PW NEET (2023-24)

REPLICA TEST - 02

DURATION
DURATION:: 200
90 Minutes
Minutes M. MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Full syllabus.

Chemistry: Full syllabus.
Botany: Full syllabus.
Zoology: Full syllabus.

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185).
All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200).
In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the
event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc.
inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the
candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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 [Replica Test-02 || PW NEET (2023-24) || Full Syllabus]

(PHYSICS)

SECTION-A 8. Find the torque about the origin when a force of

1. If force F, length L and time T are taken as 12iˆ N acts on a particle whose position vector is 5 ˆj m.
fundamental units, the dimensional formula of the (1) 60kˆ N-m (2) 60 ˆj N-m
energy will be:
(3) −60kˆ N-m (4) −60i N-m
(1) [F1L1T0] (2) [F1L1T1]
2 1 -1
(3) [F L T ] (4) [FL2T0]
9. A medical syringe has a barrel with a cross-
section area of 0.08 cm 2 and a needle with a cross-
2. A body freely falls from rest. The ratio of the sectional area of 0.05 mm2. If the medicine
distances travelled by the body in the 2nd and 5th (density = 1 g/cm3) flows through the barrel of
second is; syringe at a rate of 0.4 cm 3/s, what is the velocity
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 3 of the medicine as it exits the needle?
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 (1) 8 m/s (2) 16 m/s
(3) 32 m/s (4) 64 m/s
3. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
potential difference of V volt. If the de-Broglie 10. In full wave rectification, if the input frequency is
wavelength of the electron is 3.681 × 10–2 nm, the 50 Hz, then the output frequency would be:
potential difference in nearly; (1) 100 Hz (2) 50 Hz
104 103 (3) 75 Hz (4) 10 Hz
(1) V (2) V
9 9 11. In Young’s double slit experiment, the amplitudes
105 104 of the wave emerging from the two slits are in the
(3) V (4) V
9 3 ratio 1 : 4. The ratio of the intensity of the bright
fringe to the intensity of the dark fringe is;
4. In a certain region of space with volume 0.3 m3. The 25 25
(1) (2)
electric potential is found to be 3 V throughout. 16 4
What can be concluded about the electric field in 9 25
(3) (4)
this region? 4 9
(1) It is uniform and non-zero
(2) It is zero everywhere 12. What is the ratio of the radius of gyration of a solid
(3) It is non-uniform and non-zero sphere to that of the thin disc of the same mass and
(4) It is undefined radius, when rotated about their respective
diameters?
5. There is a decrease in the resistance of a p-n junction (1) 5 : 2 2 (2) 2 2 : 5
diode; (3) 4 2 : 5 (4) 3 2 :8
(1) only when it is reverse biased
(2) only when it is forward biased 13. A 2500 kg boat is moving at a constant velocity of
(3) both forward and reverse bias 4 m/s through water. The water resistance exerted
(4) None of these on the boat is 1200 N. What is the minimum power
required (in kW) by the engine to maintain the
6. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 40 mH, motion? (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
capacitance C is 6.25 F and resistance is 100  . (1) 4.8 (2) 2.4
The angular frequency of the applied voltage (3) 5.6 (4) 9.6
is 2000 rad/s. What is the value of impedance?
(1) 100  (2) 50  14. A radioactive atom with a mass number of 200
decays into two daughter nuclei, each with a mass
(3) 150  (4) 200 
number of 100. The binding energy per nucleon
for the parent nucleus is 7.2 MeV, while the
7. A 70 F capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz
binding energy per nucleon for the daughter
AC supply. The RMS value of the current in the nuclei is 8.1 MeV. What is the total energy released
circuit is nearly. in this decay process?
(1) 4.24 A (2) 3.84 A (1) 220 MeV (2) 200 MeV
(3) 4.84 A (4) 1.84 A (3) 840 MeV (4) 180 MeV
15. A long solenoid of radius 2 mm has 300 turns per 21. The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in
mm. If 2 A current flows in the solenoid the the following circuit is;
magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid
is;
(1) 24 10−2 T (2) 12  10−2 T
(3) 36  10−2 T (4) 6  10−2 T

(1) 6F (2) 4F

16. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has
a wavelength above 102 meters. (3) 1F (4) 2F
(1) X-rays
(2) Infrared radiation 22. When a nucleus with a mass number of 756
(3) Radio waves undergoes fission, it breaks into two daughter nuclei
(4) Microwave with mass number 729 and 27. What is the ratio of
the radii of the larger daughter nucleus to the smaller
17. A block of mass 4 kg moving with velocity of 20 m/s daughter nucleus?
on a smooth surface hits a spring of force constant (1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
40 × 103 N/m as shown. The maximum compression (3) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
in the spring is;
23. The energy released when one molecule of ATP
(adenosine triphosphate) breaks down into ADP
(adenosine diphosphate) is 3.2 × 10–20 J. This value
in eV is nearly.
(1) 20 cm (2) 15 cm (1) 0.2 eV (2) 0.02 eV
(3) 30 cm (4) 45 cm (3) 2 eV (4) 0.0002 eV

