Test 9

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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Serial No.
A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
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Q.1) With reference to “Scheduled Areas’ in 1. It has the authority to enact laws
India, consider the following statements: concerning property inheritance, marriage
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as and divorce.
Scheduled Area takes place through an 2. It possesses the capacity to adjudicate
Order of President. disputes among tribal communities.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the 3. It can establish rules for regulating money
Scheduled Area is the district and the lowest lending and trade involving non-tribal
is the cluster of villages in the Block. individuals.
3. The Chief Ministers of the Concerned States 4. It does not have the power to impose taxes
are required to submit annual reports to the and/or collect land revenue.
Union Home Ministry on the administration How many of the above statements regarding
of Scheduled Areas in the States. functions performed by the Autonomous
How many of the above statements are correct? District Council established in Tribal Areas are
a) Only one correct?
b) Only two a) Only one
c) All three b) Only two
d) None c) Only three
d) All four
Q.2) Consider the following statements about
the Committee of Parliament on Official Q.5) Consider the following statements
Language: regarding the ‘Inner Line Permit’, often seen in
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio the news:
Chairperson of this Committee. 1. It is an official travel document issued by the
2. The members of the committee are from the Government of India to allow inward travel
Lok Sabha only. of foreigners into a protected area for a
3. It exclusively reviews the progress made in limited period.
the use of English for official purposes. 2. Presently, this permit is issued for the states
How many of the above statements are correct? of Nagaland, Manipur and Assam only.
a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are
b) Only two correct?
c) All three a) 1 only
d) None b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.3) With reference to the Fifth Schedule of the d) Neither 1 nor 2
Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State is
empowered to establish regulations for the Q.6) Consider the following statements
good governance of the Scheduled Areas of that regarding the provisions for Government of
State. These regulations can: National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi: O
a) modify or revoke both Central and State 1. The strength of the Council of Ministers of
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laws after obtaining the President's the Government of NCT of Delhi is fixed at
approval. 15% of the total strength of the Legislative
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b) modify or revoke any Central or State law Assembly of Delhi.

2. The Chief Minister is appointed by the
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without requiring the President's approval.

c) modify or revoke only State laws but not Lieutenant Governor.
Central laws. 3. The Ministers hold office during the
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d) modify both Central and State laws but is pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor.
How many of the above statements are correct?
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not authorized to revoke any law.

a) Only one
Q.4) Consider the following statements b) Only two
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regarding the administration of Tribal areas c) All three

d) None
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under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian

Constitution:
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Q.7) Consider the following statements: 2. Lakshadweep Police is under the direct
Statement-I: All pressure groups are interest command of the Administrator of the Union
groups, but all interest groups are not Territory.
essentially pressure groups. 3. The provisions under Fifth Schedule of the
Statement-II: Pressure groups must exert Constitution do not apply to Lakshadweep.
pressure on the Government authorities to 4. A non-native person needs a permit to enter
influence the decision in their favour. or reside in Lakshadweep.
Which one of the following is correct in respect How many statements given above are correct?
of the above statements? a) Only one
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are b) Only two
correct, and Statement-II is the correct c) Only three
explanation for Statement-I. d) All four
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct Q.11) The provision under Article 350A of the
explanation for Statement-I. Constitution of India relates to the
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is a) right of any section of the citizens to
incorrect. preserve its distinct language and culture
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is b) right of the Sikh community to carrying and
correct. wearing of kirpans
c) provision for providing facilities for
Q.8) With reference to the National Foundation instruction in mother-tongue at primary
for Communal Harmony (NFCH), consider the stage to children.
following statements: d) freedom of Minority-managed educational
1. It functions as an independent organisation institutions from discrimination in the
under the administrative control of the matter of receiving aid from the State
Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It provides financial support to children Q.12) Consider the following developments with
affected by social violence. respect to the cooperative movement in India:
Which of the statement/s given above is/are 1. Establishment of the National Bank for
correct? Agricultural and Rural Development
a) 1 only (NABARD)
b) 2 only 2. Establishment of the National Dairy
c) Both 1 and 2
Development Board (NDDB)
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Establishment of the National Cooperative
Development Cooperation
Q.9) Which one of the following regarding the
4. Creation of the Union Ministry of
tenure of the elected members of the
Cooperation
Autonomous District Council is correct?
Which of the sequences given in the options O
a) Five years from the date of election
below correctly represents the chronology of
b) Five years from the date appointed for the
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the above developments?
first meeting of the council after the
a) 3-2-1-4
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election
b) 3-2-4-1
c) Six years from the date of administration of
c) 2-3-1-4
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oath
d) 2-3-4-1
d) Six years from the date of election
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Q.10) Consider the following statements with

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reference to the Union Territory of

Lakshadweep:
1. A regulation made by the President of India
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can repeal or amend any Act made by the

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Parliament.
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Q.13) With reference to Multi-State a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

Cooperative Societies, consider the following correct and Statement-II is the correct
statements: explanation for Statement-l
Statement-I: Part IX B of the Constitution, b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
which includes provisions for the democratic correct and Statement-II is not the correct
functioning of Cooperatives in India, applies explanation for Statement-I
only to multi-state cooperative societies. c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is
Statement -II: Cooperative societies are incorrect
mentioned in the List II (State List) of the d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is
Seventh Schedule of the constitution of India.
correct
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
Q.16) Consider the following statements:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. Unlike in Union Territories, states in India
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
share a distribution of power with the
explanation for Statement-I.
Centre.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. President of India is the constitutional and
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
executive head of both states and Union
explanation for Statement-I.
Territories.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
3. There is no Union territory larger in size
incorrect.
than any state of India.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct.
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.14) Consider the following statements with
b) 2 and 3 only
reference to the criteria for selection of a
c) 1 only
language as a Classical language in India:
d) 1 and 3 only
1. The language should have a recorded
history of at least 1,500-2,000 years.
2. The language should have texts of Q.17) Consider the following statements with
significant historical and cultural regard to the language of the judiciary and the
importance. text of laws in India:
3. The language should have a distinct literary 1. According to the Constitution, the Governor
tradition and not be merely an offshoot of of a state can authorize the use of Hindi in
another language. judgments, decrees, and orders of the
How many of the statements given above are concerned High Court of that state.
correct? 2. The Parliament has made provision for the
a) Only one use of Hindi in the Supreme Court.
b) Only two 3. A state legislature can use any language O
c) All three apart from English to draft bills and acts.
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d) None How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
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b) Only two
Q.15) Consider the following statements in
c) All three
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respect of the National Flag of India according

d) None
to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the
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National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

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Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the

height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
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Which one of the following is correct in respect

of the above statements?
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Q.18) Consider the following languages of India: b) This would create a local self- governing
1. Urdu body in that area.
2. Telugu c) This would convert that area into a Union
3. Hindi Territory.
4. Marathi d) The State having such areas would be
5. Odia declared as a Special Category State.
How many of the above are identified as
classical languages of India? Q.22) Consider the following statements with
a) Only two regard to the ordinance making powers of
b) Only three Lieutenant Governor of Delhi:
c) Only four
1. S/he cannot promulgate an ordinance when
d) All five
assembly is dissolved or suspended.
2. S/he is not permitted to withdraw any
ordinance without the President's approval.
1. While Pressure groups do not contest
Which of the statements given above is/are
elections, Political Parties contest elections
correct?
to form the Government.
a) 1 only
2. Unlike Political parties, Pressure groups do
b) 2 only
not necessarily have political ideologies.
c) Both 1 and 2
3. Generally, the interests of Pressure groups
d) Neither 1 nor 2
are wider than those of Political parties.
How many of the statements given above are
Q.23) Consider the following statements
correct?
regarding the High Courts in India:
a) Only one
1. The Constitution of India empowers the
b) Only two President to establish a High Court for a
c) All three Union Territory (UT).
d) None 2. Delhi is the only UT to have its own separate
High Court.
Q.20) Consider the following statements: 3. The UT of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
1. NGOs in India can be registered under both comes under the jurisdiction of Calcutta
the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and the High Court.
Companies Act, 2013. How many statements given above are correct?
2. Any NGO in India seeking foreign funding a) Only one
must be registered under the Foreign b) Only two
Exchange Management Act. c) All three
3. NGOs in India can receive foreign funding d) None
only for social and educational objectives
and not religious purposes. Q.24) In the context of the administration of O
4. Any organisation that wants to register itself tribal areas, which of the following options
for foreign funding must have existed for includes all the States, in which specific areas
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three years. have been notified under the Sixth Schedule of
S.
How many statements given above are correct? the Constitution of India?
a) Only one a) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya,
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b) Only two Tripura

c) Only three b) Assam, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland
d) All four c) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura
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d) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur,

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Q.21) If a Particular area is brought under the Mizoram

Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India,
which one of the following statements best
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reflects the consequence of it?

