(Answer) WBCS (Prelims) Mock Test-16

WBCS 2023 (Preliminary) Examination
Offline Mock Test-16
Q.1) In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly
spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.
A. Familiar
B. Grammer
C. Narrator
D. Operator
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Grammer
‗Grammer‘ is the incorrectly spelt word. The correct spelling is ‗Grammar‘.
Q.2) In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an
appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by
selecting the appropriate option.
If you write a forty-page essay in one night, you'll accomplish a huge _______.
A. treat
B. feat
C. fleet
D. beat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is "Feat".
 A feat is an achievement that requires great courage or skill. The sentence means that
if one writes a forty-page essay in one night, then it is an achievement that requires
great skill.
 From the above meaning of the word it can be inferred that the correct sentence: If
you write a forty-page essay in one night, you'll accomplish a huge feat.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Option B".
Additional Information
 treat: behave towards or deal with in a certain way
 fleet: a marshland creek, channel, or ditch.
 beat: strike (a person or an animal) repeatedly and violently so as to hurt or injure
them
Q.3) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which
will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed,
select "no improvement".
I would love to come to your party! Thank you for (invites) me.
A. invited
B. invite
C. inviting
D. no improvement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Inviting is an adjective which means the offer of something at a future date.
The sentence talks about a party that is yet to occur. Hence, the present participle of ‗invite‘
must be used. The correct sentence is: ‗I would love to come to your party! Thank you for
inviting me.‘
Q.4) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out
of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence
in Indirect/Direct speech.
My father says, "Prices are shooting up alarmingly."
A. My father says that prices shoot up alarmingly.
B. My father says that the price was shooting up alarmingly.
C. My father says that prices shot up alarmingly.
D. My father says that prices are shooting up alarmingly.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: When the reporting verb in direct speech is present tense, we do not employ
changes in the tense in indirect speech. Hence, solution is Option D.
Q.5) In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an
Because she had a ______________ demeanour, she was a desirable friend.
A. Pleasant
B. Severe
C. Mean
D. Nasty
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Since the sentence talks about a positive trait that makes "she" a desirable
friend, the only word that could be used to fill in the blank is 'pleasant'. The word pleasant
means giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment.
The other words mean:
Severe - (of something bad or undesirable) very great; intense
Mean - intend to convey or refer to (a particular thing); signify.
Nasty - very bad or unpleasant
Q.6) In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an
If your child has not met the ______________ vaccination requirements, he or she will
not be allowed to attend public school.
A. Optional
B. Referral
C. Compulsory
D. Guideline
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The sentence talks about 'vaccination requirements' which brings about a sense
of necessity. The word 'compulsory' in this regard is important because among the four
options only that word hold coherent meaning pertaining to the same.
The meaning of the words:
Optional - available to be chosen but not obligatory.
Referral - an act of referring someone or something for consultation, review, or further
action.
Guideline - a general rule, principle, or piece of advice.
Q.7) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in
meaning to the word given.
Stymie
A. Explicate
B. Abate
C. Impede
D. Aid
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Impede.
 The word Stymie means to prevent or hinder the progress of.
 The word Impede means to delay or prevent (someone or something) by obstructing
them; hinder.
 The other words mean:
o Explicate: analyse and develop (an idea or principle) in detail.
o Abate: to become less strong; to make something less strong
o Aid: help, typically of a practical nature.
Suffix
A. Addition
B. Basic
C. Root
D. Focal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word 'suffix' means a morpheme added at the end of a word to form a
derivative.
The closest meaning word in this context would be 'addition' which means the action or
process of adding something to something else.
Basic - forming an essential foundation or starting point; fundamental.
Root - the basic cause, source, or origin of something.
Focal - relating to the centre or most important part.
Q.9) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in
Sultry
A. Frigid
B. Muggy
C. Sticky
D. Soggy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word 'sultry' means (of the air or weather) hot and humid. The word with
the opposite meaning is 'frigid' which means very cold in temperature.
Muggy - (of the weather) unpleasantly warm and humid
Sticky - tending or designed to stick to things on contact.
Soggy - very wet and soft.
Supple
A. Flexible
B. Brittle
C. Pliable
D. Bending
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word 'supple' means bending and moving easily and gracefully; flexible.
The word most opposite in meaning is 'brittle' which means hard but liable to break easily.
Flexible - capable of bending easily without breaking.
Pliable - easily bent; flexible.
Bending - shape or force (something straight) into a curve or angle.
best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Barking up the wrong tree
A. Scolding the one who is innocent.
B. Expecting a favour from a heartless person.
C. Looking in the wrong place.
D. Requesting but in an arrogant manner.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The phrase 'barking up the wrong tree' means to look for something in the
wrong place and therefore the correct option would be C.
best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Call it a day
A. To start a job wishing for success.
B. To take a break or a holiday.
C. Assign different days to different tasks.
D. To declare the end of a task.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The phrase 'call it a day' means 'to declare the end of a task' and therefore the
correct option would be D.
will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed,
select "no improvement".
Would you mind (to carrying) this bag for me.
A. To carry
B. Carry
C. Carrying
D. No improvement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer should be 'carrying'.

The verbs followed by -ing include enjoy, mind, stop and recommend.
I told him you really enjoy cooking.
Would you mind helping me?
It didn't stop raining all day yesterday.
Daisy recommends trying Alfie‘s tiramisu.
Therefore the correct option would be C.
is the best substitute of the words/sentence.
The quality or state of being exposed to the possibility of being attacked or harmed
A. Vigour
B. Vulnerability
C. Fortitude
D. Clout
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word vulnerability means the quality or state of being exposed to the
possibility of being attacked or harmed, either physically or emotionally.
Vigour - physical strength and good health.
Fortitude - courage in pain or adversity.
Clout - a heavy blow with the hand or a hard object
is the best substitute of the words/sentence.
A solemn promise or undertaking
A. Pledge
B. Deceit
C. Myth
D. Perjury
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word 'pledge' means a solemn promise or undertaking.
Deceit - the action or practice of deceiving someone by concealing or misrepresenting the
truth.
Myth - a traditional story, especially one concerning the early history of a people or
explaining a natural or social phenomenon, and typically involving supernatural beings or
events.
Perjury - the offence of wilfully telling an untruth or making a misrepresentation under oath.
Q.16) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out
in Passive/Active voice.
My friends are going to watch a movie tonight.
A. A movie is going to be watched by my friends tonight.
B. My friends will have watch a movie by tonight
C. A movie was going be to watched by my friends by tonight
D. My friends to will have watch a movie by tonight
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: None of the other sentences apart from option A are grammatically correct.
Therefore the only option could be 1 and nothing other than that.
Q.17) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out
in Indirect/Direct speech.
"What time will the flight arrive?" she asked the receptionist.
A. She asked the receptionist what time the flight would arrive.
B. She asked the receptionist what time the flight arrived.
C. She asked the receptionist when does the flight arrive
D. She asked the receptionist what was going to be the time for the flights arrival
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is She asked the receptionist what time the flight would
arrive.
 The given sentence is in Direct Speech. As per the given question we have to change
it into Indirect Speech.
 The process of transformation as follows:
o 'Said to' will be changed into 'Asked' because we know that the given
sentence is interrogative with a question word.
o Comma and inverted commas will be removed.
o 'What' will be used as a conjunction because we know that in an
interrogative sentence with a question word the question word itself
becomes the conjunction.
o In indirect speech, an interrogative statement is converted into an assertive
statement, so the auxiliary verb will come after the subject.
o 'will' will be changed into 'would'.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option A.
Q.18) In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out
which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence
is free from error, select 'No error'.
My sisters-in-law (1)/who lives in Kolkata (2)/have come to stay with us. (3)/No Error
(4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The given sentence has an error in the second part. From the context of the
sentence, it can be easily interpreted that the statement is for many people. Hence, 'lives'
should be changed to 'live' as ―sisters-in-law‖ are living in Kolkata which is plural.
Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
The employee did not _____ to the argument of the manager.
A. precede
B. exceed
C. concede
D. recede
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The blank, as apparent, needs a verb which can make the sentence meaningful
and correct. Option A defines position which is irrelevant with the context. Option B defines
quantity which also do not serve the purpose relevant to the context. Option D also defines
position as similar to option A and cannot be used further. The correct option which make the
sentence meaningful and correct is option C.
He was sworn _____ as the Prime Minister of our country.
A. in
B. off
C. about
D. out
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: When taking some position, there generally is an oath session which people
have to take. But to retire, there is no such session. So options B and D are eliminated by
common knowledge. Option 3 makes the sentence grammatically incorrect. The correct filler
which makes the sentence meaningful and correct is option A.
Cantankerous
A. humorous
B. quarrelsome
C. remorseful
D. dullness
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ‘Cantankerous‘ means someone who is quarrelsome or argumentative and
uncooperative. From the given words, the 2nd option is perfectly matching the actual
meaning of the given word. On the other hand, ‗humorous‘ means ‗laughable‘, while
‗remorseful‘ is something to be felt bad about. ‗Dullness‘ means an attitude of a person who
is mostly non-reactive to other stimuli and very inactive.
Connoisseur
A. Decisive
B. Uncivilised
C. Discerning Judge
D. Narrow-minded
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ‗Decisive‘ means ‗resolute‘ or ‗settling‘.
Uncivilised means someone who lacks the proper manners to which agreeable to the people
or society. Discerning Judge is a person who has a great sense of better judgement. Narrow-
minded is a person who is generally stereotypical and not much open to grasp others thoughts
whether relevant or not. Connoisseur means someone who has a great taste of something and
can make the perfect judgement. From the above meanings, the similar word would be option
C.
Nugatory
A. Delusive
B. Futile
C. Unreal
D. Productive
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: ‗Nugatory‘ means something which is unproductive or worthless. ‗Delusive‘
means something or someone that is misleading . ‗Futile‘ means waste or unproductive. This
is synonymous to ‗nugatory‘. From the given meaning of some of the options, the correct
antonym to the word ‗nugatory‘ would be ‗productive‘
Naive
A. Artful
B. Candid
C. Credulous
D. Sincere
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Naive is a person who lacks proper understanding or experience or both of
something. ‗Artful‘ means full innovation and creativity. ‗Candid‘ means frank
or straightforward(something which is not adulterated). ‗Credulous‘ is a person who
expresses immense readiness to believe something.‘Sincere‘ means someone who knows and
does his/her work diligently. From the above meanings of the given options, the correct
opposite word to ‗naive‘ would be option A.
best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
Mealy-mouthed
A. Ill-tempered
B. Afraid to speak frankly
C. Enthusiastic
D. Depressed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mealy-mouthed is an expression given to someone who is generally afraid to
speak the truth. Ill-tempered is a person who gets angry or irritated very frequently.
Soft-spoken is someone who is very gentle in speaking and avoids speaking something which
might be hurtful to others.
Enthusiastic is someone who is energetic to do things. ‗Depressed‘ is someone who is in a
state of unhappiness or despondency.
From the meanings of the other expression, the closest to Mealy-mouthed is option B.
Q.26) The ______ lies above the mesopause and is a region in which temperatures
increase with height.
A. stratosphere
B. exosphere
C. thermosphere
D. troposphere
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is thermosphere.
 The thermosphere lies above the mesopause and is a region in which
temperatures increase with height.
 Thermosphere:
o In the thermosphere, the temperature rises very rapidly with increasing height.
o The ionosphere is a part of this layer.
o It extends between 80-400 km. This layer helps in radio transmission.
Q.27) Which of the following is the LEAST visible form of land erosion?
A. Gully erosion
B. Landslides
C. Sheet erosion
D. Ravine formation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Sheet erosion.
 Sheet erosion is the LEAST visible form of land erosion.
 Sheet erosion is the process of uniform removal of soil in thin layers by the forces of
raindrops on land.
 It is caused by the force of rainfall.
 It takes place in levelled lands and plowed fields after a heavy shower and the soil,
removal is not easily noticeable, but it is harmful since it removes the finer and more
fertile topsoil.
Q.28) Si-yu-ki or ‗The Records of the Western World‘ was written by:
A. Marco Polo
B. Fa-Hien
C. Hiuen Tsiang
D. Abdur Razzak
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Hiuen-Tsang.
 Hiuen-Tsang wrote the book ‗Shi-Yu-Ki‘ after visiting the Harshavardhana court.
 Si-yu-ki means "Record of the Western Countries".
 Hiuen Tsang visited India during the period of emperor Harsha.
 Hiuen Tsang remained at the University of Nalanda for five years.
 Hiuen Tsang had been a guest to Bhaskara Varman, ruler of Kamarupa.
 Hiuen Tsang described Kannauj as a beautiful city.
 Pu Songling was a Qing dynasty Chinese writer.
 Pu Songling was the author of Strange Stories.
Q.29) The branch of horticulture which deals with the production, storage, processing
and marketing of vegetables is called ______.
A. olericulture
B. agronomy
C. pomology
D. apiculture
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is olericulture.
 Olericulture is the branch of horticulture that deals with the production, processing,
and marketing of vegetables.
 It is the production of plants for the use of their edible parts.
 Vegetable crops are classified into nine categories.
 It also includes organic gardening and organic farming and biotechnology.
Q.30) Which of the following is a carnivorous plant?

A. Clarkia
B. Drosera
C. Alyssum
D. Hollyhock
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Drosera.
Explanation:
 The animals which feed on other animals are called carnivorous animals.
 In plants also there are some plants that feed on insects.
 Such plants are having modified leaves known as pitfall traps.
 Insects are attracted to these traps.
 They get digested by the pitcher plant's digestive juices.
 Other such plants are Drosera, dionaea, Utricularia, etc.
 In pitcher plants, there are leaves for photosynthesis for preparing starch like other
plants.
 It fulfils its protein requirements from insects.
 The area in which such plants grow lacks nitrogen in the soil.
Q.31) ______ is a disorder resulting in abnormal electrical discharges from the brain
cells causing seizures.
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Prostatitis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Epilepsy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Epilepsy.
 Epilepsy is a disorder resulting in abnormal electrical discharges from the brain
cells causing seizures.
 Epilepsy is a medical condition of the brain, which results in untimely seizures or fits.
 India observes National Epilepsy Day on November 17 to create awareness about the
disease.
 The World Health Organisation has described it as a "chronic non-communicable
disease of the brain which is characterized by recurrent seizures".
 Symptoms include loss of consciousness, sudden twitching, etc.
 WHO has also reported that close to 50 million people in the world suffer from
epilepsy.
 It is considered one of the most common neurological diseases globally.
 Nearly 80% of people with epilepsy live in low- and middle-income countries.
Q.32) Who among the following was a contributor to the subject of medicine in ancient
India?
A. Bhasa
B. Charaka
C. Panini
D. Harsha
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Charaka.
 Charaka was a contributor to the subject of medicine in ancient India.
 He was the court physician of Kaniska.

