생화학 답지

CHAPTER ONE
BIOCHEMISTRY: AN INTRODUCTION
1) The ultimate source of energy for life on earth is __________.
A) The sun
B) Geothermal heat
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fats
E) Other organisms
2) Which of the following is not a common component of biomolecules?
A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrogen
E) Chlorine
3) Which of the following is the basic structural unit of living organisms?
A) Nucleus
B) Cell membrane
C) Tissue
D) Cell
E) Cytoskeleton
4) Which of the following is not an organelle?
A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Nucleus
D) Plasma membrane
E) Golgi complex
5) Which of the following is not a role played by carbohydrates in living cells?
A) Energy source
B) Structural support
C) Intercellular communication
D) Both A and B are correct
E) All are roles played by carbohydrates in living cells
6) Metabolism is best defined as the _________.
A) Reactions of living cells

B) Reactions that synthesize large molecules in living cells
C) Reactions that degrade molecules in living cells
D) Conversion of food molecules to energy
E) Reactions that synthesize and degrade molecules in living cells
7) The average life span of a species is about ________years
A) One million
B) Ten million
C) Five hundred thousand
D) Five million
E) One hundred thousand
8) Which of the following is not a waste product of living organisms
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water
C) Urea
D) Ammonia
E) Glycine
9) Biochemistry is defined as
A) The study of life processes

B) The study of the molecular basis of life
C) The study of living organisms
D) The study of organic compounds in living organisms
E) The study of living compounds
10) One of the principal methods that organisms use to obtain energy from chemical bonds is by
___________.
A) Substitution reactions
B) Dehydration reactions
C) Oxidation/reduction reactions
D) Hydration reactions
E) Addition reactions
11) The following is an example of which reaction class?
CH3Br + HSCH2CH(NH2)COOH CH3SCH2CH(NH2)COOH + Br- + H+
A) Substitution
B) Elimination
C) Addition
D) Isomerization
E) Oxidation/Reduction
12 The following is an example of which reaction class
HOOCCH=CHCOOH + H2O HOOCCH2CH(OH)COOH
A) Substitution
B) Elimination
C) Addition
D) Isomerization
13) The following is an example of which reaction class?
CH3CH2OH CH3CHO + H2O
A) Substitution
B) Elimination
C) Addition
D) Isomerization
14) Which of the following is not a component of nucleic acid?
A) Nucleotides
B) Glucose
C) Phosphate group
D) Purines
E) Pyrimidines
15) The largest molecules in living organisms are _________.
A) proteins
B) lipids
C) nucleic acids
D) carbohydrates
E) steroids
16) All of the following classes of compounds are lipids except _______.
A) fats
B) sterols
C) fatty acids
D) phosphoglycerides
E) nucleotides
17) Which of the following classes of biomolecules are the most abundant in nature?
A) Lipids
B) Amino acids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Proteins
E) Nucleotides
18) Consider the following molecule. Which arrow is pointing to a peptide bond?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
19) The following molecule is an example of which single class of compounds?
CH3CH2CH(NH2)COOH
A) Amine
B) Acid
C) Ester
D) Amino acid
E) Alcohol
20) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds?
CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3
A) Hydrocarbon
B) Acid
C) Ester
D) Ether
E) Aldehyde
21) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds?
CH3CH2CH2COOH
A) Hydrocarbon
B) Acid
C) Alcohol
D) Aldehyde
E) Ketone
22) The chemical properties of organic molecules are determined by specific arrangements of atoms
called _____________.
A) Structure
B) Bonds
C) Functional groups
D) Radicals
E) Molecules
23) Which of the following classes of compounds make up most of the mass of an organism?
A) Amino acids
B) Proteins
C) Lipids
D) Carbohydrates
E) Water
24) Which of the following is not a basic element of life
A) Phosporus
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen
E) All of the above are basic elements of life
25) Most biomolecules can be considered to be derivatives of
A) Amino acids
B) Carbohydrates
C) Fats
D) Hydrocarbons
E) Alcohols
26) Which of the following amino acids contain a hydrophobic side chain
A) Leucine
B) Arginine
C) Glutamine
D) Glutamic acid
E) Aspartic acid
27) Which of the following small molecules do not for biopolymers
A) Amino acids
B) Sugars
C) Fatty acids
D) Nucleotides
E) C and D
28) Choose the amino acid that can function as a neurotransmitter

A) Glutamic acid
B) Alanine
C) Tyrosine
D) Lysine
E) Cysteine
29) A constant source of _______ is required for maintenance of a cell’s ordered state.
A) Heat
B) Oxygen
C) Energy
D) Stimulus
E) Water
30) Which of the following is not true of life?
A) Life is cellular
B) Life is information based
C) Life is complex and dynamic
D) All living things produce energy using mitochondria
E) Life adapts and evolves
31) The most abundant biomolecules found in nature are
A) Amino acids
B) Fatty acids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Proteins
E) Fats
32) Which of the following is not a component of DNA
A) Uracil
B) Adenine
C) Cytosine
D) Guanidine
E) Thymine
33) The sum total of all reactions of a organism is called
A) Life
B) Metabolism
C) Biosynthesis
D) Anabolism
E) Energetics
34) Which of the following is not characteristic of an autopoietic system?
A) Autonomous
B) Self-organizing
C) Self-maintaining
D) Intelligent
E) B and D
35) The assumption that a complete understanding of a living organism can be obtained solely by
investigating all of its components is called _________.
A) Systems biology
B) Reductionism
C) Emergence
D) Robustness
E) Feedback control
36) Which of the following is not a core principle of systems biology?
A) Emergence
B) Robustness
C) Redundancy
D) Modularity
E) Limit of resolution
37) The field of study associated with the investigation of gene expression patterns is called:
A) Proteomics
B) Bioinformatics
C) Genomics
D) Functional genomics
E) Synomics
38) Which of the following is not an example of a macromolecule?
A) Nucleic acid
B) Protein
C) Polysaccharide
D) Enzyme
E) Amino acid
39) Which of the following is not considered a class of small biomolecule?
A) Amino acid
B) Sugar
C) Nucleic Acid
D) Fatty acid
E) Nucleotide
40) The functional group present in the following molecule is called:

A) Amine
B) Ketone
C) Amide
D) Ester
E) Acid
41) The majority of Earth’s species belong to which of the following classifications
A) Eukaryotes
B) Prokaryotes
C) Viruses
D) Mammals
E) Archea
42) The conversion of earths atmosphere from anerobic to aerobic was due to the development of
_________________ by cyanobacteria
A) Photosynthesis
B) Metabolism
C) Chemosynthesis
D) Oxidation of iron
E) Fixation of nitrogen as cyanide
43) The largest mass extinction also known as the great dying was called the
A) Cenezoic extinction
B) Permian extinction
C) Mesozoic event
D) Great ice age
E) The great plague
44) The most prominent function of RNA is
A) Energy source
B) Nutrient source
C) Protein synthesis
D) Structural elements
E) B and C
45) An organisms entire set of DNA is called

A) Genome
B) Genetic sequence
C) Polynucleotide sequence
D) Gene
E) Inheritance
46) The major function of carbohydrates is
A) Catalysts and structural elements

B) Energy sources and structural elements
C) Genetic information
D) Protein synthesis
E) Insulation
CHAPTER TWO
LIVING CELLS
1) During exocytosis membrane-bound vesicles migrate from the Golgi apparatus to the __________.
A) Lysosome
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) Cell wall
D) Plasma membrane
E) More than one answer is correct
2) Notable features of eukaryotes include all of the following except ________.
A) Rapid cell division

B) Larger size
C) A complex internal structure
D) An endomembrane system
E) Organelles
3) Gram-negative bacteria lack _________.
A) Cell walls
B) Peptidoglycans in the cell wall
C) An outer coat of lipid bound proteins
D) DNA
E) Carbohydrate containing polymers in the cell wall
4) The plasma membrane _________.
A) Provides support
B) Is present only in eukaryotes
C) Controls the flow of substances in and out of the cell
D) Is present only in prokaryotes
E) Both A and C are correct
5) Structural features that make phospholipids suited for their biological role are:
A) A hydrophilic head group
B) Branched carbon chains
C) A hydrophobic group
D) A and C are correct
E) None of the above are true
6) The grainy appearance of prokaryotic cytoplasm is due in part to ________.
A) A large number of ribosomes

B) Plasmids
C) Nucleolus
D) DNA
E) RNA
7) Which of the following types of molecules is not hydrophilic
A) Sodium chloride
B) Glucose
C) Amino acids
D) Fats
E) A and B
8) The basic structure of biological membranes is provided by what class of compounds?
A) Proteins
B) Lipids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Steroids
E) Peptidoglycans
9) Which of the following is not true of the nucleus?
A) It is found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

B) It contains the cell’s “genetic blueprint”
C) It exerts a profound influence over all cellular metabolic functions
D) It contains chromatin fibers
E) It is bounded by membrane
10) Which of the following statements is not true of the endoplasmic reticulum?
A) It often constitutes more than half of the cell’s total membrane

B) It exists in two forms: rough and smooth
C) Rough ER is responsible for protein synthesis
D) Smooth ER is responsible for lipid synthesis
E) Rough ER ribosomes are responsible for biotransformation.
11) Which of the following is not true of eukaryotic ribosomes?
A) They are macromolecular machines

B) They function in the biosynthesis of proteins
C) They contain ribosomal RNA
D) They consist of two unequally sized subunits
E) They are attached to the smooth ER
12) Which of the following statements is not true of the Golgi apparatus?
A) The analogous plant structure is referred to as a dictyosome

B) It has two faces
C) The cisterna or forming face usually projects toward the ER
D) It is involved in the packaging and secretion of cell products
E) It is usually located near the plasma membrane
13) Which of the following statements is not true of the lysosome?
A) It functions in intercellular digestion

B) Both ER and Golgi apparatus are involved in its formation
C) It is capable of degrading most biomolecules
D) It is involved in the packaging and secretion of cell products
E) It is involved in pathological conditions such as gout and rheumatoid arthritis
14) Acid hydrolases are found in ___________.
A) Ribosomes
B) Lysosomes
C) Golgi Apparatus
D) Dictyosomes
E) Smooth ER
15) The main role of peroxisomes is _____________.
A) Anaerobic respiration
B) Aerobic respiration
C) Lipid oxidation
D) Generation and destruction of peroxides
E) Carbohydrate oxidation
16) Biological machines are derived from which class of compounds
A) Fats
B) Proteins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Ribosomes
E) B and C
17) Which of the following organelles is involved in aerobic metabolism?

A) Mitochondria
B) Peroxisomes
C) Glyoxysomes
D) Ribosomes
E) Lysosomes
18) Respiratory assemblies are responsible for the synthesis of ___________.
A) ATP
B) NADH
C) GTP
D) Hydrogen peroxide
E) ADP
19) The two membranes of the mitochondria create two separate compartments called the intermembrane
space and the __________.
A) Cristae
B) Matrix
C) Lumen
D) Cisternae
E) Vesicle
20) Which of the following statements is not true of the mitochondrial matrix?
A) It contains enzymes responsible for nucleotide metabolism

B) It contains circular DNA molecules
C) It contains all of the necessary compounds for protein synthesis
D) It has a gel-like consistency
E) It has a high concentration of enzymes and ions
21) The excluded volume of a cell varies between _____ and ______%.
A) 5-10
B) 10-20
C) 20-40
D) 40-50
E) 0-5
22) Plastids are plant structures similar to what organelle found in animals?
A) Ribosomes
B) Leucoplasts
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Peroixsomes
E) None of the above is correct
23) The stroma of plastids is analogous to what structure of mitochondria?
A) Grana
B) Matrix
C) Inner membrane
D) Outer membrane
E) Cisternal space
24) Which of the following help make up the cytoskeleton?
A) Microtubules
B) Microfilaments
C) Intermediate fibers
D) B and C are correct
E) All are correct
25) Mitochondria and _________ consume molecular oxygen.
A) Plastids
B) Ribosomes
C) Peroxisomes
D) Lysosome
E) Golgi apparatus
26) Which of the following is present only in prokaryotic cells?
A) Nucleus
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Plasma membrane
D) Nucleolus
27) Biotransformation is defined as:
A) The preparation of water-insoluble substances for excretion

B) Oxidation of organic molecules
C) Transformation of food molecules to ATP
D) Reactions occuring within a living system
E) Conversion of harmless compounds to toxins
28) In place of a nucleus a prokaryotic cell has a __________.
A) Mesosome
B) Nucleoid
C) Centrosome
D) Nucleosome
E) Reticulosome
29) Which of the following eukaryotic organelles is a key regulator of apoptosis?
A) Mitochondria
B) Flagella
C) Chloroplasts
D) Cilia
E) Ribosomes
30) Which of the following is not a role of transmembrane proteins?
A) Transport of ions
B) Structural support
C) Transport of nutrients
D) Receptors
E) Enzymes
31) Which of the following is not a membrane protein?
A) Channel protein
B) Carrier protein
C) Receptors
D) Integral proteins
E) Motor proteins
32) Examples of eukaryotic signal molecules are:
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Hormones
C) Cytokines
E) All of the above are correct
33) Which of the following is not a phase of the information processing mechanism?
A) Reception
B) Transduction
C) Response
D) Transformation
34) Which of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?
A) Plasma membrane
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Lysosomes
E) Ribosomes
35) The carbohydrate coat of a cell is called the:
A) Extracellular matrix
B) Glycocalyx
C) Cell cortex
D) Fibroblast
36) The perinuclear space is:

A) The space between the nucleus and the cytoplasm
B) The space between the membranes of the nuclear envelope
C) The space between the nucleus and the nucleous
D) The space between DNA and histones
E) Both A and B are correct
37) Which of the following organelles are involved in autophagy?
A) Mitochondria
B) Lysosomes
C) Chloroplasts
D) Golgi apparatus
E) Both B and C are correct
38) Which of the following molecules is not an example of a type of eukaryotic signal molecule
type?
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Hormones
C) Cytokinins
D) Endotoxins
E) A and B
39 Of the 100 approximately trillion free living cells in the human body how many are actually human
cells?
A) All of them
B) 50 Trillion
C) 90 Trillion
D) 10 Trillion
E) 80 Trillion
40) Analysis of the RNA of prokaryotes reveals that there are ______ distinct types of
prokaryotes.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Five
41) Which of the following are microbiota
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Archea
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
42) Which of the following are techniques used by the body to protect itself against
indigenous micobiota
A) Impenetrable epithelial tissue
B) Immune system cells
C) Antimicrobial proteins
D) Beta defensins
E) All of the above
43) Which of the following is a superorganism
44) The endocytotic cycle is
A) A means of remodeling plasma membrane