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a) This would prevent the transfer of land from

tribal people to non-tribal people.
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Q.25) Which of the following statements Q.28) Consider the following statements
regarding reservation for SCs/ STs in regarding the ‘Official Language’ of a State:
promotion in government services is/ are 1. A State can select a language as official
correct? language of the state, even if it is not listed
1. It is not a fundamental right as per the in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution of India. Constitution.
2. The 85th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2. As per the Official Language Act of 1963, the
2001 provides for ‘consequential seniority’ in Governor can authorize the High Court to
the case of promotion. pass judgments in the official language of
Select the correct option using the code given the State.
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 only correct?
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.26) Consider the following statements
regarding the authoritative text of the Q.29) Which of the following has the authority
Constitution of India: to decide which groups in a state should be
1. The Original Constitution of India had considered as Scheduled Castes (SCs)?
provisions with respect to an authoritative a) President of India
text of the Constitution in the Hindi b) Governor of the respective state
language. c) State legislature of the respective state
2. The Constitution of India originally adopted d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
by the Constituent Assembly on 26th
November 1949 was both in Hindi and Q.30) Consider the following statements with
English languages. reference to the ‘Control of the Union over the
Which of the above given statements is/are Administration of Scheduled Areas and the
correct? Welfare of Scheduled Tribes’:
a) 1 only 1. According to the Constitution of India, the
b) 2 only Parliament must appoint a Commission to
c) Both 1 and 2 submit a report on the administration of the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Scheduled Areas.
2. The Union has executive power to give
Q.27) The Constitution (Ninety-Seventh) directions to a State for the welfare of the
Amendment Act of 2011 has amended certain Scheduled Tribes in the State.
parts of the Constitution. In this context, 3. First commission regarding the
consider the following: administration of Scheduled Areas and the O
1. The Preamble Welfare of STs was appointed under DB
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2. The Fundamental Rights Kalelkar.
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy How many of the above given statements are
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(DPSP) correct?
4. The Fundamental Duties a) Only one
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How many of the provisions listed above have b) Only two

been amended by the Constitution (Ninety- c) All three
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Seventh) Amendment Act of 2011? d) None

a) Only one
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b) Only two
c) Only three
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d) All four
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Q.31) With reference to Home Guards, consider Q.34) For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R),
the following statements: choose the correct alternative from the
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home following.
Guards Act and Rules of the Central Assertion (A): The first Backward Classes
Government. Commission was appointed in 1979 under the
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as Chairmanship of BP Mandal.
an auxiliary force to the police in Reason (R): According to Indian Constitution,
maintenance of internal security. President may appoint a commission to
3. To prevent infiltration on the international investigate into the conditions of Socially and
border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Educationally Backward Classes.
Home Guards Battalions have been raised in Select the correct answer using the codes given
some States. below:
How many of the above statements are correct? a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
a) Only one explanation of A.
b) Only two b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
c) All three correct explanation of A
d) None c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true.
Q.32) With reference to the Special Officer for
Linguistic Minorities, consider the following Q.35) The Constitution of India provides for
statements: establishment of an Administrative Tribunal as
1. S/he is appointed by the President of India. a part of special provisions related to the state
2. S/he presents reports on the Constitutional of Telangana. In this context, which of the
safeguards of the Linguistic Minority to the following statements is/are correct regarding
President. the tribunal?
3. According to the Constitution, S/he can be 1. The Governor of the State is empowered to
removed only on the grounds of proved establish such tribunal.
misbehaviour and incapacity. 2. The state government has been given the
How many of the statements given above are power to modify or annul any order of the
correct? tribunal.
a) Only one 3. The power to abolish the Tribunal lies with
b) Only two the President.
c) All three Select the correct answer using the code given
d) None below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
Q.33) Consider the following categories:
c) 2 and 3 only
1. Scheduled Castes
d) 3 only
2. Scheduled Tribes O
3. Other Backward Classes (OBC)
Q.36) With reference to the Pressure groups,
4. Anglo-Indians
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How many of the above categories are consider the following statements:
S.
currently provided with the reservation of seats 1. It is mandatory for the pressure groups to
in the Lok Sabha? register with the Government.
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a) Only one 2. Trade Unions are often considered as

b) Only two examples of protective pressure groups.
c) Only three Which of the statements given above is/are
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d) All four correct?

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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
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d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.37) Consider the following statements: c) A is true but R is false

1. National Integration Council is neither a d) A is false but R is true.
constitutional nor a statutory body.
2. National Integration Council is chaired by Q.40) In which of the following cases is it
the President of India. mandatory for the central/state government to
3. Meetings of the national integration council pay compensation for the acquisition of land?
are mandatorily convened biennially. Acquiring:
How many of the above-given statements are 1. Lands allotted for religious purposes
correct? 2. Properties of minority educational
a) Only one institutions
b) Only two 3. Land held under statutory ceiling limit for
c) Only three personal cultivation
d) None Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q.38) With reference to the landmark Supreme a) 1 and 2 only
Court Judgements in the history of India, b) 2 and 3 only
consider the following pairs: c) 3 only
Case Verdict d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Maneka Gandhi Right to Personal
Case Liberty is a Q.41) With reference to the Anglo-Indians in
Fundamental Right India, consider the following statements:
2. A.K. Gopalan Abolition of all 1. They are provided with the reservation of
Case privileges and titles of seats in the Legislative Assemblies of the
the princely states States.
rulers. 2. The National Commission for Scheduled
3. Kihoto Hollohan Judicial review of Castes has the authority to investigate the
Case decision of the Constitutional and legal safeguards for
Speaker of the house Anglo-Indians.
under the Tenth Which of the above given statements is/are
Schedule. incorrect?
How many of the above pairs are correctly a) 1 only
matched? b) 2 only
a) Only one c) Both 1 and 2
b) Only two d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) All three
d) None Q.42) Which of the following statements is not
correct regarding the National Commission for
Q.39) For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), Backward Classes (NCBC)?
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choose the correct alternative from the a) The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 granted
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following. Constitutional recognition to the NCBC.
Assertion (A): Part XVI of the Indian
S.
b) During the investigation or examination of

Constitution provides special provisions for any issue or complaint, the Commission
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Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes possesses the same authority as a civil court.
(STs) in India. c) The Commission is composed of a
Reason (R): One of the main objectives of the Chairperson and five other members, with
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Constitution is to achieve equality and justice. at least two members belonging to

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Select the correct answer using the codes given backward classes.
below: d) The Commission examines and oversees
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct constitutional and legal safeguards for
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explanation of A. socially and educationally backward classes.

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b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

explanation of A
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Q.43) The superintendence, direction and Q.46) With respect to Part XVI of the
control of the preparation of electoral rolls and Constitution of India, which contains special
the conduct of elections to a co-operative provisions for certain classes, consider the
society shall vest in such a body, as may be following statements:
provided by: 1. All the provisions are of temporary nature.
a) High Court of a State 2. Some of the provisions safeguard these
b) State Legislature classes from various forms of exploitation.
c) Governor of a State Which of the statements given above is/are
d) State Election Commission correct?
a) 1 Only
Q.44) Consider the following statements: b) 2 Only
Statement-I: The Union Government is c) Both 1 and 2
responsible for promoting and popularizing the d) Neither 1 nor 2
use of Hindi.
Statement-II: The framers of the Constitution Q.47) “In this case, the Supreme Court of India
aimed to establish Hindi as a lingua franca of decriminalized homosexuality. It struck down
India's composite culture. select provisions of Section 377 of the Indian
Which one of the following is correct in respect Penal Code. The court asserted the LGBTQ
of the above statements? community's fundamental rights, highlighting
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the principles of equality (Article 14) and
correct and Statement-II is the correct inclusiveness.”
explanation for Statement-I The above description refers to which of the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are following cases?
correct and Statement-II is not the correct a) K. S. Puttaswamy case
explanation for Statement-I b) Suresh Kumar Koushal case
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is c) Navtej Singh Johar case
incorrect d) National Legal Services Authority case
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct Q.48) With reference to the Home Minister’s
Advisory Committees of the Union Territories,
Q.45) With reference to Union Territories, consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. These are constituted only for those Union
1. Union territory is administered by the Territories that do not have legislature.
President acting through an administrator 2. They consist of nominated members from
appointed by him. civil society.
2. The President can make laws on any subject 3. They are consulted for matters related to
of the Seventh Schedule including the State internal security.
List for all the union territories.
correct?
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3. Before the creation of a new Union Territory
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from an existing State, the President has to a) Only one
b) Only two
S.
refer the matter to the concerned State

Legislature (whose boundaries is being c) All three
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altered) for expressing its views. d) None

How many of the above given statements are
correct?
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a) Only one
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b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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Q.49) With reference to the Autonomous

District Councils for Tribal Areas under the
Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, consider
the following statements:
1. All the members of the Autonomous District
Council are nominated by the Governor.
2. Laws made on village administration by
these Councils require the assent of the
Governor.
3. Only the President is empowered to dissolve
the district council.
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q.50) Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax

Act, which of the following category of people
are exempted from income tax?
a) Members of the Scheduled Tribes in all the
states.
b) Members of the Scheduled Tribes and the
Scheduled Castes in Special Category states.
c) Members from the Economically Backward
Class in all the states.
d) Members of the Scheduled Tribes in states
of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura
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C
S.
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O
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D
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Page 1 of 30
SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 | Test #9 – Solutions |

Q.1) With reference to “Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the district and the lowest is the cluster
of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the Concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home
Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. As per Article 244(1) of the Constitution’s Fifth Schedule, “Scheduled Areas” are
areas that the President may declare to be such by order after consultation with the Governor of that
State.
Statement 2 is correct. District is considered as the largest administrative unit which forms the
Scheduled Area while the lowest administrative unit is the cluster of villages in the Block.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India states in para 3 that “the Governor
of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President,
make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and
the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the
Administration of the said areas.”
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2023
Q.2) Consider the following statements about the Committee of Parliament on Official Language:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairperson of this Committee.
2. The members of the committee are from the Lok Sabha only.
3. It exclusively reviews the progress made in the use of English for official purposes.
a) Only one
b) Only two
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c) All three
C
d) None S.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
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Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 says that a Committee on Official language shall be constituted
on a resolution to that effect being moved in either House of Parliament with the previous sanction of the
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President and passed by both Houses.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Parliamentary Committee on Official Language was established in 1976 under
FN
Section 4 of the Official Languages Act of 1963. The Union Home Minister chairs the Committee, which
has been established in accordance with the requirements of the 1963 Act.
D
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Committee consists of 30 members - 20 members elected from Lok Sabha
and 10 members elected from Rajya Sabha in accordance with the system of proportional representation
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by means of the single transferable vote.

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Statement 3 is incorrect. The objective of Parliamentary Committee on Official Language is to assess
progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes and to provide recommendations to enhance the use
of Hindi (not English) in official communications.
The Committee sends its findings to the President, who "shall [then] cause the report to be laid before each
House of Parliament, and sent to all the State Governments," according to the 1963 Act.
Source: Laxmikanth (7th edition) Chapter 73 (Official Language)
Q.3) With reference to the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State is empowered
to establish regulations for the good governance of the Scheduled Areas of that State. These regulations
can:
a) modify or revoke both Central and State laws after obtaining the President's approval.
b) modify or revoke any Central or State law without requiring the President's approval.
c) modify or revoke only State laws but not Central laws.
d) modify both Central and State laws but is not authorized to revoke any law.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: The Governor can exempt specific acts of Parliament or State legislature from applying
to scheduled areas and he/she can set regulations for good governance in these areas after consulting the
Tribal Advisory Council (TAC). These regulations can repeal or amend any act of Parliament or the State
legislature, which is applicable to a scheduled area. But all such regulations require the assent of the
President. Therefore, only with the President’s assent Governor can modify as well as revoke both
Central and State laws.
Option b, c and d are incorrect: The President’s assent is mandatory for the Governor to modify or revoke
any laws applicable to Scheduled areas. Once the President's approval is granted, the Governor has the
authority to amend or revoke both Central and State laws by issuing the regulations.
Source: Laxmikanth - Scheduled and Tribal Areas
Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the administration of Tribal areas under the Sixth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
1. It has the authority to enact laws concerning property inheritance, marriage and divorce.
2. It possesses the capacity to adjudicate disputes among tribal communities.
3. It can establish rules for regulating money lending and trade involving non-tribal individuals.
O
4. It does not have the power to impose taxes and/or collect land revenue.
C
How many of the above statements regarding functions performed by the Autonomous District Council
established in Tribal Areas are correct?
S.
a) Only one
b) Only two
TE
c) Only three
d) All four
O
Ans) c
FN
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya,
D
Tripura and Mizoram. The Governor of the concerned State establishes a ‘District council’ in these States.
Each of these autonomous districts is governed by a district council made up of 30 members.
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Statement 1 is correct: It is true that the District Councils in Tribal areas, under the Sixth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution, can enact laws related to property inheritance, marriage, and divorce. The councils
can also make laws on matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration etc.
But all such laws require the assent of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct: The District Councils (and regional councils) within their territorial jurisdictions
can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. Hence the
statement is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: The District Councils/Regional councils can create rules and regulations for the
control of money lending and trade involving non-tribal individuals in the areas they govern. However,
such laws require the assent of the Governor.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The district/regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land
revenue and to impose certain specified taxes. They can also establish, construct or manage primary
schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district.
Source: Laxmikanth - Scheduled and Tribal Areas
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Inner Line Permit’, often seen in the news:
1. It is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to allow inward travel of foreigners
into a protected area for a limited period.
2. Presently, this permit is issued for the states of Nagaland, Manipur and Assam only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) d
Statement 1 is incorrect: Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government
of India to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen (not Foreigners) into a protected area for a limited period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The system is in force today in three Northeastern states — Arunachal Pradesh,
Nagaland and Mizoram (not Assam and Manipur).
Source: https://eastsiang.nic.in/service/inner-line-permit-eilp/
O
Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding the provisions for Government of National Capital
C
Territory (NCT) of Delhi:
1. The strength of the Council of Ministers of the Government of NCT of Delhi is fixed at 15% of the total
S.
strength of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi.
2. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor.
TE
3. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor.
O
a) Only one
b) Only two
FN
c) All three
d) None
D
Ans) d
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The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 granted the Union Territory of Delhi special status,
renamed it the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and designated the administrator of Delhi as the
lieutenant (lt.) governor.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The strength of the council of ministers of National Capital Territory of Delhi
is set at 10% of the entire strength of the legislature, which consists of chief minister and six additional
ministers.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President of India appoints the Chief minister of National Capital Territory
of Delhi, not the Lieutenant Governor. The President appoints the other ministries on the suggestion of
the chief minister.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers of NCT of Delhi serves at the pleasure of the President.
The ministerial council is collectively responsible to the assembly.
Source: : Laxmikanth (7th edition) Chapter 41

Statement-I: All pressure groups are interest groups, but all interest groups are not essentially pressure
groups.
Statement-II: Pressure groups must exert pressure on the Government authorities to influence the
decision in their favour.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Ans) a
Pressure Groups and Interest Groups are terms often used interchangeably, but there are distinctions
between them.
O
C
S.
TE
Statement-I is correct: It is true that all pressure groups are interest groups, but all interest groups are
O
not essentially pressure groups. All pressure groups are interest groups because they share common
interests. Interest groups can take on a broader role, including research, public education, and policy
FN
advocacy, while pressure groups are more specifically focused on influencing government decisions
through direct pressure tactics.
D
Statement-II is correct: The important distinction between Pressure Groups and Interest Groups lies in
their approach to government authorities. Pressure groups actively apply pressure through methods like
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protests and campaigns to influence government decisions, as seen in cases like the Kisan Union advocating
for Minimum Support Price for crops.
Therefore, an interest group that employs pressure tactics to achieve its objectives is categorised as a
pressure group. This distinction clarifies why not all interest groups necessarily fall into the category of
pressure groups, explaining the first statement.
Source: https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecSocSciCour/English/Lesson-21.pdf (Pg no 142)
Q.8) With reference to the National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH), consider the following
statements:
1. It functions as an independent organisation under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of
Home Affairs.
2. It provides financial support to children affected by social violence.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) plays an important role in efforts to reduce
tensions and promote peace and understanding among various sections of society.
Statement 1 is correct: The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) is an autonomous
organisation in India that works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
It was established in 1992 with the primary aim of promoting communal harmony and national integration.
Statement 2 is correct: The NFCH focuses on providing assistance and support to the victims of communal,
caste, and ethnic violence in the country, particularly children, who have been affected by such conflicts.
The organization provides financial assistance to children affected by violence for their rehabilitation,
education, and overall well-being.
Source: Laxmikanth - National Integration
Q.9) Which one of the following regarding the tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District
Council is correct?
O
a) Five years from the date of election
C
b) Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the council after the election
c) Six years from the date of administration of oath
S.
d) Six years from the date of election
TE
Ans) b
O
The elected members of the Autonomous District Council shall hold office for a term of five years from
the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the general elections to the Council.
FN
Sixth schedule to the constitution of India provides for setting up of autonomous district council
The Constitution of India makes special provisions for the administration of the tribal dominated areas in
D
four states viz Assam, Meghalaya Tripura and Mizoram.