 Charaka was one of the principal contributors to Ayurveda medicine in ancient India.
 He is best known for his work Charaka Samhita.
 Charaka Samhita:
o It is also called Caraka-Samhita.
o It is a detailed text on ancient Indian medicine attributed to Charaka, a
practitioner of Ayurveda, India's traditional medical system.
o Charaka-Samhita, also spelt Caraka-Samhita or Caraka- samhita,
comprehensive text on ancient Indian medicine credited to Charaka.
o He was a practitioner of the traditional system of Indian medicine known as
Ayurveda.
o Charaka is thought to have flourished sometime between the 2nd century BCE
and the 2nd century CE.
Q.33) Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) is a vaccine for ______.

A. typhoid
B. tuberculosis (TB)
C. mumps
D. plague
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is tuberculosis (TB).
 BCG stands for Bacille Calmette-Guerin.
 It is a vaccine for tuberculosis (TB) disease.
 Tuberculosis (TB) disease is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
 Tuberculosis (TB) usually attacks the lungs.
 BCG vaccine was first considered by the WHO Expert Committee on Biological
Standardization in its thirteenth report.
 BCG vaccine is one of the most widely used of all current vaccines.
 BCG vaccine has a documented protective effect against meningitis and disseminated
TB in children.
Q.34) The Regional Rural Banks were established on the recommendations of the
______ on Rural Credit.
A. Rekhi Committee
B. Narsimha Committee
C. Kelkar Committee
D. Tandon Committee
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Narsimha Committee.
 The Regional Rural Banks were established on the recommendations of the
Narsimha Committee Rural Credit.
 Regional Rural Bank:
o Regional Rural Banks were established on the basis of the recommendations

of the Narasimham Working Group (1975), and after the legislation of the
Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
o They are financial institutions that ensure adequate credit for agriculture and
other rural sectors.
o They were set up on the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group
(1975).
o RRBs were granted legal provisions under the Regional Rural Banks Act,
1976.
o The first Regional Rural Bank "Prathama Grameen Bank" was set up on
2nd October 1975.
o The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, the
concerned State Government, and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of
50:15:35.
o The RRBs have combined characteristics of a cooperative and a commercial
bank.
o It operates within the local limits as notified by the Government.
o The main objectives of RRBs are:
 To provide credit and other facilities to the small and marginal farmers,
agricultural labourers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs in rural areas.
 To check the outflow of rural deposits to urban areas.
 To reduce regional imbalances.
 To increase rural employment generation.
 They are required to provide 75% of their total credit as priority sector
lending.
Q.35) With reference to no-confidence motion, which of the following statements is

INCORRECT?
A. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office.
B. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
C. It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha in the council of
ministers.
D. It can be moved against the entire council of ministers only.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok
Sabha.
 With reference to the no-confidence motion, the statement that It should state
the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha is INCORRECT.
 No confidence motion is a motion that is introduced against the ruling government in
the elected house i.e Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha and not in the upper house i.e Rajya
Sabha or Vidhan Parishad.
 It is a special power vested in the hand opposition.
 The vote of a no-confidence motion is brought in Lok Sabha.
 In Parliament when a no-confidence motion is passed, the Government discontinues

to adore the trust and confidence of the house and is thereafter removed.
 In this procedure, no-confidence voting is done against the Government by the Lok
Sabha members.
 When a no-confidence motion is passed the President dissolves the Council of
Ministers.
 The no-confidence motion is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
 Process for No Confidence Motion:
o A Requirement for the introduction of no Confidence motion is given to the
speaker of the house which is to be supported by a minimum of 50 members.
o The speaker will give time within the next 10 days for discussion on the
motion in the house.
o After the discussion, the voting takes place.
o If the No-Confidence Motion is passed in the house the Council of ministers
must resign as they have lost the majority in the house.
o If the NO Confidence motion is passed, then the President is not bound by the
aid and advice of the defeated council of ministers.
Q.36) An amendment to the Right to Information Act 2005 proposing that the Chief
Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners be appointed ‗for such
term as may be prescribed by the Central Government‘ was passed in the year _____.
A. 2016
B. 2019
C. 2017
D. 2014
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is 2019.
 An amendment to the Right to Information Act 2005 proposing that the Chief
Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners be appointed ‗for
such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government‘ was passed in the
year 2019.
 The Lok Sabha passed the Right to Information (Amendment) Bill, 2019 on 22nd
July 2019.
 In this amendment, it is proposed to amend the Right to Information Act, 2005 so as
to provide that:
o The term of office
o The salaries
o Allowances
o And other terms and conditions of service of, the Chief Information
Commissioner and Information Commissioners and the State Chief
Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioners, shall be
such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
 Right to Information Act 2005:
o Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests

for government information.
o It is an initiative taken by the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry
of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions to provide a- RTI Portal
Gateway to the citizens for quick search of information on the details of first
Appellate Authorities, PIOs, etc.
o Amongst others, besides access to RTI-related information/disclosures
published on the web by various Public Authorities under the government of
India as well as the State Governments.
Q.37) According to the Census of 2011, which of the following states has the highest
density of population per km2?
A. Jharkhand
B. Goa
C. Gujarat
D. Maharashtra
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Jharkhand.
Mistake Points
 You have to choose the correct answer from the given following options.
 If Bihar is in the options then it will be the correct answer.
 But as per the given options, Jharkhand will be the correct answer.
 Population Density 2011 of India State:
o Jharkhand: 414 people per square kilometer
o Goa: 394 people per square kilometer
o Maharashtra: 365 people per square kilometer
o Gujrat: 308 people per square kilometer
 The density of the population is expressed as the number of persons per unit area.
 It helps in getting a better understanding of the spatial distribution of population
concerning land.
 The density of population in India (2011) is 382 persons per sq km.
 There has been a steady increase of more than 200 persons per sq km over the last 50
years as the density of the population increased from 117 persons/ sq km in 1951 to
382 persons/sq km in 2011.
 The state of Arunachal Pradesh has a total population of roughly 1.4 million as
per the census of 2011.
 On an area of 84,000 km2, approximating a population density of about 17 pop./km2.
 Delhi's population Density is 11,320 persons per sq km.
 Among the northern Indian States, Bihar (1106), West Bengal (1028), and Uttar
Pradesh (829) have higher densities, while Kerala (860) and Tamil Nadu (555)
have higher densities among the peninsular Indian states.
 States like Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand, and

Odisha have moderate densities.
Q.38) Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals ensures availability and
sustainable management of water and sanitation for all?
A. SDG 4
B. SDG 7
C. SDG 6
D. SDG 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is SDG 6.
 Sustainable Development Goal 6 ensures availability and sustainable
management of water and sanitation for all.
 Sustainable Development Goal 6 is about "clean water and sanitation for all."
 The Sustainable Development Goals are the blueprint to achieve a better and more
sustainable future for all.
 They address the global challenges we face, including poverty, inequality, climate
change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.
 The United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 6 strives to ensure the availability
and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
 The 17 Sustainable Development Goals and 169 targets are integrated and indivisible
and balance the three dimensions of sustainable development: the economic, social,
and environmental.
Q.39) The Mughal court chronicles are written in ______.

A. Persian
B. Turkish
C. Urdu
D. Arabic
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Persian.
 The Mughal court chronicles written in Persian.
 Mughal chronicles such as the Akbar Nama were written in Persian, others, like
Babur's memoirs, were translated from the Turkish into the Persian Babur Nama.
 Urdu came from the amalgamation of Persian with Hindavi.
 Chronicles commissioned by the Mughal emperors are an important source for
studying the empire and its court.
 The authors of Mughal chronicles were mostly courtiers.
 The Mughals were Chaghtai Turks by origin.
 Turkish was their mother tongue hence the first ruler Babur wrote poetry and his
memoirs in this language.
Q.40) The salary and allowances of leaders of opposition in parliament are governed by
the Act passed for the first time by the parliament in the year ______.
A. 1982
B. 1977
C. 1979
D. 1972
Correct Answer: B
 The salary and allowances of leaders of opposition in parliament are governed
by the Act passed for the first time by the parliament in the year 1977.
 Leader of the Opposition:
o In each House of Parliament, there is the 'Leader of the Opposition'.
o The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth of
the seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the
Opposition in that House opposition cabinet.
o In a parliamentary system of government, the leader of the opposition has a
significant role to play.
o His main functions are to provide constructive criticism of the policies of the
government and to provide an alternative government.
o Therefore, the leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
were accorded statutory recognition in 1977.
o They are also entitled to the salary, allowances, and other facilities equivalent
to that of a cabinet minister.
o It was in 1969 that an official leader of the opposition was recognized for
the first time.
Q.41) The rate of doing work is called:

A. impulse
B. energy
C. force
D. power
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Power.
 In physics, power is the rate of doing work.
o It is the amount of energy consumed per unit of time.
o The unit of power is the joule per second (J/s), known as the watt (in honor
of James Watt, the eighteenth-century developer of the steam engine).
th
Q.42) The 40 Amendment Act of 1976 was applied to which Article of the Constitution
of India?
A. 297
B. 248
C. 245
D. 226
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Article 297.
 The 40th Amendment Act of 1976 was applied to Article 297 of the constitution
of India.
 According to the 40th Amendment Act of 1976:
o For Article 297 of the Constitution, the following article shall be substituted,
namely:-
 Article 297(3).
 Article297(2)
 Article 297(1)
o These articles empowered the Parliament to specify from time to time,
o the limits of the territorial waters, the continental shelf, the Exclusive
Economic Zone (EEZ), and the maritime zones of India.
 40th Amendment 1976, also included 64 more Central and state laws.
 Mostly relating to land reforms in the 9th Schedule.
Q.43) What is the study of the production and propagation of sound waves called?
A. Optics
B. Photonics
C. Astrophysics
D. Acoustics
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Acoustics.
 Acoustics is the study of the production and propagation of sound waves.
 Acoustics is the science concerned with the production, control, transmission,
reception, and effects of sound.
 The term is derived from the Greek akoustos, meaning ―heard.‖
 Applications of acoustic technology are in the study of:
o Geologic,
o Atmospheric,
o Underwater phenomena.
Q.44) India lost a large proportion of ______ growing area to Pakistan during the
partition.
A. sunflower
B. jute
C. soyabean
D. cotton
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Cotton.
 India lost a large proportion of cotton growing area to Pakistan during the
partition.
 The industry suffered in several ways:
o India‘s share in the output of raw cotton in undivided India was about
60%, while the corresponding share in the mill output was as high as 95%.
o Secondly, the areas growing high-quality long and medium staple cotton
went to West Punjab and Sind.
o Thirdly, India lost a sizeable amount of its internal market because of the
partition.
o The country also lost its earlier advantage as an exporter.
 Approximately 65 percent of Pakistan's cotton is grown in Punjab as the region has
dry conditions.
 The rest is grown in Sindh, which has a more humid climate, with the negligible area
under cotton in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and Balochistan.
 During the partition these areas went into Pakistan, hence India lost a huge
proportion of its cotton production.
Q.45) The First Amendment Act of the Constitution of India came up in ______.
A. 1954
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1953
Correct Answer: B
 The First Amendment to the constitution of India was made in 1951.
 The first Amendment added the ninth schedule to the Indian constitution.
 It restricted the freedom of speech and expression.
 It was introduced to remove certain practical difficulties created by the court's
decision in several cases such as Kameshwar Singh Case, Romesh Thapar Case, etc.
 The First Amendment protects us against government limits on our freedom of
expression, but it doesn‘t prevent a private employer from setting its own rules.
 It prevents the government from requiring you to say something you don't want to or
keeping you from hearing or reading the words of others.
 It inserted articles 31A and 31B into the Indian constitution.
Q.46) ‗Ashtadhyayi‘, written by Sanskrit scholar Panini, is a book on ______.

A. medicine
B. law
C. economy
D. grammar
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Panini.
 Ashtadhyayi was written by Indian grammarian Panini during the 6th to 5th
century BCE.
 Ashtadhyayi sets the work standard for the Sanskrit language.
 It sums up in 4,000 sutras that had evolved in the Vedic religion.
 Panini divided his work into eight chapters, each of which is further divided
into quarter chapters.
 Beyond defining the morphology and syntax of Sanskrit language, Ashtadhyayi
distinguishes between usage in the spoken language and usage that is proper to the
language of the sacred texts.
 Vedavyasa: He is the author of Mahabharata.
 Shukadeva: He is the main narrator of Bhagavata Purana.
 Valmiki: He is the author of the epic Ramayana.
Q.47) Which of the following is the study of insects and their relationship to humans, the
environment, and other organisms?
A. Ornithology
B. Entomology
C. Ethology
D. Mycology
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Entomology
 Entomology is the study of insects and their relationship to humans, the
environment, and other organisms.
 Entomology is crucial to our understanding of the human disease, agriculture,
evolution, ecology, and biodiversity.
 Mycology is the study of fungi, their relationships to each other and other organisms.
It is the unique biochemistry that sets them apart from other groups.
 Philology traditionally the study of the history of language, including the historical
study of literary texts. It is also called comparative philology when the emphasis is on
the comparison of the historical states of different languages.
 Phycology (also called algology) is the study of algae. It is a large heterogeneous

group of chiefly aquatic plants ranging in size from microscopic forms to species as
large as shrubs or trees.
Q.48) What is the atomic mass of oxygen (expressed in ‗u‘)?

