Physiology of exercise

1. What is exercise physiology?

A. The study of movement
B. The body's responses to physical activity
C. The study of sports and athletes
D. The study of diseases related to exercise
2. What are the two types of exercise physiology?
A. Sport and clinical
B. Muscular and cardiovascular
C. Endurance and strength training
D. Flexibility and mobility
3. What is the focus of sport exercise physiology?
A. Developing training regimens for athletes
B. Studying the body's response to physical activity
C. Understanding the effects of exercise on cognition
D. Examining the benefits of exercise for cardiovascular health
4. What is homeostasis?
A. The inner balance of the body
B. The ability to perform various exercises
C. The body's response to exercise
D. The study of movement
5. What are some of the health benefits of exercise?
A. Improved flexibility and mobility
B. Lower risk of cancer
C. Mood elevation
D. All of the above
6. What is VO2max?
A. The highest rate of oxygen uptake an individual can maintain during intense activity
B. The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per minute
C. The consumption of oxygen
D. The difference in arterial and venous oxygen levels
7. What is cardiac output?
A. The highest rate of oxygen uptake an individual can maintain during intense activity
B. The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per minute
C. The consumption of oxygen
D. The difference in arterial and venous oxygen levels
8. What is the Fick equation?
A. VO2 = [CardiacOutput] x [Difference in arterial and venous oxygen levels]
B. Q = (HR) X stroke volume (SV)
C. The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per minute
D. The consumption of oxygen
9. What is post-exercise hypotension?
A. A drop in blood pressure after exercise
B. An increase in blood pressure after exercise
C. A condition where the body cannot regulate blood pressure
D. None of the above
10. What are the three types of muscle fibers?
A. Slow-twitch, fast-twitch oxidative, and fast-twitch glycolytic
B. Endurance, strength, and flexibility
C. Cardiac, smooth, and skeletal
D. None of the above
11. What is the role of satellite cells in muscle growth?
A. To help maintain homeostasis
B. To repair and regenerate damaged muscle tissue
C. To increase bone mineral density
D. To enhance cardiovascular function
12. What is the hormone response to exercise?
A. An increase in cortisol, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
B. A decrease in insulin sensitivity
C. A decrease in testosterone levels
D. None of the above
13. What is the immunologic adjustment to exercise?
A. A decrease in the immune system
B. An increase in the susceptibility to infections
C. An enhancement of some components of the immune system
D. None of the above
14. What is the pulmonary adaptation to exercise?
A. An increase in cardiac output
B. A decrease in pulmonary ventilation
C. A decrease in available surface area for gas exchange
D. An increase in pulmonary ventilation
15. What is the peripheral resistance of blood flow related to?
A. Vessel diameter and length
B. Blood viscosity
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
16. What is the predominant muscle fiber type in marathon runners?
A. Slow-twitch fibers
B. Fast-twitch oxidative fibers
C. Fast-twitch glycolytic fibers
D. All of the above
17. What is the role of growth hormone in exercise?
A. To enhance bone and tissue growth
B. To decrease bone mineral density
C. To reduce libido
D. To decrease mood
18. What is the effect of exercise on insulin sensitivity?
A. It decreases insulin sensitivity
B. It has no effect on insulin sensitivity
C. It increases insulin sensitivity
D. None of the above
19. What is the effect of exercise on blood pressure?
A. It increases blood pressure
B. It decreases blood pressure
C. It has no effect on blood pressure
D. None of the above
20. What is the effect of exercise on cognition?
A. It has no effect on cognition
B. It decreases concentration scores
C. It increases concentrationand cognitive function
D. None of the above
21. What is lactate threshold?
A. The point during exercise where blood lactate levels begin to accumulate faster than they
can be cleared
B. The amount of lactic acid produced during exercise
C. The point during exercise where blood glucose levels begin to decrease
D. The amount of oxygen consumed during exercise
22. What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic exercise?