As per Article 244 and sixth Schedule these areas are called “Tribal Areas
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Source) CDS Pre.2018 II

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Q.10) Consider the following statements with reference to the Union Territory of Lakshadweep:
1. A regulation made by the President of India can repeal or amend any Act made by the Parliament.
2. Lakshadweep Police is under the direct command of the Administrator of the Union Territory.
3. The provisions under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution do not apply to Lakshadweep.
4. A non-native person needs a permit to enter or reside in Lakshadweep.
How many statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct. The President may make regulations for the peace, progress and good government
of the Union territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; Lakshadweep; Dadra and Nagar Haveli and
Daman and Diu; Pondicherry. Any regulation so made may repeal or amend any Act made by Parliament or
any other law which is for the time being applicable to the Union territory and, when promulgated by the
President, shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament which applies to that territory.
Statement 2 is correct. Lakshadweep Police is under the command and control of Administrator of the
Union Territory in his capacity as Inspector General of Lakshadweep Police.
Statement 3 is correct. The provisions under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution does not apply to
Lakshadweep.
Statement 4 is correct. As per the Laccadive Minicoy Islands (Restrictions on Entry and Residence) Rule,
1967, no person who is not a native of the island shall enter or reside in or attempt to enter or reside in the
islands except under and in accordance with a permit issued by the competent authority.
Source: M Laxmikanth
https://lakshadweep.gov.in/
Q.11) The provision under Article 350A of the Constitution of India relates to the
a) right of any section of the citizens to preserve its distinct language and culture
b) right of the Sikh community to carrying and wearing of kirpans
c) provision for providing facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage to children.
d) freedom of Minority-managed educational institutions from discrimination in the matter of receiving
O
aid from the State
Ans) c
C
S.
Article 350A of the Constitution of India states that it shall be the endeavor of every State and of every
TE
local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the
primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. This provision aims to
O
protect and promote the linguistic rights of minority communities by ensuring that children have the
opportunity to receive education in their mother tongue.
FN
Source) CAPF 2015

D
Q.12) Consider the following developments with respect to the cooperative movement in India:
1. Establishment of the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD)
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2. Establishment of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)

3. Establishment of the National Cooperative Development Cooperation
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4. Creation of the Union Ministry of Cooperation
Which of the sequences given in the options below correctly represents the chronology of the above
developments?
a) 3-2-1-4
b) 3-2-4-1
c) 2-3-1-4
d) 2-3-4-1
Ans) a
National Cooperative Development Cooperation (NCDC) was established by an act of Parliament in 1963
as a statutory corporation.
National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) is an institute of national importance established by an act of
the Indian Parliament in 1965. It was founded by Dr Verghese Kurien, often called ‘India’s milkman’
NABARD Act, 1981: The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Act was passed in
1981 and NABARD was set up in 1982 to provide re-finance support to Cooperative Banks and to supplement
the resources of Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks to enhance credit flow to the agriculture and
rural sector.
Ministry of Cooperation was created in 2021 by transferring the existing entries related to cooperation
and cooperative in the business of the erstwhile Ministry of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare.
Source: https://www.ncdc.in/index.jsp?page=genesis-
functions=en#:~:text=The%20National%20Cooperative%20Development%20Corporation,under%20the
%20Ministry%20of%20Cooperation.
https://www.nabard.org/content.aspx?id=2
https://www.nddb.coop/about/genesis
Q.13) With reference to Multi-State Cooperative Societies, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Part IX B of the Constitution, which includes provisions for the democratic functioning of
Cooperatives in India, applies only to multi-state cooperative societies.
Statement -II: Cooperative societies are mentioned in the List II (State List) of the Seventh Schedule of the
constitution of India.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
O
Statement-I.
C
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
S.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
TE
Ans) a
O

The 97th Amendment of 2012 introduced Part IXB into the Constitution, outlining the regulations for the
FN
operation of cooperative societies. Part IXB, encompassing Articles 243ZH to 243ZT, has had a significant
impact on the State legislatures’ control over their cooperative sectors.
Statement-I is correct: Supreme Court of India has held that Part IX B of the Constitution applies only to
D
multi-state cooperative societies. This judgement came in the context of the Central Government's
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actions to prescribe the appropriate number of directors, their tenure, and the qualifications necessary for
individuals to join a society.
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Statement-II is correct: It is true that the “Co-operative societies” is a subject enumerated in
Entry 32 of the list II (state list) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, hence the state legislatures
have the authority to enact legislations on co-operative societies.
The Supreme Court clarified that since cooperative societies fall within the realm of the "exclusive
legislative authority" of State legislatures, the provisions of Part IX B of the Constitution are applicable
exclusively to multi-state cooperative societies. This explains the first statement.
Source: Laxmikanth - Cooperative Societies
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/co-operative-societies-supreme-court-strikes-down-
parts-of-a-constitutional-amendment/article35433660.ece
Q.14) Consider the following statements with reference to the criteria for selection of a language as a
Classical language in India:
1. The language should have a recorded history of at least 1,500-2,000 years.
2. The language should have texts of significant historical and cultural importance.
3. The language should have a distinct literary tradition and not be merely an offshoot of another language.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Part XVII of the India Constitution deals with official language matters within Articles 343 to 351. In 2004,
the Government of India decided to create a new category of languages called “classical languages”.
All Statements are correct: In India, so far six languages in India namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada,
Malayalam and Odia have been given the status of classical language. A language to be recognised as a
classical language, it must fulfil the following criteria:
1) The language should have a recorded history of at least 1,500-2,000 years.
2) The language must have a collection of age-old literary works and texts, regarded as a cherished legacy
by successive generations of speakers
3) The literary tradition of the language should be original and not be borrowed from another linguistic
group.
O
4) The language should have a distinct, independent tradition and not be merely an offshoot of another
language.
Source: Laxmikanth - Official Language
C
S.
Q.15) Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code
TE
of India, 2002:
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
O
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
FN
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-l
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
D
Statement-I
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c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The use, display and hoisting of the National Flag in the country is guided by an overarching set of
instructions called the ‘Flag Code of India 2002’. The code brings together all laws, conventions, practices,
and instructions for the display of the National Flag.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Flag code of India 2002, the National Flag cannot be in the dimension
of 600mm*400mm. The code states that the National flag can be of nine standard dimensions as follows:
Flag Size No. Dimensions in mm
1. 6300 × 4200
2. 3600 × 2400
3. 2700 × 1800
4. 1800 × 1200
5. 1350 × 900
6. 900 × 600
7. 450 × 300
8. 225 × 150
9. 150 × 100
Statement 2 is correct: The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape and the ratio of the length to the
height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

1. Unlike in Union Territories, states in India share a distribution of power with the Centre.
2. President of India is the constitutional and executive head of both states and Union Territories.
3. There is no Union territory larger in size than any state of India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans) c
O
Under Article 1 of the Constitution, the territory of India comprises three categories of territories: (a)
C
territories of the states; (b) union territories; and (c) territories that may be acquired by the Government
of India at any time.
S.
Statement 1 is correct: States relationship with Centre is federal. They share a distribution of power with
TE
the Centre. Union Territories relationship with Centre is unitary. They are under the direct control and
administration of the Centre. They do not have any autonomy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The executive head of state is the Governor. Every Union Territory is
O
administered by the President through an administrator appointed by him.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Ladakh is the largest Union Territory which is larger in size than many Indian
FN
states like Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana and Kerla etc. So, the statement is incorrect.
Source: ch. 40 laxmikanth
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Q.17) Consider the following statements with regard to the language of the judiciary and the text of laws in
India:
1. According to the Constitution, the Governor of a state can authorize the use of Hindi in judgments,
decrees, and orders of the concerned High Court of that state.
2. The Parliament has made provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court.
3. A state legislature can use any language apart from English to draft bills and acts.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) a
English is the official language of India's Supreme Court and High Courts. All hearings in these courts must
be conducted in English, according to Article 348 of the Indian Constitution. Unless Parliament passes
legislation to the contrary, the authoritative text of all acts, orders, rules, and regulations must be in English.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Constitution, the governor of a state, with the prior approval of the
president, can permit the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state in high court proceedings.
However, this authorization does not extend to judgments, decrees, and orders issued by the high court,
which must remain in English until Parliament decides otherwise.
1) The Official Languages Act of 1963 allows (not Constitution) the governor, with the president's prior
consent, to authorize the use of Hindi or the state's official language for high court judgments, decrees,
and orders, provided that an English translation is also provided.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 348(1)(a) stipulates that unless Parliament authorizes otherwise by law, all
proceedings before the Supreme Court and all High Courts must be conducted in English. As of now the
Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. As a result, the
Supreme Court hears only petitions and appeals filed in English.
Statement 3 is correct. Any language can be used by the state legislature in bills, acts, ordinances, orders,
rules, regulations, or byelaws; however, an English translation must be made available.
Q.18) Consider the following languages of India:
O
1. Urdu
C
2. Telugu
3. Hindi
S.
4. Marathi
5. Odia
TE
How many of the above are identified as classical languages of India?

a) Only two
O
b) Only three
c) Only four
FN
d) All five
Ans) a
D

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The Government of India decided to create a new category of languages known as "classical languages" in
2004. It established the criteria for granting classical language designation in 2006. Six languages have been
designated as classical languages.
Options 2 and 5 are correct. Six Indian languages have been designated as classical: Tamil, Telugu,
Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia. Tamil is the first language to receive this honor. Tamil was
designated a classical language in 2004.
Options 1, 3, 4 are incorrect. Urdu, Hindi and Marathi are not classical languages. They are official
languages under the eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Knowledge Base:
1) The Constitution's Eighth Schedule specifies 22 languages (from 14 originally). Assamese, Bengali, Bodo,
Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri,
Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu are among them. The 21st
Amendment Act of 1967 included Sindhi; the 71st Amendment Act of 1992 included Konkani, Manipuri,
and Nepali; and the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added Bodo, Dongri, Maithili, and Santhali.