A. 24
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Correct Answer: C
 The average atomic mass of oxygen is 15.9994(16) atomic mass units.
 However, this atomic mass is the average atomic mass of all the isotopes in nature.
 Hence, the atomic mass of oxygen is 16 u means that one atom of oxygen is 16 times
heavier than 1/12 of a carbon-12 atom.
Oxygen is the chemical element with the symbol O and atomic number 8.
 It is a member of the chalcogen group in the periodic table, a highly reactive
nonmetal, and an oxidizing agent that readily forms oxides with most elements as
well as with other compounds.
 At standard temperature and pressure, two atoms of the element bind to form
dioxygen, a colorless and odorless diatomic gas with the formula O2.
Diatomic oxygen gas currently constitutes 20.95% of the Earth's
atmosphere, though this has changed considerably over long periods of time.
 Oxygen makes up almost half of the Earth's crust in the form of oxides.
 Oxygen was isolated by Michael Sendivogius before 1604, but it is commonly
believed that the element was discovered independently by Carl Wilhelm Scheele,
in Uppsala, in 1773 or earlier, and Joseph Priestley in Wiltshire, in 1774.
 Priority is often given to Priestley because his work was published first.
Q.49) Who among the following was the founder of the Indian Association for the
Cultivation of Science?
A. Ashutosh Mukhopadhyay
B. Mahendra Lal Sircar
C. Prafulla Chandra Roy
D. Jagadish Chandra Bose
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Mahendra Lal Sircar.
 Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science in Calcutta was founded on July
29, 1876, by Dr Mahendra Lal Sircar, IACS is the oldest institute in India devoted
to the pursuit of fundamental research in the frontier areas of basic sciences.
 Professor C V Raman worked at IACS from 1907 to 1933, and it is here that he
discovered the celebrated Effect that bears his name and for which he was awarded
Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
 The Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) is a society registered
under Act XXI of 1860.
 It has a Governing Council with a number of members elected or nominated and the
Registrar as its Non-Member Secretary.
 The Institute is run by the Governing Council, which is the apex policy-making body.
Q.50) According to the 2011 Census of India, which of the following states has a
population density of 17 persons per sq km?
A. Assam
B. Nagaland
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Sikkim
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.
 According to Census-2011, the population density of Arunachal Pradesh is
only 17 people per square km.
 According to the Census 2011, the population density of the states given in the
option is -
o Sikkim - 86 per sq km.
o Nagaland - 119 per sq km.
o Assam - 398 per sq km.
o Among the states, Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density
with 17 per sq km.
o The highest population density is in the NCT of Delhi with 11297 people
per sq km.
Q.51) How many protons are there in a lithium nucleus?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
Correct Answer: D
 The number of protons in the nucleus of lithium is 3.
 Lithium:
o Symbol: Li
o Atomic Number: 3
o Group: 1
o Period: 2
o Block: S
o Electronic configuration: [He] 2s1
o It is the lightest metal.
o Lithium is found only in Salt and Minerals.

o Lithium is used in battery industries.
Q.52) With reference to the administration of Delhi Sultanate, which of the following
was the department of State Correspondence?
A. Diwan-i-arz
B. Diwan-i-khairat
C. Diwan-i-risalt
D. Diwan-i-insha
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Diwan-i-insha.
 Diwan-i-Insha was the department of correspondence.
 Delhi Sultanate's administration was segregated into various parts – Central,
Provincial, Judicial, Local, etc.
 There were many departments and officials who helped the Sultan in administration.
Important Points
 Administration under the Sultanate:
 It was also influenced by the Iranian system of administration.
 The situation in India and Indian traditions was kept in mind during these systems.
 Organs of the Government:
o Diwan-i-Wizarat: Department of revenue and finance headed by the
Wazir.
o Diwan-i-Arz: Department of Military headed by Ariz-i-Mamalik.
o Diwan-i-Insha: Department of royal correspondence headed by Dabir-i-
lnsha.
o Diwan-i-Risalat: Department of foreign affairs
o Diwan-i-bandagan: Diwan-i-bandagan (department of slaves).
o Diwan-i-Khairat: (charity department) was created by Firuz Shah Tughlaq.
o Diwan-i-mustakhraj: Diwan-i-mustakhraj (to realize arrears) was created
by Alauddin Khiiji.
o Diwan- i-kohi: Diwan- i-kohi (department of agriculture) was created by
Muhammad bin Tughluq.
Q.53) Chandannagar was established as a French colony in 1673, obtaining permission

from______ the then Nawab of Bengal, to establish a trading post on the right bank of
the river Hooghly.
A. Mansur Ali Khan
B. Murshid Quli Khan
C. Ibrahim Khan
D. Mir Zafar
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Ibrahim Khan.
 Chandannagar was established as a French colony in 1673.

 Obtained permission from Ibrahim Khan, the then Nawab of Bengal, to establish a
trading post on the right bank of the river Hooghly.
 In 1730 Joseph Francois Dupleix was appointed governor of the city.
 In 1756 war broke out between France and Great Britain, and the British Navy
captured Chandannagar on 23 March 1757.
 Chandernagore merged with West Bengal on 2nd October 1954.
Q.54) Which Article of the Constitution of India prohibits anyone from employing
children below the age of fourteen in factories, mines, etc?
A. 23
B. 26
C. 24
D. 25
Correct Answer: C
 Article 24
o Article 24 of the Indian constitution talks about the prohibition of the
employment of children in factories.
o No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any
factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
Q.55) The Open Hand Monument in Chandigarh was designed by ______.

A. Matthew Nowicki
B. Maxwell Fry
C. Le Corbusier
D. Albert Mayer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Correct Answer is Le Corbusier.
 The monument built in Chandigarh by Legendary Architect, Le Corbusier is
Open Hand Monument.
 The Open Hand Monument is a symbolic structure designed by the architect Le
Corbusier and located in the Capitol Complex of the Indian city and union territory of
Chandigarh.
 It is the emblem and symbol of the Government of Chandigarh and symbolizes "the
hand to give and the hand to take, peace and prosperity, and the unity of mankind".
 The largest example of Le Corbusier's many Open Hand sculptures, it stands 26
meters high.
 The metal structure with vanes is 14 meters high, weighs 50 short tons, and was
designed to rotate in the wind.
Q.56) Which of the following does NOT come under the category of Public Goods?
A. Government administration
B. Food items
C. National defence
D. Roads
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Food items.
 Public Goods :
o The government provides certain goods and services which cannot be
provided by the market mechanism i.e. by the exchange between individual
consumers and producers. which are referred to as public goods.
o Examples - National defence, Roads, Government administration, etc.
o Hence Food items are NOT public goods.
Q.57) ______ is a tax system that collects a greater share of income from those with high
incomes than from those with lower incomes.
A. Proportional tax
B. Regressive tax
C. Payroll tax
D. Progressive tax
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Progressive tax.
 Progressive Tax
o In progressive taxation, the tax liability increases with individual or entity
income.
o This is based on the principle of ability to pay.
o Under this system, the lowest income people are generally exempted while the
highest income people pay the highest taxes.
o Income Tax is thus an example of a progressive tax.
o Progressive taxation results in the redistribution of income from rich to poor.
o A progressive tax charges a higher tax rate for people who earn a higher
income.
Q.58) In which of the following sessions of the Indian National Congress did George
Yule become the President in 1888?
A. Calcutta
B. Allahabad
C. Madras
D. Bombay
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Allahabad.
 George Yule became the President of INC in 1888 in the fourth session held at
Allahabad.
 He was the first non - Indian to be the President of INC.
 He belonged to the business community. He was the chief of the well-known Andrew
Yule and Co. in Calcutta.
 He had also been Sheriff of Calcutta and President of the Indian Chamber of
Commerce.
 Yule was widely known in Indian circles for his breadth of outlook, liberal views, and
marked sympathy for Indian aspirations.
 Surendranath Banerjee described him as "a hard-headed Scotsman who saw
straight into the heart of things, and never hesitated to express himself with the
bluntness in which a Scotsman never fails if he wants to show it."
Q.59) The ______ Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to

Panchayati Raj institutions.
A. 68th
B. 73rd
C. 82nd
D. 54th
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is the 73rd constitutional amendment.
 The main objective of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
o To provide constitutional status to the panchayats.
o It aimed at democratic decentralization of power and resources among the
central government and local bodies.
 Article 40 of the Indian Constitution obligated the state governments to constitute
panchayats and provide them such powers and functions so that they can work
as a unit of self-government.
Q.60) The Contempt of Courts Act was passed to define and limit the powers of certain
courts in punishing contempt of courts and to regulate their procedure in relation
thereto. In which of the following years was the Act passed?
A. 1971
B. 1975
C. 1969
D. 1982
Correct Answer: A
 The Contempt of courts act, 1971:
 An Act to define and limit the powers of certain courts in punishing contempts of
courts and to regulate their procedure in relation thereto.
 This Act has been promulgated by the Parliament of India in the Year 1971 with
an aim to define what amounts to Contempt of Court.
 This means contempt jurisdiction enjoyed by the courts is only for the purpose of
upholding the majesty of the judicial system that exists.
o Contempt is defined under Section 2(a)[3] of the Contempt of Courts Act,
1971 which says:
o ―Contempt of court‖ means civil contempt or criminal contempt.
o ―Civil contempt‖ is defined under Section 2(b) which means wilful
disobedience to any judgment decree, direction, order, writ, or another
process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
o ―Criminal contempt‖ is defined under Section 2(c) which means the
publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by
visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any
other act whatsoever which:
 Scandalises or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the
authority of, any court.
 Prejudices, or interferes or tend to interfere with, the due course of any
judicial proceeding.
 Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct,
the administration of justice in any other manner.
Q.61) Urea, a commonly used nitrogen-based fertiliser, is prepared by the reaction

between ammonia and ______.
A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. sulphur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is carbon dioxide.
 Urea is now prepared commercially from liquid ammonia and liquid carbon
dioxide.
 The chemical name of urea is carbamide, the diamide of carbonic acid.
 Its formula is H2NCONH2.
 Urea has important uses as a fertilizer and feeds supplement.
 It is a colourless substance existing in the crystalline form, which melts at 132.7°C
(271° F).
 Urea is a waste product in the body with no physiological function.
 It dissolves in the kidney and blood before it is excreted as urine.
Q.62) The greater one-horned rhino is listed under the Schedule ______ of the Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972.
A. II
B. IV
C. III
D. I
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is I.
 The greater one-horned rhino is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972.
 Wildlife Protection Act 1972 was passed on August 21, 1972, but was later
implemented on September 9, 1972.
 This act prohibits the capturing, killing, poisoning, or trapping of wild animals.
 It extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q.63) In which Indian state will you find Mount Tiyi?

A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Odisha
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Nagaland
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Nagaland.
 Mount Tiyi is situated in Wokha in Nagaland.
 Nagaland is a state in North-Eastern India.
 It is bordered by the state of Arunachal Pradesh to the North, Assam to the West, and
Manipur to the East.
 Its Capital is Kohima.
 Its Largest City is Dimapur.
Q.64) Which of the following rivers is also called Vyeth?

A. Jhelum
B. Zanskar
C. Tawi
D. Shyok
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Jhelum.
 Jhelum is also called Vyeth.
 A spring, Verinag is the source of the Jhelum river which flows across
the Kashmir valley.
 It is located in the vicinity of Banihal Pass, 20kms from Anantnag,
 It is the first tourist spot of Kashmir valley when travelling from Jammu by
road.
Q.65). In which of the following years was the Dowry Prohibition Act passed in India?
A. 1967
B. 1961
C. 1952
D. 1959
Correct Answer: B
Key Points
 Dowry Prohibition Act was enacted on May 1, 1961:
o Its purpose was to prevent the giving and receiving of dowry.
o According to the Dowry Prohibition Act, "dowry" means any property or
valuable security given or agreed to be given directly or indirectly.
o The Dowry Prohibition Act is applicable to persons of all religions in India.
o Punishment for violation of law is 5 years imprisonment and Rs 15000/- or
the value of dowry whichever is higher.
Q.66) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved an increase in the
Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for all mandated Rabi crops for the marketing season
2021–22 in line with the recommendations of the ______ Commission.
A. Kothari
B. Nanavati
C. Swaminathan
D. Mukherjee
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Swaminathan.
 The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved an increase in the
Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for all mandated Rabi crops for the marketing
season 2021–22 in line with the recommendations of the Swaminathan Commission.
 Swaminathan Commission was appointed by former Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh.
 It was headed by Professor M.S. Swaminathan to address the nationwide calamity
of farmers' suicides in India.
 According to the report, the major causes of the agrarian crisis are unfinished agenda
in land reform, quantity and quality of water, technology fatigue, access, adequacy
and timeliness of institutional credit, and opportunities for assured and remunerative
marketing.
 The Commission recommended that land reforms are necessary to address the basic
issue of access to land for both crops and livestock.
Professor M.S Swaminathan is known for his role in India's Green Revolution
Q.67) ______, a fluid secreted by new mothers during the initial days of lactation,
contains nutrients that boost a baby's immune system and help fight infection.
A. Sebum
B. Synovia
C. Colostrum
D. Cerumen
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Colostrum.
 Colostrum a fluid secreted by new mothers during the initial days of lactation
contains nutrients that boost a baby's immune system and helps fight infection.
 Colostrum is a supplement made from a yellowish milky fluid that's released from
the mothers during the initial days of lactation.
 It provides passive immunity.
 It is an antibody-rich fluid.
 It also provides several important growth hormones and other compounds such
as lactoferrin for newborns.
Q.68) In Jharkhand, the primitive form of cultivation is called:

A. Kuruwa
B. Khil
C. Kumari
D. Valre
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Kuruwa.
 In the state of Jharkhand, the ‗slash and burn' agriculture is known as
‗Kuruwa‘.
 It is prevalent in the tropical region in different names:
o Jhuming in Northeastern states of India,
o Milpa in Central America and Mexico,
o Roca in Brazil,
o Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia.
Q.69) The Bhaja Caves are located in ______.