A. Aerobic exercise requires oxygen, while anaerobic exercise does not
B. Aerobic exercise is low intensity, while anaerobic exercise is high intensity
C. Aerobic exercise primarily uses fat for fuel, while anaerobic exercise primarily uses
carbohydrates
D. All of the above
23. What is EPOC (excess post-exercise oxygen consumption)?
A. The amount of oxygen consumed during exercise
B. The amount of oxygen consumed after exercise to restore the body to its pre-exercise state
C. The amount of oxygen consumed during recovery from an injury
D. None of the above
24. What is the role of glycogen in exercise?
A. To provide energy for muscle contraction
B. To increase blood glucose levels
C. To reduce fatigue during exercise
D. None of the above
25. What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 muscle fibers?
A. Type 1 fibers are slow-twitch, while type 2 fibers are fast-twitch
B. Type 1 fibers primarily use fat for fuel, while type 2 fibers primarily use carbohydrates
C. Type 1 fibers are used for endurance activities, while type 2 fibers are used for strength and
power activities
D. All of the above
26. What is the role of the mitochondria in exercise?
A. To produce ATP for muscle contraction
B. To regulate blood glucose levels
C. To reduce muscle damage during exercise
D. None of the above
27. What is the difference between isometric and isotonic exercise?
A. Isometric exercise involves static muscle contractions, while isotonic exercise involves
dynamic muscle contractions
B. Isometric exercise primarily uses fat for fuel, while isotonic exercise primarily uses
carbohydrates
C. Isometric exercise increases muscle flexibility, while isotonic exercise increases muscle
strength
D. None of the above
28. What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system in exercise?
A. To increase heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration during exercise
B. To decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration during exercise
C. To regulate body temperature during exercise
D. None of the above
29. What is the difference between concentric and eccentric muscle contractions?
A. Concentric contractions involve shortening of the muscle, while eccentric contractions
involve lengthening of the muscle
B. Concentric contractions primarily use fat for fuel, while eccentric contractions primarily use
carbohydrates
C. Concentric contractions increase muscle flexibility, while eccentric contractions increase
muscle strength
D. None of the above
30. What is the role of the respiratory system in exercise?
A. To deliver oxygen to the working muscles and remove carbon dioxide
B. To regulate blood glucose levels
C. To reduce muscle damage during exercise
D. None of the above
31. What is the difference between a muscle strain and a muscle sprain?
A. A muscle strain is an injury to a muscle or tendon, while a muscle sprain is an injury to a
ligament
B. A muscle strain is an injury to a ligament, while a muscle sprain is an injury to a muscle or
tendon
C. A muscle strain and a muscle sprain are the same thing
D. None of the above
32. What is the role of the endocrine system in exercise?
A. To regulate the body's response to exercise through the release of hormones
B. To regulate blood glucose levels during exercise
C. To reduce muscle damage during exercise
D. None of the above
33. What is the difference between static and dynamic stretching?
A. Static stretching involves holding a stretch in one position, while dynamic stretching involves
movement
B. Static stretching primarily uses fat for fuel, while dynamic stretching primarily uses
carbohydrates
C. Static stretching increases muscle strength, while dynamic stretching increases muscle
flexibility
D. None of the above

34. What is the role of the circulatory system in exercise?

A. To deliver oxygen and nutrients to the working muscles and remove waste products
B. To regulate body temperature during exercise
C. To reduce muscle damage during exercise
D. None of the above
35. What is the difference between a muscle spasm and a muscle cramp?
A. A musclespasm is a sudden, involuntary contraction of a muscle, while a muscle cramp is a
sustained, painful contraction of a muscle
B. A muscle spasm is a sustained, painful contraction of a muscle, while a muscle cramp is a
sudden, involuntary contraction of a muscle
C. A muscle spasm and a muscle cramp are the same thing
D. None of the above
36. Which type of muscle fibers develop a higher oxygen capacity in response to endurance
training?