B) A form a signal transduction
C) Cycling of sodium and potassium ions through the cell membrane
D) Continuous recycling of membrane through endocytosis and exocytosis
E) A and D
CHAPTER THREE
WATER THE MATRIX OF LIFE
1) The most important factor in the evolution of life on earth is _______.
A) The sun
B) Oxygen
C) Water
D) Dry land
E) A reducing atmosphere
2) A hydrogen bond is best defined as:
A) A strong chemical bond between hydrogen and another element

B) A weak chemical bond between hydrogen and another element
C) A relatively strong electrostatic bond between hydrogen and oxygen or nitrogen
D) A weak electrostatic bond between hydrogen and oxygen or nitrogen
E) A bond between two hydrogens
3) Which of the following compounds is capable of hydrogen bonding with like molecules?
A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
B) CH3CH2OCH2CH3
C) CH3NH2
D) HOCH2CH2OH
E) Both C and D are correct
4) Which of the following is not a type of van der Waals force?
A) Dipole-dipole interactions
B) Dipole-induced dipole interactions
C) Induced dipole – induced dipole interactions
D) Chemical bonds
E) Hydrogen bonds
5) Which of the following is not an example of noncovalent interactions between molecules?
A) Salt bridges
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Hydrophobic interactions
D) Ionic bonds
E) Chemical bonds
6) Which of the following factors is responsible for the fact that water is a liquid at room temperature?
A) Covalent O-H bonds

B) Ionic bonds
C) Hydrogen bonds
D) Hydrophobic bonding between water molecules
E) The molecular weight of water
7) Which of the following properties of water promotes the relatively constant climate of earth?
A) High heat of fusion

B) High surface tension
C) High heat of vaporization
D) High heat capacity
E) A, C, and D are all important
8) Which of the following compounds is amphipathic?
A) H2O
B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
C) HOOCCOOH
D) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH
E) Both A and D are correct
9) Which of the following is a hydronium ion?
A) H3O+
B) OH-
C) HOOH
D) CH3OH2+
E) H4O++
10)Which of the following is the conjugate acid of the bicarbonate ion?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) Which of the following statements is true of weak acids dissolved in water?
A) They are completely ionized in water

B) They are totally unionized in water
C) They are partially ionized in water
D) The dissociation constant is a function of pH
E) The dissociation constant is a function of solute concentration
12) What is the pH of a solution where the concentration of hydrogen ions is 2 x 10 -5 molar?
A) 5
B) 2.5
C) 2
D) 4.7
E) 5.3
13) Which of the following would not form a suitable buffer?
A) Acetic acid/ acetate

B) Carbonic acid/ bicarbonate
C) Bicarbonate/ carbonate
D) Hydrochloric acid/ chloride
E) Phosphoric acid/ dihydrogen phosphate
14) Buffering capacity is directly proportional to which of the following factors?
A) Molecular weight of the buffer

B) Concentration of the conjugate acid of the buffer
C) Concentration of the conjugate base of the buffer
D) Concentration of both components of the buffer
E) The acid or base to be buffered against
15) The sodium acetate/acetic acid buffer is 0.1 molar in sodium acetate and 0.5 molar
in acetic acid. What is the concentration of the buffer?
A) 0.1 molar
B) 0.5 molar
C) 0.6 molar
D) 0.4 molar
E) Either A or B depending on whether acid or base is being added to the buffer.
16) The pH of a solution that is 0.25 molar in acetic acid and 0.1 molar in sodium acetate is 4.36. What is
the pKa of acetic acid?
A) 4.36
B) 4.76
C) 7.76
D) 3.76
E) 5.76
17) The most important buffer in blood is __________.
A) Carbonate/bicarbonate buffer
B) Protein buffer
C) Phosphate buffer
D) Lactate buffer
E) Tartrate buffer
18) When an individual breathes very rapidly, large amounts of carbon dioxide are exhaled. What effect
does this have on blood pH?
A) Acidosis
B) Alkalosis
C)No change
D) First acidosis then rebounding alkalosis
E) First alkalosis then rebounding acidosos
19) Salt bridges in proteins are an example of _________.
A) Hydrogen bonds
B) Ionic interactions
D) van der Waals forces
E) London dispersion forces
20) What is the osmorlarity of a solution that is 0.25 molar in trisodium phosphate?
A) 0.25 osmolar
B) 0.5 osmolar
C) 0.75 osmolar
D) 1.0 osmolar
E) None of the above are correct
21) Red blood cells are isotonic to a solution that is 0.9% sodium chloride. These same cells are
_______________ to a solution that is 0.9% sodium sulfate.
A) Isotonic
B) Hypertonic
C) Hypotonic
D) Tonic
E) Nontonic
22) Which of the following molecules would have a dipole moment?
A) CCl4
B) CH3CH3
C) H2
D) CHCl3
E) I2
23) Which of the following molecules would form a micelle?
A) NaCl
B) CH3COOH
C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
D) H3PO4
E) CH3(CH2)10COO- Na +
24) Which of the following molecules are weak acids?
A) HCl
B) CO3-2
C) HNO3
D) HCO3-
E) Both B and D
25) Which of the following ions would have the largest hydration sphere?
A) Li+
B) Na+
C) K+
D) Cs+
E) All would have the same size hydration sphere
26) Hydration is best defined as
A) Covalent interaction between water and a solute

B) Noncovalent interaction between water and a solute
C) Salt formation in water
D) Ionization of a base to produce hydroxide ions
27) The noncovalent interaction between an amide and an alcohol would be which of the following?
A) Salt bridges
B) Hydrophobic
C) Hydrogen bonding
D) Both A and C are correct
E) All of the above are true
28) Crenation would result when cells are placed in a ___________ solution.
A) Hypertonic
B) Hypotonic
C) Isotonic
D) Nontonic
E) Nonaqueous solvent
29) Which of the following is not an important noncovalent interaction of living organisms
A) Ionic interactions
B) Van der Waals interactions
C) Hydrogen bonds
D) Carbon hydrogen bonds
E) All are important
30) Which of the following molecules would have unusually high heat capacities?
A) Ammonia
B) Methane
C) Methyl alcohol
D) Benzene
31) The hybridization of the water molecule is:
A) Sp3
B) Sp2
C) Sp
D) Unhybridized
E) Planar
32) The strongest type of non covalent force is
A) Dipole-Dipole
B) Dipole-Induced Dipole
C) Induced Dipole – Induced Dipole
D) London dispersion forces
E) Hydrogen bonds
33) Which of the following ions would have the strongest tendency to form an ion pair with carboxylate
groups the surface of a protein?
A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) All have the same tendency
E) These ions do not associate with proteins
34) Which of the following species would form a buffer with HPO 4-2?
A) H3PO4
B) H2PO4-1
C) CO3-2
D) All would form buffers with HPO4-2
E) Both A and B
35) Water can form how many hydrogen bonds
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Five
36) Which of the following solutions will be isotonic with 3M sucrose?
A) 3M NaCl
B) 1 M Sodium sulfate
C) 1.5 M Proline
D) 2 M Sodium chloride
E) 1 M Magnesium sulfate
37) Which of the following molecules is hydrophobic?
A) Sodium chloride
B) Ethyl alcohol
C) Hexane
D) Sucrose
E) Ammonia
38) In biological systems buffers usually contain an excess of __________.
A) Weak base
B) Weak acid
C) The two components of the buffer are present in equal amounts
D) It would depend on the system
E) None are correct
39) The tendency of nonpolar molecules to aggregate in a water medium is called ________.
A) Crenation
B) Hydrophobic effect
C) Hydrophillic effect
D) Micellular effect
E) Amphiatic
40) The high heat of fusion of water is due to its _______________.
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) High surface tension
C) High heat of vaporization
D) High heat capacity
E) A, C, and D are all important
41) Which of the following is not a role of water in the body
A) Nutrient absorption
B) Nutrient transport
C) Waste product excretion
D) Temperature regulation
E) All are roles of water
Ans E
42) Which of the following species can form a buffer system
A) Hydrochloric acid / Acetic acid

B) Acetic acid / Sodium chloride
C) Acetic acid / Ammonium chloride
D) Acetic acid/ Sodium acetate
E) Phosphoric acid / Sodium phosphate
43) Which of the following are unusual properties of water that suit it to be the matrix
of life
A) Tetrahedral hybridization
B) Presence of oxygen
C) Thermal properties
D) Solvent characteristics
E) C and D
44) What percentage of the worlds water is drinkable
A) 100%
B) 60%
C) 3%
D) 1%
E) 97%
45) The immediate effect of deforestation is
A) Drought
B) Erosion
C) Formation of grasslands
D) Formation of deserts
E) Increase in the water table
46) Which of the following is not an effect of hydrogen bonding on the

physical properties of water
A) Increased boiling point

B) Increased heat of fusion
C) Increased melting point
D) Increased heat of vaporization
E) All are effects of hydrogen bonding
CHAPTER FOUR
ENERGY
1) The course of chemical reactions is determined by three factors. These are enthalpy, entropy and
A) Heat of reaction
B) Free energy
C) States of matter
D) Bond energy
2) Which of the following statements is true of an open system
A) There is an exchange of energy only with the surroundings

B) There is an exchange of matter only with the surroundings
C) There is an exchange of both matter and energy with the surroundings
D) In an open system either matter or energy, but not both may be exchanged with the surroundings
E) Energy flows only into the system: matter flows out of the system.
3) Which of the following statements is true of a closed system?

A) There is an exchange of energy only with the surroundings
B) There is an exchange of matter only with the surroundings
C) There is an exchange of both matter and energy with the surroundings
D) In an closed system either matter or energy, but not both may be exchanged with the surroundings
E) Energy flows only into the system: matter flows out of the system.
4) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is a state function?
A) Work
B) Heat
C) Enthalpy
D) Entropy
5) The first law of thermodynamics is described by which of the following equations?
A) E = Q+W
B) Q = E-W
C) W = Q-W
D) Both B and C are correct
E) All of the above are correct.
6) Which of the following statements is not true of a spontaneous process?
A) The enthalpy value is negative

B) The entropy value is negative
C) The free energy value is positive
D) The work value is negative
E) The enthalpy value is positive
7) Which of the following is not a standard condition for standard free energy?
A) 25 0C
B) 1 Atm pressure
C) Concentration of reactants = 1 molar
D) Concentration of products = 1 molar
E) pH = 7
8) The ionization constant of acetic acid is 1x10-5. What is Go for the reaction?
A) –6500 cal/mol
B) 3250 cal/mol
C) 6500 cal/mol
D) 6000 cal/mol
E) 1624 cal/mol
9) Under standard conditions is the ionization of a carboxylic acid spontaneous or not? A typical
carboxylic acid has a pKa of 4.
A) It is spontaneous
B) It is not spontaneous
C) Not enough information is provided
10) In order for two reactions to be coupled what conditions must be met?
A) They must both be spontaneous

B) One of the reactions must be spontaneous
C) A product of one of the reactions must be a reactant in the second reaction
D) They both must have ATP as a reactant
E) Both B and C must be true.
11) When water and hydrophobic molecules are mixed all of the following are true except:
A) The hydrophobic molecules aggregate

B) The free energy of dissolving molecules is unfavorable
C) -TS becomes negative
D) Water’s hydrogen-bonded interactions are disrupted
E) All of the above are true.
12) The oxidation of food molecules to form CO2 and H2O is a(n) _______ process.
A) Exergonic
B) Endergonic
C) Isothermic
D) Lithotropic
E) Spontaneous
13) The most important direct source of energy in the body is:
A) ATP
B) ADP
C) GTP
D) Glucose
E) Fatty acids
14) The law of the conservation of energy states that
A) The total energy of the universe is constant

B) Entropy of a system increases
C) There are three laws of thermodynamics
D) The work that can be performed by a system is a constant
E) The energy of a system’s surroundings is constant
15) Which of the following is a low quality energy source
A) Electromagnetic radiation
B) Heat
C) Electrical Energy
D) Chemical Energy
E) B and C
16) Which of the following statements regarding free energy changes is true?
A) At equilibrium G0 = O
B) For the reaction to be spontaneous Go must be positive
C) Free energy is a state function
D) Both A and C are true
17) Which of the following compounds would liberate the most free energy on hydrolysis?
A) ATP
B) Phosphoenolpyruvate
C) PPi
D) ADP
E) GTP
18) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is the most useful criterion of spontaneity?
A) Entropy
B) Free energy
C) Standard free energy
D) Enthalpy
E) Change in temperature
19) For a reaction to be spontaneous which of the following statements must be true?
A) Suniv= O
B) Suniv = positive
C) Siniv = negative
D) A or B
E) Entropy has no effect on the spontaneity of a process
20) Which of the following processes are driven by the hydrolysis of ATP?
A) Biosynthesis of biomolecules
B) Active transport of substances across membranes
C) Mechanical work such as muscle contraction
21) The study of reaction rates is called ___________.

A) Reactions
B) Thermodynamics
C) Kinetics
D) Mechanics
E) Entropics
22) Which of the following is described by the first law of thermodynamics
A) Enthalpy
B) Entropy
C) Free energy
D) A and B
E) A, B and
23) Which of the following is described by the second law of thermodynamics
A) Enthalpy
B) Entropy
C) Free energy
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
24) What type of bond is being cleaved during the conversion of ATP to ADP?
A) Ester
B) Ether
C) Hydrogen
D) Anhydride
E) Amide
25) The tendency of ATP to undergo hydrolysis is called __________.
A) Free energy of hydrolysis

B) Cleavage rate
C) Phosphoryl group transfer potential
D) High energy bond potential
26) The products of the hydrolysis of ATP are more stable than ATP itself. This circumstance is due to
__________.
A) pH effects
B) Relief of charge-charge repulsions
C) Resonance stabilization of the products
D) Relief of steric strain
27) A living organism is what type of thermodynamic system?
A) Closed
B) Open
C) A system at equilibrium
D) A system with negative entropy
28) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is pathway dependent?

A) Free energy
B) Entropy
C) Enthalpy
D) Work
29) A Kelvin is _________.
A) A unit of temperature measurement

B) A unit of entropy measurement
C) A measurement of the density of a system
D) An index of the spontaneity of a reaction
E) A unit of heat
30) The rate of a reaction can be determined from which of the following?
A) Free energy
B) Enthalpy
C) Entropy
D) All of the above are correct
E) None of the above are correct.
31) To maintain a system far from equilibrium a constant input of _______ is required.
A) Entropy
B) Energy
C) Only systems at equilibrium are stable
D) Disorganized energy
32) Systems far from equilibrium are referred to as _________ systems.
A) Spontaneous
B) Dissipative
C) Critical
D) Entropic
E) Heterotropic
33) An organism at equilbrium is said to be __________.
A) At rest
B) Dissipative
C) Organized
D) Dead
E) Dormant
34) The following statement is made by which law of thermodynamics?