A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Rajasthan
D. Bihar
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Maharashtra.
 Bhaja Caves is a group of 22 rock-cut caves that date back to the 2nd century BC.
o It is located in the Pune.
o The caves belong to the Hinayana Buddhism sect in Maharashtra.
o These caves are famous for their indications of the awareness of wooden
architecture.
o The caves share an architectural design with the Karla Caves.
 Karla Caves is a complex of Buddhist rock-cut caves.
o It is located at Karli near Lonavala Maharashtra.
 Barabar caves in Bihar are one of the oldest dating rock-cut caves from the times
of the Mauryans and contain rare Hindu and Buddhist scriptures.
 Elephanta Caves are situated at Elephanta Islands in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
 Ajanta Caves are located in the Sahyadri ranges (Western Ghats) near Aurangabad
(Maharashtra).
Q.70) In which of the following years was the civil disobedience campaign completely
ceased?
A. 1917
B. 1934
C. 1923
D. 1943
Correct Answer: B
 On March 12, 1930, Gandhiji inaugurated the civil disobedience movement with the
Dandi Salt March.
 He broke the Salt Laws imposed by the British Government.
 The civil disobedience movement broadened into people refusing to buy foreign
goods, a refusal to pay taxes and not attending office and school.
 Disturbed by this movement the British imprisoned Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal
Nehru.
 By the end of 1930, thousands of Indians, were in jail and the movement had
generated worldwide publicity.
 Lord Irwin (British viceroy from1926–31) was looking for a way to end it.
 Gandhiji was released from custody in January 1931, and the two men began
negotiating the terms of the pact.
 The Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed on March 5, 1931, and the two main clauses of
the pact were to ensure Congress's participation in the Round Table Conference and
the end of the civil disobedience movement.
 The Second Round Table Conference in London which Gandhiji attended with
Sarojini Naidu, proved to be futile as the British did not honour their demands.
 The Viceroy, Lord Willingdon, in the absence of Gandhiji, adopted the policy of
repression, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was violated and the Viceroy took to the
suppression of the INC.
 Gandhiji resumed the movement in January 1932 and appealed to the country to
join in.
 Gandhiji realised that the second phase of the civil disobedience movement lacked the
organisation that marked its first phase, even though the entire nation put up a tough
fight.
 The movement continued for six months. Gandhiji began a fast for 21 days on May 8,
1933, to make amends for the sins committed against the untouchables.
 He withdrew the mass Satyagraha on July 14, 1933, but the movement ceased
completely on April 7, 1934.
 Hence Civil disobedience campaign completely ceased in 1934.
Q.71) Gold and copper happen to absorb ______ and violet light, leaving yellow light.
A. green
B. blue
C. red
D. orange
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is blue.
 Gold and copper happen to absorb blue and violet light, leaving yellow light in
the spectrum.
 So gold and copper are yellowish in colour.
 The only two non-silvery metals in the world are gold and copper.
 A metal is defined as an element that readily forms positive ions (cations) and has
metallic bonds.
 These elements have electrons that are loosely held to the atoms, and will readily
transfer them.
 Most metals' electrons reflect all colours equally which are in the visible spectrum of
light.
 So those metals appear as white silver.
Q.72) The UN‘s Sustainable Development Goal 6 aims to ______.

A. ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages
B. ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all
C. end poverty in all forms everywhere
D. take urgent action to combat climate change and its impact
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is to ensure the availability and sustainable
management of water and sanitation for all.
Key Points
 The UN‘s Sustainable Development Goal 6 aims to ensure the availability and
sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
 The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) or Global Goals are a collection of 17
interlinked goals.
 The SDGs were set in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended
to be achieved by the year 2030.
 They are included in a UN ReCorrect Answer: called the Agenda 2030.
Q.73) King Lalitaditya Muktapida ruled over ______.

A. Gujarat
B. Sikkim
C. Kerala
D. Kashmir
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Kashmir.
 King Lalitaditya Muktapida ruled over Kashmir.
 Lalitaditya Muktapida was the grandson of Durlabahaka.
 Lalitaditya Muktapida extends the power of Kashmir beyond the normal mountain
limits.
 Lalitaditya was able to defeat the Turks, Tibetans, Bhutias, and Kambojas.
 The Martand complex of temples perpetuates the memory of King Lalitaditya.
 The Karkota dynasty was associated with the history of Jammu and Kashmir.
 Karkota Dynasty was founded by Durlabhvardhana.
 Durlabahaka was the son of Durlabhvardhana.
Q.74) The Hirakud Dam is built near the city of _________ in Odisha.
A. Balasore
B. Cuttack
C. Rourkela
D. Sambalpur
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Sambalpur.
 It is located in Sambalpur, Odisha and is a composite dam and reservoir.
 The height of the Hirakund dam is 60.96 mt and the length is 25.8 km.
 Its present capacity is 347.5 MW with -
o Power House I (Burla): 2 x 49.5 MW, 3 x 37.5 MW, 2 x 32 MW
o PowerHouse II (Chiplima): 3 x 24 MW
 Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru laid its first batch of concrete on 12 April 1948.
Q.75) When was the Tenth Session of the Constituent Assembly held?
A. 16 May - 16 June 1949
B. 14-31 July 1947
C. 4 November 1948 - 8 January 1949
D. 6-17 October 1949
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is 6-17 October 1949.

 The Tenth Session of the Constituent Assembly was held from 6-17 October 1949.
 There was a total of 11 sessions of the Constituent Assembly.
 The last session of the Constituent Assembly was held from 24 to 26 November and
on 26 Constitution of India (with 395 articles, 8 schedules, and 22 parts) was
signed and accepted by all.
 The Assembly met once again on 24 January 1950, when the members appended
their signatures to the Constitution of India but it was not a proper session.
Q.76) Acceleration is equal to the rate of change of _________.

A. displacement
B. position
C. momentum
D. velocity
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is velocity.
 Velocity/ speed: The rate of change of displacement/distance of a body is called the
velocity/speed of that body.
o Velocity is a vector quantity that has both magnitudes as well as direction.
 Acceleration: The rate of change of velocity is called the acceleration of the body.
o Acceleration is also a vector quantity.
 The slope of any velocity-time graph gives an acceleration of the body.
 Displacement: The minimum path length between two points is called displacement.
 Distance: The total path length between two points is called distance.
From the above explanation, we can see that,
 Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
 In other words, it is the ratio of change in velocity and time taken
 It has SI units of m/s2 and is also the derivative of velocity
Name Description
Displacement The shortest distance between two points
Speed Distance travelled per unit time
Jerk Rate of change of acceleration
Q.77) Acidic drain cleaners made of ________ or ________ acid are powerful enough to
clear heavy-duty hair, food, grease, soap scum, or paper-based clogs in 15 minutes or
less.
A. sulphuric, hydrochloric
B. formic, citric
C. nitric, carbonic
D. malic, lactic
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is sulphuric, or hydrochloric.
 Acid drain cleaners commonly contain a high concentration of sulfuric
acid(H2SO4) or hydrochloric (HCL) acid, and typically come in liquid form.
 They work by a process of acid hydrolysis to dissolve the fats and solids that create a
drain blockage.
 Acid hydrolysis is the process of breaking down larger molecules into smaller
molecules by adding acid and water to a substance.
 They work well on hair and grease, and they can dissolve small pieces of paper and
other solids in the drain.
Q.78) What is the maximum permissible limit of turbidity in potable water as per the
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)(IS -10500 ∶ 2012)?
A. 5 NTU
B. 1 NTU
C. 3 NTU
D. 7 NTU
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 5 NTU.
 According to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)(IS -10500 ∶ 2012), the
maximum permissible limit of turbidity in potable water should be 5NTU
 Turbidity levels should be maintained between 1 and 5 NTU to keep the desirable
drinking water quality as per the Bureau of Indian Standards.
 Turbidity in water means Turbidity is the measure of relative clarity of a liquid.
 Turbidity is produced by suspended particulate matter like plankton, inorganic
and organic matter.
Q.79) Who among the following was an ancient Indian mathematician-astronomer?

A. Banabhatta
B. Varahamihira
C. Nagarjuna
D. Amalananda
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Varahamihira.
 Varahamihira, also known as Varaha or Mihira, was an Indian philosopher,
astronomer, and mathematician.
 He was born in 505 A.D. in a Brahmin family at Kapittha, a village near Ujjain.
 He proposed that the Moon and planets are lustrous not because of their own
light but due to sunlight.
 He was one of the nine gems of the court of kin Yashodharman Vikramaditya of
Malwa.
 Varahamihira‘s main work is the book Pancha Siddhantika (Treatise on the five
Astronomical Canons gives us information about older Indian texts which are now
lost).
Q.80) Decrease in which of the following factors leads to an increase in the rate of
evaporation?
A. Ambient temperature
B. Area of the free surface of the liquid concerned
C. Wind speed above the surface of the liquid
D. Humidity
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Humidity.
 The rate of evaporation decreases with an increase in Humidity.
 The rate of evaporation mainly depends on these factors:
o Temperature: The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in
temperature.
o Surface area: The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in surface
area.
o Humidity: The amount of water vapour present in the air is called humidity.
o The rate of evaporation decreases with an increase in humidity.
o Wind speed: Evaporation increases with an increase in wind speed.
Q.81) Which of the following Mauryan rulers did Seleucus fight against in the Seleucid–
Mauryan War?
A. Dasharatha
B. Ashoka
C. Samprati
D. Chandragupta Maurya
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.
 Chandragupta Maurya did Seleucus fight against in the Seleucid–Mauryan War.
 In 305 BCE, Emperor Chandragupta Maurya led a series of campaigns to retake
the satrapies left behind by Alexander the Great when he returned westward.
 Seleucus I fought to defend these territories, but both sides made peace in 303 BCE.
 Seleucus lost the Seleucid-Mauryan War, and the two rulers reconciled with a peace
treaty.
Q.82) At which of the following jails was Khudiram Bose sent to the gallows?
A. Alipore
B. Muzaffarpur
C. Barishal
D. Chittagong
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Muzaffarpur.
 Shahid Khudiram Bose was the youngest revolutionary freedom fighter who
opposed British Raj in India.
 He was born on 3 December 1889, in the Midnapore district of West Bengal.
 Khudiram Bose was sent to Muzaffarpur Jail under the charge of conspiracy to
kill the Chief Presidency Magistrate DH Kingsford of Muzaffarpur, also known
as the Muzaffarpur Conspiracy.
 He was executed there on August 11, 1908, at the age of 18 years which made him
the youngest martyr of the Indian Independence Movement.
Q.83) River Ken is one of the major rivers of the Bundelkhand region of central India
and flows through two states, Madhya Pradesh and _________.
A. Rajasthan
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Gujarat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Correct Answer is Uttar Pradesh.
 The Ken River is one of the major rivers of the Bundelkhand region of central
India.
 It flows across Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
 It is a tributary of the Yamuna.
Q.84) Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India amended Article
19 and inserted provisions fully securing the constitutional validity of zamindari
abolition laws in general and certain specified State Acts in particular?
A. Third Amendment
B. Fourth Amendment
C. Second Amendment
D. First Amendment
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is First Amendment
 The first amendment of the Indian Constitution was done in 1951.
 Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 amended Articles 15, 19, 85, 87, 174,
176, 341, 342, 372 and 376.
 Nehru administration made a provision limiting Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
of India against "abuse of freedom of speech and expression.
 The right of citizens of India to practice any profession or to carry on any
occupation, trade, or business conferred by article 19(1)(g) is subject to reasonable
restrictions that the laws of the State may impose, in the interests of the general
public.
Q.85) Which amendment to the Constitution of India added a new subject in the Union
List called 'taxes on services‘?
A. 88th
B. 62nd
C. 56th
D. 78th
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 88th.
 The division of powers between the Union and the States is in the Seventh
Schedule.
 Seventh Schedule
 It contains three lists:
o Union List,
o State List and
o Concurrent List
 7th Schedule of Indian Constitution – Union List had 97 subjects.
 Now, it has 100 subjects.
o 88th Amendment added a new subject in the Union List called ‗taxes on
services.‘
 The state list has 61 subjects. Earlier, it had 66 items.
o The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 made special provisions in
relation to National Capital.
o Laws cannot be made by the Delhi government on three subjects under State
List named as – Public Order, Police & Land.
 The concurrent list has 52 subjects enumerated under it.
Q.86) _________ develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the
eastern and southern part of the Deccan Plateau.
A. Alluvial soil
B. Arid soil
C. Black soil
D. Red soil
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Red Soil.
 Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern
and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau and also along the piedmont zone of
the western ghats.
 The soil develops a reddish color due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and
metamorphic rocks.
 Red soils denote the largest soil group of India, covering an area of about 350,000
sq. km (10.6% of India's area) across the Peninsula.
 It contains thin organic and organic-mineral layers of highly leached soil resting
on a red layer of alluvium.
 The red soils, with the proper use of fertilizers and irrigation techniques, give a good
yield of cotton, wheat, rice, pulses, millets, tobacco, oil seeds, potatoes, and fruits
Q.87) The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India were
borrowed from the _________ Constitution.
A. Norwegian
B. Australian
C. Spanish
D. Irish
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Irish.
 The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India were
borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
 The constituent assembly took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to frame the
constitution of India.
 The constitution of India was adopted by the constituent assembly on 26th November
1949.
 The constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.
 India borrowed many features from different countries while preparing its
constitution.
 Suspension of fundamental rights during emergencies was borrowed from
the Weimar Republic of Germany.
 Amendment to the constitution is adopted from South Africa.
 The important features borrowed from the Republic of Ireland are:
o Presidential election.
o Nomination of the members to the Rajya sabha.
o Directive principle of state policy.
Q.88) Colloidal systems – such as gum, starch, proteins, cellulose, agar, and gelatine –
when placed in water, will absorb a large volume of water and swell up. These
substances are called _________.
A. imbibants
B. combustibles
C. apoplasts
D. porins
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is imbibants.
 Colloidal systems – such as gum, starch, proteins, cellulose, agar, and gelatine –
when placed in water, will absorb a large volume of water and swell up. These
substances are called imbibants.
 Properties of a colloid-
o A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.
o The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by the
naked eye.
o Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through them and
make their path visible.
o They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite stable.
o They cannot be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration. But, a
special technique of separation known as centrifugation, can be used to
separate the colloidal particles.
 A combustible substance obtained from decaying organic matter is petroleum.
 The apoplast:
o It is the space outside the plasma membrane consisting of intercellular spaces
where the material diffuses freely.
It does not involve protoplasm in the plant tissues but involves the non-living parts of the
plant such as the cell wall and intercellular spaces
Q.89) Which of the following is NOT a type of mosquito?

A. Aedes
B. Anopheles
C. Culex
D. Limulus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Limulus.
 Limulus is NOT a type of mosquito.
 It is also known as the king crab or horseshoe crab.
 It belongs to the phylum "Arthropoda".
 It has remained unchanged for the last 190 million thereby it is considered a living
fossil.
Q.90) The ancient city of Champa is believed to be the capital of _________

Mahajanapada.
A. Kashi
B. Matsya
C. Anga
D. Vajji
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Anga.
 The ancient city of Champa is believed to be the capital of Anga Mahajanapada.
 Anga was an ancient Indian kingdom that flourished on the eastern Indian
subcontinent and was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas.
 Present-day Bhagalpur and Munger districts jointly constituted the Anga
Mahajanpada.
 The State of Anga is earliest mentioned in Atharvaveda.
 The capital of Anga was Champa/Champawati was earlier called Malini.
The first king of Anga was Bali and the last king was Brahmadatta
Q.91) Which of the following decades was proclaimed by the General Assembly of the
United Nations as the International Decade for Action on ‗Water for life‘?
A. 1972 - 1982
B. 1983 - 1993
C. 2005 - 2015
D. 1994 - 2004
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 2005 - 2015.
 2005 - 2015 decade was proclaimed by the General Assembly of the United
Nations as the International Decade for Action on 'Water for life.
 The primary goal of the 'Water for Life' Decade is to promote efforts to fulfil
international commitments made on water and water-related issues by 2015.
 The focus is on furthering cooperation at all levels so that the water-related goals of
the Millennium Declaration, the Johannesburg Plan of Implementation of the World
Summit for Sustainable Development, and Agenda 21 can be achieved.
 The challenge of the Decade is to focus attention on action-oriented activities and
policies that ensure the long-term sustainable management of water resources, in
terms of both quantity and quality, and include measures to improve sanitation.
 Achieving the goals of the 'Water for Life' Decade requires sustained commitment,
cooperation, and investment on the part of all stakeholders from 2005 to 2015 and far
beyond.
Q.92) Normally, there is a ________ day interval between spring tides and neap tides.
A. seven
B. two
C. four
D. nine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is seven.
 There is a seven-day interval between the spring tides and neap tides.
 Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the
gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.
 There are two types of tides namely, spring tides and neap tides depending upon the
relative positions of the sun, the earth, and the moon.
 Spring tides:
o When the sun, the moon, and the earth are in a straight line, the height of the
tide will be higher.
o These are called spring tides and they occur twice a month, one during the full
moon period and another during the new moon period.
 Neap tides:
o Normally, there is a seven-day interval between the spring tides and neap
tides.
o At this time the sun and moon are at right angles to each other and the forces
of the sun and moon tend to counteract one another.
o The Moon's attraction, though more than twice as strong as the sun's, is
diminished by the counteracting force of the sun's gravitational pull.
Like spring tides, these tides also occur twice a month
Q.93) The Ghoom Monastery is located in:

A. Namchi
B. Gangtok
C. Kalimpong
D. Darjeeling
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Darjeeling.
 The Ghoom Monastery is located in Darjeeling.
 Darjeeling is a popular hill station in North-East India and it is also famous for
'Darjeeling Tea'.
 The highest peak in India, the Kanchenjunga peak is clearly visible from Darjeeling.
 Kurseong is known as the 'Land of White Orchids' and it is a hill station located on
the Siliguri-Darjeeling highway.
 Siliguri is a city of West Bengal is known as the "Gateway to North-East India".
 Kalimpong is a hill station in West Bengal famous for Buddhist monasteries and
churches.
Q.94) Who among the following Indian freedom fighters was fondly called Gandhi Buri
(Old Lady Gandhi) for her dedication towards Gandhian principles?
A. Dakshayani Velayudhan
B. Kamla Chaudhary
C. Leela Roy
D. Matangini Hazra
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Matangini Hazra.
 Matangini Hazra the Indian freedom fighter was fondly called Gandhi Buri (Old
Lady Gandhi) for her dedication to Gandhian principles.
Q.95) Which of the following is the middle layer in the root apical meristem that gives
rise to the cortex?
A. Calyptrogen
B. Periblem
C. Plerome
D. Dermatogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Periblem.
 Periblem is the middle layer in the root apical meristem that gives rise to the
cortex.
 The lateral root initiation involves a series of rapid divisions in pericycle cells located
on the xylem of the root.
 It grows out through the cortex and epidermis.
 A part of the vascular cambium is formed by a pericycle.
 The pericycle is a unique layer of cells in plants, located between the endodermis and
phloem.
 It has two different types of cells parenchyma and sclerenchyma cells.
 The endodermis is the central, innermost layer of any land plant root cell, consisting
of closely packed cells.
 It is the boundary between the cortex and stele.
 The plant endodermis plays an important role in selecting what gets into the plant
from the soil, like Water intake, Hormone, and ion movement in and out of the roots
'vascular system.
 The epidermis is located in a plant root, which is the first single layer.
 The major role of the epidermis is the protective tissue of plants which forms the
outer covering of the entire plant surface and protects the underlying tissues.
 The plants have waxy, water-resistant layers on the outer surface of epidermal cells
which in turn reduces water loss and provides protection against mechanical or
environmental injury and invasion of parasitic fungi.
Q.96) Which of the following is the horizontal distance between two successive crests?
A. Wave length
B. Wave frequency
C. Wave height
D. Wave period
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Wavelength.
 The distance between two successive crests or troughs of sea waves is called the
wavelength of a wave.
 The wavelength of a wave is the distance between any two corresponding points on
adjacent waves.
 The frequency is the number of waves that pass a certain point in a specified amount
of time.
 Frequency is represented by the Greek letter nu (v).
Q.97) Which of the following British officers issued the infamous ‗crawling order‘
whereby Indians had to crawl on all fours to pass an alley?
A. Warren Hastings
B. General Dyer
C. Lord Curzon
D. Lord Irwin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is General Dyer.
 General Dyer British officer issued the infamous ‗crawling order‘ whereby
Indians had to crawl on all fours to pass an alley.
 The crawling order of the British government is related to the Jallianwala Bagh
massacre.
 The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre.
 Took place at Amritsar, Punjab on 13th April 1919.
 General Reginald Dyer was the Brigadier (Acting) who ordered troops of the British
Indian Army to fire into a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians.
 This incident shocked Rabindranath Tagore and he renounced his knighthood.
Q.98) The Hindu Marriage Act was enacted in the year ________.
A. 1952
B. 1956
C. 1955
D. 1953
Correct Answer: C
 The Hindu Marriage Act was enacted in the year 1955.
 Marriage Law Act:
o The Hindu Marriage Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 1955.
o According to Section 2 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, marriage in any

form among Hindus, regardless of caste or creed or any person, is bound to
abide by the rules of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
o The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was intended to secure the rights of marriage
for the bride and groom who are Hindus and are bound under the sacred bond
of marriage under any ceremony.
o The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 removed any distinction under the law of
marriage between a young woman and a widow and both are treated equally
under this law.
Q.99) How many eyes does a bee have?

A. Five
B. Three
C. Four
D. Two
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Five.
 Bee has five eyes
 Eyes-Incredible as it may seem, the honey bee has FIVE eyes, two large compound
eyes and three smaller ocelli eyes in the centre of its head.
 Bees need eyes not only to pick up colours and UV markings in flowers, as well as
shapes but also to navigate. Thus the two sets of eyes are adapted to perform
different tasks simultaneously.
 The two large eyes at the side of the head (known as 'compound eyes') are used for
picking up shapes and colours in the immediate environment, whilst the three small
eyes on the top of the head (known as the 'ocelli') are important for navigation and
orientation.
Q.100) Which of the following statements about black soil is INCORRECT?

A. It is found along the Deccan trap.
B. It is rich in phosphoric content.
C. It has a good capacity to hold moisture.
D. It develops deep cracks during hot weather.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is It is rich in phosphoric content.
Properties of Black Soil
 It is found along the Deccan trap.
 It has a good capacity to hold moisture.
 It develops deep cracks during hot weather.
 It has rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime but poor in
nitrogen and phosphorous.
 It has a clayey texture and are highly fertile the structure of these soils is cloddish or
occasionally friable.
 Ti is highly retentive of moisture, extremely compact and tenacious when wet
contractible and develops deep wide cracks on drying.
 It has calcareous and neutral to mild alkaline in reaction, high in carbon exchange
capacity and low in organic matter.
 It has property of self-ploughing and comparatively less fertile on the uplands than on
the lowlands.
Q.101) Who among the following was the only martyr of the Quit India phase of the
freedom movement who was hanged?
A. Kaushal Konwar
B. Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi
C. Potti Sreeramulu
D. Senapati Bapat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Kaushal Konwar.
 Kaushal Konwar was the only martyr of the Quit India phase of the freedom
movement who was hanged.
 Kushal Konwar was a ‗Satyagrahi‘ and Gandhian, a descendant of the Ahom
dynasty.
 He pledged to remain a vegetarian and accepted the ShrimadBhagawad Gita as
his only companion.
 On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji began walking from his ashram at Sabarmati towards
the ocean.
 On 10th October 1942, hidden in the thick fog of early morning, some people
removed a few sleepers from the railway line near Sarupathar in Golaghat district.
 A Military train passing by derailed and many British and American soldiers lost their
lives.
 Accusing Kushal Konwar of being the chief conspirator of the train sabotage, the
British police arrested him.
 At dawn on 15th June 1943 at 4:30 am, KushalKonwar was hanged at Jorhat Jail.
Q.102) The GDP deflator is also called:

A. implicit price deflator
B. explicit inflation index
C. implicit inflation index
D. explicit price deflator
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is implicit price deflator.
 The GDP deflator, also called implicit price deflator, is a measure of inflation.
 It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular
year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year.
 This ratio helps show the extent to which the increase in the gross domestic product
has happened on account of higher prices rather than an increase in output.
 Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the
economy — as against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer
price indices — it is seen as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.
 Real vs nominal GDP -GDP price deflator measures the difference between real
GDP and nominal GDP.
 Nominal GDP differs from real GDP as the former doesn‘t include inflation, while the
latter does.
 As a result, nominal GDP will most often be higher than real GDP in an
expanding economy.
 The formula to find the GDP price deflator: GDP price deflator = (nominal GDP ÷
real GDP) x 100.
Q.103) What do you call the maximum sustainable size of a resident population in a
given ecosystem?
A. Caste rate
B. Carrying capacity
C. Census
D. Crude rate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Carrying capacity.
 The maximum sustainable size of a resident population in a given ecosystem is
called as Carrying capacity.
 Carrying capacity is the maximum number, density, or biomass of a population
that a specific area can support sustainably.
 This likely varies over time and depends on environmental factors, resources, and the
presence of predators, disease agents, and competitors over time.
 The concept of carrying capacity has been explicitly recognized for more than 175
years, and its use has waxed and waned during this time.
 Currently, the use of carrying capacity to describe any particular population requires
caution, although the concept remains intuitive and invokes questions that challenge
our fundamental understanding of factors that regulate populations over time and
space.
Q.104) Realising the importance of maintaining the cleanliness of the water bodies, the
Government of India passed the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
______, to safeguard our water resources.
A. 1971
B. 1969
C. 1973
D. 1974
Correct Answer: D
 Realising the importance of maintaining the cleanliness of the water bodies, the
Government of India passed the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1974, to safeguard our water resources.
 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974 to provide
for the prevention and control of water pollution, and for the maintaining or restoring
of the wholesomeness of water in the country.
 The Act was amended in 1988. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess
Act was enacted in 1977, to provide for the levy and collection of a cess on water
consumed by persons operating and carrying on certain types of industrial activities.
 This cess is collected with a view to augment the resources of the Central Board and
the State Boards for the prevention and control of water pollution constituted under
the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
 The Act was last amended in 2003.
Q.105) Which of the following books was written by Jawaharlal Nehru?

A. Waiting For A Visa: Autobiographical Notes
B. A Bunch of Old Letters
C. Riddles in Hinduism
D. Ranade, Gandhi and Jinnah
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is A Bunch of Old Letters.
 A Bunch of Old Letters was written by Jawaharlal Nehru.
 The Letters In This Volume, Written By Some Of The Leading Figures Of Our
Times, Cover The Three Eventful Decades Leading Up To India S Independence
In 1947.
 Many Of The Letters Are From Those Most Closely Involved In The Freedom
Struggle Among Them, Mahatma Gandhi, Motilal Nehru, Subhas Chandra Bose,
Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Rabindranath Tagore, Sarojini Naidu, Maulana Azad,
Vallabhbhai Patel And Jayaprakash Narayan.
 Of Particular Interest Is The Long Correspondence Between Subhas Chandra Bose
And Nehru, Which Covers The Crisis During The Tripuri Congress In 1939, And
Reflects The Two Leaders Sharply Differing Views On The Mobilization Of National
Resistance To British Rule.
 Equally Fascinating Are The Letters From Mahatma Gandhi, Which Reveal His
Acute Political Instincts As Well As His Deep Humanity And His Genuine Respect
For Dissent.
 The Letters Also Bear Testimony To Jawaharlal Nehru S Extraordinary Gift For
Friendship, And The Respect And Admiration He Evoked, Both Personally And For
The Cause Of Indian Independence, From World Figures As Diverse As George
Bernard Shaw, Romain Rolland, Clare Boothe Luce, Edward Thompson, Chiang Kai-
Shek And Bertrand Russell, Among Others. A Bunch Of Old Letters Is Essential
Reading For An Understanding Of The History Of National Movement.
Q.106) Who among the following persons was associated with the Chittagong Armoury
Raid?
A. Manmath Nath Gupta
B. Sachindranath Bakshi
C. Ardhendu Destidar
D. Vishnu Sharan Dublish
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Ardhendu Destidar.
 Ardhendu Destidar belonged to the second group, In his early teens, he left the roof
of his father due to a difference of opinion on political matters with him.
 He became an active member of the revolutionary party of Chittagong under the
table, the leadership of Master-da (Surya Sen).
 Just a few weeks before the storming of the Armoury, he got severely burnt due to an
accident in manufacturing picric acid powder meant for high explosive bombs.
 He had not fully recovered from his injuries when he joined the party that carried out
the raid on the Police Line on the 18th, With the main body of the raiders, he retired
to Jalalabad Hill.
 He happened to be the sixth man to be wounded in the exchange of bullets with the
British soldiers.
 He received a deadly wound in his abdomen from the enemy's bullet which rendered
him unconscious and he was left on the field as dead.
Q.107) Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the power of the ______ at Magadha with the
aid of Kautilya and founded a glorious Mauryan empire in 322 BC.
A. Kurus
B. Nandas
C. Mallas
D. Panchalas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Nandas.
 Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the power of the Nandas at Magadha with the
aid of Kautilya and founded a glorious Mauryan empire in 322 BC.e
 The Maurya Empire was founded in 322 BCE by Chandragupta Maurya, who
had overthrown the Nanda Dynasty and rapidly expanded his power westward across
central and western India in order to take advantage of the disruptions of local powers
in the wake of the withdrawal by Alexander the Great‘s armies.
 According to legend, the teacher Chanakya convinced his disciple, Chandragupta
Maurya, to conquer the kingdom of Magadha (the Nanda Empire) when he was
insulted by its king Dhana Nanda.
 Chandragupta Maurya expanded the Maurya Empire north and west as he conquered
the Macedonian Satrapies and won the Seleucid-Mauryan war.
 In its time, the Maurya Empire was one of the largest empires in the world.
Q.108) The sun is visible to us a few minutes before the act sunrise because of:
(a) Scattering of light
(b) Diffraction of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light"
(d) Refraction of light
Correct Answer: D
Solution: Due to the refraction of light, the sun is visible to us a few minutes before sunrise
and a few minutes after sunset.
Q.109) The market structure called monopoly exists where there is exactly ___________
seller in any market.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) Ten
Correct Answer: A
Solution: A market structure characterized by a single (one)seller, selling a unique product
in the market. In a monopoly market, the seller faces no competition, as he is the sole seller
of goods with no close substitute.
Q.110) Which one of the following factors was not responsible for Chandragupta
Maurya's success Against the Nanda Kings?
[A] Chandragupta's brilliant generalship
[B] Kautilya's astute diplomacy
[C] Military assistance provided by Greek rulers
[D] Weakness of Nanda rulers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya (reign: 321-298 BCE) was the founder of the Maurya
Empire in ancient India. He ended nanda dyanasty and established mauryan dynasty.
Chandragupta built one of the largest empires ever in the Indian subcontinent According to
Jain sources, he became a monk in the Jain tradition in the last phase of his life
Q.111) Whose satisfaction is required under Constitutional Article 347 regarding special
provision for creating language spoken by a section of the population of a state —
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Correct Answer: C
Solution: When president is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a State
desire die use of any language spoken by them to be recognised throughout that State or any
part thereof for such purpose as he may specify CHAPTER III LANGUAGE OF THE
SUPREME COURT, HIGH COURTS, ETC for
Q.112) Which of the following causes rainfall during winters in the northwestern part of
India?
(a) Western disturbahces
(b) Cyclonic depression
(c) Southwest monsoon
(d) Retreating monsoon
Correct Answer: A
Solution: Western Disturbances causes rainfall during winters in the northwestern part of
India.
Q.113) Where is the Film and Television Institute of India located?

(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Mysore
(c) Mumbai
(d) Pune
Correct Answer: D
Solution: The Film and Television Institute of India is an autonomous institute under the
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting of the Government of India and aided by the
Central Government of India. It is located at Pune
Q.114) When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, which of the following quantities
remains constant during its motion?
(a) Energy
(b) Displacement
(c) Velocity
(d) Acceleration
Correct Answer: A
Solution: When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, energy remains constant during its
motion.
Q.115) Match the following popular movements with the regions where they took place:
List-I List-II
A. Wahabi (i) Punjab
B. Kuka (ii) North -West Frontier Province
C. Moplah (iii) Maharashtra
D. Phadke (iv) Kerala (Malabar)
Codes:
ABCD
[A] i ii iii iv
[B] ii i iv iii
[C] iv iii ii i
[D] i ii iv iii
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Moplah - Kerala
Kuka -Punjab
Wahabi - North west frontier province
Phadke -Maharashtra
Q.116) Who among the following wrote the book 'A nation in making'?
[A] Dinbandhu Mitra
[B] Bal Gangadhar Tilak
[C] Surendra Nath Banerjee
[D] Subhash Chandra Bose
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sir Surendranath Banerjee was one of the earliest Indian political leaders
during the British Raj. He went on to write the widely acclaimed "A Nation in Making"
published in 1925
Q.117) Which layer of atmosphere is vital for telecommunications?

(a) Troposphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Ionosphere
Correct Answer: D
Solution: The ionosphere makes the radio communications possible by virtue to the fact that
this layer reflects the radio signals back to the earth.
Q.118) Where did Ashoka send his messengers to spread ideas about 'dhamma' Choose
the correct answer from the code given below :
(i) Syria
(ii) Egypt
(iii) Greece
(iv) Sri Lanka
[A] Only (i)
[B] Only (ii) and (iii)
[C] Only (iv)
[D] All of them
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ashoka send his messengers to spread ideas about 'dharnrna' in Syria, Egypt,
Greece and srilanka
Q.119) The minimum age limit for the membership of the Vidhan Parishad is
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Correct Answer: C
Solution: Article 171 of the constitution of India defines the composition of the councils. The
minimum age to become member Of vidhanparishad is 30 years.
Q.120) The male sex accessory ducts include vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens
and ______
(a) Cervix
(b) Rete Testis
(c) Glands
(d) Seminiferous Tubules
Correct Answer: B
Solution: The male sex accessory ducts include vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens and
Rete Testis.
Q.121) Who gave the slogan first 'Inquilab Zindabad'?

[A] Maulana Hasrat Mohani
[B] Subhash Chandra Bose
[C] Md Iqbal
[D] Chandra Shekhar Azad
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Inquilab Zindabad is an Urdu phrase which translates to "Long live the
revolution!" The poet, journalist, scholar and independence activist Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(born 1875) coined this slogan in 1921 in protest against the British.
Q.122) Process of loosing electrons is known as __________.

(a) oxidation
(b) reduction
(c) radiation
(d) both oxidation and reduction
Correct Answer: A
Solution: The process of loosing electrons is known as Oxidation.
Q.123) At same money supply, if the government reduces the tax rate which of the
following is true?
(a) Government revenues will surely fall
(b) Disposable income will surely increase
(c) Budget deficit will surely fall
(d) Budget surplus will surely fall
Correct Answer: B
Solution: Disposable income, also known as disposable personal income (DPI), is the
amount of money that households have available for spending and saving after income taxes
so when tax will decrease disposable income will increase.
Q.124) Microbial degradation of nitrates into atmospheric nitrogen is known as:

(a) Ammonification
(b) Nitrification
(c) Denitrification
(d) Putrefaction
Correct Answer: C
Solution: Denitrification is the biological conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas, nitric oxide or
nitrous oxide. It refers to nitrate reduction by bacterial species such as Pseudomonas and
Clostridium, usually in anaerobic conditions that ultimately produces molecular nitrogen (N _
2). These bacteria use nitrate as an electron acceptor instead of oxygen during respiration.
Q.125) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists:
List-I (Publication) List-II (Person)
A. Vande Matram 1.Annie Besant
B. Common Weal 2.Barindra Ghosh
C. The Pupil 3.Aurbino ghosh
D. Yugantar 4.Lala Lajpat Rai
Code:
ABCD
[A] 2 4 1 3
[B] 3 1 4 2
[C] 2 1 4 3
[D] 3 4 1 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bande matram- Aurbindo ghosh

Common weal - Annie Besant
The Pupil - Lala Lajpat Rai
Jugantar - Barindra ghosh
Q.126) In which industry Potassium Nitrate is used commercially?

(a) Glass Manufacturing
(b) Electroplating
(c) Fire Cracker Manufacturing
(d) Leather Industry
Correct Answer: C
Solution: Potassium nitrate is one of the most used chemicals in fireworks. It is the oxidizing
(oxygen-supplying) component of black powder which is the base for many pyrotechnic
formulations.
Q.127) Kailasa Temple, one of the largest monolithic structures, is in

[A] Ajanta Caves
[B] Elephanta Caves
[C] Ellora Caves
[D] Nalanda Caves
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Kailasa temple is one of the largest rock-cut ancient Hindu temples located in
Ellora, Maharashtra, India. A megalith carved out Of one single rock, it is considered one of
the most remarkable cave temples in India because of its size, architecture and sculptural
treatment.
Q.128) According to Sarojini Naidu who was "the ambassador of Hindu-Muslim

Unity"?
[A] Syed Ahmad Khan
[B] Hasrat Mohani
[C] Maulana Azad Jinnah
[D] Mohammad Ali
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mohammad Ali Jinnah himself was the mastermind and architect of the
Luchnow pact. Due to the reconciliation brought about by Jinnah between the Congress and
the League, the Nightingale of India, Sarojini
Naidu, gave him the title of " the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity".
Q.129) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following statements
l. C.R. Das and Moti Lal Nehru formed the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj party.
2. In 1919, Gandhiji was elected President of the Khilafat Conference.
3. The Communist Party Of India was banned by the Government in 1934.
Which of the statement is/ are correct?
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 only
[C] 1 and 3
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Congress-Khilafat Swarajaya Party, was a political party formed in India
in January 1923 after the Gaya annual conference in December 1922 of the National
Congress. Mahatma Gandhi was elected as president of All India Khilafat Conference held at
Delhi in - 1919. On 23rd July, 1934 the Government banned all the activities of Communists
as they feared that they could bring up mass revolution against the British Raj
Q.130) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

[A] Partition of Bengal — 1905
[B] Foundation of Muslim League — 1906
[C] Surat Split ---1907
[D] Transfer of India's Capital from Calcutta to Delhi — 1909
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: On 12 December 1911, during the Delhi Durbar, George V, then Emperor Of
India, along with Queen Mary, his Consort, made the announcement that the capital of the
Raj was to be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
Q.131) With reference to the colonial rule in India, consider the following events:
I. Morley-Minto Reforms Act
II. Transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi
III. First World War
IV. Lucknow Pact
The correct chronological order of these events is
[A] II-I-III-IV
[B] I-II-III-IV
[C] II-I-IV-III
[D] I-II-IV-IV
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Morley-Minto Reforms Act -1909
Transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi- 1911
First World War-1914
Lucknow Pact-1916
Q.132) The successors of the Satavahanas in the Deccan were the

[A] Vakatakas
[B] Kadambas
[C] Rashtrakutas
[D] Chalukyas of Badami
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Vakataka Empire was a dynasty from the Indian subcontinent that
originated from the Deccan in the mid-3rd century CE. They were the most important
successors of the Satavahanas in the Deccan and contemporaneous with the Guptas in
northern India
Q.133) In the Mughal period the registers of the agricultural lands were maintained by
[A] Kotwal
[B] Qanungo
[C] Amin
[D] Krori
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Qanungo was an officer who maintain the registers of the agricultural lands
Q.134) The Pearl Mosque in delhi was built by

[A] Shah Jahan
[B] Aurangzeb
[C] Humayun
[D] Akbar
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Moti Masjid is a white marble mosque inside the Red Fort complex in
Delhi India The name translates into English as "Pearl Mosque". The mosque was built by the
Mughal emperor Aurangzeb at the Red Fort complex in Delhi, India, from 1659-1660 for his
personal use.
Q.135) In which script, the Ashokan inscription were written in North West Frontier
Province?
[A] Prakrit
[B] Brahmi
[C] Sanskrit
[D] Kharoshti
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Kharosthi Script was more or less contemporarily with the Brahmi script,
appearing around the 3rd century BCE mainly in modern-day northern Pakistan and eastern
Afghanistan
Q.136) Consider the following statements:

1. Prior to the establishment of Horne Rule League by Annie Besant, it was Lokmanya Tilak
who had set up a Home Rule League at Poona.
2. The Congress in its Bombay Session in 1916. passed a resolution demanding Rule for
India.
Which of the statements given above S/ are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tilak founded the first home rule league at the Bombay provincial congress at
Belgaum in April,1916 then after this Annie Besant founded second league at Adyar Madras
in September 1916. While Tilak's league worked in areas like Maharashtra (excluding
Bombay city), Karnataka, Central provinces and Berar, Annie Besant's league worked in the
rest of India
Q.137) Partition Of Bengal was announced in 1905 by _______

[A] Lord Chelmsford
[B] Lord Ripon
[C] Lord Curzon.
[D] Lord Canning
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The decision to effect the Partition of Bengal was announced in 7 July 1905 by
the Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon. The partition took place on 16 October 1905 and
separated the largely Muslim eastern areas from the largely Hindu western areas
Q.138) The famous 'Jama-Masjid' Of Delhi was built by

[A] Humåyun
[B] Akbar
[C] Shahjahan
[D] Aurangzeb
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Masjid-i Jahän-Numä , commonly known as the Jama Masjid of is one of
the largest mosques in India. It was built by Mughal emperor Shah lahan between 1644 and
1656 .The mosque was completed in 1656 AD with three great gates, four towers and two 40
m high minarets constructed of strips of red sandstone and white marble
Q.139) The Mongols attacked India, for the first time, during the period of -
[A] Balban
[B] lltutmish
[C] Qutub-ud-din Aibak
[D] Alauddin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mongols attacked India, for the first time, during the period Of Iltutmish
Q.140) During the Mughal period Polaj was the

[A] land annually cultivated
[B] land left fallow
[C] land uncultivated
[D] barren land
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Polai was the ideal and best type of land throughout the empire. This land was
Cultivated always and was never allowed to lie fallow
Q.141) Which one Of the following states Of Rajputana did not willingly accept Akbar's
sovereignty?
[A] Amer
[B] Mewar
[C] Marwar
[D] Bikaner
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Akbartried to persuade Rana Udai Singh, the Sisodiya ruler of Mewar, to
accept Mughal sovereignty, but he resisted Akbar. As a result Akbar decided to conquer
Chittorgarh, the capital of Mewar
Q.142) The _________ exchange rate is the relative price of foreign goods in terms of
domestic goods.
A. Artificial
B. Nominal
C. Fixed
D. Real
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The real exchange rate R is defined as the ratio of the price level abroad and
the domestic price level, where the foreign price level is converted into domestic currency
units via the current nominal exchange rate.
Q.143) Big landlords or warrior chiefs in the seventh century were acknowledged as
________ by the existing kings
A. Rashtrakutas
B. Chalukya
C. Samantas
D. Brahmanas
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: It was during the seventh century that the kings acknowledged the big
landlords as their subordinates or samantas. The samantas were expected to bring gifts and
provide military support to their kings. In due course they gained power and wealth. They
declared themselves to be maha-samantas, maha-mandaleshvar (the great lord of a region or
circle) and so on.
Q.144) In which city of India is Charminar located?

A. Pune
B. Delhi
C. Aurangabad
D. Hyderabad
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Charminar ("Four Minarets"), constructed in 1591, is a monument and
mosque located in Hyderabad, Telangana, India. The landmark has become a global icon of
Hyderabad, listed among the most recognized structures of India.
Q.145) The Agra fort was built by _________.

A. Shah Jahan
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Babur
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Agra Fort‘s construction was started by Akbar between 1565 and 1573. It is
situated on the west bank of the Yamuna River, about 2km upstream from the Taj Mahal.
Akbar built the fort of sandstone; his grandson Shah Jahan, constructed palaces of white
marble within the fort itself
Q.146) Which country is not a member of Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?
A. Thailand
B. Myanmar
C. India
D. Pakistan
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Pakistan is not a member of BIMSTEC. The Bay of Bengal Initiative for
Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization
comprising seven member States in South Asia and South East Asia. These
are: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal
Q.147) The northern plain of India has been formed by the interplay of the three major
river systems, namely– the Indus, the Ganga and the _________.
A. Brahmaputra
B. Krishna
C. Kaveri
D. Mahanadi
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The northern plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river
systems namely the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra along with their tributaries. It is
broadly divided into 3 sections the western part of the northern plains is referred to as Punjab
plain formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the ganga plain extends between Ghaggar and
Teesta rivers and to its east particularly in Assam lies the Brahmaputra plain.
Q.148) Kelvin (K) is the unit of measurement of ________.

