Neet-2024 Like Mock Test-01 QP & Solutions

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NEET LIKE MOCK TEST-01

PART-1 PHYSICS
Section-A
1. The value of electric potential at any point due to any electric dipole is [New NCERT/XII/50, 51]
pr pr p.r p.r
1) k . 2 2) k . 3 3) k . 2 4) k . 3
r r r r
2. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The rate of
change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t ignoring relativistic effects is [New NCERT/XII/285]
−h −eht −mh −h
1) 2
2) 3) 2
4)
eEt E eEt eE
3. The position of particle is given by r = 2t i + 3tjˆ + 4kˆ, where t is in second and the coefficients have proper
2ˆ
units for r to be in metre. The a ( t ) of the particle at t =1 s is [New NCERT/XI/36]

1) 4ms −2 along y-direction 2) 3ms −2 along x-direction
3) 4ms −2 along x-direction 4) 2ms −2 along z-direction
4. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward
electric flux will [New NCERT/XII/30]
1) increase four times 2) be reduced to half 3) remain the same 4) be doubled
5. The number of significant figures in a number “1700.00200” is [New NCERT/XI/4, 5]
1) 3 2) 7 3) 9 4) 10
6. Two identical thin metal plates has charge q1 and q2 respectively such that q1  q2 . The plates were brought
close to each other to form a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C. The potential difference between them is
[New NCERT/XII/72]
(q + q )
1) 1 2
(q − q )
2) 1 2
(q − q )
3) 1 2 4)
2 ( q1 − q2 )
C C 2C C
7. When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor at a temperature T, the drift velocity of electrons is
proportional to [New NCERT/XII/86]
1) V 2) V 3) T 4) T
8. In magnitude hydraulic stress is equal to [New NCERT/XI/169]
1) hydraulic force 2) hydraulic pressure 3) restoring force 4) hydraulic strain
9. A particle of mass 0.3 kg subject to a force F =- kx with k =15 N/m . What will be its initial acceleration if it is
released from a point 20 cm away from the origin? [New NCERT/XI/54]
2 2 2
l) 15 m / s 2) 3 m / s 3) 10 m / s 4) 5 m / s 2
10. Maximum speed of car for safe turning on horizontal road is [New NCERT/XI/64]
1)  Rg 2) 2  Rg 3) Rg 4) 4 Rg
11. Assertion : Ampere’s law used for the closed loop shown in figure is written as  B.dl =  ( i − i ) . Right
0 1 2
side of it does not include i3, because it produces no magnetic field at the loop. [New NCERT/XII/118]
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Reason: The line integral of magnetic field produced by i3 over the close loop is zero.
In the light of the above statements-Assertion & Reason, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
12. A bar magnet having centre O has a length of4 cm. Point PI is in the broad side-on and P2 is in the end side-on
position with OP1 = OP2 = 10 metres. The ratio of magnetic intensities H at P1 and P2 is
[New NCERT/XII/139]
1) H1 : H 2 = 16 :100 2) H1 : H 2 = 1: 2 3) H1 : H 2 = 2 :1 4) H1 : H 2 = 100 :16
13. Fig shown below represents an area A= 0.5 m2 situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 2.0 weber/ m2 and
making an angle of 60° with respect to magnetic field.
[New NCERT/XII/157]
The value of the magnetic flux through the area would be

1) 2.0 weber 2) 3 weber 3) 3 / 2 weber 4) 0.5 weber
14. Given below are two statements: In the light of the given statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given.
[New NCERT/XI/50, 51, 52]
Statement I: Mass is a measure of inertia of the body.
Statement II: Greater the mass, greater is the force required to change its state of rest or of uniform
motion.
1) Both statement I and II are correct.
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
15. If a motorcyclist skids and stops after covering a distance of 15 m. The stopping force acting on the
motorcycle by the road is 100 N, then the work done by the motorcycle on the road is
[New NCERT/XI/74]
1) 1500 J 2) -1500 I 3) 750J 4) Zero
16. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 36 km/h has a head on collision with a
stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after the collision, the two balls move together, the loss in kinetic
energy due to collision is [New NCERT/XI/84, 85]
1) 140 J 2) 100 J 3) 60 J 4) 40 I
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17. The coordinates of centre of mass of a uniform flag shaped lamina(thin flat plate) of mass 4 kg. (The
coordinates of the same are shown in figure) are: [NEW NCERT/XI/98]
1) (1.25m,1.50m) 2) (0.75 in, 1.75m)

3) (0.75m, 0.75m) 4) (1m,1.75m)
18. When a ceiling fan is switched off, its angular velocity falls to half while it makes 36 rotations. How
many more rotations will it make before coming to rest? [New NCERT/XI/117]
1) 24 2) 36 3) 18 4) 12
19. Newton’s universal law of gravitation applies to [New NCERT/XI/130]
1) small bodies only 2) planets only
3) both small and big bodies 4) only valid for solar system
20. An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true?
[New NCERT/XII/181]
1) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
2) Current lags behind voltage in phase
3) Current and voltage are in same phase
4) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance.
21. In order to establish an instantaneous displacement current of 5 mA in the space between the plates
of 5JiF parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference need to apply is [New NCERT/XII/203]
1) 100Vs −1 2) 200Vs −1
3) 300Vs −1 4) 1000Vs −1
22. A concave mirror is used for face viewing has focal length of 0.6m. At what distance you should
hold the mirror from your face to get an upright image with a magnification of 4?
[New NCERT/XII/226]
1) 0.20m 2) 0.25m 3) 0.40m 4) 0.45m
23. Two satellites A and B of masses 200kg and 400 kg are revolving round the earth at height of 600
km and 1600 km respectively. [New NCERT/XI/137]
If TA and TB are the time periods of A and B respectively then the value of TB − TA :
[Given: radius of earth= 6400 km, mass of earth = 6 1024 kg ]
1) 4.24 102 s 2) 1.33 103 s
3) 4.24 103 s 4) 3.33 102 s
24. A body is moving with a constant speed v in a circle of radius r. Its angular acceleration is
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[New NCERT/XI/42]
2
1) vr 2) v/r 3) zero 4) vr
25. Hydraulic lifts and hydraulic brakes are based on [New NCERT/XI/185]
1) Archimedes' principle 2) Bernoulli's principle
3) Stoke's law 4) Pascal's law
26. A beaker of radius 15 cm is filled with a liquid of surface tension 0.075 N/m. Force across an
imaginary diameter on the surface of the liquid is [New NCERT/XI/194]
−2
1) 0.075N 2) 1.5 10 N 3) 0.225N 4) 2.25 10−2 N
27. An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden wheel 1m in diameter. The diameter of tyre is 6 mm
smaller than that of wheel. The tyre should be heated so that its temperature increases by a minimum
of (the coefficient of cubical expansion of iron is 3.6 10−5 / 0 C ) [New NCERT/XI/207]
l) l67°C 2) 334°C 3) 500°C 4) l000°C
28. In P-V diagram shown in figure ABC is a semicircle. The work done in the process ABC is
[New NCERT/XI/230]
− 
1) 4 J 2) J 3) J 4) zero
2 2
29. A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8 1014 Hz and 2.2 1014 Hz. Two identical
photons of energy 0.825 eV each are incident on them. Then photoelectrons are emitted in (Take
= 6.6 10−34 Js ) [New NCERT/XII/281]
l) B alone 2) A alone
3) neither A nor B 4) both A and B
30. In a car race on straight road, car A takes a time t less than car B at the finish and passes finishing
point with a speed ‘v’ more than of car B. Both the cars start from rest and travel with constant
acceleration a, and respectively. Then ‘v’ is equal to: [New NCERT/XI/18]
2a1 a2 a +a
1) t 2) 2a1 a2 t 3) a1 a2 t 4) 1 2 t
a1 + a2 2
31. The significant result deduced from the Rutherford's scattering experiment is that
[New NCERT/XII/293]
1) whole of the positive charge is concentrated at the centre of atom
2) there are neutrons inside the nucleus
3)  − particles are helium nuclei
4) electrons are embedded in the atom
32. A nucleus splits into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2:1. What will be the
ratio of their nuclear radius? [New NCERT/XII/309]
1/3 1/3 1/2 1/2
1) 2 :1 2) 1: 2 3) 3 :1 4) 1: 3
33. An experiment is performed to find the refractive index of glass using a travelling microscope. In
this experiment distances are measured by [XII/Practical Skills]
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1) a vernier scale provided on the microscope
2) a standard laboratory scale
3) a meter scale provided on the microscope
4) a screw gauge provided on the microscope
34. Which one is the correct option for the two different thermodynamic processes?
[New NCERT/XI/235]
a) b)
c) d)
1) (c) and (d) 2) (a) only 3) (c) and (a) 4) (b) and (c)
35. A gas in a container A is in thermal equilibrium with another gas of the same mass in container B. If
we denote the corresponding pressures and volumes by the suffixes A and B, then which of the
following statement is most likely to be true? [New NCERT/XI/247]
1) PA = PB , VA  AB 2) PA  PB , VA = AB 3) PA / VB = PB / AB 4) PA VA = PB AB
SECTION-B
36. The number of collisions per second suffered by a molecule in a sample of hydrogen at S.T.P is:
[Mean free path = 1.38 10−5 cm ] [New NCERT/XI/255]
l) 1015 2) 8.3 1015 8 3) 1.1106 4) 1.23 1010
37. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude A and frequency m
along them-axis. Their mean position is separated by distance X 0 ( X 0  A) . If the maximum
separation between them is ( X 0 + A) , the phase difference between their motion is
[New NCERT/XI/264]
   
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 4 6 2
−3 −2
38. The bulk modulus of a liquid of density 8000 kg m is 2  10 N m . The speed of sound in that
9
liquid is [New NCERT/XI/287]