“At absolute zero the disorder of a perfect crystal approaches zero”.
A) First Law
B) Second Law
C) Third Law
D) A and B
E) All make this statement
35) A measure of a system’s internal energy is
A) Enthalpy
B) Entropy
C) Free energy
D) Work
E) Heat
36) In living organisms where does the increase in entropy takes place?
A) Cell
B) Surroundings
C) Either A or B
D) Entropy does not change
E) Entropy does not apply to living things
37) How many molecules of oxygen are required to completely oxidize one mole of stearic acid
( C17H35COOH)?
A) 18
B) 9
C) 34
D) 45
E) 53
38) Given the following H values calculate the H for the complete combustion of stearic acid.
H (kal/mol) Compound
-211.4 C17H35COO
0 Oxygen
-94 Carbon dioxide
-68.4 Water
A) –49 kal
B) –2096.2 kal
C) –2711.8 kal
D) 0 kal
E) 3071.8 kal
39) Magnesium ion (Mg++) forms complexes with ATP. What would happen to the stability of ATP if the
magnesium was removed?
A) There would be no change in stability

B) The ATP would be more stable
C) The ATP would be less stable
D) The effect on stability would depend on specific conditions
E) Either A or B is correct
40) Choose the molecule with the highest phosphate transfer potential.
A) Phosphoenolpyruvate
B) ATP
C) PPi
D) Glucose-1-phosphate
E) Carbamoyl phosphate
41) Biogeochemical cycles are pathways driven by which of the following?
A) Nuclear
B) Solar
C) Geothermal energy
D) Tectonic movements
E) B and C
42) Which of the following moves through a system in a biogeochemical cycle?
A) Chemical compounds
B) Heat
C) Light
D) Energy
E) All of the above
43) In classical thermodynamics which of the following is true?
A) All systems are at or near equilibrium

B) All materials are at low concentration
C) The system is far from equilibrium
D) The systems are always open
E) A and B
44) A Benard cell is an example of
A) A classical thermodynamic system

B) A system at equilibrium
C) A dissipative system
D) A system at uniform temperature
E) B and C
45) The evolution of living organisms is driven by
A) Size of the energy gradient to be dissipated

B) First law of thermodynamics
C) Second law of thermodynamics
D) Attainment of equilibrium
E) A and C
46) A process is spontaneous when

A) G0 = 0
B) G0 > 0
C) G0 < 0
D) Energy is absorbed
E) Entropy is negative
CHAPTER FIVE
AMINO ACIDS, PEPTIDES, AND PROTEINS
1) Which of the following is a function of proteins?
A) Defense
B) Metabolic regulation
C) Transport
D) Catalysis
2) The term protein refers to amino acid polymers with greater than ________amino acids.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 50
D) 70
E) 90
3) Which of the following is a nonstandard amino acid?
A) Glycine
B) Cysteine
C) 5-Hydroxyproline
D) Valine
E) Alanine
4) Which of the following is a heterocyclic amino acid?
A) Alanine
B) Valine
C) Proline
D) Tyrosine
E) Cystine
5) Which of the following is not a class of amino acid?
A) Nonpolar and neutral

B) Polar and neutral
C) Acidic
D) Basic
E) Asymmetric
6) Which of the following amino acids lacks a center of asymmetry?
A) Alanine
B) Glycine
C) Valine
D) Isoleucine
E) Aspartic acid
7) Given the following pK’s what is the principal form of serine at pH 5?
pKa1 = 2.21 pKa2 = 9.15
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8) Given the following pKa’s the isoelectric point of serine is ________.

pK1 = 2.21 pK2 = 9.15
A) 2.21
B) 5.68
C) 9.15
D) 6.62
E)11.36
9) Consider the following dipeptide. Which letter indicates a peptide bond
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
10) The amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is referred to as ________structure.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
E) Peptide
11) The overall three-dimensional structure of a polypeptide is referred to as _________ structure.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
E) Peptide
12) Invariant amino acids in a protein are presumed:
A) To be unimportant in the structure and function of the protein

B) To be essential to the structure and function of the protein
C) Always to occur at the beginning of the amino acid sequence of an enzyme
D) Always to occur at the end of the amino acid sequence of an enzyme
E) To be part of the prosthetic group.
13) -pleated sheets are associated with what level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
E) Superquaternary
14) Which of the following amino acids would foster an -helix?
A) Glycine
B) Alanine
C) Proline
D) Tyrosine
E) Serine
15) The Greek key is associated with which of the following?
A) -helix
B) Parallel -pleated sheets
C) Antiparallel -pleated sheets
D) Disulfide bridges
E) Salt bridges
16) Which of the following interactions do not stabilize tertiary structure?
A) Hydrophobic interactions
B) Electrostatic interactions
C) Hydrogen bonds
D) Covalent bonds
E) None of the above
17) Detergents denature proteins by disrupting which of the following?
A) Hydrogen bonds
B) Disulfide bridges
D) Salt bridges
18) Fibrous proteins typically have large amounts of:

A) -Helix
B) -Pleated sheets
C) Disulfide bridges
D) Salt bridges
19) The identity and arrangement of amino acids on the surface of a globular protein are important
because they may:
A) Interact to form specific binding cavities

B) Stabilize the tertiary structure of the protein
C) Bind regulatory molecules
20) Which of the following statements regarding cooperative binding is true?
A) Two or more proteins aid the binding of a ligand.

B) The binding of one ligand aids the binding of a second ligand
C) The folding of part of a protein aids in the folding of the remainder of the protein
D) All proteins engage in cooperative binding
E) The binding of a cofactor to a protein aids in the binding of a ligand.
21) Which of the following statements is true of the Bohr effect?
A) Oxygen is delivered to cells in proportion to their needs

B) Binding of protons to hemoglobin molecules facilitates the binding of oxygen
C) Metabolic waste products bond to oxyhemoglobin
D) A and B are both true
22) A polypeptide has a high pI value. Which of the following amino acids are likely to be present?
A) Glycine
B) Serine
C) Valine
D) Aspartic acid
E) Arginine
23) Structural proteins “freeze” large amounts of water. Which of the following interactions is not likely
to be involved in the binding of water?
A) Salt bridges
B) Hydrogen bonding
C) Hydrophilic interactions
D) Disulfide bridges
E) Both C and D are correct.
24) Why is the peptide bond stronger than the ester bond?
A) Greater electronegativity of nitrogen

B) Greater electronegativity of oxygen
C) Resonance stabilization of the amide bond
D) Increased basicity of nitrogen
E) Size of the nitrogen atom compared to the oxygen atom
25) Which of the following amino acids would be classified as a nonstandard amino acid
A) Tyrosine
B) Lysine
C) Cystine
D) Glycine
E) Arginine
26) Given that pK1 = 2.35 and pK2 = 9.69 for alanine. What is its isoelectric point
A) 9.69
B) 2.34
C) 6.02
D) 12.03
E) 7.00
27) When not at the terminal of a protein which of the following amino acids cannot contribute to the PI
of a protein?
A) Arginine
B) Lysine
C) Cysteine
D) Tyrosine
E) Alanine
28) When part of a polypeptide chain other than the N-terminus, which of the following amino acids can
form a aldimines?
A) Glycine
B) Alanine
C) Proline
D) Histidine
E) Lysine
29) Collagen is classified as which of the following types of protein?
A) Enzyme
B) Structural
C) Movement
D) Defense
E) Regulatory
30) A prosthetic group is a :
A) Repair enzyme
B) Group other than an amino acid that is part of a protein
C) Group that generates the native form of a protein
D) Disulfide link
E) Group that reduces enzyme activity
31) The major component of the dry weight of cells is _______.
A) Carbohydrate
B) Protein
C) Fats
D) Minerals
E) The major component will vary from organism to organism
32) The total number of proteins that can be produced from any 10 amino acids is?
A) 1020
B) 2010
C) 100
D) 200
E) 1010
33) Schiff bases are also referred to as:
A) Aldimines
B) Amines
C) Carbinolamines
D) Amino acids
34) Which of the following amino acids would be found in a -turn?
A) Proline
B) Alanine
C) Phenylalanine
D) Lysine
E) Tyrosine
35) Which of the following is not a function of IUPs?
A) Signal transduction
B) Transcription
C) Translation
D) Cell proliferation
E) Oxygen transport
36) The source of energy for motor proteins in addition to ATP is:
A) NAD+
B) GTP
C) PEP
D) ADP
E) PPi
37) Keratin is classified as which of the following types of protein?
A) Enzyme
B) Structural
C) Movement
D) Defense
E) Regulatory
38) In which of the following mechanical properties does spider silk exceed all synthetic fibers?
A) Toughness
B) Tensile strength
C) Elasticity
D) Resilience
E) All of the above
39) Which of the following is a hydrophobic amino acid?
A) Glycine
B) Serine
C) Lysine
D) Phenylalanine
E) Both C and D are hydrophobic
40) A conjugated protein consists of a simple protein combined with a _________.
A) Apoprotein
B) Holoprotein
C) Prosthetic group
D) Answers B and C are correct
41) Which of the following amino acids is not one of the twenty standard amino acids?
A) Glycine
B) Phenylalanine
C) Tyrosine
D) Cystine
E) Arginine
42) How many standard amino acids are there?
A) 5
B) 17
C) 20
D) 12
E) 32
43) How many octapeptides containing only two amino acids are possible?
A) 8
B) 148
C) 16
D) 256
E) 35
44) Amino acid polymers with a molecular weight between several thousand and several million Daltons
are called
A) Dipeptides
B) Polypeptides
C) Proteins
D) Peptides
45) Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
A) Structural materials
B) Catalyst
C) Metabolic regulation
D) Transport
E) All of the above are functions of proteins
46) Which of the following is a polar amino acid?
A) Phenylalanine
B) Tyrosine
C) Methionine
D) Tryptophan
E) Proline
CHAPTER 7
1. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?
(
1
p
o
i
n
t
)
a
.
b
.
c
.
d
.
e
.
2. Which of the following carbohydrates does not belong to the
family of naturally occurring D sugars?
(
1
p
o
i
n
t
)
a
.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3. The compound is an epimer of which of the following molecules?

(1 point)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
4. Which of the following structures is the b-anomer of D-glucose?

(1 point)
a. b.
c.
d. e.
5. Which of the following is a d-lactone?

(1 point)
a.
b.
c. d.
e.
6. Which of the following compounds is an aldonic acid?

(1 point)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
7. Which of the following compounds is a uronic acid?

(1 point)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
8. Which of the following is an alditol?
(1 point)
a.
b.
c.
d.
9. Which of the following is a glycoside?

(1 point)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
10. Which of the following carbohydrates is a nonreducing sugar?

(1 point)
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose
e. Ribose
11. The preferred energy source of the brain is .

(1 point)
a. fructose
b. glucose
c. arabinose
d. maltose
e. sucrose
12. The two most common deoxy sugars are deoxyribose and .
(1 point)
a. L-Fuco
b. deoxyglucose
c. deoxyarabinose
d. L-Sorbose
e. D-Sorbose
13. Which of the following sugars contains a b-1,4-linkage?

(1 point)
a. Cellulose
b. Glucose
c. Amylose
d. Sucrose
e. Maltose
14. Oligiosaccharides usually contain between and simple sugar units.

(1 point)
a. 6, 8
b. 2, 10
c. 1, 10
d. 3, 10
e. 7, 10
15. Amylopectin is a form of .

(1 point)
a. cellulose
b. lactose
c. starch
d. glycoge
e. amylose
16. The most abundant organic substance on earth is .
(1 point)
a. starch
b. cellulose
c. sucrose
d. glucose
e. Both B and D are correct.
17. Which of the following is not a homopolysaccharide?

(1 point)
a. Cellulose
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Heparin
e. Amylose
18. Which of the following polysaccharides can bind exceptionally large amounts of water?
(1 point)
a. Cellulose
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Heparin
e. Amylose
19. Carbohydrate is thought to enhance the stability of protein molecules by

(1 point)
a. changing the protein's shape to better resist denaturation.

b. protecting the underlying protein from the action of proteolytic enzymes.
c. using hydrogen bonding to increase the stability of the protein.
d. Both A and B are correct.
e. All of the above are correct.
20. In glycoproteins the carbohydrate is most often linked to threonine, asparagines, or
(1 point)
a. serine
b. lysine
c. valine
d. aspartic acid
e. tyrosine
21. Cellulose is indigestible to most animals because

(1 point)
a. cellulose is not soluble in water.

b. animals lack the enzymes required to hydrolyse the b links of the cellulose.
c. cellulose has no food value and therefore cannot be digested.
e. None of the above are correct.
22. A glycosidic link is chemically an .

