NABARD Phase 1 Evening Shift

NABARD Grade A Phase 1 2023
Evening Shift
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Reasoning
Instruction for Q.1 to Q.5
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I live in a building, but not necessarily in the same order. There are
nine floors in that building and only one person lives on each floor. Each of them likes a different sport, viz
Cricket, Football, Hockey, Badminton, Tennis, Kabaddi, Wrestling, Weightlifting and Rugby but not
necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the one above it is
numbered 2, and so on. The top floor is numbered nine.
D likes Weightlifting and he lives on an even-numbered floor. The one who likes Cricket lives on an even-
numbered floor which is below the floor on which the one who likes Weightlifting lives. I lives on the floor
numbered four. C likes Tennis and lives on the floor numbered 2. F does not like Cricket. Only two persons
live between the floors on which G and D live respectively. B likes Hockey. There are three floors between
the floors on which the one who likes Hockey lives and the one who likes Wrestling lives. The one who likes
Badminton lives immediately above the floor on which the one who likes Rugby lives. Only one person lives
between the floors on which the one who likes Kabaddi and the one who likes Wrestling live respectively.
H does not like Kabaddi. A lives on the topmost floor. The one who likes Kabaddi does not live on the
ground floor. H lives on the floor numbered three.
Q.1)
How many persons live between the floors on which E and the one who likes Rugby live?
(a) Three
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) Four
Q.2)
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) E lives immediately above the one who likes Badminton.
(b) The one who likes Rugby lives on an even-numbered floor.
(c) D does not live on the eighth floor.
(d) The one who likes Football lives immediately above the floor on which D lives.
(e) None is true
Q.3)
Which of the following statements is/are not true?
(a) Only two persons live between F and I.
(b) A lives immediately above the floor on which the one who likes Weightlifting lives.
(c) H likes Rugby.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) All are true
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Q.4)
Who among the following likes Cricket?
(a) H
(b) G
(c) I
(d) E
(e) A
Q.5)
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) F – Football
(b) E – Badminton
(c) G – Rugby
(d) I – Hockey
(e) H – Wrestling

Read the below information and answer the questions accordingly.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, but not necessarily in the same
order. Each of them likes a different country amongst Japan, India, Vietnam, Thailand, Finland, Norway,
Germany and France, but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing outside while the
remaining four are facing the centre.
The one who likes Finland is on the immediate left of D, who does not like Germany. D is third to the right
of H. Neither G nor F is an immediate neighbour of D. G is fourth to the left of F. A, who likes France, sits
third to the left of the one who likes Finland. The person who likes Japan sits second to the right of D. C
likes Vietnam and sits exactly between A and F. C is facing the centre and is to the right of both A and F. E
sits third to the left of A. The person who likes India sits second to the left of the person who likes France.
The person who likes Norway sits second to the right of the person who likes Vietnam.
Q.6)
The person who sits between E and B lies which of the following countries?
(a) Germany
(b) Norway
(c) Thailand
(d) Japan
(e) Finland
Q.7)
Who among the following likes India?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) G
(d) F
(e) E
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Q.8)
F likes which of the following countries?
(a) Norway
(b) Germany
(c) Thailand
(d) Finland
(e) Japan
Q.9)
Who among the following likes the country Germany?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) H
(d) G
(e) E
Q.10)
Which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) B - France
(b) A - Vietnam
(c) D - Germany
(d) B - Norway
(e) C - Finland
Instruction for Q.11

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
U is son of I. K is daughter of V. A has only one son and one daughter. A is mother of U. I is father of T. I is
brother of V. V is married to H. H is daughter of L.
Q.11)
How is V related to A?
(a) Father
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Cousin
(d) Uncle
(e) Brother

Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.12)
Statements:
A few lines are rows.
Only a few rows are parallel.
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No horizontal is a line.
Conclusions:
I. All rows are horizontal.
II. Some lines are parallel.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) Both conclusions I and II follow

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.13)
Statements:
I. Some mice are cats.
II. No cat is a dog.
III. All dogs are foxes.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs being mice is a possibility.
II. All foxes being cats is a possibility.
III. Some cats are not mice.
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(b) if only conclusions II and III follow
(c) if only conclusions I and III follow
(d) if only conclusions I and II follow
(e) if all conclusions I, II and III follow
Q.14)
Statements:
I. Some stone are rocks.
II. Some rocks are hills.
III. No hill is a mountain.
Conclusions:
I. All mountains are hills
II. All stones being hills is a possibility.
III. At least some rocks are not mountains.
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(b) if only conclusions II and III follow
(c) if only conclusions I and III follow
(d) if only conclusions I and II follow
(e) if all conclusions I, II and III follow
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In the given questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the given four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV is/are definitely true:
Q.15)
Statements: I > A ≥ D, F ≥ G, D > F, G ≤ H
Conclusions:
I. G < I
II. A ≥ G
III. H > F
IV. D > H
(a) Only I, II and III are true
(b) Only II, III and IV are true
(c) Only I and III are true
(d) Only I is true
(e) Only I and II are true

In the below question, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The
statements are followed by two conclusions. Choose the correct option.
Q.16)
Statements: W ≥ R > T; Z ≤ V < D = T
Conclusions:
I. W > V
II. Z < R
(a) if only conclusion I is true
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if either conclusion I or II is true
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) if both conclusion I and II are true

Each of the question below consists of a question followed by two/three statements. You have to decide
whether data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements
carefully and then find which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the given question.
Q.17)
Mahesh ranks 50th from the top in his class. What is his rank from the bottom?
I. Rohit’s rank is 44th from the top and 46th from the bottom is the same class.
II. Rohit is six ranks below Mahesh in a class of 90 students.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either only I or only II
(d) Both I and II
(e) Neither I nor II
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Below is given a question followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to decide which of the given
statements is/are sufficient (or necessary) to answer the question:
Q.18)
Who among Sunita, Naina, Veena and Meena is the youngest?
I. Veena is younger than Meena but older than Sunita and Naina.
II. Meena is older than Naina and Veena but not older than Sunita.
III. Sunita is older than Naina but not older than Veena.
[a] Only I and II
[b] Only II and III
[c] Only I and III
[d] All I, II and III
[e] Any two of the given three
Instruction for Q.19 and Q.20

Study the information below and answer the given questions:
In a certain code 'train is for slow' is coded as 'mst tlf wru klo', 'car for traffic black' is coded as 'vjn vnp lmo
klo', 'speed car light slow' is coded as 'dzq wru bsy vnp' and 'train speed traffic tree' is coded as 'rkc lmo tlf
bsy'.
Q.19)
‘rkc' stands for
(a) train
(b) tree
(c) light
(d) speed
(e) black
Q.20)
What is the code for 'light' in the given code language?
(a) vnp
(b) klo
(c) tlf
(d) dzq
(e) lmo
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English
Q.21)
Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. If there is/are any error(s) in the sentence,
the indentation corresponding to that part will be your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
The law of demand, a fundamental economic principle, posits (1) / that as the price of a good or service
decreases (2)/, the quantity demanded increases, and conversely, as the price rise (3)/, the quantity
demanded decreases, assuming all other factors remain constant (4).
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) Only 3
Q.22)
Westerlies, prevailing winds found among 30 and 60 degrees latitude (1)/, blow from west to east and
have the significant impact (2)/ on weather patterns, playing a key role in both the (3)/ movement of
weather systems and surface ocean currents in these regions (4).
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 4
(e) Only 3 and 4
Q.23)
Consumer equilibrium is achieved when an individual maximizes (1)/ their satisfaction (utility) by allocating
their budget (2)/ to purchase a combination of goods and services those (3)/ provides the highest level of
well-being, considering their preferences and the prices of the goods (4).
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 4
(e) No error
Q.24)
Mangrove conservation is vital for preserving coastal (1)/ ecosystems, as these unique trees provide crucial
habitats (2)/ on various species, protect shorelines from erosion, and play a (3)/ significant role in
sequestering carbon, contributing to climate change mitigation (4).
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
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(d) Only 2
(e) Only 1 and 3
Q.25)
National income, often measured as GNI or GDP, reflects the total (1) / economic output of a country,
encompassing the value (2)/ of all goods and services produced within its borders or (3) / by its citizens,
served as a key indicator of a nation's economic well-being and growth (4).
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 4
(e) No error
Instructions for Q.26 to Q.30 –