1. While Pressure groups do not contest elections, Political Parties contest elections to form the
Government.
2. Unlike Political parties, Pressure groups do not necessarily have political ideologies.
3. Generally, the interests of Pressure groups are wider than those of Political parties.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
Political parties and pressure groups have a significant role in democracy. Their interaction is evident, with
trade unions (pressure groups) supporting political parties during elections, and political parties advocating
for legislation that aligns with the interests of workers.
Statement 1 is correct: Pressure groups typically do not participate in elections, while Political parties
O
are organised to contest elections with the aim of forming the government. Pressure groups do not aim to
attain direct political power; instead, their focus is on influencing those in positions of authority to shape
decisions in alignment with their interests. In contrast, political parties strive to secure power with the goal
C
S.
of forming a government.
Statement 2 is correct: While Political parties often have distinct political ideologies and platforms,
TE
Pressure groups may not be ideologically driven. For example, some political parties adhered to the
ideologies of socialism, secularism and democracy, Pressure groups such as Trade Unions advocate for
O
labour friendly laws.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Pressure groups typically have specific and narrow interests, while Political
FN
parties have wider interests that may have national and international implications.
Source: https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecSocSciCour/English/Lesson-21.pdf (Pg no 142)
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1. NGOs in India can be registered under both the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and the Companies Act,
2013.
2. Any NGO in India seeking foreign funding must be registered under the Foreign Exchange Management
Act.
3. NGOs in India can receive foreign funding only for social and educational objectives and not religious
purposes.
4. Any organisation that wants to register itself for foreign funding must have existed for three years.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct. Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) which aims to work in India can be
registered under plethora of laws. It can be registered under any of the following laws: Trust under Indian
Trusts Act, 1882, Society under Societies Registration Act, 1860, Section 8 Company under Companies Act,
2013.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is mandatory for all such NGOs which are seeking foreign funding to register
themselves under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA),and not Foreign Exchange Management
Act (FEMA). The registration is initially valid for five years. Further, it can be renewed subsequently if they
comply with all norms.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Registered NGOs can receive foreign contributions for five purposes — social,
educational, religious, economic, and cultural.
Statement 4 is correct. The new Foreign Contribution Regulation (Amendment) Rules 2020 require that
any organization that wants to register itself under the FCRA to have existed for at least three years.
Further, it should have spent a minimum of Rs. 15 lakh on its core activities during the last three financial
years for the benefit of society. Any NGO or person making an application for obtaining prior permission
to receive foreign funds shall have an FCRA Account.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/what-is-fcra-ngo-funding-mha-
O
explained-8026895/
Q.21) If a Particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the
C
S.
following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
a) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people.
TE
b) This would create a local self- governing body in that area.

c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
d) The State having such areas would be declared as a Special Category State.
O
FN
Ans) a
Option a is correct: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of
D
Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam,
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Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting
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the tribes advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non-
tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of
the scheduled tribes.
Option b is incorrect. According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of Fifth Schedule of
the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having
Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but
not Scheduled Areas. Tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a governing body.
Option c is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India
does not convert the area into a Union Territory.
Option d is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India
does not get declared as a Special Category State.
Source) UPSC CSE Pre. 2022
Q.22) Consider the following statements with regard to the ordinance making powers of Lieutenant
Governor of Delhi:
1. S/he cannot promulgate an ordinance when assembly is dissolved or suspended.
2. S/he is not permitted to withdraw any ordinance without the President's approval.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
The Lieutenant Governor is granted the authority to issue ordinances during periods when the legislative
assembly is not in session. These ordinances carry the same legal weight as acts passed by the legislative
assembly itself.
Statement 1 is correct. The Lieutenant Governor cannot issue an ordinance when the legislative
assembly is dissolved or suspended. This limitation is in place to prevent the misuse of the ordinance-
making power when there is no elected assembly in session to provide oversight.
Statement 2 is correct. Any ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi cannot be
withdrawn without obtaining prior permission from the President.
O
Source: Laxmikanth (7th edition) Chapter 41, Page 412
Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
C
S.
1. The Constitution of India empowers the President to establish a High Court for a Union Territory (UT).
TE
2. Delhi is the only UT to have its own separate High Court.

3. The UT of Andaman and Nicobar Islands comes under the jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court.
O
a) Only one
b) Only two
FN
c) All three
d) None
D
Ans) b
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Article 214 of the Constitution of India provides for a High Court for each State. The Constitution (Seventh)
Amendment Act of 1956 added provisions regarding extension of the jurisdiction of the High Courts to
Union Territories (UTs).
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 241 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament may by law
constitute a High Court for a Union territory.
Statement 2 is correct: Delhi is the only UT that has its own separate High Court. The UTs of Jammu &
Kashmir and Ladakh have a common High Court. The other UTs come under the jurisdiction of different
State High Courts. Hence, Delhi is the only UT that has its own separate High Court.
Statement 3 is correct: The UT of Andaman and Nicobar Islands comes under the jurisdiction of the
Calcutta High Court. Hence, the given statement is correct.
UTs Comes under the jurisdiction of the High Court
Dadra and Nagar Bombay High Court
Haveli and Daman
and Diu.
Lakshadweep Kerala High Court
Chandigarh Punjab & Haryana High Court
Puducherry Madras High Court
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth (7th edition) (Chapter 41, Page 411)
Q.24) In the context of the administration of tribal areas, which of the following options includes all the
States, in which specific areas have been notified under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
a) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura
b) Assam, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland
c) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura
d) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram
Ans) c
Article 244 (Part X) of the Indian Constitution provides for a special system of administration for certain
areas, which are designated as ‘Scheduled areas’ and ‘Tribal areas’. These are dealt with under the Fifth and
Sixth Schedules, respectively.
The Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in four Northeastern states- Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Hence, option c is the correct answer.
O
Knowledge Base:
C
About Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India:
1) The rationale behind special treatment to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is that the tribes in
S.
these States maintain their distinct culture and identity. These tribes have been less assimilated with
TE
the majority culture.

2) These tribal areas have been constituted as autonomous districts. However, these continued to be
governed by the executive authority of the States concerned.
O
3) Governor is empowered to increase or decrease the area of these autonomous districts, change their
names, define boundaries, and so on.
FN
4) The autonomous district can be divided into autonomous regions if there are different tribes residing
in the district.
D
5) There shall be a district council for an autonomous district. This shall comprise 30 members (26
members are elected and 4 are nominated by the Governor). The term of the Council is 5 years.
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Q.25) Which of the following statements regarding reservation for SCs/ STs in promotion in government
services is/ are correct?
1. It is not a fundamental right as per the Constitution of India.
2. The 85th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2001 provides for ‘consequential seniority’ in the case of
promotion.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct: Indra Sawhney Case, 1992 in which the Supreme Court (SC) ruled that reservations
were not applicable in promotions in government service. In order to nullify the ruling with regard to
reservation in promotions, the 77th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 1995. It added a new
provision in Article 16 that empowers the State to provide for reservation in promotions of any services
under the State in favour of the SCs and STs that are not adequately represented in the state services.
However in February 2020, the SC made a judgement clarifying that Article 16 (4A) is an enabling provision
- giving Parliament the power to make such reservations - at its discretion, and cannot be demanded as a
fundamental right. So reservation for SC/ST in promotions in government jobs is not a fundamental right
as per the constitution of India.
Statement 2 is correct: The 85th Amendment Act of 2001 provides for ‘consequential seniority’ in the case
of promotion by virtue of rule of reservation for the government servants belonging to the SCs and STs
with retrospective effect from June 1995.
Consequential Seniority means elevation to a senior position consequential to circumstances, and not
through normal rules.
Q.26) Consider the following statements regarding the authoritative text of the Constitution of India:
1. The Original Constitution of India had provisions with respect to an authoritative text of the
Constitution in the Hindi language.
2. The Constitution of India originally adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 was
O
both in Hindi and English languages.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
C
S.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
TE
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) d
O

FN
Statement 1 is incorrect: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to
an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language. Later, a provision in this regard was made
by the 58th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1987 (Article 394-A).
D
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November,
1949, was in English language. A Hindi translation of the Constitution signed by the members of the
.P
Constituent Assembly was published in 1950.