(1 point)
a. ether
b. ester
c. amide
d. aldehyde
e. ketone
23. Blood typing depends on the

(1 point)
a. protein coat on the surface of the red blood cell.

b. oligosaccharide coat on the surface of the red blood cell.
c. overall shape of the red blood cell.
d. iron content of the red blood cell.
e. Both C and D are correct.
24. Glycoproteins lack which of the following groups typically found in proteoglycans?
(1 point)
a. Uronic acids
b. Sulfate groups
c. N-glycosidic linkages
e. All of the above are correct.
25. Glycogen is
(1 point)
a. main energy storage molecule of animals.

b. main carbohydrate reserve of animals.
c. main carbohydrate found in seeds.
d. a form of plant starch.
e. Both C and D are correct.
26. Lactose intolerance arises from

(1 point)
a. bacteria in the intestine that produce toxic metabolites.

b. the inability of intestinal enzymes to cleave the lactose.
c. a sensitivity to galactose.
d. a sensitivity to glucose.
e. an allergic reaction to lactose.
27. Glycoconjugates are compounds that result from the covalent linkage of carbohydrate to proteins or
.
(1 point)
a. amino acids
b. lipids
c. nucleotides
e. None of the above are correct.
28. The three most common homopolysaccharides found in nature are cellulose, starch, and .
(1 point)
a. amylose
b. lactose
c. fructose
d. glycogen
e. sucrose
29. The two polysaccharides used to store glucose as an energy reserve are starch and
(1 point)
a. glycogen
b. cellulose
c. fructose
d. sucrose
e. maltose
30. The principle structural carbohydrate of plants is?
31) The accumulation of AGEs is linked to which of the following diseases?AEG accumulation
has been linked to age-related conditions, including
32) N-Glycans are linked via a ______ link between the carbohydrate and the amino acid.
33) Which of the following is not a common sugar found in N-glycans?
34) Which of the following is an example of postranslational modification of proteins?
Posttranslational modifications – enzyme-catalyzed changes in a protein’s structure that occur

after its synthesis; i.e.
35) The glycome is
36) The production of the glycan components of each type of glycoprotein as a series of slightly
different forms is referred to as
37) Translation of the sugar code requires which of the following? Lectins – CBPs (carb-binding
proteins) that are not antibodies and have no enzymatic activity
38) How many stereoisomers are possible for an aldohexose
39) Reaction of an amino acid with C1 of a cyclic aldose produces which of the following
linkages?
40) Which of the following terms is not associated with glycation reactions?Glycation reactions
41) The principle means of protection of plants against herbivores is
42) Of the following primary types of taste perception which is the most important in identifying
calorie-dense foods?
43) Savory taste detects which of the following?
44) Glycomics is defined as
45) In an aldohexopyranose how many methyl groups will be incorporated on treatment with
methyl iodide Methylating agent methyl iodide converts all of the free OH groups to OCH3
groups??
46) Which of the following sugars lacks a chiral center
CHAPTER EIGHT
CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM
1) Both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis are controlled primarily by the interplay between the
two hormones insulin and ________.
A) Glycogen synthetase
B) Glucagon
C) Fructose kinase
D) Glucose hydrolyase
E) Pentose kinase
2) Hexokinase D is found in the _______.
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Heart
D) Muscle
E) Intestine
3) An enzyme family called the _________ catalyzes the phosphorylation of hexoses in the body.
A) Hexolysases
B) Phosphorolysases
C) Hexokinases
D) Glucokinases
E) Phosphofructokinases
4) The conversion of glucose-1-phosphate to UDP-glucose has a G 0’ near zero. Which of the

following reactions is coupled with the above reaction to drive it to completion?
A) Hydrolysis of PPi
B) Hydrolysis of ATP
C) Hydrolysis of ADP
D) Hydrolysis of UDP
E) Hydrolysis of UTP
5) Which of the following is required for the conversion of UDP-glucose to glycogen?
A) Glycogen synthase
B) Branching enzyme
C) Glucose phosphorlyase
D) Debranching enzyme
6) A glycogen molecule that has been degraded to its branch points is called
A) Dextrin
B) Glucose
C) Amylose
D) Limit dextrin
7) Regulation of glycolysis involves all of the following except
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) SREBP1c
D) AMPK
8) The binding of insulin to receptors on the surface of muscle cells stimulates which of the
following processes
A) Glycogenolysis
B) Glycogenesis
C) Release of ATP
D) Formation of cyclic AMP
E) Release of glucagon
9) Under stressful conditions epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla. The release of
epinephrine has which of the following effects on glucose metabolism?
A) Glycogenolysis is stimulated
B) Glycogenesis is inhibited
C) Adenylate cyclase is activated
10) Phosphorylase kinase
A) Converts inactive phosphorylase to active phosphorylase

B) Converts active phosphorylase to inactive phosphorylase
C) Phosphorylates glycogen synthase
D) Convets ADP to ATP
11) Cori’s disease is caused by
A) Lack of insulin
B) Lack of phospholylase b
C) Lack of glucagons
D) A deficiency of debranching enzyme
E) Deficient chromium receptors on the cell surface
12) Which of the following activates phosphoprotein phosphatase?
A) Insulin
B) Epinephrine
C) Glucagon
D) ATP
13) Glucose-6-phosphate is a substrate in which of the following processes?
A) Gluconeogenesis
B) Glycolysis
C) Photosynthesis
D) Glycogenolysis
14) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
A) Is an indicator of high cellular glucose concentration

B) Is formed by PFK-1
C) Activates aldolase
15) The Embden-Myerhof pathway is also referred to as
A) Gluconeogenesis
B) Glycogenolysis
C) Glycolysis
D) Glycogenesis
E) Citric acid cycle
16) In glycolysis, net ________ moles of ATP are produced per mole of glucose consumed.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
17) In glycolysis ________ moles of NADH are produced per mole of glucose consumed
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
18) The presence of which of the following molecules indicates that the cell has sufficient energy
reserves?
A) ATP
B) Citrate
C) ADP
D) Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
19) Which of the following enzymes is an oxidoreductase?
A) Aldolase
B) Triose phosphate isomerase
C) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehdyrogenase
D) Phosphofructokinase
E) Phosphoglucoisomerase
20) The first reaction in the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway is catalyzed by
A) Ribulose-5-phosphate dehydrogenase
B) Transketolase
C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
E) Hexokinase
21) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes an irreversible process?

A) Pyruvate kinase
B) Aldolase
C) Enolase
D) Phosphoglycerate mutase
E) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
22) In anaerobic organisms pyruvate is used to regenerate cellular ________.
A) NADP+
B) FADH
C) FAD
D) NAD+
E) ADP
23) Allosteric regulation of which of the following enzymes is important in the regulation of
glycolysis?
A) Hexokinase
B) PFK-1
C) Pyruvate kinase
24) Gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the
A) Brain
B) Muscle
C) Liver
D) Heart
E) Pancreas
25) Which of the following molecules can be used to synthesize glucose via gluconeogenesis?
A) Lactate
B) Pyruvate
C) Glycerol
D) Keto acids
26) Which of the following is the most important glucogenic amino acid?
A) Aspartate
B) Alanine
C) Glycine
D) Glutamate
E) All are equally important
27) Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by high concentrations of which of the following compounds?
A) Lactate
B) Glycerol
C) Amino acid
28) Which of the following is an oxidizing agent in fermentation?
A) Lactate
B) Glucose
C) NADH
D) Pyruvate
E) ADP
29) In addition to glucose which of the following sugars are important in the human diet?
A) Fructose
B) Galactose
C) Mannose
D) Sucrose
30) Intermediates in the nonoxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway include all of the
following except
A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
B) Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
C) Fructose-6-phosphate
D) Xylulose-5-phosphate
E) Erythrose-4-phosphate
31) The use of a highly exergonic reaction in the beginning of a catabolic pathway is referred to
as
A) Bioactivation
B) Turbo design
C) Activation
D) Glycolysis
32) Aldol cleavage of which of the following sugars will produce one mole each of
dihydroxyacetone and glyceraldehyde?
A) Fructose
B) Glucose
C) Ribose
D) Maltose
E) Trehalose
33) Which of the following is a second messenger in glycogenolysis?
A) Glucagon
B) Insulin
C) Glucose
D) ATP
E) cAMP
34) In animals excess glucose is converted into its storage form ________
A) Starch
B) Chitin
C) Glycogen
D) Amylose
E) Amylopectin
35) The major carbohydrate fuel for most organisms is

A) Glucose
B) Fructose
C) Ribose
D) Sucrose
E) All of the above
36) Which of the following enzymes is not required in gluconeogenesis?
A) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxekinase
B) Phosphofructokinase
C) Pyruvate kinase (also in glycolysis)
D) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
E) Pyruvate carboxylase
37) The final product of glycolysis is
A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
B) Pyruvate
C) Ethanol
D) Acetyl-CoA
E) Acetaldehyde
38) The principal products of the pentose phosphate pathway include
A) NADH
B) NADPH
C) ATP
D) Ribose-5-phosphate
E) Both B and D are correct
39) Flux of which of the following sugars into the glycolytic pathway is essentially unregulated.
A) Glucose
B) Fructose
C) Glucose-1-phosphate
40) Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate has two purposes. One is

the commitment of the molecule to glycolysis, the second is
A) Raising the free energy of the system

B) Making possible the formation of a second mole of ATP
C) Preventing the cleavage products of the next step from diffusing out of the cell
D) Preventing the reverse reaction
E) Enolization of the product
41) Which of the following enzymes will catalyze the first committed step in glycolysis
A) Phosphofructoisomeras
B) Aldolase
C) Triose phosphate isomerase
D) Phosphofructokinase 1
E) Phosphoglucooisomerase
42) The Crabtree effect in yeast is
A) Fermentation of glucose
B) Repression of aerobic metabolism by glucose
C) Repression of glycolysis by oxygen
D) Repression of glucose metabolism by ethyl alcohol
E) Fermentation of ethyl alcohol
43) The Pasteur Effect is
A) Fermentation of glucose
B) Repression of aerobic metabolism by glucose
C) Repression of glycolysis by oxygen
D) Repression of glucose metabolism by ethyl alcohol
E) Fermentation of ethyl alcohol
44) A diauxic shift is
A) A significant change in gene expression

B) Shifting from aerobic to anerobic respiration
C) Shifting from anerobic to aerobic respiration
D) Change in composition of microbes in a sample
E) Change in the amount of ATP used to ferment glucose
45) The phosphorolation of glucose when it enters a cell accomplishes which of the following.
A) Makes the glucose more water soluble

B) Prevents back diffusion out of the cell
C) Isomerize the glucose
D) Activates the glucose for further reaction
E) B and D
46) Which of the following compounds is an end product of anerobic respiration?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Ethanol
C) Water
D) Glycogen
E) Acetaldehyde
CHAPTER NINE
AEROBIC METABOLISM I
1) Place the following reaction intermediates of the citric acid cycle in chronological order. i.
malate, ii fumarate, iii succinylCoA, iv citrate, v-ketoglutarate.
A), i, ii, iv, v, iii

B) iv, v, iii, i, ii
C) iv, i, v, iii, ii
D) v, iii, i, ii, iv
E) iv, v, iii, ii, i
2) Oxalosuccinate is a transient intermediate formed during which of the following reactions?
A) Citrate Isocitrate
B) Isocitrate -ketoglutarate
C) Pyruvate Acetyl CoA
D) Malate Oxaloacetate
E) Succinyl CoA Succinate
3) FADH2 is a product of which of the following reactions?
A) Pyruvate Acetyl CoA

B) Malate Oxaloacetate
C) SuccinylCoA Succinate
D) Succinate Fumarate
E) Succinate Malate
4) NADH is produced in which of the following reactions?
A) Malate Fumarate
B) Succinate Fumarate
C) -Ketoglutarate SuccinylCoA
D) SuccinylCoA Fumarate
E) Oxaloacetate Citrate
5) In the glyoxylate cycle two-carbon molecules are converted to precursors of which of the
following?
A) Acetyl-CoA
B) Glucose
C) Pyruvate
D) Succinate
E) Carbon dioxide
6) Which of the following enzymes is unique to the glyoxylate cycle __________?
A) Aconitase
B) Malate dehydrogenase
C) Fumarase
D) Succinate dehydrogenase
E) Isocitrate lyase
7) The regulated enzymes of the citric acid cycle include _________.
A) Malate dehydrogenase
B) Fumarase
C) Citrate lyase
D) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
E) Succinate thiokinase
8) The enzymes involved in citrate metabolism include all of the following except _______.
A) Citrate synthase
B) Citrate lyase
C) Pyruvate carboxylase
D) Malate synthase
E) Malic enzyme
9) Redox potential is best defined as

A) The tendency of one species to gain electrons
B) The tendency of one species to lose electrons
C) The tendency of a species to gain or lose electrons
D) The entropy of a reaction expressed as a voltage difference
10) In order to determine the standard voltage of a reaction
A) The individual reaction reduction potentials must be added

B) The standard cells must be written as they occur in the reaction and the voltages are added.
C) All the reactions must be written as oxidations and the voltages are added.
D) The voltages of the individual reactions at pH = 7 must be calculated and the resultant
voltages are added.
E) A standard voltage for a reaction must be determined experimentally.
11) Which of the following reactions is an oxidation reaction?
A) NaOH +HCl NaCl + H2O

B) CH3COOH CH3COO- +H+
C) CH3CHO CH3CH2OH
D) CH3CH2OH CH3CHO
E) CH2=CH2 + H2O CH3CH2OH
12) Which of the following reactions has an oxidized product?
A) Carboxylic acid aldehyde

B) R-SH + RSH R-S-S-R
C) Alcohol Ketone Wrong answer on the answer key here….this is oxidized.
D) Glutamate -Ketoglutarate
13) In any redox reaction, an electron donor is
A) The reducing agent

B) The oxidizing agent
C) Reduced as it accepts electrons
14) In a redox reaction, an electron acceptor is

A) Oxidized as it accepts one or more electrons
B) The reducing agent
C) Converted to an electron donor with the gain of one or more electons
15) Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces how many moles of CO 2 ?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
16) Acetyl CoA that is consumed by the citric acid cycle is produced from which of the following
biochemical pathways?
A) Glycolysis
B) Fatty acid oxidation
C) Purine catabolism
D) Urea cycle
17) Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent? (The standard reduction potential of
each species is provided in parentheses.)
A) FADH2 (+0.22V)
B) H2 (+0.424V)
C) Cytochrome a-Fe+2 (-0.29V)
D) Lactate ( + 0.19 V)
E) H2O (+0.82V)
18) Which of the following reacts with acetylCoA to form citrate?
A) Succinate
B) Oxaloacetate
C) -Ketoglutarate
D) Fumarate
E) Malate
19) The redox reaction in which succinate is converted to fumarate uses FAD rather than NAD +
because
A) FAD is a stronger oxidizing agent than NAD +

B) NAD+ is a stronger oxidizing agent than FAD
C) FAD is required for the oxidation of carboxylic acids
D) Only FAD can penetrate into mitochondria
E) NAD is not found in the cytoplasm.
20) Most of the energy released during the electron transport system is used to drive
______ synthesis.
A) ATP
B) ADP
C) NADH
D) NADPH
E) Fatty acids
21) Which of the following reactions requires GDP

A) Fumarate Malate
B) SuccinylCoA Succinate
C) Malate Oxaloacetate
D) Citrate Isocitrate
E) -Ketoglutarate Succinyl CoA
22) How many oxidations steps are there in the citric acid cycle?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
23) The product of the first reaction of the citric acid cycle is ________.
A) Acetyl-CoA
B) Oxaloacetate
C) Pyruvate
D) Lactate
E) Citrate
24) Which of the following reactions involves a substrate level phosphorylation?
A) Pyruvate AcetylCoA
B) Succinyl CoA Succinate
C) Citrate Isocitrate
D) Fumarate Malate
E) Malate Oxaloacetate
25) The carbon skeletons of which of the following are direct precursors of amino acids?
A) Malate
B) Succinate
D) Oxaloacetate
26) Which of the following is not directly required for the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
A) CoASH
B) Lipoic acid
C) NAD+
D) ATP
27) Which of the following is a positive effector of isocitrate dehydrogenase?
A) ADP
B) FAD
C) NADH
D) Succinyl–CoA
28) Consider the following reaction:
Pyruvate + NADH + H+ -- Lactate + NAD+
The half cell reaction ( with their standard reduction potentials ) are
Pyruvate + 2H+ + 2e- Lactate (-0.19V)
NAD+ + H+ +2e- NADH (-0.32V)
What is the reduction potential for the overall reaction?
A) + 0.00V
B) + 0.03 V
C) + 0.13 V
D) +0.22 V
E) +0.15 V
29) The overall reaction catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase is which of the following?
A) CH3COCHO + NAD+ + CoASH CH3CHOSCoA + NADH