a) Slow-twitch fibers
b) Fast-twitch fibers
c) Both slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers
d) None of the above
37. Which of the following is not a chronic adaptation of endurance training?
a) Increase in capillary bed density
b) Increase in slow-twitch fiber cross-sectional area
c) Increase in fast-twitch fiber cross-sectional area
d) Increase in myoglobin content in trained muscles
38. What is the primary cause of increased muscle size in response to resistance training?
a) Increase in the number of muscle fibers
b) Increased myofibril size
c) Increase in capillary bed density
d) Increased mitochondrial size
39. What is the effect of resistance training on force development in trained muscles?
a) No effect
b) Decreased force development
c) Increased force development
d) Cannot be determined from the information provided
40. Which of the following is not a ligament and tendon adaptation to prolonged training?
a) Increase in cross-sectional area of ligaments and tendons
b) Increase in insertion site strength between ligaments and bones
c) Decrease in cross-sectional area of ligaments and tendons
d) Increase in insertion site strength between tendons and bones
41. Which of the following is not a metabolic adaptation of endurance training?
a) Increase in the number of mitochondria in trained muscle
b) Increase in myoglobin content
c) Increase in glycogen storage capacity
d) Decrease in the ability to use fat as an energy source
42. What are the morphological and physiological cardiac adaptations that occur in response to
long-term aerobic exercise?
a) Decreased early diastolic filling and decreased contractile strength
b) Decreased cardiac output while exercising and decreased VO2max after exercise
c) Increased early diastolic filling and increased contractile strength
d) Increased cardiac output while exercising and decreased VO2max after exercise
43. What is the effect of endurance training on plasma volume?
a) No effect
b) Decreased plasma volume
c) Increased plasma volume
d) Cannot be determined from the information provide
44. What is the effect of increased blood volume on the left ventricle during the end-diastolic
phase?
a) The left ventricle is partially filled
b) The left ventricle is fully filled
c) The left ventricle is not affected
d) Cannot be determined from the information provided
45. What is the effect of increased blood volume on the left ventricle during the systolic phase?
a) The left ventricle contracts weakly
b) The left ventricle contracts forcefully
c) The left ventricle is not affected
d) Cannot be determined from the information provided
46. What is the term used to describe the increase in heart muscle size?
a) Hypertension
b) Hypotension
c) Hypertrophy
d) Hypotrophy
47. What is the absolute contraindication to exercise?
a) Unstable Cardiovascular Disease
b) Fever
c) Acute pulmonary embolism
d) Serious musculoskeletal injury
48. Which of the following is a precaution with exercise for patients with COPD?
a) Patients should not engage in any physical activity
b) Oxygen saturation levels should be below 88-90%
c) Patients should be stable before training
d) Patients should engage in heavyweights strength conditioning
49. Which of the following is a precaution with exercise for patients with diabetes?
a) Blood glucose should be >13 mmol or <5.5 mmol/l
b) Patients with severe diabetic peripheral or autonomic neuropathy should not engage in
exercise
c) Patients with foot ulcers should not engage in exercise
d) All of the above
50. Which of the following is not a physical fitness component?
a) Cardiorespiratory endurance
b) Body composition
c) Muscular strength
d) Cognitive functioning
51. What are the four types of exercise that are important to get?
a) Endurance, strength, balance, and flexibility
b) Endurance, strength, agility, and flexibility
c) Endurance, power, balance, and flexibility
d) Endurance, power, agility, and flexibility
52. What are the four major processes of exercise?
a) Transfusion, transmission, modulation, and perception
b) Transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception
c) Transfusion, transformation, modulation, and perception
d) Transduction, transformation, modulation, and perception
53. Which principle of exercise refers to the concept that exercise should be tailored to meet an
individual's specific needs and goals?
a) Individuality
b) Specificity
c) Progression
d) Overload
54. Which principle of exercise refers to the concept that exercise should be tailored to improve
a specific skill or physiological attribute?
a) Individuality
b) Specificity
c) Progression
d) Overload
55. Which principle of exercise refers to the concept that exercise should be gradually increased
in intensity, duration, or frequency?
a) Individuality
b) Specificity
c) Progression
d) Overload
56. Which principle of exercise refers to the concept that exercise should be challenging enough
to elicit physiological adaptations?
a) Individuality
b) Specificity
c) Progression
d) Overload
57. Which principle of exercise refers to the concept that the body will adapt to a specific
exercise stimulus over time?
a) Adaptation
b) Individuality
c) Specificity
d) Progression
58. Which principle of exercise refers to the concept that gains in fitness or performance will be
lost if exercise is discontinued?