A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Mass
D. Temperature
Correct Answer: D
 Explanation: The Kelvin (symbol: K) is the SI unit of temperature, and is one of the
seven SI base units.
 It is defined as the fraction 1/273.16 of the thermodynamic (absolute) temperature of
the triple point of water.
Q.149) If the orbit of a planet is an ellipse then what is the point at which the Sun is
located called?
A. Centre
B. Circumcentre
C. Incentre
D. Focus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An ellipse with a small eccentricity, like 0.1 or 0.2, is almost as round as a
circle. There are two points inside of an ellipse called the "foci" ("foci" is the plural form of
"focus"). The larger objects is at one of the two foci. For example, the Sun is at one of the
foci of Earth's elliptical orbit
Q.150) ________ is an alternative way of representing the production function.

A. The Short Run
B. The Long Run
C. Isoquant
D. Average product
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Isoquant shows all the possible combinations of inputs that yield the same
outputs. A Production function tells you how much output you can produce for every
combination of inputs. The representation of production functions in the diagrammatic form
of "hills" and the corresponding analysis of production theory in terms of isoquant contours,
etc. was initiated by Vilfredo Pareto.
Q.151) Select the set of classes the relationship among which is the best illustrated by the
given Venn diagram.
A. Potato, Peach, Vegetables

B. Natural numbers, Integers, Real numbers
C. Doctors, Singers, Extroverts
D. Peso, Currency, Taka
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Venn diagrams best represent the relationship between - Peso, Currency,
and Taka figures are shown below:
 Peso is an official national currency and is used in the Philippines.

 The Taka is an official national currency and is used in Bangladesh
Hence, ‗Option D‘ is the correct answer.
Q.152) Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in a
logical and meaningful order.
1. Chapter list
2. Bibliography
3. Preface
4. Cover page
5. Chapters
A. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
B. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
C. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
D. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The logical and meaningful order of the given words is as follows:
LOGIC: The words have been arranged according to the book format.
4. Cover Page:- It is one of the first pages you encounter after you open the book where title
is written.
3. Preface:- After cover page a preface page is written from the point of view of the book
author.
1. Chapter list:- After preface page the contents list of a book show list of different chapters
and sections.
5. Chapters:- After the content list of chapters comes details of chapter.
2. Bibliography:- Last page of any book where written sources of information on a book
called bibliography.
Hence, "4, 3, 1, 5, 2" is the correct answer.
Q.153) Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.
82, 105, 136, 177, 224, 283, ?
A. 412
B. 320
C. 350
D. 349
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The pattern followed here is:
Alternate Prime number added in series- 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67
Hence, '350' is the correct answer.
Q.154) Study the given pattern carefully and select the number from among the given
options that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
18 24 19
7 8 9
8 11 14
17 ? 14
A. 15
B. 21
C. 38
D. 30
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given:
18 24 19
7 8 9
8 11 14
17 ? 14
Here the pattern followed in each column is:

1st number + 2nd number – 3rd number = 4th number
Column 1: 18, 7, 8, 17
1st number + 2nd number – 3rd number
= 18 + 7 - 8
= 25 - 8
= 17 = 4th number
Column 3: 19, 9, 14, 14
= 19 + 9 - 14
= 28 - 14
= 14 = 4th number
Similarly,
Column 2: 24, 8, 11, ?
= 24 + 8 – 11
= 32 - 11
= 21 = 4th number
Hence, the correct answer is ―21‖.
Q.155) Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
23 + 84 ’ 14 × 8 − 3 = 5
A. ’ and −
B. + and ×
C. − and ×
D. − and +
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: According to the BODMAS rule:
Option 1 : ’ and −
Given:
23 + 84 ’ 14 × 8 − 3 = 5
After interchange the signs;
23 + 84 - 14 × 8 ÷ 3 = 5
By BODMAS rule
23 + 84 - 14 × 2.67 = 5
23 + 84 – 37.34 = 5
107 – 37.34 = 5
69.66 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)
Option 2 : + and ×
Given:
23 + 84 ÷ 14 × 8 − 3 = 5
23 × 84 ÷ 14 + 8 − 3 = 5
By BODMAS rule
23 × 6 + 8 − 3 = 5
138 + 8 – 3 = 5
146 – 3 = 5
143 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)
Option 3: − and ×
Given:
23 + 84 ’ 14 × 8 − 3 = 5
23 + 84 ÷ 14 - 8 × 3 = 5
By BODMAS rule
23 + 6 - 8 × 3 = 5
23 + 6 - 24 = 5
29 – 24 = 5
5 = 5 (LHS = RHS)
Option 4: − and +
Given:
23 + 84 ’ 14 × 8 − 3 = 5
23 - 84 ÷ 14 × 8 + 3 = 5
By BODMAS rule
23 - 6 × 8 + 3 = 5
23 – 48 + 3 = 5
26 – 48 = 5
- 22 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)
Hence, the answer is Option 3: ―− and ×‖.
Q.156) Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the
question mark (?) in the following series.
FCC, UFH, OIS, LLX, FOC, ?
A. TRF
B. VSG
C. URH
D. WTH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Table show alphabet serial number –
The pattern followed is,
Hence, ―URH‖ is the complete series.

Q.157) Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at
'AB' as shown.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the
right side is:
Hence, "option (B)" is the correct answer.

Q.158) Seven friends, Subhi, Prince, Ketan, Vishal, Mahima, Krish and Naitik, are
sitting around a circular table with their backs towards the centre. Subhi is sitting to
the immediate right of Prince. Naitik and Krish are not sitting to the immediate left or
right of Vishal. Vishal is sitting third to the left of Prince. Mahima is sitting to the
immediate right of Vishal. Who is sitting third to the right of Prince?
A. Naitik
B. Krish
C. Ketan
D. Mahima
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given:
Seven friends sitting around a circular table with their backs towards the centre this means
they are facing outside the centre: Subhi, Prince, Ketan, Vishal, Mahima, Krish and Naitik,
1) Subhi is sitting to the immediate right of Prince.
2) Vishal is sitting third to the left of Prince.

3) Mahima is sitting to the immediate right of Vishal.
4) Naitik and Krish are not sitting to the immediate left or right of Vishal.
Only Ketan is left so the final sitting arrangement is:

Thus, ―Ketan‖ is sitting third to the right of Prince.
Q.159) There are seven members, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, in a family. H is the only

daughter-in- law of D. E is the sister of C. C is the only son of F, who is the wife of D. B
and G are the sons of H. How is G related to F?
A. Grandson
B. Brother
C. Father
D. Son
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,
Given:
1) E is the sister of C.
2) C is the only son of F, who is the wife of D.
3) H is the only daughter-in- law of D.
4) B and G are the sons of H.

Hence, G is the "Grandson" of F.
Q.160) Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with
commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
statements.
Statements:
1. All flowers are blue.
2. All blue are good.
3. No good is red.
Conclusions:
I. No red is a flower.
II. No red is a blue.
III. Some good are flowers.
IV. Some good are blue.
A. Only conclusions I, III and IV follow
B. Only conclusions I and III follow
C. All conclusions I, II, III and IV follow
D. Only conclusions I, II and IV follow
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation: Statements:
1. All flowers are blue.
2. All blue are good.
3. No good is red.
The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows
Conclusions:
I. No red is a flower → True (because all flowers are good and no good is red so no red is a
flower)
II. No red is a blue → True (because all blue are good and no good is red so no red is a blue)
III. Some good are flowers → True (because all flowers are good so definitely some good are
flowers)
IV. Some good are blue → True (because all blue are good so definitely some good are blue)
Hence, ―All conclusions I, II, III and IV follow".
Q.161) Select the optioin that is embedded in the given figure (X) (rotation is NOT
allowed).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The embedded part of this image is:
Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.
Q.162) Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of
the given series will complete the series.
j_mb_a__u_b_adj_m_b_d
A. u b m j m b u b a
B. u b d j m b j b a
C. u b d j m b u b a
D. u b d j m b u m a
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given: j _ m b _ a _ _ u _ b _ a d j _ m _ b _ d
By checking options and substituting accordingly.
1) u b m j m b u b a → j u m b b a m - j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d
2) u b d j m b j b a → j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d - j j m b b a d
3) u b d j m b u b a → j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d
 Here " j u m b b a d" is repeated itself.
4) u b d j m b u m a → j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d - j u m m b a d
 Option (3) gives a pattern of j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d.
Hence, ‗u b d j m b u b a‘ is the correct answer.
Q.163) Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.
28, 32, 41, 57, ?
A. 68
B. 82
C. 74
D. 90
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation: The pattern followed here is:
Hence, '82' is the correct answer.
Q.164) A reduction of 15% in the price of wheat enables a housewife to buy 6 kg more
for 2,720. The reduced price of wheat per kg is:
A. 75
B. 70
C. 65
D. 68
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation: Given:
A reduction of 15% in the price of wheat enables a housewife to buy 6 kg more for ₹2,720.
Calculation:
Let the C.P of wheat per kg be x
Total quantity of wheat in ₹ 2720 = 2720/x
New price = x – x × (15/100)
⇒ (100 - 15)x/100
⇒ 85x/100 or 17x/20
New quantity of wheat in ₹ 2720 = 2720/(17x/20)
⇒ 2720 × (20/17x)
⇒ 3200/x
Now,
(3200/x) – 2720/x = 6
⇒ (480)/x = 6
⇒ x = 80
New price of wheat per kg = 80 × (17/20)
⇒ 68
∴ The reduced price of wheat per kg is 68
Q.165) LCM and HCF of two numbers are 90 and 15, respectively. If the sum of the two
numbers is 75, then find the greater number.
A. 75
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given:
LCM and HCF of two numbers are 90 and 15, respectively.
The sum of the two numbers is 75
Concept used:
Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF
(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab
(a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab
Calculation:
Let the two numbers be a and b
So,
a + b = 75 ----(i)
⇒ (a + b) = 5625
2
⇒ a2 + b2 + 2ab = 5625
⇒ a2 + b2 + 2 × 90 × 15 = 5625
⇒ a2 + b2 + 2700 = 5625
⇒ a2 + b2 = 5625 - 2700
⇒ a2 + b2 = 2925
Now,
a2 + b2 - 2ab = (a - b)2
⇒ 2925 - 2700 = (a - b)2
⇒ 225 = (a - b)2
⇒ 152 = (a - b)2
⇒ 15 = (a - b) ----(ii)
Now,
From eq (i) and (ii) we can say
a = 45 and b = 30
∴ The greater number is 45.
Shortcut Trick LCM × HCF = Product of two numbers

Let one number be x
Other number = (75 - x)
Then,
⇒ 90 × 15 = x(75 - x)
⇒ 1350 = 75x - x2
⇒ x2 - 75x + 1350=0
⇒ x2- 45x - 30x + 1350=0
⇒ x = 45, 30
∴ Greater number = 45
Q.166) A railway engine passes two bridges of lengths 400 m and 235 m in 100 seconds
and 60 seconds, respectively. Twice the length of the railway engine (in m) is:
A. 24
B. 25
C. 12.5
D. 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given data:
Time taken by the engine to cross the 400 m bridge = 100 sec
Time taken by the engine to cross the 235 m bridge = 60 sec
Formula used:
Speed = Distance/Time
Where Distance = Length of engine + Length of bridge
Calculation:
Let us assume the length of the engine is ―l‖ m.
Scenario 1 (Bridge is 400 m long)
Q.167) The average of eight consecutive odd number is 28. The sum of the smallest and
the largest number is:
A. 45
B. 52
C. 48
D. 56
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Shortcut TrickGiven:
The average of 8 consecutive odd numbers is 28
Concept Used
1, 3, 5, and 7 are four consecutive odd numbers.
Average of above numbers is ,
⇒ (1 + 3 + 5 + 7)/4 = 4
Also, 4 is the middle number of the given series
Hence in such cases the average is middle number of the series.
Calculation:
Here, from the concept used we know that,
28 is the middle term of 8 consecutive numbers series
Hence we can say that,
There are 4 consecutive odd numbers before 28 &
There are 4 consecutive odd numbers after 28
So the series of 8 numbers is,
⇒ 21, 23, 25, 27, 28, 29, 31, 33, 35
The sum of the smallest and largest numbers is,
⇒ 21 + 35 = 56
The sum of the largest and smallest odd numbers is 56.
Q.168) A river 6 m deep and 35 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2.5 km/h, the amount of
water that runs into the sea per minute is:
A. 8570 m3
B. 7850 m3
C. 7580 m3
D. 8750 m3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Given data:
Depth of river = 6 m
Width of river = 35 m
Rate of flow = 2.5 km/h
Concept used:
The volume of water flowing is the product of the cross-sectional area of the river and the
flow rate of the river.
Formula used:
Volume of water flowing = Depth × Width × Rate of flow
Q.169) If a positive number ‗k‘ when multiplied by 30% of itself gives a number which is
170% more than the number ‗k‘, then the number ‗k‘ is equal to :
A. 9
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Q.170) A shopkeeper announces a discount of 48 %, and then a further discount of 15%

.What is the final sale price (in Rs, to the nearest rupee ) of a sofa marked Rs 29600, and
what is the discount (in Rs )?
A. 13280 , 16517
B. 13083 , 16517
C. 16517 ,13083
D. 16517 ,13280
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Q.171) A sum of Rs. 4,620 is to be paid back in 2 equal annual instalments. How much is
each instalment (in Rs.) if the interest is compounded annually at 10% per annum?
A. 2,552
B. 2,750
C. 2,420
D. 2,662
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Shortcut Trick
Rate of interest = 10% (per annum)
Fraction value = 10% = 1/10
∴ Principal = 10; Interest = 1
So, total installment = 10 + 1 = 11

Equal instalment
Time Period Principal
per annum
1st year 10 × 11 = 110 11 × 11 = 121
2nd year 102 = 100 112 = 121
Total principal
= 110 + 100 = 210
So, 210 → Rs. 4620

∴ 121 → (4620/210) × 121 = Rs. 2662
∴ The each instalment (in Rs.) is Rs. 2662
Q.172) If 8A5146B is divisible by 88, then what is the value of AB ?