B) CH3COCOO- + FAD +CoASH CH3CHSCoA + NADH
C) CH3COCOO- + NAD+ + CoASH CH3COSCoA + NADH
D) CH3CH(OH)COO- + NADH + CoASH CH3CH(OH)COSCoA + NAD+
30) The citric acid cycle is a component of aerobic respiration. Molecular oxygen
A) Is directly involved in the reactions of the cycle

B) Is only indirectly involved in the reactions of the cycle
C) Is an important substrate for the cycle
D) Both A and C are true
E) None of the above are true.
31) The main toxic effect of oxygen is due to which of the following?
A) Sulfate formation
B) ROS
C) Heat production during oxidation
D) Protons
E) Hydroxide ion
32) The primordial reductive branch of the citric acid cycle was a means of producing which of
the following?
A) ATP
B) NADP+
C) NADPH
D) NADH
33) The primordial oxidation branch of the citric acid cycle used which of the following as the
ultimate electron acceptor?
A) Pyruvate
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Oxygen
D) Sulfur
E) NAD+
34) The enzyme which links the two branches of the citric acid cycle is which of the following
A) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
B) Lactate dehydrogenase
C) Malate dehydrogenase
D) Fumatate reductase
E) Fumarase
35) The glyoxylate cycle is a mechanism whereby plants manufacture carbohydrate from
___________.
A) Other carbohydrates
B) Amino acids
C) Fatty acids
D) Carbon dioxide
E) Phospholipids
36) In biological systems most energy generating redox reactions involve hydride ion transfer or
hydrogen atom transfer using which of the following?
A) NADH
B) FADH2
C) Pyruvate
D) NADPH
37) Which of the following coenzymes function as an acetyl group carrier?
A) Thiamine pyrophosphate
B) Lipoic Acid
C) NADH
D) FADH2
E) Coenzyme A
38) The first of two molecules of carbon dioxide is released from which of the following
compounds in the citric acid cycle?
A) Isocitrate
B) Citrate
D) Succinate
E) Fumarate
39) The high energy molecule produced in the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate is which
of the following
A) ATP
B) GTP
C) AMP
D) NADH
40) Which of the following conversions is an anaplerotic reaction of the citric acid cycle?
A) Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
B) Certain amino acids to succinyl CoA
C) Glutamate to -ketoglutarate
D) Aspartate to oxaloacetate
41) Oxygen is useful for energy generation because
A) It is soluble in the cell membrane

B) It is abundant
C) It is a powerful reducing agent
D) It is a powerful oxidizing agent
E) A, B and D
42) The most pivotal event in the history of life on earth was
A) The development of DNA

B) The development of RNA
C) Emergence of the water splitting complex in Photosystem II
D) Development of photosynthesis
E) Adaptation to life on land
43) After the evolution of oxygenic photosynthesis the release of oxygen was not immediately
followed by the accumulation of oxygen in the atmosphere. This was true because
A) It was incorporated into organic molecules

B) It remained dissolved in water
C) It was consumed by oxidizable materials such as iron and ammonia
D) A and C
E) A, B and C
44) Obligate anaerobes are
A) Organisms that possess antioxidant molecules that detoxify ROS

B) Grow only in the absence of oxygen
C) Can use oxygen when it is available
D) Require oxygen to grow
E) Release oxygen
45) Facultative anaerobes
A) Organisms that possess antioxidant molecules that detoxify ROS

B) Grow only in the absence of oxygen
C) Can use oxygen when it is available
D) Require oxygen to grow
E) Release oxygen
46) In eukaryotes citrate synthetase rate is controlled primarily by
A) Availability of oxaloacetate
B) Allosteric regulators
C) Concentration of maleate
D) The NADH/NAD+ ratio
E) SuccinylCoA availability
CHAPTER TEN
AEROBIC METABOLISM II
1) Molecules involved in the conversion of oxidized proteins to their functional reduced
suylfhydryl form include all of the following except
Thioredoxin
B) NADPH
C) Catalase
D) Thioredoxin reductase
2) All of the following are components of the electron transport chain except ______.
A) Coenzyme Q
B) Succinate dehydrogenase
C) Coenzyme A
D) Cytochrome c
E) NADH dehydrogenase
3) The ETC component that transfers electrons directly to oxygen is __________.
A) Cyt c
B) UQ
C) Cyt bc1
D) Cytochrome oxidase
E) Succinate dehydrogenase
4) During the oxidation of NADH there are several steps in which Eo’ is sufficient for ATP
synthesis. These occur within
A) Complexes I, II and III

B) Complexes I, III and IV
C) Complexes II, III, and IV
D) Complexes III, IV and V
E) Complexes I, II and IV
5) Which of the following molecules inhibits Complex I of the electron transport chain?
A) Azide
B) Amytal
C) Cyanide
D) Arsenic
E) Carbon monoxide
6) ATP synthesis and mitochondrial electron transport are coupled by
A) Protonmotive force
B) High energy intermediates
C) Proton gradient
7) Evidence supporting the chemiosmotic theory inculdes all of the following except
A) Inhibitors of ATP synthesis have been shown to dissipate the proton gradient
B) Mitochondria with disrupted membranes cannot synthesize ATP
C) ATP synthesis is depressed when mitochondrial swelling occurs as a result of osmotic changes
D) The pH of a weakly buffered suspension of mitochondria rises when O 2 added.
E) Actively respiring mitrochondria expel protons
8) Examples of uncouplers include ________.
A) DNP
B) Antimycin
C) Gramicidin
9) In the ATP Synthase the Fo factor
A) Has three types of subunits

B) Possesses ATPase activity
C) In a transmembrane proton channel
10) The maximum P/O ration of FADH2 is
A) 1.5
B) 1.75
C) 2.0
D) 2.5
E) 3.0
11) The control of aerobic respiration by _________ is referred to as respiratory control.
A) HPO4-2
B) NADH
C) FADH2
D) Citrate
E) ADP
12) The first ROS formed during the reduction of oxygen is ________.
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Hydroxyl radical
C) Singlet oxygen
D) Superoxide radical
13) The reaction of Fe+2 with H2O2 results in the production of
A) Hydroxyl radical
B) Hydroxide ion
C) Superoxide radical
14) ROS are generated during

A) Xenobiotic metabolism
B) Respiratory burst
C) Ionizing radiation
15) Glutathione peroxidase
A) Converts organic peroxides into alcohols

B) Generates GSH from GSSG
C) Reduces H2O2 into H2O
16) The NADPH required for the generation of GSH from GSSG in synthesized by the reactions
of
A) The pentose phosphate pathway

B) Glycolysis
C) The citric acid cycle
Ans A
17) Glutathione peroxidase requires _____ for full activity
A) Sulfur
B) Copper
C) Iron
D) Selenium
E) Magnesium
18) Examples of antioxidants include all of the following except _________

A) Ascorbic acid
B) Carotene
C) -Tocopherol
D) Hydroquinone
E) Gramicidin
19) One of the mechanisms by which vitamin C protects membrane is by
A) Regenerating reduced -tocopherol

B) Reacting with proline
C) Reacting with peroxyl radicals
20) The ultimate electron acceptor of the mitochondrial electron transport system is
A) Coenzyme Q
B) NADPH
C) O2
D) H2O
21) The major sources of NADH that reduce Complex I of the ETC include
A) Fatty acid oxidation

B) CoQ
C) Pentose phosphate pathway
D) The citric acid cycle
22) In Complex III, electrons are tranferred from UQH 2 to
A) O2
B) Coenzyme Q
C) Cytochrome c
D) FAD
E) NADH
23) ___________ is a metal cofactor of the cytochromes.
A) Fe
B) S
C) Co
D) Zn
E) Ca
24) Carbon monoxide inhibits which of the following?
A) NADH dehydrogenase
B) Ubiquinone
C) Cytochrome oxidase
D) Succinate dehydrogenase
E) None of above are correct
25) Which of the following is the best reducing agent?
A) H2O
B) O2
C) FADH2
D) FMNH2
E) NADH
26) The final product of oxidative phosphorylation is ________.
A) Water
B) ADP
C) NADPH
D) ATP
E) FMNH2
27) _____________ are hydrophobic molecules that dissipate ionic gradients.
A) Uncouplers
B) Ionophores
C) Xenobiotics
D) Radicals
28) The return of ______ into the mitochondrion is coupled to the formation of ______.
A) Ca+2/cAMP
B) Fe+2/CoQ
C) ADP/NADH
D) ADP/ CoASH
E) H+/ATP
29) The energy that is captured by the electron transport system is in the form of
A) NADH
B) FADH2
C) ATP
30) Reducing power generated in the cytoplasm can be transferred into the mitochondrion by
which of the following processes?
A) Glycerol phosphate shuttle

B) Malate-aspartate shuttle
C) The phosphate shuttle
D) A and B are correct
31) The cytochromes contain which type of prosthetic group?
A) FADH
B) Heme
C) TPP
D) Zinc++
E) NAD +
32) The function of complex III is the transfer of electrons from
A) Coenzyme Q to Cyt c
B) NADH to CoQ
C) Succinate to UQ
D) CoQ to NADH
E) UQ to succinate
33) Which of the following complexes contain copper?
A) Complex I
B) Complex II
C) Complex III
D) Complex IV
E) Complex V
34) Which of the following acts as an allosteric inhibitor of complex IV?
A) FMN
B) NADH
C) FADH2
D) ATP
E) ADP
35) Which of the following is not a step in the ATP synthesizing process?
A) ADP + Pi bind to the L site

B) ATP is synthesized as the L conformation converts to the T conformation
C) ATP is released as the T conformation converts to the O confirmation
D) The O conformation binds ADP and Pi
36) Nonshivering thermogenesis is regulated by which of the following?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Thermogenin
C) UCP2
D) ATP
E) GTP
37) The primary function of catalase is to
A) Detoxify peroxides
B) Reduce the disulfide group
C) Convert hydrogen peroxide to water
D) Generate ROS
E) Oxidize heme
38) How many ATP are generated during the oxidation of one NADH?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2.5
D) 3
E) 3.5
39) Which of the following would not be classified as a ROS?
A) Oxygen
B) CH3O.
C) H-O-O.
D) Hydroxide ion
E) All of the above are ROS
40) The principal sources of electrons for the electron transport system is (are) which of the
following
A) Glycolysis
B) Citric acid cycle
C) Fatty acid oxidation
41) The statement aerobic organisms use oxygen to generate energy required to maintain
metabolic processes yet they risk damage caused by highly reactive oxygen molecules can be
referred to as:
Oxidation
Reactive oxygen species
Oxygen paradox
Metabolic damage
Thermodynamic inconsistency
42) The ultimate waste products of aerobic cellular metabolism of oxygen include
Pyruvate
Ethyl alcohol
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
A or B
Ans C
43) According to the solid state model of electron transport electron transfer is efficient because
Electron transfer is the result of random collisions

There are short diffusion distances between components for mobile electron carriers
UQ is abundant
Cytochrome c diffuses rapidly
Electron carriers are mobile
44) How many protons are required to drive the phosphorylation of ADP by the mitochondrial
ATP synthase?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Five
45) A respiratory burst is initiated when NADPH reacts with oxygen to produce which of the
following?
A) Superoxide anion
B) Water
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Hydroxyl radical
E) Peroxide radical
46) Antimycin A inhibits cyt b in complex III. If this inhibitor is added to a suspension of
mitochondria which of the following will increase in concentration?
A) NADH
B) Reduced cytochrome c1
C Reduced cytochrome c
D) NAD+
E) A and D
CHAPTER ELEVEN
LIPIDS AND MEMBRANES
1) Fatty acid groups are referred to as ________ groups.
A) Acetyl
B) Acyl
C) Prenyl
D) Isoprenoid
E) Isopentenyl
2) The double bonds in naturally occurring fatty acids are usually _______ isomers.
A) Cis
B) Trans
C) Both cis and trans
D) Essential
E) Nonessential
3) The essential fatty acids are
A) Arachidonic acid
B) Linoleic acid
C) Linolenic acid
4) Fatty acids react with alcohols to form _____.
A) Amides
B) Ethers
C) Anhydrides
D) Epoxides
E) Esters
5) Prostaglandins are involved in _________.
A) Ovulation
B) Inflammation
C) Digestion
6) The functions of fat include
A) Insulation
B) Energy storage
C) Water-repellent properties
7) Waxes
A) Are complex mixtures of nonpolar lipids

B) Are esters formed from long-chain fatty acids and long-chain alcohols
C) Contain hydrocarbons, sterols, and alcohols
8) Phospholipids are
A) Structural components of membranes

B) Surface active agents
C) Rich energy sources
9) Phosphatidylcholine is sometimes referred to as ______.
A) PIP2
B) Cephalin
C) Ceramide
D) Cardiolipin
E)None of the above are correct
10) The myelin sheath
A) Surrounds nerve cell axons

B) Contains large amounts of cardiolipin
C) Facilitates nerve impulse transmission
11) All of the following are glycolipids except _________.

A) Sulfatides
B) Cerebrosides
C) Gangliosides
12) The role of very low density lipoproteins is
A) Scavenging the cholesterol from cell membranes

B) Transporting of lipids from liver to tissues
C) Transporting of cholesterol esters to the liver
13) Which of the following statements concerning carotenoids is not true?
A) Carotenoids are the only examples of the monoterpenes

B) The carotenes are hydrocarbon members of the carotenoids
C) Xanthophylls are oxygenated derivatives of the carotenes
D) Carotenoids are orange-colored pigments
14) Which of the following molecules is not a lipid?
A) Fatty acids
B) Steroids
C) Isoprenoids
D) Waxes
E) All of the above are lipids
15) The basic structure of biological membranes is a consequence of the physical properties of
_______.
A) Proteins
B) Phospholipids
C) Cholesterol
D) Water
16) A membrane’s fluidity is largely determined by the percentage of
A) Phosphatidyl choline
B) Phosphatidylethanolamine
C) Fatty acids
D) Cardiolipin
E) Unsaturated fatty acids
17) In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure
A) Proteins form an inner layer between two layers of lipid

B) Proteins coat an inner layer of lipids
C) Proteins float in a lipid bilayer
D) Proteins are covalently bonded to the lipid bilayer
18) Which of the following statements concerning the anion channel protein is not true?
A) It plays an important role in carbon dioxide transport in blood

B) It facilitates the chloride shift
C) Bicarbonate and chloride exchange occurs through the anion channel protein
D) The N-terminal methionine residue of the anion channel protein is prenylated
E) All of the above statements are true.
19) Energy requiring transport mechanisms include
A) Primary active transport

B) Diffusion
C) Facilitated diffusion
20) In simple diffusion a solute
A) Is propelled by random molecular motion

B) Moves up its concentration gradient
C) Moves across a membrane because of an input of free energy.
21) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Membrane potential is an electrical gradient across a membrane.

