
(3) And at the same time, hundreds of
the correct statement.
characters can be considered
(4) Both 1 and 3

29. Floral diagram does not provide which of

the following information?

(1) Provides information about the number of

parts of flower
(2) Arrangement of flower parts
(3) Relation of flower part with respect to each
other
(4) Medicinal use of plant

1. Part A is dependent on part B.

2. Part B is dependent on part A. 30. The Carpels of gynoecium of Fabaceae is
3. Both parts are independent represented as
4. Part A is haploid whereas part B is diploid
(1) 1
25. Which of the following statement is (2) (2)
incorrect? (3) (3)
1. Trichoderma is free living fungi, present in (4) (5)
root ecosystem acts as biocontrol agent
2. Genus of baculoviruses is species group
specific broad spectrum insecticide
3. All harmful insect pests should be kept at
manageable level as it furthers biodiversity
4. Ladybird and Dragonflies are used as
biocontrol agent

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31. Gametophyte in the pteridophytes is

(i) Small, inconspicuous. Botany - Section B
(ii) Long lived, unicellular. 36. A molecule that can act as a genetic material
(iii) Mostly photosynthetic thalloid or must fulfil all the following criteria except:
saprophytic. 1. It should be able to generate its replica
(iv) Short lived, haploid. It should chemically and structurally be
How many statements are correct with respect 2. stable
to gametophyte?
3. It should provide scope for rapid mutations
1. Two
2.Three It should be able to express itself in the form
4.
3. Four of “Mendelian Characters”
4. One

32. During the process of respiration redox 37. Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth
equivalents are removed: (a) Occurs when resources are unlimited
1. In form of hydrogen atom. dN
(b) Is expressed as dt = rN ( K )
K−N

2. In form of an electron.
3. In form of H2O. (c) Exhibits sigmoid curve
(d) Is characterized by the function of carrying
4. In form of ATP.
capacity
1. All are correct
33. The respiratory quotient during cellular
2. Only (a) & (b) are correct
respiration would depend on the
3. Only (a) is incorrect
1. Nature of enzymes involved
4. Only (b) & (c) are incorrect
2. Nature of the substrate
3. Amount of carbon dioxide released
38. For which of the following cases, population
4. Amount of oxygen utilized
density can be easily determined by utilizing
non-biological parameter?
34. “The synaptonemal complex is formed
1. Fish density
during _A_
2. Density of bacteria in culture plate
stage and dissolves during _B_ stage”.
3. Siberian cranes at Bharatpur, Wetlands
Complete the above statement by choosing the
4. Tiger census
correct
option for A and B
39. Interspecies as well as intergeneric plants
A B
hybrids are produced by which of the tissue
1. Diplotene Diakinesis
culture methods?
2. Leptotene Zygotene
(1) Gynogenic culture
3. Zygotene Diplotene
(2) Meristem culture
4. Pachytene Diplotene
(3) Androgenic culture
(4) Somatic hybridization
35. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is
replaced by valine. Which one of the following
40. The outer layer of pollen grain in non-
triplets codes for valine?
archegoniate spermatophytes is made up of
1. G GG
sporopollenin. This chemical
2. A A G
1. Is one of the most resistant inorganic
3. G A A
material
4. G U G
2. Is temperature and enzyme resistant
3. Is resistant for strong acids, not for alkali
4. Is resistant for strong alkali, not for acids

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41. A part of energy captured by producers is 45. What is the correct order of the steps
used involved in the sexual cycle of organisms
1. As a food to herbivores only belonging to the Kingdom Fungi?
2. For maintenance and as food to herbivores
3. For synthesis of protoplasm only Meiosis in zygote — Plasmogamy —
4. For the synthesis of ATP only 1.
Karyogamy
Karyogamy — Meiosis in zygote —
42. Some stages of development of dicot 2. Plasmogamy
embryo are given below :-
Plasmogamy — Karyogamy — Meiosis in
a. Proembryo 3.
zygote
b. Globular stage
c. Heart shape Karyogamy — Plasmogamy — Meiosis in
4.
d. Mature embryo zygote
Arrange the given stages in correct sequence?
1. a, b, c, d
2. c, d, b, a 46. All the following are hotspots of biodiversity
3. a, c, d, b covering India except:
4. b, d, c, a 1. Eastern Ghats and Bangladesh
2. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
43. Bilateral symmetry is found in the flower of 3. Indo-Burma
1. Cassia 4. Himalaya
2. Mustard
3. Canna 47. Read the following statements about the
4. Chilli vascular bundles:

44. Match List - I with List - II In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular
List - I List - II a. bundle are arranged in an alternate manner
along the different radii.
(a) Protoplast (i)
fusion Totipotency Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not
b.
possess cambium.
(b) Plant tissue
(ii) Pomato In open vascular bundles, cambium is
culture c.
present in between xylem and phloem.
(c) Meristem (iii)
culture Somaclones The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem
d.
possess endarch protoxylem.
(d) (iv) Virus
Micropropagation free plants In monocotyledonous root, usually there are
e.
more than six xylem bundles present.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 2. (a), (b) and (d) only
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 3. (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
4. all statements are correct
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