18. The ratio of the electric field intensity at a point on 24. A 500-turn coil of effective area 0.08 m2 is kept with
the perpendicular bisector to that at a point on the its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field 3 × 10–5 T.
axis of an electric dipole, both points being When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around
any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the average emf
equidistant from the dipole and at a distance much
induced in the coil will be:
larger than the size of the dipole is;
(1) 0.012 V (2) 0.12 V
1 2
(1) (2) (3) 1.2 V (4) 0.0012 V
4 1
1 1 25. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on
(3) (4)
3 2 the earth’s surface, and T2 when taken to a height 2R
above the earth’s surface, where R is the radius of
19. Two solid copper spheres, sphere A and sphere B, T2
have radii in the ratio 3 : 2. If the some amount of the earth. The value of is;
T1
heat is applied to both spheres, and their temperature
rise by 2 K, what is the ratio of the heat energy (1) 3 (2) 3
absorbed by sphere A to that absorbed by sphere B. (3) 9 (4) 6
8 9
(1) (2) 26. What is the strength of the gravitational field at a
27 8
point where a 45 gram object experiences a
27 8
(3) (4) gravitational force of 5.0 newtons?
8 9
1000 1500
(1) N/kg (2) N/kg
20. What is the ratio of the average thermal energy of a 9 9
diatomic gas molecule to that of a monoatomic gas 500 450
(3) N/kg (4) N/kg
molecule at the same absolute temperature T ? 9 9
5 3
(1) (2) 27. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is
3 5
7 7 12 Mg →Z X
24 A
+ e+ + 
(3) (4) 23 24
3 5 (1) 11 Na (2) 11 Na
22 22
(3) 12 Mg (4) 10 Ne
28. An ideal gas is compressed from its initial volume 34. Body A of mass 8m moving with speed u, collides
to half its initial volume. Which of the following with another body B of mass 2m at rest. The
compression processes requires the minimum collision is head on and perfectly elastic in nature.
amount of work to be done on the gas? After the collision, the speed of body B is;
(1) Adiabatic compression 6 8
(1) u (2) u
(2) Isobaric compression 5 5
(3) Isothermal compression 16 9
(3) u (4) u
(4) Equal in all above 5 5

29. If the tension in a stretched string is increased to 35. In the given figure, a = 8 m/s2 represents the
four times its original value, how does the speed of centripetal acceleration of a particle moving in the
a transverse waves travelling along the string clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2 m at a
change? given instant of time. The speed of the particle at
(1) the speed becomes half of the original speed. that instant is;
(2) the speed remains the same.
(3) the speed becomes twice the original speed.
(4) the speed becomes four times the original
speed.

30. A radio wave has an electric field component of

10–3 N/C. What is the amplitude of the magnetic (1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
field component? (3) 16 m/s (4) 8 m/s
10−12 10−11 SECTION-B
(1) (2) 36. A car rounds a corner on a horizontal road at a
3 3
constant speed v. If the coefficient of friction is 0.4
10−10 10−9 between the tyres and the road and the equation of
(3) (4)
6 3 arc of minimum radius for safe turning is
x2 + y2 = 25 , here x and y are in m, find the value
31. A metal rod of cross-sectional area A is fixed at one
of v. (g = 10 m/s2)
end and extended by a force F applied along the axis
(1) 4 2 m/s (2) 5 2 m/s
of the rod at the other end. The longitudinal strain in
the rod is; [E is the Young’s modulus] (3) 2 5 m/s (4) 4 5 m/s
F F
(1) (2) 37. Bullets of 0.05 kg mass each hit a plate at a rate of
3 AE 2 AE
200 bullets per second with a velocity of 20 m/s and
F 2F
(3) (4) reflect back with a velocity of 10 m/s. The average
AE AE force acting on the plate is;
(1) 200 N (2) 300 N
32. A magnet of magnetic moment 50iˆ A-m2 is placed (3) 100 N (4) 180 N
along the x-axis in a magnetic field B = (2 ˆj)T . The
38. Two balls of equal mass are projected vertically
torque acting on the magnet is; upwards with the same initial speed. What is the
(1) 150kˆ N-m acceleration of their centre of mass while they are in
(2) 100kˆ N-m air? (consider vertically upward direction as
positive)
(3) 50kˆ N-m
g
(4) 200kˆ N-m (1) g m/s2 (2)
2
m/s2

g
33. When an object is projected up a smooth inclined (3) –g m/s2 (4) − ms2
2
plane at 30° and then at 45° with same speed, the
distances travelled are x1 and x2 respectively. What 39. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays,
is the ratio x1 : x2? when a light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive
(1) 1: 3 (2) 2 :1 index 2 with an angle of incidence of 45°, is;
(3) 2 :1 (4) 3 :1 (1) 115° (2) 105°
(3) 95° (4) 125°
40. A charge particle having drift velocity of 6 × 10–4 m/s (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
in an electric field of 2 × 10–10 V/m has a mobility (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
in m2/Vs of incorrect.
(1) 4 × 106 (2) 6 × 106 (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) 2 × 106 (4) 3 × 106 correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
41. What is the excess pressure inside a droplet of
47. A closed organ pipe is 30 cm long. An open organ
medicine, with a surface tension of 0.07 N/m and a
pipe produces a fundamental frequency twice that of
radius of 0.05 m, that is administered via a nebulizer
to help treat asthma patients? the closed pipe. How long is the open organ pipe?
(1) 1.4 N/m2 (2) 2.8 N/m2 (1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 0.7 N/m2 (4) 0.5 N/m2 (3) 60 cm (4) 45 cm

48. In hydrogen spectrum, the longest wavelength in the

42. A gas is initially at a temperature of –75°C. To
increase the root mean square (rms) speed of the gas Paschen series is . The longest wavelength in the
molecules by four times, to what temperature (in Pfund series is;
205 175
Celsius) should the gas be heated. (1)  (2) 
(1) 4523°C (2) 4677°C 16 44
(3) 4246°C (4) 4137°C 185 175
(3)  (4) 
44 48
43. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor with air
as medium is 5 F. With the introduction of a 49. The escape velocity from the surface of the planet is
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 25 F. 3 km/s. If a body is projected upward with a velocity
of 5 km/s, what will be its velocity when it escapes
The dielectric constant of the medium is;
the gravitational field of that planet?
(1) 3
(1) 4 km/s (2) 3 km/s
(2) 2
(3) 2 km/s (4) 1 km/s
(3) 4
(4) 5 50. In the figure, what is the magnitude of magnetic
field at point O? (The straight parts extend till
44. A ball is projected at an angle  with the horizontal. infinity and radius of semicircle with centre at the
At t = 2 s, its velocity vector makes a 30° angle with origin O is r)
the horizontal, and at t = 3 s, it moves horizontally.
Find the initial speed of projection. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 40 3 m/s
(2) 5 3 m/s
(3) 10 3 m/s
(4) 20 3 m/s

45. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact

with a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. The
combined focal length of the lenses is;
(1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm
(3) 20 cm (4) 8 cm

0 I  1 
46. Given below are two statements: (1) 1−
Statement I: When an external resistor of resistance 2r   
R (connected across a cell of internal resistance r) is 0 I  1 
(2) 1−
varied, power consumed by resistance R is 4r   
maximum when R = r. 0 I  2 
(3) 1+
4r   
Statement II: Power consumed by a resistance of
constant resistance R is minimum when the current
0 I  1 
through it is maximum. (4) 2−
4r   
 [Replica Test-02 || PW NEET (2023-24) || Full Syllabus]

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 57. Assertion (A): In SN1 reaction, the second step
involves the formation of carbocation.
51. When phenol vapours are passed over heated on
Reason (R): Carbocation formation is rate
zinc dust the product (X) is formed. What in the
determining step in SN1 reaction.
IUPAC name of the product (X);
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(1) Cyclohexa-2,4,6-triene and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(2) Cyclohexa-1,3,5-diene Assertion (A).
(3) Cyclohexa-1,3,5-triene (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(4) Cyclohexa-1,3,5-diene but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
52. For the reaction, (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
MgCO3(s)  MgO(s) + CO2(g) (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
The expression of KP is;
58. How many monohalogenated product will be
(1) [CO2]
obtaned in the given reaction (excluding
PCO2 stereoisomers)?
(2)
PMgCO3
(3) PCO2

(4)
 MgOCO2 
 MgCO3  (1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 4

53. The correct formula of Borax is; 59. A 10 molar solution of a dibasic acid is diluted from
(1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4]8H2O 2L to 20L. The molarity of resulting solution will
(2) Na2[B4O6(OH)4]8H2O be;
(3) Na2[B4O5(OH)4]10H2O (1) 5M (2) 1M
(4) Na2[B4O6(OH)6]10H2O (3) 2M (4) 4M

54. The percentage by mass of (Mn) and (O) in sample 60. In the given reaction, the type of reaction and
of MnO obtained by different methods were found product respectively are;
to be same. This illustrates the law of;
(1) Constant proportions
(2) Multiple proportions
(3) Conservation of mass
(4) Reciprocal proportions

55. The least and most stable conformations of ethane (1)

are;
(1) Staggered and gauche respectively
(2) Eclipsed and staggered respectively
(3) Staggered and eclipsed respectively (2)
(4) Gauche and staggered respectively

56. Which of the following pentahalides does not exist

in nature? (3)
(1) NF5, PCl5
(2) AsF5, PCl5
(3) NF5, NCl5
(4) PCl5, SbF5 (4)
61. Which of the following species has linear shape? 66. Which of the following compound is acidic in
(1) NO2 nature?
(2) NO2 (1) Al(OH)3
(2) Mg(OH)2
(3) NO2 (3) B(OH)3
(4) NO 3 (4) NaOH

62. The spin only magnetic moment of Co2+ is; 67. Which of the following is a major product(A) in the
(1) 15 B.M. given reaction?

(2) 35 B.M.
(3) 8 B.M.
(4) 24 B.M.

63. Assertion (A): The oxidation number of Pt in (1) (2)

[Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– is –1.
Reason (R): The oxidation state of C2H4 in the
above complex is zero.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) (4)
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
68. Which of the following pairs shows negative
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
deviation from Raoul’s law?
Assertion (A).
(1) HNO3 + H2O
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(2) C2H5Br + C2H5Cl
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
(3) H2O + C2H5OH
(4) n-hexane + n-heptane
64. Statement I: Glucosidic linkage is an ether linkage.
Statement II: Glucose on reaction with (Br2 +
H2O), saccharic acid forms.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. 69.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
What is the major product (A) in the above reaction?
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(1)
65. Match List I with List II and choose the correct
option.
List I List II (2)
(Atomic Number) (Symbol)
(A) 107 (I) Uun
(B) 110 (II) Uuo
(C) 118 (III) Utp (3)
(D) 135 (IV) Uns
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4)
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
70. Which of the following functional group is not
present in the given compound;

75.

In the above reaction, the major product (A) is;

(1)
(1) Ether
(2) Ester
(3) Amide
(4) Aldehyde (2)

71. The energy of photon is directly proportional to;

(I) Wave number
(II) Frequency (3)
(III) Wavelength
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(4)
(3) III and I
(4) I, II and III
76. Which of the following pair represent intensive and
extensive properties respectively?
72. The IUPAC name of [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] complex is;
(1) Conductivity, temperature
(1) Bis-dichlorido(triphenylphosphine)nickel(II)
(2) Conductivity, volume
(2) Dichloridobis(triphenylphosphine)nickel(I)
(3) Pressure, density
(3) Dichloridobis(triphenylphosphine)nickel(II)
(4) Volume, conductivity
(4) Bis-dichloride(triphenylphosphine)nickel(I)
77. Aniline can be converted into chlorobenzene by the
73. Statement I: For first order reaction, t75% = 2 × t50%. help of;
Statement II: The unit of rate constant of first order (1) Finkelstein reaction
reaction is (s–1). (2) Kolbe’s reaction
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (3) Swarts reaction
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. 78. Match List I with List II and choose the correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is option.
correct. List I List II
(Compound) (Oxidation states of
Nitrogen)
74. Steam distillation is applied to those organic
(A) Aniline (I) +3
compounds which are;
(B) NO (II) +5
(1) Sparingly soluble in water
(C) HNO3 (III) +2
(2) Highly soluble in water
(D) Nitrobenzene (IV) –3
(3) Steam volatile and are immiscible with water
(4) Having sufficient difference in their boiling (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
points (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
79. What current in ampere will be required to liberate 84. Which of the following are purine bases?
10 gm of chlorine from sodium chloride solution in (I) Guanine (II) Adenine
one hour? (III) Thymine (IV) Uracil
(1) 7.15 ampere (1) I, II, III
(2) 7.55 ampere (2) III, IV
(3) 7.00 ampere (3) I, II
(4) 7.25 ampere (4) II, III