a) Recovery
b) Reversibility
c) Progression
d) Overload
59. Which physical fitness component refers to the ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels
to deliver oxygen to working muscles?
a) Cardiorespiratory endurance
b) Body composition
c) Muscular strength
d) Muscular endurance
60. Which physical fitness component refers to the proportion of fat, muscle, and bone in the
body?
a) Cardiorespiratory endurance
b) Body composition
c) Muscular strength
d) Muscular endurance
61. Which physical fitness component refers to the ability of the muscles to exert force against
resistance?
a) Cardiorespiratory endurance
b) Body composition
c) Muscular strength
d) Muscular endurance
62. Which physical fitness component refers to the ability of the muscles to perform repeated
contractions against resistance?
a) Cardiorespiratory endurance
b) Body composition
c) Muscular strength
d) Muscular endurance
63. Which type of exercise is important for improving balance and reducing the risk of falls?
a) Endurance exercise
b) Strength training
c) Balance training
d) Flexibility training
64. Which of the following is not a process of exercise?
a) Transduction
b) Transmission
c) Modulation d) Perception
65. What is the effect of practicing the principles of specificity, progression, overload,
adaptation, and reversibility on performance?
a) No effect
b) Decreased performance
c) Increased performance
d) Cannot be determined from the information provided
66. What is the primary cause of increased muscle size in response to resistance training?
a) Increase in the number of muscle fibers
b) Increased myofibril size
c) Increase in capillary bed density
d) Increased mitochondrial size
67. Which of the following is not a metabolic adaptation of endurance training?
a) Increase in the number of mitochondria in trained muscle
b) Increase in myoglobin content
c) Increase in glycogen storage capacity
d) Decrease in the ability to use fat as an energy source
68. What is the effect of endurance training on plasma volume?
a) No effect
b) Decreased plasma volume
c) Increased plasma volume
d) Cannot be determined from the information provided

kinesiology
1. What is kinesiology?
a) The study of injuries related to sports and exercise
b) The study of human movement
c) The study of the psychological aspects of physical activity
d) The study of the social and cultural aspects of physical activity
2. What are the fields of specialization within kinesiology?
a) Exercise physiology, sports medicine, and physical therapy
b) Biomechanics, psychology, and sociology
c) Motor behavior and control, recreation and leisure studies, and ergonomics
d) All of the above
3. What is sports medicine?
a) The study of human movement
b) The study of physical activity-related injuries and their prevention, diagnosis, and treatment
c) The study of exercise physiology
d) The study of biomechanics
4. Which professionals are involved in sports medicine?
a) Physicians, athletic trainers, and nutritionists
b) Exercise physiologists, physical therapists, and biomechanists
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
5. What is exercise physiology?
a) The study of physical activity-related injuries and their prevention, diagnosis, and treatment
b) The study of human movement
c) The study of the body's responses to physical activity and how it adapts over time
d) The study of the social and cultural aspects of physical activity
6. What is the role of exercise physiologists?
a) To provide supervised exercise programs for patients with chronic medical concerns
b) To work with healthy to moderately healthy adults to improve physical fitness
c) To condition clients to higher levels of physical fitness and improved health
d) All of the above
7. What is the preferred substrate for energy during high intensity activity?
a) Fat
b) Carbohydrates
c) Protein
d) Water
8. Which energy source provides the greatest contribution to energy provision in the first 10
seconds of high intensity activities such as sprinting?
a) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b) Adenylate kinase reaction