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Zoology - Section A
48. Which of the following combinations are
correct in response to plastids?
A. Amyloplasts store carbohydrates 51. The sensory neuron enters the spinal cord
B. Leucoplasts gives a red colour to the plant through:
C. Xanthophyll gives yellow and orange colours 1. The dorsal root of the spinal nerve
to parts of the plant 2. The ventral root of the spinal nerve
D. Carotenoid pigments are responsible for 3. Either dorsal or ventral root depending on
tapping light energy the point of origin
E. Chlorophyll gives a red color 4. Both dorsal and ventral roots of the spinal
Choose the correct answer from the options nerves
given below:
1. A & B only 2. A, C, D only 52. Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) will
3. A, B, C, D only 4. A & D only promote a(n) ________ in the excretion of
sodium and water; thus ________ blood volume
and blood pressure.
49. On the first day of observation, leaf A shows 1. decrease, decreasing
2. decrease; increasing
40 cm2 area and leaf B shows 50 cm2 area. On
3. increase, decreasing
the following day, the area of leaf A becomes 44
4. increase, increasing
cm2 and the area of leaf B becomes 55 cm2.
Which of the following conclusions can be 53. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
drawn about the growth rate of leaf A and B? from
(1) heart
The absolute growth rate is the same but the (2) stomach
1.
relative growth rate is different for A and B (3) kidneys
The absolute growth rate is different but the (4) intestine
2.
relative growth rate is the same for A and B
Both absolute and relative growth rates are 54. Which one of the following hormones
3.
the same for A and B though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and
Both absolute and relative growth rates are released by the master gland?
4. 1. Antidiuretic hormone
different for A and B
2. Luteinizing hormone
3. Prolactin
50. Select the correct statement w.r.t. 4. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
endomembrane system.
1. It is composed of ER, Golgi body, peroxisome 55. The process by which organisms with
and lysosome different evolutionary history evolve similar
2. It includes the organelles that have distinct phenotypic adaptations in response to a
structure and function common enviroment challenge, is called
3. It is found in prokaryotic as well as 1. natural selection
eukaryotic cells 2. convergent evolution
4. It includes both membranous and non- 3. non-random evolution
membranous organelles 4. adaptive radiation

56. The blood calcium level is lowered by the

deficiency of ?
1. parathormone
2. thyroxine
3. calcitonin
4. Both 1. and 2.

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57. The H-Zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is 61. Which one of the following is the
due to diagrammatic representation of a nucleotide?
(1) the central gap between actin filaments
extending through myosin filaments in the A-
band
(2) extension of myosin filaments in the central
portion of the A-band (a) (b) (c)
(3) the absence of myofibrils in the central
portion of A-band
(4) the central gap between myosin filaments in
the A-band
(d)
58. Which among the following statements are
correct ? 62. Which of the following cannot be the
(I) Saliva is secreted by exocrine glands. parasites of intestine?
(II) Epithelial tissue rests on non-cellular
basement membrane. (1) Tapeworm
(III) Muscular tissue possesses cell junctions. (2) Pinworm
(IV) Mucus-secreting goblet cells are (3) Virus
multicellular. (4) Threadworm
(1) I and II only
(2) I and IV only
(3) I, II and III
(4) Only III 63. Which of the following theory is dismissed
by Louis Pasteur's Experiment?
59. In 1960’s two enzymes were discovered in
bacteria that were responsible for providing (1) Theory of panspermia
immunity against bacteriophages. One was (2) Theory of spontaneous generation
Restriction Endonuclease and the other was (3) Theory of special creation
1. Methylase (4) Catastrophic theory
2. Exonuclease
3. Aminotransferase
4. Terminal Transferase 64. Biochemical similarities performing a given
function among diverse organisms give clues
60. Areolar tissue is for
(1) Serves as a support framework for
(1) Common ancestry
epithelium
(2) Diverse ancestry
(2) Present above the skin
(3) Analogy
(3) Has only two types of cells- macrophages
(4) Convergence
and mast cells
(4) Cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a
liquid ground substance.

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65. Which of the following is a paired 71. Which of the following is not associated
structure? with Osteoporosis?

