Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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Quản trị học (Trường Đại học Ngân hàng Thành phố Hồ Chí Minh)
Câu 7: While writing job description, the job title is written in the section
of ..
a. job summary
b. responsibilities and duties
c. all of incorrect
d. job identification
Câu 8: The first step in training process is..
a. instructional design
b. evaluate
c. need analysis
d. implement
Câu 9: Sources of performance appraisal include. . .
a. Team members rating each other.
b. Supervisors rating their employees.
c. Employees rating themselves.
d. All are correct
Câu 10: A rating scale which enlists traits and performance values is
called
a. management by objectives
b. alternation ranking method
c. in-house development
d. graphic rating scale method
Câu 11: HR analytics is defined as. . .
a. Specific measures tied to HR performance evaluation.
b. Specific measures tied to HR performance indicators.
c. An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of qualitative
techniques.
d. An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of
quantitative tools and models.
Câu 12: Which factor among the followings is an example of internal
training?
a. All are correct
b. On-the-job training
c. Educational leave
d. Teleconferencing
Câu 13: Objectives of HRM include. . .
a. Employee satisfaction enhancement.
b. All are correct.
c. Generation of positive motivation.
d. Effective use of HR.
Câu 14: The technique, involving the trainees to act on role of specific
person in real situation is
a. behavior modeling
b. in-house development center
c. all of correct
d. role playing
Câu 15: The importance of human resources management includes...
a. All are correct.
b. Performing human resources work for the remaining departments.
c. Increasing efficiency through work specialization.
d. Solving human resource issues effectively.
Câu 16: Which responsibility an HR manager must be in charge of
regarding interviewing and selection?
a. Train other managers in conducting selection interviews
b. Advise HR department of job openings
c. Do final interviewing and hiring where appropriate
d. Review reference information
Câu 17: In 360-degree feedback, the ratings are collected from
a. subordinates
b. supervisors
c. all of correct
d. peers
Câu 18: The personal qualities and traits required for job is stated in..
a. job specification
b. job analysis
c. all of incorrect
d. job descriptions
Câu 19: The workflow detailed picture is called
a. Organization chart
b. process management
c. production unit
d. Process chart
Câu 20: The total profit and rate of return is classified as
a. ability of employer to pay
b. ability of employer to hire
c. ability of employer to grow
d. ability of employer to train employees
Câu 21: Which factor among the followings is considered as a weakness
of internal workforce?
a. Technological advances
b. Lack of talent pipeline
c. Global expansion
d. Economic uncertainty
Câu 22: The effective negotiation is included in....
a. personal competencies
b. interpersonal competencies
c. business management
d. all of incorrect
Câu 23: The job analysis information can be collected through..
a. interviews
b. observation
c. all of correct
d. questionnaires
Câu 24: Adding Incentives to the job is included in
a. Extrinsic motivation
b. Intrinsic motivation
c. Outsourced motivation
d. In-house motivation
Câu 25: The contribution of human resource strategy to business
strategy is expressed via. . .
a. The organisational focus on important business objectives.
b. The effectiveness of performance measurement system.
c. All are correct.
Câu 26: The impact of human resources management is significant in the
aspect of. . .
a. Quality control.
b. Customer service.
c. Cost control.
d. All are correct.
Câu 27: The ranking of all the employees, measuring a specific trait such
as communication is measured in
a. alternation ranking method
b. graphic rating scale method
c. management by objectives
d. paired comparison method
Câu 28: The ranking of all the employees measuring a specific trait by
making pairs of employees is called
a. graphic rating scale method
b. management by objectives
c. alternation ranking method
d. paired comparison method
Câu 29: The human resource department plays/serves as
a. advisory role
b. hiring department only
c. line authority
d. training department only
Câu 30: Re-designing a business process, in getting more efficient and
effective result, known as
a. reengineering
b. redesigning jobs of workers
c. assigning additional activities to workers
d. moving workers from one job to the other
Câu 31: The advantage of BARS system is
a. simple to use
b. ends up with predetermined rating figures
c. avoids central tendency biases
d. providing behavior anchors
Câu 32: Analyzing and identifying specific skills, needed for specific job
is called
a. all of correct
b. need analysis competency model
c. task analysis
d. competency model
Câu 33: The HR department of company can create advisory relationship
through:
a. Line authority
b. all of correct
c. hiring authority
d. Staff authority
Câu 34: The term job enrichment means:
a. moving workers from one job to the other
b. assigning additional activities to workers
c. reforming and analyzing the job
d. redesigning jobs of workers
Câu 35: The term job enlargement means:
a. redesign jobs of workers
b. assigning additional activities to workers
c. moving workers from one job to the other
d. all of incorrect
Câu 36: A category, testing the learned skilled and principles, known as
a. measuring behavior
b. measuring results
c. Measuring reaction
d. measuring learning
Câu 37: A method, executive of strengths and weaknesses are being
questioned by external consultant, known as
a. executive coach
b. in-house development center
c. behavior modeling
d. role play
Câu 38: The second step in the HR planning process is .......
a. Evaluation of internal and external workforce
b. HR forecasting
c. Formulation of HR strategies and plans
Câu 39: The strategic role of HR focuses on ......
a. Future business needs.
b. Legal paperwork and policy implementation.
c. Implement needed programs.
d. Clerical administration and record keeping.
Câu 40: The reward of performance must have some value for employee,
an example of
a. de-expectancy
b. valence
c. instrumentality
d. expectancy
Câu 41: The qualitative or quantitative information for maintaining or
changing performance is the part of
a. appraisal feedback
b. performance appraisal
c. performance feedback
d. appraisal system
Câu 42: Factors that affect the effectiveness of recruitment include. . .
b. personnel needs
c. supply of outside candidates
d. all of correct
Câu 65: A job enrichment is a way to..
a. staffing new employees
b. all of correct
c. motivate employees
d. compensation employs
Câu 66: Each unit made by a worker to be paid is considered as
a. salary increments
b. time based pay
c. promotion
d. performance based pay
Câu 67: External recruiting sources include.......
a. Media sources
b. Employment agencies
c. Job fair and creative recruitment
d. All are correct
Câu 68: The management of performance ensures:
a. discontinue improvement
b. performance reviews
c. promoted improvement
d. continuous improvement
Câu 69: In performance management, the main feature of performance
management is to
a. planning incentives
b. comparing performance with goals
c. increase salary
d. comparing sales figures from last year
Câu 70: An evaluation process of employee performance, in comparison
to set standards is called
a. compensation
b. counselling
c. design of evaluation
d. performance appraisal
Câu 71: While writing job description, the major functions or activities
are written in..
a. all of correct
b. job title
c. Job summary
d. responsibilities and duties
Câu 72: The basic approach in performance of employee compares with
their current performance to
a. performance in last job
b. set standards
c. performance in previous years
d. all of incorrect
Câu 73: The first step in appraising process is
a. feedback session
b. defining the job
c. interview session
d. training session
Câu 74: Determining the duties and characteristics of positions in
staffing, known as..
a. Job descriptions
b. all of correct
c. Job specification
d. Job analysis
Câu 75: The Job rotation means..
a. assigning additional activities to workers
b. redesigning jobs of workers
c. moving workers from one job to the other
d. all of incorrect
Câu 76: An enterprise Incentive Management systems include
a. planning compensation
b. analyzing compensation
c. managing compensation
d. all of correct
Câu 77: The reporting relationship and working conditions related to a
job is stated in..
a. all of correct
b. Job specification
c. Job description
d. Job analysis
Câu 78: The evaluation of trainee reaction to a training program is
classified as
a. measuring learning
b. measuring results
c. measuring behavior
d. measuring reaction
Câu 79: Human resource management is defined as. . .
a. The establishment of an informal system in an organization for managing
human resources.
b. The establishment of an informal system in an organization for managing
human resources to reach organizational goals.
c. The establishment of a formal system in an organization for managing
human resources to reach organizational goals.
d. The establishment of an informal system in an organization for recruiting
human resources effectively.
Câu 80: The roles of human resources management (HRM) are divided
into the areas of. . .
a. Operation and Employee Advocate.
b. Administration, Operation, Employee Advocate and Strategic
Management.
c. Administration and Strategic Management.
d. Property management and Evidence-based management.
Câu 87: When the rating of employee trait biases its performance on other
traits, it is called
a. all of incorrect
b. narrow effect
c. halo effect
Câu 88: When the rating are collected from supervisors, customers and
peers, considered as
a. 350-degree feedback
b. 360-degree feedback
c. 180-degree feedback
d. 240-degree feedback
Câu 89: Contingent workers are
a. Not full time employees, but temporary or part-time workers for a
specific period of time and type of work
b. Full time workers
c. Part-time workers who are employed permanently
d. Full time employees as well as temporary or part-time workers for a specific
period of time and type of work.
Câu 90: The steps involves in movement of employer for performance
management is
a. total quality
b. appraisal issues
c. all of correct
d. strategic planning
Câu 91: All incentive plans focused on
a. skills
b. tenure
c. particular knowledge
d. performance
Câu 92: The competency-based job analysis means defining the job in
terms of..
a. behavioral competency
b. measurable competency
c. observable competency
d. all of correct
Câu 93: Which recommendations should be considered when there is a
shortage of manpower?
a. Cut down staff
b. Reduce working hours
c. Voluntary Turnover
d. Create flexibility at work
Câu 94: Which recommendations should be considered when there is
excess manpower?
a. Hire third party employees
b. Increase working hours
c. Ues temporary manpower
d. Do not recruit new employees
Câu 95: Which factor among the followings is an example of HR metrics
about development?
a. Annual turnover rate
b. Cost per hire
c. Positions filled internally
d. HR-to-employee ratio
Câu 96: Providing new employees with the basic information regarding
background is
a. employee training
b. all of correct
c. all of incorrect
d. employee orientation
Câu 97: Realistic job preview is viewed as. . .
a. All are incorrect.
b. A balanced view of advantages, demands, expectations, and
challenges in an organization or a job.
Quan tri hoc (Trường Đại học Kinh tế Thành phố Hồ Chí Minh)
A
A category, testing the learned skilled and principles, known as measuring
learning
A plan, offering a 75% based salary along with 25% incentives is classified as
combination plan
A rating scale which enlists traits and performance values is called graphic
rating scale method
Analyzing and identifying specific skills, needed for specific job is called task
analysis
B
Bonus are the part of Indirect financial payments
C
Career planning and development is an example of HRM intervention
Contingent workers are Not full time employees, but temporary or part-
time workers for a specific period of time and type of work
D
Determining the duties and characteristics of positions in staffing, known as Job
analysis
Determining the type of people, which a company needs for job is referred as
Job specification
E
Each unit made by a worker to be paid is considered as performance based
pay
Employees abroad supply services or having outside vendors that the company of
own employees previously did in-house is known as offshoring
Factors that affect the effectiveness of recruitment include All are correct
(Labor force population; Recruitment responsibilities and goals; Business
strategies)
H
HR analytics is defined as An evidence-based approach to making HR
decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models.
I
In 360-degree feedback, the ratings are collected from subordinates;
supervisors; peers
In job classification the group that contains jobs with similar difficulty level is
called grades
In the new approach of jobs pay rates, the employers are focusing on
employee’s competency
Information that can be used to evaluate applicants for selection include All
are correct (Past achievements; Academic level; Average length of time at old
companies)
J
Job analysis is must for employees all of correct (compensations; training;
performance appraisal)
O
Objectives of HRM include All are correct (Employee satisfaction
enhancement; Generation of positive motivation; Effective use of HR)
One of the advantages of internal recruiting is that The process can motivate
employees for greater performance.
Organisation culture has the influence on All are correct (Service quality; HR
strategic planning)
P
Preparing for future means Collecting and analyzing information about
what has happening and what has happened to prepare for the future
Providing step by step training and enlisting job of basic tasks is Job
instruction training
R
Realistic job preview is viewed as A balanced view of advantages,
demands, expectations, and challenges in an organization or a job
S
Sources of performance appraisal include All are correct (Team members
rating each other; Supervisors rating their employees; Employees rating
themselves)
T
Task is defined as Distinct, identifiable work activity composed of
motions
The compensation for top executive job is largely based on all of correct (job
complexity; ability of employer to pay; human capital executive)
The competency-based job analysis means defining the job in terms of all of
correct (behavioral competency; measurable competency; observable
competency)
The expectancy chart is a graph to show relationship between test scores and
job performance
The first stage of the on-the-job training process is Preparing the trainees.
The Job rotation means moving workers from one job to the other
The personal qualities and traits required for job is stated in job specification
The process of classifying, ranking jobs and assigning points to jobs is called job
evaluation
The quantitative process of job evaluation does not include non of above
The ranking of all the employees measuring a specific trait by making pairs of
employees is called paired comparison method
The relationship section of job description defines whom would you all of
correct (supervise; report; work with)
The reward of performance must have some value for employee, an example of
valence
The role of human resources management in the current era can be viewed as
all are correct (collaborator; data analysis; brand builder)
The roles of human resources management (HRM) are divided into the areas of
Administration, Operation, Employee Advocate and Strategic
Management.