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
India offers several compelling reasons to be considered a favorable destination for climate- and
environmentally-conscious businesses to thrive and achieve tangible success. The country's burgeoning
population, fast-paced urbanization, abundance of renewable energy, and consistent regulatory support
from the government contribute to the ever-increasing market size.
Unsurprisingly, the demand for sustainable infrastructure, renewable energy, and efficient transportation
systems is steadily rising. Estimates worked out by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) suggest that India would
spend 85.6 trillion rupees ($1.05 trillion) by 2030 to make industries compliant with climate change norms.
Moreover, to achieve the target of net-zero emissions by 2070, a cumulative investment of $10 trillion
would be required, as predicted by the International Financial Services Centres Authority's Expert
Committee on Sustainable Finance.
Despite notable strides in renewable energy production, India faces a multitude of pressing environmental
challenges. A recent report suggested that India houses nine of the ten most polluted cities worldwide. The
lack of accessible and affordable financing options remains a primary hurdle to addressing these
challenges.
To tackle this issue, active deployment of "green finance" through financial instruments such as green
bonds, green equity, carbon markets, and trading can help mobilize private and public capital toward
environmentally sustainable projects and initiatives under the single goal of promoting a green economic
transformation toward low-carbon, sustainable, and inclusive pathways. According to the Reserve Bank of
India, bridging this substantial funding gap necessitates allocating 2.5 percent of India's annual GDP to
green finance.
Given the current scenario, it is incumbent upon us to critically examine the financing needs that emerge
from these challenges and explore potential avenues for their resolution. Different stages of investment
require varying green finance instruments depending on the project type, sector, or funding needs.
Whether it is early-stage financing, project development, operations, or maintenance, green finances can
ensure comprehensive development of sustainable projects. Blended finance, which combines public and
private capital, plays a significant role in attracting investors by offering flexibility in risk management.
These instruments not only safeguard against potential capital losses but also deliver financial and social
returns. Their primary appeal lies in their ability to incentivize and mobilize private capital, particularly in
emerging and frontier markets where public resources and donor funds are scarce.
An integral facet of the green finance landscape lies in comprehending the range and scope of green
assets. Initiatives like the establishment of the United Nations' Green Climate Fund and the
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implementation of the Paris Agreement have successfully garnered financial support for climate-focused
endeavors.
In this dynamic day and age, breakthrough ideas from startups and small and medium-sized enterprises
(SMEs) have received timely funding and much-needed encouragement, demonstrating the real potential
of green finance. These companies have transformed industries by developing pioneering technologies and
sustainable business models. For example, Hygenco Green Energies, a green hydrogen solutions company,
has had a breakthrough journey in changing the way commercial customers consume hydrogen. Similarly,
companies in the sustainable agriculture space are focusing on producing high-quality, consistent residue-
free produce through controlled environment agriculture.
Traditional finance approaches may not align seamlessly with green finance since some conventional
frameworks lack specific criteria for assessing environmental impact, hindering an accurate evaluation of
green investments. Additionally, traditional models may overlook long-term benefits and externalities,
leading to potential underinvestment. Moreover, the inherent risks and uncertainties surrounding green
technologies pose challenges for risk assessment by traditional financial institutions.
These limitations highlight the need for innovative and tailored approaches to effectively channel funds
into green finance. Blended finance can help here as it plays a pivotal role in driving green investments by
harmoniously blending public and private capital. This strategic integration of funding sources attracts
private sector involvement, mitigates investment risks, and enables the rapid and scalable deployment of
resources needed to successfully transition to a sustainable, low-carbon economy.
While mitigation finance focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions, adaptation finance plays a critical
role in addressing the impacts and vulnerabilities already faced due to climate change. Adaptation finance
supports projects aimed at preserving and restoring ecosystems, safeguarding biodiversity, and enhancing
ecosystem resilience. It also plays a crucial role in ensuring economic stability by enabling investments in
climate-resilient infrastructure and diversifying economic sectors.
The concept of green finance is finally gaining the necessary traction globally as governments, financial
institutions, and businesses recognize the importance of addressing climate change and promoting
sustainable development. Technology and data-led solutions present a massive opportunity here, in
streamlining the sector and promoting market awareness and transparency. This works for the benefit of
investors, ultimately accelerating the adoption and success of sustainable initiatives. The advent of new
technologies combined with a collaborative approach by all stakeholders can be key to closing India's
existing gap in green finance.
Q.26)
Why are the traditional finance approaches not favorable for financing the sustainable projects?
(a) A lack of specific environmental impact criteria, potential oversight of long-term benefits, and
challenges in assessing risks associated with green technologies
(b) Frequent changes in regulations and policies related to the renewable energy sector can create
uncertainty for foreign investors, making it difficult to predict returns on investments
(c) Securing land for sustainable projects and obtaining the necessary permits can be a time-consuming
and complex process, leading to delays and increased costs
(d) Inadequate grid infrastructure and challenges in integrating renewable energy sources into the existing
grid can hinder the growth of the sector and create reliability issues
(e) Despite the potential for sustainable projects in India, the financial viability of projects is a concern due
to a lack of investor trust
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Q.27)
What percentage of GDP needs to be spent to bridge the funding gap in green technologies?
(a) 1.7%
(b) 2.8%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 1.4%
(e) 1.2%
Q.28)
Which committee has predicted that a cumulative investment of $10 trillion would be required by India to
achieve the target of net-zero emissions by 2070?
(a) Ministry of Environment's Panel on Air Quality Control
(b) National Renewable Energy Authority's Council on Solar Power Integration
(c) Reserve Bank of India's Council on Clean Energy
(d) International Financial Services Centres Authority's Expert Committee on Sustainable Finance
(e) NITI Aayog's Working Group on Renewable Investments
Q.29)
What is the difference between mitigation and adaptation finance?
(a) Mitigation finance focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions, while adaptation finance plays a
critical role in addressing the impacts and vulnerabilities already faced due to climate change
(b) Mitigation finance focuses on environmentally sustainable investments, while adaptation finance
specifically pertains to funding energy-related projects
(c) Mitigation finance deals with government revenue and spending, while adaptation finance involves
financial management within businesses
(d) Mitigation finance pertains to individual financial management, while adaptation finance focuses on
financial decisions within a business or organization
(e) Mitigation finance involves funding environmentally sustainable projects, while adaptation finance
concerns the management of government revenue and spending
Q.30)
Which of the following word is same in meaning to the word 'Traction', as it is used in the passage?
(a) regression
(b) backsliding
(c) slippage
(d) encouragement
(e) retrogression
Q.31)
Read the following group of sentences numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. Rearrange the remaining sentences in
proper order to form a meaningful paragraph.
(1) Sustainable and ethical animal husbandry practices are essential for both animal well-being and the
environment.
(2) It plays a crucial role in meeting the world's demand for meat, milk, and other animal products.
(3) Animal husbandry is the branch of agriculture that focuses on the breeding, care, and management of
livestock for various purposes, including food production, transportation, and labor.
(4) It's a dynamic field that continues to evolve to meet the growing needs of our global population while
addressing concerns related to animal welfare and environmental sustainability.
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(5) Effective animal husbandry practices involve ensuring the health and welfare of animals, improving
their genetics through selective breeding, and providing appropriate nutrition and housing.
(a) 24513
(b) 45123
(c) 25431
(d) 32514
(e) 21345
Q.32)
(1) Governments, financial institutions, and technology companies are working together to expand
financial inclusion through innovative solutions, making it an integral part of global efforts to enhance
economic equality and financial security.
(2) It refers to the accessibility and affordability of essential financial services, including banking, credit,
insurance, and savings, for all segments of the population, particularly those who are traditionally
underserved or excluded from the formal financial system.
(3) It also promotes economic stability, entrepreneurship, and poverty reduction.
(4) When financial inclusion is achieved, it can empower individuals and communities by providing them
with the tools to save, invest, and protect their assets, ultimately improving their financial well-being.
(5) Financial inclusion is a key component of economic development and social progress.
(a) 34512
(b) 52431
(c) 23415
(d) 45312
(e) 31245
Q.33)
Read the following group of sentences numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. Considering 6 as the last sentence,
rearrange the remaining sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph.
(1) International agreements, like the Montreal Protocol, have successfully reduced the production and use
of ODS, leading to gradual recovery of the ozone layer, demonstrating the importance of global
cooperation in addressing environmental challenges.
(2) The depletion of this protective layer leads to an increase in UV radiation at the Earth's surface, which
can have detrimental effects on human health, causing skin cancer and cataracts, and impacting
ecosystems, including harm to marine life and terrestrial vegetation.
(3) However, continued vigilance is essential to ensure a full recovery and the long-term protection of the
ozone layer.
(4) Ozone depletion refers to the significant reduction of the ozone layer in the Earth's stratosphere,
primarily caused by the release of human-made chemicals known as ozone-depleting substances (ODS),
such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.
(5) The ozone layer plays a crucial role in protecting life on Earth by absorbing the majority of harmful
ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.
(6) The concerted global efforts to phase out ozone-depleting substances have demonstrated the positive
impact of international collaboration in addressing environmental challenges.
(a) 321456
(b) 541236
(c) 234156
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(d) 452136
(e) 124356
Q.34)
(1) Higher insurance penetration often signifies a more financially secure and resilient society as it helps
individuals and businesses mitigate financial risks associated with unexpected events, such as accidents,
health issues, or natural disasters.
(2) It reflects the percentage of individuals or businesses that have insurance coverage compared to the
total eligible population.
(3) Governments and insurers alike are working to increase insurance penetration through public
awareness campaigns, affordable insurance products, and regulatory reforms, recognizing its potential to
enhance financial security and stability on both individual and national levels.
(4) Improved insurance penetration can also support economic development by providing a safety net for
individuals and facilitating investments by businesses.
(5) Insurance penetration is a measure of the extent to which insurance products are utilized within a
particular population or region.
(a) 35412
(b) 15234
(c) 52143
(d) 43215
(e) 24531
Q.35)
(1) Furthermore, the interplay between algorithms and cognitive biases underscores the exigency of ethical
considerations in algorithm design, necessitating the evolution of responsible AI practices to mitigate
inadvertent discrimination and uphold societal values.
(2) This transformation has not only led to enhanced operational efficiency and predictive insights but has
also sparked intricate ethical and privacy concerns.
(3) In this dynamic landscape, the imperative for interdisciplinary collaboration between technology, legal,
and ethical experts is clear, facilitating the development of holistic solutions to address the multifaceted
challenges emerging from this digital evolution.
(4) The confluence of technological advancements in artificial intelligence and the proliferation of data
analytics has engendered a paradigm shift in various industries.
(5) As organizations harness the power of machine learning algorithms and deep learning neural networks,
the need for comprehensive regulatory frameworks to govern data collection, utilization, and retention
becomes increasingly imperative.
(a) 24513
(b) 42513
(c) 31254
(d) 15423
(e) 53124
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Q.36)
In the sentence given below, four words have been underlined, which may or may not be correctly placed
(grammatically or contextually). Rearrange the words to make the sentence grammatically correct.
As a dance wriggle (1), she couldn't resist the urge to aficionado (2) to the rhythm of the music, showcasing
(3) her passion for movement and groove (4) on the dance floor.
(a) 1-2
(b) 2-4
(c) 3-2
(d) 1-4
(e) 3-4
Q.37)
The sloshed (1) horror movie marathon turned into a schlocky (2) fest as we laughed and cringed (3) our
way through cheesy special effects and ridiculous (4) plot twists
(a) 1-4
(b) 2-3
(c) 3-1
(d) 1-2
(e) 2-4
Q.38)
His proclivity (1) for collecting rare, curiosities (2) antiques led to a house full of unweidly (3), each with its
own unique (4) history and charm
(a) 1-4
(b) 1-3
(c) 2-3
(d) 3-4
(e) 2-4
Q.39)
He was so chagrin (1) with the vintage (2) car that he couldn't resist yanking (3) open the driver's side door
to get a closer look, much to the owner's besotted (4).
(a) 2-3
(b) 1-4
(c) 2-4
(d) 1-3
(e) 1-2
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Q.40)
The fiendish (1) villain issued a peremptory (2) demand for the priceless menacing (3), leaving the museum
staff with no choice but to comply in the face of his artifact (4) threats
(a) 1-2
(b) 2-3
(c) 1-4
(d) 2-4
(e) 3-4
Q.41)
In the following question, four sentences have been mentioned. One of the sentences may contain a
grammatical or contextual error. Choose the sentence which contains the error.
(a) She chose to abjure the toxic workplace culture, deciding to move on and pursue a new career path
rather than continuing to deride her colleagues' efforts
(b) Despite the initial success of the innovative technology, some traditionalists continued to decry its use,
while others embraced it, spurning the old ways for the sake of progress
(c) What started as an acrimonious disagreement between the neighbors over the property line eventually
turned into an amicable resolution with the help of a mediator, fostering a more peaceful coexistence
(d) Her flippancy during the serious discussion about the environmental crisis irritated her colleagues, as
they felt the issue deserved more respect and attention
(e) No error
Q.42)
(a) His phlegmatic demeanor made it difficult to discern his true feelings, as he rarely showed any visible
emotions, even in the most challenging situations
(b) The clever sophist employed persuasive rhetoric to argue his point, even though it lacked a solid factual
basis, leaving the audience both impressed and skeptical of his arguments
(c) Her use of casuistry in justifying her actions demonstrated a deliberate attempt to find loopholes in
moral principles to support her choices, but it left many questioning the integrity of her decision-making
(d) As a committed ideologue, he staunch advocated for his political beliefs, often engaging in spirited
debates to promote his ideological vision for the future of the country.
(e) No error
Q.43)
(a) His cynicism, born from years of witnessing corruption and deceit in politics, made it challenging for him
to trust any politician's promises, no matter how sincere they seemed
(b) After being convict as a felon, he faced the daunting task of rebuilding his life and reputation,
determined to make amends for his past actions
(c) Her erudition in the field of astrophysics was widely recognized, and she was often sought after to
deliver lectures and share her extensive knowledge with aspiring scientists
(d) I prefer to take the backseat when my friend drives, allowing me to relax and enjoy the scenery during
our road trips
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(e) No error
Q.44)
(a) During the protest, a scuffle broke out between the opposing groups, resulting in a temporary
disruption of the demonstration
(b) She couldn't help but gripe about the long wait at the doctor's office, expressing her frustration to the
receptionist
(c) The amateur sleuth, armed with a magnifying glass and a keen eye for detail, was determined to solve
the mystery of the missing necklace
(d) Regular exercise and a healthy diet are believed to contribute to increased longevity and a higher
quality of life in one's later years
(e) No error
Q.45)
(a) The new technology was designed to innervate paralyzed limbs, providing hope to individuals with
spinal cord injuries for regaining mobility and independence
(b) The project's success was largely attributed to Sarah, who acted as the honcho, overseeing every aspect
of the complex operation
(c) The media mogul's empire extended from television networks to film studios, making them a powerful
and influential figure in the entertainment industry
(d) The tranquil park, abutting the bustling city center, offered a peaceful retreats for urban dwellers
seeking a moment of respite from their daily routines
(e) No error
Q.46)
In the question given below, two sentences have been mentioned with a blank in each sentence. Use one
of the phrases given in the options to fill in the blanks.
1. He didn't heed the warning signs, and now he's stuck with a car that constantly breaks down – it's a
classic case of ____________.
2. When she realized the used smartphone, she purchased had a defective battery and numerous
issues, she felt like she had unwittingly _______.
(a) Buy a lemon
(b) Between Scylla and Charybdis
(c) On the horns of a dilemma
(d) Caught between two stools
(e) Between the hammer and the anvil
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Q.47)
In the question below, two sentences have been mentioned with a blank in each sentence. Use one of the
phrases given in the options to fill in the blanks.
1. Despite being friends for years, he suddenly started to give her the_____, leaving her puzzled and
hurt
2. The new team member felt isolated when her colleagues seemed to give her the _____ during her
first week at the company
(a) all ears
(b) cold shoulder
(c) skin of your teeth
(d) someone's arm
(e) neck out
Q.48)
In the following question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are
marked with letters (P) and (Q). From the indented word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate
word(s)/ phrase(s) which fits best in the context of the sentence. Then, choose the correct options from
the alternatives given below.
1. The elusive (P)/allusive (Q) cat, known for its stealth and ability to blend into its surroundings, was
rarely spotted by hikers in the dense forest
2. The sailor deftly repaired the ship's damaged breech (P)/breach (Q), ensuring the cannon would
function properly during their upcoming naval battle
3. The campaign team decided to canvas (P)/canvass (Q) the neighborhood, going door-to-door to
discuss the upcoming election and gather valuable feedback from the residents
4. After cheering loudly at the concert all night, her voice became hoarse (P)/ horse (Q), and she could
barely speak the next day
(a) QQPP
(b) QPQP
(c) PQPQ
(d) PPQP
(e) QQPQ
Q.49)
1. The artist's vibrant and emotive painting had the power to elicit (P)/ illicit (Q) strong emotions and
deep contemplation from those who viewed it
2. She picked out some elegant stationary (P)/ stationery (Q) to write a heartfelt thank-you note to
her colleague for their support during a challenging project
3. We took a scenic route (P)/ root (Q) through the countryside, enjoying the picturesque views and
winding roads during our weekend road trip
4. As the gates opened, a hoard (P) / horde (Q) of excited fans rushed into the stadium to secure the
best seats for the highly anticipated concert
pg. 16
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(a) QQPP
(b) PQPQ
(c) PPQP
(d) QQPQ
(e) QPQP
Q.50)
1. The somber procession carried the casket on the ornate bear (P)/ bier (Q), draped in flowers, to the
final resting place in the peaceful cemetery
2. She carefully applied the sealing (P)/ ceiling (Q) wax to the envelope, pressing her family's crest into
it to secure the contents and add a touch of elegance to the letter
3. The rich flavors of the hearty stew were the perfect complement (P)/ compliment (Q) to the freshly
baked crusty bread, creating a delicious and satisfying meal
4. During her reign (P)/ rein (Q) as queen, she worked tirelessly to improve the lives of her subjects,
leaving a legacy of prosperity and unity for the kingdom
(a) QPPP
(b) PQPQ
(c) QQPP
(d) PPQQ
(e) QPQP
Computer Awareness
Q.51)
What is the full form of ASCII?
(a) American System Code for Information Interchange
(b) Analytical Scientific Code for Information Interchange
(c) Analytical Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange
(e) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
Q.52)
Which of the following is the primary function of motherboard?
(a) Displaying graphics on the monitor
(b) Providing power to peripheral devices
(c) Managing the storage and retrieval of data
(d) Facilitating communication and coordination among hardware components
(e) Regulating the internet connection speed
pg. 17
[Type here]
Q.53)
In Microsoft Excel, what type of data representation is most suitable for displaying the distribution of
categories as parts of a whole?
(a) Line chart
(b) Bar chart
(c) Scatter plot
(d) Pie chart
(e) Histogram
Q.54)
What is the shortcut key to switch tabs quickly in Chrome?
(a) Shift + Tab
(b) Ctrl + Tab
(c) Alt + Tab
(d) Function + Tab
(e) Windows + Tab
Q.55)
What is the maximum possible decimal number with 4 bits?
(a) 255
(b) 31
(c) 15
(d) 7
(e) 63
Q.56)
Which of the following companies are microprocessor manufacturers?
(a) Intel, IBM, Microsoft, Motorola
(b) IBM, Intel, Microsoft, AMD
(c) Intel, IBM, Dell, Motorola
(d) Intel, IBM, AMD, Motorola
(e) Intel, IBM, Dell, AMD
Q.57)
Which of the following is not a common type of port found on a graphics card?
(a) HDMI
(b) DisplayPort
(c) USB-C
(d) VGA
(e) DVI
pg. 18
[Type here]
Q.58)
What is the full form of VFX?
(a) Visual Effects
(b) Video Effects
(c) Video Format Exchange
(d) Visualized Frame Xperience
(e) Virtual Film Xtravaganza
Q.59)
What is the primary function of the taskbar in a Windows operating system?
(a) Managing hardware peripherals
(b) Launching applications and managing open windows
(c) Adjusting display settings
(d) Scanning for malware and viruses
(e) Managing user accounts and permissions
Q.60)
Which of the following is the most efficient printer commonly used in offices?
(a) Inkjet printer
(b) Dot matrix printer
(c) Laser printer
(d) Thermal printer
(e) 3D printer
Q.61)
_____ works as an intermediary between the I/O devices and the CPU and is used after the computer has
booted up.
(a) Motherboard
(b) Southbridge
(c) Northbridge
(d) RAM
(e) BIOS
Q.62)
Which of the following is the shortcut key for locking the computer screen?
(a) Ctrl + L
(b) Function + L
(c) Windows key + L
(d) Alt + L
(e) Shift + L
pg. 19
[Type here]
Q.63)
Which of the following combination of keys is used to open Task Manager on Windows operating system?
(a) Ctrl + Alt + Delete
(b) Ctrl + Shift + Delete
(c) Ctrl + Tab + Delete
(d) Ctrl + Shift + Alt
(e) Ctrl + Tab + Alt
Q.64)
In web browsers, what is the main purpose of using "Incognito Mode" or "Private Browsing"?
(a) It makes your internet connection faster.
(b) It allows you to access blocked websites.
(c) It provides additional security for online transactions.
(d) It prevents the browser from saving browsing history and cookies.
(e) It enables multi-user login for social media accounts.
Q.65)
What is the primary limitation of incognito mode in web browsers regarding privacy?
(a) It completely anonymizes your online activity.
(b) Websites you visit can still track your IP address.
(c) It encrypts all data transmitted during your session.
(d) It prevents any third-party extensions from being used.
(e) It provides immunity to all types of malware and phishing attacks.
Q.66)
Which of the below invention of 1980s revolutionized computer interface with more icons?
(a) CRT
(b) GUI
(c) Integrated Circuits
(d) Command Line Interface
(e) MS-DOS
Q.67)
Which of the following is a primary role of a firewall in network security?
(a) Enhancing network speed
(b) Protecting against physical damage
(c) Monitoring and controlling network traffic
(d) Improving wireless signal strength
(e) Extending the battery life of connected devices
pg. 20
[Type here]
Q.68)
Which of the following is not a web browser?
(a) Google Chrome
(b) File Explorer
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Internet Explorer
(e) Safari
Q.69)
When you add recipients to the "CC" field in an email, what happens?
(a) All recipients can see each other's email addresses.
(b) All recipients receive the email, but their email addresses are hidden.
(c) Recipients in the "CC" field receive a separate copy of the email.
(d) The email is sent to the primary recipient only.
(e) Recipients in the "CC" field cannot open the email.
Q.70)
Google Parental Control is not used for which of the following purpose?
(a) Keep a limit on screen time
(b) Block or allow certain apps or websites
(c) Lock devices when it's time to relax, study, or sleep
(d) Restriction on what can be downloaded
(e) change the games child sees in the Play Games app
Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the below information and answer the questions that follow:
The below given line chart shows data about the total number of employees in five companies namely A, B,
C, D and E.
pg. 21
[Type here]
The table below shows the ratio of males to females in the five companies:
Q.71)
What is the difference between the male employees in companies C and E?
(a) 138
(b) 108
(c) 30
(d) 18
(e) 114
Q.72)
What is the ratio of number of male employees in company D to number of female employees in company
B?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 17 : 16
(c) 16 : 17
(d) 17 : 24
(e) 4 : 7
Q.73)
What is the difference between the average number of male employees in companies B and D and the
average number of female employees in companies C and E?
(a) 15
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 25
(e) 30
Q.74)
The total number of female employees in companies D and E together is what percentage more than the
total number of male employees in companies B and C together?
(a) 9.09%
(b) 11.11%
(c) 12.5%
(d) 8%
(e) 13.33%
pg. 22
[Type here]
Q.75)
What is the ratio of the total number of males in all the five companies together to the total number of
females in all the five companies together?
(a) 23 : 21
(b) 47 : 41
(c) 6 : 5
(d) 45 : 43
(e) 93 : 83
Q.76)
Find out the missing number in the below number series.
15, 22.5, 9, 31.5, 7, ___
(a) 38.5
(b) 35
(c) 33.5
(d) 40.5
(e) 28
Q.77)
Find out the missing term of the below series:
3, 4, 8, 35, 51, 176, ___
(a) 210
(b) 220
(c) 212
(d) 216
(e) 208
Q.78)
Find the missing term of the below number series:
5, 11, 35, 143, ____, 4319
(a) 712
(b) 719
(c) 715
(d) 725
(e) 722
Q.79)
Find out the missing term of the below series:
8, 17, ___, 423, 3388, 33885
(a) 65
(b) 68
(c) 53
(d) 70
(e) 72
pg. 23
[Type here]