1) 200 2) 250 3) 100 4) 500
39. Two balls of same mass and carrying equal charge are hung from a fixed support of length l. At
electrostatic equilibrium, assuming that angles made by each thread is small, the separation, x
between the balls is proportional to: [NEW NCERT/XII/7]
2 2/3
1) l 2) l 3) l 4) l1/3
40. The Kirchhoff's second law ( iR = E ) , where the symbols have their usual meanings, is based on
[New NCERT/XII/97, 98]
1) conservation of momentum 2) conservation of charge
3) conservation of potential 4) conservation of energy
41. Match Column I with Column II.
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[New NCERT/XII/109, 113, 123, 125, 126]
Column-I Column-II
II
A) Biot-Savart’s law 1) 0 1 2
2 d
B) Torque on a current carrying
 (
2) q  E + V  B 
)
Coil placed in a uniform magnetic field
C) Force between two parallel current 3)  = NIAB sin 
0i dl sin 
4  r 2
D) Lorentz force 4) B = nˆ
Carrying conductors
1) (A) →r (4) ; (B) →r (3) ; (C) →r (1) ; (D) →r (2)
2) (A) →r (2) ; (B) →r (2) ; (C) →r (4) ; (D) →r (3)
3) (A) →r (4) ; (B) →r (3) ; (C) →r (2) ; (D) →r (1)
4) (A) →r (2) ; (B) →+ (1) ; (C) →r (4) ; (D) →r (3)
42. Two conducting circular loops ofradii RI and are placed in the same plane with their centres
coinciding. If R1  R2 , the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to
[New NCERT/XII/166]
2 2
l) R1 / R2 2) R2 / R1 3) R / R2
1 4) R / R1
2
43. The current flowing through an ac circuit is given by I = 5sin (120 t ) A . How long will the current
take to reach the peak value starting from zero? [New NCERT/XII/180]
1 1 1
1) s 2) 60s 3) s 4) s
60 120 240
44. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The ratio
of fundamental frequency of tube A and B is [New NCERT/XI/292]
1) l : 2 2) l : 4 3) 2: 1 4) 4: 1
45. A vemier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the Vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this Vernier calipers, the least count is
[XI/Practical Skills]
1) 0.02 mm 2) 0.05 mm 3) 0.1 mm 4) 0.2mrn
46. Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of
one lens is 20 cm, then the power of the other lens will be [New NCERT/XII/238]
l) 1.66D 2) 4.00D 3) -l00D 4) -3.75D
47. Two beams of light of intensity I1 and I 2 interfere to give an interference pattern. If the ratio of
maximum intensity to that of minimum intensity is 25/9, then I1 / I 2 is [New NCERT/XII/264]
l) 5/3 2) 4 3) 81/625 4) 16
48. When the angle of incidence is 60° on the surface of a glass slab, it is found that the reflected ray is
completely polarised. The velocity of light in glass is [New NCERT/XII/381]
1) 2 108 ms −1 2) 3 108 ms −1 3) 2 108 ms −1 4) 3 108 ms −1
49. Identify the logic operation carried out. [New NCERT/XII/493]
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1) OR 2) AND 3) NOR 4) NAND

50. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron ( ne ) and hole ( nh ) concentrations of 1.5 1016 m−3 .
Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 1022 m−3 . The doped semiconductor is of
[New NCERT/XII/332]
−3
1) n-type with electron concentration ne = 5 10 m
22
2) p-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 1010 m−3

3) n-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 1023 m−3
4) p-type having electron concentration ne = 5 109 m−3
PART-II – CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Why the size of an anion is larger than the parent atom? [New NCERT/XI/87]
1) Due to increased repulsion among the electrons.
2) Due to decrease in effective nuclear charge.
3) Due to increased in effective nuclear charge.
4) Both (1) and (2)
52. Match Column-I with Column-11. [New NCERT/XI/162]
Column-I Column-II
(A) H = −ve ; S = −ve, G = −ve (p) Reaction will be non-spontaneous at high
temperature
(B) H = −ve ; S = −ve, G = +ve (q) Reaction will be non-spontaneous at low
temperature
(C) H = +ve ; S = +ve, G = +ve (r) Reaction will be AG= +ve spontaneous at low
temperature
(D) H = +ve ; S = +ve, G = −ve (s) Reaction will be spontaneous at high
Temperature
1) A —(q), B —(r), C —(p), D —(s)
2) A —(r), B —(p), C —(q), D —(s)
3) A —(r), B —(q), C —(s), D —(p)
4) A —(q), B —(s), C—(p), D —(r)
53. At the state of dynamic equilibrium, for solute + solvent solution.
[New NCERT/XII/6]
1) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation.
2) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation.
3) Rate of dissolution = Rate of saturation
4) Rate of crystallization = Rate of saturation.
54. The formation of CO and CO2 illustrates the law of
[New NCERT/XI/15]
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1) reciprocal proportion 2) conservation of mass
3) multiple proportion 4) constant composition
55. Assertion : The resistivity for a substance is its resistance when it is one meter long and its area of
cross section is one square meter.
Reason : The SI units of resistivity is ohm metre ( m ) [New NCERT/XII/41]
56. Statement I : The geometry of amines is pyramidal.
Statement H : The angle C—N—C or C—N—H is slightly more than 109.5°.
[New NCERT/XII/259-260]
57. Mark the oxide which is amphoteric in character [Old NCERT/XI/324]
1) CO2 2) SiO2 3) SnO2 4) CaO

58. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] is [New NCERT/XII/123]
1) Diamrninedichloridoplatinum(II)
2) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(IV)
3) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(0)
4) Dichloridodiammineplatinum(IV)
59. The eqiiilibrium constant for the reversible reaction N 2 + 3H 2 2 NH 3 and for reaction
1 3
N2 + H 2 NH 3 , the equilibrium constant is K’
2 2
[New NCERT/XI/176]
The K and K’ will be related as:
1) K  K ' = 1 2) K = K ' 3) K ' = K 4) K = K '
60. In qualitative analysis NH4Cl is added before NH4OH [Practical Chemistry]
l) to decrease [OH-] conc. 2) to increase [OH-] conc.

3) for making HCl 4) to increase [Cl-] conc.
61. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?
[New NCERT/XI/56]
1) n = 5, l= 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2 2) n = 3, l = 2, m = =3, s = -1/2
3) n — 3, l= 2, m = —2, s = -1/2 4) n = 4, l= 0, m = 0, s =-1/2
62. Assertion: The rate of the reaction is the rate of change of concentration of a reactant or a product.
Reason: Rate of reaction remains constant during the course of reaction.
[New NCERT/XII/62]
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63. Identify the correct IUPAC name of the compound given below [New NCERT/XI/269]
1) 4 — benzyl — 5 — methyl hexanal 2) 2 — methyl —3 — phenyl hexanal

3) 5isopropyl — 5 — phenyl butanal 4) 5 methyl —4 — phenyl hexanal
64. Commercially carboxylic acids are reduced to alcohols by converting them to the_____
[New NCERT/XII/200]
1) esters 2) aldehydes 3) ketones 4) amines
65. Which one of the following gives only one monochloro derivative? [New NCERT/XI/303]
1) n-Hexane 2) 2-Methylpentane
3) 2, 3-Dimethylpentane 4) neo-Pentane
66. The reagent which does not react with both, aeetone and benzaldehyde? [New NCERT/XII/239]
l) Sodium hydrogen sulphite 2) Phenyl hydrazine
3) Fehling's solution 4) Grignard reagent
67. The common oxidation states of Ti are [New NCERT/XII/96]
1) + 2 and + 3 2) + 3 and + 4
3) - 3 and - 4 4) + 2, + 3 and + 4
68. Which of the following molecule exist? [New NCERT/XI/129]
1) He2 2) Be2 3) Li2 4) Both (l) and (2)

69. Statement I : Denaturation leads to the conversion of globular protein into fibrous protein
Statement II : Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distorted
[New NCERT/XII/294]
70. Two compounds benzyl alcohol and benzoic acid are formed from a compound, when it is heated in
the presence of conc. NaOH, this compound is. [New NCERT/XII/242]
1) Benzaldehyde 2) Benzylalcohol
3) Acetophenone 4) Benzophenone
71. What is the amount of heat (in Joules) absorbed by 18 g of water initially at room temperature heated
to l00°C ? If 10g of Cu is added to this water , than decrease in temperature (in Kelvin) of water was
found to be? C (p,m) for water 75.32 J/mol K ; C(p,m) for Cu= 24.47 J/mol K.
[New NCERT/XI/145]
l) 5649, 369 2) 5544,324 3) 5278, 342 4) 3425, 425
72.
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[A] will show [New NCERT/XII/210]
1) Br2 water test 2) Tollen's test

3) Victor maeyer test 4) Lucas test
73. The pKa of a weak acid, W, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, POH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, Will be [New NCERT/XI/202]
l) 9.58 2) 4.79 3) 7.01 4) 9.22
74. Which of the following statements regarding properties of halogens are correct? told
(i) Due to small size electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of chlorine.
(ii) Iodine has same physical state but different colour as compare to other members of the group.
(iii) Fluorine shows no positive oxidation state.
(iv) In X 2 ( g ) + H 2O ( l ) → HX ( aq ) + HOX ( aq ) (Where X2=Cl or Br)
(v) F2 is the strongest oxidising halogen. [Old NCERT/XII/198-199]
l) (i), (ii) and(iv) 2) (i), (iii), (iv) and(v)
3) (ii), (iii) and(iv) 4) (iii) and (v)
75. Pyruvic acid is obtained by [New NCERT/XII/237]
1) oxidation of formaldehyde cyanohydrin 2) oxidation of acetaldehyde cyanohydrin
3) oxidation of benzaldehyde cyanohydrin 4) oxidation of acetone cyanohydrin
76. The IUPAC name of the compound having formula, [New NCERT/XII/260-261]
1) 3-amino-hydroxypropine acid
2) 2-amino-propan-3-oic acid
3) amino hydroxy propanoic acid
4) 2-amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid
77. Assertion : 1-Chlorobutane on heating with alcoholic KOH undergoes dehydrohalogenation to yield
1-butene as the major product. [New NCERT/XII/179]
Reason : The reaction does not occur through carbocation intermediate but instead occurs by a
concerted mechanism.
l) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
78. Bohr model can explain: [New NCERT/XI/46]
l) The solar spectrum
2) The spectrum of hydrogen molecule
3) spœtrum of anyatom or ion cœitaining one electron only
4) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only
79. The correct structure of  Fe ( CO )5  (Z=26 for Fe) [New NCERT/XII/128]
1) octahedral 2) tetrahedral 3) square pyramidal 4) trigonal bipyramidal
80. If A is in the range of. …….appreciable concentrations of both reactants and products are present.
[New NCERT/XI/182]
−4 4 −3 3 −5
1) 10 to10 2) 10 to10 3
3) 10 to10 6
4) 10 to103
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81. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm Hg. When 15 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved
in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure decreased to 120.2 mm Hg. The molecular weight of the
solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78) [New NCERT/XII/16]
1) 356J 2) 456.8 3) 530.1 4) 656.7