(1) Mons Pubis (1) Age related disorder

(2) Clitoris (2) Characterised by decreased bone mass
(3) Womb (3) Increased chances of fractures
(4) Isthmus (4) Increased level of estrogen is a common
cause

66. Which of the following techniques helps to

take a 3D image of the internals of an object? 72. PNS does not belong to which of the
1. MRI following system?
2. CT
3. Radiography (1) Somatic Neural System
4. Biopsy (2) Autonomic Neural System
(3) Central Neural system
67. If we are able to link an alien piece of DNA (4) Both A and B
with ……a…...We can multiply it's number equal
to the copy number of
…a…..
1. a- bacteriophage 73. Neuron is not
2. a- Plasmid
(1) Microscopic structure
3. a- bacteriophage or Plasmid
(2) Made up of cell body, Dendrites and Axon
4. a- prion
(3) Cell body contains cytoplasm with typical
cell organelles and certain granular bodies
68. Which of the following is the reason for the
called Nissl's granules
increased surface area for oxygen transfer in a
(4) Long fibres, branch repeatedly and project
sparged bioreactor ?
out of the cell body are called as Dendrites
1. Bubbles
2. Turbidity
3. Cells
4. Protein 74. A piece of nucleic acid used to find a gene,
by forming a hybrid with it, is called a
69. How much blood is pumped out by each 1. Probe
ventricle of the heart in a minute goes to the 2. Vector
kidney? 3. Restriction sequence
4. Retrovirus
1.1/5th
75. The targets of angiotensin II are blood
2.⅓ rd vessels and:

3.¼th (1) nerves

(2) adrenal cortex
4.1/6th (3) adrenal medulla
(4) kidney nephron
70. Urea is transported back to the interstitium by
1.Collecting Tubule
2.DCT
3.PCT
4.LOH

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76. A decrease in the secretion of FSH in males 83. Which of the following is wrongly matched
would: in the given table?
affect the formation of differentiated Golden Transgenic Vitamin A
1. i
sperms. rice rice enriched
have no effect as males do not have any Flavr Transgenic Delayed
2. ii
follicle for FSH to act upon. savr tobacco ripening
lead to the lack of development of secondary Bacterial and
3. Transgenic
sexual characters post-puberty. iii Bt-cotton viral
cotton
4. cause impotence and hence sterility. resistance
Milk
Transgenic contained
iv Rosie
77. Which of the following act as a secondary cow human alpha
messenger in hormonal action? lactalbumin
1. cAMP
2. ADP 1. i and ii
3. NAD 2. ii, iii, and iv
4. ATP 3. Only ii and iii
4. Only iii
78. Nucleoside consists of
1.Phosphate + Sugar + Nitogenous bases
2.Sugar + Nitogenous bases
3.Phosphate + Sugar
4.Phosphate + Nitogenous bases 84. Match the following
Column - I
79. How many of the following is not the Column - II
member of Mollusca? a. Squamous epithelium (i) Protection
Sea hare, Sea cucumber, Sea lily, Sea urchin, against chemical and mechanical stresses
Sea-pen, Sea fan, Sea anemone b. Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Movement
1. 7 of particle in a specific direction
2. 6 c. Compound epithelium (iii)
3. 1 Formation of diffusion boundary
4. 4 d. Ciliated epithelium (iv) Secretion
and absorption
80. Which of the following is Mollusc? 1. a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
1. Cuttle fish 2. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
2. Chiton 3. a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
3. Cucumaria 4. a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
4. More than one option is correct

81. All living organisms never attain

1. equilibrium state
2. non- equilibrium state
3. steady state
4. Both A and C

82. In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the

duration of luteal phase is approximate?
1. 14 days
2. 28 days
3. 30 days
4. 5 days

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85. Following is a diagrammatic representation 88. Lymph is/contains

of male reproductive tract
1. Blood minus corpuscles and fibrin proteins
2. Blood minus RBCS, platelets, some proteins
and some salts
3. Blood minus RBCs
4. Lymph is plasma minus proteins

89. Which blood cell can secrete and transport

heparin, histamin and serotonin?
1. Acidophil
2. Basophil
3. Neutrophil
4. Monocyte

90. Which one is the example of synovial joint ?

1. Joints between skull bones
2. Pubic symphysis
3. Knee joint
4. Cartilaginous joint
Which of the following labelled structure is
removed or tied up through a small incision on 91. Which of the following is likely to develop
the scrotum in case of surgical method of goitre?
contraception in males 1. Thyroid gland that is producing too much
1. A parathormone
2. B 2. Circulating levels of thyrotropin are too low
3. C 3. There is an inadequate supply of iodine
4. D 4. The diet contains too much iodine