B) A decrease in membrane potential is referred to as membrane depoalarization.
C) The term repolarization is defined as the reestablishment of the original membrane potential.
D) The diffusion of potassium ions out of a nerve cell make the inside of the membrane negative.
E) The sodium channel in muscle and nerve cells is a voltage-gated channel.
22) In muscle cells, local depolarization caused by acetylcholine binding leads to the opening of
the voltage gated _____channels.
A) Chloride
B) Potassium
C) Proton
D) Sodium
E) Glucose permease
23) The function of glucose permease is an example of

A) Primary active transport
B) Secondary active trasnport
C) Facilitated diffusion
D) Simple diffusion
24) -6 Fatty acids
A) Have a double bond six carbon atoms from the carbonyl end of the chain
B) Have a double bond six carbon atoms from the methyl end of the chain
C) Have six double bonds in the molecule
D) Have three more double bonds than -3 fatty acids
E) Contain six trans double bonds in the molecule
25) Membrane receptors are transmembrane molecules or molecular complexes that
A) Monitor and respond to changes in the cell’s environment.

B) Bind to hormones or neurotransmitters
C) Are involved in embryonic and fetal development
D) Initiate an intracellular response when they bind an appropriate molecule
26) Patients with familial hypercholesterolemia
A) Possess depressed levels of plasma cholesterol

B) Have missing or defective LDL receptors
C) Are homozygous or heterozygous for a nonfunctional LDL receptor gene
D) Have very high levels of serum cholesterol
E) B, C and D are correct
27) Indicate which of the following compounds is a endocannabinoid.
A) Oleic acid
B) Arachidonic acid
C) Anandamine
D) Prostaglandin
E) -3 Fatty acids
28) Low fat diets deficient in essential fatty acids are characterized by which of the following?
A) Poor wound healing

B) Alopecia
C) Dental caries
D Ketone bodies
29) Which of the following structural features is not characteristic of TXA 2 ?
A) An ether ring
B) One OH group
C) Two double bonds
D) One double bond
E) Is derived from arachidonic acid
30) Neutral fats belong to which of the following?
A) Phospholipids
B) Glycolipids
C) Prostaglandins
D) Triacylglycerols
E) Free fatty acids
16) In addition to the prostaglandins and leukotrienes the autocrine regulators include:
A) Arachidonic acid
B) Linoleic acid
C) Thromboxanes
D) Steroids
17) Choose the lipid class that acts as surfactants.
A) Triacylglycerols
B) Fatty acids
C) Waxes
D) Phospholipids
18) Membrane proteins are linked to anchor molecules through a ___________ link
A) Ether
B) Ester
C) Amide
D) Amino
E) Plasma
19) Glycolipids differ from sphingolipids in that they contain no _________.
A) Carbohydrate
B) Phosphate
C) Fatty acid
D) Choline
20) Which of the following is not likely to be a naturally occurring fatty acid
A) C13H27COOH
B) C14H29COOH
C) C15H31COOH
D) C17H35COOH
E) C19H39COOH
21) How many isoprene units does a diterpene contain?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
22) The function of dolichols is to
A) Transport sugars in glycoprotein synthesis

B) Bind carbohydrate on the cell surface of bacteria
C) Bind to oxygenated carotenes
D) Serve as precursors of carotenoids
E) They are degradation products of steroids
23) Plasma lipoproteins transport _______ through the blood from one organ to another.
A) Triacylglycerols
B) Phospholipids
C) Cholesteryl esters
24) _________ are the principal transporters of cholesteryl esters to tissues.
A) Chylomicrons
B) Very low density lipoprotein
C) Intermediate density lipoprotein
D) Low density lipoprotein
25) Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a defective _______ ion channel in their epithelial
membrane
A) Water
B) Chloride
C) Potassium
D) Protein
E) Sodium
26) A consequence of replacing dietary fat content with sugars is
A) No effect on body weight

B) An increase in body weight
C) A small loss of body weight
D) A large decrease in body weight
E) An initial loss of weight followed by a large increase in body weight
27) Which of the following is not a consequence of a low fat diet?
A) Low levels of fat soluble vitamins

B) Low levels of essential fatty acids
C) Brittle hair
D) Poor would healing
E) Low blood pressure
43) Phospholipase B hydrolyzes ______ ester bonds in phospholipids

A) C-1
B) C-2
C) C-3
D) Both C-1 and C-2
E) All of the above
44) Which of the following is not a function of phospholipases?
A) Membrane remodeling
B) Signal transduction
C) Energy storage
D) Digestion
E) Toxic Phospholipases
45) Membranes are rigid when they contain
A) Large amounts of cholesterol

B) Large amounts of unsaturated fatty acids
C) Large amounts of saturated fatty acids
D) Large amounts of water
E) A and B
46) Flippase transfers _________ from the outer to inner membrane leaflet
A) Phospholipids
B) Cholesterol
C) Triacylglycerols
D) Glycolipids
E) Water
Biochemistry Chapter 12 (Lipid Metabolism)

1) How many acetyl-CoA are required to synthesize one molecule of isopentenyl
pyrophosphate?
2) ___ is used to transport fatty acids into mitochondria.
3) The b-oxidation of fatty acids requires_________.
4) ____ a product of the oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids; is converted to succinyl-CoA.
5) ____ derive a substantial amount of energy from the oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids.
6) The carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from

7) The following reaction requires the presence of ___?
8) In animals the function of peroxisomal b-oxidation appears to be
9) The acetyl-CoA derived from glyoxysomal b-oxidation is converted to carbohydrate via
10) Refsum's disease results from a buildup of ________in nerve tissue
11) Which of the following is not one of the ketone bodies?
12) Most eicosanoids are derived from ________acid.
13) Glycerol from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols is transported by the blood to the ____.
14) The intermediates in fatty acid synthesis are linked through a ________linkage to ACP.
15) Saturated fatty acids containing up to 16 carbon atoms are assembled in
16) Fatty acid synthesis begins with the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form
17) All of the following are enzymatic activities found in fatty acid synthase except
18) Desaturation of fatty acids involves all of the following except:
19) Which of the following types of fatty acid oxidation produces a dicarboxylic acid?
20) The conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA is inhibited by

21) The conversion of acyl-CoA to acylcarnitine is inhibited by __________.
22) In conjugation reactions
23) Depending on an animal's metabolic needs, fatty acids may be converted to
triacylglycerols, energy or __________.
24) Membrane remodeling
25) The conversion of phosphatidylethanolamine to phosphatidylcholine requires ______.
26) The sulfatides are synthesized when ________ reacts with 3-phosphoadenosine-5'-
phosphosulfate.
27) __________ is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis.
28) The conversion of squalene to cholesterol requires ________.
29) Cholesterol is a precursor of _________.
30) Most bile acids are conjugated with ________.
31) Which of the following tissues cannot use fatty acids as a fuel?
32) Lipolysis is used to
33) Oxidation of the carbon farthest from the carbonyl group of a fatty acid is called
34) In the process of thiolytic cleavage the following occurs:
35) How many FADH2 molecules would be produced in the oxidation of palmitic acid?
36) The rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis is
37) What form of oxidation is characteristic of branched chain fatty acids?
38) The metabolism of fatty acids is regulated in the short term by allosteric modulators,
covalent modification and
39) The most important mechanism for degrading and eliminating cholesterol is the synthesis
of
40) The absorption of triglycerides and other lipid nutrients and their distribution to body
tissues is referred to as
41) The pathway in which lipoproteins are transported from the liver to cells is referred to as
the
42) Which of the following is not a function of lipids:
43) The principal means of producing glycerol in the body is
44) The triacylglycerol cycle is
45) The recycling rate of triacylglycerols to fatty acids is inhibited by
46) Which of the following lipids have signaling functions?
CHAPTER 13
1) In addition to urea humans also excrete waste nitrogen as - Uric acid
2) Stress proteins molecules, including heat-shock proteins, that are produced within cells in
response to exposure to marked increases in temperature and to other forms of severe stress, such
as toxins, rapid pH changes, and viral infections
3) The ammonia that is incorporated into urea molecules is produced in reactions catalyzed by all
of the following enzymes except
5) Amino acids whose degradation yields acetyl-CoA include all of the following except ___.
6) Homogentisate is an intermediate in the degradation of _tyrosine__.7) a-Ketoadipate is an

intermediate in the degradation of __lysine and tryptophan_.
8) In addition to phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine

requires ___O2 and tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)_
9) Amino acids whose degradation yields a-ketoglutarate include all of the following except
_________.
10) Glutamate-g-semialdehyde is an intermediate in the degradation of arginine and Proline.
11) Amino acids whose degradation yields succinyl-CoA includes all of the following except
________.
13) Albinism is caused by the absence of
14) The major route for protein degradation is

15) Which of the following reactions require SAM?
16) The production of antibodies
17) Which of the following is not a characteristic N-terminal amio acid residue of long-lived
proteins
18) Covalently bound chains with ____ or more ubiquitin monomers are required to transfer a
protein to the proteosome.
19) Which of the following amino acids reacts with HOCl to form a nontoxic product during
respiratory bursts?
20) The end product of uracil degradation is Acetyl CoA21) The end product of thymine
degradation is Succionyl CoA22) Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of
23) The glucogenic amino acids include all of the following except ______.
24) Components of the transulfuration pathway include all of the following except _____.
25) In adenosine deaminase deficiency large concentrations of dATP result in the inhibition of
_____________.
26) Which of the following tissues can only replenish citric acid cycle intermediates by the purine
nucleotide cycle?
27) All of the following are directly involved in protein turnover except _______.
28) Propionyl-CoA and L-methylmalonyl-CoA are intermediates in the conversion of ________

to succinyl-CoA
Isoleucine, valine and methionine29) The end products of the transulfuration pathway are sulfate
and _______. - pyruvate30) Methylmalonic acidemia results from a deficiency of
31) The main nitrogen storage molecule in animals is
32) Decomposers convert organic nitrogen to ________.
33) In general, catabolism of amino acids begins with
34) In muscle excess amino groups are transferred to _________ to produce glutamate
35) Ammonia is transferred to the liver as
36) Urea is synthesized in which organ?
37) In patients with alkaptonuria the urine is colored _________.
38) High phenylalanine blood levels from phenylketonuria results in damage to which organ?
39) Which of the following conditions result in a buildup of a-ketoacids derived from branced
chain amino acids?
40) A buildup of uric acid is characteristic of which of the following diseases?
41) Autophagy is
42) Phagocytosis is
43) Proteosomal digestion of what type of protein does not require ubiquination
44) Autophagy is triggered by
45) The ultimate products of autophagy include
46) The major catabolic mechanism used by eukaryotic cells to maintain optimal function and
respond to changing environmental conditions is
CHAPTER FOURTEENNITROGEN METABOLISM I: SYNTHESIS
1) The glutamate family of amino acids includes all of the following except _____.
2) Which of the following is an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter?
3) All of the following are referred to collectively as the branched chain amino acids except
_________.
4) Which of the following is an example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
5) Glycine is used as a precursor molecule in the synthesis of all of the following except
_______.
6) In plants fixed nitrogen is assimilated into __________.
7) a-Ketoisovalerate is an intermediate formed during the synthesis of _________.
8) The group of molecules called the catecholamines include all of the following except
_________.
9) Tryptophan is a precursor in the synthesis of _________.
10) Chorismate is a precursor in the synthesis of all of the following except _______.
11) Molecules involved in histidine synthesis include ________.
12) All of the following statements concerning folic acid are true except:
13) SAM is a methyl donor in the synthesis of ______. -
14) Amethopterin is a structural analogue of _________.
15) The tranport of GSH out of cells serves all of the following functions except ______.
16) All of the following are purine bases except _____.