80. The solubility of sparingly soluble salt X3Y2 (molar 85. Which of the following compound is most reactive
mass = M g/mol) in water is (x) g/L. The ratio of towards nucleophilic addition reaction?
molar concentration of Y3– to the solubility product
of the salt is;
M4
(1)
54x 4 (1)
108x 5
(2)
M5
x4
(3)
108M 4
x4 (2)
(4)
54M 4

81. The relation between maleic and fumaric acids

(C4H4O4) are;
(1) Optical isomer (3)
(2) Tautomer
(3) Metamer (4)
(4) Geometrical isomer
82. In which of the following pairs of molecule/ions, the
SECTION-B
central atom is sp2 hybridised?
(1) NH2 , H2O (2) NO2, NH3 86. How many grams of NaOH should be added to
water to prepare 200 mL solution of 2M NaOH?
(3) BF3 , NH2 (4) BF3 , NO2 (1) 19 gm (2) 18 gm
(3) 17 gm (4) 16 gm
83. The major product (B) of the following reaction
sequence of reaction will be; 87. Limiting molar conductively in water at 298 K is
maximum for;
(1) Cl– (2) SO 24 
(3) H+ (4) Na+
(1)
88. In the balanced chemical reaction,
IO3  aI  bH  cH2O  dI2
The sum of a,b,c and d are;
(2)
(1) 17 (2) 18
(3) 19 (4) 20

89. Which of the following complex is sp3d2

(3)
hybridised?
(1) [CoF6]3–
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(4) (3) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
90. The angular momentum of an electron in 3p orbital 95. The two forms of D-glucopyranose obtained from
is; solution of D-glucose are known as;
8h 2h (1) Enantiomers
(1) (2)
2 4 (2) Epimers
6h 2h (3) Diastereomers
(3) (4)
2 2 (4) Anomers

91. The possible mechanisms for the reaction: 96. The specific conductance of 4.9N of an monobasic
2AB + C2  2ABC is,
strong acid is 4.9 × 10–2 ohm–1 cm–1. The molar
AB + C2  ABC2 (Fast) conductance of the solution is;
ABC2 + AB  2ABC (Slow) (1) 5 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
So, rate law of the reaction is; (2) 10 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(1) r = K[AB][C2]
(3) 15 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(2) r = K[AB]2[C2]–1
(3) r = K[ABC2][AB]2 (4) 20 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(4) r = K[AB]2[C2]
97. The following diagram represents the (P–V) change
92. CH3–CC–H + CH3MgBr 
ether
 A of a gas:
In the above reaction major product (A) is;
(1) CH4
(2) CH3– CH2– CH3
(3) CH3–CC– CH3

(4)

93. What is the IUPAC name of the following

compound? Which of the following option shows only
isochoric changes?
(1) When pressure changes from P2 to P3
(2) When pressure changes from P1 to P3
(3) When pressure changes from P3 to P1
(1) 4-Iodo-2-methylphenol (4) When pressure changes from P1 to P2
(2) 4-Methyl-2-iodophenol
(3) 3-Methyl-4-hydroxyiodobenzene 98. Which form of phosphorus is least reactive?
(4) 1-Hydroxy-4-iodotoluene (1) Yellow
(2) Red
(3) White
94. (4) Black

In the above reaction, intermediate (A) and product 99. The chemical formula of Wilkinson catalyst and
(B) are respectively; Ziegler natta catalyst are respectively;
(1) (i) TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al (ii) [RhCl(PPh3)3]
(1)
(2) (i) [RhCl(PPh3)3] (ii) TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al
(3) (i) TiCl4 (ii) [RhCl(PPh3)3]
(4) (i) [RhCl(PPh3)3] (ii) TiCl4
(2)
100. Which of the following is correct order of acidic
(3) strength?
(1) HOCl > HOBr > HOI
(2) HOCl > HOI > HOBr
(3) HOI > HOBr > HOCl
(4)
(4) HOBr > HOCl > HOI
 [Replica Test-02 || PW NEET (2023-24) || Full Syllabus]

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A I II III IV
(1) B C D A
101. Classes comprising fishes, amphibians, reptiles,
(2) B D C A
birds along with mammals constitute the next higher
(3) A D C B
category called;
(4) A C D B
(1) Phylum. (2) Order.
(3) Class. (4) Kingdom.
107. All of the following are correct for sporopollenin,
except that;
102. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(1) it is present on the exine layer of pollen grain.
theory of inheritance was done by;
(2) only a few enzymes can degrade sporopollenin.
(1) Bateson and Punnett. (2) T.H Morgan. (3) it is one of the most resistant organic materials
(3) Watson and Crick. (4) Sutton and Boveri. known.
(4) it can withstand high temperatures.
103. Read the following characters and identify the
correct organism. 108. The longest portion of a bacterial flagellum which
A. Completely lack a cell wall. extends from the cell surface to the outside is;
B. They are the smallest living cells known. (1) filament. (2) hook.
C. Can survive without oxygen. (3) basal body. (4) fimbriae.
(1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Chlorella 109. Recombination nodules on homologous
chromosomes during meiosis are;
104. The second vertical strata of forest is occupied by; (1) formed in the final stage of prophase I.
(1) trees. (2) herbs. (2) formed in meiosis II.
(3) shrubs. (4) grasses. (3) visible as Y shaped structures.
(4) the sites at which crossing over occurs.
105. The filamentous green algae with flagellated
gametes of similar size is; 110. Assertion (A): In RNA, every nucleotide residue
(1) Ulothrix. (2) Spirogyra. has an additional –OH group present at 2' -position
(3) Volvox. (4) Eudorina. in the ribose.
Reason (R): In RNA the uracil is found at the place
106. Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct of thymine.
option. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
List-I List-II and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(Placentation) (Examples) Assertion (A).
(I) (A) Sunflower, marigold (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(II) (B) China rose, tomato (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