The technique, involving the trainees to act on role of specific person in real
situation is role playing
The term job enrichment means reforming and analyzing the job
The total profit and rate of return is classified as ability of employer to pay
The transformation of human resources management (HRM) since 1990s until now
is that HRM plays a role in linking human resources with the
organization's strategy.
W
When the rating are collected from supervisors, customers and peers, considered
as 360-degree feedback
When the rating of employee trait biases its performance on other traits, it is
called . all of incorrect
Which kind of plans that forecast for the immediate HR needs of an organization
short-range plans
Which kind of plans that forecast for the immediate HR needs of an organization?
All are correct (Intermediate-range plans; Short-range plans; Long-range
plans)
While writing job description, the job title is written in the section of job
identification
While writing job description, the major functions or activities are written in Job
summary
L
Labor force population is defined as All individuals who are available for
selection if all possible recruiment strategies are used
U
Unemployment rate is affected by all are correct (decresed need for new
employees due to developments in technology; increased business competition;
decreased consumer spending)
Q
Questions that can be used to identify challenges of training include some
examples such as All are correct (Is there a need for training?; How to assess
the effectiveness of training programs?; Who needs training?)
A. HR management
B. job description
C. job analysis (phân tích công việc)
D. talent management
Explanation: Job analysis is the process of determining the duties of a specific job and
the characteristics of the people who would be most appropriate for the job. A job
analysis produces the necessary information to develop job descriptions and job
specifications.
2. The information resulting from a job analysis is primarily used for writing ______.
Thông tin thu được từ phân tích công việc chủ yếu được sử dụng để viết
A. job descriptions (mô tả công việc)
B. corporate objectives
C. training requirements
D. performance standards
Explanation: A job description is a list of what a job entails, and it is derived from a
job analysis. Job analysis is the procedure through which you determine the duties of
job positions and the characteristics of the people that should be hired for the
positions.
3. During a job analysis, a human resources specialist will most likely collect
information about all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. human behaviors
B. physical working conditions
C. responsibilities of the position
D. employee benefits options
4. Job analysis is most important because managers use it to ______.
A. apply talent management
B. support all HRM activities
C. comply with ADA requirements
D. provide employment data to the government
B. workforce planning
C. employee contracting
D. department training
4. A firm's ______ should guide employment planning and determine the types of
skills and competencies the firm needs.
A. organizational chart
B. recruitment process
C. marketing plan
D. strategic plan
Explanation: Employment planning should flow from the firm's strategic plans. For
example, plans to enter new businesses or reduce costs all influence the types of
positions a firm will need to fill or eliminate.
5. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered by employers during the
process of workforce planning?
A. personnel needs
B. organizational culture
C. supply of inside candidates
D. supply of outside candidates
6. Which of the following refers to studying variations in a firm's past employment
levels to predict future needs?
A. ratio analysis
B. trend analysis
C. job analysis
D. graphical analysis
7. The process of making forecasts based on the relationship between some causal
factor like sales volume and the number of employees required is called ______.
A. ratio analysis
B. trend analysis
C. graphical analysis
D. computer analysis
8. Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year.
A salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis,
how many new salespeople should Newton hire?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 12
9. A ______ shows graphically how two variables are related.
A. trend analysis
B. ratio analysis
C. scatter plot
D. correlation analysis
Explanation: A scatter plot graphically illustrates the relationship between two
variables such
as sales and your firm's staffing levels.
10. ______ contain data on employees' performance records, educational backgrounds,
and promotion recommendations.
A. Computerized forecasting tools
B. Replacement charts
C. Qualifications inventories (kiểm kê trình độ)
D. HR scorecards (bản đồ chiến lược nhân sự)
11. What is the primary goal of the recruitment and selection process?
A. filling top executive positions
B. forecasting future personnel needs
C. hiring the best candidates for positions
D. increasing the retention of key employees
12. Theresa, an HR manager, works for a firm that is planning to expand overseas.
Theresa is in the process of workforce planning and has already forecasted the firm's
labor demand. What should Theresa do next?
A. create a job competencies matrix of all positions
B. establish training and development plans
C. identify labor supply-demand gaps
D. determine recruitment methods
CHAPTER 4: RECRUITMENT AND SELECTION
1. Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is
considered ______.
A. improper screening
B. negligent hiring
C. unreliable testing
D. improper hiring
2. What is the primary goal of employee selection?
A. achieving person-job fit
B. avoiding negligent hiring
C. developing a diverse workforce
D. maintaining valid test scores
3. As a manager, what is the most important reason to select employees carefully?
A. meet industry and organizational standards
B. comply with federal and state labor laws
C. improve personal and organizational performance
D. establish a high-performing work system
4. Effective employee screening will most likely ______.
A. improve team management skills
B. eliminate negative office politics
C. identify valid and reliable test procedures
D. graphology
10. All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT
______.
A. asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers
B. showing courtesy and friendliness towards the candidate
C. scheduling a private room for the interview
D. taking brief notes during the interview
11. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions
with all candidates being interviewed?
A. revealing weaknesses
B. managing time
C. expressing interest
D. reducing bias
12. Which question below is an example of a background question?
A. "Can you provide an example of a time when you developed a highly
effective ad campaign?"
B. "What experience and training have you had with drafting designs for
commercial buildings?"
C. "What is the procedure you would follow when examining a patient
complaining of chest pain?"
D. "What steps would you follow to conduct a brainstorming session with a
group of employees on safety?"
CHAPTER 5: TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT
1. ______ provides new employees with the basic background information required to
perform their jobs satisfactorily.
A. Employee recruitment
B. Employee selection
C. Employee orientation
D. Employee development
2. Which of the following would perform the initial orientation in most firms?
A. HR specialist
B. mid-level manager
C. administrative assistant
D. immediate supervisor
3. Maria was recently hired as an accountant with a large marketing firm. Today is
Maria's first day of work, and she will be attending an employee orientation session.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be addressed during Maria's orientation?
A. employee benefits
B. daily routine
C. safety measures
D. sales methods
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of employee
orientation?
A. The employee should become skilled with the firm's software.
B. The employee should understand the organization in a broad sense.
C. The employee should have a clear understanding of what is expected.
D. The employee should begin the process of learning the firm's preferences.
5) What is an alternative term for employee orientation?
A. development
B. acculturation
C. recruiting
D. onboarding
6) Which of the following terms refers to the methods used to give new or present
employees the skills they need to perform their jobs?
A. orientation
B. training
C. development
D. appraisal
7. Lucas, an HR manager, has been assigned the task of creating a training and
development program for his firm's employees. According to the ADDIE training
process model, what is the first step that Lucas should take?
A. assess the program's successes or failures
B. design the program content
C. conduct a needs analysis
D. train the targeted group of employees
8. Anna, an HR manager, wants to determine the training needs of a new employee in
the shipping department. Which of the following would most likely help Anna?
A. needs analysis
B. task analysis
C. performance analysis
D. training analysis
9. In the ADDIE training process model, which of the following occurs immediately
after a needs analysis has been conducted?
A. assessing the program's successes or failures
B. presenting the program to a test audience
C. designing the overall training program
D. training a targeted employee group
10) Which of the following would most likely occur during the implementation stage
of a training program?
A. presenting the program to a small test audience
B. designing the program content for different learners
C. conducting a needs analysis of newly hired workers
D. providing on-the-job training to the targeted group of employees
11. A performance analysis is primarily used to assess the training needs of ______.
A. new employees
B. prospective employees
C. current employees
D. former employees
CHAPTER 6: PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL
1. The process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to
his or her performance standards is called ______.
A. Recruitment
B. Employee selection
C. Performance appraisal
D. Organizational development
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting
effective employee goals?
A. assigning specific goals
B. assigning measurable goals
C. administering consequences for poor performance
D. encouraging employees to participate in setting goals
3. SMART goals are best described as ______.
A. specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely
B. strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely
C. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and tested
D. straightforward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested
4. All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT
______.
A. assisting with career planning
B. making decisions about promotions
C. creating an organizational strategy map
D. determining appropriate salary and bonuses
5. In most organizations, which of the following is primarily responsible for
appraising an employee's performance?
A. employee's direct supervisor
B. human resources manager
C. EEO representative
D. employee's peers
6. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used by firms as an alternative source
of performance appraisal information?
A. Peers
B. Rating committees
C. The employee
D. Outside experts
7. Setting work standards, assessing an employee's performance against those
standards, and providing employee feedback are the three steps of the ______.
A. orientation process
B. development analysis
C. ratio analysis method
D. performance appraisal cycle
8. In order to be the most effective, the performance management process should
occur ______.
A. Occasionally
B. continuously
C. Periodically
D. annually
9. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance for
each?
A. alternation ranking
B. graphic rating scale
C. paired comparison
D. constant sum rating scale
10. Which performance appraisal method involves distinguishing between the worst
and best employees based on a trait or traits?
A. alternation ranking
C. standard hour
D. variable pay
5. What is the main benefit of paying salespeople a combination of salary and
commission?
A. limiting the firm's risk of overly high commissions
B. aligning employee goals and company strategy
C. providing simple salary administration
D. clearly linking pay with performance
6. According to research, most firms use ______ to motivate the short- term
performance of managers.
A. work-life benefits
B. annual bonuses
C. variable pay
D. training
7. Which of the following involves setting a production standard for a specific work
group and then paying incentives to the group members if they exceed the standard?
A. team incentive plan
B. group profit-sharing plan
C. employee stock ownership plan
D. organization-wide incentive plan
CHAPTER 8: BENEFITS & SERVICES
1. The primary purpose of ______ is to enable employees to balance work and family
obligations.
A. automated benefits systems
B. work-life benefits
C. cafeteria plans
D. pooled paid leave banks
2. Which of the following provides services such as financial counseling, child care
referrals, and adoption assistance?
D. merit pay
7. The indirect financial and nonfinancial payments employees receive for continuing
employment with the company are called ______.
A. reimbursement
B. employee compensation
C. salary
D. benefits
8. Kim works a 4-day workweek that consists of 10-hour days. Kim's employer most
likely offers ______.
A. job sharing
B. flextime schedules
C. telecommuting options
D. compressed workweeks
9. All of the following are Social Security benefits EXCEPT ______.
A. death benefits
B. disability payments
C. retirement benefits
D. defined contribution benefits
10. Athena, a sales representative, was terminated from her position at Ross
Manufacturing. On Athena's last day of work, she was given a check for $5,000. What
did Athena most likely receive from Ross Manufacturing?
A. disability pay
B. annual bonus
C. severance pay
D. unemployment insurance
11. Elizabeth works at an auto firm, which recently shut down for five weeks to
change machinery. However, during the shutdown, Elizabeth was able to maintain her
standard of living because of the firm's ______.
A. supplemental unemployment benefits
22.The process that involves structuring the organization, allocating resources, hiring
skilled employees, and developing appropriate reward systems is known as
a.strategy formulation
b. strategy implementation
c.strategic planning.
d.strategic management.
23.Information about human resource capabilities allows the organization’s managers
to
a. choose the best strategy.
b. consider the downside of each strategic alternative.
c. realign HR practices.
d. gain a competitive advantage.
24.Which of the following is not related to an organization’s mission statement?
a. It specifies the customers served.
b. It identifies the technology to be used.
c. It recognizes the values received by the customer.
d. It attempts to maximize stockholder wealth.
25. An example of an organizational “opportunity” is
a. technological advances that can aid the firm. (tiến bộ công nghệ có thể hỗ trợ
công ty)
b. customer markets that are being served. (thị trường khách hàng đang được phục vụ)
c. training current employees.
d. new competitors entering the market. (các đối thủ mới tham gia thị trường)
26. Which of the following illustrates a “threat” facing an organization?
a. Customer markets not being served
b. Pending legislation that might help the firm
c. New competitors entering the market
d. Labor pools that have not been tapped
26.What term describes the way the firm will attain (đạt được) its mission and long-
term goals?
a. Strategic implementation
b. Strategic management
c. Strategic formulation
d. Strategic choice
27.Which of the following is not a level of integration that can exist between the HR
and strategic management functions?
a. Administrative linkage
b. Two-way linkage
c. Integrative linkage
d. Executive linkage
28.HR focuses attention on day-to-day activities of the organization in which level
of integration?
a. Administrative linkage
b. One-way linkage
c. Two-way linkage
d. Integrative linkage
29. Which level of integration often leads to strategic plans that the firm cannot
successfully implement?
a. Administrative linkage
b. One-way linkage
c. Two-way linkage
d. Integrative linkage
30. What level of integration involves consideration of HR issues in the strategy
formulation process?
a. Administrative linkage
b. One-way linkage
c. Two-way linkage
d. Integrative linkage
31.Integrative linkage is
a. dynamic and multifaceted, based on continuing rather than sequential
interaction. (liên tục hơn tuần tự)
b. dynamic and multifaceted, based on sequential rather than continuing interaction.
c. simple, based on a single rather than continuing interaction.
d. simple, based on a continuing rather than single interaction.