A. 9
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given:
The given number = 8A5146B
Concept used:
Divisibility rule of 8: If the last three digits of a number is divisible by 8, the number will be
divisible by 8
Divisibility rule of 11: The provided integer is divisible if the difference between the sum of
the digits at odd places and the sum of the digits at even places is 0 or divisible by 11.
Calculation:
8A5146B is divisible by 88
So, 8A5146B is divisible by 8 and 11
⇒ 46B should be divisible by 8
Put B = 4, 464 is divisible by 8
Hence, B = 4
Now, 8A51464 should be divisible by 11
⇒ (8 + 5 + 4 + 4) - (A + 1 + 6) should be divisible by 11
⇒ 21 - (A + 7) should be divisible by 11
⇒ 14 - A should be divisible by 11
Put A = 3 then, 14 - 3 = 11 which is divisible by 11
So, A = 3
∴ AB = 3 × 4 = 12
∴ The value of AB is 12
Q.173) The average of sixteen numbers is 48. The average of the first six of these
numbers is 45 and that of the last seven numbers is 53. The seventh and the eighth
numbers are, respectively, 3 and 7 greater than the ninth number. What is the average
of the ninth and seventh numbers?
A. 39
B. 41.5
C. 40.5
D. 42
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given:
The average of sixteen numbers = 48
The average of the first six numbers = 45
The average of the last seven numbers = 53
Concept used:
Sum of the terms = Average × Number of the terms
Calculation:
Let, the ninth number = x
So, seventh number = x + 3; eighth number = x + 7
Then, x + (x + 3) + (x + 7) = (16 × 48) - [(6 × 45) + (7 × 53)]
3x + 10 = 768 - (270 + 371)
3x + 10 = 768 - 641
3x = 768 - 641 - 10 = 117
x = 117/3 = 39
∴ The ninth number = 39
∴ The seventh number = 39 + 3 = 42
The average = (39 + 42)/2 = 81/2 = 40.5
∴ The average of the ninth and seventh numbers is 40.5
Q.174) A and B started their journeys from X to Y and Y to X, respectively. After

crossing each other, A and B completed remaining parts of their journeys in hours
and 8 hours, respectively. If the speed of A is 32 km/h, then the speed, in km/h of B is:
A. 21
B. 28
C. 30
D. 25
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given:
Time is taken by A after crossing (T 1) = hours = 49/8 hours
Time is taken by B after crossing (T2) = 8 hours
The speed of A = 32 km/h
Concept used:
If two cars start at the same time from two points P and Q towards each other and after
crossing they take a and b hours in reaching Q and P respectively. Then P's speed : Q's speed
= √b : √a
Calculation:
We know, Speed of A/Speed of B = √(T2/T1)
32/Speed of B = √[8/(49/8)]
32/Speed of B = √(64/49) = 8/7
Speed of B = (32 × 7)/8 = 28 km/h
∴ The speed, in km/h of B is 28 km/h
Q.175) If 8A5146B is divisible by 88, then what is the value of B - A?

A. 0
B. -1
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given:
The given number = 8A5146B
Concept used:
Divisibility rule of 8: If the last three digits of a number are divisible by 8 then the number is
divisible by 8
Divisibility rule of 11: If the difference between the sum of the digits at odd and even places
of the number is 0 or divisible by 11, then the supplied number is also divisible by 11.
Calculation:
The 8A5146B needs to be divisible by 88
So, he 8A5146B needs to be divisible by 8 and 11
⇒ 46B is divisible by 8
Put B = 4
⇒ 464 is divisible by 8
So, B = 4
The sum of digits in odd position = 8 + 5 + 4 + B = 8 + 5 + 4 + 4 = 21
The sum of digits in even position = A + 1 + 6 = A + 7
So, (A + 7) - 21 is divisible by 0 or 11
⇒ A - 14 is divisible by 0 or 11
If A = 3 then A - 14 = 3 - 14 = - 11
Also, - 11 is divisible by 11
So, A = 3
Then, B - A = 4 - 3 = 1
∴ The value of B - A is 1
Q.176) Which of the following dances is/are in the UNESCO Intangible Heritage list?
[A] Kathak
[B] Chhau
[C] Odia
[D] Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organisation) inscribes three Indian performing-art forms, the Mudiyettu, a ritual theatre of
Kerala; the Chhau dance, a tradition from eastern India.
Q.177) Vedantham Satyanarayan is known to be a greatest guru of which of the

following dance forms?
[A] Odissi
[B] kathak
[C] Bharatnatyam
[D] Kuchipudi
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma, popularly known as Satyam, was an Indian
classical dancer and choreographer. She is considered as an expert of Kuchpudi dance.
Q.178) Name the most traditional classical dance art of India that originated in Kerala
and is mentioned in Natya Shastra.
[A] Bharatanatyam
[B] Chhau Dance
[C] Mohiniyattam
[D] Sattriya
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mohiniyattam is a classical Indian dance, which by definition traces its repertoire to the foundational
text Natya Shastra.
Q.179) When was the national flag adopted?

[A] July 22, 1947
[B] January 24, 1950
[C] January 26, 1950
[D] March 22, 1957
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of
India on 22 July 1947.
Q.180) When was Jana-Gana-Mana first sung?

[A] 1911
[B] 1947
[C] 1950
[D] 1951
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The song Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath
Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the national anthem
of India on 24 January 1950. It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the Calcutta Session
of the Indian National Congress.
Q.181) Dappu Dance is a famous dance form of which among the following states?
[A] West Bengal
[B] Assam
[C] Gujarat
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Dappu Dance belongs to Andhra Pradesh. The Dappu is made of goatskin, a
tambourine-like drum is beaten with sticks creating a rhythm that is softened only by the
ankle bells that the 16 to 20 dancers wear.
Q.182) Name the dance which was revived by Vallathol?

[A] Odissi
[B] Kathakali
[C] Manipuri
[D] Bharatnatyam
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Vallathol is credited with revitalising Kathakali.
Q.183) Which of the following national parks is situated in Uttar Pradesh?

[A] Dudhwa
[B] Dachigam
[C] Van Vihar
[D] Hemis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dudhwa National Park is situated in the Terai belt of marshy grasslands of
northern Uttar Pradesh, India It covers an area of 490.3 km², with a buffer zone of 190 km². It
is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve covering the areas of Kheri and Lakhimpur districts of
UttarPradesh.
Q.184) Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in:

[A] Chhattisgarh
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Uttar Pradesh
[D] Bihar
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Guru Ghasidas National park is a beautiful place, located in the Koriya district
ofChhattisgarh. It is marked as one of the most important protected areas in Chhattisgarh.
Q.185) In which year was the Kaziranga National Park declared as a Reserved Forest?
[A] 1925
[B] 1940
[C] 1908
[D] 1900
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1908, Kaziranga National Park, Assam was declared as a Reserved Forest.
Q.186) In India, the Project Tiger was started in ______.

[A] 1979
[B] 1973
[C] 1992
[D] 1982
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Project Tiger was started in April 1973 by the Government of India during
thetenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi from Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand. The
project aims at ensuring a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats,
protecting them from extinction.
Q.187) Where is Valmiki Tiger Reserve located?

[A] West Champaran, Bihar
[B] Chandrapur, Maharashtra
[C] Ranthambore, Rajasthan
[D] Lakhimpur Kheri, Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Valmiki National Park, Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary is located at the
India-Nepal border in the West Champaran district of Bihar, India on the bank of river
Gandak.
Q.188) With reference to the Biosphere Reserves of India, which of the following is
NOT a Biosphere Reserve?
[A] Dachigam
[B] Achanakmar
[C] Agasthyamalai
[D] Nokrek
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dachigam is a National Park located in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. There
are a total of 18 biosphere reserves in India. Dachigam means ten villages.
Q.189) Which Biosphere Reserve is situated at the south-eastern tip of India?

[A] Gulf of Mannar
[B] Great Nicobar
[C] Indira point
[D] Rann of Kutch
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Gulf of Mannar, running down south from Rameswaram to Kanyakumari
in Tamil Nadu, India is situated between Longitudes 78008 E to 79030 E and along Latitudes
from 8035 N to 9025 N.
Q.190) The Biosphere Reserves Programme was launched by the UNESCO in

[A] 1970
[B] 1971
[C] 1974
[D] 1976
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an intergovernmental scientific

program, launched in 1971 by UNESCO, that aims to establish a scientific basis for the
improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
Q.191) __________ located in Thekkady, Kerala is the perfect example of nature‘s

bounty with great scenic beauty and rich biodiversity.
[A] Wild Ass Sanctuary
[B] Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
[C] Pakhal Sanctuary
[D] Dachigam National Park
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Thekkady is the perfect example of
nature's bounty with great scenic beauty and rich biodiversity. It is considered as the most
protected areafor the elephants and tigers.
Q.192) The Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Indian State of

[A] Jammu & Kashmir
[B] Sikkim
[C] Arunachal Pradesh
[D] Odisha
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Biosphere Reserve constitutes an area of 5112 Sq. Km in the district of
West Siang, Upper Siang and Dibang valley of Arunachal Pradesh.
Q.193) The planned Bedabahal Ultra Mega Power Project is in which of the following
states?
[A] Jharkhand
[B] Odisha
[C] West Bengal
[D] Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Bedabahal Ultra Mega Power Plant is 4,000MW coal fired power project.
It is planned in Odisha, India.
Q.194) TulBul Project is associated with which of the following rivers?

[A] Indus
[B] Ravi
[C] Jhelum
[D] Beas
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Tulbul project is a "navigation lock-cum-control structure" at the mouth of
the Wular Lake. Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India, and is situated on the
Jhelum; it provides an important means for the transportation of goods and movement of
people of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q.195) Which of the following is a stone masonry dam?

[A] Bhakra dam
[B] Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
[C] Hirakud dam
[D] Tehri dam
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: World's largest masonry dam protected with 26 gates measuring 14m in height and
13m in width, Nagarjunasagar Dam located in Nalgonda District is built across River Krishna. The
dam has a storage capacity of nearly 11,472 million cubic meters with an irrigation capacity for 10
acres of land.
Q.196) Where is Mohra power project located?

[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Jammu and Kashmir
[C] Uttar Pradesh
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Power Development in Jammu and Kashmir has a long and distinguished
history. 9MW Mohra Hydro-electric Plant, among the first of its kind in the subcontinent,
was developed as early as 1905.
Q.197) Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is situated in-

[A] Kerala
[B] Karnataka
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary (also known as Pakshi Kashi of Karnataka), is a
bird sanctuary in the Mandya District of the state of Karnataka in India. It is the largest bird
sanctuary in the state, 40 acres (16 ha) in area, and comprises six islets on the banks of
the Kaveri river.
Q.198) Chintarnoni Kar Bird Sanctuary is located in which state?

[A] Tamil Nadu
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] West Bengal
[D] Kamataka
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Chintamoni Kar Bird Sanctuary established in 1982 is situated at south
Kolkata. This is also known as Kayal-r Bagan. This garden is famous for the availability of a
wide variety of birds, butterflies, ferns and orchids. Hence, option C is correct.
Q.199) Who Is The Author Of Nepali Novel Phoolange?

A.Lekhnath Chhetri
B.Chetan Bhagat
C.Anurag Basnet
D.A Roy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The book is written by Lekhnath Chhetri, a writer based in Darjeeling, and focuses
on the failed Gorkha movement for a separate state. The original Nepali version of the novel was
shortlisted for the Madan Puraskar, which is Nepal's most prestigious literary award, in 2021.
Q.200) India‟s 1st Mangrove Pitta Bird Census Has Been Conducted In Which State?
A.Gujarat
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Odisha
D.West Bengal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Central idea: The article talks about the first-ever census of mangrove pitta birds
conducted in two coastal districts of Odisha, India.

(Answer) WBCS (Prelims) Mock Test-16

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Offline Mock Test-16

Explanation: The correct answer should be 'carrying'.

Therefore the correct option would be C.

Q.30) Which of the following is a carnivorous plant?

 He was the court physician of Kaniska.

Q.33) Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) is a vaccine for ______.

o Regional Rural Banks were established on the basis of the recommendations

Q.35) With reference to no-confidence motion, which of the following statements is

 In Parliament when a no-confidence motion is passed, the Government discontinues

o Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests

 States like Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand, and

Q.39) The Mughal court chronicles are written in ______.

Q.41) The rate of doing work is called:

Q.46) ‗Ashtadhyayi‘, written by Sanskrit scholar Panini, is a book on ______.

 Phycology (also called algology) is the study of algae. It is a large heterogeneous

Q.48) What is the atomic mass of oxygen (expressed in ‗u‘)?

Q.51) How many protons are there in a lithium nucleus?

o Lithium is found only in Salt and Minerals.

Q.53) Chandannagar was established as a French colony in 1673, obtaining permission

 Chandannagar was established as a French colony in 1673.

Q.55) The Open Hand Monument in Chandigarh was designed by ______.

Q.59) The ______ Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to

Q.61) Urea, a commonly used nitrogen-based fertiliser, is prepared by the reaction

Q.63) In which Indian state will you find Mount Tiyi?

Q.64) Which of the following rivers is also called Vyeth?

Q.68) In Jharkhand, the primitive form of cultivation is called:

Q.69) The Bhaja Caves are located in ______.

Q.72) The UN‘s Sustainable Development Goal 6 aims to ______.

Q.73) King Lalitaditya Muktapida ruled over ______.

Explanation: The correct answer is 6-17 October 1949.

Q.76) Acceleration is equal to the rate of change of _________.

Displacement The shortest distance between two points

Speed Distance travelled per unit time

Jerk Rate of change of acceleration

Q.79) Who among the following was an ancient Indian mathematician-astronomer?

Q.89) Which of the following is NOT a type of mosquito?

Q.90) The ancient city of Champa is believed to be the capital of _________

Q.93) The Ghoom Monastery is located in:

o According to Section 2 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, marriage in any

Q.99) How many eyes does a bee have?

Q.100) Which of the following statements about black soil is INCORRECT?

Q.102) The GDP deflator is also called:

Q.105) Which of the following books was written by Jawaharlal Nehru?

Q.113) Where is the Film and Television Institute of India located?

Q.117) Which layer of atmosphere is vital for telecommunications?

Q.121) Who gave the slogan first 'Inquilab Zindabad'?

Q.122) Process of loosing electrons is known as __________.

Q.124) Microbial degradation of nitrates into atmospheric nitrogen is known as:

Explanation: Bande matram- Aurbindo ghosh

Q.126) In which industry Potassium Nitrate is used commercially?

Q.127) Kailasa Temple, one of the largest monolithic structures, is in

Q.128) According to Sarojini Naidu who was "the ambassador of Hindu-Muslim

Q.130) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Q.132) The successors of the Satavahanas in the Deccan were the

Q.134) The Pearl Mosque in delhi was built by

Q.136) Consider the following statements:

Q.137) Partition Of Bengal was announced in 1905 by _______

Q.138) The famous 'Jama-Masjid' Of Delhi was built by

Q.140) During the Mughal period Polaj was the

Q.144) In which city of India is Charminar located?

Q.145) The Agra fort was built by _________.

Q.148) Kelvin (K) is the unit of measurement of ________.