111. The metal ion which is required for conversion of

pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is;
(III) (C) Mustard and Argemone (1) Mo2+ (2) Cu2+
(3) Mg2+ (4) Fe2+

112. In eukaryotes, the DNA is wrapped around the

________ to form a structure called nucleosome.
(IV) (D) Dianthus and Primrose
(1) positively charged basic histone proteins.
(2) positively charged acidic histone proteins.
(3) negatively charged basic histone proteins.
(4) negatively charged acidic histone proteins.
113. Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct 118. Many species extinctions in the last 500 years e.g.,
option. Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon were due to;
List I List II (1) alien species invasions.
(I) Endoplasmic (A) Membrane-bound space (2) co-extinctions.
reticulum found in the cytoplasm (3) over-exploitation.
(II) Golgi (B) Membrane bound (4) habitat loss and fragmentation.
apparatus vesicular structures
(III) Lysosomes (C) Densely stained reticular 119. Statement I: No population of any species in nature
structures near the nucleus has at its disposal unlimited resources to permit
(IV) Vacuoles (D) Network of tiny tubular exponential growth.
structures scattered in the Statement II: Populations evolve to maximise their
cytoplasm reproductive fitness, also called Darwinian fitness
I II III IV (high r value), in the habitat in which they live.
(1) A B C D (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) D C B A (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) D A C B incorrect.
(4) A C D B (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
114. If a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a dwarf pea (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
plant, the percent of dwarf pea plant in F1 generation
is; 120. Identify the incorrect statement(s) and choose the
(1) 50% (2) 75% correct option.
(3) 25% (4) 0% A. Protein is the favoured substrate for respiration.
B. Respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway.
115. In monocotyledonous seed, the outer covering of C. Fatty acids would be broken down to acetyl
endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinaceous CoA before entering the respiratory pathway
layer called; when used as a respiratory substrate.
(1) aleurone layer. (2) scutellum. (1) Only A (2) Only C
(3) coleorhiza. (4) micropyle. (3) Only B (4) A and C

116. Assertion (A): The majority of baculoviruses used
as biological control agents are in the genus
Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
Reason (R): The baculoviruses are excellent
candidates for species-specific, broad spectrum
insecticidal applications.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
117. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t the
androecium of a flowering plant.
(1) Each anther is usually bilobed and each lobe
has two chambers, the pollen-sacs.
(2) When stamens are attached to the petals, they
are epiphyllous as in brinjal.
(3) There may be a variation in the length of
filaments within a flower, as in Salvia and
mustard.
(4) A sterile stamen is called staminode.
121. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB and IAi.
Among the blood types of their children how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(2) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(4) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
122. The meristem which occurs between two mature
tissues and adds to the length of plant is known as;
(1) apical meristem. (2) intercalary meristem.
(3) lateral meristem. (4) secondary meristem.
123. Statement I: Gross primary productivity of an
ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter
during photosynthesis.
Statement II: Net primary productivity is defined
as the rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
124. Assertion (A): The electrons that were moved from
photosystem II are replaced to maintain continuous
supply of electrons in the Z scheme of light reaction.
Reason (R): The splitting of water is associated
with the PS II; water is split into 4H+, O2 and
electrons.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
125. In C4 and C3 plants, saturation for CO2 concentration
is seen respectively at;
(1) 210 μlL-1 and beyond 100 μlL-1
(2) 360 μlL-1 and beyond 450 μlL-1
(3) 350 μlL-1 and beyond 320 μlL-1
(4) 420 μlL-1 and beyond 210 μlL-1
126. All of the following are correct for the thalassemia,
except that;
(1) it is an autosome-linked recessive blood
disease.
(2) it is transmitted from parents to the offspring
when both the partners are unaffected carriers
for the gene.
(3) it is a qualitative problem of synthesising an
incorrectly functioning globin.
(4) this defect could be due to either mutation or
deletion.
127. Statement I: The ability of plants to follow
different pathways in response to the environment
or phases of life to form different kinds of structures
is called plasticity.
Statement II: Difference in shapes of leaves
produced in air and those produced in water in
buttercup represent the heterophyllous development
due to the environment.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
128. Identify the incorrect statement(s) w.r.t. sewage
treatment and choose the correct option.
A. Floating debris is removed by sequential
filtration during primary treatment.
B. The effluent from the tertiary treatment plant is
generally released into natural water bodies
like rivers and streams.
C. The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its
polluting potential.
D. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped
back into the aeration tank to serve as the
inoculum.
(1) B and C only.
(2) A, C and D only.
(3) C and D only.
(4) Only C.
129. Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
(1) G1 phase - cell continuously grows
(2) S phase - number of chromosome per cell
doubles
(3) M phase - phase of actual nuclear division
(4) G0 phase - inactive stage
130. MacArthur showed that five closely related species
of warblers living on the same tree were able to
avoid competition and co-exist which was based on;
(1) competitive exclusion principle.
(2) competitive release.
(3) interference competition.
(4) resource partitioning.
131. In oocytes of some vertebrates, _____ stage of
prophase I of meiosis I can last for months or years.
(1) diakinesis (2) pachytene
(3) diplotene (4) leptotene
132. Observe the given diagram and mark the option with
correct labelling.
(1) A - cotyledon, B - epicotyl
(2) A - cotyledon, B - hypocotyl
(3) A - epicotyl, B - coleoptile
(4) A - coleorhiza, B - hypocotyl
133. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III is responsible 138. Choose the incorrect statement.
for transcription of all the following, except; (1) Nucleus a cell organelle was first described by
(1) tRNA. (2) 5srRNA. Robert Brown.
(3) snRNAs. (4) hnRNA. (2) The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm contains
nucleolus and chromatin.
134. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the (3) Nucleolus present in the nuclear matrix is a site
chemiosmotic hypothesis. for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
(1) Splitting of the water molecule takes place on (4) Every chromosome essentially has a primary
the inner side of the thylakoid membrane. constriction on the sides of which disc shaped
(2) Primary acceptor of electron is located within structures called centromeres are present.
the lumen of the thylakoids.
(3) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the 139. Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct
stroma side of the membrane. option.
(4) CF0 of ATP synthase is embedded in the List I List II
thylakoid membrane. (I) A pteridophyte showing the (A) Cycas
presence of strobili or cones
135. Match the List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(II) A heterosporous (B) Pinus
option.
pteridophyte
List-I List-II
(III) A gymnosperm having roots (C) Equisetum
(I) Funicle (A) Have abundant reserve
with fungal association
food materials
(IV) A gymnosperm having (D) Salvinia
(II) Nucellus (B) One or two protective
coralloid roots associated
envelopes of ovules
with N2 fixing cyanobacteria
(III) Micropyle (C) Attachment of ovule to
I II III IV
the placenta
(1) C B A D
(IV) Integuments (D) Integument is absent
(2) C D B A
I II III IV
(3) D A C B
(1) C A D B
(4) A C D B
(2) A C D B
(3) C D A B
140. The plants with alternate type of phyllotaxy and
(4) B C A D
hypogynous flowers are;
(1) guava and mustard.
SECTION-B
(2) sunflower and canna.
136. Identify the mismatched pair. (3) mustard and china rose.
(1) Phycomycetes - spores are endogenously (4) brinjal and cucumber.
produced in sporangium
(2) Ascomycetes - saprophytic, decomposers, 141. The fixation of _______ molecules of CO2 and
parasitic or coprophilous _______ turns of the cycle are required for the
(3) Basidiomycetes - asexual spores are common formation of one molecule of glucose from the
and sex organs are present calvin cycle pathway.
(4) Deuteromycetes - reproduce only by asexual (1) two, four (2) four, four
spores known as conidia (3) six, one (4) six, six