Source: Laxmikant-Official Language
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Q.27) The Constitution (Ninety-Seventh) Amendment Act of 2011 has amended certain parts of the
Constitution. In this context, consider the following:
1. The Preamble
2. The Fundamental Rights
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
4. The Fundamental Duties
How many of the provisions listed above have been amended by the Constitution (Ninety-Seventh)
Amendment Act of 2011?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) b
The 97th Amendment to the Constitution of India was enacted in 2011. It primarily focused on amending
Article 19(1)(c) and inserting Article 43B to the Indian Constitution. Apart from this, it also added a new
part IX-B, dealing with ‘cooperative societies’
Option 1 is incorrect: No amendment was made in the Preamble by the Constitution (Ninety-Seventh)
Amendment Act, 2011.
Option 2 is correct: Article 19(1)(c) dealing with Fundamental Rights was amended by the Constitution
(Ninety-Seventh) Amendment Act, 2011 to add the word “cooperative societies”. The Constitution (Ninety-
Seventh) Amendment Act, 2011 granted constitutional recognition to cooperatives and granted citizens
the fundamental right to form cooperatives.
Option 3 is correct: The Constitution (Ninety-Seventh) Amendment Act, 2011 inserted Article 43B as a
new Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP). This Article provides for the promotion of cooperative
societies. It provides that the state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous
functioning, democratic control and professional management of the cooperative societies.
Option 4 is incorrect: No amendment was made in the Fundamental Duties by the Constitution (Ninety-
Seventh) Amendment Act, 2011.
Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Official Language’ of a State:
O
1. A State can select a language as official language of the state, even if it is not listed in the Eighth Schedule
C
of the Indian Constitution.
2. As per the Official Language Act of 1963, the Governor can authorize the High Court to pass judgments
S.
in the official language of the State.
TE
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
O
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
FN
Ans) c
D

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not specify the official language of different states. The
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legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state as its official language.
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Further, States have the freedom to select their official language, even if it is not listed in the Eighth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Hence, the given statement is correct.
Statement 2 is correct: As per the Official Language Act of 1963, the Governor of a State can, with the
President's approval, authorize the use of Hindi or the state's official language (along with English) in High
Court judgments, decrees, or orders. However, if a judgment, decree, or order is in a language other than
English, it must be translated into English.
https://rajbhasha.gov.in/sites/default/files/olact1963eng.pdf
Q.29) Which of the following has the authority to decide which groups in a state should be considered as
Scheduled Castes (SCs)?
a) President of India
b) Governor of the respective state
c) State legislature of the respective state
d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Ans) a
To achieve the goals of equality and justice stated in the Preamble, the Constitution provides special
measures for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Other Backward Classes (OBCs), and Anglo-
Indians. These provisions are found in Part XVI of the Constitution, from Articles 330 to 342A.
Option a is correct: The President of India has the authority to decide which castes or tribes in each
state should be considered as Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). The President of India
does so by public notification after consultation with the Governor of the concerned state. Any
amendment to the Presidential notification regarding the lists of SCs and STs can only be done by
Parliament. This is mentioned in Article 341(2) of the Constitution of India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth (7th edition)
Chapter 76, Page 556
Q.30) Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Control of the Union over the
Administration of Scheduled Areas and the Welfare of Scheduled Tribes’:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament must appoint a Commission to submit a report
on the administration of the Scheduled Areas.
O
2. The Union has executive power to give directions to a State for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in
C
the State.
3. First commission regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas and the Welfare of STs was appointed
S.
under DB Kalelkar.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
TE
a) Only one
b) Only two
O
c) All three
d) None
FN
Ans) a
D

Article 339 of Indian constitution extends the Control of the Union over the administration of Scheduled
.P
Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.

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Statement 1 is incorrect: The President (not the Parliament) may at any time appoint a Commission to
report on the administration of the Scheduled Areas and the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the States.
He can appoint such a commission at any time but compulsorily after ten years of the commencement of
the Constitution. The order may define the composition, powers and procedure of the Commission and
may contain such incidental or ancillary provisions as the President may consider necessary or desirable.
Statement 2 is correct: The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to a State
as to the drawing up and execution of schemes specified in the direction to be essential for the welfare of
the Scheduled Tribes in the State.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Two commissions were appointed by the President regarding the administration
of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. First commission was appointed in 1960. It was
headed by U.N. Dhebar (not DB Kalelkar) and submitted its report in 1961.The second commission was
appointed in 2002 under the chairmanship of Dilip Singh Bhuria. It submitted its report in 2004.
Under DB Kalelkar First Backward Class Commission was set up.
Q.31) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal
security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards
Battalions have been raised in some States.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
‘Home Guards’ is a voluntary force, first raised in India in December 1946, to assist the police in controlling
civil disturbance and communal riots.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the
States/Union Territories (not central Government). They are recruited from amongst all classes of people
O
and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for betterment of the community.
Statement 2 is correct: The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in
maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-
C
S.
raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in maintenance of essential services, promote communal
harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and
TE
welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.

Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the
O
border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya,
Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the
FN
international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in vulnerable area at
the time of external aggression.
Therefore, only two statements are correct.
D

.P
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Q.32) With reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements:
1. S/he is appointed by the President of India.
2. S/he presents reports on the Constitutional safeguards of the Linguistic Minority to the President.
3. According to the Constitution, S/he can be removed only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour and
incapacity.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct- Article 350B of the Constitution of India provides for appointing a Special Officer
for Linguistic Minorities (SOLM). The President should appoint a special officer for linguistic minorities
to investigate and report on constitutional safeguards of the linguistic minority. The SOLM is responsible
for investigating all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the
Constitution and reporting to the President at such intervals as the President may direct.
Statement 2 is correct- The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities submits the annual reports or other
reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister. The President in turn lays those
reports in Houses of Parliament and sent to the state governments concerned.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth (7th edition) Chapter 73, Page 542
Q.33) Consider the following categories:

1. Scheduled Castes
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Other Backward Classes (OBC)
4. Anglo-Indians
How many of the above categories are currently provided with the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha?
a) Only one
b) Only two
O
c) Only three
C
d) All four S.
Ans) b
TE
Article 330 of the Constitution allows for the allocation of seats in the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
to individuals from SCs and STs. On the other hand, Article 332 of the Indian Constitution allows for the
O
allocation of seats in the Legislative Assembly to individuals from SCs and STs.
Option 1 is correct- Out of the 543 seats in the Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for the scheduled caste.
FN
The 104th Amendment Act, of 2019 validated this reservation until 2030.
Option 2 is correct- Out of the 543 seats in the Lok Sabha, 47 seats are reserved for the scheduled tribes.
D
The 104th Amendment Act, of 2019 validated this reservation until 2030.
Option 3 is incorrect- Other Backward Classes (or) Socially and Economically Backward Classes have no
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reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha.

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Option 4 is incorrect- Anglo-Indians have no reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha. The 104th Amendment
Act 2019, ended the representation of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha. Before this amendment, the
President used to nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to the Lok Sabha.
Q.34) For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), choose the correct alternative from the following.
Assertion (A): The first Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1979 under the Chairmanship of BP
Mandal.
Reason (R): According to Indian Constitution, President may appoint a commission to investigate into the
conditions of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
Ans) d
Assertion (A) is false- The first Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1953 under Kaka
Kalelkar. It submitted its report in 1955 but no action was taken due to indifferences among the members.
The second backward commission was the Mandal Commission which was appointed in 1979. A
reservation of 27% was awarded in government jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) post this
commission’s recommendation.
Reason (R) is true- Article 340 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to appoint a
commission to investigate the conditions of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) and to
make recommendations on measures to improve their condition.
Q.35) The Constitution of India provides for establishment of an Administrative Tribunal as a part of special
provisions related to the state of Telangana. In this context, which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the tribunal?
O
1. The Governor of the State is empowered to establish such tribunal.
C
2. The state government has been given the power to modify or annul any order of the tribunal.
3. The power to abolish the Tribunal lies with the President.
S.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
TE
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
O
d) 3 only
FN
Ans) c
D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The President may provide for the establishment of an Administrative Tribunal
in the state to deal with certain disputes and grievances relating to appointment, allotment or promotion
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Statement 2 is correct. The order of the Administrative Tribunal disposing of any case shall become
effective upon its confirmation by the State Government or on the expiry of three months from the date
on which the order is made, whichever is earlier.
Also the State Government may, by special order made in writing and for reasons to be specified therein,
modify or annul any order of the Administrative Tribunal before it becomes effective and in such a case,
the order of the Administrative Tribunal shall have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as
the case may be.
Statement 3 is correct. The President may abolish the tribunal when he is satisfied that its continued
existence is not necessary.
Source: https://www.constitutionofindia.net/articles/article-371d-special-provisions-with-respect-to-
the-state-of-andhra-pradesh-or-the-state-of-telangana/
Q.36) With reference to the Pressure groups, consider the following statements:
1. It is mandatory for the pressure groups to register with the Government.
2. Trade Unions are often considered as examples of protective pressure groups.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) b
Pressure groups, also known as interest groups or lobby groups, are organizations that seek to influence
public policy. They do this by a variety of means, such as lobbying government officials, organizing
protests and demonstrations, and raising public awareness about issues they care about.
Statement 1 is incorrect- It is not mandatory for the pressure groups to register with the Government.
There are a number of reasons why pressure groups in India are not mandatory to register with the
government. One reason is that the government does not want to stifle dissent or give itself the power to
control pressure groups. Another reason is that it would be difficult and expensive for the government to
regulate all of the pressure groups in India.
Statement 2 is correct- The protective groups try to protect the interests of their members like those
of trade unions and associations of traders or professionals. The promotional groups, on the other hand,
O
have membership of large cross-sections of the community. The protective groups generally manage to
C
have greater influence over policymaking process than the promotional groups.
Knowledge Base:
S.
Some other types of Pressure groups:
1) Business pressure groups: These groups represent the interests of businesses and industries.
TE
2) Professional pressure groups: These groups represent the interests of professionals, such as doctors,
lawyers, and teachers.
O
Source: https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecSocSciCour/English/Lesson-21.pdf
Page: 142
FN

D
1. National Integration Council is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body.