32.In which level of integration do strategic planners consider people-related business
issues when making a strategic decision?
a. Administrative linkage
b. One-way linkage
c. Two-way linkage
d. Integrative linkage
33.Research has indicated that few companies exist (có rất ít công ty tồn tại ở cấp độ
tích hợp)
a. at the one-way linkage level, with many companies existing at the two-way,
administrative, or integrative level.
b. at either the one-way or two-way linkage levels.
c. at the administrative level.
d. at the integrative linkage level.
34.Which of the following is not one of the five important variables used to determine
success in strategy implementation?
a. Organizational structure
b. Task design
c. Reward systems
d. Customer awareness
35.The process by which the firm attempts to identify applicants with the knowledge,
skills, abilities, and other characteristics necessary to help the firm achieve its goals is
known as
a. selection.
b. recruitment.
c. interviewing.
d. testing.
36.The process that allows employees to improve their ability to meet the challenges of
a variety of new jobs is
a. training.
b. development.
c. learning.
d. acquisition.
37.What type of strategy is used by a firm that focuses on what it does best within
established markets?
a. Concentration
b. Internal growth
c. External growth
d. Divestment
38.Firms that focus on innovation and joint ventures are following a(n)
a. concentration strategy.
b. internal growth strategy.
c. external growth strategy.
d. divestment strategy.
39.The HR area most heavily depended on by firms following an internal growth
strategy is
a. compensation.
b. recruitment.
c. training.
d. performance appraisal.
40. When a firm wants to strengthen its market position through the acquisition of new
businesses, the firm is following a(n)
a. concentration strategy.
b. internal growth strategy.
c. external growth strategy.
d. divestment strategy.
41. Firms that seek to scale down their operations are following a(n)
a. concentration strategy.
b. internal growth strategy.
c. external growth strategy.
d. downsizing strategy
42. Selection systems ensure that
a. applicants chosen for employment have the necessary knowledge, skills, and
abilities to provide value to the organization.
b. the needs of both line managers and employees are met by providing employees with
development opportunities so they are constantly increasing their human capital.
c. it is clear to employees what is expected of them and ensure line managers and
strategic planners that employee behavior will be in line with the company’s goals.
d. employees are provided with an equitable return for their investment of skills and
effort.
43. Training and development systems ensure that
a. applicants chosen for employment have the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities
to provide value to the organization.
b. the needs of both line managers and employees are met by providing employees
with development opportunities so they are constantly increasing their human
capital.
c. it is clear to employees what is expected of them and ensure line managers and
strategic planners that employee behavior will be in line with the company’s goals.
d. employees are provided with an equitable return for their investment of skills and
efforts.
44. Performance management systems ensure that
a. applicants chosen for employment have the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities
to provide value to the organization.
b. the needs of both line managers and employees are met by providing employees with
development opportunities so they are constantly increasing their human capital.
c. it is clear to employees what is expected of them and ensure line managers and
strategic planners that employee behavior will be in line with the company’s goals.
d. employees are provided with an equitable return for their investment of skills and
effort.
45. Reward systems ensure that
a. applicants chosen for employment have the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities
to provide value to the organization.
b. the needs of both line managers and employees are met by providing employees with
development opportunities so that they are constantly increasing their human capital.
c. it is clear to employees what is expected of them and ensure line managers and
strategic planners that employee behavior will be in line with the company’s goals.
d. employees are provided with an equitable return for their investment of skills
and effort.
46. Strategy formulation involves all of the following except
a. external analysis.
b. firm performance.
c. internal analysis.
d. strategic choice.
47. What specifies the customers served by an organization, the values received by
customers, and the technology to be used?
a. Contracts
b. Goals
c. Internal analysis
d. Mission
48. Successful strategy implementation relies on all of the following except
a. job analysis.
b. organizational structure.
c. reward systems.
d. training.
49. Which of the following involves a pattern of planned activities designed to enable
an organization to achieve its goals?
a. A vision statement
b. Strategic human resource management
c. Strategy formulation
d. Strategy implementation
50. In what process are tasks grouped into particular jobs?
a. Job analysis
b. Internal analysis
c. External analysis
d. Job design
51. Job design is more related to changing the nature of jobs than job analysis
(True)
52. Workflow design is the process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the
production of a product or service (True)
53. Errors in the job analysis process is most likely to result form outdated job
descriptions (True)
54. Analyzing work processes consists of identifying the tasks that must be
performed in the production of the product. (True)
55. Raw materials, equipment, and human skills are all inputs in a workflow
process. (True)
56. Job analysis refers to the process of getting detailed information about jobs.
(True)
57. Job analysis is an activity that has little importance to line managers. (False)
58. A job specification is a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that the job
entails. (False - description)
59. A job description is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other
characteristics that an individual must have to perform the job. (False -
specification)
60. Functional structures tend to be more flexible and innovative than divisional
structures. (False – ngược lại)
61. The Position Analysis Questionnaire is based on a taxonomy of 52 cognitive,
psychomotor, physical, and sensory abilities. (False – Fleishman Job Analysis System
)
62. An advantage of the Position Analysis Questionnaire is that it can be filled out
by almost anyone. (False)
63. Job design is a process that defines how work is performed and the tasks
required to do the job. (True)
64. Scientific management was one of the earliest and best-known statements of
the mechanistic approach to job design. (True)
65. The choice of various job design approaches depends on the trade-off between
the motivational value of jobs and the efficiency with which the jobs are
performed (True)
66. Jobs in functional organizations tend to
a. have much decision-making authority.
71. Assume that you go to the local fast food restaurant to get a hamburger. A few
hours later, you are sick as a dog and conclude that you ate some spoiled meat. In
which part of the workflow process was the deficiency in this case?
a. Raw inputs
b. Equipment
c. Human resources
d. Activity
72. Inputs used in the development of a work unit’s output include
a. equipment.
b. raw materials.
c. human skills.
d. all of the above.
73. Which of the following refers to the process of getting detailed information
about jobs?
a. Job specification
b. Job description
c. Job analysis
d. Job design
74. Job analysis information is often used to identify the behaviors and results that
distinguish effective performance from ineffective performance. This is most
relevant to which HR activity?
a. Performance appraisal
b. Training and development
c. Job evaluation
d. Work redesign
75. Job analysis information is used to judge the relative worth of different jobs in
an organization. This HR activity is
a. performance appraisal.
b. training and development.
c. job evaluation.
d. work redesign.
76. Which of the following is not a reason that job analysis is important to line
managers?
a. It provides them with an understanding of the workflow process.
b. It provides them with job requirements to make more accurate hiring decisions.
c. It provides them with knowledge of what is required in a job so that they can make
more accurate evaluations of subordinates.
d. It provides an avenue for communicating policy information.
77. Which of the following refers to the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other
characteristics that an individual must have to perform the job?
a. Job specification
b. Job description
c. Job analysis
d. Job design
78. Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities
that a job entails?
a. Job specification
b. Job description
c. Job analysis
d. Job design
79. A person’s level of proficiency at performing a particular task is called
a. knowledge.
b. ability.
c. skill.
d. responsibility.
80. Job analysis information usually is obtained from
a. job incumbents. (cấp trên)
b. supervisors. (người giám sát)
c. co-workers.
d. both a and b.
81. Which job analysis method entails rating the job in terms of the extent to
which it requires each of 52 cognitive, psychomotor, physical, and sensory
abilities?
a. Job Element Method
b. Task Analysis
c. Fleishman Job Analysis Method
d. Position Analysis Questionnaire
82. Assume that you are thinking of developing a career planning system based on
the skills that are required in the jobs you are examining. Which job analysis
method would be the most useful to you?
a. Job Element Method
b. Task Analysis
c. Fleishman Job Analysis Method
d. Position Analysis Questionnaire
83. Which of the following refers to the process of defining the way work will be
performed and the tasks that will be required in a given job?
a. Job specification
b. Job description
c. Job analysis
d. Job design
84. Which of the following refers to changing the tasks or the way work is
performed in an existing job?
a. Job redesign
b. Job description
c. Job specification
d. Job design
85. Which of the following approaches to job design has its roots in the
organizational psychology and management literatures?
a. Motivational approach
b. Mechanistic approach
c. Biological approach
d. Perceptual-motor approach
86. As a manager, you want to redesign a job because your most recent attitude
survey indicated that individuals were very bored with the monotony of their job.
Which job design approach would be most helpful to you?
a. Motivational approach
b. Mechanistic approach
c. Biological approach
d. Perceptual-motor approach
87. Which of the following approaches to job design has its roots in the industrial
engineering literature?
a. Motivational approach
b. Mechanistic approach
c. Biological approach
d. Perceptual-motor approach
88. Which of the following approaches to job design focuses on efficiency as the
major outcome of interest?
a. Motivational approach
b. Mechanistic approach
c. Biological approach
d. Perceptual-motor approach
89. Functional structures tend to be less flexible, but more innovative than
divisional structure (False)
90. Job analysis refers to the process of getting detailed information about jobs
(True)
91. A job description is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities and other
characteristics than an individual must have to perform the job (False – a job
specification )
92. Although we tend to view jobs as changing and evolving over time, jobs are
static and stable (False)
93. In _______, planners analyze an organization’s human resources needs in
dynamic environment and develop activities that enable a firm to adapt to change
a. human resources planning
b. work-flow analysis
c. selection
d. recruitment
1. Which of the following is the guiding force behind the strategic planning process for an organization?
2. Which of the following is typically the last step in the strategic planning process for an organization?
strategies
3. Maria, a Brand Manager at MediaDay Inc., is formulating a strategic plan for her organization. She has
identified the organizational mission and conducted a SWOT analysis of the business. Which of the
following is most likely to be Maria's next step in the strategic planning process?
b. Implementing strategies
strategies
4. Jantee, a Senior Manager at LionShare Inc., is responsible for the strategic planning process in his
organization. He is
currently implementing a strategy. Which of the following stages of the strategic planning process is
Jantee most likely to
strategies
a. An organization that has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its
home country
b. An organization that imports goods from other countries to its home country
c. An organization that exports goods from its home country to other countries
company
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operations to China.
b. Hexagon Inc. entices its employees to volunteer to leave the organization by offering
severance benefits.
organization.
b.Hexagon Corp. entices its employees to volunteer to leave the organization by offering
severance benefits.
c. Oasis Inc., an American publishing company, transfers the task of payroll processing
d.Eagle Inc. rehires retirees on a part-time or temporary basis to fill talent gaps in the
organization.
8. Trevor, an HR Manager at Maple Inc., wants to use the balanced scorecard to assess whether the
organization is managing its bottom line effectively. In this scenario, which of the following is a financial
measure that Trevor should consider?
programs
9. Sadie, an HR manager at Olive Inc., is measuring the wealth created by each employee of the
company. She uses an approach that requires that all policies, procedures, measures, and methods use
cost of capital as a benchmark against which their return is judged. Which of the following financial
measures is Sadie using in this scenario?
(HCROI)
10. Jack, an HR Manager at Helium Inc., is starting the HR planning process. Which of the following
should be his first step?
workforce
11. LuChen, an HR Manager at Sunny Day, is completing the HR planning process. Which of the following
should be her
last step?
workforce
12. Mark, an HR Manager at Pyramid Inc., is responsible for the HR planning process in his organization.
He has
reviewed the organization's strategic plans. Which of the following is most likely to be Mark's next step in
the planning
process?
workforce
13. Which of the following is a factor of the external environment of an organization?
15. The term _____ refers to the process of identifying a plan for the orderly replacement of key
employees in an organization.
a. outplacement
b. succession planning
c. job enrichment
d. benchmarking
a. Simulation models
b. Estimates
c. Staffing ratios
d. Productivity ratios
c. Staffing ratios
d. Nominal groups
18. _____ is a quantitative HR forecasting method that involves making a comparison of past
relationships among various factors.
a. Statistical regression
analysis
c. Ratio analysis
19. _____ is a qualitative method of HR forecasting that relies on general guidelines applied to a specific
situation within an organization.
a. Statistical regression
analysis
d. Ratio analysis
20. In the context of qualitative methods of HR forecasting, _____ requires experts to meet face-to-face.
a. a simulation model
c. a nominal group
d. statistical regression
21. Which of the following equations represents how internal supply can be calculated for a specific
employer?
a. Internal Supply for Next Year = Current Staffing Level + Projected Outflows This Year
b.Internal Supply for Next Year = Current Staffing Level – Projected Outflows This Year
d.Internal Supply for Next Year = Current Staffing Level – Projected Outflows This Year
22. In the context of estimating the internal labor supply for a given unit, which of the following is a
source of inflows?
a. Demotions
b. Layoffs
c. Terminations
d. Retirements
23. In the context of estimating the internal labor supply for a given unit, which of the following is a
source of outflows?
a. External hires
b. Layoffs
c. Recalls
d. Internal transfers
24. Jefferson, a Senior Manager at Gold Storage Vaults Inc., has determined that the company has a
talent surplus. Which of the following methods should he use to manage the talent surplus?