137. Statement I: The human genome contains 3164.7 142. Choose the incorrect statement.
million bp. (1) Majority of flowering plants produce
Statement II: Less than 2 per cent of the human
hermaphrodite flowers.
genome codes for proteins.
(2) Continued self-pollination results in
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
inbreeding depression in plants.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Both male and female flowers are present on
incorrect.
the same plant such as castor and maize.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Monoecious plants prevent both autogamy and
correct.
geitonogamy.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
143. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the liverworts (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
of bryophytes. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1) Their thallus is dorsiventral and closely Assertion (A).
appressed to the substrate. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(2) The leafy members have tiny leaf-like but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
appendages in two rows on the stem-like Assertion (A).
structures. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(3) Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
buds, which develop in small receptacles called
gemma cups. 148. Identify the correct statements and choose the
(4) The spores germinate to form free-living correct option.
sporophytes. A. In dicot root, the outermost layer is epiblema.
B. The pericycle is present above the phloem in
144. Assertion (A): Preys in nature are ‘prudent’. the form of semilunar patches of sclerenchyma
Reason (R): If a predator is too efficient and in monocot stem.
overexploits its prey, then the prey might become C. In monocot root, pith is small or
extinct and following it, the predator will also inconspicuous.
become extinct for lack of food. D. Mesophyll cells are not differentiated into
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true palisade and spongy parenchyma in isobilateral
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of leaf.
Assertion (A). E. In dicot leaf, vascular bundles are surrounded
by a layer of thick walled bundle sheath cells.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(1) A, D and E only.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2) A and E only.
Assertion (A).
(3) B, C and D only.
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) B and D only.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
149. Choose the correctly matched pair.
145. Water-containing cavities are present within the
(1) Gibberellins - synthesized in root apices,
vascular bundles in;
developing shoot buds, young
(1) dicot leaf. (2) dicot stem.
fruit
(3) monocot leaf. (4) monocot stem.
(2) Cytokinin - apical hook formation in dicot
seedlings
146. Statement I: The respiratory quotient depends
(3) Abscisic acid - helps seeds to withstand
upon the type of respiratory substrate used during desiccation
respiration. (4) Auxin - speeds up the malting process
Statement II: In living organisms during
respiration, the respiratory substrates are often more 150. Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct
than one. option.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. List I List II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (I) Leptotene (A) Appearance of
incorrect. recombination nodules
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (II) Zygotene (B) Chromosomes start
correct. pairing together
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (III) Pachytene (C) Chromosomes become
gradually visible under
147. Assertion (A): The broadly utilitarian argument the light microscope
says that biodiversity plays a major role in many (IV) Diakinesis (D) Chromosomes are fully
ecosystem services that nature provides. condensed
Reason (R): With increasing resources put into I II III IV
‘bioprospecting’ (exploring molecular, genetic and (1) C B A D
species-level diversity for products of economic (2) C D B A
importance), nations endowed with rich (3) D A C B
biodiversity can expect to reap enormous benefits. (4) D C A B
 [Replica Test-02 || PW NEET (2023-24) || Full Syllabus]