82. The long form of periodic table consists of [New NCERT/XI/78]
1) seven periods and eight groups 2) seven periods and eighteen groups
3) eight periods and eighteen groups 4) eighteen periods and eight groups
83. ‘Oxidation number of H in NaH, CaH2 and LiH, respectively is [New NCERT/XI/240]
(1) +l, +1, -1 (2) -1, +1, + 1 (3) +l, + 1, + l (4) -1,-1, -1
84. The coordination number of a central metal atom in a complex is determined by
[New NCERT/XII/121]
1) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma and pi-bonds both
2) the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by pi-bonds
3) the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma bonds
4) the number of only anionic ligands bonded to the metal ion.
85. Assertion: Benzyl methyl ether on reaction with dilute and cold HI produces methyl iodide
Reason: This reaction occurs via SN2 pathway
[New NCERT/XII/218]
l) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
SECTION-B
86. The following statement(s) is (are) correct [New NCERT/XII/74]
(i) A plot of log  R 0 /  R  versus r is linear
(ii) A plot of log [X] versus time is linear for a first order reaction, X → P
(iii) A plot of log  R 0 /  R  versus I is not linear for a first order reaction
(iv) A plot of In [R] versus I is linear
(v) Decomposition of HI on gold surface is a first order reaction
1) (i) only 2) (ii) only 3) (i) and (v) 4) (i), (ii) and(iv)
− −
87. The brown ring test for NO2 NO2 and NO3 is due to the formation of complex ion with formula
[Practical Chemistry]
2−
2)  Fe ( NO )( CN )5 
2+
l)  Fe ( H 2O6 ) 
2+
3)  Fe ( H 2O )5 NO 
2+
4)  Fe ( H 2O ) NO5 
88. The conversion PhCN → PhCOCH 3 , can be achieved most conveniently by reaction with
[New NCERT/XII/234]
1) CH 3 MgBr followed by hydrolysis
2) I 2 − NaOHCH 3 I
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3) dil. H 2 SO4 followed by reaction with CH 2 N 2
4) LiAlH 4 followed by reaction with CH 3 I
89. Choose the correct option for the following reactions. [New NCERT/XI/311-312]
1) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both Markovnikov addition products.

2) ‘A’ is Mar kovnikov product and ‘B’ is anti- Markovnikov product.
3) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both anti-Markovnikov products.
4) ‘B’is Markovnikovand ‘A’is and-Markovnikovproduct.
90. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
[New NCERT/XI/115
1) IF7  IF5  CIF3  XeF2 2) IF7  XeF2  CIF2  IF5
3) IF7  CIF3  XeF2  IF5 4) IF7  XeF2  IF5  CIF3
91.
Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of: [New NCERT/XII/273]

(1) C > B > A (2) C > A> B (3) B > C > A (4) A> C > B
92. For the given reactions [New NCERT/XII/37]
Sn 2+ + 2e− → Sn
Sn 4+ + 2e− → Sn
0
The electrode potentials are; ESn 2+
/ Sn
= −0.140V and ESn
0
4+
/ Sn
= 0.010 V . The magnitude of standard
electrode potential for Sn 4+ / Sn 2+i.e. ESn
0
4+
/ Sn2+
is ______ 10−2 V .
(l) -0.16 (2) + 0.16 (3) 16 (4) -16
93. It has been found that for a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 9K the rate constant gets
doubled. Assuming a reaction to be occurring at 300 K, the value of activation energy is found to be
kJ mol −1. (Given in 10 = 2.3, R= 8.3 JK-1 mol-1 , log2 = 0.30)
[New NCERT/XII/81]
1) 23 2) 83 3) é0 4) 59
94. Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing order of stability. [New NCERT/XI/271]
+ +
CH 2 = CH C H 2 CH 2 = CH C H 2 ( CH 3 )3 C +
I II III
l) IV > III > I > V > II 2) IV > I > III > II > V
3) V > IV I > III > II 4) V > IV > III > I > II
95. Match Column-l with Column-11. [New NCERT/XII/105, 107
Column-I Column-II
12 | P a g e
(A) Compound formed when yellow CrO42− acidified p) acidified MnO4−
(B) reagent oxidises Fe 2+ to Fe3+ (q) Cr2O72−
(C) Compound produced when MnO2 is fused with KNO3 (r) K 2 MnO4
(D) Compound having dark purple crystals isostructural with KClO4 (s) KMnO4
l) A - (q),B - (p), C- (r), D - (s) 2) A —(p),B —(q), C —(r), D —(s)
3) A - (q),B - (r), C - (p), D-(s) 4) A - (q),B - (p), C -(s), D -(r)
96. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid as : [Practical Chemistry]
MnO4− + C2O42− + H + → Mn2+ + CO2 + H 2O
Hence, 50 ml of 0.04 M KMnO4 is acidic medium is chemically equivalent to [Practical Chemistry]
1) 100 ml of 0.1 MH 2C2O4 2) 50 ml of 0.2 MH 2C2O4
3) 50 ml of 0.1 MH 2C2O4 4) 25 ml of 0.1 MH 2C2O4
97. Following statements are given regarding the preparation of aryl halides from toluene. Read the
following statements and choose the correct options. [New NCERT/XII/166]
(i) Aryl chlorides and bromides can be easily prepared by this method.
(ii) The ortho and para isomers formed in the reaction can not be separated easily due to small
difference in their melting point.
(iii) Reactions with iodine are reversible in nature and require the presence of an oxidising agent.
1) (i), (iii) and(v) are correct 2) (ii) and (iv) are correct
3) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct 4) All statements are correct
98. Which one of the following reactions does not represent correct combination of substrate and product
under the given conditions? [New NCERT/XII/232]
99. Which of the following statements regarding fuel cell is incorrect? [New NCERT/XII/56]
1) These cells are eco-friendly.

2) These cells convert energy of combustion of fuels like H 2 , CH 4 , CH 3OH etc., directly into
electrical energy.
13 | P a g e
3) H 2 − O2 fuel cell is used in Apollo space programme.
4) Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency of about 100%.
100. Bonding in which of the following diatomic molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of MO
theory, by removal of an electron ? [New NCERT/XI/129]
(A) NO (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) C2 (E) B2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) (A), (B), (C) only 2) (B), (C), (E) only
3) (A), (C) only 4) (D) only
PART-III – BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. R.Q. is ratio of [New NCERT/XI/163]
1) CO2 produced to substrate consumed 2) CO2 produced to O2 consumed

3) oxygen consumed to water produced 4) oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
102. Match the following and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/222-223]
Column-I Column-II
Over-exploitation by humans I. Environmental damage humans and threat to native
species
B. Introduction of Nile Perch in Lake II. Posing threat to the indigenous catfish
Victoria
C. Clarias graiepinus III. Extinction of Passenger pigeon
D. Introduction of Water Hyacinth in India W. Extinction of Cichlid fish
1) A — II; B — I; C —IV; D — III 2) A — III; B — IV; C — II; D — I
3) A — I; B —II; C — III; D — IV 4) A— IV; B — I; C —II; D — III
103. Statement I: Bryophytes are amphibians of plant kingdom.
Statement II: They live in soil but depend on water for sexual reproduction.
[New NCERT/XI/29]
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
104. The process involving the transfer of electrons in the light reactions of photosynthesis in plants is:
[New NCERT/XI/139]
1) cyclic photo-phosphOrylation 2) ATP synthesis in mitochondria
3) Z-Scheme 4) non-cyclic chemo-phosphorylation
105. Assertion (A): Two kingdom classification was insufficient. Reason (R): Majority of organisms did
not fall into either of categories in two kingdom classification.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
[Old NCERT/XI/16]
14 | P a g e
106. Statement I: Genetic diversity comprises of different type of gene in different type species as well as
same species. Statement O: Amphibian species diversity is more in Eastern Ghats than the Western
Ghat.
[New NCERT/XII/217]
107. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage.
(ii) Phosphate group is linked to 5’—OH of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(iii) Two nucleosides are linked through 3’—5’N- glycosidic linkage.
(iv) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around positively charged histone octamer to form
nucleosome.
(v) The distance between a bp in a helix is approximately 0.34nm.
1) (i) only 2) (iv) and (v)
3) (iii) only 4) (i), (ii), (iii) and(v)
108. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specializes structure in the centromere region of
each chromosome called the [New NCERT/XI/123]
1) Telomere 2) Centriole 3) Chromatin 4) Kinetochore
109. Match column-I containing types of aestivation with their examples given in column-II and choose
the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/64]
Column-I (type of aestivation) Column-II (Examples)

A. Valvate I. Cotton
B. Twisted II. Calotropis
C. Imbricate III. Bean
D. Vexillary IV. Gulmohar
1) A - I; B -II; C-IV; D - III 2) A- II; B - I; C -IV; D- III
3) A- II; B -IV; C- I; D -III 4) A - II; B - I; C - III; D- IV
110. Primary treatment of sewage is [New NCERT/XII/154]
1) physical process 2) biological process
3) chemical process 4) biochemical process
111. Assertion (A): Double fertilisation is characteristic feature of angiosperms.
Reason (R): Double fertilisation involves two fusions. [New NCERT/XII/18]
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but(R) is not the correct explanation of(A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)
112. What is another name of family Compositae? [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
1) Asteraceae 2) Brassicaleae 3) Leguminoseae 4) Graminae
113. Consider the following statements regarding starch and sucrose synthesis during daytime and select
the correct ones. [New NCERT/XI/156
(i) Triose phosphate is confined to chloroplast and is utilised for the synthesis of starch only.
(ii) Triose phosphate is translocated to cytosol from chloroplast.
15 | P a g e
(iii) Triose phosphate is utilised for the synthesis of both starch and sucrose.
(iv) Triose phosphate is t:anslocated from cytosol to chloroplast.
1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (ii) and (iv) 4) (iii) and (iv)
114. Match the description given in column-I with their steps given in column-II and identify the correct
answer. [New NCERT/XI/122, 123]
Column-I Column-III
A. Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle I. Anaphase
B. Proteins are synthesized in preparation for mitosis while II. Prophase
Cell growth continues
C. Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes III. Interphase
D. Movement of chromatids towards opposite poles IV. Metaphase
The correct match is
1) A - II; B -III; C - IV; D - I 2) A - III; B -II; C -I; D - IV
3) A- I; B -III; C -II; D - IV 4) A- IV; B-III; C - I; D - II
115. Hormone responsible for bolting is: [New NCERT/XI/176]
l) IAA 2) kinetin 3) ABA 4) GA