Zoology - Section B 92. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
86. A relatively small sequence of DNA tagged Column-I Column-II
with radioactive isotopes that is used to detect
a. Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
and locate its complementary sequence in
hybridisation experiments is called as Adenosine
(1) Primer b. deaminase (ii) Cellular defence
(2) DNA probe deficiency
(3) c-DNA Detection of HIV
c. RNAi (iii)
(4) Recombinant DNA infection
Bacillus
d. PCR (iv)
87. In which of the following animals, levels of thuringiensis
organisation, Symmetry and Coelom are a b c d
similar? 1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
1. Sycon and Hydra
2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. Fasciola and Ascaris
3. Ancylostoma and Pheretima 3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. Pheretima and Locust 4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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93. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in 98. Given below are two statements: one is
the pulmonary artery is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
1. More than that in tissues labelled s Reason (R).
2. Equal to that in systemic arteries
3. Less than that in alveoli Amniocentesis for sex
4. Equal to that in the systemic vein determination is one of the
Assertion (A):
strategies of Reproductive and
94. Among the options given below, simple Child Health Care Programme.
epithelium is not found at which location? Ban on amniocentesis checks
1. Air sacs of lungs Reason (R): increasing menace of female
2. PCT foeticide.
3. Inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian
tubes In the light of the above statements, choose the
4. Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands correct answer from the options given below:
95. Which of the following is not a symptom of
1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
asthma?
1. Difficulty in breathing Both (A) and (R) Are True and (R) is the
2.
2. Breathing noisily/wheezing correct explanation of (A).
3. Alveolar walls are damaged Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the
3.
4. Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.
96. Which of the following Intrauterine devices
are most likely to make the uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to the 99.
sperms? The colostrum provides passive
1. Lippes loop Assertion (A):
immunity to the new-born baby.
2. Multiload 375 In this, the ready-made
3. Progestasert Reason (R): antibodies are directly given to
4. Cu T protect the body.
97. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Immature Iymphocytes Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1.
differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes correct explanation of (A).
in primary lymphoid organs and then migrate Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
2.
to secondary lymphoid organs correct explanation of (A).
Statement II: In Peyer's patches of the small 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
intestine, lymphocytes interact with antigens 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
and proliferate to become effector cells
In light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct

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100. Which of the following factors affect 105. A group that deactivates the benzene ring
diffusion of gases between alveoli and blood towards electrophilic substitution but which
through respiratory membrane? directs the incoming group principally to the o-
(a) Thickness of respiratory membrane and p-position is.
(b) Partial pressure gradient of gases acorss 1. -NH2
diffusion membrane 2. -Cl
(c) Solubility of gases 3. -NO2
Select the correct option 4. -C2H5
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) only
106. Which of the following element does not
3. (a) and (c) only
show the variable oxidation state?
4. (a), (b) and (c)
1. Fe
2. Mn
Chemistry - Section 3. Cu
4. Zn
A 107. Basic oxide amongst the following is:
101. The following equilibrium exists in an 1. CrO
aqueous solution 2. Cr2O3
CH3COOH ⇌H+ + CH3COO- . If dilute HCl is 3. CrO3
added to this solution: 4. Cr2O4
1. the equilibrium constant will increase
2. the equilibrium constant will decrease 108. A pair of ions having similar magnetic
3. acetate ion concentration will increase moments is:
4. acetate ion concentration will decrease
1. Ti3+,V3+
3+ 2+
102. Which of the following has greater number 2. Cr ,Mn
of electrons than neutrons? 3. Mn2+,Fe3+
1. Al3+ 4. Fe2+,Mn2+
2. O2-
3. F- 109. The number of geometrical isomers
4. C possible for a square planar complex
±n
[Mabcd] are
103. The relationship between energy E, of the (1) 2
radiation with a wavelength 8000 A0 and the (2) 3
energy of the radiation with a wavelength (3) 4
16000 A0 is: (4) 5
1. E1 = 6E2
2. E1 = 2E2 110. If the bond energies of H-H, Br-Br, and H-
3. E1 = 4E2 Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol-1 respectively,
4. E1 = 1/2E2 the ΔH° for the reaction
H2(g) + Br2(g) →2HBr(g) is
104. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, 1. -103 kJ
2. -261 kJ
S2F2 and H2S respectively are :
3. +103 kJ
1. 0, +1 and -2 4. +261 kJ
2. +2, +1 and -2
3. 0, +1 and +2
4. -2. +1 and -2

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111. CH3 115. An acid among the following acids raises

| the acidity of phenol is:
CH3 − C − O − CH2 C6 H5 1. Dil. H2SO4
| 2. Dil. HCl
CH3 can be prepared from Williamson's 3. Conc. H2SO4
synthesis using 4. Conc. CH3COOH
1. CH3

| 116.
CH3 − C − Cl and C6 H5 CH2 ON a

CH3

2. CH3 The IUPAC name of

| i​ s-
⊝ 1. 3-(Methylethyl)pentan-2-one
⊕
C6 H5 CH2 Cl and CH3 − C − O Na 2. 3-(Methylethyl)pentan-4-one
| 3. 3-Ethyl-4-Methylpentan-2-one
CH3 4. 3-Ethyl-2-Methylethyl-4-one
3. CH3

CH3 − C − CH2 Cl and C6 H5 ONa

117. Which reaction is used for detecting the
|
presence of carbonyl group?
1. Reaction with hydrazine
CH4
2. Reaction with phenylhydrazine
4. All of these
3. Reaction with hydroxylamine
4. All of the above
112. Which of the following is an elimination
reaction?
118. Adenosine is an example of:
1. CH3CH3 + Cl2 → CH3CH2Cl + HCl (1) nucleotide
2. CH 3 Cl + KOH(aq.) → CH3 OH + KCl (2) nucleoside
3. CH2=CH2 + Br2 → CH2BrCH2Br (3) purine base
(4) pyrimidine base
4. C2H5Br + KOH(aIc.) → C2H4 + KBr + H2O
119. The maximum number of alkyl groups in
C8H18 is:
113. The oxide of metal contains 40% by mass (1) 6
of oxygen. The percentage of chlorine in the (2) 5
chloride of the metal is (3) 4
1) 84.7 (4) 2
(2) 74.7
(3) 64.7 120. The total number of possible isomers for
(4) 44.7 the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl are:
[en-ethylenediamine]
114. Alkyl halides can be obtained by all 1. 2
methods except: 2. 1
1. CH3 CH2 OH + HCl / ZnCl2 −− −→ 3. 3
Cl / UV light
2 4. 4
2. CH3 − CH2 − CH3 − CH2 −−−−−−−−→
3. C2 H5 OH + NaCl −−→