25. When Retronics Inc. began to grow and its business improved, Tasha, a Senior Manager, determined
that the company had a talent shortage. Which of the following methods should she use to manage the
talent shortage?
a. displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for
themselves and for up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums
themselves
b. displaced workers can use the Medicare program sponsored by the government for up
c. displaced workers can use the Medicare program sponsored by the federal government
d.displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 12 months for
themselves and for up to 24 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums
themselves
27. Which of the following is true of the Older Workers Benefit Protection Act?
b. It requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in
layoff situations.
c. It requires that laid-off employees over age 60 be granted 45 days in which to consider
implementing a layoff.
28. Which of the following is true of the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act?
workers who have worked more than a year with the organization to give an 80-day
notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 10
people.
b.It requires private and commercial organizations that employ 50 or more full-time
employees who have worked more than three months in the previous year to give a 60-
day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 30
people.
c. It requires private and commercial organizations that employ 100 or more full-time
workers who have worked more than six months in the previous year to give a 60-day
notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 50
people.
d.It requires private and commercial organizations that employ 50 or more full-time
workers who have worked more than a year with the organization to give an 80-day
notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 20
people.
29. Olive Inc. failed to give adequate notice to its employees before closing one of its facilities. In this
scenario, Olive Inc.
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a. violated the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act and will be delisted
from the stock exchange
b. violated the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act and will have its trade
licenses revoked
c. violated the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act and will have to face a
trade embargo
d. violated the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act and will have to pay
heavy fines
30. Herald Inc. is planning to acquire Pyramid Inc. Before the acquisition, the HR manager of Herald Inc.
should:
31. Fish Fleet, a chain of small seafood restaurants, is being acquired by Savoranc Inc. Which of the
following activities should Celia, Savoranc's HR Manager, perform during the integration process?
32. Yum Foods recently merged with Clean Plates. Which of the following activities should HR perform
after the integration process?
33. In the context of mergers and acquisitions, risks must be assessed _____.
a. after the integration process
process
34. In the context of mergers and acquisitions, the workforces of two merging companies must be
optimized _____.
a. after integration
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b. before integration
deal
d. during integration
b. The ability of a program, project, or task to produce a specific desired effect or result
c. The degree to which operations are carried out in the least possible time
d. The ability of a program, project, or task to withstand and overcome harsh or
unforeseen conditions
36. Benefit costs as a percentage of payroll are classified as a _____ of human resources.
a. training metric
b. development metric
c. staffing metric
d. compensation metric
a. development metric
b. training metric
c. compensation
metric
d. staffing metric
38. Annual wage and salary increases are classified as a _____ of human resources.
a. compensation
metric
b. training metric
c. development metric
d. staffing metric
39. The average tenure of employees is classified as a(n) _____ of human resources.
a. compensation metric
d. development metric
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40. Which of the following key HR metrics includes positions filled internally?
a. Compensation
b. Training
c. Retention and
quality
d. Development
and models
and models
42. In the balanced scorecard framework, operational effectiveness is classified under _____.
a. financial measures
b. internal business processes
c. customer relations
43. In the context of the balanced scorecard framework, which of the following would most likely be
used by an organization to ensure that its operations run smoothly and efficiently?
c. Customer satisfaction
d. Utilization of capital
44. In the balanced scorecard framework, employee capabilities are classified under _____.
a. financial measures
c. customer relations
activities
45. In the balanced scorecard framework, utilization of capital is classified under _____.
a. financial measures
c. customer relations
activities
d. To review compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
d. To review compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
opportunity, or training
d. To review compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
1. Which of the following statements defines the labor force participation rate?
b. Immigration
c. Retirement
d. Death
3. Individuals who belong to the generational group of Generation Y are called _____.
a. iGen'ers
b. Baby Boomers
c. Millennials
d. Traditionalists
4. In the United States, which of the following age groups is estimated to have the highest labor force
participation rate by the year 2020?
a. 16- to 24-year-olds
b. 25- to 54-year-olds
c. 55- to 64-year-olds
d. 65- to 74-year-olds
a. Generation Y
b. Traditionalists
c. Baby Boomers
d. Generation X
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b. It is a grouping of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that constitutes the total work
a. Work shadowing
b. Workflow analysis
c. Organizational design
d. Organizational behavior
9. _____ refers to organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities, and other elements into a productive unit of
work.
a. Job shadowing
b. Job analysis
c. Job design
d. Job wrapping
10. _____ involves changing existing jobs in different ways to improve them.
a. Job shadowing
b. Job analysis
c. Job design
d. Job redesign
11. _____ play a significant role in job design because they are commonly the people who establish jobs
and their design components.
a. Managers
b. Employees
d. Business consultants
12. Which of the following is true of managers’ influence on and control over job characteristics and the
characteristics of the people in an organization?
a. Managers can influence or control both job characteristics and the basic characteristics of people.
b. Managers can influence or control job characteristics, but they usually cannot control the basic
characteristics of people.
c. Managers can influence or control the basic characteristics of people, but they usually
d.Managers can neither influence or control job characteristics nor can they control the
13. _____ involves broadening the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks that are
performed.
a. Job rotation
b. Job shadowing
c. Job enlargement
d. Job wrapping
14. _____ involves increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing,
controlling, and/or
a. Job rotation
b. Job wrapping
c. Job enlargement
d. Job enrichment
a. Job rotation
b. Job shadowing
c. Job enlargement
d. Job enrichment
16. In the context of the job characteristics model, _____ is the extent to which a job requires several
activities for successful completion.
a. content validity
b. skill variety
c. task identity
d. task significance
17. In the context of the job characteristics model, _____ is the extent to which a job includes a
recognizable unit of work that is carried out from start to finish and results in a known consequence.
a. content validity
b. skill variety
c. task identity
d. task significance
18. _____ is the impact a job has on other people and the organization as a whole.
a. Content validity
b. Skill variety
c. Task identity
d. Task significance
19. _____ is the extent of individual freedom and discretion in work and its scheduling.
a. Autonomy
b. Reliability
c. Validity
d. Onboarding
a. They are formed exclusively to connect individuals who are separated geographically.
b. They are formed to address specific problems, improve work processes, and enhance
c. They are permanent teams that fit the underlying culture of an organization.
an organization.
a. They are formed exclusively to address specific problems and improve work
processes.
b. They are formed exclusively to connect individuals who are separated geographically.
c. They are composed of individuals who are assigned a cluster of tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to be accomplished.
d.They are temporary entities that rarely use the internal decision-making processes of
an organization.
22. The term _____ is used to refer to teams that are composed of individuals who are separated
geographically but who are linked by communications technology.
a. vertical team
b. special-purpose
team
c. self-directed team
d. virtual team
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23. Which of the following is an example of a compressed workweek in the United States?
week
24. Part-time jobs are used when less than _____ hours per week are required to do a job.
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70
25. In the context of job analysis responsibilities, which of the following is typically a responsibility of the
HR unit?
26. In the context of job analysis responsibilities, which of the following is typically a responsibility of
managers?
analyses
27. A _____ is defined as a distinct, identifiable work activity comprised of motions that employees
perform.
a. duty
b. responsibility
c. competency
d. task
28. A(n) _____ is defined as a large work segment comprised of several tasks that are performed by
individuals.
a. duty
b. obligation
c. competency
d. responsibility
29. Which of the following steps is typically performed first in the job analysis process?
30. Which of the following is typically the last step in the job analysis process?
specifications
31. In the context of the job analysis process, identifying jobs and methodology is a subtask of _____.
32. In the context of the job analysis process, gathering job analysis data is a subtask of _____.
33. In the context of the job analysis process, reviewing drafts of job descriptions with managers and
employees is a
subtask of _____.
a. developing job descriptions and job specifications
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34. In the context of the job analysis process, periodically reviewing all jobs is a subtask of _____.
specifications
35. Samuel, an employee at BluClu LLC, is responsible for performing the job analysis process in his
organization. He has introduced and communicated the job analysis process to all his managers. Which
of the following will typically be
specifications
c. Planning the job analysis
36. Cho, an employee at SunFun LLC, is responsible for handling the job analysis process in her
organization. She has developed job descriptions and job specifications. Which of the following will
typically be Cho's next step?
specifications
37. Max, an employee at HiFi LLC, is responsible for performing the job analysis process in her
organization. She is currently planning the job analysis. Which of the following should typically be Max's
next step?
specifications
38. Dave, an HR Manager at GoPhone LLC, is responsible for performing the job analysis process in his
organization. He is currently gathering, reviewing, and compiling job analysis data. Which of the
following should typically be Dave's next
step?
a. It requires a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday
b. It requires a job analyst to attend to each detailed action throughout an entire work
cycle.
c. It assumes that employees can accurately analyze and communicate information about
their jobs.
40. In the context of job analysis methods, which of the following is a difference between the
observation method and the interview method?
a. The observation method is used to collect data about many jobs, while the interview
b. The observation method is used to analyze jobs with long work hours, while the
c. The observation method is best suited for repetitive jobs with short cycle times, while
41. In the context of job analysis methods, which of the following is a disadvantage of the questionnaire
or survey method?
process.
c. Survey instruments that are developed ahead of time fail to identify job factors
42. Which of the following statements is true of the Americans with Disabilities Act?
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e:
a. Organizational design
b. A job description
c. A job specification
d. Organizational architecture
44. _____ list the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) an individual needs to perform a job
satisfactorily.
a. Job references
b. Job descriptions
c. Job specifications
d. Job referrals
45. Which of the following is typically the first section of a job description?
46. Job code and pay grade are job description components noted in the _____ section.
a. job specifications
duties
c. general summary
d. identification
47. Which of the following sections of a job description is a concise statement of the typical
responsibilities and components that make the job different from others?
48. Which of the following sections of a job description includes the job title, department, reporting
relationships, location, and date of analysis?
49. A prospective candidate's educational details are noted in the _____ section of a job description.
a. job specifications
b. job disclaimers
c. general summary
d. identification
50. _____ flow directly from a job description and indicate what the job accomplishes and how
performance is measured in key areas of the job description.
a. Job specifications
b. Performance appraisals
d. Performance standards
1. The process of generating a pool of qualified applicants for organizational jobs is called _____.
a. requisitioning
b. pre-screening
c. recruiting
d. summoning
2. Hugo Gonzalez, the CEO at Hugo Tech Inc., believes that male employees are likely to switch jobs more
frequently than female employees. He instructs his HR team to favor female candidates over male
candidates in the recruitment and selection process. Which of the following is most likely true of the
recruitment practice at Hugo Tech?
3. Which of the following is a major reason why employers use independent contractors?
a. Employers obtain significant savings because benefits are not provided to independent
contractors.
b. Independent contractors are highly motivated and tend to perform better than full-time
employees.
d. Employers can easily train and develop independent contractors for future projects.
4. The _____ includes all individuals available for selection if all possible recruitment strategies are used.
c. recruitment pool
5. Priam Designs Inc. is recruiting fashion designers through LinkedIn. This recruiting approach typically
provides direct access to the _____.
a. applicant pool
d. applicant population
6. Stacy, an HR Manager at Stack Bank, posts a job advertisement for the position of loan officer on the
website of the American Bankers Association. This will allow Stacy to determine the _____ for the role of
a loan officer.
a. applicant population
c. applicant pool
b. a collared-worker group
d. a self-directed team
8. Colette Value Inc., a game development firm, has received a new project that involves the
development of a mobile game. The project must be completed within a year. The company, however, is
facing a shortage of mobile game developers and must hire 50 developers to ensure the timely
completion of the project. As a result, the firm decides to take part in a job-related event that would give
the firm access to a large pool of applicants at the same time. Which of the following recruitment
options has Colette Value decided to use to find a large number of suitable candidates in a short
time?
a. Alumni networks
c. Employee referrals
d. Job fairs
c. Time to fill
d. Interview-to-offer ratio
10. A(n) _____ typically hires the staff of an employer and writes paychecks, pays taxes, prepares and
implements HR policies, keeps all the required HR records for the employer, and bears legal liability for a
fee.
a. employment agency
b. payroll vendor
a. they can receive better benefits than they otherwise would get in many small
businesses.
d. they are protected from wage discrimination since employers are legally liable for any
a. They are not legally liable for any discrimination against employees leased to client
companies.
b. They screen temporary workers who wish to move to full-time positions within a
company.
c. They often charge client companies between 4 percent and 6 percent of employees'
monthly salaries.
d. They usually provide employees with lesser benefits than they would have received in
small companies.
13. Which of the following candidates has the highest probability of being rejected by a U.S. organization
that follows ethical HR practices and recruits nontraditional diverse workers?
14. Patricia was placed at Oliver & Co. through a temporary service firm for two months. Because of her
outstanding performance, Oliver & Co. wants to hire Patricia for a full-time position. Given this scenario,
which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
a. The temporary service firm can bill a placement charge to Oliver & Co.
b. Oliver & Co. will not be liable for Patricia's safety even after hiring her permanently
d.Patricia can claim stock option compensation from Oliver and Co. on joining the firm
permanently.
15. Train Tax, a tax preparation company, has identified that the total cost of its employee benefits
contributes to 30 percent of the company's expenses. Which of the following should be incorporated by
Train Tax to reduce its cost associated with employee benefits?
workers.