116. Assertion (A): Lipids present in the outer and inner side of the bilayer membrane are commonly
different.
Reason (R): Peripheral proteins are attached to external surface as well as inner surface of a
biomembrane. [New NCERT/XI/93]
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but(R) is not the correct explanation of(A)
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
117. Which one of the following is not a components of an ecosystem? [New NCERT/XII/206]
l) Energy flow 2) Decomposition
3) Productivity 4) Stratification
118. Which of the following pairs come under the group chrysophytes? [New NCERT/XI/14]
l) Diatoms and Euglena 2) Euglena and Trypanosoma
3) Diatoms and Desmids 4) Gonyaulax and Desmids
119. Match the items given in column-I with those given in column-II and choose the correct option given
below. [New NCERT/XII/5]
Column-I Column-II
A. Tapetum I. Oily and sticky layer, tissue help in pollination
B. Exine II. Acts as nutritive layer
C. Pollenkit III. Thick, rigid protectivelayer
D. Vegetative cell IV. Involve in the formation of microspores
1) A — II; B — III; C — I; D — IV 2) A — I; B — III; C —II; D —IV
3) A— III; B — IV; C — I; D —II 4) A— II; B — IV; C — III; D —I
120. Which of the following statements is incorrect? [New NCERT/XI/30]
l) Pyrenoids contain protein besides starch.
2) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, oogamous and anisogamous in green and brown algae.
16 | P a g e
3) Some of the members of algae also occur in association with fungi (lichen) and animals (eg, on
sloth bear).
4) The leaves in pteridophyta are small (macrophyll) and large (microphyll).
121. Statement I: The outer covering ofendosperm separates the embryo bya lipid bi-layer called aleurone
layer. Statement II: The plumule and radical are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile and
coleorhizae respectively. [New NCERT/XII/67]
122. Where do the casparian bands occur? [New NCERT/XI/74]
1) Epidermis 2) Endodermis 3) Pericycle 4) Phloem
123. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
[New NCERT/XII/67, 70, 76]
Column-I Column-II
A. Turner syndrome I. Trisomy
B. Linkage II. XX+ XO
C. Y-chromosome III. Morgan
D. Down's syndrome IV. Testis determining factor
1) A- III; B -I; C - IV; D - II 2) A- II; B -I; C - IV; D - III
3) A- IV; B - II; C - I; D - III 4) A- II; B -III; C - IV; D - I
124. During complete metabolism of glucose, the number of ATP formed is
[New NCERT/XI/162-163]
1) 2 2) 12 3) 36 4) 44
125. Which of the following statements regarding biodiversity hotspots are incorrect?
[New NCERT/XII/224
(i) Highendemism.
(ii) High level of species richness.
(iii) Total number is 34 in the world.
(iv) Five of these occur in India.
(v) High alien species invasion.
1) (i) and(ii) 2) (iv) and (v) 3) (ii) and (v) 4) (iii), (iv) and(v)
126. The term glycocalyx’ is used for [New NCERT/XI/90]
l) A layer surrounding the cell wall ofbacteria
2) A layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria
3) Cell wall of bacteria
4) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins
127. Which of the following is not an influence of auxins? [New NCERT/XI/175-176]
l) Apical dominance 2) Parthenocarpy
3) Phototropism 4) Fruit ripening
128. Okra is a member of family [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
1) Brassicaceae 2) Malvaceae 3) Graminae 4) Leguminoseae
129. Which of the following is not a function of cytokinin? [New NCERT/XI/177]
1) Promotes apical dominance. 2) Promotes chloroplast development.
3) Promotes movement of nutrients. 4) Delay leaf senescence.
130. Assertion (A): C4 pathway of O2 fixation is found in some tropical plants. [New NCERT/XI/143]
17 | P a g e
Reason (R): In this pathway, O2 is fixed by 3C compound.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
131. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 100 pollen grains? [New NCERT/XII/5]
1) 25 2) 50 3) UI 4) 125
132. In birds is an interesting example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of
its host and the host incubates them. [New NCERT/XII/200]
1) Bird parasitism 2) Breed parasitism 3) Brood parasitism 4) Ectoparasites
133. Match column-I with column-II and select the option. [New NCERT/XI/18]
Colimn-I (Fungi) Column-II (Common name)
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
D. Deuteromycetes lV. Bracket fungi
l) A— II; B — I; C — IV; D — III 2) A— II; B — IV; C — I; D — III
3) A— IV; B — I; C — II; D — III 4) A —IV; B —III; C —II; D — I
134. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct? [Old NCERT/XI/4]
i) Reproduction is the production of progeny possessing features dissimilar to their parents.
ii) The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all multiply by budding.
iii) Many organisms like mules, sterile worker bees do not reproduce.
iv) Reproduction is not an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms.
(v) Yeast and Hydra reproduce by budding.
1) Only (i) 2) Both (i) and (ii)
3) Both (ii) and (iv) 4) All of these
135. Assertion (A): Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration.
[New NCERT/XII/207]
Reason (R): Secondary productivity is produced by heterotrophs.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
SECTION-B
136. What sequence on the template strand of DNA corresponds to the first amino acid inserted into a
protein? [New NCERT/XII/96]
l) TAC 2) UAC 3) UAG 4) AUG

137. At which stage, the homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion, but are yet held by
chiasmata ? [New NCERT/XI/126]
1) Zygotene 2) Pachytene
3) Diplotene 4) Diakinesis
138. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
[New NCERT/XI/74]
18 | P a g e
Column-I Column-II
A. Stele I. Innermost layer of cortex
B. Endodermis II. Suberin
C. Casparian strips III. All the tissues exterior to vascular cambium vascular ambium
D. Bark IV. All the tissues inner to endodermis
1) A— IV, B—I, C —II, D —III 2) A —III, B—II, C — I, D —IV
3) A —I, B —II, C —III, D —IV 4) A— IV, B—II, C — I, D — III
139. What is the function of molecular oxygen in cellular respiration? [New NCERT/XI/154]
1) It causes the breakdown of citric acid.

2) It combines with glucose to produce carbon dioxide.
3) It combines with carbon from organic molecules to produce carbon dioxide.
4) It combines with hydrogen from organic molecules to produce water.
140. Statement I: UAA, UAG and UGA are known as stop codons. [New NCERT/XII/96]
Statement II: Stop codon terminates the message of gene controlled protein synthesis.
141. The gene disorder phenylketonuria is an example for [New NCERT/XII/69]
1) Multiple allelism 2) polygenic inheritance
3) multiple factor 4) pleiotropy
142. Which of the following criteria must a molecule fulfil to act as a genetic material? [New NCERT/XII/87]
i) It should not be able to generate its replica.
ii) It should chemically and structurally be stable.
iii) It should not allow slow mutation.
iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian Characters.
1) (i) and(ii) 2) (ii) and(iii) 3) (iii) and (iv) 4) (ii) and (iv)
143. In meiosis, division is [New NCERT/XI/125]
l) Ist reductional and IInd equational 2) Ist equational and IInd reductional.
3) both reductional. 4) both equational.
144. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/23-24]
Column-I (System of Classification) Column-II (Characteristics)
A. Artificial system of classification I. Based on few morphological characters
B. Natural system of classification II. Based on evolutionary relationships between the
various organisms
C. Phylogenetic system of classification III. Based on natural affinities among the organisms and
consider external as well as internal features.
D. Numerical Taxonomy IV. Carried out using computer
1) A — II; B — I; C — III; D —IV
2) A — I; B — III; C —II; D — IV
3) A — III; B — II; C — I; D —IV
4) A — I; B — II; C —III; D — IV
145. The function of anther is [New NCERT/XII/5]
1) produce a cellular structure of sporo-pollenin.
19 | P a g e
2) produce pollen grains.
3) store and protect pollen grains.
4) All the above
146. Assertion (A): Translation refers to the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a
polypeptide. Reason (R): The order and sequence of amino acid are defined by the sequence of bases
in the rRNA. [New NCERT/XII/98]
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of(A)
147. During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some cells ‘left behind’ from the shoot apical
meristem, constitute the toid [Old NCERT/XI/85]
1) lateral meristem 2) axillarybud 3) cork cambium 4) fascicular cambium
148. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is to: [New NCERT/XI/5]
l) explain the origin of living organsims.
2) trace the evolution of living organsims.
3) name the living organisms.
4) facilitate grouping of anything based on some easily observable characteristics.
149. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/95-97]
Column - I Column - II
A. Golgi apparatus I. Storage
B. Mitochondria II. Photosynthesis
C. Vacuoles III. Transport
D. Grana IV. Respiration
l) A — III; B —IV; C —I: D — II 2) A — I; B —II; C — IV: D — III
3) A — IV; B —I; C —II: D — III 4) A —I; B —II; C —III: D —IV
150. Read the following five statements (i-v) on photosynthesis. [New NCERT/XI/136]
(i) Photosynthesis is an oxidoreductive process.
(ii) The stroma of chloroplast is responsible for the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.
(iii) Membrane system of chloroplast is responsible for photochemical reaction.
(iv) Photosynthesis does not takes place in the ground tissue of leaves.
(v) In stroma, enzymatic reaction synthesize sugar. Select the right option having both incorrect
statement.
l) (i) and (iv) 2) (ii) and (iv) 3) (ii) and (v) 4) (iii) and (iv)
20 | P a g e
PART-IV- ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is [New NCERT/XII/29]
l) isthmus 2) infundibulum 3) cervix 4) ulla
152. Match column I (category) with column II (secondary metabo1ites) and choose the correct option.
[New NCERT/XII/108]
Column-I (Category) Column-II (Secondary metabolities)
A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A
B. Terpendiodes II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Codeine
D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin
1) A— IV; B— II; C —III; D — I
2) A— IV; B —III; C —II; D — I
3) A— I; B — IV; C —III; D — II
4) A —I; B — III; C —II; D — IV
153. The squamous epithelium is found in
[Old NCERT/XI/101]
l) stomach 2) intestine 3) trachea 4) air sacs of lungs
154. Column I contains the characteristics features and column II contains the function/ location. Select
the correct match from the option given below.
[New NCERT/XI/40, 43-44]
Column-I (Characteristic feature) Column-II (Function/Location)
A. Water canal system I. Sponges
B. Comb plates II. Eight ciliated external rows present in a body
of ctenophora.
C. Nephridia III. Helps in osmoregulation and excretion
D. Jointed appendages IV. Abodypart ofarthropoda
1) A —I; B — II; C — III; D— IV
2) A— III; B — I; C — IV; D — II
3) A —II; B — III; C — I; D — IV
4) A— III; B — II; C — IV; D —I
155. A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur head is
[New NCERT/XI/226]
1) acetabulum 2) glenoid cavity 3) sigmoid notch 4) obturator foramen
156. In adult man, normal blood pressure is
[New NCERT/XI/202]
1) 100/80 mm Hg
2) 120/80 mm Hg
3) 100/120 mm Hg
4) 80/120 mm Hg
157. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is