4. CH3 COOAg + Br2 / CCl4 −−→

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121. The variation of the boiling point of the
hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr
> 1. It is a useful primary standard for titrating
HCl. What explains the higher boiling point of
hydrogen fluoride?
1. The electronegativity of fluorine is much
higher than for other elements in the group
2. There is strong hydrogen bonding between
HF molecules
3. The bond energy ol HF molecules is greater
than in other hydrogen halides
4. The effect of nuclear shielding is much
reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF
molecule
126. The incorrect statement among the
following regarding borax is-
against acids.
2. One molecule of borax contains 4 B— O— B
bonds.
3. Aqueous solution of borax can be used as a
buffer.
4. It is made up of two triangular BO3 units
and two tetrahedral BO4 units.
127. In which of the process, the bond order
increases and magnetic behaviour changes?
(a) N2 → N2
+

+
(b) C2 → C2
122. If the enthalpy change for the transition of (c) N O → N O+
liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at 27°C, (d) O2 → O2
+

the entropy change for the process would be

1. 1.0 J mol-1 K-1 128. H2 O has higher boiling point than H2 S
2. 0.1 J mol-1K-1 because.
3. 100 J mol-1K-1 (1) H2 O is a smaller molecule and hence more
-1
4. 10 J mol K -1 closely packed
(2) The bond angle in H2 O is more than in H2 S
123. For the reaction 2A + B −→ 3C + D which of
and hence the former molecules are more
the following does not express the reaction rate tightly packed
? (3) Of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
d[C] liquid H2 O
(1) − 3 dt (4) The latent heat of vaporisation is higher for
d[B] H2 O than for H2 S
(2) − dt
d[D]
(3) 129. The thermal decomposition of a compound
dt
d[A] is of first order. If 50 % of a sample of the
(4) − 2 dt
compound decomposes in 120 minutes, how
long will it take for 90 % of the compound to
124. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and decompose?
toluene are 160 and 60 torr respectively. The 1. 399 min
mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase in 2. 410 min
contact with an equimolar solution of benzene 3. 250 min
and toluene is - 4. 120 min
1. 0.50 2. 0.6
3. 0.27 4. 0.73 130. The reduction potential of a half-cell
consisting of a Pt electrode immersed in
1. 5 M F e
2+
and 0. 015 M F e3+ solution at
125. The molecular geometry that is least likely 25°C is (E
∘

( Fe
+3
, F e+2 )
= +0. 770 v) .
to result from a trigonal bipyramidal electron
(1) 0.652 V
geometry is:
(2) 0.88 V
1. Trigonal planar 2. See-saw (3) 0.710 V
3. Linear 4. T-shaped (4) 0.850 V

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131. Acetic acid has Ka = 1. 8 × 10−5 while 135. Among the following compounds the one
formic acid has Ka = 2. 1 × 10 . What that is most reactive towards electrophilic
−4

would be the magnitude of the emf of the cell nitration is:

1. Benzoic acid
2. Nitrobenzene
0. 1 M f ormic acid
∣ 0. 1 M acetic acid + ∣ ∣ ∣
P t(H2 )∣ ∣ ∣ 3. Toluene ∣P t(H2 ) at 25°C
∣ 0. 1 M sodium acetate ∣ ∣ 0. 1 M sodium4. Benzene
f ormate ∣

?
(1) 0.0315 volt
(2) 0.0629 volt Chemistry - Section
(3) 0.0455 volt
(4) 0.0545 volt B
136. α-D (+) glucose and β-D (+) glucose are :
132. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to 1. Diastereomers
form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. If 0.1 mole 2. Epimers
of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of 3. Anomers
X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weight of X and Y 4. Enantiomers
respectively, will be?
1. 40, 30 2. 60, 40 137. The correct thermal stability order for
H2 E, E = O, S, Se, Te and Po
3. 20, 30 4. 30, 20
among the following is:
1. H2 Se < H2 Te < H2 Po < H2 O < H2 S
133. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to 2. H2 S < H2 O < H2 Se < H2 Te < H2 Po
form an ionic compound. 3. H2 O < H2 S < H2 Se < H2 Te < H2 PO
If the ground state electronic configuration of 4. H2 Po < H2 Te < H2 Se < H2 S < H2 O
(X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3 ,
the simplest formula for this compound is: 138. What is the correct order of the boiling
1. Mg2 X3 point of the below mentioned compound?
2. MgX2 I CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
3. Mg2 X II CH3CH2CH2CHO
4. Mg3 X2 III CH3CH2CH2COOH

134. Which of the following is the most correct 1. I > II > III
electron displacement for a nucleophilic 2. III > I > II
reaction to take place? 3. I > III > II
4. III > II > I
1.