c) Phosphocreatine system
d) Glycolysis
9. How is ATP resynthesized from energy-dense molecules?
a) Through the adenylate kinase reaction
b) Through the phosphocreatine system
c) Through glycolysis
d) All of the above
10. What is the pathway by which glycogen and glucose are converted to pyruvate?
a) Krebs cycle
b) Electron transport chain
c) Glycolysis
d) Beta-oxidation
11. What happens when oxygen is not present during exercise?
a) The Krebs cycle proceeds via acetyl CoA
b) The electron transport chain proceeds normally
c) Pyruvate builds up and glycolysis stops
d) Fat metabolism becomes the dominant energy source
12. How are fatty acids catabolized?
a) Through the adenylate kinase reaction
b) Through the phosphocreatine system
c) Through the Krebs cycle
d) Through beta-oxidation
13. Which energy source is more energy-dense, glycogen or fatty acids?
a) Glycogen
b) Fatty acids
c) They are equally energy-dense
d) It depends on the type of exercise being performed
14. What is the rate of ATP resynthesis from fat during high intensity activity?
a) Too fast to be of great importance
b) Too slow to be of great importance
c) The same as the rate of ATP resynthesis from carbohydrates
d) None of the above
15. What is the preferred substrate for energy during resting metabolism?
a) Fat
b) Carbohydrates
c) Protein
d) Water
16. What is the role of the Clinical Exercise Physiology Program (CEPP)?
a) To prepare graduate students for careers as advanced exercise professionals in clinical,
research, and wellness settings
b) To provide supervised exercise programs for patients with heart and lung disease
c) To work with healthy to moderately healthy adults to improve physical fitness
d) To study the social and cultural aspects of physical activity
17. What are the factors that affect the physiological response to exercise?
a) Intensity, duration, and frequency of exercise, as well as environmental conditions
b) Age, gender, and body weight
c) Nutrition and hydration status
d) All of the above
18. What are the requirements for oxygen and substrate in skeletal muscle during physical
exercise?
a) They are decreased compared to resting metabolism
b) They are the same as resting metabolism
c) They are increased compared to resting metabolism
d) They are not necessary during physical exercise
19. What are the stimuli that affect alterations in metabolic, cardiovascular, and ventilatory
function during physical exercise?
a) Chemical, mechanical, and thermal stimuli
b) Social and psychological stimuli
c) Nutritional and hydration stimuli
d) None of the above
20. What is the role of ATPase during physical exercise?
a) To store ATP in skeletal muscle
b) To use the energy stored in the bond between adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic
phosphate (Pi)
c) To convert ADP to ATP
d) To convert Pi to ATP
21. How much energy does each mole of ATP release?
a) 7.3 kJ
b) 30.7 kJ
c) 73 kJ
d) 307 kJ
22. What is the role of phosphocreatine (PCr) during physical exercise?
a) To store ATP in skeletal muscle
b) To convert ADP to ATP
c) To provide a buffer in the first few seconds of exercise
d) To provide energy for muscle contraction
23. What is the role of the adenylate kinase reaction in energy production during physical
exercise?
a) To store ATP in skeletal muscle
b) To convert ADP to ATP
c) To provide a buffer in the first few seconds of exercise
d) To provide energy for muscle contraction
24. What is the role of the Krebs cycle during energy production from substrates?
a) To convert fatty acids to energy
b) To convert glucose to pyruvate
c) To produce hydrogen carriers that enter the electron transport chain
d) To provide a buffer in the first few seconds of exercise
25. What is the role of the electron transport chain during energy production from substrates?
a) To produce ATP from hydrogen carriers
b) To produce hydrogen carriers from ATP
c) To convert fatty acids to glucose
d) To convert glucose to pyruvate
26. What is the role of acetyl CoA during energy production from substrates?
a) To convert glucose to pyruvate
b) To produce ATP from hydrogen carriers
c) To convert fatty acids to energy
d) To store ATP in skeletal muscle
27. What is the role of beta-oxidation during energy production from substrates?
a) To convert fatty acids to energy
b) To convert glucose to pyruvate
c) To produce ATP from hydrogen carriers
d) To store ATP in skeletal muscle
28. What is the yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of a typical fat (palmitate)?
a) 7.3 kcal (30.7 kJ)
b) 129 molecules of ATP
c) 1 molecule of ATP
d) None of the above
29. How does fat metabolism contribute to energy production during physical exercise?
a) It is the preferred substrate for energy during high intensity activity
b) It provides quantitatively the greatest contribution to energy provision in the first 10 seconds
of high intensity activities
c) It allows exercise at a maximal intensityfor a longer duration
d) It is not a significant contributor to energy production during high intensity exercise
30. What is the lactate threshold?
a) The point at which blood lactate concentration begins to increase during exercise