[New NCERT/XII/45
l) progesterone 2) growth hormone 3) thyroxine 4) luteinizing hormone
158. Statement I: Clitoris lies at the upper junction of the two labiaminora.
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Statement II: The vagina includes mons pubis, labiamajora labia minora, clitoris and hymen.
[New NCERT/XII/30]
159. The cell mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by: [New NCERT/XII/135]
1) B-lymphocytes 2) Thrombocytes 3) Erythrocytes 4) T-lymphocytes
160. All the diseases are spread by mosquito, except: [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XII]
l) Filariasis 2) Malaria 3) Chikungunya 4) Dengue
161. Volume of urine is regulated by [New NCERT/XI/212]
l) aldosterone 2) aldosterone and ADH
3) aldosterone, ADH and testosterone 4) ADH alone
162. Assertion (A): Mammals are found in polar ice caps, deserts, mountains, forests, grasslands and dark
caves. Reason(R): The most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of milk producing
glands. [New NCERT/XI/50]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
163. Study the given figure carefully and select the incorrect statements regarding this..
[New NCERT/XII/168]
(i) It represents a typical agarose gel electrophoresis in which lane l contains undigested DNA.
(ii) The higher the concentration of agarose, the larger will be the pore size.
(iii) The separated DNA fragments can be visualized after staining in the visible light.
(iv) The separated DNA bands are eut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This
step is known as elution.
(v) DNA fragments are negatively charged.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (ii) and (v) 4) (i) and (iv)
164. The ascending loop of Henle is permeable for [New NCERT/XI/209]
l) Ammonia 2) Glucose 3) Sodium 4) Water
165. Match the following and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/142-143]
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1) A —I; B — II; C —III; D — IV 2) A —II; B — I; C —III; D — IV

3) A — III; B — II; C — I; D — IV 4) A —I; B — III; C — II; D — IV
166. The total lung capacity is represented by [New NCERT/XI/187]
1) Tidal volume + Vital capacity 2) Tidal volume + Residual volume
3) Vital capacity + Residual volume 4) Inspiratory + Expiratory reserve volumes
167. Identify the main functions of the cerebrum of human brain from the given statement.
[New NCERT/XI/236]
(i) Control the contraction ofvoluntary muscles through the frontal lobe.
(ii) Control the sensitivity, movement, memory, vocabulary etc. through the frontal lobe.
(iii) Control the temperature, taste, touch, pain etc. through the parietal lobe.
(iv) Control the hearing and sense of smell through the occipital and frontal lobes.
1) (i), (ii), (iv) 2) (i), (ii), (iv) 3) (i), (ii), (iii) 4) (i), (iii), (iv)
168. Which of the following is not required in the preparation of a recombinant DNA molecules?
[New NCERT/XII/171]
l) Restriction endonucleases 2) DNA ligase
3) DNA fragments 4) E. coli
169. Statement I: Carbonic anhydrase is present in the erythrocytes.
Statement II: In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide combine with water and is transported.
[New NCERT/XI/190]
l) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
170. In which of the phylum, excretory organ like proboscis gland is present?
[New NCERT/XI/45]
1) Hemichordata 2) Chordata 3) Echinodermata 4) Annelida
171. Select the correct statement regarding Periplaneta Americana hold
[Old NCERT/XI/112]
1) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut.
23 | P a g e
2) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts.
3) Nervous system is located ventrally and consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair
of longitudinal connectives.
4) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles.
172. In the given columns, column-I contain structures of female reproductive system and column-II
contain its feature. Select the correct match from the option given below.
Column-I Column-II (Features)
(Structures of female reproductive system)
A. Ampulla I. Also called fallopian tubes, which extend from the
periphery of each ovary to the womb.
B. Labia majora II. It helps in collection of ovum after ovulation.
C. Oviduct III. Wider part of fallopian tube where fusion of male
and female gametes takes place.
D. Fimbriae IV. Larger hairy folds which extend down from the
mons pubis and surrounds the vaginal opening.
1) A — I; B —II; C — III; D —IV
2) A — III; B — I; C —II; D — IV
3) A— III; B —IV; C — I; D —II
4) A— II; B — IV; C — III; D —I
173. Statement I: Exonucleases are restriction enzymes, which cut DNA inteivally.
[New NCERT/XII/166]
Statement II: Exonuclease can destroy both DNA and RNA.
174. Artery differs from vein in having
[New NCERT/XI/201]
1) Narrowwall 2) Thick walls 3) Valves 4) None of these
175. Assertion (A): The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K“ generates resting potential.
[New NCERT/XI/232-233]
Reason (R): To maintain the unequal distribution of Na“ & K+, the neurons use electrical energy.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
176. Gel electrophoresis is used for
[New NCERT/XII/168]
l) construction or recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
2) isolation of DNA molecules
3) cutting DNA into fragments
4) separation of DNA fragments according to their size.
177. Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in the common cockroach?
[Old NCERT/XI/113]
24 | P a g e
l) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
2) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
3) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
4) The food is ground by gizzard
178. Statement I: In frogs vasa efferentia enter the kidneys and open into Bidder's canal.
[New NCERT/XI/83]
Statement II: Fertilisation of frog is external and takes place in water.
179. Chikungunya fever is caused by a [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XII]
1) Bacteria 2) Plasmodium 3) Virus 4) Fungi
180. Which of the following properties of cardiac muscles are correct? [New NCERT/XI/219]
(i) These are the muscles of the heart.
(ii) These are non-striated.
(iii) These are involuntary in their functions.
(iv) These are controlled by nervous system directly.
(v) Cardiac muscles not straited. Select the correct option.
1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii), (iv) and (v) 3) (i), (iv) and (v) 4) (ii) and (iii)
181. The first restriction endonuclease reported was [New NCERT/XII/165]
l) Hind II 2) EcoRI 3) find IH 4) BamM
182. Signals for parturition originate from: [New NCERT/XII/38]
l) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
2) Oxytocin released frorri maternal pituitary
3) Placenta only
4) Fully developed foetus only
183. CO2 combines with Hb to form: [New NCERT/XI/190]
1) Carbaminohaemoglobin 2) Carboxy haemoglobin
3) Oxyhaemoglobin 4) Methaemoglobin
184. Receptors for protein hormones are found [New NCERT/XI/247]

1) inside nucleus 2) inside cytoplasm 3) on surface of ER 4) on cell surface
185. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for [New NCERT/XII/171]
l) DNA finger printing. 2) Disarming pathogen vectors.
3) Transformation in plant cells. 4) Constructing DNA molecules.
SECTION-B
186. Statement I: Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita represent homology.
Statement H: Homologous organs have similar functions but are different in their structural details
and origin. [New NCERT/XII/115]
25 | P a g e
187. The genetically-modified (GM) cotton in India has been developed for [New NCERT/XII/179]
l) insect-resistance 2) enhancing shelf life
3) enhancing mineral content 4) drought-resistance
188. Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secrets and its
function/ deficiency symptom: [New NCERT/XI/241-242, 246]
Endœrine gland Hormone Function/ deficiency sympton
1) Posterior pituitary Growth Hormone(GH) Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth
2) Thyroid gland Thyroxine Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre
3) Corpus luteum Testosterone Stimulates spermatogenesis
4) Anterior Oxytocin pituitary Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth
189. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option
giving correct identification together with what it represents? [New NCERT/XII/172]
1) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands.

2) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C.
3) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase.
4) A- Annealing with two sets of primers.
190. Identify the correct reasons of infertility. [New NCERT/XII/48]
(i) Drugs (ii) Diseases (iii) Congenital
(iv) Use of Contraceptives (v) lmmunological or psychological
1) (i), (ii), (iii) 2) (iii) and (iv) 3) (i), (ii), (iii) and(v) 4) All of these
191. Smoking nicotine is associated with which of the following? [New NCERT/XII/144]
l) Gastric ulcer 2) Emphysema 3) Bronchitis 4) All of these
192. Match column I (containing list of scientists) with column II (their contributions) and choose the
correct option. [New NCERT/XII/119]
Column-I (Name of the Scientist) Column-II (Contributions)

A. Charles Darwin I. Mutation theory
B. Lamarck II. Philosophie Zoologique
C. Hugo de Vries III. The Origin of species
D. Ernst Haeckel IV. Biogenetic law
l) A — III; B — II; C —I; D —IV 2) A — III; B —II; C — IV; D —I
3) A — II; B —I; C —IV; D — III 4) A —IV; B —II; C —I; D —III
193. Which of the following statement is correct? [New NCERT/XII/136]
1) Injecting microbes during immunization induces passive immunity.
2) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection.
3) Colostrum during initial days of lactation provides active immunity to infant.
26 | P a g e
4) None of the above
194. Assertion (A): Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device in human females.
Reason (R): Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from vagina upwards into the fallopian tubes.
[New NCERT/XII/44]
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of(A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
195. Which of the following statements does not hold true for the hormones? [New NCERT/XII/240]
1) They act on target organs away from the source glands
2) They are secreted directly into the blood
3) They are used again and again like catalysts
4) They are produced in very minute quantities and are biologically very active
196. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to hormones secreted by placenta?
[New NCERT/XII/37]
(i) Placenta secretes relaxin during later stage of pregnancy.
(ii) Placenta secretes high amount of FSH during pregnancy.
(iii) Placenta secretes relaxin during initial stage of pregnancy.
(iv) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during pregnancy.
1) (i) and (iv) 2) (i), (ii) and(iv) 3) (iii) and (iv) 4) (ii), (iii) and(iv)
197. Match the following descriptions (given in column-II) of each type of blood cell to their names
(given in column-I). [New NCERT/XI/194]
Column-I Column-II
(Blood cell) (Description)
A. Erythrocyte I. Most abundant white blood cell, and the main phagocytic cell of the blood
B. Eosinophil II. Least abundant white blood cell; releases histamine granules.
C. Neutrophil III. Resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions.
D. Basophil IV. Blood cell that contains haemo-globin and transports oxygen.
1) A — IV; B — III; C — I; D — II 2) A — I; B —II, C — III; D —IV
3) A —II; B — III; C — I; D — IV 4) A —IV; B — I; C — II; D — III
198. Statement I: The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called as allergy. [New NCERT/XII/137]
Statement II: The allergic tendency is genetically passed from the parent to the offspring and is
characterised by the presence of large quantities of IgG antibodies in the blood.
l) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
199. Renal calculi is [New NCERT/XI/214]
l) soluble mass of crystallised salts in kidney.
2) soluble mass of protein in kidney.
3) insoluble mass of proteins in kidney.
4) insoluble mass of crystallised salts in kidney.
200. Read the following four statements (i-iv) about certain mistakes in two of them
[New NCERT/XII/183]
27 | P a g e
(i) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactal albumin
enriched.
(ii) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
(iii) Downstream processing is one of the steps of r-DNA technology.
(iv) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of r-DNA into the host.
Which are the two statements having mistakes?
1) Statement (ii) and (iii)
2) Statement(iii) and (iv)
3) Statement(i) and(iii)
4) Statement (i) and (ii)
28 | P a g e
ANSWER KEYS - TEST BOOKLET CODE: T1