2.
139. The final product 'B' in the below-
mentioned reaction is:
3.

4.

1. Ester 2. Acetal
3. Ketal 4. Lactone

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140. The stoichiometric coefficient of S in the 145. A 5 molar solution of H2SO4 is diluted from
following reaction 1 litre to a volume of 10 litres, the normality of
H2 S + HNO3 → NO + S + H2 O is the solution will be -
balanced (In acidic medium) 1. 0.5 N
1. 1 2. 1.0 N
2. 2 3. 2.5 N
3. 3 4. 5 N
4. 4
146. A base dissolved in water yields a solution
141. If α is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, with a hydroxyl ion concentration of 0.05 mol
the vant Hoff’s factor (i) used for litre-1. The solution is
calculating the molecular mass is 1. basic
1. 1 + α 2. acid
2. 1 - α 3. neutral
3. 1 + 2α 4. either 2 or 3
4. 1 – 2 α
147. Which of the following reagent can be
142. Four structures are given in options (i) to used to convert benzenediazonium chloride
(iv). Examine them and select the aromatic into benzene
structures. 1. H3 PO2
2. LiAlH4
3. Br2 − H2 O
1. 4. CH3 OH

148. Carbylamine reaction can be given by -

2.
1. C2 H5 NO2
2. CH3 NH2
3. (CH3 )2 NH
3. 4. CH3 CONH2

149. The major product X in the given reaction

4.
is:
AgCN

143. Ionization enthalpy (Δi H1 kJ mol−1 ) for CH3 − CH2 − Br −−−−→ X

the elements of Group 13 follows the order. 1. CH3 − CH2 − CN

1. B > Al > Ga > In > Tl 2. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl 2. CH3 − CH2 Ag
3. B < Al > Ga < In > Tl 4. B > Al < Ga > In < Tl 3. CH3 − CH2 NC
4. None of the above

144. How does electron affinity change when 150. The correct statement regarding the bond
we move from left to right in a period in the angle of H2O and H2S is:
periodic table? 1. Both have the same bond angle.
1. Generally increases 2. Bond angle of H2O is larger than that of H2S
2. Generally decreases 3. Bond angle of H2O is smaller than that
3. Remains unchanged of H2S
4. First increases and then decreases
4. None of the above.

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section A
155. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the
same time in a straight line and their positions
151. A force F = aˆ i + 3 j + 6k is acting at a
ˆ are represented by xP ​(t)=at+bt2 and xQ ​(t)= ft−
The value of a for t . At what time do the cars have the same
2

point r = 2ˆi − 6 j − 12k.

ˆ ˆ
velocity ?
which angular momentum about origin is
conserved is a−f

(1) zero (2) 1 (3) -1 (4) 2 (1) 1+b ​

a+f
(2)
152. A small spherical solid ball is dropped in a 2(b−1)

viscous liquid. Its journey in the liquid is best (3) a+f

​
described in the figure by : 2(1+b)

f −a
(4) ​
2(1+b)

156. Which of the following quantities is

dimensionless
(1) Gravitational constant
(2) Planck's constant
(3) Power of a convex lens
1. Curve A (4) None
2. Curve B
3. Curve C 157. The dimensional formula for young's
4. Curve D modulus is
(1) M L−1 T −2
153. The variation of density (p) of gas with its (2) M LT
0 −2

absolute temperature (T) at constant pressure is (3) MLT–2

best represented by the graph (4) M L2 T −2

158. An object is projected upwards with a

1. 2. velocity of 100 m/s. It will strike the ground
after (approximately)
(1) 10 sec
(2) 20 sec
(3) 15 sec
(4) 5 sec
3. 4.
159. If the equation for the displacement of a
particle moving on a circular path is given by
θ = 2t + 0.5 where θ is in radians and t in
3

seconds, then the angular velocity of the

154. When a sound wave travels from one particle after 2 sec from its start is:
medium to another, the quantity that remains 1. 8 rad/sec
unchanged is : 2. 12 rad/sec
1. speed 3. 24 rad/sec
2. amplitude 4. 36 rad/sec
3. frequency
4. wavelength

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

160. A rocket has a mass of 100 kg. 90% of this
is fuel. It ejects fuel vapours at the rate of 1
kg/sec with a velocity of 500 m/sec relative to
the rocket. It is supposed that the rocket is
164. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude (e)
are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux
coming out of the cube will be:
1.
8e

outside the gravitational field. The initial ϵ0

16e
upthrust on the rocket when it just starts 2. ϵ0

moving upwards is: 3.

e

ϵ0
(1) Zero
4. zero
(2) 500 N
(3) 1000 N
165. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a
(4) 2000 N
straight line under the action of a force of 5 N.
If the work done is 25 joules, the angle which
161. A light string passing over a smooth light
the force makes with the direction of motion of
pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and
the body is
m2 (vertically). If the acceleration of the system (1) 0°
is g/8 then the ratio of the masses is (2) 30°
(1) 8 : 1 (3) 60°
(2) 9 : 7 (4) 90°
(3) 4 : 3
(4) 5 : 3 166. In a circuit with a coil of resistance 2 ohms,
the magnetic flux changes from 2.0 Wb to 10.0
162. The equivalent resistance of the following Wb in 0.2 second. The charge that flows in the
infinite network of resistances is coil during this time is
(1) 5.0 coulomb
(2) 4.0 coulomb
(3) 1.0 coulomb
(4) 0.8 coulomb

167. A charge of 10 e.s.u. is placed at a distance

of 2 cm from a charge of 40 e.s.u. and 4 cm from
(1) Less than 4 Ω another charge of 20 e.s.u. The potential energy
(2) 4 Ω of the charge 10 e.s.u. is: (in ergs)
(3) More than 4 Ω but less than 12 Ω 1. 87.5 2. 112.5
(4) 12 Ω
3. 150 4. 250
163. In the circuit element given here, if the
potential at point B, VB = 0, then the potentials
of A and D are given as

(1) VA = −1 .5 V , VD = +2 V

(2) VA = +1 .5 V , VD = +2 V

(3) VA = +1 .5 V , VD = +0 .5 V

(4) VA = +1 .5 V , VD = −0 .5 V

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168. Figure shows three points A, B and C in a 173. A body of mass (4m) is lying in xy-plane at
→ rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two
region of uniform electric field E . The line AB
pieces each of mass (m) move perpendicular to
is perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field
each other with equal speeds (v). The total
lines. Then which of the following holds good.
kinetic energy generated due to explosion is
Where VA , VB and VC represent the electric
(1) mv2
potential at points A, B and C respectively
(2) 3/2mv2

(3) 2mv2

(4) 4mv2
(1) VA = VB = VC

(2) VA = VB > VC 174. The condition under which a microwave

(3) VA = VB < VC oven heats up a food item containing water
(4) VA > VB = VC molecules most efficiently in

169. An electron moves with a constant speed v 1. the frequency of the microwave must match
along a circle of radius r. Its magnetic moment the resonant frequency of the water molecules
will be (e is the electron's charge) 2. the frequency of the microwave has no
(1) evr relation with the natural frequency of water
(2)
1
evr molecules
2
3. microwave are heatwaves, so always
(3) πr2 ev produce heating
(4) 2πrev 4. infrared waves produce heating in a
microwave oven
170. Two lines of force due to a bar magnet: 1.
Intersect at the neutral point
2. Intersect near the poles of the magnet 175. Fusion reaction takes place at high
3. Intersect on the equatorial axis of the magnet temperature because
4. Do not intersect at all (1) atoms get ionised at high temperature
(2) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome
171. A mass M is split into two parts, m and (M– the Coulomb repulsion between nuclei
m), which are then separated by a certain (3) molecules break up at high temperature
distance. What ratio of m/M maximizes the (4) nuclei break up at high temperature
gravitational force between the two parts
(1) 1/3 176. A galvanometer of resistance 50Ω is
(2) 1/2 connected to a battery of 3 V along with a
(3) 1/4 resistance of 2950 Ω in series. A full-scale
(4) 1/5 deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the
galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection
172. When two displacements represented by to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should
y1=asin(ωt) and y2=bcos(ωt) are be
superimposed,the motion is - (a) 5050Ω
(1) not a simple harmonic (b) 5550 Ω
(2) simple harmonic with amplitude a/b (c) 6050 Ω
(3) simple harmonic with amplitude √a2 + b2 (d) 4450Ω
(4) simple harmonic with amplitude (a+b)/2

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177. The stress-strain graph for two materials is 180. If the amplitude ratio of two sources
shown in the figure. If the Young's modulus for producing interference is 3 : 5, the ratio of
two materials are YA and YB , then- intensities at maxima and minima is
(1) 25 : 16
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 16 : 1
(4) 25 : 9

181. A slit of width a is illuminated by white

light. For red light (λ = 6500 Å), the first minima
is obtained at θ = 30°. Then the value of a will
be
(1) YA = YB (1) 3250 Å
(2) YA > YB (2) 6.5 × 10–4 mm
(3) YA < YB (3) 1.24 microns
(4) Can't be predicted from the graph (4) 2.6 × 10–4 cm

178. A uniform cylinder rod of length L, cross-
sectional area A and Young's modulus Y is acted
upon by the forces, as shown in the figure. The
elongation of the rod is:
182. In forward bias, the width of potential
barrier in a P-N junction diode
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant
(4) First increases then decreases