In the below question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations
and mark an appropriate answer.
Q.80)
Equation I: 6x2 + x – 12 = 0
Equation II: 2y2 – 7y – 4 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
Q.81)
Equation I: 3x2 – 22x + 40 = 0
Equation II: 2y2 – 19y + 44 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
Q.82)
Equation I: 4x2 + 8x – 21 = 0
Equation II: 4y2 – 8y – 45 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
Q.83)
I. 7x2 – 2x – 24 = 0
II. 5y2 + 6y – 27 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x ≥ y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) x = y or no relation can be established
Q.84)
In Assam the total investment of Nihal and Mohan is 85000. If Nihal and Mohan invested their amounts for
4 months and 6 months respectively in the same state, then find the number of months that Mitali
invested her amount.
(a) 8
pg. 24
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(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 20
(e) 28
Q.85)
8 years ago, the age of A was 10 years more than half of his present age and the ratio of the age of A six
years ago to that of B three years ago is 5: 3. If the ratio of the age of B to C three years hence will be 1:2,
then find the average of the ages of A, B and C.
(a) 32 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 33 years
(d) 34 years
(e) 35 years
Q.86)
Aman makes 2400 bags costing 280 each bag. He marks up the price such a way that if he sells only 80% of
the manufactured bags he will realise an overall profit of 20%. He sells only 1950 bags at the marked price
since the rest of the bags are found to the defective and hence cannot be sold. What is the net profit/loss
of Aman?
(a) 18.75%
(b) 22.25%
(c) 24.25%
(d) 21.875%
(e) 20.75%
Q.87)
Mr Chaddha invested in two schemes A and B offering compound interest @ 8% p.a. and 10% p.a.
respectively. If the total amount of interest in two years was Rs 6276 and the total amount invested was Rs
33000, then what was the amount invested in scheme A?
(a) Rs 12000
(b) Rs 15000
(c) Rs 18000
(d) Rs 21000
(e) Rs 24000
Q.88)
In vessel A, there is X litres of milk and vessel B has Y litres of water. 75% milk from vessel A and 40% water
from vessel B is poured into vessel C. The ratio of milk to water in vessel C is 5:2. If 15 litres of milk is mixed
in vessel C then the total amount of mixture in vessel C becomes 78 litres. Find the ratio of the values of X
and Y.
(a) 3:2
(b) 4:3
(c) 5:4
pg. 25
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(d) 3:1
(e) 2:1
Q.89)
A piece of work was to be completed in 50 days. A number of men were employed but it was found that
only half of the work could be done in 30 days. Then 20 more men were employed to complete the work
on time. Find the number of men employed initially.
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 35
(d) 40
(e) 50
Q.90)
A train can travel 20% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B, which
is 150 km apart from point A, at the same time. On the way the train lost 25 minutes while stopping at the
stations. What is the time taken by the train to cover a distance of 324 km?
(a) 4.5 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 6.25 hours
(d) 5 hours
(e) 3.25 hours
Decision Making
Q.91)
What is the primary benefit of Pareto analysis in decision-making?
[a] It provides a complete solution to all problems

[b] It identifies the least common issues
[c] It helps allocate resources to address the most critical issues
[d] It generates a random ranking of issues
[e] It ensures that all issues receive equal attention
Q.92)
According to the rational decision-making model, why is it recommended to establish decision criteria before
searching for alternatives?
[a] To prevent emotional attachment to specific alternatives

[b] To make the decision-making process more time-consuming
[c] To limit the number of alternatives considered
[d] To ensure optimal decision-making
[e]To avoid bias in setting criteria based on a preferred option
pg. 26
[Type here]
Q.93)
What term is used to describe the tendency for individuals to rely too heavily on a single piece of information
when making decisions?
[a] Overconfidence bias

[b] Hindsight bias
[c] Anchoring
[d] Framing bias
[e] Escalation of commitment
Q.94)
How might confirmation bias affect decision-making and critical thinking?
[a] It enhances decision-making by encouraging open-mindedness.

[b] It helps individuals objectively evaluate different perspectives.
[c] It can hinder decision-making by limiting exposure to diverse viewpoints.
[d] It has no impact on decision-making or critical thinking.
[e] It leads individuals to always choose the most popular option.
Q.95)
According to the bounded rationality model, how do individuals approach decision-making in terms of the
number of options they consider?
[a] They exhaustively search for all available options.

[b] They limit their options to a manageable set.
[c] They only consider a single option.
[d] They avoid making any choices.
[e] They delegate decision-making to others.
Q.96)
Which of the following statements is correctly associated with the Delphi Technique?
[a] It involves physical meetings of individuals

[b] It relies solely on group discussions
[c] It uses written responses to questionnaires instead of physical meetings
[d] It requires face-to-face interactions among participants
[e] It excludes facilitators from the decision-making process
Q.97)
Fill in the blank with an appropriate option below.
______________ refers to the decision-making rule where each member of the group is given a single vote,
and the option that receives the greatest number of votes is selected.
[a] Majority Presentation

[b] Majority Coalition
[c] Absolute Majority
[d] Majority Vote
[e] Majority Rule
pg. 27
[Type here]
Q.98)
How does conservatism bias impact an investor's ability to adapt to new information?
[a] It enhances the investor's flexibility and adaptability.

[b] It encourages the investor to ignore new information.
[c] It can lead the investor to be overly reactive to every piece of news.
[d] It may cause the investor to resist updating their beliefs despite new evidence.
[e] It only affects short-term investment decisions
Q.99)
How does conservatism bias impact an investor's ability to adapt to new information?
[a] It enhances the investor's flexibility and adaptability.

[b] It encourages the investor to ignore new information.
[c] It can lead the investor to be overly reactive to every piece of news.
[d] It may cause the investor to resist updating their beliefs despite new evidence.
[e] It only affects short-term investment decisions
Q.100)
How does star bursting differ from traditional brainstorming?
[a] It involves competitive challenges.

[b] It uses a voting system for ideas.
[c] It focuses on solution evaluation.
[d] It concentrates on question generation.
[e] It promotes individual idea generation.
General Awareness
Q.101)
The Cauvery River, often called the Ganga of the South, flows through southern India, sustaining fertile
lands and providing water for millions. It's not just a river; it's the lifeblood of the region. What is the total
length of Cauvery River?
(a) 800 Km
(b) 400 Km
(c) 100 Km
(d) 500 Km
(e) 900 Km
Q.102)
ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup 2023 is hosted by India. The first stage of the tournament will be a round-
robin format where all teams will play each other once, resulting in a total of _____ matches.
(a) 81
(b) 45
(c) 67
(d) 85
(e) 92
pg. 28
[Type here]
Q.103)
Exercise Bright Star-23 is a multinational military training event, fostering cooperation among nations in
the Middle East. Where did the Exercise Bright Star-23 take place?
(a) Oman
(b) UAE
(c) Egypt
(d) Saudi Arabia
(e) Kuwait
Q.104)
Infosys has announced a multi-year partnership with women’s tennis player Iga Swiatek. She is a ___ time
Grand Slam Champion and has been ranked World’s No.1 since April 2022, for a record 70 consecutive
years.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 4
(e) 9
Q.105)
BRICS, established in 2009, serves as a platform for the Brazil, India, China, Russia, and South Africa to
discuss and address common challenges and opportunities, fostering economic growth and political
dialogue among themselves. Which of the following countries have recently joined BRICS?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Peru
(c) Mexico
(d) Israel
(e) Norway
Q.106)
Identify the correctly matched pair.
1. The Code of Criminal Procedure - 1973
2. Indian Penal Code - 1860
3. Indian Evidence Act - 1872
(a) Only 1
(b) All of the Above
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1, 2, and 3
(e) Only 1 and 3
Q.107)
Recently, the Raksha Mantri released the 5th Positive Indigenisation List. Which of the following weapons
are developed indigenously in India?
(a) Tejas
(b) Arjun
(c) Vikrant
pg. 29
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(d) Dhanush
(e) All of the Above
Q.108)
Agnikul Cosmos is all set to carry out the sub-orbital test flight of its 3D-printed rocket Agnibaan
SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator (SOrTeD) from its launch pad at Sriharikota. Agnibaan SOrTeD is a
single-stage launch vehicle driven by Agnikul's patented Agnilet engine - an entirely 3D-printed, single-
piece, 6 kN semi-cryogenic engine. After this launch, Angikul will become the second private Indian
company to launch its own rocket after ______.
(a) Skyroot Aerospace
(b) Dhruva Space
(c) Bellatrix Aerospace
(d) Agnikul Cosmos
(e) Pixxel
Q.109)
A Delimitation Commission is a body responsible for defining the boundaries of electoral constituencies.
Its primary purpose is to ensure fair and equitable representation in democratic systems, making
adjustments based on population changes. What is the other name of the Delimitation Commission?
(a) Borders and Boundaries Panel
(b) Territorial Delimitation Board
(c) Boundary Commission
(d) Demarcation Council
(e) National Redistricting Committee
Q.110)
Nagorno-Karabakh is a mountainous region in the South Caucasus known for its historical tensions and
territorial disputes. It has been a focal point of conflict, resulting in significant geopolitical implications. The
Nagorno-Karabakh conflict is an ethnic and territorial conflict between ____ and ______.
(a) Mongolia and China
(b) Armenia and Azerbaijan
(c) Turkmenistan and Tajikistan
(d) Afghanistan and Uzbekistan
(e) Uzbekistan and Kyrgyzstan
Q.111)
Which of the following applications has been launched by the Ministry of Coal to allow citizens to report
the illegal mining activities through geotagging, photographs, and textual information?
(a) Dhanrakshak
(b) Khadan Suraksha Dal
(c) Ore Watchers
(d) Mineral Guardian
(e) Khanan Prahari
pg. 30
[Type here]
Q.112)
In which of the following cases is Aadhar not required for carrying out the authentication process?
1. For authentication by private companies
2. For authentication by banks
3. For authentication by government for the purpose of direct subsidy transfer
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) None of the Above
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3
(e) Only 3
Q.113)
The Women's Reservation Bill seeks to reserve one-third (33%) of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha
and the state legislative assemblies. The bill was unanimously passed by the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
This is a step towards gender equality. Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals focuses on
Gender Equality?
(a) SDG 5
(b) SDG 6
(c) SDG 12
(d) SDG 7
(e) SDG 9
Q.114)
C-PACE has been established for providing hassle-free filing, timely and process-bound striking off
companies from MCA Register. The establishment of the C-PACE will help to reduce the stress on the
Registry along with keeping the registry clean besides availability of more meaningful data to the
stakeholders. What is the full form of C-PACE portal?
(a) Corporate Performance Analysis and Compliance Evaluation
(b) Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit
(c) Compliant Partnerships and Corporate Efficiency
(d) Consolidated Public Assistance and Corporate Excellence
(e) Collaborative Platform for Assessing Corporate Efficiency
Q.115)
In the far south of our planet, there's a magical light show in the dark sky over Antarctica. It's like a
dazzling artwork created by Earth's magnetic power. In Northern Hemisphere, this phenomenon is called
Auroras, or the aurora borealis. What is this phenomenon called in the Southern hemisphere?
(a) Dust Devil
(b) Geysers
(c) Waterspout
(d) Aurora Australis
(e) Meteor Shower
pg. 31
[Type here]
Q.116)
A public sector insurance company is a government-owned entity that offers insurance services to the
public. Its primary mission is to provide affordable and accessible insurance coverage, often with a focus on
stability and public welfare. Which of the following is a public sector insurance company?
(a) SBI Life Insurance
(b) PNB MetLife Insurance
(c) India First Life Insurance
(d) Canara HSBC Life Insurance
(e) None of the Above
Q.117)
What is the allocated funding for the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme
(SIGHT)?
(a) ₹10,090 crore
(b) ₹11,890 crore
(c) ₹37,589 crore
(d) ₹17,490 crore
(e) ₹55,987 crore
Q.118)
In which city was the inauguration of India's first Solar City conducted, marking a significant milestone in
the country's sustainable energy efforts?
(a) Churu, Rajasthan
(b) Tuni, Andhra Pradesh
(c) Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Chandrapur, Maharashtra
(e) Bankura, West Bengal
Q.119)
Which bank has launched a ‘Centralized Pool Buy-Out and Co-Lending Cell’ to boost priority sector lending?
(a) Bank of India
(b) DBS India
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) SBI
(e) ICICI Bank
Q.120)
For the disbursement of financial aid to accomplished artists under the 'Scheme for Financial Assistance
for Veteran Artists,' which bank has been selected by the Ministry of Culture?
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) Bank of India
(c) SBI
(d) Canara Bank
(e) HDFC Bank
pg. 32
[Type here]
Economic & Social Issues