PHYSICS
1) 4 2) 1 3) 3 4) 3 5) 3 6) 3 7) 2 8) 2 9) 3 10) 1
11) 4 12) 2 13) 4 14) 1 15) 4 16) 3 17) 2 18) 4 19) 3 20) 3
21) 4 22) 4 23) 2 24) 3 25) 4 26) 4 27) 3 28) 3 29) 2 30) 3
31) 1 32) 2 33) 1 34) 1 35) 4 36) 4 37) 1 38) 4 39) 4 40) 4
41) 1 42) 4 43) 4 44) 3 45) 4 46) 4 47) 4 48) 2 49) 2 50) 4
CHEMISTRY
51) 4 52) 2 53) 2 54) 3 55) 2 56) 3 57) 3 58) 1 59) 3 60) 1
61) 2 62) 3 63) 4 64) 1 65) 4 66) 3 67) 4 68) 3 69) 3 70) 1
71) 1 72) 4 73) 3 74) 2 75) 2 76) 4 77) 1 78) 3 79) 4 80) 2
81) 1 82) 2 83) 4 84) 3 85) 3 86) 4 87) 3 88) 1 89) 2 90) 1
91) 1 92) 3 93) 4 94) 3 95) 1 96) 3 97) 1 98) 4 99) 4 100) 3
BOTANY
101) 2 102) 2 103) 4 104) 3 105) 4 106) 1 107) 3 108) 4 109) 2 110) 1
111) 1 112) 1 113) 2 114) 1 115) 4 116) 2 117) 4 118) 3 119) 1 120) 4
121) 3 122) 2 123) 4 124) 3 125) 2 126) 1 127) 4 128) 2 129) 1 130) 1
131) 1 132) 3 133) 1 134) 2 135) 1 136) 1 137) 3 138) 1 139) 4 140) 4
141) 1 142) 4 143) 1 144) 2 145) 4 146) 3 147) 2 148) 4 149) 1 150) 2
ZOOLOGY
151) 2 152) 1 153) 4 154) 1 155) 1 156) 2 157) 1 158) 1 159) 4 160) 1
161) 2 162) 1 163) 2 164) 3 165) 2 166) 3 167) 3 168) 4 169) 4 170) 1
171) 4 172) 3 173) 1 174) 2 175) 2 176) 4 177) 4 178) 4 179) 3 180) 1
181) 2 182) 1 183) 1 184) 4 185) 3 186) 2 187) 1 188) 2 189) 3 190) 3
191) 4 192) 1 193) 2 194) 1 195) 3 196) 1 197) 1 198) 2 199) 4 200) 4
SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
p.r k pr cos  p cos 
1. (4) V =k 3
= 3
=k .
r r r2
eE
2. (1) Here, u=0; a = ; v = ?; t = t
m
eE
 v = u + at = 0 + t
m
29 | P a g e
h h h
De-Broglie wavelength,  = = =
mv m ( eEt / m ) eEt
Rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength

d h  1  −h
= −  =
dt eE  t 2  eEt 2
d h  1  −h
3. (3) = −  =
dt eE  t 2  eEt 2
v=
dr d
( )
= = 2t 2iˆ + 3tjˆ + 4kˆ = 4tiˆ + 3 ˆj
dt dt
a=
dv d
=
dt dt
( )
4tiˆ + 3 ˆj = 4iˆ
 a = 4ms −2 along x − direction
Qin
4. (3) By Gauss’s theorem,  =
0
Thus, the net flux depends only on the charge enclosed by the surface. Hence, there will be no effect
on the net flux if the radius of the surface is doubled.
5. (3) The trailing zero(s) in a number with a decimal point are significant.
q1 − q2
6. (3) Electric field between plates given by, E =
2 A 0
(Here, q1  q2 )
The, the potential difference will be

q1 − q2 q −q  E0 A 
V = Ed = d= 1 2  C = 
2 A 0 2C  d 
7. (2)
8. (2)
9. (3) Mass (m) = 0.3 kg  F = m.a = - 15x
15 −150
a=− x= x − 50 x
0.3 3
a = −50  0.2 = 10m / s 2
10. (1)
11. (4) The magnetic field at any point on the closed loop is due to all the three currents, but line
integral of i3 over the closed loop will be zero.
12. (2) Magnetic intensity on end side -on position is twice than broad side on position.
13. (4)  = BA cos  = 2.0  0.5  cos 600
30 | P a g e
2.0  0.5
= = 0.5 weber
2
F
14. (1) According to Newton's second law of motion a =
m
i.e. magnitude of the acceleration produced by a given force is inversely proportional to the mass of
the body. Higher is the mass of the body, lesser will be the acceleration produced i.e. mass of the
body is a measure of the opposition offered by the body to change a state, when the force is applied
i.e. mass of a body is the measure of its inertia.
15. (4) Though an equal and opposite force acts on the road but since road does not undergo any
displacement, hence no work is done on the road.
16. (3) Apply conservation of momentum,
Here v1 = 36km / hr = 10m / s, m1 = 2kg , m2 = 3kg
10  2
v= = 4m / s
5
1 1
K.E. (initial) =  2  (10 ) = 100 J K.E.(Final) =  3  ( 3 + 2 )  ( 4 ) = 40 J
2 2
2 2
Loss in K.E. = 100-40 = 60J Alternatively use formula
1 m1m2
−Ek = ( u1 − u2 )
2
2 2 ( m1 + m2 )
17. (2)
For given Lamina

xy
m1 = 1, C1 = (1.5, 2.5)
m2 = 3, C2 = ( 0.5,1.5)
m2 = 3, C2 = ( 0.5,1.5)
m1 y1 + m2 y2 2.5 + 4.5
Ycm = = = 1.75
m1 + m2 4
31 | P a g e
m1 y1 + m2 y2 2.5 + 4.5
Ycm = = = 1.75
m1 + m2 4
 Coordinate of centre of mass of flag shaped lamina
(0.75, 1.75)
18. (4)
19. (3) It is applicable to both small and big bodies.
20. (3) When resistance is connected to A.C source, then current & voltage are in same phase.
21. (4)
22. (4)
GM
23. (2) Speed of satellite, v =
r
2 r 2 r r3
Time, T = = = 2
v GM GM
r
2 r 2 r r3
T= = = 2
v GM GM
r
2 
( 8 106 ) − ( 7 106 ) 
3/2 3/2
= 
GM  
2
=  109 83/2 − 73/2 
−11
6.67 10  6 10 24
1300 s
24. (3) Since the circular motion is uniform, there fore there is no change of angufar velocity. Thus
angular acceleration is zero,
25. (4) Hydraulic machines & lifts are based on
F1 F2
P1 = P2 ; =
A1 A2
26. (4) Surface tension=0.075N/m;diameter=30cm=0.30m
:. Force=0.075 x 0.30=0.0225N=2.25 x 10-2N.
994
27. (3) Initial diameter of tyre=(1000-6)mm = 994 mm, so initial radius of tyre R = = 497mm
2
6
and change in diameter D = 6mm so R = = 3mm
2
After increasing temperature by  tyre will fit onto wheel Increment in the length (circumference)
of the iron tyre
32 | P a g e
  
L = L     = L   
3  As  = 3 
  3 R 3 3
2R = 2 R      = =
3  R 3.6 10−5  497
  5000 C
 r1r2   1 1
28. (3) W= = =  / 2J
2 2
29. (2)
30. (3) Let time taken byA to reach finishing point is t0
:. Time taken by B to reach finishing point= t0 + t
Putting this value oft0 in equation (i)
31. (1) The significant result deduced from the Rutherford's scattering is that whole of the positive
charge is concentrated at the centre of atom i.e. nucleus.
32. (2) As momentum is conserved, therefore,
33 | P a g e
33. (1) To find the refractive index of glass using a travelling microscope, a vernier scale is provided
on the microscope.
1
1−
34. (1) For adiabatic process, V  T
And for isothermal process, temperature is constant.
Let  = 1.5 .
1
Then, V 
T2
Hence, (c) is the correct V-T graph.

Also for adiabatic process, P  T  −1

Let  = 1.5
Then,  = 1.5
Hence, (d) is the orrect P-Tgraph.
35. (4) Apply Boyle's law, at constant temperature
1
P
V
36. (4)
37. (1)
The resultant motion can be treated as a simple harmonic

  − 
Motion with amplitude 2 A sin  2 1 
 2 
Given, maximum distance between the particles
 Amplitude of resultant S.H.M.
38. (4) The speed sound liquid,
34 | P a g e
39. (4) In equilibrium, Fe = T sin 

mg = T cos 
40. (4) Kirchhoff’s first law is based on conservation of charge and Kirchhoffs second law is based
on conservation of energy.
41. (1) (A) →(4); (B) → (3); (C) → (l);(D) → (2)
42. (4) Mutual inductance between two coil in the same plane with their centers coinciding is given by
43.
44. (3)
35 | P a g e
45. (4) 20 divisions on the vernier scale

= 16 divisions of main scale
:. 1 division on the vernier scale
16 16
= divisions of main sale = 1mm = 0.8mm
20 20
We know that least count = l MSD – 1VSD
= 1 mm-0.8mm =0.2mm
46. (4)
47. (4)
48. (2)
36 | P a g e
49. (2) The equivalent circuit is AND gate
50. (4)
CHEMISTRY
51. (4) The size ofan anion will be larger than that of the parent atom because the addition ofone or
more electron(s) would result in increased repulsion among the electrons and a decrease in effective
nuclear charge.
52. (2) A-(r),B-(p),C-(q),D-(s)
For spontaneity, AH TAS < 0
53. (2) Number of solute particles going into solution will be equal to the solute particles separating
out and a state of dynamic equilibrium is reached.
solute + solvent solution.
i.e., rate of dissolution = rate of unsaturation.
54. (3) Formation of CO and CO2 illustrates the law of
!Ilultiple proportion that is constant mass of C reacts with different masses of o ygen. These masses
here bears simple ratio of 1 : 2..
l l 
55. (2) We know, R  or R =    , where proportionality constant  is called resistivity. If
A  A
l=1m and A = 1m 2 , then R =  i.e., Resistance=Resistivity.
56. (3) The fourth orbital of nitrogen in all amines contains
an unshared pair of electrons. Due to the presence of unshared pair of electrons, the angle C-N-E,
(where E is C or H) is less than 109.5°.
57. (3) CO2, SiO2 are acidic, CaO is basic and SnO2 is amphoteric.
58. (1) Ligands present in the compound are
37 | P a g e
(i) NH 3
(ii) Cl (chlorido; di prefixed to represent two ligands.) .