b) The point at which blood lactate concentration decreases during exercise
c) The point at which fatigue sets in during exercise
d) The point at which oxygen consumption is highest during exercise
31. What is the cause of the lactate threshold?
a) Insufficient oxygen supply to skeletal muscle
b) Insufficient glucose supply to skeletal muscle
c) Insufficient fat supply to skeletal muscle
d) Insufficient PCr supply to skeletal muscle
32. What are the benefits of exercise training?
a) Improved cardiovascular and metabolic health, improved musculoskeletal health, and
improved mental health
b) Improved social and cultural health, improved cognitive function, and improved immune
function
c) Improved respiratory function, improved digestive function, and improved renal function
d) All of the above
33. What is the FITT principle?
a) Frequency, intensity, time, and type of exercise
b) Fatigue, injury, time, and temperature of exercise
c) Frequency, intensity, temperature, and type of exercise
d) Fatigue, intensity, time, and type of exercise
34. What is the goal of the cardiovascular exercise prescription?
a) To improve cardiovascular and metabolic health
b) To improve musculoskeletal health
c) To improve mental health
d) To improve social and cultural health
35. What is the goal of the resistance exercise prescription?
a) To improve musculoskeletal health
b) To improve cardiovascular and metabolic health
c) To improve mental health
d) To improve social and cultural health
36. What is the recommended frequency of cardiovascular exercise for healthy adults?
a) 1-2 days per week
b) 3-4 days per week
c) 5-6 days per week
d) 7 days per week
37. What is the recommended duration of cardiovascular exercise for healthy adults?
a) 10-20 minutes per session
b) 20-30 minutes per session
c) 30-60 minutes per session
d) 60-90 minutes per session
38. What is the recommended intensity of cardiovascular exercise for healthy adults?
a) Low to moderate intensity (40-60% of maximal heart rate)
b) Moderate to high intensity (60-80% of maximal heart rate)
c) High intensity (above 80% of maximal heart rate)
d) Any intensity, as long as the duration is long enough
39. What is the recommended frequency of resistance exercise for healthy adults?
a) 1-2 days per week
b) 2-3 days per week
c) 4-5 days per week
d) 6-7 days per week
40. What is the recommended number of sets and repetitions for resistance exercise for
healthy adults?
a) 1 set of 5-10 repetitions
b) 2-3 sets of 8-12 repetitions
c) 3-4 sets of 12-15 repetitions
d) 5-6 sets of 20-25 repetitions
41. What is the recommended intensity of resistance exercise for healthy adults?
a) Low intensity (less than 50% of 1 rep max)
b) Moderate intensity (50-70% of 1 rep max)
c) High intensity (70-85% of 1 rep max)
d) Maximum intensity (above 85% of 1 rep max)

Lung volume

1. What is the apparatus used to record lung volumes?

a) Spirometer
b) Sphygmomanometer
c) Oximeter
d) Stethoscope
2. What is the physiological function of residual volume?
a) To increase PO2 in the blood
b) To decrease PCO2 in the blood
c) To aerate blood between breaths
d) To increase PO2 and decrease PCO2 in the blood
3. What is the clinical function of the ratio between residual volume and total lung capacity?
a) To diagnose restrictive lung disease
b) To diagnose obstructive lung disease
c) To measure the strength of respiratory muscles
d) To diagnose pregnancy
4. What is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume?
a) Total lung capacity
b) Vital capacity
c) Inspiratory capacity
d) Functional residual capacity
5. What is the volume of air that remains in the lung after normal expiration?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Residual volume
6. What is the maximal amount of air that can be expired after maximal inspiration?
a) Inspiratory capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Total lung capacity
7. What is the ratio of residual volume to total lung capacity in normal individuals?
a) Less than 30%
b) More than 30%
c) Equal to 30%
d) It varies depending on age and gender
8. What is the maximal volume of air that can be inspired after the end of normal expiration by
deepest inspiration?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Inspiratory capacity
9. What is the volume of air that can be expired from the end of normal expiration by deepest
expiration?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Inspiratory capacity
10. What is the volume of air expired in the first second during timed vital capacity?
a) FEV1
b) FVC
c) MFR
d) IC
11. What is the normal value of FEV1 as a percentage of vital capacity?
a) 80%
b) 90%
c) 97%
d) 100%
12. What is the volume of air expired in the first, second, and third seconds during timed vital
capacity?