Q.121)
Which of the following is/are the components of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana?
1) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme
2) Har Khet Ko Pani
3) Command Area Development & Water Management
4) Per Drop More Crop
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(d) 2 and 4 Only
(e) All of the above
Q.122)
Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) envisages comprehensive development of identified villages in 46 blocks
in 19 districts abutting northern border. Which of the following are amongst the focused interventions
under this scheme?
1) Road Connectivity to unconnected villages
2) Housing and village infrastructure
3) Energy including renewable energy
4) Television and telecom connectivity
5) Promotion of Tourism and cultural heritage
(a) 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.123)
Which of the following risks are covered under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?
1) Hailstorm
2) Cyclonic rains and seasonal rains
3) Inundation
4) Landslide
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(b) 2 and 4 Only
(c) 1 and 4 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 Only
pg. 33
[Type here]
Q.124)
Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to the National Mission on Natural Farming?
1) It has been formulated by Government as a separate and independent scheme from 2023-24 by up
scaling the Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddati
2) It has proposed budgetary provision of Rs 600.00 crores for 2023-24
3) It gives major stress on bringing behavioural change in farmers to shift from chemical-based inputs to
cow based locally produced inputs
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) 2 Only
Q.125)
Which of the following is not part of seven priorities of the Union Budget 2023-24?
1) Inclusive development
2) Reaching the last mile
3) Infrastructure and investment
4) Unleashing Potential
5) Forestry and development
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, and 4
Q.126)
Which of the following sector is eligible for classification under the sub-target of 7.5% prescribed for Micro
enterprise lending under the priority sector?
(a) Social infrastructure
(b) Renewable Energy
(c) Housing
(d) Khadi and Village Industries Sector
(e) Education
Q.127)
The SHG Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP), launched in 1992, has blossomed into the world’s largest
microfinance project. This programme pioneered by _________ has made access to credit easier and
reduced the dependence on traditional money lenders and other non-institutional sources. Fill the gap
(a) RBI
(b) NABARD
(c) KVIC
(d) SBI
(e) None of the above
pg. 34
[Type here]
Q.128)
Which of the following statements about the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill 2023 is/are true?
(a) It broadens the scope of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 by inserting a Preamble
(b) Its changes the name of the parent Act to Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980
(c) It has enhanced applicability of the act in various types of lands has been dynamic, from earlier
provision of Act being applied to the notified forest land only
(d) It proposes certain exemptions to encourage afforestation and plantation outside forests.
Q.129)
Which of the following target group under Pradhan Mantri Dakshata Aur Kushalata Sampanna Hitgrahi
(PM-DAKSH) scheme is correctly matched with income criteria?
1) Persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes - Annual Family Income below Rs. 5 lakhs
2) Other Backward Classes - Annual Family Income below Rs. 3 Lakhs
3) Economically Backward Classes – Annual Family Income below Rs. 1 Lakh
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 2 and 3 Only
(d) 1 and 3 Only
Q.130)
Which of the following is the objective of PM-PRANAM Scheme?
(a) To increase the skill levels of the target youth by providing for long-term and short-term skills, followed
by settlement in employment/self-employment
(b) To reduce use of chemical fertilizers by incentivizing states to adopt alternative fertilizers
(c) To improve the nutritional status of children studying in elementary classes
(d) To fund the state government universities and colleges to achieve the aims of equity, access and
excellence
Q.131)
Which of the following are the components of ‘Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan’ (PM-
AASHA)?
1) Price Support Scheme
2) Price Deficiency Payment Scheme
3) Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 2 and 3 Only
(d) 1 and 3 Only
pg. 35
[Type here]
Q.132)
Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana Gramin (PMAY-G) is centre's flagship scheme aimed at providing a pucca
house, with basic amenities, to all houseless households and those households living in kutcha and
dilapidated house. How much financial assistance is provided to beneficiaries per unit in plain areas under
this scheme?
(a) Rs. 1.20 lakhs
(b) Rs. 1.35 lakhs
(c) Rs. 1.50 lakhs
(d) Rs. 2.00 lakhs
(e) Rs. 2.50 lakhs
Q.133)
The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGS) aims at providing collateral-free credit
to micro and small enterprises (MSEs). Under this scheme, the limit on ceiling for guarantees has been
enhanced from Rs. 2 crores to ___________. Fill the gap
(a) Rs. 4 crores
(b) Rs. 5 crores
(c) Rs. 7 crores
(d) Rs. 10 crores
(e) Rs. 15 crores
Q.134)
Which of the following is not Sub-mission under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods
Mission?
1) Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme
2) Mahila Kisan Shashaktikaran Pariyojana
3) Aajeevika Grameen Express Yojana
4) Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
Q.135)
Which of the following is/are the components of Gramodyog Vikas Yojana?
1) Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry
2) Mineral-Based Industry
3) Wellness & Cosmetics Industry
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) 2 and 3 Only
pg. 36
[Type here]
Q.136)
Which of the following Scheme is related to ensure open defecation free India?
(a) Gramodyog Vikas Yojna
(b) National Rural Employment Generation Programme
(c) Swachh Bharat Mission
(d) MGNREGA
(e) National Rural Livelihood Mission
Q.137)
Which State/UT is not amongst the 31 States/UTs where Aspirational block program is being implemented?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand
(e) Rajasthan
Q.138)
According to estimates from the National Statistical Office (NSO), India's per capita net national income (at
current prices) for 2022-23 stands at_________. Fill the gap
(a) Rs. 1,72,000
(b) Rs. 1,50,000
(c) Rs. 1,65,000
(d) Rs. 2,00,000
(e) Rs. 2,50,000
Q.139)
Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to PM Mudra Yojana?
1) It was launched on 8th April 2015
2) It aims to facilitate easy collateral-free micro credit of up to Rs. 10 lakhs to non-corporate, nonfarm
small and micro entrepreneurs for income generating activities
3) The loans under it are provided by Member Lending Institutions i.e., Banks, NonBanking Financial
Companies, Micro Finance Institutions and other financial intermediaries
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q.140)
Which of the following is/are objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana?
1) Enhancement of Production and Productivity
2) Infrastructure and Post-harvest Management
3) Fisheries Management and Regulatory Framework
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
pg. 37
[Type here]
Q.141)
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Swacchta Udyami Yojana?
(a) It aims to provide concessional loan for viable community toilet projects and sanitation related vehicles
to collect the garbage
(b) It was launched in 2018 by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Under it, entrepreneurs among safai karmacharis and identified manual scavengers can avail loan upto
defined ceiling at concessional rate of interest @ 4% per annum
(d) In case of women beneficiaries, there is a rebate of 1% in the rate of interest charged
Q.142)
Which ministry is implementing Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional (SFURTI) for cluster
development?
(a) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
(b) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
(c) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
(d) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
(e) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Q.143)
Which of the following is/are focus area/s of Pradhan Mantri Ucchatar shiksha Abhiyan?
(a) Equity Access and inclusion in higher education
(b) Developing Quality Teaching & Learning processes,
(c) Accreditation of Non-Accredited Institutions and improving accreditation.
(d) ICT – based Digital Infrastructure.
Q.144)
According to AISHE 2020-21, student enrolment in higher education has increased to nearly ____in 2020-
21 from 3.85 crores in 2019-20. Fill the gap
(a) 5.50 crore
(b) 5.10 crore
(c) 4.70 crore
(d) 4.14 crore
(e) 4.05 crore
Q.145)
By which year, India’s sex ratio is expected to improve to 952?
(a) 2027
(b) 2030
(c) 2036
(d) 2047
(e) 2050
pg. 38
[Type here]
Q.146)
Which mobile app has been launched by Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission
for use as an effective platform for marketing of the products made by women self-help groups.?
(a) eSHGCOM
(b) eSAFAL
(c) eSARAS
(d) eSAMRIDHI
(e) eSuvidha
Q.147)
Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to objectives of Amrit Dharohar Scheme?
(a) Its primary focus of the scheme is the conservation and sustainable management of wetlands, including
protection and restoration measures
(b) It is being implemented over the course of three years, allowing for a structured and comprehensive
approach to wetland conservation
(c) It seeks to increase eco-tourism opportunities in wetland areas, promoting their importance as tourist
destinations and sources of livelihood for local communities
(d) It also seeks to enhance the carbon stock in wetlands, contributing to climate change mitigation and
resilience.
Q.148)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day speech 2023 has announced that Government
is working with Women’s Self-Help Groups (SHGs) with the aim of creating _____________ ‘Lakhpati Didis’
in villages. Fill the gap
(a) 0.5 crore
(b) 1 crore
(c) 2 crore
(d) 3 crore
(e) 4 crore
Q.149)
Which of the following Statements is/are about PM Sampada Yojana (Pradhan Mantri Formalization of
Micro Food Processing Enterprises) correct?
1) It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2) Under it, capital subsidy in the form of grants-in-aid ranging from 35% to 75% of the eligible project cost
subject to a maximum specified limit is provided
3) One of its objectives is to create an Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 2 and 3 Only
(d) 3 Only
pg. 39
[Type here]
Q.150)
How cash assistance a mother is entitled under Janani Suraksha Yojana in Low Performing States for
institutional delivery?
(a) Rs. 3000
(b) Rs. 2500
(c) Rs. 1400
(d) Rs. 1200
(e) Rs. 800
Q.151)
What is the purpose of the FTP Amnesty Scheme?
(a) To address debt obligtations of top exporters in labour intensive sectors
(b) To address the default on Export Obligation
(c) To provide taxation benefits to exporters
(d) To resolve disputes related to imports of classified items
(e) To provide credit incentive to exports for certain notified market
Q.152)
Which of the following is not feature of underdeveloped economy?
(a) Low per capita income
(b) Low living standards
(c) High Unemployment
(d) Low productivity
(e) Dependence on Manufacturing and service sector
Q.153)
The Advisory Board for Financial Inclusion Fund (FIF) in its 30th meeting has approved the fresh one-time
grant support up to a maximum _____________ (all inclusive) per RSETI/RUDSETI from FIF for purchase of
training equipment and maintenance thereof. Fill the gap
(a) Rs. 10 Lakh
(b) Rs. 7.0 Lakh
(c) Rs. 5.0 Lakh
(d) Rs. 4.5 Lakh
(e) Rs. 3.5 Lakh
Q.154)
Banks can issue long-term bonds with a minimum maturity of ___________ years to raise resources for
lending to long term projects in infrastructure subsectors, and affordable housing. Fill the gap
(a) 10 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 3 yeas
(e) 2 years
pg. 40
[Type here]
Q.155)
Under Scheme “Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)” a Credit
Guarantee Fund for FPOs with a corpus of Rs. 1000 with equal contribution from GoI and NABARD has
been setup with GoI as the Settlor and ___________ as the Trustee. Fill the gap
(a) NABSanrakshan
(b) SBI
(c) ICICI
(d) RBI
(e) PNB
Q.156)
Which of the following scheme is operated under the NABARD?
(a) Gramin Bhandaran
(b) PM KISAN
(c) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
(d) Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises Scheme
Q.157)
Which of the following credit facility is not covered under the Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units?
(a) Micro Loans up to Rs. 10 lakhs for manufacturing and services
(b) Micro Loans up to Rs. 10 lakhs to set up Joint Liability Group
(c) Short Term Loan up to Rs. 3 lakhs for the farmers
(d) Collateral free loan between Rs. 10 to 20 lakhs to SHGs
(e) Overdraft facility of Rs.10000 under PMJDY
Q.158)
Which of the following benefits are provided under Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana to
beneficiaries?
1) Ornamental fish cultivation
2) Purchase of land
3) Constructing new rearing and grow-out ponds
4) Fish retail markets
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, and 4
Q.159)
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under administrative control of which Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
(e) Ministry of Education
pg. 41
[Type here]
Q.160)
What is annual procurement target from MSEs owned by SC/ST entrepreneurs, as part of Public
Procurement Policy for Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) under National SC-ST Hub Scheme?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 8%
(d) 15%
(e) 4%
Agriculture & Rural Development

Q.161)
What is the Gestation period of Swine.
(a) 109 days

(b) 132 days
(c) 100 days
(d) 89 days
(e) 115 days
Q.162)
Which involves the accreditation of certification bodies, standards for organic production, promotion of
organic farming, marketing etc.
(a) Agricultural and processed food products export development authority (APEDA)
(b) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
(c) National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB)
(d) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(e) Food Safety Management Systems (FSMS)
Q.163)
National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing
APMC mandis to create national market for agriculture commodities. What is the budgetary allocation of e-
NAM?
(a) 100 crores

(b) 55 crores
(c) 200 crores
(d) 250 crores
(e) 120 crores
pg. 42
[Type here]
Q.164)
The practice of forestry in areas devoid of tree growth and other vegetation with the objective of
increasing the area under tree growth________.
(a) Mixed forestry

(b) Extension forestry
(c) Shelterbelts
(d) Recreation Forestry
(e) Linear Strip plantations
Q.165)
The outermost layer of the atmosphere. In this layer, atoms and molecules escape into space and satellites
orbit the orbit. The name of layer is______.
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Exosphere
(e) Troposphere
Q.166)
What is the scientific name of cowpea.
(a) Pisum sativum

(b) Vigna unguinculata
(c) Momordica charantia
(d) Allium sativum
(e) Solanum melongena
Q.167)
Which of the following soil conservation technique used to keep rainwater runoff from collecting on
sloping ground and causing catastrophic erosion.
(a) Terracing (Soil terracing)

(b) Contour bunding
(c) Conservation Tillage
(d) Strip Cropping
(e) Crop Rotation
Q.168)
Which of the following soil type have low water retention capacity?
(a) Sandy soil

(b) Loamy soil
(c) Sandy-loam
(d) Clayey soil
(e) Silt soil
pg. 43
[Type here]
Q.169)
Trees that are grown for their economic or aesthetic value or both. The cultivation of trees for their
aesthetic or recreational value is called________.
(a) Olericulture
(b) Agro- silvopastoral Systems
(c) Horticulture
(d) Silvo-pastoral Systems
(e) Arboriculture
Q.170)
The fastest growing fish for farming in India is_____.
(a) Catla
(b) Rohu
(c) Mrigal
(d) Kalbasu
(e) Swordfish
Q.171)
Minimum support price is a guarantee price for their produce from the government. This help farmers from
sharp fall in farm prices. MSP of wheat for 2023-24 is_______.
(a) Rs. 1015

(b) Rs. 2125
(c) Rs. 2010
(d) Rs. 2360
(e) Rs. 1890
Q.172)
Which female hormone is produced by the corpus luteum favoring the implantation of the embryo?
(a) Human Chronic Gonadotropin

(b) Progesterone
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Estrogen
(e) Testosterone
Q.173)
Millets are a highly varied group of small-seeded grasses that are grown around the world as cereals crops
or grains for fodder and human food. Which of the following crops is not considered as a millet?
(a) Jowar
(b) Ragi
(c) Bajra
(d) Corn
pg. 44
[Type here]
Q.174) The price required to be paid by sugar mills and factories to sugarcane farmers. It was introduced in
2009 and called as_____.
(a) FRP
(b) SPP
(c) MSP
(d) CPP
(e) SAP
Q.175)
Farmers can avail crop insurance under PMFBY for which of the following crops?
(a) Food crops
(b) Horticultural Crops
(c) Oilseeds crop
(d) Rabi crops
Q.176)
_________ is the removal of field heat after harvest; if not, its deterioration is faster at higher temperature
of 1 hour at 32°C.
(a) Pre-cooling
(b) Heating
(c) Waxing
(d) Ripening
(e) Grading
Q.177)
Which statement is correct about Roughing?
(a) To improve the soil fertility
(b) Treatment of plants with biofertilizers
(c) Removal of off type plants.
(d) Introduction of new varieties
Q.178)
At field capacity, how much is the suction pressure?
(a) -0.33 bar
(b) -60 bar
(c) -15 bar
(d) -45 bar
(e) -30 bar
Q.179)
The breed of cattle which is good milk yielder, with long pendulated ears.
(a) Amritmahal
(b) Tharparkar
(c) Gir
(d) Hariyana
pg. 45
[Type here]
(e) Bhadawari
Q.180)
What is the objective of puddling in paddy cultivation?
(a) Ease in transplanting
(b) To increase availability of iron and phosphorous
(c) To increase crop duration
(d) To reduce weed infestation
(e) To increase water retention in soil by reducing percolation losses
Q.181)
What is the minimum purity percentage of certified seed?
(a) 99.0%
(b) 100 %
(c) 90%
(d) 99.5%
(e) 98%
Q.182)
Phosphorus content is more in which of the following minerals.
(a) Sodium nitrate
(b) Organic matter
(c) Mica
(d) Apatite
(e) Carnallite
Q.183)
A process of mixing medicine and water and them providing it to the animals is called_______
(a) Irrigation
(b) Suspension
(c) Fertigation
(d) Solutions
(e) Drenching
Q.184)
Debeaking is done in chicks after how many days?
(a) 8 to 10 weeks of age
(b) 10 to 12 weeks of age
(c) 1 to 6 weeks of age
(d) One year of age
(e) Three to five months
Q.185)
_________ refers to the process of exposing transplants/ seedlings gradually to outdoor conditions.
(a) Hardening
(b) Thinning
(c) Tilling
(d) Sowing
pg. 46
[Type here]
(e) Transplanting
Q.186)
Which ministry is responsible for food safety and standards?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Agriculture
(c) Ministry of Women and child development
(d) Ministry of Health and Family welfare
(e) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Q.187)
Grey revolution is related to_____
(a) Fertilizers
(b) Oilseeds
(c) Milk
(d) Fish
(e) Petroleum
Q.188)
Which part reduces the friction between moving parts of the machine?
(a) Iron dust
(b) Sand
(c) Ball bearing
(d) Spool holder
(e) Gears
Q.189)
From which seeds, foundation seeds are formed?
(a) Nucleus seed
(b) Breeder seed
(c) Registered seed
(d) Certified seed
(e) Truthfully labelled seed
Q.190)
Which of the following method is not used to break seed dormancy.
(a) Leaching of the inhibitors present in the seed
(b) Seed scarification
(c) Use of auxin and abscisic acid
(d) Seed Stratification
(e) Impaction
Q.191)
The amount of water in the soil that percolates downward under the influence of gravity and reaches the
water table is called as ________.
(a) Capillary water
(b) Field capacity
(c) Hygroscopic water
pg. 47
[Type here]
(d) Gravitational water

(e) Permanent wilting point
Q.192)
Which Mango disease starts from a black spot that coalesce and cover the whole fruit.
(a) Anthracnose
(b) Powdery mildew
(c) Mango malformation
(d) Sooty mould
(e) Die back
Q.193)
Which products are exported by APEDA?
(a) Floriculture
(b) Bakery products
(c) Cocoa products
(d) Pickles
Q.194)
Total assistance for individual project under Agri-clinic and Agribusiness centers scheme
(ACABC)?
(a) 10 lakhs
(b) 5 lakhs
(c) 20 lakhs
(d) 8 lakhs
(e) 22 lakhs
Q.195)
___________ is construction of series of platforms along contours where platforms are separated at
regular intervals by vertical drops.
(a) Bench terracing
(b) Contour bunding
(c) Zing terracing
(d) Khadins
Q.196)
What is the incubation period of Chickens?
(a) 21 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 42 days
(e) 80 days
pg. 48
[Type here]
Q.197)
Which type of surface irrigation, fields is divided into strips that are separated by border ridges running
through gradient of field?
(a) Furrow irrigation
(b) Centre pivot irrigation
(c) Sprinkler irrigation
(d) Border Strip irrigation
(e) Localized irrigation
Q.198)
For how much time, food is not given to incubated chicks.
(a) 9 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 12 hours
(e) 34 hours
Q.199)
Which of the following is the objective of Amrit Dharohar?
(a) Species and habitat conservation