16. Angela is a self-employed graphic artist. She is usually hired by companies for special projects that
last from a week to six months. Angela can be best described as a(n) _____.
a. independent
contractor
b. core worker
c. regular employee
d. full-time employee
17. Studies have shown that women are more likely to apply for a job when the job ad contains the word
_____.
a. determined
b. responsible
c. assertive
d. aggressive
18. The designation EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in the employment advertisements of an employer indicates that:
19. Paul, the Director of Recruitment at an insurance company, finds that the company has a disparate
impact on the proportion of Hispanic employees compared to the proportion of Hispanics in the labor
market. Which of the following steps should Paul take to solve the problem most efficiently?
b.He should start advertising for job openings on the local Spanish radio station.
c. He should continue using the current recruiting practices because only organizations
d.He should freeze the hiring process until qualified Hispanics apply for vacant
positions.
b. Advertising job openings for individuals with specific religious values to improve
c. Using terminologies such as young and enthusiastic for candidate requirements in job
advertisements
21. Which of the following performance criteria is a qualitative measure of a recruitment process
outsourcing firm?
b. Time to fill
c. Applicant
satisfaction
d. Cost to fill
22. Edison Inc., an electrical utility company, is venturing into a business in which electricity is generated
through solar and wind energy. Which of the following job recruitment strategies should be incorporated
by the HR Director at Edison to reduce the existing disparate impact in the company?
b. Highlighting terms such as young and enthusiastic and journeyman lineman in job
advertisements
b. It increases the time spent on recruiting efforts such as screening and initial training of
workers.
c. It is used exclusively when core workers lack motivation and perform ineffectively.
24. A _____ is a qualified individual who is not actively looking for work but might be interested if the
right job comes along.
a. job shadower
b. contingent worker
d. boomerang employee
c. The performance levels of applicants hired through Internet job boards are lower than the
performance levels of applicants hired through traditional recruitment methods.
d.Individuals recruited through Internet job boards are mandated by law to pay a service
26. John's Hospital is recruiting for the post of oncology nurse practitioner. Which of the following will
most likely help the hospital target qualified applicants?
CareerTV
28. Which of the following recruitment options is most likely to target applicants specifically interested in
the job field and reduce the number of less-qualified applicants?
c. Professional/career websites
d. Job fairs
a. Technology-enhanced recruiting methods identify passive job seekers and thus save
time for HR staff members.
c. Employers receive less applications when recruiting online than when recruiting
regularly.
advertisements.
b. individuals from lower socioeconomic groups mostly have limited access to the
Internet.
31. Which of the following is likely to be the least important topic of training for a recruiter who
conducts on-campus interviews?
a. EEO regulations
specifications
hires.
b. A software engineer refers his friend for a job position in his company.
c. An assistant librarian is shortlisted for the post of head librarian in the same library.
d. A salon moves from Boston to New York and employs a new cashier through Internet
recruitment.
34. Which of the following is the easiest way for recruiters to easily and accurately track responses to
advertisements in various media while maintaining a large applicant population?
d. Using different contact names, e-mail addresses, or phone number codes in each
advertisement
35. One of the best ways to analyze the effectiveness of a media advertisement is to:
a. analyze the total cost of the advertisement posted through a specific media source.
advertisement.
c. determine the ratio of the hired number of applicants to the total number of applicants.
d. conduct a follow-up to see which media sources produced longer-lasting and better performing
employees.
36. Cullen & Associates uses a private employment agency to hire engineering staff. The company pays a
fee to the employment agency every time it hires a candidate provided by the employment agency. In
this scenario, Cullen &
a. contingency
firm
b. retainer firm
c. craft union
d. labor union
37. In the context of the types of executive search firms, _____ charge a client a set fee whether or not
the contracted
search is successful.
a. craft unions
b. labor unions
c. contingency firms
d. retainer firms
38. In the context of the types of executive search firms, _____ charge a fee only after a candidate is
hired by a client
company.
a. craft unions
b. labor unions
c. contingency firms
d. retainer firms
employees.
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41. Which of the following is true of school recruiting and college recruiting?
a. Cooperative programs with employers generate qualified future applicants for fulltime positions.
c. Companies that target minority students before they graduate are likely to be violating
EEO laws.
employees.
culture.
d. It saves time and effort on training employees for the new role.
a. It gives existing employees the first chance at job openings before external candidates
are considered.
b.It reduces the threat of organizational inbreeding because the posting crosses
46. Calculating the average amount of time it takes from contact to hire for each source of applicants
allows a firm to most accurately:
process.
a. Requisition cancellation
rates
b. Yield ratios
d. Selection ratios
48. The percentage hired from a given group of candidates is called the _____.
a. selection rate
c. yield ratio
d. acceptance rate
49. The percentage of applicants hired divided by the total number of applicants offered jobs is called
the _____.
a. selection rate
c. acceptance rate
d. fill rate
companies.
ANSWER:
1. _____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs.
a. Prescreening
b. Recruiting
c. Networking
d. Training
2. Henry, a trainer at MyChem Inc., schedules training on handling hazardous chemicals for a group of
newly hired employees. The training complies with OSHA regulations and is given to all employees upon
hire along with periodic refreshers. The type of training described in this scenario is _____.
a. interpersonal training
c. emergency training
d. problem-solving training
3. Mybody Fit, a fitness center, is planning to invest in specialized exercise equipment. The equipment is
highly effective, but it is also dangerous if not used properly. The fitness center sends its team of
instructors to a certified training program to learn how to handle the equipment. The type of training
described in the scenario is _____.
training
c. problem-solving training
d. interpersonal training
a. they align with the organization's goals and produce positive results.
b. Nonexempt employees who are training outside normal working hours must be
d.An employer is required to pay part-time employees only for the training they receive
at a work location or a training facility and not for the training they receive through
web-based classes.
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stringent.
7. Organizations in many industries create value by using the organizations' intellectual capital. This is
called _____.
a. quality management
b. knowledge management
c. technology management
d. creativity management
8. A(n) _____ is defined as a work environment that encourages employees to share their individual
knowledge, skills, and experiences with their coworkers.
a. education system
b. learning culture
c. xenophobic environment
d. ethnocentric culture
a. Instructors, both full-time staff members and individuals hired on a contract basis,
b. The average training investment per employee in the manufacturing industry is greater
than the average training investment per employee in the information and software
industry.
c. More than half of the training cost in companies is spent on external training efforts.
d.Companies with more than 500 employees invest more in training per employee than
do smaller companies.
10. In the context of training categories, which of the following is an example of soft skills training?
11. The production team at Tessing Inc. performed poorly in the first fiscal quarter of 2018 because of
internal politics and lack of cooperation among the team members. As a result, the company requested
all the members of the production team to attend a training program on conflict management. In this
scenario, the type of training program offered by Tessing Inc.
training
12. The planned introduction of new employees to their jobs, coworkers, and the organization is referred
to as _____.
a. orientation
b. broadbanding
c. socialization
d. delayering
13. _____ is defined as a step-by-step process to ensure that the right learning materials are provided to
the right people at the right time.
b. Organizational design
c. Blended learning
d. Cross-training
14. Attitude survey data are typically used in _____ analysis of training needs.
a. individual
b. organizational
c. task
d. job
15. The loan review department of a major regional bank has an exceptionally high turnover of both
administrative assistants and analysts. Several analysts have quit within six months of taking the job. As a
result, the management of the bank decides to conduct attitude surveys, review customer complaints,
and conduct exit interviews to assess the training needs of this department. In this scenario, the
management is most likely conducting a(n) _____ analysis to determine
training needs.
a. job/task
b. organizational
c. individual
d. productivity
16. The most common approach for conducting individual analysis is to _____.
17. Once training requirements have been identified using needs analyses, training objectives and
priorities can be established by conducting _____.
a. orientation
programs
b. exit interviews
c. a SWOT analysis
d. a gap analysis
b. a trainer’s belief that learners possess the basic skills required to learn new tasks.
d. a person's belief that he or she can successfully learn the training program
content.
19. Jeanne, a 54-year-old woman, worked as a medical research librarian for 10 years before quitting in
her late forties. She later applies for an open position at the same library but is concerned about the
major technological changes that have occurred over the past few years. She also feels intimidated by
computers and believes that she will not be able to learn how to use a computer at her age. However,
when she confides her misgivings about computer technology to the recruiter, the recruiter replies that
Jeanne is highly qualified for the position and will eventually master the use of computers. In this
scenario, which of the following is the most likely barrier to Jeanne learning the job tasks?
a. Jeanne's inability to learn how to use the library's computer system even with training
b. Jeanne's failure to see the benefits of learning how to use the library's computer
system
training.
21. At Plantsman's Eden Nursery, new workers are trained in the proper techniques of planting rooted
cuttings. As part of the training, after being given basic instructions regarding planting, each worker is
given 10 seedlings to plant. Their planting techniques are then evaluated by the trainer. In the context of
instructional strategies, this scenario best
exemplifies _____.
a. active practice
b. behavior modeling
c. cross-training
d. conference training
22. A group of supervisors from an oil corporation in the United States attend a class every Thursday
afternoon to learn Spanish. The supervisors learn by repeating Spanish words and phrases while the
instructor corrects their pronunciation. After each correction, the supervisors repeat the word or phrase
with the correct pronunciation before focusing on the next word. In the context of instructional
strategies, this scenario is most likely an example of _____.
a. blended learning
b. overlearning
c. immediate confirmation
d. after-action review
23. Cole, the Director of Training for a manufacturer of heavy equipment, designed a training program
for the newly hired sales representatives of the company. As part of the training, the sales
representatives were required to perform job duties and job-related tasks. This involved memorizing and
recalling details from the company catalog regarding the types of equipment, their functions, their
appropriate and inappropriate uses, pricing, and financing packages. In this scenario,
a. active practice
c. legally required
training
d. passive listening
24. Despite having mastered the skills and processes related to their day-to-day jobs, the firefighters of
the Lake Hogan
Fire Department train constantly to increase their muscle memory and to keep their skills honed so that
they can respond
a. behavioral modeling
b. overlearning
c. immediate
confirmation
d. passive learning
25. _____ is an instructional strategy that involves copying someone else's behavior.
a. Behavioral
modification
b. Behavioral modeling
c. Cognitive practice
d. Positive reinforcement
26. Molly, a Customer Service Representative for an insurance company, was rude to one of her
customers. The customer immediately contacted Molly's supervisor and lodged a complaint against
Molly. Molly's supervisor then reprimanded her and recorded the incident in her file. Molly has made a
conscious effort ever since not to repeat the same mistake. Which
a. Reinforcement
b. Passive learning
c. Overlearning
d. Behavioral
modeling
27. Soltura Products Inc. has a training program for its customer service representatives that tests
trainees' abilities to interact with customers through role-playing exercises. Every time a trainee enacts a
situation, he or she receives instantaneous feedback about the task and a specific type of reinforcement
to either encourage or criticize their responses
during the enactment. In the context of instructional strategies, this is most likely an example of _____.
a. behavior modeling
b. overlearning
c. immediate
confirmation
d. active practice
28. One way to aid the transfer of training to job situations is to ensure that:
a. the training avoids repeated practice, which may lead to
overlearning.
29. The most common method of delivering training at all levels in an organization is _____.
a. on-the-job training
b. cross-training
c. web-based
training
d. informal training
methods.
b. It is the least flexible training method among all the methods of employee
training.
33. Dr. Smith, a veterinarian, has hired Carlos as an assistant. On Carlos's first day at work, when the first
client comes in with her sick cat, Dr. Smith shows Carlos the technique of holding a cat for its vaccination.
First, Dr. Smith describes the technique, and then she demonstrates the process of vaccination. Later,
when another client comes in with his cat, Dr.
Smith asks Carlos to hold the cat and corrects his mistakes. This is an example of _____.
a. cross-training
b. e-learning
c. simulation-based
learning
d. on-the-job training
tasks.
c. when e-learning is used as the primary mode for delivering the content of a training
program.
job duties.
jobs.
a. A medical school using simulations where the students can perform operations without
b.An e-learning program on corporate leadership in which trainees interact with the
d.A community college program on solar panel installation partnering with a solar panel
programs.
methods.
41. Andrew is enrolled in a university course on project management. His class meets at the local
community college, and the instructors present their lectures from universities in other cities using an
interactive two-way television. This scenario
a. simulation training
b. distance learning
c. cross-training
d. cooperative
education
42. An artificial surgical environment in which a surgeon could practice a new type of operation without
harming a human
a. a simulation
b. blended learning
c. cross-training
43. A learning approach that combines short, fast-paced, interactive computer-based lessons and
teleconferencing with
a. job shadowing
b. associative
learning
c. blended learning
d. cross-training
44. In her evaluation sheet, Theresa, a soft skills trainer at Wren's Academy, receives high ratings in the
areas of class enjoyability and trainee willingness to take the program again. This evaluation best
exemplifies a _____ measure of training evaluation.
a. reaction-level
b. learning-level
c. behavior-level
d. results-level
45. To qualify as a tax preparer for a seasonal job at a tax preparation company, Martin must answer
questions on tax terminology covered in the web-based training course provided by the company. This
evaluation best exemplifies a _____ measure of training evaluation.
a. results-level
b. learning-level
c. reaction-level
d. survey-level
46. GetHelp Inc., a business processing company, trains all of its employees in handling customer calls.
After the completion of the training, the company monitors the phone calls of the employees to
determine the effect of the training.
a. reaction-level
b. learning-level
c. survey-level
d. behavior-level
47. Divya, the Director of Training at Q Make Inc., must demonstrate to the top management the
financial benefits the company has realized from the expenditures on the mechanics training program. In
this case, she should:
evaluation.