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 157. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
option.
151. Which of the following method of contraception
List-I List-II
works on the principle of blocking gamete transport?
(A) Saddle joint (I) Skull bones
(1) Surgical method
(B) Fibrous joint (II) Between metacarpals
(2) Hormonal method
& carpals
(3) Natural method
(C) Cartilaginous (III) Between carpals
(4) Intrauterine devices joint
(D) Gliding joint (IV) Between vertebrae
152. Which of the following animal is characterized by A B C D
presence of canal system and choanocytes? (1) II I IV III
(1) Pleurobrachia (2) I II IV III
(2) Gorgonia (3) III IV II I
(3) Taenia (4) IV III II I
(4) Euspongia
158. Cylindrical and branched muscle fibres are present in
153. Which of the following statements states correct for which of the following organ?
the theory of special creation? (1) Triceps of upper arm
A. Diversity was different at the time of creation (2) Myocardium of heart
but will change in future. (3) Urinary bladder
B. Earth is about 4000 years old. (4) Wall of aorta
C. According to this theory it was believed that
life came out of decaying and rotting matter. 159. An actin filament figure is given below. Classify A
(1) A and B and B.
(2) B and C
(3) B only
(4) C only (1) Troponin and Tropomyosin
(2) Tropomyosin and F-Actin
154. If fall in glomerular blood flow is observed, which (3) Troponin and F-Actin
one of the following is a probable outcome? (4) F-Actin and Tropomyosin
(1) Release of renin
(2) Release of ADH 160. Emphysema is characterised by;
(3) Release of ANF (1) destruction of alveolar area leading to
(4) Release of rennin reduction in respiratory surface.
(2) inhibition of respiratory centre.
155. Which of the following statements is correct? (3) accumulation of fluid in lungs.
(1) Blood vascular system of cockroach is closed (4) spasm of muscles of trachea.
type.
(2) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less 161. Assertion (A): Unmyelinated nerve fibres are
commonly found in autonomous and the somatic
sensitivity and more resolution.
neural systems.
(3) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th
Reason (R): Unmyelinated nerve fibres are
-7th abdominal segment of male cockroach.
enclosed by a Schwann cell that does forms a
(4) Male reproductive system consists of a pair of myelin sheath around the axon.
testes one lying on each dorsal side in the 2nd - (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
4th abdominal segments. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
156. Excitation in a muscle fibre most directly causes; (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(1) movement of tropomyosin. but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2) attachment of the myosin to actin. Assertion (A).
(3) splitting of ATP. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum. (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
162. Which of the given is the most abundant fibrous
protein in human body?
(1) RuBisCO (2) Collagen
(3) Keratin (4) Histone
163. Statement I: Antennal glands perform the
excretory function in prawns.
Statement II: Malpighian tubules are present in
crustacean for osmoregulation.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
164. Pineal gland of our body acts as;
(1) regulatory machinery of calcium.
(2) composite gland.
(3) biological clock.
(4) primary lymphoid organ.
165. Which of the following characteristic is correct
about dendrites?
(1) non-functional, degenerating axons
(2) involved in carrying impulse away from the
cell body
(3) involved in transmitting impulse toward the
cell body
(4) involved in transmitting impulse toward and
away from the cell body.
166. Which of the following is a homopolymer of
fructose?
(1) Cellulose
(2) Starch
(3) Insulin
(4) Inulin
167. Dinosaurs were the land reptiles , amongst which
________ is considered as the biggest carnivorous
dinosaur.
(1) Stegosaurus
(2) Tyrannosaurus rex
(3) Brachiosaurus
(4) Archaeopteryx
168. Saheli, developed by CDRI, is a;
(1) social magazine for females.
(2) steroidal oral contraceptive pill.
(3) non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.
(4) injectable contraceptive.
169. Metastasis is a process of;
(1) excessive cell proliferation.
(2) transformation of benign tumour into a
malignant tumour.
(3) transformation of normal cells in cancerous cells.
(4) movement of cancerous cells from one organ
to another.
170. Statement I: In ZIFT, the zygote or early embryos
could be transferred into the fallopian tube.
Statement II: Embryos with more than 8
blastomeres are transferred into the uterus in IUT.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
171. Complete the analogy.
The last part of the oviduct which joins the uterus :
isthmus :: The part of the oviduct closer to the ovary:
(1) infundibulum (2) cervical canal
(3) ampulla (4) uterine fundus
172. Which of the following statements concerning
menstrual cycle is incorrect?
(1) The menstrual cycle occurs only in primates.
(2) It is absent during pregnancy, may be
suppressed during lactation and permanently
stops at menopause.
(3) Bleeding phase lasts for about 8–10 days and
extends from the 5th to 14th day of the
menstrual cycle.
(4) Menarche is the beginning of menstrual cycle
and other bodily changes.
173. Assertion (A): Muscle contraction is initiated by a
signal sent by the central nervous system via a
motor neuron.
Reason (R): Increase in Ca++ level leads to the
binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on
actin filaments.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
174. Elution is a method applied for;
(1) making the matrix during gel electrophoresis.
(2) staining the bands of DNA after
electrophoresis.
(3) cutting out the piece of agarose gel and
extraction of DNA from gel pieces.
(4) joining the specific DNA with the cloning vector.
175. Study the given list of animals.
Pila, Pinctada , Sepia, Loligo, Antedon, Aplysia,
Dentalium, Chaetopleura.
How many of them are Molluscs?
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 4
176. Which of the following will be affected if plasma
albumin levels decrease significantly?
(1) Clot formation
(2) Oxygenation of haemoglobin
(3) Osmotic balance
(4) Immune functions
177. Which of the following pairs of innate immunity
barriers belong to the same category?
(1) Skin and lysozyme of saliva
(2) Acid in stomach and lysozyme in saliva
(3) Mucus coating of respiratory tract and cytokines
(4) Inflammation and vaginal acidity
178. Which of the statements is incorrect about embryo
development?
(1) After one month of pregnancy the heart is formed.
(2) By the end of first trimester, most of the major
organ systems are formed.
(3) First movement of foetus is observed in the
seventh month.
(4) At the end of second trimester, the body is
covered with fine hair and eyelids and
eyelashes are formed.
179. Find the incorrect difference between inspiration
and expiration.
Inspiration Expiration
(1) Diaphragm Contraction Relaxation
(2) EICM Contraction Relaxation
(3) Movement of Outward Inward
ribs
(4) Movement of Backward Forward
sternum
180. Assertion (A): In HIV-AIDS, the person suffers
from bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss due
to decreased immunity.
Reason (R): HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes
(TH), and decreases the number of helper T-
lymphocytes in the body of the infected person.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
181. Which of the following methods can be used for
making the bacterial cell competent?
(1) Treating with specific concentration of
divalent cation (Ca2+)
(2) Treating with specific concentration of
monovalent cation (K+)
(3) Heat shock
(4) Both (1) and (3)
182. Vasodilation and decrease in blood pressure can be
caused by;
(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(2) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(4) Aldosterone
183. How does Bt toxin kill the larvae of certain insects?
(1) By binding of activated toxin on midgut
epithelial cells, creating pores, leading to
swelling and lysis.
(2) By stopping transcription of larval cells.
(3) By altering central dogma taking place in the
cells of the gut of larva.
(4) By stopping protein synthesis.
184. Which of the following is not applicable to
Agrobacterium tumifaciens?
(1) Pathogen to several dicot plants
(2) Ability to transform normal plant cells
(3) Can deliver gene of our interest
(4) Ti- plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants
without any exception
185. Which condition is favorable for formation of
oxyhaemoglobin?
(1) High pO2, low pCO2, Lesser H+ concentration
and lower temperature
(2) Low pO2, low pCO2, Lesser H+ concentration
and lower temperature
(3) High pO2, high pCO2, Lesser H+ concentration
and lower temperature
(4) Low pO2, high pCO2, Lesser H+ concentration
and lower temperature
SECTION-B
186. Which of the following feature is absent in frog?
(1) External ear
(2) Tympanum
(3) Sensory papillae
(4) Nasal epithelium
187. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct 191. Fibrinogen A Fibrin.
option. (A) is an active enzyme formed by an inactive
List-I List-II substance (B).
(Names of IUDs) (Examples of IUDs) (1) (A) Prothrombin, (B) Thrombokinase
(A) Non medicated IUDs (I) Progestasert (2) (A) Vitamin A, (B) Prothrombin
and LNG-20 (3) (A)Thrombin, (B) Prothrombin
(B) Copper releasing IUDs (II) Lippe’s loop (4) (A) Thrombin, (B) Fibrinogen
(C) Hormone releasing (III) Cu-T, Cu-7,
192. Which of the following is not the result of
IUDs Multiload-375
convergent evolution?
A B C (1) Forelimbs of whales and bats
(1) III II I (2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
(2) I II III (3) Potato and sweet potato
(3) II III I (4) Eye of the Octopus and mammals
(4) II I III
193. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
188. Choose the number of bones associated with the (1) Urine passes from the pelvis into the ureter
axial skeleton. (2) Urinary bladder opens into a bony duct called
Hyoid bone, lumbar vertebrae, sternum, occipital urethra
bone, zygomatic, carpals. (3) Opening of the urinary bladder is controlled by
sphincters of circular muscles.
(1) One
(4) The cortex extends in between the medullary
(2) Five pyramids as renal columns of bertini.
(3) Four
(4) Six 194. Statement I: In a protein chain, the first amino acid
is also called as N-terminal amino acid.
189. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct Statement II: In a protein chain, the last amino acid
option. is called the C- terminal amino acid.
List-I List-II (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(A) Peptide, polypeptide (I) Epinephrine (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
protein hormones incorrect.
(B) Steroid (II) T3 and T4 (thyroid (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
hormones) correct.
(C) Iodothyronines (III) Cortisol, testosterone, (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
estradiol, progesterone,
Aldosterone 195. How many statements are associated with the
(D) Amino acid (IV) Pituitary hormones, function of testesterone?
derivatives pancreatic hormones, A. Stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
hypothalamic hormone steroid hormones from adrenal cortex.
A B C D B. Stimulates spermatogenesis
(1) I II III IV C. Produce anabolic (synthetic) effect on protein
(2) IV III II I and carbohydrate metabolism.
(3) IV III I II D. Increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood.
(1) One (2) Two
(4) I IV III II
(3) Three (4) Four

190. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms
as a method of cellular defense.
(2) Meloidogyne incognitia does not infect the
roots of tobacco plants.
(3) ADA is crucial for the immune system to
function.
(4) ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow
transplantation.
196. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a
recombinant DNA molecule involves;
(1) formation of phosphodiester bond between two
DNA fragments.
(2) formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky
ends of DNA fragments.
(3) ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases.
(4) cutting the strand of DNA a little away from
the centre of the palindrome sites.
197. Assertion (A): Ground substance of connective
tissues is composed of polypeptides and its
derivatives.
Reason (R): In complex animals, connective tissue
is most widely distributed.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
200. The new potential developed in post-synaptic
198. The decrease in the rate of heartbeat, speed of
conduction of action potential and thereby the
cardiac output is under the control of;
(1) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves
(2) Neural signals through the parasympathetic
nerves
(3) Adrenaline
(4) ANS
■■■
199. All the following are valuable uses of
amniocentesis, except one. Which one is it?
(1) The centres for genetic counselling offer
aminocentesis on request to women for
chromosome analysis.
(2) This technique has been developed for
detecting foetal abnormalities by analysing
chromosomal defects.
(3) It is used to study metabolic defects of foetus
like PKU (phenyl ketonuria).
(4) It is done to examine the sex of the foetus
leading to increasing female foeticide.
neuron after allowing entry of ions is;
(1) always inhibitory.
(2) always excitatory.
(3) may be excitatory or inhibitory.
(4) neither excitatory nor inhibitory.
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