(b) This scheme will help the local communities in their income generations
(c) wetlands livelihoods, wetland carbon
(d) The scheme will increase eco-tourism
Q.200)
Identify the disorder of mango.
It has generally been detected in orchard located in the vicinity of brick kilns. The infection of fruits is
initiated right at marble stage, with a characteristic yellowing of tissues at the distal end. Gradually, the
color intensifies into brown and finally black.
(a) Biennial bearing
(b) Mango malformation
(c) Clustering in mango
(d) Spongy tissue
(e) Black tip
pg. 49
[Type here]
Answers
Q.1) (c)
Explanation:
Q.2) (d)
Explanation:
Q.3) (e)
Explanation:
pg. 50
[Type here]
Q.4) (d)
Explanation:
Q.5) (d)
Explanation:
All the pairs except option D have a gap of one floor between them.
Q.6) (c)
Explanation:
pg. 51
[Type here]
Q.7) (c)
Explanation:
Q.8) (e)
Explanation:
pg. 52
[Type here]
Q.9) (c)
Explanation:
Q.10) (d)
Explanation:
Q.11) (b)
Explanation:
pg. 53
[Type here]
Q.12) (d)
Explanation:
The basic diagram is as follows:
Those rows which are lines cannot be horizontal. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Conclusion II also does not follow as can be seen from the diagram above.
Q.13) (a)
Explanation:
Q.14) (b)
Explanation:
pg. 54
[Type here]
Q.15) (d)
Explanation:
H≥G≤F<D≤A<I
a) G < I
So, conclusion I follows.
b) A > G
So, conclusion II does not follow.
c) No relation can be established between H and F.
So, conclusion III does not follow.
d) No relation can be established between D and H.
So, conclusion IV does not follow.
Q.16) (e)
Explanation:
W≥R>T=D>V
So, W > V
Hence, conclusion I is true.
Z≤V<D=T<R
So, Z < R
Hence, conclusion II is also true.
Q.17) (c)
Explanation:
From I alone,
Total students in the class = 44 + 46 – 1 = 90 – 1 = 89
Mahesh’s rank from bottom = 89 + 1 – 50 = 90 – 50 = 40
From II alone,
Total strength of the class = 90
Mahesh’s rank from bottom = 90 + 1 – 50 = 41
So, either I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Q.18) (c)
Explanation:
From statement I:
M > V > S, N
So, either Sunita or Naina can be youngest.
Hence, I alone is not sufficient.
From statement II:
S > M > N, V
So, either Naina or Veena can be youngest.
Hence, II alone is not sufficient.
From statement III:
V>S>N
Here, information about Meena is not given.
Hence, III alone is not sufficient.
Combining I and III:
M>V>S>N
Hence, Naina is the youngest.
pg. 55
[Type here]
Q.19) (b)
Explanation:
train tlf
is mst
for klo
slow wru
car vnp
traffic lmo
black vjn
speed bsy
light dzq
tree rkc
Q.20) (d)
Explanation:
train tlf
is mst
for klo
slow wru
car vnp
traffic lmo
black vjn
speed bsy
light dzq
tree rkc
Q.21) -(e)
Explanation –
“Price rise” should be replaced with “price rises” because the subject i.e., price is singular. Strengthening
grammatical concepts will help you in tackling such questions.
Q.22) -(b)
Explanation –
In the first part, ‘among’ is wrong. ‘Between’ should be used because there are two nouns. In the second
part, “the” is wrongly used. Here, ‘a’ should be used for ‘impact’. Again, grammar is crucial for this phase.
The very first thing to consider in such type of questions is to strengthen your grammatical concepts. If you
are not clear with the basics, handling such questions would be a hard nut to crack for you. I am going to
tell you some basic rules which you can remember while answering these questions. However, you can
follow some rules to make the process of identifying the right answers easy.
Firstly, check and identify the part of the speech (whether it is adjective, adverb, noun, pronoun etc.) in the
sentence. Second, identify the type of sentence (whether the sentence is an interrogative, affirmative, or
negative one). Third, check punctuation errors (and this is going to be the easiest one). Fourth, identify the
subject-verb agreement of the sentence. If you follow these steps, it will become easier for you to answer
these questions.
pg. 56
[Type here]
Q.23) -(c)
Explanation –
In the third part, ‘those’ is used wrongly. Instead, ‘that’ should be used as the noun is singular. To solve the
question of error spotting, you should follow a systematic approach. Firstly, check and identify the part of
the speech (whether it is adjective, adverb, noun, pronoun etc.) in the sentence. Second, identify the type
of sentence (whether the sentence is an interrogative, affirmative, or negative one). Third, check
punctuation errors (and this is going to be the easiest one). Fourth, identify the subject-verb agreement of
the sentence.
Q.24) -(c)
Explanation –
In the third part, the usage of ‘on’ is wrong. Instead, ‘for’ should be used. Grammar is important to clear
the Phase 1 of the exam. You should, firstly, check and identify the part of the speech (whether it is
adjective, adverb, noun, pronoun etc.) in the sentence. Second, identify the type of sentence (whether the
sentence is an interrogative, affirmative, or negative one). Third, check punctuation errors (and this is
going to be the easiest one). Fourth, identify the subject-verb agreement of the sentence. If you follow
these steps, it will become easier for you to answer these questions.
Q.25) -(d)
Explanation –
Instead of ‘served’, ‘serving’ should be used as a present participle, which functions as an adjective
describing "National income”.
Q.26) -(a)
Explanation –
As per the 4th last paragraph, option A is the correct answer. When approaching a reading comprehension
(RC) question, it's advisable to begin by reading the questions first to gain a sense of what specific
information you need to extract from the passage. While reading the questions, jot down keywords on a
rough sheet that capture the essence of each question. This technique can be a time-saver, as it helps you
focus on relevant information while reading the passage and allows you to pinpoint answers more
efficiently. By prepping with this method, you'll be better equipped to navigate the RC and find the
answers swiftly, enhancing your overall comprehension and response accuracy
Q.27) -(c)
Explanation –
As per - “According to the Reserve Bank of India, bridging this substantial funding gap necessitates
allocating 2.5 percent of India's annual GDP to green finance” - lines, option C is correct.
Q.28) -(d)
Explanation –
“Moreover, to achieve the target of net-zero emissions by 2070, a cumulative investment of $10 trillion
would be required, as predicted by the International Financial Services Centres Authority's Expert
Committee on Sustainable Finance”. According to these lines, option D is right.
Q.29) -(a)
Explanation –
As per the 2nd last paragraph, option A is the correct answer. When approaching a reading comprehension
(RC) question, it's advisable to begin by reading the questions first to gain a sense of what specific
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information you need to extract from the passage. By using this method, you'll be better equipped to find
the answers swiftly, enhancing your overall comprehension and response accuracy.
Q.30) -(d)
Explanation –
Option D is the correct answer here. The best way to answer such questions is to replace the highlighted
word or the word asked in the question with each option to assess which one fits best in the context of the
line or paragraph.
Q.31) -(d)
Explanation – The correct sequence is 32514.
(3) Animal husbandry is the branch of agriculture that focuses on the breeding, care, and management of
livestock for various purposes, including food production, transportation, and labor.
(2) It plays a crucial role in meeting the world's demand for meat, milk, and other animal products.
(5) Effective animal husbandry practices involve ensuring the health and welfare of animals, improving
their genetics through selective breeding, and providing appropriate nutrition and housing.
(1) Sustainable and ethical animal husbandry practices are essential for both animal well-being and the
environment.
(4) It's a dynamic field that continues to evolve to meet the growing needs of our global population while
addressing concerns related to animal welfare and environmental sustainability.
Q.32) -(b)
Explanation – The correct sequence is 52431
(5) Financial inclusion is a key component of economic development and social progress.
(2) It refers to the accessibility and affordability of essential financial services, including banking, credit,
insurance, and savings, for all segments of the population, particularly those who are traditionally
underserved or excluded from the formal financial system.
(4) When financial inclusion is achieved, it can empower individuals and communities by providing them
with the tools to save, invest, and protect their assets, ultimately improving their financial well-being.
(3) It also promotes economic stability, entrepreneurship, and poverty reduction.
(1) Governments, financial institutions, and technology companies are working together to expand
financial inclusion through innovative solutions, making it an integral part of global efforts to enhance
economic equality and financial security.
Q.33) -(d)
(4) Ozone depletion refers to the significant reduction of the ozone layer in the Earth's stratosphere,
primarily caused by the release of human-made chemicals known as ozone-depleting substances (ODS),
such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.
(5) The ozone layer plays a crucial role in protecting life on Earth by absorbing the majority of harmful
ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.
(2) The depletion of this protective layer leads to an increase in UV radiation at the Earth's surface, which
can have detrimental effects on human health, causing skin cancer and cataracts, and impacting
ecosystems, including harm to marine life and terrestrial vegetation.
(1) International agreements, like the Montreal Protocol, have successfully reduced the production and use
of ODS, leading to gradual recovery of the ozone layer, demonstrating the importance of global
cooperation in addressing environmental challenges.
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(3) However, continued vigilance is essential to ensure a full recovery and the long-term protection of the
ozone layer.
(6) The concerted global efforts to phase out ozone-depleting substances have demonstrated the positive
impact of international collaboration in addressing environmental challenges.
Q.34) -(c)
(5) Insurance penetration is a measure of the extent to which insurance products are utilized within a
particular population or region.
(2) It reflects the percentage of individuals or businesses that have insurance coverage compared to the
total eligible population.
(1) Higher insurance penetration often signifies a more financially secure and resilient society as it helps
individuals and businesses mitigate financial risks associated with unexpected events, such as accidents,
health issues, or natural disasters.
(4) Improved insurance penetration can also support economic development by providing a safety net for
individuals and facilitating investments by businesses.
(3) Governments and insurers alike are working to increase insurance penetration through public
awareness campaigns, affordable insurance products, and regulatory reforms, recognizing its potential to
enhance financial security and stability on both individual and national levels.
Q.35) -(b)
Explanation – The correct sequence is 42513
(4) The confluence of technological advancements in artificial intelligence and the proliferation of data
analytics has engendered a paradigm shift in various industries.
(2) This transformation has not only led to enhanced operational efficiency and predictive insights but has
also sparked intricate ethical and privacy concerns.
(5) As organizations harness the power of machine learning algorithms and deep learning neural networks,
the need for comprehensive regulatory frameworks to govern data collection, utilization, and retention
becomes increasingly imperative.
(1) Furthermore, the interplay between algorithms and cognitive biases underscores the exigency of ethical
considerations in algorithm design, necessitating the evolution of responsible AI practices to mitigate
inadvertent discrimination and uphold societal values.
(3) In this dynamic landscape, the imperative for interdisciplinary collaboration between technology, legal,
and ethical experts is clear, facilitating the development of holistic solutions to address the multifaceted
challenges emerging from this digital evolution.
Q.36) -(a)
Explanation –
The correct sentence is “As a dance aficionado, she couldn't resist the urge to wriggle to the rhythm of the
music, showcasing her passion for movement and groove on the dance floor.” You should build a strong
vocabulary to clear the competitive exams’ English. For this purpose, you should read editorials from the
newspaper daily. It will not only help in increasing the speed of reading but also aid in enhancing your
vocabulary.
Q.37) -(d)
Explanation –
The correct sentence is “The schlocky horror movie marathon turned into a sloshed fest as we laughed and
cringed our way through cheesy special effects and ridiculous plot twists”. The most fundamental step to
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answer such questions is to build a strong vocabulary and brush up on your grammar. Learn new phrases,
synonyms, antonyms, and idioms every day. And last but not the least advice is ‘practice more’.
Q.38) -(c)
Explanation –
The correct sentence is “His proclivity for collecting rare, unweidly antiques led to a house full of
curiosities, each with its own unique history and charm.” The most fundamental step to answer such
questions is to build a strong vocabulary and brush up on your grammar. Learn new phrases, synonyms,
antonyms, and idioms every day. And last but not the least advice is ‘practice more’.
Q.39) -(b)
Explanation –
The correct sentence is “He was so besotted with the vintage car that he couldn't resist yanking open the
driver's side door to get a closer look, much to the owner's chagrin.”
Q.40) -(e)
Explanation –
The correct sentence is “The fiendish villain issued a peremptory demand for the priceless artifact, leaving
the museum staff with no choice but to comply in the face of his menacing threats”.
The most fundamental step to answer this type of question is to build a strong vocabulary and brush up on
your grammar concepts. Learn new phrases, synonyms, antonyms, and idioms every day. If you don’t know
the exact meaning of the phrases, it will be very difficult for you to find out their correct usage. Learn five
new words daily and practice them. And last but not the least advice is ‘practice more’.
Q.41) -(e)
Explanation –
All the sentences are correct. Hence, option E is the correct answer. The very first thing to consider in such
type of questions is to strengthen your grammatical concepts. If you are not clear with the basics, handling
such questions would be a hard nut to crack for you. Practice as much questions as you can.
Q.42) -(d)
Explanation –
Here, ‘staunch’ is used wrongly. It should have been used as an adverb (‘staunchly’) and not as an
adjective.
Q.43) -(b)
Explanation –
Instead of “convict”, “convicted” should be used. “After being convicted” is a Participial Phrase (being +
V3). The very first thing to consider in such type of questions is to strengthen your grammatical concepts. If
you are not clear with the basics, handling such questions would be a hard nut to crack for you. Practice as
much questions as you can.
Q.44) -(e)
Explanation –
All the sentences are grammatically and contextually correct. The very first thing to consider in such type
of questions is to strengthen your grammatical concepts. If you are not clear with the basics, handling such
questions would be a hard nut to crack for you. Practice as much questions as you can.
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Q.45) -(d)
Explanation –
“Retreat” should be used because the article ‘a’ is mentioned. The very first thing to consider in such type
of questions is to strengthen your grammatical concepts. If you are not clear with the basics, handling such
questions would be a hard nut to crack for you. Practice as much questions as you can.
Q.46) -(a)
Explanation –
Buy A Lemon means buying a vehicle/instrument that gives trouble. A lemon is a purchase that turns out to
be worth far less than believed, and may even end up costing the buyer more than the initial purchase
price. It fits in both the sentences.
Q.47) -(b)
Explanation –
To give a cold shoulder means to ignore or snub someone you know. In both sentences, only option B fits
perfectly. When preparing for vocabulary and phrases, it's beneficial to adopt a multifaceted approach.
Begin by setting a daily routine for expanding your vocabulary and learning new phrases. Make a habit of
noting down unfamiliar words and phrases as you encounter them and then use them in sentences to
reinforce your understanding. Additionally, keep a vocabulary journal, categorizing words and phrases by
theme or subject.
Q.48) -(d)
Explanation –
Option D is the correct answer here. When preparing for vocabulary and phrases, it's beneficial to adopt a
multifaceted approach. Begin by setting a daily routine for expanding your vocabulary and learning new
phrases. Make a habit of noting down unfamiliar words and phrases as you encounter them and then use
them in sentences to reinforce your understanding. Additionally, keep a vocabulary journal, categorizing
words and phrases by theme or subject.
Q.49) -(b)
Explanation –
Option B is the correct answer here.
Q.50) -(a)
Explanation –
Option A is the correct answer here. To get better at words and phrases, try a well-rounded approach.
Make a daily routine for learning new words and sayings. When you bump into words you don't know,
write them down and use them in sentences to help you remember. And keep a special notebook for your
words, sort them by what they're about. It'll make things easier for you.
Q.51) (e)
Explanation:
ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is the most common character encoding
format for text data in computers and on the internet. In standard ASCII-encoded data, there are unique
values for 128 alphabetic, numeric or special additional characters and control codes.
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Q.52) (d)
Explanation:
The functions of the motherboard is to:
• provide a place for other devices or interfaces to be connected to (such as more memory or
another graphics cards)
• distribute power to the various components
• act as a communication hub as the components send and receive information through the
motherboard.
Q.53) (d)
Explanation:
A pie chart helps organize and show data as a percentage of a whole. True to the name, this kind of
visualization uses a circle to represent the whole, and slices of that circle, or “pie”, to represent the specific
categories that compose the whole.
Q.54) (b)
Explanation:
You can switch between tabs in most web browsers by pressing "Ctrl + Tab" to move to the next tab or
"Ctrl + Shift + Tab" to go to the previous one.
Q.55) (c)
Explanation:
With 4 bits, the maximum possible number is binary 1111 or decimal 15.
Q.56) (d)
Explanation:
Dell and Microsoft do not manufacture microprocessors.
Q.57) (c)
Explanation:
USB-C ports are more commonly associated with general-purpose data and power connections, often
found on laptops, smartphones, and various peripheral devices for tasks such as data transfer, charging,
and connecting accessories. Graphics cards typically use dedicated video output ports like HDMI and
DisplayPort for connecting to displays.
Q.58) (a)
Explanation:
Visual effects (VFX) is a term used to describe imagery created, manipulated, or enhanced for any film, or
other moving media that doesn't take place during live-action shooting. VFX often involves the integration
between actual footage and this manipulated imagery to create realistic looking environments for the
context.
Q.59) (b)
Explanation:
The taskbar in a Windows operating system serves as a central hub for launching applications and
managing open windows. It typically appears at the bottom of the screen and provides quick access to the
Start menu, system notifications, and the system tray.
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Q.60) (c)
Explanation:
Laser printers are the preferred choice in office environments due to their efficiency, speed, quality, and
cost-effectiveness for handling the printing needs of businesses and organizations.
Q.61) (e)
Explanation:
BIOS (basic input/output system) is the program a computer's microprocessor uses to start the computer
system after it is powered on. It also manages data flow between the computer's operating system (OS)
and attached devices, such as the hard disk, video adapter, keyboard, mouse and printer.
Q.62) (c)
Explanation:
Methods to Turn on Windows lock screen:
• Method 1 - Press the Windows key and the L key simultaneously to activate the lock screen
(Windows + L).
• Method 2 - Hold down Ctrl, Alt, and Del simultaneously (Ctrl + Alt + Del). Several options will display
on the screen. Press Lock to activate the lock screen.
Q.63) (a)
Explanation:
In Windows, pressing Ctrl + Alt + Delete brings up the Task Manager, which allows you to view and manage
running processes and applications. You can use it to close unresponsive programs, monitor system
performance, and more.
Q.64) (d)
Explanation:
When you browse privately, other people who use the device won't see your history. Chrome doesn't save
your browsing history or information entered in forms. Cookies and site data are remembered while you're
browsing, but deleted when you exit Incognito mode.
Q.65) (b)
Explanation:
In incognito mode, your IP address is still visible to others. The means that your internet service provider,
the websites you have visited, your school, employer, or government agencies can still track your browsing
activity.
Q.66) (b)
Explanation:
A graphical user interface (GUI) is a digital interface in which a user interacts with graphical components
such as icons, buttons, and menus. In a GUI, the visuals displayed in the user interface convey information
relevant to the user, as well as actions that they can take.
Q.67) (c)
Explanation:
A firewall primarily monitors and controls network traffic to protect a network or device from
unauthorized access and potential security threats.
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Q.68) (b)
Explanation:
File Explorer is a file browser that helps you access, view and manage all the files stored on your computer.
Q.69) (a)
Explanation:
CC stands for “carbon copy”. BCC stands for “blind carbon copy.” Just like CC, BCC is a way of sending
copies of an email to other people. The difference between the two is that, while you can see a list of
recipients when CC is used, that’s not the case with BCC. It’s called blind carbon copy because the other
recipients won’t be able to see that someone else has been sent a copy of the email.
Q.70 (e)
Explanation:
Parental controls don't change the games you see in the Play Games app, including games you've bought
or recommended games. If you try to install a game using the Play Games app, you'll be taken to the Play
Store app where your parental controls settings may restrict access.
Q.71) (b)
Explanation:
Required difference = 152 – 44 = 108
Q.72) (c)
Explanation:
Required ratio = 96 : 102 = 16 : 17
Q.73) (d)
Explanation:
Average number of male employees in B and D = (68 + 96) / 2 = 82

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Average number of female employees in C and E = (38 + 176) / 2 = 107

Required difference = 107 – 82 = 25
Q.74) (a)
Explanation:
Female employees in companies D and E = 64 + 176 = 240