48. When using _____ to evaluate training, HR professionals gather data on training in their organization
and compare them with data on training at other organizations of similar size in their industry.
b. benchmarking
c. cost–benefit analysis
approach
49. An effective way to determine if a change in performance resulted from training or from other
factors is to use a
c. benchmarking
control group
1. _____ is a series of activities designed to align and improve individual performance to drive
organizational results.
a. Performance management
b. Organizational performance
c. Organizational behavior
d. Performance modelling
b. Performance appraisal is the process of determining how well employees do their jobs
distance.
d.Performance appraisal refers to the entire series of activities designed to ensure that
3. Which of the following statements is true of organizations that practice the entitlement approach?
b. Employee rewards vary little from person to person and have little to do with
c. Employee rewards are determined on the basis of results and contributions made by
employees.
biases.
a. Employee rewards vary significantly from person to person and are not based on
individual performance.
b.Performance appraisal activities are not valued by managers and employees and are
employees.
a. Verbal persuasion
b. Teamwork
c. Timeliness of response
d. Citizenship
a. Improved quality
b. Sales volume
c. Timeliness of response
d. Cost reduction
a. Teamwork
b. Initiative
c. Customer satisfaction
d. Sales volume
11. Which of the following statements is true of objective and subjective measures of performance
appraisals?
a. Subjective measures can be observed, and objective measures require judgment on the
b. Both subjective and objective measures require judgment on the part of the evaluator
c. Objective measures can be observed, and subjective measures require judgment on the
d. Both subjective and objective measures can be observed and do not require judgment
performed.
13. Which of the following is most likely to help retain employees who are in high demand and improve
their performance?
discussion
14. Which of the following uses of performance appraisals looks within the organization to provide
consistency between individual and organization performance?
a. An administrative
use
b. A strategic use
c. A developmental use
d. A training use
15. When conducting performance appraisals, Steve, an Operations Manager at Pucoy Inc., provides his
team members with feedback about their work and discusses areas of improvement for their future
growth in the company. In this scenario, Steve demonstrates a(n) _____ use of performance appraisal.
a. administrative
b. strategic
c. developmenta
d. associative
16. _____ are the most widely used means of rating employees.
b. Self-ratings
c. Peer ratings
d. Supervisory ratings of
subordinates
17. Which of the following is most likely to make managers more responsive toward employees?
a. Supervisory ratings of
subordinates
b. Self-rating
c. Peer rating
18. _____ is especially useful when supervisors do not have the opportunity to observe each employee's
performance.
a. Outsider rating
b. Self-rating
c. Peer rating
19. Employees working in isolation or possessing unique skills may be particularly suited for _____.
a. outsider ratings
b. self-ratings
c. peer ratings
d. multisource
ratings
20. A panel of division managers evaluating a supervisor's potential for advancement in the organization
is an example of
_____.
a. outsider ratings
b. self-ratings
c. peer ratings
d. multisource
ratings
21. _____ recognizes that for many jobs, employee performance is multidimensional and crosses
departmental, organizational, and even national boundaries.
a. Outsider rating
b. Self-rating
c. Peer rating
d. 360-degree rating
22. In the context of peer ratings, employees are most likely to distinguish between good and poor
performers when:
performance.
23. The _____ allows the rater to mark an employee’s performance on a continuum indicating low to
high levels of a particular characteristic.
b. category scaling
method
c. comparative method
d. behavioral rating scale
24. In the context of graphic rating scales, which of the following belongs to the descriptive category?
a. Decision making
b. Employee development
c. Quantity of work
d. Communication effectiveness
25. In the context of graphic rating scales, which of the following is a behavioral dimension?
a. Attendance
b. Dependability
c. Quantity of work
d. Communication effectiveness
26. The use of _____ can cause rater error because it might not accurately reflect the relative
importance of certain job characteristics.
b. critical incident
methods
c. comparative methods
d. essay methods
27. _____ require managers to differentiate the performance levels of their employees using techniques
such as ranking and forced distribution.
b. Category scaling
c. Comparative methods
d. Narrative methods
28. Which of the following is a comparative method of performance appraisals?
method
29. The _____ method lists the individuals being rated from highest to lowest based on their
performance levels and relative contributions.
a. ranking
b. critical incident
c. essay
d. forced
distribution
30. _____ is a technique for distributing ratings that are generated with any of the other appraisal
methods and comparing the ratings of people in a work group.
a. Behavioral rating
scales
b. Forced distribution
c. Peer distribution
d. Critical incident
31. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using comparative methods for performance appraisal?
a. The performance of employees working in the same jobs cannot be measured using
comparative methods.
b. These methods fail to help managers identify good and poor performers within their
teams.
c. These methods reduce the level of cooperation and citizenship within the organization.
d. Compensation is spread equally among employees rather than being based on
performance.
32. Which of the following is included in the narrative method of performance appraisals?
method
33. In the _____ method, the manager keeps a written record of both favorable and unfavorable actions
performed by an
a. forced
distribution
b. ranking
c. essay
d. critical incident
34. The _____ method requires a manager to prepare a written statement describing each employee's
performance during
a. forced
distribution
b. ranking
c. essay
d. critical incident
35. Which of the following is typically the first stage in implementing a guided self-appraisal system using
management by objectives (MBO)?
a. Frequent performance discussions
c. Setting of objectives
36. Which of the following is typically the last stage in implementing a guided self-appraisal system using
management
by objectives (MBO)?
c. Setting of objectives
37. Josh is an HR Manager at RoxCom LLC. He is responsible for conducting performance appraisals for all
entry-level employees in his organization. He implements a guided self-appraisal system using
management by objectives (MBO). As part of the process, he reviews the job description and the key
activities that constitute each employee's job. Which of the
c. Setting of objectives
d. Implementation of performance
standards
38. Zara, an HR Manager at Fluxin LLC, is responsible for implementing a guided self-appraisal system
using management by objectives (MBO) in her organization. She starts by developing specific standards
for employee performance. Which of the following is most likely to be Zara's next step?
standards
c. Setting of objectives
d. Job review and agreement
39. Raul, an HR Manager at Rexi LLC, is responsible for implementing a guided self-appraisal system using
management by objectives (MBO) in his organization. He starts by establishing objectives that are
realistically attainable. Which of the
performance
40. _____ occurs when an evaluator's values or prejudices distort the rating.
b. Rater bias
d. A sampling error
41. The _____ occurs when a rater gives greater weight to information received first when appraising an
individual’s
performance.
a. leniency error
b. recency effect
c. primacy effect
d. central tendency
error
42. The _____ occurs when a rater gives all employees a score within a narrow range in the middle of the
scale.
a. similar-to-me error
b. recency effect
c. primacy effect
d. central
tendency error
43. The _____ occurs when ratings of all employees fall at the high end of the scale.
a. leniency error
b. recency effect
c. primacy effect
d. central
tendency error
44. The _____ occurs when a manager uses only the lower end of the scale to rate employees.
a. leniency error
b. recency effect
c. primacy effect
d. strictness
error
45. The _____ occurs when a rater scores an employee high on all job criteria because of performance in
one area of the
a. halo effect
b. horns effect
c. contrast error
d. similar-to-me error
46. The _____ occurs when a low rating on one characteristic leads to an overall low rating.
a. halo effect
b. horns effect
c. contrast error
d. similar-to-me error
47. The _____ is the tendency to rate people relative to others rather than against performance
standards.
a. halo effect
b. horns effect
c. contrast error
d. strictness
48. If a rater has seen only a small specimen of an employee's work, the appraisal may be subject to
_____.
c. rater bias
d. a sampling
error
employees.
performers.
1. Payments calculated directly on the basis of the time worked by employees are called _____.
a. benefits
b. commission
c. salaries
d. wages
2. According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a state's minimum wage is higher than the federal
minimum wage, _____.
3. The FLSA established overtime pay requirements for nonexempt employees at 1.5 times the regular
pay rate for all hours worked over _____.
a. 50 in a week
b. 45 in a week
c. 40 in a week
d. 35 in a week
4. The act that does not require employers to pay overtime for salaried exempt jobs is the _____.
5. The rate paid for a job by a majority of the employers in the appropriate geographic area determines
_____.
a. commission
b. gainsharing
c. monetary incentives
d. prevailing wages
6. Most federal and state entities rely on the criteria for independent contractor status identified by the
_____.
c. Department of Labor
7. A court order that directs an employer to set aside a portion of an employee's wages to pay a debt
owed to a creditor is
known as _____.
a. liquidation
b. sequestratio
c. garnishment
d. distraint
8. The right of employers to terminate employees whose pay is subject to a single garnishment order is
restricted by the
_____.
a. Davis-Bacon Act
b. Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act
employees
c. Across-the-board raises
11. In the context of worker motivation, which of the following is classified as an input in equity theory?
a. Job security
b. Praise
c. Loyalty
d. Vacation
12. In the context of worker motivation, which of the following is classified as an outcome in equity
theory?
a. Loyalt
b. Time
c. Effort
d. Praise
13. Which of the following is true of an employer who uses the first-quartile strategy of compensation?
scenario.
d. The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels.
14. Which of the following is true of an employer who uses the second-quartile strategy of
compensation?
scenario.
d. The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels.
15. Which of the following is true of an employer who uses the third-quartile strategy of compensation?
scenario.
d. The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels.
16. Which of the following is true of the point factor method of job evaluation?
a. In this method, descriptions of job classes are written and then each job is put into a
b.It is a complex quantitative method that combines the ranking and classification
methods.
c. It looks at compensable factors in a group of similar jobs and assigns weights to them.
d.It is a simple system that places jobs in order, from highest to lowest, by their value to
the organization.
17. In the context of job evaluation, external pay data are used to identify the relative value of jobs
based on what other employers pay for similar jobs in the _____.
a. factor-comparison method
b. ranking method
18. A collection of data on compensation rates for workers performing similar jobs in other organizations
is known as a
_____.
a. pay survey
b. pay analysis
c. pay scale
d. pay grade
19. Groupings of individual jobs that have approximately the same value to the organization, used when
establishing a paystructure, are called _____.
a. pay scales
b. pay grades
c. pay compressions
d. pay expansions
20. The relationship between job value as determined by job evaluation points and job value as
determined by pay survey
a. market
grade
b. market band
c. market line
d. market scale
21. Grouping jobs into pay grades based on similar market survey amounts is known as _____.
a. market scaling
b. market pegging
c. market lining
d. market banding
c. They are paid on par with the range set for a job.
job.
c. They are paid on par with the range set for a job.
job.
economic downturn.
b.It occurs when the employer groups employees with different pay grades together.
c. It is frequently a result of labor market pay levels increasing faster than current
employees' pay adjustments.
d.It occurs when pay differences among individuals with different levels of experience
employees
56. AirCar LLC, a producer of consumer electronics, used gainsharing to compensate its employees.
However, after a change in management, the company decides to replace gainsharing with a stock
option plan. Which of the following statements is true of AirCar LLC?
57. Group Viewer LLC, a software company, used to provide profit sharing plans for its employees. After
organizational restructuring, the management decides to replace the profit sharing plans with
commissions for each employee. Which of the following is true of Group Viewer LLC?
58. Hikoma LLC, a toy manufacturer, provides employees with incentives depending on their individual
performances. This best exemplifies _____.
a. an employee stock
plan
b. a commission
c. gainsharing
d. deferred compensation
59. Leah LLC, a producer of sporting goods, used to provide its employees with a stock option plan. After
organizational restructuring, the management decides to replace the stock option plan with profit
sharing. Which of the following is true of Leah LLC?
60. Team Spark LLC, a producer of consumer goods, used to practice gainsharing. After organizational
restructuring, the management decides to replace its gainsharing plans with a piece-rate system. Which
of the following is true of Team Spark LLC?
61. RedCat LLC, a footwear manufacturing company, used to practice gainsharing. After organizational
restructuring, the management decides to replace gainsharing with profit sharing. Which of the
following is true of RedCat LLC?
b. distributing surplus yields among employees when their performance improves above
the baseline
c. identifying favorable employee behavior and rewarding employees who adhere to the
set standards
organizations
a. Employees must trust that management will accurately disclose financial and profit
information.
b. Employees are taxed heavily on the income that they generate from profit sharing
plans.
c. Employees cannot access the funds that they receive from profit sharing plans for up
to three years.
d. Employers get little or no rebate on income tax for choosing profit sharing plans.