The oxidation number of platinum in the compound is 2. Hence, correct IUPAC name is
Diamminedichloridoplantinurn(II)
59. (3)
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii), we get

K' = K
60. (1) HCl is added before NH 4OH to decrease conc. of OH − 
61. (2) m = - l to +l, through zero thus for l= 2, values of m

Will be -2,-1,0,+ l,+2.
Therefore for l = 2, m cannot have the value -3.
62. (3) Rate of reaction does not remain constant during the complete reaction because rate depends
upon the concentration of reactants which decreases with time.
63. (4) The compound is an aldehyde containing longest chain of 6 C-atoms and side chains.
64. (1) Commercially, acids are reduced to alcohols by
converting them to the esters, followed by their reduction using hydrogen in the presence of catalyst
(catalytic hydrogenation).
65. (4)
66. (3) Acetone and benzaldehyde both do not react with Fehling's solution.
67. (4) The minimum oxidation state in transition metal is equal to the number of electrons in 4s
shell and the maximum oxidation state is equal to the sum of the 4s and 3d electrons.
Ti= [Ar]3d24s2
Hence, minimum oxidation state is+2 and maximum oxidation state is +4. Thus, the common
oxidation states of Ti are+2, +3 and+4
38 | P a g e
68. (3) According to molecular orbital theory, bond order of Li2 is 1 , while in all other cases bond
order is 0, so they do not exist. Li2 molecules are known to exist in the vapour phase.
69. (3) When the proteins are subjected to the action of heat, mineral acids or alkali, the water
soluble form of globular protein changes to water insoluble fibrous protein. This is called
denaturation of proteins. During denaturation called denaturation of proteins. During denaturation
primary structures remains intact.
70. (1) Benzaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction, which forms benzoic acid and benzylalcohol
as the product.
71. (1) 18g of water at l00°C
10 g of Cu at 25°C is added.
qq = C p ,m dT
72. (4)
73. (3) In aqueous solution BA (salt) hydrolyses to give
39 | P a g e
74. (2) Physical state of iodine is different from other halogens as iodine is solid, bromine is a liquid
whereas fluorine and chlorine are gases.
75. (2)
It can be prepared by oxidation of acetaldehyde cyanohydrin.
76. (4)
77. (1) Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
78. (3) Bohr model can explain spectrum of any atom or ion containing one electron only(that is H-
like species)
79. (4)  Fe ( CO5 )  ( Z = 26 ) O.S. of Fe is zero . Electronic configuration is  Ar  3d 6 , 4s 2 4 p 0 . After
pairing of electrons of d and s orbitals, we have one d atomic orbital empty. C.N. is 5 so
hybridization is dsp 3 which is trigonal bipyramidal.
80. (2) If K c is in the range of 10−3 to 103 appreciable concentrations of both reactants and products
are present.
81. (1) Given vapour pressure of pure solvent ( P 0 ) = 121.8 mm Hg ; Weight of solute (w)=15g
Weight of solvent (W)=250g; Vapour pressure of solution (P)=123.2 mm Hg and molecular weight
of solvent (M)=78
82. (2) 7 periods 18 groups.

83. (4) Oxidation number of hydrogen when it is bonded to metals in binary compounds is -1.
84. (3) The coordination number of central metal atom in a
40 | P a g e
complex is equal to number of monovalent ligands, twice the number of bidentate ligands and so on,
around the metal ion bonded by coordinate bonds
Hence coordination number= no. of  bonds formed by metals with ligands
85. (3) It is S N 1.
86. (4)
2+
87. (3) Complex formed in ring test is  Fe ( H 2O )5 NO 
88. (1) Alkanernitriles (other than methanenitrile) and benzonitrile give ketones with Grignard
reagents.
89. (2)
90. (1)
91. (1) C>B>A: percentage yield.
During nitration process of aniline in strong acidic ( HNO3 , H 2 SO4 ) medium, aniline changes to
anilinium ion that can withdraws electron density. Its effect is felt maximum at ortho followed by
meta and then para position. Consequently, very little of ortho nitrated product is formed.
92. (3) G = −nFEcell
0
Subtracting (i) from (ii), we get
93. (4)
41 | P a g e
94. (3) Cyclopropylmethyl carbocation is especially stable because of conjugation between the bent
orbitals of the cyclopropyl ring and the vacant p-orbitals of the cationic carbon.
95. (1) A-(q), B-(p), C-(r), D-(s)
96. (3) Equiv. mass of
97. (1) The ortho and para isomers can be easily separated due to large difference in their melting
points. Fluoro compounds are not prepared by electrophillic substitution method due to high
reactivity of fluorine.
98. (4)
99. (4) Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency of about 70% compared to thermal plants
whose efficiency is about 40%.
100. (3) Bond strength oc Bond order, Removal of electron from antibonding MO increases B.O.
NO and O2 have valence e− in  * orbital.
42 | P a g e
BOTANY
101. (2) Ratio of the volume of CO2 produced to the volume of O2 consumed in respiration over a
period of time is known as respiratory quotient.