Male employees in companies B and C = 68 + 152 = 220
Required percentage = ((240 – 220) / 220) x 100 = 9.09%
Q.75) (e)
Explanation:
Total number of male employees = 465

Total number of female employees = 415
Required ratio = 465 : 415 = 93 : 83
Q.76 (a)
Explanation:
The pattern is as follows:
15 x 1.5 = 22.5
22.5 / 2.5 = 9
9 x 3.5 = 31.5
31.5 / 4.5 = 7
7 x 5.5 = 38.5
Q.77) (c)
Explanation:
3 + 13 = 4
4 + 22 = 8
8 + 33 = 35
35 + 42 = 51
51 + 53 = 176
176 + 62 = 212
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Q.78) (b)
Explanation:
5 x 2 + 1 = 11
11 x 3 + 2 = 35
35 x 4 + 3 = 143
143 x 5 + 4 = 719
719 x 6 + 5 = 4319
Q.79) (d)
Explanation:
8 x 2 + 1 = 17
17 x 4 + 2 = 70
70 x 6 + 3 = 423
423 x 8 + 4 = 3388
3388 x 10 + 5 = 33885
Q.80) (e)
Explanation:
Roots of equation I:
x = (-b ± √(b2 – 4ac)) / 2a
x = (-1 ± √(1 + 288)) / 12
x = (-1 ± √289) / 12
x = (-1 ± 17) / 12
x = 16/12, -18/12
x = 4/3, -3/2
Roots of equation II:
y = (-b ± √(b2 – 4ac)) / 2a
y = (7 ± √(49 + 32)) / 4
y = (7 ± √81) / 4
y = 16/4, -2/4
y = 4; -1/2
So, there is no relation between x and y.
Q.81) (d)
Explanation:
3x2 – 22x + 40 = 0
3x2 – 12x – 10x + 40 = 0
3x(x – 4) – 10(x – 4) = 0
(x – 4)(3x – 10) = 0
x = 4, 10/3
2y2 – 19y + 44 = 0
2y2 – 8y – 11y + 44 = 0
2y(y – 4) – 11(y – 4) = 0
(2y – 11)(y – 4) = 0
y = 4, 11/2
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So, x ≤ y
Q.82) (e)
Explanation:
x = (-b ± √(b2 – 4ac)) / 2a
x = (-8 ± √(64 + 336)) / 8
x = (-8 ± √400) / 8
x = (-8 ± 20) / 8
x = - 28/8; 12/8
x = - 3.5; 1.5
y = (-b ± √(b2 – 4ac)) / 2a
y = (8 ± √(64 + 720)) / 8
y = (8 ± √784) / 8
y = (8 ± 28) / 8
y = - 20/8; 36/8
y = - 2.5; 4.5
So, no relation can be established between x and y.
Q.83) (e)
Explanation:
7x2 – 2x – 24 = 0
7x2 – 14x + 12x – 24 = 0
7x(x – 2) + 12(x – 2) = 0
(7x + 12)(x – 2) = 0
x = 2, -12/7
5y2 + 6y – 27 = 0
5y2 + 15y – 9y – 27 = 0
5y(y + 3) – 9(y + 3) = 0
(y + 3)(5y – 9) = 0
y = -3, 9/5
Hence, no relation can be established between x and y.
Q.84) (d)
Explanation:
Let the amount invested by Nihal be Y
Let Mitali invested for N months
Then amount invested by Mohan = (85000 – Y)
Profit ratio = Y x 4 : (85000 – Y) x 6 : 17000 x N
2 : 3 : 4 = 4Y : (85000 – Y) x 6 : 17000N
4Y / (85000 – Y)6 = 2/3
12Y = 12(85000 – Y)
Y = 42500 = amount invested by Nihal
Amount invested by Mohan = 85000 – Y = 42500
Profit ratio between Mohan and Mitali = 3 : 4
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42500 x 6 : 17000 x N = 3 : 4
255000/17000N = 3/4
1020000 = 51000N
N = 20 months
Q.85) (d)
Explanation:
Let the present age of A be A years
Let the present age of B be B years
Let the present age of C be C years
A – 8 = A/2 + 10
A/2 = 18
A = 36 years
(A – 6)/(B – 3) = 5/3
(36 – 6)/(B – 3) = 5/3
90 = 5B – 15
B = 21 years
(B + 3)/(C + 3) = 1/2
(21 + 3)/(C + 3) = 1/2
48 = C + 3
C = 45
Required average = (36 + 21 + 45) / 3 = 34 years
Q.86) (d)
Explanation:
Total cost price = 2400 x 280 = 672000
80% of 2400 = 1920
Let the marked price be M
1920 x M = 672000 x 1.2
M = Rs 420
New selling price = 420 x 1950 = 819000
Profit = 819000 – 672000 = 147000
Profit% = 147000/672000 x 100 = 21.875%
Q.87) (b)
Explanation:
In 2 years, 8% compounded is equivalent to 8 + 8 + (8 x 8)/100 = 16.64%
In 2 years, 10% compounded is equivalent to 10 + 10 + (10 x 10)/100 = 21%
Now, let amount invested in scheme A be Rs. P and in scheme B be Rs. (33000 – P)
(16.64% of P) + (21% of (33000 – P)) = 6276
P = Rs 15000
Q.88) (b)
Explanation:
The quantity of mixture in vessel C before mixing of 15 litres of milk = 78 – 15 = 63
Quantity of milk in vessel C = 63/7 x 5 = 45
Quantity of water in vessel C = 63/7 x 2 = 18
Quantity of milk in vessel A = X = 45 x 100/75 = 60
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Quantity of water in vessel B = Y = 18 x 100/40 = 45

Required ratio = X : Y = 60 : 45 = 4 : 3
Q.89) (d)
Explanation:
Let the number of men employed initially be N
Since half of the work was completed in 30 days, the whole work will take 60 days to complete.
So, Total work = 60 x N = 60N
(N + 20) x 20 / 60N = 1/2
60N = 2 x 20 x (N + 20)
60N = 40N + 800
20N = 800
N = 40
Q.90) (a)
Explanation:
Let the speed of car be Y
Then, speed of train = 6Y/5
Time taken by car to travel 150 km = 150/Y
Time taken by train to travel 150 km = 150/(6Y/5) + 25/60 = 125/Y + 5/12
150/Y = 125/Y + 5/12
25/Y = 5/12
Y = 60
Speed of train = 6 x 60 / 5 = 72
Required time = 324/72 = 4.5 hours
Q.91) (c)
Explanation –
The topic Pareto analysis was asked both in shift 1 and shift 2 of the NABARD examination. It proves examiner
can ask questions about the same topic in both shifts. If you know the basics of Pareto Analysis, then it would
be easy to answer the question.
Pareto analysis helps to allocate resources to address the most critical issues. Pareto analysis assists in
prioritizing resources to focus on the most important problems or opportunities.
Q.92) (e)
Explanation –
The topic Rational decision-making model is important for the examination. This is a conceptual-based
question. This is an easy-level question.
Establishing decision criteria before searching for alternatives helps prevent the bias of favouring a specific
option and setting criteria to match that option, as illustrated by the example of bonding with a car's style
and then adjusting criteria accordingly.
Q.93) (c)
Explanation –
As I stated earlier, biases form an important topic for the examination. And this question is from personal
bias and sub-topic anchoring. "Anchoring" refers to the tendency for individuals to rely too heavily on a single
piece of information when making decisions.
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Q.94) (c)
Explanation –
As I stated earlier, biases form an important topic for the examination. Confirmation bias can limit exposure
to diverse viewpoints and hinder critical thinking by favouring information that supports pre-existing beliefs.
Q.95) (b)
Explanation –
This question is from an important topic which is the bounded rationality model. As I stated earlier as well it
is one of the most important topics in Decision Making.
According to the bounded rationality model, individuals limit their options to a manageable set, recognizing
the limitations of conducting an exhaustive search.
Q.96) (c)
Explanation –
Techniques of decision making is one of the most important topics of decision-making, be it nominal
decision-making technique or Delphi technique. If you know the basics of the Delphie Technique then it will
be a piece of cake for you to answer this question. The Delphi Technique is unique in that it utilizes written
responses to questionnaires instead of bringing individuals together physically for decision-making.
Q.97) (e)
Explanation –
This is a factual based question. Majority rule refers to a decision-making rule where each member of the
group is given a single vote, and the option that receives the greatest number of votes is selected.
Q.98) (d)
Explanation –
As I stated earlier, biases form an important topic for the examination and the same in this question too. The
Conservatism bias can make an investor resistant to updating their beliefs or forecasts, even when new
information suggests a change is warranted.
Q.99) (d)
Explanation –
As I stated earlier, biases form an important topic for the examination and the same in this question too.
Conservatism bias can make an investor resistant to updating their beliefs or forecasts, even when new
information suggests a change is warranted.
Q.100) (c)
Explanation –
This question is from techniques of decision-making. Unlike traditional brainstorming, starbursting
emphasizes generating questions rather than solutions.
Q.101) – A
Explanation – This question falls under the category of static general awareness, making it imperative to
include in your preparation. To tackle static general awareness, you can refer to resources like Lucent's
book, Manorama's yearbook, and more. It's crucial to bear in mind that consistent revision is key to
retaining a wealth of factual information.
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Q.102) – B
Explanation – This is a sports question. It's important to cover major sports’ events thoroughly. A well-
rounded understanding of the background information related to sports news is important to tackle such
questions.
Q.103) – C
Explanation – This question is related to defense news and is quite straightforward. It's essential to be well-
informed about the defense exercises conducted prior to the examination. These exercises are not only
part of current events but also fall under general knowledge. Hence, it's not guaranteed that only recently
conducted exercises will be inquired in the exam. The examiner may also ask about various defense
exercises conducted by India. Therefore, it's advisable to familiarize yourself with all the exercises carried
out by the Indian armed forces. The list of Indian exercises can be found on the PIB website.
Q.104) – D
Explanation – This is a company-specific question. All the company-specific news released during the six
months prior to the exam date are important. For covering such news, you can rely on Spotlight magazine
which is tailor-made for banking exams only or you can choose newspapers or any other magazine as well.
But make sure that you don’t choose multiple sources because that will land you in trouble.
Q.105) – A
Explanation – It belongs to the international current affairs. Such questions are covered in the Spotlight
magazine. You can cover such types of news from different newspaper. Whichever source you choose,
always remember that you have to do multiple revisions to retain the facts.
Q.106) – B
Explanation – This question is from the national news. Covering news like legislations are important. Every
news before the exam is important.
Q.107) – E
Explanation – This is a defence-related basic question. Through this question, we have observed that the
direct questions from the defence section are often asked in the exam. This is a very easy question which
can be solved by guesswork as well.
Q.108) – A
Explanation – As India's space industry continues to flourish, it's evident that questions related to this field
will feature prominently in various examinations. To excel in such exams, it's crucial to stay informed about
key developments in the Indian space program, including missions, satellite launches, and international
collaborations.
Additionally, historical knowledge of India's space achievements is essential. Recognizing the global
significance of India's space endeavors, understanding emerging technologies and their applications, and
grasping the geopolitical implications are valuable aspects of preparation.
Q.109) – C
Explanation – This question is the evidence of how high the level of difficulty is in this examination. Prepare
the background information of the news.
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Q.110) – B
Explanation – Geography questions have become a consistent feature in various examinations, including
those conducted by institutions like RBI, SEBI, and NABARD. It's essential to prioritize the study of
fundamental geographical concepts, particularly those currently making headlines, as they often play a
significant role in these exams.
Q.111) – E
Explanation – Given the importance of government programs, it's advisable to keep a keen eye on official
announcements, policy changes, and new schemes. When you come across a new initiative, take time to
understand its objectives, scope, and implications. Furthermore, make it a part of your study routine to
review and consolidate information on government initiatives, as they can carry significant weight in
various examinations. By staying well-informed about these programs, you enhance your preparedness to
tackle questions related to government initiatives in exams.
Q.112) – C
Explanation – Static general awareness questions assess your foundational knowledge, concentrating on
fundamental concepts. Engaging in regular revision and in-depth understanding of key facts and principles
not only boosts your exam performance but also strengthens your grasp of fundamental ideas. Therefore,
it's advisable for students to allocate time to study and revisit such topics, ensuring a strong and lasting
understanding.
Q.113) – A
Explanation – This question might appear as a current affairs question but it is not so. It is rather a static GK
question, which aims to check your knowledge base. So, always remember to look for the background facts
related to the news to get good marks in the exam.
Q.114) – B
Explanation – New platforms, portals, initiatives are always important. This is a very simple and direct
question which has been asked from the banking and economy section. The only solution to tackle such
questions is to cover such news and revise them again and again.
Q.115) – D
Explanation – Geography questions have become a consistent feature in various examinations, including
those conducted by institutions like RBI, SEBI, and NABARD. It's essential to prioritize the study of
fundamental geographical concepts, particularly those currently making headlines, as they often play a
significant role in these exams. This question is a bit easy because in the question, you have been given the
name - Auroras - of the phenomenon in the Northern Hemisphere.
Q.116) – E
Explanation – This is not a current affairs question. Rather, it is a question to check your knowledge on a
broad level. So, reading newspapers and developing awareness about the things going around you is
general awareness and this is only tested through such questions. If you are not able to make a guess,
don’t attempt this question as you have negative marking as well
Q.117) – D
Explanation – This is a question which has been asked directly from the government schemes. In this
question, we have observed that the direct questions are often asked in the exam. These types of direct
and short sentenced questions do not leave scope of any hint or guess work. So, the best strategy to tackle
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such questions is to leave them because you have negative marking in the exam. Taking such a risk can cost
you a lot.
Q.118) – C
Explanation – It is a state-specific current affairs’ question. Many questions are asked from the state
current affairs. So, make sure that you prepare the state-specific current affairs thoroughly. Such types of
news are covered in Spotlight.
Q.119) – A
Explanation – This question is related to specific banks. For covering such news, you can rely on Spotlight
magazine which is tailor-made for banking exams only or you can choose newspapers or any other
magazine as well. But make sure that you don’t choose multiple sources because that will land you in
trouble.
Q.120) – D
Explanation – This is a question which has been asked directly from the government schemes. In this
question, we have observed that the direct questions are most often asked in the exam. These types of
direct and short sentenced questions do not leave any scope of any hint or guess work. So, the best
strategy to tackle such questions is to leave them because you have negative marking in the exam. Taking
such a risk can cost you a lot.
Q.121) (c)
About Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
• It was launched in 2015-16 to enhance physical access of water on farm and expand cultivable area
under assured irrigation, improve on-farm water use efficiency, introduce sustainable water
conservation practices, etc.
• It consists of two major components being implemented by Ministry of Jal Shakti, namely,
▪ Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme
▪ Har Khet Ko Pani (consisting of four sub-components)
❖ Command Area Development & Water Management
❖ Surface Minor Irrigation
❖ Repair, Renovation and Restoration (RRR) of Water Bodies
❖ Ground Water (GW) Development (approval only till 2021-2022, and thereafter only for
ongoing works).
• In addition, PMKSY also consists of Watershed Development Component - implemented by
Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development.
• Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) component: It was also component of PMKSY from 2015 to 2022.
▪ Now it is now being implemented separately by Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Q.122) (e)
About Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP)
• It is Centrally Sponsored Scheme, envisages comprehensive development of identified villages in 46
blocks abutting northern border in 19 districts of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
Uttarakhand and UT of Ladakh.
• It includes both components of Central Sector Schemes as well as Centrally Sponsored Schemes
in the identified focused areas of intervention for creation of opportunities for livelihood
generation through promotion of tourism & cultural heritage, skill development &
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entrepreneurship and development of cooperative societies including agriculture/horticulture,

cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs etc.
• The interventions also include providing road connectivity to unconnected villages, housing &
village infrastructure, energy including renewable energy, television & telecom connectivity.
Q.123) (e)
• PMFBY aims at providing financial support to farmers suffering crop loss/damage arising out of
natural calamities like hailstorm, drought, floods, cyclones, heavy and unseasonal rains, attack of
disease and pests etc.
• It is the third largest crop insurance scheme in the world in terms of premium.
• It envisages to cover maximum number of farmers in the ambit of crop insurance by providing
comprehensive risk coverage from pre-sowing to post-harvest losses.
• Risks covered: Following risks leading to crop loss are to be covered under the scheme:
▪ YIELD LOSSES (standing crops, on notified area basis): Comprehensive risk insurance is provided
to cover yield losses due to non-preventable risks, such as
❖ Natural Fire and Lightning
❖ Storm, Hailstorm, Cyclone, Typhoon, Tempest, Hurricane, Tornado etc.
❖ Flood, Inundation and Landslide
❖ Drought, Dry spells
❖ Pests/ Diseases etc.
Q.124) (c)
About National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)
• Objective: To motivate farmers to adopt chemical free farming and enhance the reach of natural
farming
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
• It is separate and independent scheme from 2023-24 formulated by up scaling the Bhartiya
Prakritik Krishi Paddati (BPKP).
• It seeks to bring behavioral change in farmers to shift from chemical based inputs to cow based
locally produced inputs and thus requires continuous creation of awareness, training, handholding
and capacity building of farmers in the initial years.
• It has budgetary provision of Rs 459.00 crores for 2023-24.
Q.125) (a)
Seven priorities of the budget ‘Saptarishi’ are: Inclusive development, reaching the last mile, infrastructure
and investment, unleashing the potential, green growth, youth power and financial sector.
Q.126) (d)
Khadi and Village Industries (KVI): All loans to units in the KVI sector will be eligible for classification under
the sub-target of 7.5 percent prescribed for Micro Enterprises under priority sector.
Q.127) (b)
About Self-Help Group Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP)
• It is an initiative in India that aims to provide financial services to self-help groups (SHGs) through
formal banking channels.
• It was launched in 1992 by the NABARD with the objective of promoting financial inclusion and
empowering women in rural areas.
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Q.128) (e)
Key Features of Bill
• It has broadened the scope of the Act by inserting a Preamble.
• It has changed the name of Act to Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980 to reflect
the potential of its provisions.
• The Act, which was initially applied to notified forest land, was later extended to revenue forest
land and lands recorded as forest in government records.
• The amendments seek to streamline the application of the Act to recorded forest lands, private
forest lands, plantations, etc.
• It has proposed certain exemptions to encourage afforestation and plantation outside forests.
Q.129) (c)
Beneficiaries of PM-DAKSH Scheme with respective income criteria
• Persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes
• Other Backward Classes having annual family income below Rs. 3 Lakhs
• Economically Backward Classes having annual family income below Rs. 1 lakh
• De-Notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribe
• Transgender community
• Safai Karamcharis (including waste pickers) and their dependents
Q.130) (b)
About PM-PRANAM
• PRANAM stands for PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of
Mother Earth
• Its objective to incentivise the States and UTs to promote usage of alternative fertilizers and
balanced use of chemical fertilizers.
Q.131) (e)
About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan’ (PM-AASHA)
• Objective: To ensure remunerative prices to farmers for their produce and protect them from price
fluctuations.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
• Components/Sub-Scheme
▪ Price Support Scheme: It aims to provide minimum support price (MSP) to farmers for selected
crops.
▪ Price Deficiency Payment Scheme: It ensures that farmers receive the MSP for their crops even
if the market price falls below the MSP.
▪ Pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Scheme: It allows private companies to procure
crops directly from farmers at the MSP.
✓ It also seeks to provide an additional marketing channel to farmers and increase
competition in the procurement process.
Q.132) (a)
• Objective: To provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all houseless households and
households living in kutcha and dilapidated house in rural areas by 2024.
• Financial Assistance:
▪ Plain Areas: Rs. 1,20,000 per unit
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▪ Hilly areas, difficult areas, and IAP districts (Himalayan states, North-Eastern states, and
Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir): Rs. 1,30,000 per unit
• Beneficiaries are identified using the "Housing Deprivation Parameters" from the Socio-Economic
and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, further verified by the Gram Sabhas.
Q.133) (b)
The limit on ceiling for guarantees under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro and Small Enterprises
(CGS) has been enhanced from Rs. 2 crores to Rs. 5 crores.
Q.134) (d)
Sub – Schemes under DAY – NRLM
• Aajeevika Gramin Express Yojana
• Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana
• Start – Up village entrepreneurship program
• National Rural Livelihood projects
Q.135) (e)
About Gramodyog Vikas Yojana
• Objective: To promote and develop the village industries through common facilities, technological
modernization, training etc.
• Launh Year: 2020
• It is one of the two components of the Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana which is a Central Sector
Scheme (CSS).
• Activities included
▪ Agro-Based & Food Processing Industry
▪ Mineral-Based Industry
▪ Wellness & Cosmetics Industry
▪ Handmade Paper, Leather & Plastic Industry
▪ Rural Engineering & New Technology Industry
▪ Service Industry
Q.136) (c)
Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)
• It was launched in 2014 to achieve an open defecation free (ODF) India in five years.
• This progressed the country towards SDG 6.2, which aims for adequate and equitable sanitation
access for all, especially for women and girl.
Q.137) (e)
About Aspirational Block Program
• Objective: To improve performance of blocks lagging on various development parameters.
• Background: It was announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman during her Budget (2022-
23) speech.
• It is on the lines of the Aspirational District Programme that was launched in 2018 and covered 112
districts across the country.
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• It will take the aspirational district model up to block level and will enable holistic development in
those areas that require added assistance.
• Coverage: It will cover 500 districts across 31 States/UTs initially.
▪ Over half of these blocks are in 6 states—Uttar Pradesh (68 blocks), Bihar (61), Madhya Pradesh
(42), Jharkhand (34), Odisha (29) and West Bengal (29).
Q.138) (a)
• India's per capita net national income (at current prices) for 2022- 23 stands at Rs. 1,72,000,
according to estimates from the National Statistical Office (NSO).
Q.139) (e)
About Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY)
• Objective: To facilitate easy collateral-free micro credit of up to Rs. 10 lakhs to non-corporate, non-
farm small and micro entrepreneurs for income generating activities.
• Launch Year: 2015
• The loans under it are provided by Member Lending Institutions, i.e., Banks, Non-Banking Financial
Companies, Micro Finance Institutions and other financial intermediaries.
Q.140) (e)
Objectives of PMMSY
• Harness the potential of the fisheries sector in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive, and equitable
manner
• Enhance fish production and productivity through expansion, intensification, diversification, and
productive utilization of land and water
• Modernize and strengthen the value chain including post-harvest management and quality
improvement
• Double fishers and fish farmers’ incomes and generate meaningful employment
• Enhance the contribution of the fisheries sector to Agricultural GVA and exports
• Ensure social, physical, and economic security for fishers and fish farmers
• Build a robust fisheries management and regulatory framework
Q.141) (b)
About Swacchta Udyami Yojana
• Objective: To provide concessional loan for viable community toilet projects and sanitation related
vehicles to collect the garbage
• Launch Year: 2018
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• Under it, entrepreneurs among safai karmacharis and identified manual scavengers can avail loan
upto defined ceiling at concessional rate of interest @ 4% per annum.
▪ In case of women beneficiaries, there is a rebate of 1% in the rate of interest charged
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Q.142) (a)
About SFURTI Scheme
• Objective: To establish the traditional artisans and industries into clusters in order to support them
towards competitive for long- term sustainability goals.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of MSME
• Implementing Agency: KVIC
• Traditional industries under it have been broadly categorized as
▪ Khadi Industries
▪ Village Industries
▪ Coir Industries
Q.143) (e)
• In the light of the National Education Policy, RUSA (Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan) Scheme
has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM- USHA) in 2023.
▪ RUSA was launched in 2013 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aiming at providing strategic
funding to higher education institutions throughout the country.
• It focuses on:
▪ Equity Access and inclusion in higher education
▪ Developing Quality Teaching & Learning processes
▪ Accreditation of non-accredited Institutions and improving accreditation
▪ ICT – based Digital Infrastructure
▪ Enhancing Employability through Multidisciplinary
Q.144) (d)
• According to AISHE 2020-2, enrolment in higher education has increased to 4.14 crore, crossing the
4-crore mark for first time; increase of 7.5% from 2019-20 (3.85 crores) and 21% from 2014-15.
Q.145) (c)
• India’s sex ratio (females per 1,000 males) is expected to improve to 952 by 2036, up significantly
from 943 in 2011.
▪ The sex ratio at birth went up by three points to 907 in 2018-20 from 904 in 2017-19.
Q.146) (c)
• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojna- National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), Ministry of Rural
Development launched eSARAS mobile App to market products made by women of Self-help
Groups.
• It is an e-commerce mobile app for marketing of the products made by women of self-help groups.
• It has been conceptualized for marketing of the best, authentic handicrafts and hand-looms.
• It will process, package and ship products purchased through the eSARAS Portal and eSARAS mobile
App, eSARAS fulfillment centre
Q.147) (e)
• Amrit Dharohar Scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24.
• It will promote conservation values of wetland ecosystem.
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• It will be implemented over the next three years

• It will encourage optimal use of wetlands, and enhance bio-diversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism
opportunities and income generation for local communities
Q.148) (c)
About LAKHPATIDIDIs
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day speech 2023 has announced
that Government is working with Women’s SHGs with the aim of creating 2 Crore ‘Lakhpati
Didis’ in villages.
• They are Self-Help Group Didis who earn sustainable income of at least Rs one Lakh per
annum per Household.
Q.149) (e)
About Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)
• Objectives:
▪ To supplement agriculture
▪ To create processing and preservation capacities
▪ To modernise and expand existing food processing units with a view to increasing
▪ the level of processing
▪ To add value leading to the reduction of wastage
• It is a Central Sector Umbrella Scheme.
• Launh Year: 2017
• It provides mostly credit linked financial assistance (capital subsidy) in the form of grants-in-aid to
entrepreneurs for setting up of food processing/preservation industries.
• It provides grants-in-aid ranging from 35% to 75% of the eligible project cost subject to a maximum
specified limit is provided
Q.150) (c)
About Janani Suraksha Yojana
• It is a centrally sponsored scheme which is being implemented with the objective of reducing
maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery among pregnant women.
• Under it, eligible pregnant women are entitled for cash assistance irrespective of the age of mother
and number of children for giving birth in a government or accredited private health facility.
• It focuses on poor pregnant woman with a special dispensation for states that have low
institutional delivery rates i.e Low Performing States (LPS) and rest are High Performing states
(HPS).
▪ LPS states are Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Assam, Rajasthan, Orissa, and Jammu and Kashmir.
Q.151) (b)
• Government has introduced a special one-time Amnesty Scheme under the Foreign Trade Policy
2023 to address default on Export Obligations.
• It is in line with "Vivaad se Vishwaas" initiative, which sought to settle tax disputes amicably.
Q.152) (e)
Features of underdeveloped economy are
• Low per capita income
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• Low living standards

• High Unemployment
• Low productivity
Q.153) (d)
• The Advisory Board for Financial Inclusion Fund (FIF) is a committee that oversees the allocation
and management of funds for financial inclusion initiatives.
• In its 30th meeting, it has approved the fresh one-time grant support up to a maximum of Rs. 4.50
lakh (all inclusive) per RSETI/RUDSETI from FIF for purchase of training equipment and maintenance
thereof.
Q.154) (b)
• In order to address the problems faced by infrastructure sector and to give a boost to housing
sector, Reserve Bank of India has come out with different fund raising and lending structure specific
to these sectors.
• Under this new set of norms of borrowing the funds from public and lending to specific sector, RBI
has permitted banks to issue long-term bonds with a minimum maturity of 7 years to raise
resources for lending to
▪ Long term projects in infrastructure sub-sectors
▪ Affordable housing.
Q.155) (a)
• Recognizing the importance of FPOs in the agricultural landscape, Ministry of Agriculture and
Farmer’s Welfare has launched a Central Sector Scheme “Formation and Promotion of 10,000
Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)” to address the challenges faced by the FPOs.
• Under this Scheme, a Credit Guarantee Fund for FPOs with a corpus of Rs. 1000 crore with equal
contribution from GoI and NABARD has been setup with GoI as the Settlor and NABSanrakshan as
the Trustee.
Q.156) (a)
• Warehouse Construction Subsidy Scheme, also known as the Gramin Bhandaran Yojana, is a capital
investment scheme from the Indian government.
• Objective: To help farmers in rural areas enhance their storage capacity through the construction of
godowns.
• It is operated under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
• With this scheme, the government hopes to provide farmers with subsidies for the construction,
renovation, and repair of warehouses.
Q.157 (c)
Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU)
• It facilitates credit access to micro and small enterprises (MSEs). It provides a credit guarantee
cover for loans extended to MSEs by eligible lending institutions.
• Under it, eligible MSE borrowers can avail collateral-free credit facilities up to a certain limit.
• The credit facility can be in the form of term loans or working capital loans.
• It encourages lenders to provide credit to MSEs by providing a credit guarantee cover for a portion
of the loan amount.
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Q.158) (c)
• There is no provision of purchase of land under Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana to
beneficiaries
Q.159) (c)
About Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
• Objective: To protect and promote public health by ensuring the safety and quality of food.
• Parent Ministry: It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Ministry of Health &
Family Welfare.
• Functions: It is responsible for setting standards for food products and regulating their
manufacturing, processing, distribution, sale, and import to ensure the availability of safe and
wholesome food for human consumption.
• It operates under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidates various acts and
orders that have hitherto handled food-related issues in various ministries and departments.
Q.160) (e)
• As per the Government of India has notified Public Procurement Policy, a sub-target of 4% out of
25% target of annual procurement is earmarked for procurement from MSEs owned by SC/ST
entrepreneurs.
• National SC-ST Hub Scheme is being implemented by the National Small Industries Corporation
(NSIC), a public sector undertaking under the administrative control of the Ministry of MSME.
Q.161) (e)
Explanation-
This is a straight question that is again testing your conceptual clarity. This is a simple and technical question
that demands your understanding of animal husbandry terms. Understanding deep meaning of animal
husbandry concepts and terms makes ARD a HARD NUT to crack. The game of clearing government exams is
not reliant on you answering everything. It’s dependent on you answering ENOUGH NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
CORRECTLY. For that concepts are very important, and every student should have edge in technical and
concepts related to ARD topics.
Q.162) (a)
Explanation-
The different agencies are involved in-

• The APEDA, Ministry of Commerce & Industries, Government of India is implementing the National
Programme for Organic Production (NPOP). The programme involves the accreditation of
Certification Bodies, standards for organic production, promotion of organic farming and marketing
etc.
• FSSAI- It is an autonomous statutory body that maintains food safety and standards in India.
• The National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB) undertakes assessment of
Certification, Validation & Verification and Inspection Bodies applying for accreditation as per the
applicable international standards and guidelines.
• FCI- Maintenance of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure continued supply of
essential food supply. Regulation of market price for foodgrains so that the population can get them
at an affordable price.
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• FSMS- Food Safety Management System (FSMS) is a program that aims to prevent food safety hazards
from causing adverse health effects on consumers.
Q.163) (c)
Explanation-
You can answer such technical questions only if you regularly go through Current Affairs as well. Even then,
being able to read, remember and recall such facts is a remote possibility. Do not worry. Majority students
don’t remember such facts. Yet it is difficult question.
You DON’T HAVE TO try to answer what everyone else can also not answer. The game of clearing government
exams is not reliant on you answering everything. It’s dependent on you answering ENOUGH NUMBER OF
QUESTIONS CORRECTLY.
For that to happen, focus on the important facts and you will be through. We will be able to better
understand this conclusion when we analyse all questions below.
Q.164) (b)
Explanation-
This is a straight question that is again testing your conceptual clarity. Again, we cannot let these questions
slip out of our hands. These questions are opportunities and not threats. Make sure that you are not
leaving out conceptual questions. Facts, terms, definitions and statements with conceptual touch should be
revised regularly. This will help you to retain such static knowledge in exam hall.
In ARD subject, every serious candidate has to read a lot of conceptual content and also revise it regularly.
Often students have “FEAR PSYCHOSIS” related to ARD subject because of lot of static and facts
bombarded on them.
But let me give you a different perspective, now NO ONE knows which questions are asked regarding facts,
schemes in ESI and ARD subjects. But every year conceptual questions are “SURELY” asked in NABARD
exam.
Both in Phase 1 and 2, concepts from ARD will be the “GAME CHANGERS”. Even toppers confirm this. So “IF
CONCEPTS ARE CLEAR, NO FEAR”. I hope you got the strategy here.
Q.165) (d)
Explanation-
• The exosphere is the outermost layer of the atmosphere (that is, it is the upper limit of the
atmosphere) and extends from the exobase, which is located at the top of the thermosphere.
• The atoms and molecules are so far apart that they can travel hundreds of kilometers without
colliding with one another. Thus, the exosphere no longer behaves like a gas, and the particles
constantly escape into space. The exosphere contains most of the satellites orbiting Earth.
This is a straight question that is again testing your conceptual clarity. Again, we cannot let these questions
slip out of our hands. These questions are opportunities and not threats. Make sure that you are not
leaving out conceptual questions.
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Q.166) (b)
Explanation-
A very generic question from Horticulture. Such scientific names should be learned for major crops. This is
basic in ARD syllabus. Hence cover the important topics in syllabus. These questions are not threat but
rather an opportunity. Terms related to scientific name and family of all the crops can be learned by
memorizing again and any candidate can rote learn which we call “RATTA-FICATION” and such terms
indeed should be covered in your syllabus.
Pisum sativum- Pea