65. Stock option plans give employees the right to purchase a(n) _____.
c. fixed number of shares of company stock at a specified exercise price for a limited
period of time
d. fixed number of shares of company stock at a specified exercise price for an unlimited
period of time
66. Which of the following is the most accurate metric of organizational performance in variable pay
plans?
a. Customer satisfaction
b. Accident rates
c. Revenue growth
d. Employee
satisfaction
67. Which of the following is a metric of sales programs in variable pay plans?
a. Return on investment
b. Turnover costs
c. Accident rates
d. Increase in market
share
d. The salary-only approach is not useful in compensating sales representatives who are
69. A percentage of the revenue generated by sales that is given to an agent or salesperson is called
_____.
a. severance pay
b. wage
c. basic salary
d. commission
70. Executive compensation in public corporations is subject to shareholder approval via a "say-on-pay"
provision in the
_____.
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
b. Dodd-Frank Act
71. A provision that permits an organization to require an employee to return rewards obtained through
unethical or
a. say-on-pay provision
b. clawback provision
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a. executive salaries
b. base salaries
c. perquisites
d. golden
parachutes
73. Which of the following statements is true of a discretionary system of determining bonuses?
1. Rights are offset by _____, which are obligations to perform certain tasks and duties.
a. policies
b. responsibilities
c. procedures
d. patents
2. In the context of guidelines used by the courts to determine whether noncompete agreements are
legally acceptable, a noncompete agreement should:
employment.
3. Which of the following is a primary objective of using employment contracts that are created for
protecting trade
secrets?
b. To indicate that employees who make innovations while on the job have the right to
c. To notify employees that they will be privy to sensitive information on the job
d. To bar former employees from soliciting business from former customers and clients
5. Roger is hired by an international HR consulting firm as its Outplacement Counselor. Prior to receiving
extensive
training on the company's copyrighted techniques and programs, Roger is asked to agree in his
employment contract that
he will not work as a trainer for a rival outplacement company in a specified list of states for a period of
one year from the
time he quits or his employment will be terminated. This best exemplifies a _____.
a. nonpiracy agreement
b. noncompete agreement
c. clawback agreement
d. separation agreement
6. _____ bar former employees from soliciting business from former customers and clients for a
specified period of time.
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a. Clawback agreements
b. Separation agreements
c. Nonpiracy agreements
d. Confidentiality
agreements
7. Matt accepts a job offer as a Chemical Engineer in the Research and Development department of Tulip
Inc., a paint
manufacturing company. After accepting the job offer, he signs an employment contract stating that the
results of his
research would be the sole property of the company. Matt comes up with an innovative paint formula
that can withstand
extreme temperatures. He receives a promotion and a handsome package for his work. However, he is
annoyed that the
formula was not patented in his name. In the context of the given scenario, which of the following
statements is true?
a. The innovation made by Matt on the job falls under the management and control of the
organization.
b.Matt's formula is his own intellectual property, and he has the right to use it as he sees
fit.
c. Since the formula can be patented only by Matt, the company is legally required to pay
d.A heavy fine can be imposed on the company for drawing a contract that is
unenforceable.
8. Claudia is hired as a Senior Engineer by Hexagon Inc. Allen, the HR Manager of the company, promises
her that she
will start working on live projects within three months from joining. He also tells her that she is expected
to give three
months' notice before quitting the job. Which of the following statements is true of the given scenario?
d. Hexagon Inc. cannot be challenged in a court even when it fails to follow up on its
promises.
a. an employee must provide a minimum of two weeks' notice before quitting a job
c. employees are free agents, but employers must have just cause for terminating
them
d. an employer has the right to hire, fire, demote, or promote whomever it chooses
10. Which of the following exceptions to employment at will holds that employees should not be fired
from an
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d. Statutory exception
11. Grace is asked by her employer to quit her job on the grounds that she is not punctual. Considering
that the commonlaw doctrine of employment at will holds in the given scenario, which of the following
statements is true?
a. Grace can get her job back using the implied contract exception to employment at
will.
b. Grace has to give in to her employer's demands and quit her job.
c. Grace can get her job back using the public policy exception to employment at will.
a. employees can sue their employers if fired for a reason that violates public policy.
b. a covenant of good faith and fair dealing exists between employers and at-will
employees.
13. _____ involves the termination of an individual's employment for reasons that are illegal or
improper.
a. Wrongful discharge
b. Dysfunctional turnover
c. Voluntary turnover
d. Deconstructive discharge
14. The process of deliberately making conditions intolerable to get an employee to quit is referred to as
_____.
a. dysfunctional
turnover
b. wrongful discharge
c. constructive discharge
d. voluntary turnover
15. After a personality conflict with his manager, Will is asked to work extra hours every day. Will is given
the toughest
assignments and is often ignored and even insulted during team meetings and discussions. Will considers
quitting the job
owing to the intolerable work conditions. Will's manager can be held responsible for _____.
a. wrongful discharge
b. dysfunctional
turnover
c. constructive discharge
d. voluntary turnover
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a. Benchmarking
b. Impeachment
c. Constructive discharge
d. Just cause
17. Amber worked as a Sales Associate in a department store. When a few high-priced products were
found missing from
the store, Amber was accused of theft and fired from the job. No investigation was conducted, and
Amber was not allowed
agreement.
18. In the context of organizational justice, which of the following is true of distributive justice?
a. It is the perceived fairness of the processes used to make decisions about employees.
d. It is the extent to which good faith and fair dealing exist between employers and atwill employees.
19. Ramona manages a team of 10 designers at Purple Inc. She encourages all her subordinates to
directly approach her
and speak with her at any time of the day regarding issues they may be facing at work. Given this
information, it can be
company
20. Individuals outside the normal chain of command who act as independent problem solvers for both
the management
a. ombuds
b. whistleblowers
c. union stewards
d. shareholders
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21. The Privacy Act of 1974, which includes provisions affecting HR recordkeeping systems, applies only
to _____.
22. Which of the following statements is true of the Data Protection Act?
c. It requires employers to keep personnel records up to date and keep only the details
years.
23. According to the Data Protection Act, personnel files and records are usually maintained by
employers for _____.
a. one year
b. two years
c. three
years
d. five years
24. Individuals who report real or perceived wrongs committed by their coworkers or employers are
called _____.
a. whistleblowers
b. ombuds
c. union stewards
d. arbitrators
25. Ken works in a pharmaceutical company that sells antibiotics at a low cost to several African
countries. He later learns
that most of these drugs are expired antibiotics that have been repackaged by the company. Ken
immediately informs one
of his friends, a federal agent, of his company's illegal activities. Which of the following statements is
true of the given
scenario?
a. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act would protect Ken from retaliation by his employer.
b.Ken's constitutional right to freedom of speech would protect him from any form of
d.The Data Protection Act would give the company the power to terminate Ken, and the
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a. Due process
b. Constructive discharge
c. Impeachment
d. Functional turnover
27. In the United States, the right of protection from unreasonable search and seizure _____.
officials
c. protects all employees from unreasonable search and seizure by employers in the
workplace
a. they want to keep track of all employee interactions to obtain information on their
b.they want to protect corporate resources, prevent hacking and virus attacks, and ensure
productivity.
c. they want to identify the whistle-blowers among the employees and keep track of their
activities.
d.they want to read through employee e-mails for signs of dissatisfaction among
29. _____ is the extent to which a person affected by an employment decision feels treated with dignity
and respect.
a. Restorative justice
b. Distributive justice
c. Interactional justice
d. Procedural justice
30. In the context of conducting workplace investigations, which of the following statements is true of
the Fair and
a. It allows employers to hire outside investigators without first notifying the individuals
under investigation.
employee.
c. It requires employers to get permission from the individuals under investigation before
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d.It allows employers to hire outside investigators only if the individuals under
31. The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a pharmaceutical company suspects that one of the senior
scientists in the
company has been selling confidential information to a competitor. The CEO asks the scientist to take a
polygraph test. In
the context of the Employee Polygraph Protection Act, which of the following is true of the given
scenario?
a. The CEO can fire the scientist for refusing to take the polygraph test.
c. The scientist cannot be terminated for refusing to take the polygraph test.
d. The scientist can sue the firm for illegally attempting to conduct the polygraph
test.
32. Which of the following statements is true of the Employee Polygraph Protection Act?
b.It requires that employees must be advised of their rights to refuse to take a polygraph
exam.
d.It requires law enforcement personnel to be present when a polygraph test is being
33. Which of the following is true of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988?
use.
c. It covers the use of illegal substances both on and off the job.
34. Which of the following is a drug-testing policy that employers follow when testing current
employees?
d. Testing the employees only after getting consent from their immediate family
members
35. _____ provide customary methods of handling activities and are more specific than policies.
a. Procedure
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b. Petitions
c. Rights
d. Patents
36. The employee contract of Uranus Inc. clearly states that "every employee in the company must avoid
smoking within
a. patent
b. writ
c. rule
d. petitio
37. Which of the following is typically a responsibility of the HR unit for ensuring that policies,
procedures, and rules are
rules
a. The courts have used employee handbooks against employers in lawsuits by charging
b.Employee handbooks are usually generalized so that the content matches the general
c. Employee handbooks do not include content that would require constant revision
effectiveness.
40. _____ is defined in legal terms as an individual's freedom from unauthorized and unreasonable
intrusion into personal
affairs.
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a. Just cause
b. Due process
d. The right to
privacy
41. Which of the following approaches to discipline builds on the philosophy that violations are actions
that usually can
approach
42. The goal of the _____ phase of the positive discipline approach to discipline is to heighten employee
awareness of
a. written documentation
b. final warning
c. discharge
d. counseling
43. Jennifer has been highly unproductive at work for the last few weeks and is counseled regarding
organizational
policies and rules by her supervisor. She is then asked to identify solutions to prevent further problems
and write them
down. When her supervisor feels that these activities are not helping her, she is given a paid day off to
prepare an action
plan that will help her work on her productivity issues. This best exemplifies the _____.
d. authoritative discipline
approach
44. The greatest difficulty with the positive approach to discipline is that _____.
a. employees do not take the process seriously until they reach the final warning
stage
45. In the context of approaches to discipline, the _____ incorporates steps that become increasingly
more severe and are
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46. A(n) _____ is a physical or electronic manual that explains a company's essential policies,
procedures, and worker
benefits.
a. noncompete agreement
b. employer memorandum
c. employee handbook
d. yellow-dog contract
47. In the context of a typical progressive discipline process, a second offense requires the employer to
_____.
48. Chu, an Operating Manager, needs to terminate one of his subordinates, who works on the same
floor. The employee,
even after several warnings, has been poorly executing work-related duties. Which of the following is the
most
a. A face-to-face meeting
b. A video conference
c. A telephonic conversation
d. An e-mail
communication
49. A _____ is an agreement in which a terminated employee agrees not to sue the employer in
exchange for specified
a. clawback agreement
b. separation agreement
c. noncompete agreement
d. nonpiracy agreement
50. Claudette is being terminated from her position as the Chief Financial Officer of a private university.
She has signed
an agreement in which she has agreed not to sue the employer in return for certain benefits. The
agreement best
exemplifies a _____.
a. separation agreement
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b. noncompete agreement
c. nonpiracy agreement
d. clawback agreement
1. The paid employees insurance by employers is the futile part of ..
a. non direct financial paymentchi trả không trực tiếp bằng tiền
b. salary increments
c. direct financial payments
d. paid counseling
2. In the new approach of jobs pay rates, the employers are focusing on Human
resource management is the process of..
Trong cách tiếp cận mới về mức lương việc làm, người sử dụng lao động đang
tập trung vào Quản lý nguồn nhân lực là quá trình
a. Acquiring employees tuyển dụng nhân viên
b. Training employees đào tạo nhân viên
c. Appraising and compensating employees Đánh giá và khen thưởng nhân viên
d. all of correct
3. The personal qualities(phẩm chất) and traits (đặc điểm) required for job is
stated in..cần thiết cho công việc bắt đầu với
a. job analysis
b. job descriptions
c. all of incorrect
d. job specification
8. Concurrent validity is measured when ....thoả thuận giá trị được đo khi
a. There is a consistency across different interviewers
b. An employer tests current employees and correlates the scores with
their performance ratings Một nhà tuyển dụng thử nghiệm nhân viên hiện tại và
tương quan các điểm số với đánh giá hiệu suất của họ
c. Test results of applicants are compared with subsequent job performance
d. There is a consistency within one interviewers
9. Determining duties and characteristics of positions in staffing, known as Xác
định nhiệm vụ và đặc điểm của các vị trí trong việc điều nhân sự được gọi là:
A. job descriptions
B. job analysis
C. job specifications
D. both A and C
10. The qualitative or quantitative information for maintaining or changing
performance is the part of?
Thông tin định tính hoặc định lượng để duy trì hoặc thay đổi hiệu suất là một
phần của
A. performance feedback
B. performance appraisal
C. appraisal system
D. appraisal feedback
11. While writing job description, major functions or activities are written in
A. job summary
B. responsibilities and duties
C. job identification
D. both B and C
12. A rating scale which enlists traits and performance values is called
Thang đánh giá bao gồm các đặc điểm và giá trị hiệu suất được gọi là
A. graphic rating scale method
B. management by objectives
C. alternation ranking method
D. in-house development
20. A method for HR forecasting which involves the collection of experts opinions
is. . .
a. Regression analysis.
b. Nominal group technique.
c. Delphi technique.
d. Simulation modeling.