a) FEV1
b) FVC
c) MFR
d) IC
13. What is the ratio of FEV1 to FVC in restrictive lung disease?
a) Increased
b) Normal
c) Decreased
d) It varies depending on the disease severity
14. What is the ratio of FEV1 to FVC in obstructive lung disease?
a) Increased
b) Normal
c) Decreased
d) It varies depending on the disease severity
15. What is the maximal volume of air that can be inspired or expired per minute using the
fastest and deepest respiratory effort?
a) Inspiratory capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Maximal breathing capacity
16. What is the normal range of maximal breathing capacity in males?
a) 20-40 liter/min
b) 40-80 liter/min
c) 80-160 liter/min
d) 160-320 liter/min

17. What is the normal range of maximal breathing capacity in females?

a) 20-40 liter/min
b) 40-80 liter/min
c) 60-120 liter/min
d) 120-240 liter/min
18. What is the mechanism of measuring maximal breathing capacity?
a) Using a peak flow meter
b) Using a spirometer
c) Using a sphygmomanometer
d) Using an oximeter
19. What is the ratio between breathing reserve and maximal breathing capacity called?
a) FEV1/FVC
b) Tidal volume
c) Dyspnea index
d) Inspiratory capacity
20. What is the value of the breathing reserve in a normal individual?
a) 154 liters/min
b) 160 liters/min
c) 166 liters/min
d) 170 liters/min
21. What condition can cause a decrease in maximal flow rate?
a) Bronchial asthma
b) Lung fibrosis
c) Emphysema
d) Pregnancy
22. What is the volume of air inspired or expired each breath during rest quiet breath?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Residual volume
23. What is the maximal volume of air that can be inspired from the end of normal inspiration
by use of deepest inspiration?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Inspiratory capacity
24. What is the maximal volume of air that can be expired from the end of normal expiration by
deepest expiration?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Expiratory capacity
25. What is the volume of air that remains in the lung after maximal expiration called?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Residual volume
26. What is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve
volume?
a) Inspiratory capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Total lung capacity
27. What is the maximal amount of air present in the lung after maximal inspiration?
a) Inspiratory capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Total lung capacity
28. Which of the following factors does not affect vital capacity?
a) Age
b) Gender
c) Physical fitness
d) Blood pressure
29. What is the volume of air expired in the second second during timed vital capacity?
a) FEV1
b) FVC
c) MFR
d) IC
30. What is the term used to describe the maximal velocity of the expired air using maximal
effort?
a) Maximal breathing capacity
b) Maximal flow rate
c) Inspiratory capacity
d) Dyspnea index
31. What is the term used to describe the volume of air that can be expired forcefully in the
first second of a forced expiration after a maximal inspiration?
a) Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
b) Forced vital capacity (FVC)
c) Maximal breathing capacity (MBC)
d) Inspiratory capacity (IC)
32. What is the normal value of FEV1/FVC ratio in healthy individuals?
a) Less than 70%
b) More than 70%
c) Equal to 70%
d) It varies depending on age and gender
33. Which of the following lung volumes/capacities cannot be measured directly using
spirometry?
a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Residual volume
34. Which of the following lung volumes/capacities is decreased in restrictive lung diseases?
a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Vital capacity
d) Residual volume
35. Which of the following lung volumes/capacities is increased in obstructive lung diseases?
a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Residual volume
36. What is the maximum amount of air that can be inspired after a normal expiration called?
a) Inspiratory capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Total lung capacity
37. What is the volume of air that can be expired from the end of normal expiration by forced
expiration called?
a) Inspiratory reserve volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Tidal volume
d) Forced expiratory volume
38. Which of the following lung volumes/capacities is used to calculate the FEV1/FVC ratio?
a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Vital capacity
39. What is the term used to describe the volume of air that can be expired during a slow,
passive exhalation after a normal expiration?
a) Tidal volume
b) Expiratory reserve volume
c) Forced vital capacity
d) Forced expiratory volume
40. Which of the following lung volumes/capacities is the sum of expiratory reserve volume and
residual volume?
a) Functional residual capacity
b) Inspiratory capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Total lung capacity