Vigna unguinculata- Cowpea
Momordica charantia- Bitter gourd
Allium sativum- Garlic
Solanum melongena- Brinjal
Q.167) (a)
Explanation-
• Terracing is a soil conservation practice applied to prevent rainfall runoff on sloping land from
accumulating and causing serious erosion. Terraces consist of ridges and channels constructed
across-the-slope.
• Contour bunding is a land management practice for marginal, sloping, and hilly land where the soil
productivity is very low. This technique helps to capture and hold rainfall before it can become
runoff.
• Conservation tillage means any minimal tillage system that leaves sufficient crop residue to cover the
soil surface by at least 30%.
• Strip cropping involves planting crops in strips across the slope, with alternate strips of grain and/or
forage crops.
• Crop rotation is the practice of planting different crops sequentially on the same plot of land to
improve soil health, optimize nutrients in the soil, and combat pest and weed pressure.
It was a simple definition-based question that can be attempted very easily if you are aware of each term.
Q.168) (a)
Explanation-
Sandy soil has the lowest water holding capacity because they have coarse particles with big gaps between
them. Thus, a large amount of water and nutrients easily pass through the particles of sandy soil.
This is again an easy question. Basically, such questions fall in the category of “Low hanging fruit”. COME
ON, if we are not able to attempt this question, we could be already out of the race. Day-in and out we go
through the news about different soil structure and patterns like sandy, clayey, silt, loamy soils etc. It
would be a blunder and serious issue if you make such easy questions wrong. Anyways to clear any
competitive exam it would be wise to follow rainfall patterns, which stands for MOST COMMONLY
ACCEPTED PRACTICES. No matter what, one must follow these practices as bare minimum to clear the
exam. I hope you understand the gravity of question.
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Q.169) (e)
Explanation-
• Olericulture is the science of vegetable growing, dealing with the culture of non-woody (herbaceous)
plants for food.
• Agrosilvopastoral systems combine domestic livestock with crops, multifunctional hedgerows,
woodlots, or fodder trees.
• Horticulture is the science and art of the development, sustainable production, marketing and use of
high-value, intensively cultivated food and ornamental plants.
• Silvopastoral systems include tree crops with grazing pasture or fodder production.
• Arboriculture is the cultivation of trees and shrubs especially for ornamental purposes.
Q.170) (a)
Explanation-
Q.171) (b)
Explanation-
Q.172) (b)
Explanation-
Progesterone is largely produced by the corpus luteum until about 10 weeks of gestation.
A technical question which is basic general science question which we had read in our school days. Surely,
it is not “Tough” question. Such concepts are very basic.
I think we should move forward. Let's move forward with other important terms, without wasting us
precious time.
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Q.173) (d)
Explanation-
There are several millets types that you can find. Some of these are mentioned herein below:
• Sorghum Millet (Jowar)
• Proso Millet (Chena/ Bari)
• Pearl Millet (Bajra)
• Foxtail Millet (Kangni)
• Finger Millet (Ragi)
• Browntop Millet (Korle)
• Barnyard Millet (Sanwa)
• Little Millet (Moraiyo)
• Buckwheat Millet (Kuttu)
• Amaranth Millet (Rajgira)
• Kodo Millet
So, corn is not a millet.
Q.174) (a)
Explanation-
Q.175) (e)
Explanation-
This is a straight question that is again testing your GENERAL AWARENESS regarding agriculture as a
subject. If you are aware about the facts related to agriculture, this question is a sure shot for you. Again,
we cannot let these questions slip out of our hands. These questions are opportunities and low hanging
fruits. Examiner here wants to know how aware a student is from the point of view of agriculture. It’s really
a good question which DIFFERENTIATES from factual and conceptual questions asked in exam. Let’s see
what else we have in agriculture and rural development.
pg. 85
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Q.176) (a)
Explanation-
• Precooling essentially refers to rapid heat transfer from commodity to cooling medium. Forced-air
cooling is a preferred method in citrus and prompt precooling inhibits the growth of decay causing
microorganisms, restricts enzymatic and respiratory activities, inhibits water loss, and reduces
ethylene production.
• Waxing is the process of applying a thin layer of edible wax to the outer surface of the product.
• Fruit ripening is the set of processes that occur from the later stages of growth and development
until the fruit is ready to be consumed.
• Generally, the fruits are graded on the basis of size, weight , sp. gravity, colour, variety, etc.
It was a simple definition-based question that can be attempted very easily if you are aware of each
term.
Q.177) (c)
Explanation-
Rouging is the process to inspect and clear the field of any rogue plants like noxious weeds, off- type
varieties, volunteer crops, etc. This not only ensures uniform fields and plots, but it ensures limited liability
when it comes to seed law.
This is a straight question that is again testing your conceptual clarity. This is a simple and technical
question that demands your understanding of agriculture terms.
Understanding deep meaning of agricultural concepts and learning about terminology and concepts in
different agronomic crops makes ARD a HARD NUT to crack. The game of clearing government exams is not
reliant on you are answering everything. It’s dependent on you answering ENOUGH NUMBER OF
QUESTIONS CORRECTLY. For that concepts are important, and every student should have edge in technical
and concepts related to ARD topics.
Q.178) (a)
Explanation-
The physical definition of field capacity (θfc) is the bulk water content retained in soil at −33 J/kg (or −0.33
bar) of hydraulic head or suction pressure. When irrigation is applied to the soil, all the soil pores get filled
with water.
This is an easy and straight forward question asked directly from Static part of ARD. You should be well
versed with such terms and definitions along with conceptual understanding. It’s a low hanging fruit and
the student is expected to use it well. Don’t get these kinds of questions wrong. Well, it’s a straight fact
asked out of leading newspaper articles. No worries here.
Q.179) (c)
Explanation-
pg. 86
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Q.180) (a)
Explanation-
A pure conceptual question which is easy. These topics are frequently repeated in the exam. Now looking
at this question, if you know about puddling, its importance, then one can solve this easily. But if you are
reading this first time then this a “Back breaking” question which most of the student will avoid. So, you all
should understand that just plain reading is NOT enough.
Don’t you think that examiner expects that a serious candidate should at least read such facts from
important topics and chapters? Off course YES! Let’s, see what do we have more.
Q.181) (a)
Explanation-
• The genetic purity of breeder seed crop should be maintained at 100 per cent.
• The genetic purity of foundation seed should be maintained at 99.5 per cent.
• Certified seed is the commercial seed which is available to the farmers and its genetic purity should be
99 per cent.
A direct question from seed technology, an expected one at that too. See, there are some concepts, facts
that you cannot miss. If you do, you are digging your own grave. No one can save you then. And with this
approach, that time never comes. Well, I hope the above question clarifies where you need to focus on.
Q.182) (d)
Explanation-
• Apatite is a phosphate mineral that has a hardness of 5 on the Mohs scale.

• Mica, any of a group of hydrous potassium, aluminum silicate minerals.
• Carnallite is an ore of the following metals potassium and magnesium.
The learning here is to cover basic knowledge thoroughly before the NABARD Exam. You cannot afford to
miss any of them. You just need to cover basic information given in all the heads. I hope you have found a
new way to be better prepared at NABARD exam.
Thus, purely based on LOGIC, we cracked the question easily.
Q.183) (e)
Explanation-
On analysing the above 1-markers, one thing is clear. They are either factual or conceptual. Facts are also
not difficult ones. All the others were well within the reach of a serious aspirant who has done his/ her
homework. So, what’s the homework? Cover IMPORTANT FACTS and IMPORTANT TERMS well. Do not
leave out the important ones. Forget the less known facts. No matter how hard you prepare, there will
pg. 87
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always be such questions, but they are a MINORITY. Majority of your paper is made out of IMPORTANT
AND RELEVANT STUFF ONLY.
Q.184) (c)
Explanation-
Q.185) (a)
Explanation-
• Hardening is exposing your seedlings to the sun and other forces of nature in small amounts. This
allows them to adapt to their surroundings.
• Thinning is the selective removal of plants from a crop in order to achieve the desired plant density.
• Tillage is the agricultural preparation of soil by mechanical agitation of various types, such as digging,
stirring, and overturning.
• Sowing is a process of planting seeds into the soil.
• The transfer of seedlings from the nursery to the main field is known as transplantation.
Q.186) (d)
Explanation-
This is a straight question that is again testing your GENERAL AWARENESS regarding agriculture as a
subject. If you are aware about the facts related to agriculture, this question is a sure shot for you. Again,
we cannot let these questions slip out of our hands. These questions are opportunities and low hanging
fruits. Examiner here wants to know how aware a student is from the point of view of agriculture. It’s really
a good question which DIFFERENTIATES from factual and conceptual questions asked in exam. Let’s see
what else we have in agriculture and rural development.
Q.187) (a)
Explanation-
Revolutions related to-

Fertilizers- Grey revolution
Oilseeds- Yellow revolution
Milk- White revolution
Fish- Blue revolution
Petroleum- Black revolution
This is a straight question that is again testing your conceptual clarity. If you have read BASIC AGRICULTURE
and AGRI- REVOLUTIONS and UNDERSTOOD IT WELL, this is could be answered comfortably. But certainly,
pg. 88
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it is an easy question. Though such facts are abundant and there is no end to such facts. But they are
RELEVANT and IMPORTANT from the point of view of exam. A serious candidate is expected to know such
facts. It looks like a very difficult question, but the reality is different. Once you do habit of reading at such
depth for important chapters, then such questions won't be a problem in exam.
Q.188) (c)
Explanation-
The learning we get from such questions is not to ignore CORE CONCEPTS. This is a straight question that is
again testing your conceptual clarity. If you are aware about the meanings and definitions of different
branches of agriculture, important topics from main chapters then this question is a sure shot for you. See
honestly it is a “DIFFICULT” question. But you need to know such conceptual content. These are the
questions which differentiates between aspirant and officer.
It’s difficult if you are a procrastinator or a student running after everything under the sun but not covering
what’s relevant.
DO NOT IGNORE WHAT WE TEACH YOU. SHORTCUTS WON’T WORK. HARD WORK WILL.
Q.189) (b)
Explanation-
This is again a factual question and very unexpected one at that. It’s difficult to cover these kinds of facts,
because there NO END to such facts. But, only expected facts from “IMPORTANT TOPICS” are asked in
exam. Indeed, this is a EASY question. Such facts are easy and also important from exam point of view.
These are important topics.
Q.190) (c)
Explanation-
Use of abscisic acid (ABA) is the hormone known to induce and maintain seed dormancy.
Rest all, leaching of the inhibitors present in the seed, Seed scarification, Seed Stratification, Impaction are
used to break seed dormancy.
pg. 89
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Q.191) (d)
Explanation-
• Capillary water- The amount of water that is retained in minute interstitial spaces in the form of thin
films surrounding the soil particles, is known as capillary water.
• Field capacity is the amount of soil moisture or water content held in soil after excess water has
drained away and the rate of downward movement has materially decreased.
• Hygroscopic water is tightly bound to soil by adhesion properties, which causes some water only to
be consumed by the roots of plants.
• The permanent wilting point is the point when there is no water available to the plant.
Q.192) (a)
Explanation-
A pure conceptual question which is easy. Topics related to diseases, breeds, etc. are frequently repeated in
the exam. Now looking at this question, if you know cattle breeds then one can solve this easily. But if you
are reading this first time then this a “Back breaking” question which most of the student will avoid. So, you
all should understand that just plain reading is NOT enough.
Don’t you think that examiner expects that a serious candidate should at least read such facts from important
topics and chapters? Off course YES!
Let’s, see what we do have more.
Q.193) (e)
Explanation-
APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the following scheduled
products:
• Fruits, Vegetables and their Products.
• Meat and Meat Products.
• Poultry and Poultry Products.
• Dairy Products.
• Confectionery, Biscuits and Bakery Products.
• Honey, Jaggery and Sugar Products.
• Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds.
• Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages.
• Cereal and Cereal Products.
• Groundnuts, Peanuts and Walnuts.
• Pickles, Papads and Chutneys.
• Guar Gum.
• Floriculture and Floriculture Products.
• Herbal and Medicinal Plants.
• De –oiled rice bran.
• Green pepper in brine.
• Cashew Nuts and Its Products.
pg. 90
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Q.194) (c)
Explanation-
Q.195) (a)
Explanation-
The original bench terrace system consists of a series of flat shelf-like areas that convert a steep slope of 20
to 30 percent to a series of level, or nearly level benches. In other words, bench terracing consists of
construction of series of platforms along contours cut into hill slope in a step like formation. These platforms
are separated at regular intervals by vertical drop or by steep sided and protected by vegetation and
sometimes packed by stone retaining walls.
This question requires observation+ knowledge. If you are not versed with the types of erosion control
measures at all, you might find this question difficult. A through reading of chapters like soil science, erosion
topic is required. We can see through observation. That’s how we get to our answer!
Q.196) (a)
Explanation-
question that demands your understanding of animal husbandry terms. Understanding deep meaning of
animal husbandry concepts and terms makes ARD a HARD NUT to crack. The game of clearing government
QUESTIONS CORRECTLY. For that concepts are very important, and every student should have edge in
technical and concepts related to ARD topics.
Q.197) (d)
Explanation-
Border irrigation is a type of surface irrigation where the field is divided into strips separated by border
ridges running down the gradient of the field. The area between the ridges is flooded during irrigation.
Very simple conceptual question. It is from Post harvest management of food grains chapter. If you have
read the chapter in depth. Such “VANILLA” marks are to be seized anytime. Do not make silly mistakes
here. Students don’t make the NABARD cut-off even by a single mark. So DO NOT TAKE any question
casually. Consider every question whether 1 marker or easy or difficult as an important question to clear
pg. 91
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the exam. ARD section will be open the vast concepts and knowledge-based facts in exam, we should be
prepared to tackle these questions.
WE ARE THE SPARTANS! CONGRATULATE YOURSELF ON REACHING CLOSE TO THE END OF THIS ANALYSIS
SUCCESSFULLY. But our work is not over yet. Let us move forward and finish this thing!
Q.198) (b)
Explanation-
question that demands your understanding of animal husbandry terms. Understanding deep meaning of
animal husbandry concepts and terms makes ARD a HARD NUT to crack. The game of clearing government
QUESTIONS CORRECTLY. For that concepts are very important, and every student should have edge in
technical and concepts related to ARD topics.
Q.199) (e)
The scheme will aim to conserver wetlands by promoting their optimal use. The scheme will increase eco-
tourism, and carbon stock, and also will help the local communities in their income generations.
Need for the Scheme-
To achieve 2030 sustainable development goals. These goals were adopted by India along with other UN
Members in 2015. The SDG aims to provide peace and prosperity. The Amrit Dharohar scheme will help
India achieve the SDG goals.
This is a straight question that is again testing your GENERAL AWARENESS regarding agriculture as a subject.
If you are aware about the facts related to agriculture, this question is a sure shot for you. Again, we cannot
let these questions slip out of our hands. These questions are opportunities and low hanging fruits. Examiner
here wants to know how aware a student is from the point of view of agriculture. It’s really a good question
which DIFFERENTIATES from factual and conceptual questions asked in exam. Let’s see what else we have in
agriculture and rural development.
Q.200) (e)
• Black tip is a serious disorder, particularly in the cultivar Dasheri.
• The damage to the fruit gets initiated right at marble stage with a characteristic yellowing of tissues
at distal end.
• Gradually, the colour intensifies into brown and finally black.
• At this stage, further growth and development of the fruit is retarded and black ring at the tip
extends towards the upper part of the fruit.
• Black tip disorder has generally been detected in orchards located in the vicinity of brick kilns.
This question requires observation+ knowledge. If you are not versed with the types of diseases and
disorders of fruits and vegetables at all, you might find this question difficult. A through reading of chapters
of subjects like horticulture, pathology is required. That’s how we get to our answer!
That’s all from Evening Shift of NABARD Grade A phase 1.

pg. 92
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pg. 93
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pg. 94
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pg. 96
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pg. 97

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NABARD Grade A Phase 1 2023

Instruction for Q.6 to Q.10

Instruction for Q.11

Instruction for Q.12

Instruction for Q.13 to Q.14

Instruction for Q.15

Instruction for Q.16

Instruction for Q.17

Instruction for Q.18

Instruction for Q.19 and Q.20

Instructions for Q.26 to Q.30 –

Instruction for Q.80 to Q.83

[a] It provides a complete solution to all problems

[a] To prevent emotional attachment to specific alternatives

[a] Overconfidence bias

[a] It enhances decision-making by encouraging open-mindedness.

[a] They exhaustively search for all available options.

[a] It involves physical meetings of individuals

[a] Majority Presentation

[a] It enhances the investor's flexibility and adaptability.

[a] It enhances the investor's flexibility and adaptability.

[a] It involves competitive challenges.

Economic & Social Issues

(e) All of the above

Agriculture & Rural Development

(a) 109 days

(a) 100 crores

(a) Mixed forestry

(a) Pisum sativum

(a) Terracing (Soil terracing)

(a) Sandy soil

(a) Rs. 1015

(a) Human Chronic Gonadotropin

(d) Gravitational water

(a) Species and habitat conservation

Required difference = 152 – 44 = 108

Required ratio = 96 : 102 = 16 : 17

Average number of male employees in B and D = (68 + 96) / 2 = 82

Average number of female employees in C and E = (38 + 176) / 2 = 107

Female employees in companies D and E = 64 + 176 = 240

Total number of male employees = 465

Quantity of water in vessel B = Y = 18 x 100/40 = 45

entrepreneurship and development of cooperative societies including agriculture/horticulture,

• It will be implemented over the next three years

• Low living standards

The different agencies are involved in-

Pisum sativum- Pea

So, corn is not a millet.

• Apatite is a phosphate mineral that has a hardness of 5 on the Mohs scale.

Revolutions related to-

That’s all from Evening Shift of NABARD Grade A phase 1.

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