2. National Integration Council is chaired by the President of India.
.P
3. Meetings of the national integration council are mandatorily convened biennially.

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How many of the above-given statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Ans) a
The objectives of the National Integration Council (NIC) are to achieve unity in diversity, freedom of
religions, secularism, equality, justice-social-economic and political, and fraternity among all communities.
Statement 1 is correct: National Integration Council is neither a Constitutional body nor a Statutory body.
It is an extra-constitutional body. The National Integration Council (NIC) was constituted in 1961 at a
national conference on ‘unity in diversity’ convened by the Central government, at New Delhi.
Statement 2 is incorrect: National integration council is chaired by the Prime minister of India (and not by
the President of India).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Meetings of the national integration council are convened as per requirement
from time to time. There is no regular or specified time interval for convening meetings of the national
integration council.
Q.38) With reference to the landmark Supreme Court Judgements in the history of India, consider the
following pairs:
Case Verdict
1. Maneka Gandhi Case Right to Personal Liberty is
a Fundamental Right
2. A.K. Gopalan Case Abolition of all privileges
and titles of the princely
states rulers.
3. Kihoto Hollohan Case Judicial review of decision
of the Speaker of the house
under the Tenth Schedule.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
O
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
C
S.
Ans) b
TE

Pair 1 is correctly matched- The Maneka Gandhi case (1978) is a landmark Supreme Court decision in India
O
that expanded the interpretation of Article 21 of the Constitution. It ruled that this article guarantees
various rights, including the right to travel freely. The case established the right to personal liberty as a
FN
fundamental right and emphasized the need for a fair hearing before depriving someone of their personal
liberty.
D
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched- The A.K. Gopalan case (1950) upheld the Preventive Detention Act of 1950,
ruling that Article 21 did not require due process. The case involved the detention of A.K. Gopalan and his
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challenge against the Act, emphasizing that the right to personal liberty was not absolute, while also
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validating the Act. The Verdict delivered by the Supreme Court in A.K. Gopalan Case was overruled in
the Maneka Gandhi Case. On the other hand, in the Madhav Jiwaji Rao Scandia case (1975) the judgement
abolished of all privileges and titles to princely ruler.
Pair 3 is correctly matched- The Kihoto Hollohan case in India (1992) is a landmark in interpreting the
Anti-Defection Law. It clarified that disqualification decisions under the Tenth Schedule can be reviewed
by the judiciary. However, the Speaker's decision is final unless it violates principles of natural justice or
is made in bad faith.
Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1939993/
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1686885/#:~:text=In%20the%20Indian%20constitutional%20dispensati
on,and%20not%20legislative%20in%20nature.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1766147/
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1857950/
Q.39) For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), choose the correct alternative from the following.
Assertion (A): Part XVI of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for Scheduled Castes (SCs)
and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India.
Reason (R): One of the main objectives of the Constitution is to achieve equality and justice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
Ans) a
Assertion (A) is true- Part XVI of the Indian Constitution under Article 330 to 342A does provide special
provisions for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Backward Classes, and Anglo-Indians in
India. These provisions, among others, include reservation of seats in Parliament and state legislatures,
reservation of jobs in government and public sector undertakings.
Reason (R) is also true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)- The Preamble of the Constitution does
outline the aim of achieving equality and justice. The special provisions in Part XVI of the Constitution are
designed to help achieve this aim by addressing the historical and contemporary disadvantages faced by
O
Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Backward Classes, and Anglo-Indians in India.
C
S.
Q.40) In which of the following cases is it mandatory for the central/state government to pay compensation
TE
for the acquisition of land?

Acquiring:
1. Lands allotted for religious purposes
O
2. Properties of minority educational institutions

FN
3. Land held under statutory ceiling limit for personal cultivation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
D
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
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Ans) b
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978) had abolished the
constitutional obligation of the Parliament as well as the state legislatures to pay compensation in case of
compulsory acquisition of private property by the governments. However, there are two exceptions to it:
1) When the government acquires the property of a minority educational institution.
2) When the government acquires the land held by a person under his personal cultivation and the land
is within the statutory ceiling limits.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Land for religious purpose is not covered under it. Therefore, it is not mandatory
for the government to pay compensation in this regard.
Q.41) With reference to the Anglo-Indians in India, consider the following statements:
1. They are provided with the reservation of seats in the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
2. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes has the authority to investigate the Constitutional and
legal safeguards for Anglo-Indians.
Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) a
Anglo-Indians are people with British and Indian parentage. The term is legally defined as Indian citizens
who are of European descent on their father's side. Their paternal ancestors could be British, French, or
Portuguese.
Statement 1 is incorrect- The 104th Amendment Act of 2019 ended the practice of providing special
representation to the Anglo-Indian community in the legislatures (Lok Sabha and Assembly) through
nomination. Before that, the President used to nominate 2 members from the Anglo-Indian Community to
the Lok Sabha and the Governor used to nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian Community to the
Legislative Assembly.
Statement 2 is correct- The National Commission for Scheduled Castes has the same duties for the
O
Anglo-Indian community under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution as it does for the Scheduled Castes.
C
This means the commission must look into all issues related to the constitutional and legal protections
for the Anglo-Indian community and report their findings to the President.
S.
TE
Q.42) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the National Commission for Backward
O
Classes (NCBC)?
a) The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 granted Constitutional recognition to the NCBC.
FN
b) During the investigation or examination of any issue or complaint, the Commission possesses the same
authority as a civil court.
D
c) The Commission is composed of a Chairperson and five other members, with at least two members
belonging to backward classes.
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d) The Commission examines and oversees constitutional and legal safeguards for socially and
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Ans) c
In the 1992 Mandal case verdict, the Supreme Court mandated the establishment of a permanent statutory
body by the central government to address complaints regarding the inclusion or exclusion of citizens in
the list of backward classes. Consequently, NCBC was constituted pursuant to the provisions of the
National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
Statement a is correct: The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 granted constitutional status to the National
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). It introduced Article 338B in the Indian Constitution,
establishing the NCBC as a constitutional body for the socially and educationally backward classes.
Statement b is correct: The Commission, during its investigations or complaint inquiries, is vested with
the authority equivalent to that of a civil court. This includes summoning individuals from any part of
India, administering oaths, demanding documents, accepting evidence by affidavit, accessing public
records, and issuing summons to examine witnesses and documents.
Statement c is incorrect: The Commission is composed of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three
other members, and they are appointed by the President through a warrant under his hand and seal. The
conditions of their service and tenure of office are also determined by the President. There is no provision
mandating that at least two members must belong to backward classes.
Statement d is correct: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is responsible for
examining and overseeing constitutional and legal safeguards for socially and educationally backward
classes (SEBCs). This includes monitoring the various safeguards under the Constitution or other laws,
addressing complaints related to SEBCs' rights, and advising on their socio-economic development and
progress under the Union and State governments.
Q.43) The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of
elections to a co-operative society shall vest in such a body, as may be provided by:
a) High Court of a State
b) State Legislature
c) Governor of a State
d) State Election Commission
O
Ans) b
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of
C
S.
elections to a co-operative society shall vest in such body, as may be provided by the state legislature.
This body manages the preparation of electoral rolls and the execution of elections for cooperative
TE
societies, ensuring a smooth transition between the outgoing and incoming board members, and
maintaining the cooperative's functional continuity as part of its supervisory and directive responsibilities.
O

FN

Statement-I: The Union Government is responsible for promoting and popularizing the use of Hindi.
D
Statement-II: The framers of the Constitution aimed to establish Hindi as a lingua franca of India's
.P
composite culture.
W
W
W

Page 26 of 30

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Ans) a
Statement-I is correct: The government's role in promoting Hindi is rooted in Article 351 of the Indian
Constitution. This article mandates the Union to encourage the use and development of Hindi as a medium
of expression for India's diverse cultural elements. It emphasizes enriching Hindi by drawing from various
languages, primarily Sanskrit, to preserve its essence while enhancing its vocabulary to create a shared
language reflective of India's composite culture.
Statement-II is correct: The architects of India's constitution envisioned Hindi as a unifying language,
bridging the diverse cultural and linguistic communities across the nation. They aimed to make Hindi a
common medium of communication, fostering unity among India's rich tapestry of cultures, and promoting
a sense of shared identity and understanding.
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: The framers of the constitution aimed to
establish Hindi as a lingua franca to unite India's diverse culture. This objective is reflected in Article 351,
which outlines the government's duty to develop Hindi as a means of expression for the composite
culture of India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth (7th edition), Chapter 73, Page 542
Q.45) With reference to Union Territories, consider the following statements:

1. Union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
2. The President can make laws on any subject of the Seventh Schedule including the State List for all the
union territories.
3. Before the creation of a new Union Territory from an existing State, the President has to refer the matter
to the concerned State Legislature (whose boundaries is being altered) for expressing its views.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
a) Only one
O
b) Only two
C
c) All three
d) None
S.
Ans) b
TE

The Union Territories are also known as ‘centrally administered territories. Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII
O
of the Constitution deal with the union territories.

Statement 1 is correct: Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an
FN
administrator appointed by him. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not
head of state like a governor.
D
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Parliament (not President) can make laws on any subject of the three lists of
Seventh Schedule (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends
.P
to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures.

W
W
W

Page 27 of 30

Statement 3 is correct: Article 3 lays down two conditions with regard to creation of state/UT: one, a bill
contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation
of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state
legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. In case of a union territory, no
reference need be made to the concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself
take any action as it deems fit. Since in this question the UT is formed from an existing state, so the views
of the state legislature is taken.
Q.46) With respect to Part XVI of the Constitution of India, which contains special provisions for certain
classes, consider the following statements:
1. All the provisions are of temporary nature.
2. Some of the provisions safeguard these classes from various forms of exploitation.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) b
The Constitution, to fulfill the goals of equality and justice outlined in the Preamble, includes specific
provisions for the Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Backward Classes (BCs), and Anglo-
Indians. These provisions are detailed in Part XVI, encompassing Articles 330 to 342A of the Constitution.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Part XVI of the Constitution contains both permanent and temporary
provisions. While some provisions are a permanent feature, others have a specified period during which
they operate. Provisions like Article 331, which reserve seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
in the House of the People, are temporary and their validity is extended through constitutional
amendments. Provisions like Article 335 are of Permanent nature.
Statement 2 is correct: Part XVI of the Constitution incorporates provisions designed to safeguard specific
classes from various forms of exploitation. Article 338 establishes the National Commission for Scheduled
Castes (SCs), while Article 338-A establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs). These
commissions are tasked with investigating and reporting on issues related to the constitutional safeguards
O
for these respective groups, thereby contributing to their protection and well-being.
C
S.
Q.47) “In this case, the Supreme Court of India decriminalized homosexuality. It struck down select
TE
provisions of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code. The court asserted the LGBTQ community's
fundamental rights, highlighting the principles of equality (Article 14) and inclusiveness.”
O
The above description refers to which of the following cases?

a) K. S. Puttaswamy case
FN
b) Suresh Kumar Koushal case

c) Navtej Singh Johar case
D
d) National Legal Services Authority case

.P
W
W
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Page 28 of 30

Ans) c
Option a is incorrect: In the 2017 case of Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. vs. Union of India & Ors., a
unanimous nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India declared the right to privacy a fundamental
right protected by Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Indian Constitution.
Option b is incorrect: In the Suresh Kumar Koushal vs. Naz Foundation judgement (2013), the Supreme
Court overturned the Delhi High Court's 2009 judgment that decriminalized homosexual acts, re-
criminalizing homosexuality. The Court argued that the low prosecution numbers under Section 377 over
150 years were insufficient to challenge the law's constitutionality. It asserted that the legislature should
address the desirability of deleting Section 377 from the Indian Penal Code.
Option c is correct: In the 2018 Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court of India
decriminalized homosexuality, striking down select provisions of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code.
The court asserted the LGBTQ community's fundamental rights, highlighting the principles of equality
(Article 14) and inclusiveness. Section 377 was found to infringe on Article 15, discriminating against
LGBTQ individuals based on sexual orientation, and Article 19, limiting their freedom of expression.
Additionally, it violated Article 21 by criminalizing consensual same-sex activity, which the court deemed
a component of the right to privacy and personal autonomy.
Option d is incorrect: In the landmark judgment of National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
(2014), the Indian Supreme Court recognized transgender individuals as the 'third gender' and granted
them equal fundamental rights under the Constitution. It also mandated their right to self-identification
of gender. Additionally, due to their social and economic backwardness, the court provided reservations
for transgender people in educational institutions and employment.
Q.48) With reference to the Home Minister’s Advisory Committees of the Union Territories, consider the
following statements:
1. These are constituted only for those Union Territories that do not have legislature.
2. They consist of nominated members from civil society.
3. They are consulted for matters related to internal security.
a) Only one
O
b) Only two
c) All three
C
d) None
S.
Ans) c
TE

Under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal
ministry for all matters of Union Territories relating to legislation, finance and budget, services and
O
appointment of Lt. Governors and Administrators.

FN
Statement 1 is correct: The 5 UTs without legislature (Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Daman &
Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Lakshadweep and Ladakh) have the forum of Home Minister’s Advisory
Committee (HMAC)/Administrator’s Advisory Committee (AAC).
D
Statement 2 is correct: While Home Minister’s Advisory Committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister,
.P
Administrator’s Advisory Committee is chaired by the Administrator of the concerned UTs. The Advisory
Committees have the following members:
W
W
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Page 29 of 30

1) Administrator of the UT
2) Member of Parliament representing the UT
3) Representatives of the District Panchayats and Municipal Council of the respective UTs
4) Nominated members from the civil society.
Statement 3 is correct: The Advisory Committee shall be consulted in the matters related to:
1) General issues relating to social and economic development of the UTs.
2) All legislative proposals concerning UT in regard to the matters in the State List.
3) Internal security related matters.
4) Such matters related to the Annual Financial Statement of the Union in so far as it concerns the
UT.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant – 6th Edition – Chapter 40 - Union Territories.
https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/Lakshadweep_16022018.PDF
Q.49) With reference to the Autonomous District Councils for Tribal Areas under the Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. All the members of the Autonomous District Council are nominated by the Governor.
2. Laws made on village administration by these Councils require the assent of the Governor.
3. Only the President is empowered to dissolve the district council.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) a
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four
northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Each Autonomous District Council consists of not more than thirty members. Of
these, not more than four persons shall be nominated by the Governor and the rest shall be elected on
the basis of adult suffrage.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years and nominated members hold office during the
pleasure of the Governor. Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
O
Statement 2 is correct: The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction.
C
They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village
administration, inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs and so on. The district
S.
council can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads
and so on in the district. It can also make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-
TE
tribals. But all such laws require the assent of the Governor.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter
O
relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions. Governor may dissolve a district or
regional council on the recommendation of the commission.
FN
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant – 6th Edition – Chapter 41 - Scheduled and Tribal Areas.
D
.P
W
W
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Page 30 of 30

Q.50) Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, which of the following category of people are exempted
from income tax?
a) Members of the Scheduled Tribes in all the states.
b) Members of the Scheduled Tribes and the Scheduled Castes in Special Category states.
c) Members from the Economically Backward Class in all the states.
d) Members of the Scheduled Tribes in states of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura
Ans) d
Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act provides specific exemptions from income tax for certain categories
of individuals. In this case, the exemption applies to members of the Scheduled Tribes in the states of
Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura.
Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/267150/
O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W
W
W

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

for that question.

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

b) modify or revoke any Central or State law Assembly of Delhi.

without requiring the President's approval.

not authorized to revoke any law.

regarding the administration of Tribal areas c) All three

under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

Q.10) Consider the following statements with

reference to the Union Territory of

can repeal or amend any Act made by the

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

Q.13) With reference to Multi-State a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

respect of the National Flag of India according

National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the

Which one of the following is correct in respect

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

b) Only two Tripura

d) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur,

Q.21) If a Particular area is brought under the Mizoram

reflects the consequence of it?

a) This would prevent the transfer of land from

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

How many of the provisions listed above have b) Only two

Seventh) Amendment Act of 2011? d) None

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

a) Only one 2. Trade Unions are often considered as

d) All four correct?

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

Q.37) Consider the following statements: c) A is true but R is false

b) During the investigation or examination of

Constitution is to achieve equality and justice. at least two members belonging to

explanation of A. socially and educationally backward classes.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

refer the matter to the concerned State

altered) for expressing its views. d) None

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 |

Q.49) With reference to the Autonomous

Q.50) Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 | Test #9 – Solutions |

President and passed by both Houses.

by means of the single transferable vote.

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 | Test #9 – Solutions |

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 | Test #9 – Solutions |

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 | Test #9 – Solutions |

Q.7) Consider the following statements:

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