183. Two uniform strings A and B made of steel

are made to vibrate under the same tension. If
3F L the first overtone of A is equal to the second
1. 5AY overtone of B and if the radius of A is twice that
2.
2F L
of B, the ratio of the lengths of the strings is -
5AY
2F L (1) 1: 2
3. (2) 1 : 3
8AY

4.
8F L
(3) 1 : 4
3AY
(4) 1 : 6
179. Two capillary tubes of the same diameter
184. Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy
are put vertically one each in two liquids whose
(K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency (v)
relative densities are 0.8 and 0.6 and surface
for a metal used as cathode in photoelectric
tensions are 60 and 50 dyne/cm respectively
h experiment. The work function of metal is
Ratio of heights of liquids in the two tubes h is
1

10
(1) 9
3
(2) 10
10
(3) 3
9
(4) 10

1. 1 eV
2. 1.5 eV
3. 2 eV
4. 3 eV

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185. The amount of radiation emitted by a 188. Four lowest energy levels of H-atom are
perfectly black body is proportional to shown in the figure. The number of possible
(1) Temperature on ideal gas scale emission lines would be
(2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas
scale
(3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas
scale
(4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale
(1) 3
(2) 4
Physics - Section B (3) 5
186. One mole of helium is adiabatically (4) 6
expanded from its initial state (Pi , Vi , Ti ) to its
final state (Pf , Vf , Tf ). The decrease in the 189. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron
in the first Bohr orbit is
internal energy associated with this expansion (1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the
is equal to first orbit
(1) CV (Ti − Tf ) (2) Equal to half the circumference of the first
(2) CP (Ti − Tf ) orbit
1
(3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first
(3) 2 (CP + CV )(T i − Tf ) orbit
(4) (C − C )(T − T ) (4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit
P V i f

190. The temperature below which gas should

187. A cyclic process for 1 mole of an ideal gas
be cooled, before it can be liquified by pressure
is shown in the V-T diagram. The work done in
only is termed as :
AB, BC and CA respectively is:
1. The dew point
2. The freezing point
3. The saturation point
4. The critical point

191. A gas is filled in a cylinder, its temperature

is increased by 20% on Kelvin scale and volume
is reduced by 10%. How much percentage of the
gas will leak out: (Assume pressure is constant)
1. 30%
2. 40%
V1 3. 15%
1. 0, RT2 ln(
V2
), R (T1 − T2 )
4. 25%
V1
2. R (T1 − T2 ) , 0, RT1 ln
V2

V2
3. 0, RT2 ln(
V1
), R (T1 − T2 )

V2
4. 0, RT2 ln(
V1
), R (T2 − T1 )

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192. Three objects, A: (a solid sphere), B: (a thin 196. The minimum magnifying power of an
circular disk) and C: (a circular ring), each have astronomical telescope is 40. If the length of the
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin telescope is 205 cm, then the focal length of its
with the same angular speed about their own field lens is:
symmetry axes. The amount of work (W) 1. 5 cm
required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the 2. 200 cm
relation: 3. 40 cm
1. WC > WB > WA 4. 140 cm
2. WA > WB > WC
197. An inductor of inductance (L), a capacitor
3. WB > WA > WC
of capacitance (C), and a resistor of resistance
4. WA > WC > WB (R) are connected in series across
t
E = E0 sin , The reading of hot wire
√LC

193. A magnet of length 14 cm and magnetic voltmeter connected across the resistor is
moment M is broken into two parts of lengths 6 1. E0
E
cm and 8 cm. They are put at right angle to each 2. 0

√2
other with opposite poles together. The E 0

magnetic moment of the combination is 3.

2

1. M/10 4. zero
2. M
3. M/1.4 198. A coil has 500 turns and the flux through
4. 2.8 M the coil is ϕ = 3t2 + 4t + 9 milliweber. The
magnitude of induced emf between the ends of
194. An electromagnetic wave is propagating the coil at t = 5 s is:
along Y-axis. Then: 1. 34 millivolt
(1) The oscillating electric field is along X-axis 2. 17 volt
and the oscillating magnetic field is along Y- 3. 17 millivolt
axis. 4. 34 volt
(2) The oscillating electric field is along Z-axis
and the oscillating magnetic field is along X- 199. The circuit is in a steady state when the
axis. key is at position 1. If the switch is changed
(3) Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields from position 1 to position 2, then the steady
are along Y-axis, but the phase difference current in the circuit will be:
between them is 90∘
(4) Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields
are mutually perpendicular in arbitrary
directions.

195. A ray of light incident at an angle i is

refracted at angle r into a glass slab of thickness Eo
t. The lateral displacement of the emergent ray 1. R

is Eo

t sin i
2.
1. cos r 3R
Eo
t sin ( i−r ) 3.
2. cos r
2R
Eo

3. t sin (i-r) cos r 4. 4R

t sin ( i+r )
4. cos r

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

200. Given below are two statements:

Statement
Air is more elastic than iron.
I:
Statement Elasticity is directly proportional
II: to Bulk modulus.

1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

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