102. (2) A- III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
103. (4) Bryophytes are known as 'amphibians of plant kingdom'. In their vegetative structure, bryophytes
have become adapted to land but they depend on water for sexual reproduction because the
swimming habit is retained by their sperms.
104. (3)
105. (4) Two kingdom classification (founded by Linnaeus) worked a long time. But this system did
not distinguish between karyotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and multicellular ..ms, photosynthetic
and non-photosynthetic organisms..., classification oforganism (into plants and animals) was one and
was easy to understand, but a•large number of .. did not fall into either category. Hence, the two
kingdom .. ation used for a long time was found inadequate.
106. (1) Amphibian species diversity is more in Western Ghat than in Eastern Ghat.
107. (3) Two nucleotides are linked through 3’-5’ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. The
chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called heterochromatin.
108. (4) Kinetochore is the portion of the chromosome centromere to which the mitotic spindle fibres
(microtubules) attach. It is the location on the centromere where the spindle fibre attaches.
109. (2) A-II;B-I;C-IV;D-III
110. (1) Primary treatment of sewage is a physical process and concerned mainly with the removal of
coarse solid materials through filtration and sedimentation.
102. (2) A- III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
103. (4) Bryophytes are known as 'amphibians of plant kingdom'. In their vegetative structure, bryophytes
have become adapted to land but they depend on water for sexual reproduction because the
swimming habit is retained by their sperms.
104. (3)
105. (4) Two kingdom classification (founded by Linnaeus) worked a long time. But this system did not
distinguish between karyotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and multicellular ..ms, photosynthetic and
non-photosynthetic organisms..., classification oforganism (into plants and animals) was one and was
easy to understand, but a•large number of .. did not fall into either category. Hence, the two kingdom
..ation used for a long time was found inadequate.
106. (1) Amphibian species diversity is more in Western Ghat than in Eastern Ghat.
107. (3) Two nucleotides are linked through 3' - 5' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. The
chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called heterochromatin.
43 | P a g e
108. (4) Kinetochore is the portion of the chromosome centromere to which the mitotic spindle fibres
(microtubules) attach. It is the location on the centromere where the spindle fibre attaches.
110. (1) Primary treatment of sewage is a physical process and concerned mainly with the removal of
coarse solid materials through filtration and sedimentation.
111. (1) Double fertilisation is a characteristic feature of angiosperms. It involves two fusions in
which one male gamete fuses with ,egg cell to form zygote and other male gamete fuses with the
diploid secondary nucleus to produce triploid primary_endosperm nucleus.
112. (1) Asteraceae is another name of Family Compositae.
113. (2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate also known as triose phosphate, is a chemical compound that
occurs as an intermediate is several central metabolic pathways of all organisms. It is an intermediate
in photosynthesis. Apart of triose phosphate is translocated to cytosol from chloroplast d is utilised
for the synthesis of glucose, sucrose etc. The reaction may be summarised as follows:
Fructose-6, phosphate is then converted into other sugars depending upon plants need.
114. (1) A-II;B-ID;C-IV;D-1
115. (4) Gibberellins (GAs) are plant hormones that regulate growth and influence various
developmental processes, including stem elongation, germination, dormancy, flowering, sex
expression, enzyme induction, and leaf and fruit senescence. GA is also responsible for bolting
(internode elongation just prior to flowering).
116. (2) Lipids present in the outer and inner side of the bilayer are conµnonly different, e.g., lecithin
on the outter side and cephalin on the inner side of erythrocyte membrane. pi:;ripheral proteins are
attached to external surface of bio- merribrane. They are absent on the inner side.
117. (4) Four important funct1onal aspects of the ecocystem are
(i) productivity (ii) decomposition,•(iii) energy flow,
(iv) nutrient cycling. Stratification•is the occurrence of vertical zonation in the ecosystem & indicates
the presence of favourable environmental conditions.
118. (3) Chrysophytes are a group of diatoms, golden algae
44 | P a g e
(desmids) and golden brown photosynthetic microscopic protists. Their body is. covered by a
transparent siliceous shell.
119. (1) A-II; B-III; C-1; D-IV.
120. (4) The leaves in pteridophyta are small (microphylls) as in selaginella or large (macrophylls) as
in ferns.
121. (3) The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer called aleurone
layer. The embryo is srriall and situated in a groove at one end of the endosperm. It .consists of one
large and shieldshaped cotyledon known as scutellum and a short axis with a plumule and a radicle..
The plumule and radical are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile .and coleorhizae
respectively.
122. (2) Endodermis or innermost fayer of cortex has
casparian strips in roots. It is called starch sheath in dicot stems. It separates cortex from stele. The
cell walls are thickened at the comers in angular collenchyma.
123. (4) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-1
124. (3)
125. (2)
126. (1) Glycocalyx or mucilage is the outermost coating of bacterial cells/cell wall which is rich in
polysaccharides. A thick and tougher mucilage is called capsule which gives gummy or sticky trait to
cells. It protects the cells from dessication, toxins and preventing attachment to foreign invaders.
127. (4) Auxins inhibit the growth of axillary buds and promote apical dominance. It induces
parthenocarpic development of fruits and such fruits are seedless and auxin is also responsible for
phototropism and geotropisms. Ripening and maturity of fruits are related to ethylene.
128. (2) Okra is a member of family Malvaceae.
129. (1) Cytokinins are mildly basic growth hormones which are u ually amino purine derivatives and
promote cell division in plants. Cytokinins inhibit apical tlominance while auxins promote apical
dominance.
130. (1) C4 pathway is an adaptation of tropical plants to reduce/avoid the photorespiratory loss. In C4
pathway, first acceptor of CO2 is a 3 carbon compound - phosphoenol pyruvate.
131. (1) One cell produces 4 daughter cells after meiotic • division. Thus, for the formation of 100
100
pollen grains, = 25 PMC are needed and each will undergo one 4 reduction/meiotic division.
4
132. (3) Brood parasitism in birds is an interesting example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird
lays its eggs in the nest of its host and the host incubates them.
45 | P a g e
134. (2) Reproduction refers to the production of progeny possessing features more or less similar to
those of parents. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by
fragmentation.
135. (1) Net primary productivity is the rate of organic matter build up or stored by producers in their
bodies per unit time and area. Net productivity is equal to gross primary productivity minus loss due
to respiration and other reasons. Rate of increase in energy containing organic matter or biomass by
heterotrophs or consumers per unit time and area is known as secondary productivity.
136. (1) The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always AUG. A DNA strand with the
sequence TAC will corresponds to the first amino acid i.e., AUG. On DNA strand A always pairs
with T while on RNA strand A always pairs with U.
137. (3) Diplotene is the longest and the most active sub- phase of prophase I of meiosis. In diplotene,
the homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion as the nucleoprotein complex of synapsed
chromosomes dissolves, but are yet held by chiasmata.
138. (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
139. (4) The oxygen obtained from cellular respiration combines with the hydrogen obtained from the
oxidation of organic molecules to form water.
140. (4)
141. (4)
142. (4) The criteria must a molecule fulfill to act as genetic material is it should be chemically and
structurally stable and do not allow show mutation.
143. (1) Meiosis I is known as reductional division due to reduction in the number of chromosomes.
Meiosis II is called equational division because of maintaining the same number of chromosomes.
144. (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
145. (4) All the given statements are the function of anther.
146. (3) The order and sequence of amino acid are defined by the sequences of bases in the mRNA.
147. (2) Axillary buds are present in the axils of leaves and are capable of forming a branch or a
flower.
148. (4) Biological classification is the scientific arrangement of organisms in a hierarchial series of
groups and subgroups on the basis of similarities and differences in their traits. It helps in building
evolutionary pathways and in identifying new organisms.
149. (1) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
150. (2) The stroma of chloroplast contain enzymes for reduction or fixation of CO2. Assimilatory
power (ATP and NADPH2) is mainly produce in light reaction in the thylakoid membrane.
Photosynthesis mostly occur in mesophyll cells (ground tissue) of leaves.
ZOOLOGY
46 | P a g e
151. (2) The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is infundibulum. Infundibulum possess finger-
like projections called fimbriae that help in collection of ovum after ovulation. It leads to wider part
of oviduct called ampulla. The last part of oviduct is isthmus that has a narrow lumen and joins the
uterus.
152. (1) A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
153. (4) The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells. They are present in
the walls of blood vessels and air sacs lungs.
154. (1) A-I;B-II;C-III;D-IV
155. (1) At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium and pubis, there is a cavity called acetabulum to
which the thigh bone articulates.
156. (2) In normal person, the normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The normal systolic
(pumping) pressure is 120 mm Hg and normal diastolic (resting) pressure is 80 mmHg.
157. (1) Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or progestogen-estrogen
combinations (in the form of pills) is one of the contraceptive methods used by the females.
158. (1)
159. (4) The cell mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by T-lymphocyles.
160. (1) Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti. It is a filarial worm. It causes chronic
inflammation of the organs.
161. (2) Aldosterone and ADH maintains the volume of urine. Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal
cortex, causes the retention of water in the body by increasing the levels of sodium and potassium
ions in the blood, which causes the body to reabsorb more water. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary, causes more water to be
retained by the kidneys when water levels in the body are low.
162. (1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
163. (2) The higher the concentration ofagarose, the smaller will be the pore size. The DNA fragments
separate according to their size through the agarose gel, with smaller fragments moving farther away
as compared to large ones. The DNA fragments can be visualised by staining them with ethidium
bromid followed byexposure to UV radiations.
164. (3) The ascending loop ofHenle is permeable for sodium.
165. (2) A-II;B-I;C-III,D-IV
166. (3) Total bmg capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air in the lungs after a maximum inspiration.
(RV+ ERV+ TV+ IRVor VC + RV).
167. (3) Statements (i), (ii) and iii) are the main functions of cerebrum. Cerebrum is the largest and
most highly developed part of the human brain. The outer portion of the cerebrum is covered by a
47 | P a g e
thin layer of gray tissue called the cerebral cortex. It is divided into right and left hemispheres that
are connected by the corpus callosum.
(iv) Cerebrum controls the hearing and sense of smell through the temporal lobe.
168. (4) Restriction enzymes and DNA ligases are used to make a stable recombinant DNA molecule,
with DNA fragments that has been spliced together from two different organisms.
169. (4) Both the statements are correct.
170. (1) Phylum hemichordata consists of a small group of worm-like marine animals with rgan
system level of organization. They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals.
Excretion takes place through proboscis gland.
171. (4) Anal style is a pair of short, thread-like structure present in males only. In both sexes, the
10th segment bears of pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.
172. (3) A-III; B-IV; C-1; D-II
173. (1) Endonuclease are restriction enzymes which cut the DNA internally.
174. (2)
175. (2) Resting membrane potential is determined by the uneven distribution of ions between the
inside and the outside of the cell and by the different permeability of the membrane to different types
of ions.
176. (4) Gel electrophoresis is used for separation of DNA fragments according to their size.
177. (4) Cockroach intake the food after grounding it by its mandibles and gizzard.
178. (4)
179. (3) Chikungunya is caused by virus.
180. (1)
181. (2) The DNA fragments separate according to their size through the agarose gel, with smaller
fragments moving farther away as-compared to large ones. The DNA fragnients .can be visualised by
staining them with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiations:
182. (1) The signals for chil.d?irth (parturition) originate from the fully matured foetus and placenta
which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
183. (1) When CO2 compines with Hb then carbomino haemoglobin is formed.
184. (4) Receptors for protein hormone are found on the cell surface.
185. (3) The gene gun was invented by John C. Sanford with Edward Wolf A gene gun can be used to
genetically infect cells or whole organisms with foreign DNA byaiming the barrel of the gun and
firing. Themicroshot projectilesin the biolistic gene gun are made of microscopic (or nano) sized
gold or platinum powders. These expensive powders are soaked in DNA or RNA (in raw or plasmid
form) that are engineered for insertion into the genome of the cells or organisms under the gun. This
method is used for transformation in plant cells.
48 | P a g e
186. (2)
187. (1) The genetically modified brinjal in India has been developed for insect resistance. Rt-cotton
is a transgenic brinjal that is developed by inserting a crystal gene from the Bacillus thuringiensis in
to the cotton genome.
188. (2) Thyroid gland is an import gland that releases thyroid hormones like thyroxine (T4) and
triirodothyronine (T3) into the blood stream. Iodine deficiency causes thyroid enlargement that result
into goitre. Growth hormone secreted by Anterior pituitary
Corpus leutuni' secreted Progesteron Oxytocin is secreted by Posterior pituitary
189. (3) PCR is a technique for enzymatically replicating DNA without using a living organism such as E.
coli or yeast. The correct steps shown in the above figure are:
A- Denaturation at a temperature of about 94° to 98°C. During the denaturation, the double stranded.
DNA open to single stranded DNA, and all enzymatic reactions stop.
B- Annealing (binding of DNA primer to the separated strands. Occurs at 50° to 65°C, which is
lower than the optimal temperature of the DNA polymerases) C - Extension or elongation of the
strands using the DNA primer with heat-stable DNA polymerases, most frequently Taq (Thermus
aquaticus) at 72°C.
190. (3)
191. (4) Gastric ulcer, emphysema, lung cancer and bronchitis are associated with smoking nicotine.
192. (1) A-ill; B-11; C-1; D-IV
193. (2) Injecting microbes during immunization induces active immunity. Colostrum secreted from
the mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the foetus.
This protection provides passive immunity.
194. (1) Intra-uterine device (IUD), Copper-T is plastic or metal object placed in the uterus by a
doctor. Copper-T prevents the fertilisation of the egg or implantation of the embryo.
195. Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands directly into the blood. They are not used again and
again like catalyst.
196. (1) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during pregnancy while it secrete relaxin during later stages
of pregnancy.
197. (1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-11
198. (2) It is not always possible that allergy will transfer from parents to their offspring. Some
allergies are mild and therefore become dominant in next generation.
199. (4) Renal calculi is presence of stones or insoluble mass of crystallised salts (oxalates) formed
with in the kidneys.
200. (4) Transgenic Rosie is actually cow. Restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific sites.
49 | P a g e

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NEET LIKE MOCK TEST-01

units for r to be in metre. The a ( t ) of the particle at t =1 s is [New NCERT/XI/36]

The value of the magnetic flux through the area would be

1) (1.25m,1.50m) 2) (0.75 in, 1.75m)

liquid is [New NCERT/XI/287]

1) OR 2) AND 3) NOR 4) NAND

2) p-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 1010 m−3

1) CO2 2) SiO2 3) SnO2 4) CaO

l) to decrease [OH-] conc. 2) to increase [OH-] conc.

1) 4 — benzyl — 5 — methyl hexanal 2) 2 — methyl —3 — phenyl hexanal

1) He2 2) Be2 3) Li2 4) Both (l) and (2)

1) Br2 water test 2) Tollen's test

1) 356J 2) 456.8 3) 530.1 4) 656.7

1) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both Markovnikov addition products.

Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of: [New NCERT/XII/273]

1) These cells are eco-friendly.

1) CO2 produced to substrate consumed 2) CO2 produced to O2 consumed

Column-I (type of aestivation) Column-II (Examples)

l) IAA 2) kinetin 3) ABA 4) GA

l) TAC 2) UAC 3) UAG 4) AUG

1) It causes the breakdown of citric acid.

157. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is

1) A —I; B — II; C —III; D — IV 2) A —II; B — I; C —III; D — IV

184. Receptors for protein hormones are found [New NCERT/XI/247]

1) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands.

Column-I (Name of the Scientist) Column-II (Contributions)

ANSWER KEYS - TEST BOOKLET CODE: T1

Rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength

 a = 4ms −2 along x − direction

The, the potential difference will be

For given Lamina

Putting this value oft0 in equation (i)

Also for adiabatic process, P  T  −1

The resultant motion can be treated as a simple harmonic

38. (4) The speed sound liquid,

39. (4) In equilibrium, Fe = T sin 

45. (4) 20 divisions on the vernier scale

(ii) Cl (chlorido; di prefixed to represent two ligands.) .

Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii), we get

61. (2) m = - l to +l, through zero thus for l= 2, values of m

73. (3) In aqueous solution BA (salt) hydrolyses to give

It can be prepared by oxidation of acetaldehyde cyanohydrin.

82. (2) 7 periods 18 groups.

Subtracting (i) from (ii), we get

period of time is known as respiratory quotient.

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