17) Deficiency of _______ causes Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
18) All of the following are directly involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid except
_______.
19) Inorganic nitrogen is initially assimilated into which of the following amino acids
20) The amino acids serine and _______ are preferentially used to synthesize glucose for export
from the liver
21) Nitrogen fixation requires iron and ________ as cofactors.
22) One-carbon carriers in metabolism include
23) Which of the following is an a-keto acid/a-amino acid pair used in transamination?
24) In plants the pathway by which most ammonium ion is incorporated into organic molecules
requires
25) Asparagine is formed from aspartic acid and _________ .
26) The benzene ring of the aromatic amino acids is formed by the
27) The oxidation state of the methenyl group (-CH=) is comparable to that of ____.
28) The methylated product of _______ is creatine.
29) The fixation of nitrogen requires _______.
30) Most aminotransferaes utilize ________as the recipient a-keto acid.
31) The primary energy source for enterocytes is:
32) ________ ATP molecules are required to convert one mole of nitrogen to two ammonia
molecules.
33) The first step in nitrogen fixation is ________.
34) The major form of regulation of nitrogen fixation is _______.
35) The first amino acid containing newly fixed nitrogen is _______.
36) Which of the following is not a gasotransmitter?
37) Which of the following compounds is not present in the normal process of nitrogen fixation
Include:
38) Hydrogen sulfide is produced from Cysteine and several enzyme (CBS CSE)
39) The six families of amino acids are glutamate, aromatic, serine, aspartate, pyruvate and
_______.
40) Which of the following neurotransmitters are derived from amino acids?
41) In ocean water phytoplankton growth is limited by temperature and low levels of nutrients
containing
42) Hypoxic water is characterized by
43) The ultimate products of mineralization of organic nitrogen is N244) The most common
intracellular reducing agent is
45) In nitrogen fixation by microorganisms what gas other than ammonia is produced?
46) Which of the following is not a function of glutathione
1. Major endogenous antioxidant molecule that
2. Plays a role in diverse biochemistry process :
3. Protects cells from
CHAPTER SIXTEEN: INTEGRATION OF METABOLISM
1) The liver performs all of the following functions except
A) Blood glucose regulation

B) Processing of foreign molecules
C) Storage of energy in the form of fat
D) Synthesis of plasma protein
E) Synthesis of urea
2) During fasting and prolonged starvation, skeletal muscle
A) Protein is degraded to provide amino acids to the liver for gluconeogenesis

B) Released as fat into the blood for storage in adipose tissue
C) Is synthesized from blood lactate
D) Converts glutamine molecules to proline
3) The cells that line the small intestine, which are responsible for the absorption of nutrients
into the body, are called
A) Adipocytes
B) Tubule cells
C) Hepatocytes
D) Enterocytes
E) Epithelial cells
4) The functions of the kidney include all of the following except
A) Blood pH regulation
B) Body water regulation
C) Reabsorption of electrolytes, sugars, and amino acids from the urinary filtrate
D) Filtration of blood plasma which results in the excretion of water-soluble waste products
E) Production of urea from ammonia
5) The most distinctive characteristic of living organisms is
A) Cellular structure
B) The autonomous capacity to sustain adequate operating conditions
C) Utilization of carbon compounds as food
D) Complex cellular mechanisms
E) Utilizing environmental materials as energy sources
6) A simple system for information flow is composed of three components: reception,

transduction and response. In multicellular organisms hormones play a role in which phase?
A) Reception
B) Transduction
C) Response
D) Hormones are not involved in the process of information flow
7) In a metabolic steady state the rate of anabolic processes is approximately equal to:
A) Catabolic processes
B) Cellular energy needs
C) Nutrient intake
D) Cellular repair and growth
E) B and C
8) In animals the vast majority of water-soluble hormones are

A) Peptides
B) Steroids
C) Polypeptides
D) Carbohydrates
E) A and C
9) The molecules that mediate the growth-promoting actions of GH are referred to as the
A) Interferons
B) Mitogens
C) Insulin-like growth factors
10) Symptoms of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus include all of the following except
A) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis

B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperlipoproteinemia
D) Ketoacidosis
E) Polyuria
11) Steroid hormones
A) Are transported in blood attached to transport proteins

B) Bind to intracellular receptors
C) Diffuse through the plasma membrane of target cells
12) Which of the following is not a major source of extracellular signal molecules?
A) Steroids
B) Modified amino acids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fatty acids
E) Proteins
13) The biological effects of atrial natriuretic factor appear to be mediated by ______.
A) cAMP
B) cGMP
C) PIP2
D) AG
E) IP3
14) In animals the ______ system has a primary responsibility for co-ordinating metabolism.
A) Nervous
B) Lymphatic
C) Hepatic
D) Endocrine
E) A and D
15) The IP3 receptor
A) Binds cGMP
B) Is associated with Gi
C) Is a calcium channel
16) A DNA segment that binds a hormone-receptor complex is called a _________.
A) DRE
B) DAG
C) EGF
D) HRE
E) IGF
17) Calmodulin is a
A) Transmembrane receptor
B) Calcium-binding protein
C) HSP
D) Plant hormone
E) A, B and C are correct
18) Insulin resistance is
A) A risk factor for Type I diabetes

B) A risk factor for Type II diabetes
C) Caused by excessive production of ANF
D) Associated with damage to the adrenal gland
19) Receptors for most water soluble hormones are located in what part of the cell?
A) Plasma membrane
C) Nucleus
D) Cytoplasm
E) Nuclear membrane
20) Which of the following is not a second messenger molecule?
A) cGMP
B) cAMP
C) Calcium
D) Steroids
E) Inostol-phospholipid system
21) The most prominent mechanism to prevent excessive hormone synthesis is
A) Desensitization
B) Downregulation
C) Feedback inhibition
D) Target cell stimulation
E) Sensitization
22) Enterocytes require large amounts of energy supplied by
A) Glucose oxidase
B) Fatty acid degradation
C) Lactose oxidation
D) Glutamine
E) Alanine
23) The organ responsible for processing most foreign molecules is
A) Intestine
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Blood
24) Insulin-resistance is associated with all of the following except _______.
A) Obesity
B) Desensitization
C) Down-regulation
D) IDDM
E) NIDDM
25) Biochemical signal molecules include _________.
A) Amino acids
B) Fatty acid derivatives
C) Steroids
D) Peptides
26) Receptor tyrosine kinases are transmembrane receptors that bind ligands such as
A) Insulin
B) Epidermal growth factor
C) Platelet derived growth factor
D) Insulin like growth factor
E) All of the above
27) Which of the following molecules is a second messenger?
A) TSH
B) cGMP
C) Proline
D) Calcium
E) Both B and D are correct
28) The organ responsible for the regulation of blood pH is
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Intestine
D) Brain
E) Stomach
29) Most diabetic complications are the result of
A) Glycation
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Damage to the vascular system
30) The principle target tissues of insulin include
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Liver
C) Adipose tissue
31) Animals employing several mechanisms to prevent excessive hormone action and release.
Examples include which of the following?
A) Genetic regulation
B) Feedback inhibition
C) Desensitization
D) Down regulation
32) Which of the following molecules do GPCRs not respond to?
A) Catecholamines
B) Oxytocin
C) Light
D) Dopamine
E) Insulin
33) Which of the following is a role of PKB?
A) Stimulation of glycogen synthesis

B) Inhibition of lipolysis
C) Glucose transport into adipocytes
D) Activation of mTOR
E) All of the above are roles of PKB
34) An example of a cytokine is
A) Epidermal growth factor

B) Interleukins
C) Interferons
D) Insulin-like growth factors
E) B and C
35) The most serious acute symptom of type 1 diabetes is
A) Anemia
B) Ketoacidosis
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Insulin resistance
36) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketosis can occur in type _____ Diabetes
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Insulin dependent diabetes
D) Is present in all forms of diabetes
E) Is not a symptom of diabetes
37) During periods of starvation muscle reduces its consumption of glucose. This spares its use
for which of the following organs?
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Brain
E) Lungs
38) Leptin is secreted by which of the following tissues?
A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Adipose tissue
D) Muscle
E) Gasterintestinal tract
39) The brain consumes about _______% of the body’s energy.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 50
40) The phosphatidylinositol cycle mediates the action of all of the following except ______.
A) Acetylcholine
B) Insulin
C) Glucagon
D) Vasopressin
E) GRH
41) Metabolism of fructose in the liver rapidly depletes which of the following
A) NADPH
B) ATP
C) Triose phosphate
D) AMP
E) Glucose
42) An autoimmune disease caused by the destruction of the insulin producing beta cells of the
pancreas is called
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Dyslipidemia
C) Glucosuria
D) Type II diabetes
E) Type I diabetes
43) Extreme thirst and frequent urination in diabetics is directly caused by
A) Osmotic diuresis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Dyslipidemia
D) Glucosuria
E) Adipoisledimia
44) Type II diabetes is uniquely characterized by:
A) Hyperinsulinemia
B) Depressed insulin levels
C) Insulin resistance
D) Depressed glucose levels
E) A and C
45) Which of the following carbohydrates is a major contributing cause of

dyslipidemia non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?
A) Glucose
B) Ribose
C) Fructose
D) Galactose
E) Xylose
46) Urea synthesis is the responsibility of which organ of the body?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Intestine
D) Stomach
E) Lung
CHAPTER 17: NUCLEIC ACIDS
1) The classic experiment that demonstrated that radioactively labeled viral DNA
transforms bacterial cells were performed by:
2) Which of the following describes the flow of genetic information as stated in the
central dogma of molecular biology?
3) The DNA “backbone” is composed of:

4) Nucleosomes are composed of all of the following except ________.
5) There are approximately _________ human genes.
6) ______ are gene sequences that code for a gene product.
7) A genome is:
8) Protein synthesis is called:
9) The entire set of proteins synthesized by a cell is called:
10) The polyamines assist in the compression of eukaryotic chromosome structure

because they:
11) In nucleosome structure the histone ________ aids in stabilizing the wrapping of
DNA around the protein octomer.
12) Chromatin contains several levels of structure which include:
13) D loops and variable loops are found in _______.
14) Which of the following are involved in the splicing of RNA molecules?
15) The DNA strand that acts as a template during transcription is referred to as the __
strand.
16) Determine the mRNA sequence for the following DNA sequence.
17) Which of the following does not contribute to the non-covalent interactions that
stabilize the helical strands of DNA?
18) During a transition mutation which of the following bases would be substituted for
cytosine?
19) The polyamines are a class of DNA binding molecules that include ______.
20) _______ are structures that occur at the ends of chromosomes.
21) HIV infection of a susceptible cell is initiated when the gp120 envelope protein
binds the _______ antigen.
22) HIV is a type of:

23) HIV possesses a ________ genome.
24) Hydroxyapatite:
25) Southern blotting:
26) The genetic variations observed in DNA fingerprinting are referred to as ______.
27) The extraction and purification of bacterial DNA involves the use of which of the
following:
28) Palindromes:
29) The denaturation of DNA is:
30) The chain terminating method for sequencing DNA was developed by:
31) In a transversion mutation: purine is substituted for pyrimidine:
32) A nucleoid is:
33) Chromatin is:
34) Intergenic sequences are:
35) Restriction enzymes:
36) The hypochromic effect is:
37) Which of the following is the largest and most complex structure?
38) Which of the following is not a function of RNA?
39) Which of the following statements is not true of mRNA?
40) Lysogeny is:
41) A defect in which of the following HAR’s can result in microcephaly?

a.
42) The change of a single base pair in a DNA chain is referred to as:
43) A mutation caused by an alkylating agent is referred to as:
44) A point mutation that converts the code for an amino acid to a premature stop signal
is referred to as:
45) Which of the following is not an endogenous cause of DNA damage?

46) Point mutations that occur in a population to any extent are referred to as:
CHAPTER EIGHTEEN: GENETIC INFORMATION
1) The replisome consists of all of the following proteins except _________.
A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA topoisomerase
C) Primase
D) Catabolic gene activator protein
E) Helicase
2) The experiment that demonstrated the mechanism whereby DNA is synthesized was
performed by
A) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty

B) Watson and Crick
C) Linus Pauling
D) Messelson and Stahl
E) Maurice Wilkins
3) The _____ are enzymes that catalyze the unwinding of duplex DNA.
A) Topoisomerases
B) Helicases
C) Ligases
D) Primases
E) Unwindases
4) SSB are
A) A series of nucleases that degrade RNA primers

B) Substrates for DNA ligase
C) Proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA
D) Enzymes that catalyze Okazaki fragment formation
E) Molecules that bind to DNA
5) The background rate of spontaneous mutations is approximately ________ mutations per gene
per million gametes
A) 0.01 to 0.1
B) 0.1 to 1
C) 1 to 10
D) 10 to 100
6) DNA polymerase is believed to be involved in
A) Eukaryotic DNA repair

B) Mitochondrial DNA replication
C) Chloroplast DNA replication
D) Prokaryotic DNA synthesis
E) Chloroplast DNA repair
7) Mutations are caused by all of the following except ________.
A) Depurinations
B) Radiation
C) Viruses
D) Oxidative Damage
8) DNA molecules are copied or replicated by a _______ mechanism.
A) Conservative
B) Semiconservative
C) Dispersive
D) More than one answer is correct
9) The tangling of DNA strands during replication is prevented by _________.
A) Topoisomerases
B) Helicases
C) Ligases
D) Primases
E) Unwindases
10) The rate of DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is approximately_________ nucleotides per

________ per replication fork.
A) 10/ second
B) 50 / second
C) 100 / second
D) 50 / minute
E) 100/ minute
11) In the eukaryotic cell cycle the M(itosis) phase occurs after the ______ phase.
A) Go
B) G1
C) G2
D) S
12) _______ is a form of intermicrobial DNA transfer that occurs when bacteriophage
inadvertantly serve as carriers of bacterial DNA to the recipient cell.
A) Transposition
B) Conjugation
C) Transformation
D) Tranduction
E) Recombination
13) The initiation of transcription involves the binding of RNA polymerase to a specific sequence
called a __________.
A) Delta repeat
B) consensus sequence
C) Promoter
D) Primer
E) Long terminal repeat
14) All of the following gene products are coded for by constitutive genes except ______.
A) Histone
B) Aconitase
C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D) Lactose
E) rRNA
15) The reassortment of DNA sequences is called
A) Duplication
B) Replication
C) Recombination
D) Decoding
Reconstitution
16) _______ are tumors that arise in connective tissue.
A) Lymphomas
B) Leukemias
C) Carcinomas
D) Sarcomas
17) ______ is a protooncogene that codes for a GTP-binding protein.
A) Sis
B) Src
C) Jun
D) Myc
18) ______ is a protooncogene that codes for platelet-derived growth factor.
A) Sis
B) Src
C) Jun
D) Myc
19) _______ is a product of a delayed response gene.
A) Cyclin
B) Jun
C) Fos
D) AP-1
E) Myc
20) ______ is an enzyme that catalyzes a critical step in replicative transposition.
A) Unwindase
B) Replicase
C) Resolvase
D) Primase
E) Catabolic gene activation protein
21) DNA synthesis is called
A) Transcription
B) Replication
C) Translation
D) Transformation
E) Transposition
22) _______ catalyzes the transcription of the precursor of the tRNAs and 5S rRNA.
A) RNA polymerase I
B) RNA polymerase II
C) RNA polymerase III
D) RNA directed DNA polymerase
23) DNA transposition can cause gene ______.
A) Duplication
B) Deletion
C) Transcription
24) Many promoters for RNA polymerase II contain a consensus sequence call the _______.
A) CAAT box
B) GC box
C) Pribnow box
D) TATA box
E) Okazaki box
25) Place the following steps of general recombination in chronological order
i. DNA ligase seals the cut ends

ii A second series of DNA strand cuts occurs opposite the first crossover strands
iii Two homologus DNA molecules become paired
iv DNA polymerase fills any gaps and DNA ligase seals the cut strands
v Two of the DNA strands are cleaved
vi The two strand segments cross over
A) i, iii, v, iv, ii, vi