21. The performance management is always việc quản trị hiệu suất luôn
Select one:
a. goal oriented hướng tới mục tiêu
b. sales oriented
c. performance oriented
d. all of incorrect
29. The reporting relationship and working conditions related to a job is stated
in..
Mối quan hệ báo cáo và điều kiện làm việc liên quan đến công việc được nêu trong..
a. all of correct
b. Job specification
c. Job description mô tả cv
d. Job analysis
34. Realistic job preview is viewed as. . . Bản xem trước công việc thực tế được
xem là
a. A balanced view of advantages, demands, expectations, and challenges in a job.
b. A balanced view of advantages, demands, expectations, and challenges in an
organization or a job.
Một cái nhìn cân đối về ưu điểm, yêu cầu, kỳ vọng và thách thức trong một tổ chức
hoặc một công việc.
c. All are incorrect.
d. A balanced view of advantages, demands, expectations, and challenges in an
organization.
35. Analyzing and identifying specific skills, needed for specific job is called
a. need analysis competency model
b. competency model
c. all of correct
d. task analysis phân tích công việc
39. In big five model, conscientiousness (sự tận tâm) is tendency to be ...
Select one:
a. unconventional
b. autonomous
c. assertive
d. achievement thành tựu
42. The ranking of all the employees, measuring a specific trait such as
communication is measured in
Thứ hạng của tất cả nhân viên, đo lường một đặc điểm cụ thể như giao tiếp được đo
trong
a. graphic rating scale method
b. paired comparison method
c. alternation ranking method (phương pháp xếp hạng luân phiên)
d. management by objectives
47. The method in which problem to be solved is described for employees is called
Phương pháp mô tả vấn đề cần giải quyết cho nhân viên được gọi là
a. job rotation
b. case study method
c. action learning
d. lifelong learning
50. The public recognition (sự công nhận của mn) such as an award (giải thưởng)
in organized function is the best classified as an example of
a. fixed award
b. non-financial awards
c. proportional award
d. financial awards
56. The package of salary, incentives and figure benefits designed in a way to
motived the employees is known as
Gói lương, trả khuyến khích và phúc lợi được thiết kế theo cách nhằm tạo động lực
cho nhân viên
a. performance appraisal
b. aligned compensation strategy
c. HR strategy
d. aligned reward strategy chiến lược khen thưởng phù hợp
60. The validity test that focused on comparing test scores of ready existing
employees to measure of their job performance, is
Bài kiểm tra tính hợp lệ tập trung vào việc so sánh điểm kiểm tra của những nhân viên
hiện có để đo lường hiệu suất công việc của họ, là
a. content validity
b. predictive validity
c. criterion validity
d. concurrent validity
61. The technique, involving the trainees to act on role of specific person in real
situation is
Kỹ thuật yêu cầu học viên đóng vai một người cụ thể trong tình huống thực tế là
a. behavior modeling
b. role playing đóng vai
c. all of correct
d. in-house development center
62. The competency-based job analysis means defining the job in terms of..
a. observable competency : năng lực quan sát đc
b. all of correct
c. measurable competency: có thể đo lường được
d. behavioral competency năng lực hành vi
63. The job analysis information can be collected through..
a. all of correct
b. observation
c. interviews
d. questionnaires
64. In big five models, agreeableness(sự dễ chịu) is the tendency to be ..
Select one:
a. sociable hoà đồng
b. all of correct
c. trusting tin cậy
d. complaint phàn nàn
65. The transformation (sự chuyển đổi) of human resources management (HRM)
since 1990s until now is that. . .
Select one:
a. HRM performs more professional tasks such as job design and employee
satisfaction research.
b. HRM acts as a support department for other departments in salary matters, record
keeping, organizing outdoor events, etc.
c. All are correct.
d. HRM plays a role in linking human resources with the organization's strategy.
66. Determining the duties and characteristics (nhiệm vụ và đặc điểm) of
positions in staffing, known as..
a. Job specification
b. Job analysis
c. Job descriptions
d. all of correct
67. In job classification the group that contains jobs with similar difficulty level is
called
Trong phân loại công việc, nhóm bao gồm các công việc có độ khó tương tự được gọi:
a. grades
b. classes
c. combine ratings
d. rank jobs
68. The personal qualities and traits required for job is stated in..
Các đặc điểm và phẩm chất cá nhân cần thiết cho công việc được nêu trong..
a. all of incorrect
b. job descriptions
c. job analysis
d. job specification
72. The term job enlargement means: Thuật ngữ mở rộng công việc có nghĩa là
a. moving workers from one job to the other
b. redesigning jobs of workers
c. assigning additional activities to workers phân công các hoạt động bổ sung cho
người lao động
d. all of incorrect
78. Questions that can be used to identify challenges of training include some
examples such as. . .
Các câu hỏi có thể được sử dụng để xác định những thách thức trong đào tạo bao
gồm một số ví dụ như
Select one:
a. How to assess the effectiveness of training programs? Làm thế nào để đánh giá hiệu
quả của chương trình đào tạo
b. Is there a need for training? Có cần phải đào tạo không?
c. All are correct.
d. Who needs training? Ai cần đào tạo?
79. Sources of performance appraisal include. . .
Select one:
a. All are correct
b. Team members rating each other.
c. Employees rating themselves.
d. Supervisors rating their employees.
81. The pay strategies of company for learning organizational employee skills,
Not included Chiến lược trả lương của công ty để học các kỹ năng của nhân viên
trong tổ chức, Không bao gồm
a. skill-based pay
b. time based pay
c. all of correct
d. pay for knowledge
employee skills: knowledge, skills, abilities
82. The comparison of on the job behavior before and after training programs
can be classified as
Select one:
a. measuring reaction
b. measuring behavior
c. measuring results
d. measuring learning
83. Information that can be used to evaluate applicants for selection include. . .
a. All are correct.
b. Average length of time at old companies
c. Academic level.
d. Past achievements.
82. The roles of human resources management (HRM) are divided into the areas
of
Select one:
a. Operation and Employee Advocate.
b. Property management and Evidence-based management.
c. Administration, Operation, Employee Advocate and Strategic Management.
Quản lý, Vận hành, Hỗ trợ Nhân viên và Quản lý Chiến lược
d. Administration and Strategic Management.
85. The competency based pay plan is more Kế hoạch trả lương dựa trên năng
lực là nhiều hơn
a. evaluation oriented
b. person oriented
c. tenure oriented (định hướng nhiệm kỳ)
d. job oriented
86. Contingent workers are. . . Các công nhân tạm thời hoặc linh hoạt
Select one:
a. Full time workers
b. Full time employees as well as temporary or part-time workers for a specific period
of time and type of work.
c. Not full time employees, but temporary or part-time workers for a specific
period of time and type of work
d. Part-time workers who are employed permanently
Common approaches to job design: Job enrichment, Job enlargement, job rotation
Job enrichment: Increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning,
organizing, controlling, and/or evaluating the job.
Job enlargement: Broadening the scope of a job by expanding the number of
different tasks that are performed
job rotation :Process of shifting a person from job to job
91. The basic approach in performance of employee compares with their
current performance to
b. set standards
d. all of incorrect
92. Which kind of plans that forecast for the immediate HR needs of an
organization? Loại kế hoạch nào dự báo nhu cầu nhân sự trước mắt của một tổ
chức?
a. Intermediate-range plans
b. Short-range plans
c. Long-range plans
-> HR forecasting should be done over three planning periods: short range,
intermediate range, and long range.
+ used planning period of six months to one year focuses on short-range forecasts
for the immediate HR needs of an organization.
+ Intermediate-range plans usually project one to three years into the future, and
long-range plans extend beyond three years.
93. The concession, employees gets in form of discounts in air ticket and bus
fares is an example of
Sự ưu đãi, nhân viên được hưởng dưới hình thức giảm giá vé máy bay, vé xe buýt
là một ví dụ về
b. incentives
c. direct payments
d. salary payments
Select one:
b. working capital
c. compensation capital
d. human capital
95. The ranging and grading salary into just few levels is called
Việc phân loại và phân loại lương thành một vài cấp độ được gọi là
Select one:
b. competency model
c. broad banding
d. less branding
Broadbanding: Practice of using fewer pay grades with much broader ranges
than in traditional compensation systems (Băng thông rộng: Thực hành sử dụng ít
hơn số lượng bậc lương và có phạm vi rộng lớn hơn so với các hệ thống bồi dưỡng
truyền thống.)
96. The rates are places in percentages in performance categories is followed
in (Các tỷ lệ được đặt trong các phần trăm trong các danh mục hiệu suất
được áp dụng trong)
Select one:
Select one:
a. employee orientation
b. employee training
c. all of correct
d. all of incorrect
Quá trình xác định, đánh giá và phát triển khả năng lãnh đạo được gọi là
Select one:
a. all of correct
d. Employment planning
Select one:
d. line authority
100. When the rating of employee trait biases its performance on other traits, it is
called (Khi đánh giá đặc điểm của nhân viên làm thiên lệch hiệu suất của nó so
với các đặc điểm khác, nó được gọi là)
Select one:
a. halo effect: occurs when a rater scores an employee high on all job criteria
because of performance in one area of the assigned work responsibilities
b. all of incorrect
c. narrow effect
Select one:
a. design of evaluation
b. compensation
c. performance appraisal
d. counselling
102. The relationship between value of job and average salary paid the job is
called (Mối quan hệ giữa giá trị công việc và mức lương trung bình trả cho công
việc này được gọi là)
Select one:
a. salary curve
103. All incentive plans focused on Mọi kế hoạch khuyến khích đều tập trung vào
Select one:
a. tenure
b. performance
c. skills
d. particular knowledge
Hạng mục bao gồm việc kiểm tra các kỹ năng và nguyên tắc đã học được phân loại là
Select one:
a. measuring results
b. Measuring reaction
c. measuring behavior
d. measuring learning
105. Providing continuous learning, training and help to employees for expansion
of horizon is
Cung cấp học tập và đào tạo liên tục và giúp nhân viên mở rộng tầm nhìn là
Select one:
a. job training
b. programmed learning
c. job rotation
d. lifelong learning
Một phương pháp xếp hạng thay thế thường được phân loại là
Select one:
Một phần không thể thiếu của quá trình phản hồi là
Select one:
a. direction sharing
b. coach and development support hỗ trợ huấn luyện viên và phát triển
c. goal alignment
109. Employees abroad supply services or having outside vendors that the
company of own employees previously did in-house is known as
Nhân viên ở nước ngoài cung cấp dịch vụ hoặc có nhà cung cấp bên ngoài mà
công ty của nhân viên đó trước đây đã thực hiện nội bộ được gọi là
Select one:
a. alternative staffing
d. all of correct
Offshoring means having outside vendors supply services that a firm's own
employees previously did in-house while outsourcing means having outside
vendors abroad provide services once performed in-house
Select one:
a. halo effect
b. bias
d. all of correct
111. Information about specific salary and wage rate for particular job is the
part of . . . Thông tin về mức lương cụ thể và mức lương cho công việc cụ thể
là một phần của
Select one:
a. market survey
b. equity survey
c. HR survey
d. salary survey
Select one:
a. Xác định nhu cầu nguồn nhân lực. c. Đánh giá nguồn nhân lực hiện tại. d. Tối
ưu hóa hiệu quả sử dụng nguồn nhân lực.
Việc phác thảo các mối quan hệ chuỗi chỉ huy và báo cáo dưới dạng biểu đồ được
nêu trong
Select one:
a. Organization chart
b. Process chart
c. process management
d. production unit
Select one:
115. The role of human resources management in the current era can be
viewed as
Select one:
a. Data analyst.
b. Brand builder.
c. Collaborator.
116. The relationship section of job description defines whom would you
Select one:
a. supervise
b. report to
c. work with
d. all of correct
Select one:
Select one:
c. Teleconferencing
d. Educational leave
119. While writing job description, the major functions or activities are
written in.. Select one:
a. job tiltle
b. Job summary
c. all of correct
Select one:
121. When the rating are collected from supervisors, customers and peers,
considered as
Select one:
a. 180-degree feedback
b. 240-degree feedback
c. 360-degree feedback
d. 350-degree feedback
122. While writing job description, the job title is written in the section of ..
Trong khi viết mô tả công việc, chức danh công việc được viết trong phần
Select one:
a. all of incorrect
c. job summary
Select one:
a. competitive plan
c. noncompetitive plan
d. combination plan
124. The process of classifying, ranking jobs and assigning points to jobs is
called Quá trình phân loại, xếp hạng công việc và chấm điểm cho công việc
được gọi là
Select one:
a. job ranking
b. job granding
c. pay grading
d. job evaluation
Select one:
a. Line authority
c. hiring authority
d. all of correct
Select one:
d. simple to use
Select one:
Job enlargement: Expand the scope of work by increasing the number of tasks in
the job
Labor Market
• Applicant population: Subset of the labor force population that is available for
selection using a particular recruiting approach