B) iii, iv, vi, i, vi,iii
C) iv, ii, v, i, ii, iv
D) iii, v, vi, i, ii, iv
E) v, vi, i, ii, iv, iii
26) Most of the carcinogenic effects of radiation are believed to be the result of _______.
A) Viruses
B) Transposition
C) ROS
D) Transduction
E) Alkylation
27) DNA is synthesized in which of the following directions
A) In the 5’ 3’ direction on the leading strand and 3’ 5’ direction on the lagging strand
B) In the 3’ 5” direction on the leading strand and the 5’ 3’ direction on the lagging strand
C) In the 5’ 3’ direction on both DNA strands
D) The direction differs depending on the genes being duplicated
28) All of the following play a role in DNA repair except ________.
A) Light
B) PR enzyme
C) Ribozymes
D) Endonuclease
E) Pol I
29) In the absence of its inducer the lac operon remains repressed because of the binding of lac
repressor to the _______.
A) Promoter
B) Regulatory gene
C) Catabolic gene activator protein
D) Operator
E) CAP site
30) Eukaryotic gene expression is affected by all of the following except ______.
A) RNA processing
B) Translational control
C)) Gene rearrangements
D) Transcriptional control
31) The majority of genetic variations arise from
A) Mutations
B) Genetic recombination
C) Base deletion
D) Tautomerism
32) Topoisomerases
A) Join DNA strands together

B) Prevent tangling of DNA strands
C) Relieve torque in replicating DNA
D) Change the supercoiling of DNA
33) Type II topoisomerases
A) Produce double stranded breaks in DNA

B) Replicate only the lagging strand
C) Replicate only the leading strand
D) Relieve torque ahead of the replicating machinery
34) In higher eukaryotes replication begins with the

A) Origin of replication complex (ORC)
B) Assembly of pre-initiation replication complex (preRC)
C) Recruiting of the MCM complex to the replication site
D) Stabilizing of the DNA strands by replication protein A (RPA)
E) Attachment of DNA polymerase to each DNA strand
35) Light-induced repair will correct which of the following mutations
A) Deamination of adenine
B) Reversion of thymine dimers
C) Tautomerism of uracil
D) Removal of nucleotides
E) Breaks in the phosphodiester linkage
36) In nucleotide excision repair
A) Single bases are removed and replaced

B) Bulky lesions are removed
C) Thymine dimers are replaced
D) Gaps are repaired by DNA polymerase
E) Nucleotides are removed and new ones insterted
37) Insertion of viral DNA into a host cell’s genome is an example of
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) Site specific recombination
E) Meiosis
38) Genomic libraries are produced by
A) Colony hybridization techniques

B) Polymerase chain reactions
C) Electroporation
D) Shotgun cloning
E) Cosmids
39) Homology modeling facilitates
A) Protein structure prediction

B) Open reading frames synthesis
C) Stop codons deletion
D) Protein function
E) Start codon initiation
40) Protooncogenes are
A) Normal genes that code for transcription factors

B) Normal genes that if mutated can promote carcinogenesis
C) Tumor supressor genes
D) Growth factor receptor genes
41) An exonuclease is an enzyme that
A) Depolymerizes RNA only

B) Polymerizes DNA and RNA
C) Removes nucleotides from the end of a polynucleotide strand
D) Add nucleotides to the end of a polynucleotide strand
E) Depolymerizes DNA only
42) Repair of DNA by the SOS system has a major disadvantage

A) Repair is slow
B) Repair is error prone
C) Repair cannot replace missing nucleotide sequences
D) Frequently fragments the DNA chain
E) C and D
43) A difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA polymerases is:
A) Polymerizes DNA from opposite ends of the DNA chain

B) Eukaryotic DNA polymerases do not remove RNA primers
C) Prokaryotic polymerases work with both DNA and RNA chains
D) Prokaryotic DNA polymerases do not require an RNA primer
E) There are no differences
44) The average natural mutation rate for plants and animals is one mutation per ______
genes/generation.
A) 10,000
B) 50,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 250,000
45) ____________ repair occurs only on a strand actively being transcribed,
A) Mismatch repair
B) Transcription coupling repair
C) Replication slippage
D) DNA
E) RNA
46) __________ corrects replication proofreading errors.
A) Mismatch repair
B) Transcription coupling repair
C) Reading repair
D) Transcription coupling repair factor
E) Isomerase repair factor
CHAPTER NINETEEN: PROTEIN SYNTHESIS

1) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a
A) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds IF-3

B) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds 16S rRNA of the small ribosomal subunit
C) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds the 16S RNA of the large ribosomal subunit
D) Eukaryotic rRNA sequence that binds the AUG codon of mRNA
2) The initiation phase of prokaryotic translation ends as the GTP molecule bound to ________ is
hydrolysed to GDP and Pi
A) IF-1
B) IF-2
C) IF-3
D) IF-4
3) During the elongation phase of prokaryotic translation the aminoacyl-tRNA must first bind
_________ before it can be positioned in the A site.
A) EF-Ts
B) EF-Tu
C) EF-Ts-GDP
D) EF-Ts-GTP
E) EF-Tu-GTP
4) ________ is an enzymatic activity that hydrolyses the bond linking the completed polypeptide
chain and the P site tRNA
A) RF-1
B) EF-G
C) Peptidyl transferase
D) Ribosomal esterase
E) Signal peptidase
5) Prominent prokaryotic posttanslational modifications include all of the following except

__________.
A) Glycosylation
B) Methylation
C) Proteolytic processing
D) Prenylation
E) Phosphorylation
6) In prokaryotes most of the control of protein synthesis occurs at the level of ______.
A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Reverse transcription
E) Posttranslational modification
7) The enzymatic activities coded by the lac operon include all of the following except:
A) Thiogalactoside transacylase
B) Lactose transferase
C) -Galactosidase
D) Galactose permease
8) Translocation in eukaryotes requires _____, which is a GTP binding protein.
A) eEF-1
B) eEF-2
C) eEF-3
D) eEF-4
9) In eukaryotic translation the 40S complex binds the 60S subunit to form the _______
initiation complex.
A) 80S
B) 88S
C) 90S
D) 100S
E) 108S
10) ________ provides the energy needed to move the ribosome along the mRNA.
A) ATP
B) GTP
C) UTP
D) TTP
11) Polypeptides containing signal peptides are called ________.
A) Zymogens
B) Preproproteins
C) Proproteins
12) Phosphorylated dolichol, a polyisoprenoid found in ER membrane, is involved in
A) Polypeptide synthesis
B) Proteolytic cleavage reactions
C) Lipophillic modification reactions
D) Hydroxylation reactions
E) Glycosylation reactions
13) All of the following are involved in signal peptide processing except
A) Ribosomal polypeptide translocation factor

B) SRP receptor protein
C) Docking protein
D) Translocon
E) Stop transfer signal
14) The phrase “global control” refers to
A) Large alterations in mRNA translation patterns

B) Large alterations in mRNA synthesis patterns
C) Specific changes in rRNA synthesis
D) Specific changes in mRNA synthesis
E) Changes in transcript localization patterns
15) Translational frame shifting
A) Results in the synthesis of more than one polypeptide from a single mRNA
B) Has been observed in cells infected by retroviruses
C) Is the result of a +1 or –1 change in the reading frame of an mRNA
16) All of the following statements concerning eukaryotic mRNA are true except
A) Only a small portion of mRNA enters the cytoplasm

B) Most hnRNA is processed into mRNA
C) Export of mRNA through muclear pores is carefully controlled
D) mRNA export usually requires a 5’-cap and a 3’-poly A tail
17) Eukaryotic mRNA stability involves
A) Reversible adenylation
B) The length of poly (A) tails
C) The binding of specific proteins to certain mRNA sequences
D) The action of various nucleases
18) _______ are a group of molecules that mediate protein folding.
A) Hsp 70s
B) Chaparonins
C) Docking protein
19) The mRNA that codes for ________ possesses an iron response element.
A) Collagen
B) Elastin
C) Globin
D) Ferritin
E) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
20) Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that
A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase

B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to the 30S subunit
C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to 30S subunit
D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
21) Cycloheximide is an antibiotic that

B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30s subunit
C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit
22) Tetracycline is an antibiotic that

B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit
C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding to the 30S subunit
23) Erythromycin is an antibiotic that

B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit
C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit
24) Which of the following antibiotics would be most toxic for humans
A) Tetracycline
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Streptomcyin
D) Cycloheximide
E) Erythromycin
25) Ribonucleoprotein particles
A) Contain an mRNA
B) Contain several types of protein
C) Are found only in prokaryotes
26) _________ is a translation factor that possesses a unique histidine residue that can be
modified to form dipthamide
A) IF-2
B) EF-Tu
C) EF-Ts
D) eEF-1
E) eEF-2
27) Hydroxylation is a posttranslational modification that
A) Requires ascorbic acid

B) Is catalyzed by several mixed function oxidases
C) Is required for the structural integrity of globin
28) In prokaryotes posttranslational methylation reactions are associated with
A) Signal transduction
B) Chemotaxis
C) S-Adenosylmethionine
29) The half-lives of prokaryotic mRNA usually varies between
A) 1 and 3 seconds
B) 1 and 3 minutes
C) 1 and 3 hours
D) 3 and 10 hours
30) Peptidyl transferase is an enzymatic activity that
A) Catalyzes the release of polypeptides from the ribosomes

B) Is found in an rRNA component of ribosomes
C) Catalyzes the nucleophilic attack of the A site -amino group on the carbonyl carbon of the P
side amino acid
D) Catalyzes peptide bond formation
31) Energy for ribosome function is provided by
A. ATP
B. GTP
C. Phosphoenolpyruvate
D. Hydrolysis of pyrophosphate
E. Both A and B are correct
32) Unlike the protein synthesis mechanism in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, mitochondria
have _______ stop codes.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
33) An analysis of the wobble hypothesis suggests that a minimum of _______ RNA’s are
required to translate all 61 codons plus one for a start codon.
A. 22
B. 32
C. 16
D. 62
E. 30
34) Translation begins with
A. Elongation
B. Initiation
C. Termination
D. Targeting
E. tRNA synthesis
35) Which of the following is a type of posttranslational modification?
A. Removal of signal peptides

B. Carboxylation
C. Methylation
D. Phosphorylation
E. All of the above
36) Protein synthesis requires _____ high energy phosphate bonds per peptide bond.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
37) An amino acid coded for by a stop signal is
A. Pyrrolysine
B. Lysine
C. Cysteine
D. Selenocysteine
E. Both A and D are correct
38) In eukaryotes which of the following amino acids is often hydroxylated after protein
synthesis?
A. Proline
B. Tyrosone
C. Arginine
D. Methionine
E. All of the above
39) Which of the following amino acids is sometimes carboxylated after protein synthesis in
eukaryotes
A. Glutamate
B. Aspartate
C. Phenylalanine
D. Lysine
E. Arginine
40) Prokaryotes exclusively use which of the following translational control mechanisms?
A. Negative translational control of ribosomal proteins

B. Global controls
C. RNA specific controls
D. Allosteric modifications of ribosomes
E. Energy depletion
41) Which of the following is a synonymous codon with UCU?
A) AAU
B) UCA
C) GAU
D) AAA
E) CUG
42) Protein synthesis in bacteria involves six functional centers. Which of the following is not one
of those centers?
A. Decoding center
B. Aminase transfer center
C. Pepidyl transfer center
D. GTPase associated region
E. A site
43) The peptide emerging from the exit tunnel first encounters a molecular factor called
A. Trigger factor
B. Signal factor
C. Linkage chaperone
D. P-site
E. Translation factor
44) Eukaryotic initiation begins with the assembly of ________________.
A. Preinitiation complex
B. Cap-binding complex
C. Poly-binding complex
D. 48S Initiation complex
E. Translational initiation complex
45) Which of the following compounds is referred to as the twenty-first amino acid
A. Selenocysteine
B. Glucolysine
C. Cysteine
D. Dehydroxyalinine
E. D-Lysine
46) During synthesis of secreted proteins; binding of the ribosome to the ER membrane is
mediated by
A. The translocon
B. SRP and SRP receptor protein
C. Signal peptidase
D. Cotranslational transfer
E. Posttranslational translocation

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CHAPTER ONE

1) The ultimate source of energy for life on earth is __________.

2) Which of the following is not a common component of biomolecules?

3) Which of the following is the basic structural unit of living organisms?

4) Which of the following is not an organelle?

5) Which of the following is not a role played by carbohydrates in living cells?

6) Metabolism is best defined as the _________.

A) Reactions of living cells

8) Which of the following is not a waste product of living organisms

A) The study of life processes

11) The following is an example of which reaction class?

CH3Br + HSCH2CH(NH2)COOH CH3SCH2CH(NH2)COOH + Br- + H+

12 The following is an example of which reaction class

HOOCCH=CHCOOH + H2O HOOCCH2CH(OH)COOH

13) The following is an example of which reaction class?

CH3CH2OH CH3CHO + H2O

14) Which of the following is not a component of nucleic acid?

15) The largest molecules in living organisms are _________.

19) The following molecule is an example of which single class of compounds?

20) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds?

21) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds?

24) Which of the following is not a basic element of life

25) Most biomolecules can be considered to be derivatives of

27) Which of the following small molecules do not for biopolymers

28) Choose the amino acid that can function as a neurotransmitter

30) Which of the following is not true of life?

31) The most abundant biomolecules found in nature are

32) Which of the following is not a component of DNA

33) The sum total of all reactions of a organism is called

34) Which of the following is not characteristic of an autopoietic system?

36) Which of the following is not a core principle of systems biology?

38) Which of the following is not an example of a macromolecule?

39) Which of the following is not considered a class of small biomolecule?

40) The functional group present in the following molecule is called:

44) The most prominent function of RNA is

45) An organisms entire set of DNA is called

46) The major function of carbohydrates is

A) Catalysts and structural elements

2) Notable features of eukaryotes include all of the following except ________.

A) Rapid cell division

3) Gram-negative bacteria lack _________.

4) The plasma membrane _________.

6) The grainy appearance of prokaryotic cytoplasm is due in part to ________.

A) A large number of ribosomes

7) Which of the following types of molecules is not hydrophilic

8) The basic structure of biological membranes is provided by what class of compounds?

9) Which of the following is not true of the nucleus?

A) It is found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A) It often constitutes more than half of the cell’s total membrane

A) They are macromolecular machines

A) The analogous plant structure is referred to as a dictyosome

13) Which of the following statements is not true of the lysosome?

A) It functions in intercellular digestion

14) Acid hydrolases are found in ___________.

15) The main role of peroxisomes is _____________.

16) Biological machines are derived from which class of compounds

17) Which of the following organelles is involved in aerobic metabolism?

18) Respiratory assemblies are responsible for the synthesis of ___________.

A) It contains enzymes responsible for nucleotide metabolism

23) The stroma of plastids is analogous to what structure of mitochondria?

24) Which of the following help make up the cytoskeleton?

25) Mitochondria and _________ consume molecular oxygen.

26) Which of the following is present only in prokaryotic cells?

27) Biotransformation is defined as: