CANDIDATE – PLEASE NOTE!

PRINT your name on the line below and return

this booklet with your answer sheet. Failure to
do so may result in disqualification. TEST CODE 02170010
FORM TP 2019199 MAY/JUNE 2019

CARIBBEAN E XAM I NAT I O N S COUNCIL

CARIBBEAN ADVANCED PROFICIENCY EXAMINATION®
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONIC ENGINEERING TECHNOLOGY
UNIT 1 – Paper 01
1 hour 30 minutes

14 MAY 2019 (p.m.)

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY.

1. This test consists of 45 items. You will have 1 hour and 30 minutes to answer them.

2. In addition to this test booklet, you should have an answer sheet.

3. Do not be concerned that the answer sheet provides spaces for more answers than there are
items in this test.

4. Each item in this test has four suggested answers lettered (A), (B), (C), (D). Read each item
you are about to answer and decide which choice is best.

5. On your answer sheet, find the number which corresponds to your item and shade the space
having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. Look at the sample item below.

Sample Item
The ampere is the unit of measurement for Sample Answer

(A) voltage A B C D
(B) resistance
(C) electric power
(D) electric current

The best answer to this item is “electric current”, so (D) has been shaded.

6. If you want to change your answer, erase it completely before you fill in your new choice.

7. When you are told to begin, turn the page and work as quickly and as carefully as you can.
If you cannot answer an item, go on to the next one. You may return to that item later.

8. You may do any rough work in this booklet.

9. Figures are not necessarily drawn to scale.

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Copyright © 2018 Caribbean Examinations Council
All rights reserved.

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1. Why is it important to install safety devices 4. It is important to conduct risk assessments

such as interlock switches on machines? in power plants in order to

(A) To change the speed of machines I. collect data from employees’ files
(B) To permit the operator to turn the that can lead to promotion
machines on or off easily II. identify and analyse all conse-
(C) To turn the machines off when the quences and effects of workplace
door is opened or the guard is hazards
removed III. identify employees who could be
(D) To improve energy efficiency affected by workplace hazards
by conserving the amount of
(A) I only
electricity consumed
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
2. Which of the following BEST describes
the three areas of industrial fire safety?
5. Which of the following are true about
(A) Fire prevention, fire rescue and fire
grounding?
drill
(B) Fire prevention, fire suppression I. It safeguards equipment and
and fire rescue protects personnel from electric
(C) Fire prevention, fire suppression shock.
and property protection II. It is the connection of all exposed
(D) Fire prevention, fire suppression non-current-carrying conductor/
and personal protection metal parts to earth.
III. It can be accomplished by a
conducting rod or a concrete-
3. Which of the following is NOT a good safety enclosed electrode.
practice when working with dangerous
electrical equipment? (A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(A) Use a nonconductive ladder. (C) II and III only
(B) Work with another individual. (D) I, II and III
(C) Know what to do in an emergency.
(D) Work alone if one has the requisite
experience. 6. What effect does fault current have on a
defective grounding system?

(A) It causes the electric meter to spin

much faster.
(B) It will cause the utility company’s
transformer to overheat.
(C) It will dissipate easily and
effectively to the general mass
of the earth.
(D) It will result in a potentially
dangerous touch voltage on the
grounding conductor or metal
frame.

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7. Which of the following is NOT a safety 11. Which of the following is the BEST
practice when working on an industrial procedure to follow when conducting
electrical panel? voltage tests or measurements on an
electrical system carrying 120 V or higher?
(A) Lock out and tag out panel.
(B) Use a meter with multifunctions. (A) Use one hand to manipulate the test
(C) Disconnect the main power supply. leads across the system while
(D) Test all circuits after they are turned using the other hand to brace for
off. support.
(B) Use one hand to manipulate the
test leads while keeping the
8. Which of the following procedures is NOT other hand behind your back or
practised by maintenance technicians? in your pocket, and standing on
a grounding mat.
(A) Verify the reported problem. (C) Use both hands to manipulate the
(B) Isolate problems and observe parts. test leads across the system to
(C) Buy replacement parts and then test obtain proper balance.
faults. (D) Use both hands to manipulate
(D) Observe system operation and the test leads across the system
document findings. while standing on a grounding
mat.

9. Which of the following maintenance

programmes is performed in order to keep Item 12 refers to the following diagram
all machines, production lines and plant which illustrates the failure rate versus time
operations running with little downtime? for an equipment.

(A) Reactive
(B) Scheduled
(C) Shut down
(D) Breakdown

10. Which of the following is the correct

sequence a maintenance technician should
follow when troubleshooting a defective
piece of electrical equipment?

I. System level 12. Which of the following periods BEST

II. Component level indicates the reliability of the equipment?
III. Board level
IV. Equipment/unit level (A) Break-in
(B) Wear-out
(A) I, II, III, IV (C) Useful life
(B) I, II, IV, III (D) Redundancy
(C) I, III, IV, II
(D) I, IV, III, II

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13. Which of the following are dangers that a 16. Which of the following are qualities of an
worker can be exposed to when working in entrepreneur?
a power-generating plant?
I. Willingness to take risks
I. Toxic fumes II. Generates innovative ideas
II. Risk of electric shock III. Works for other organizations
III. Risk of burns
(A) I and II only
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only
(B) I and III only (C) II and III only
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III
(D) I, II and III

17. Which of the following capabilities

14. Which of the following is the correct represents an advantage for an
sequence of steps that a first aid responder entrepreneur over a traditional supplier?
should follow in order to perform CPR on a
victim who has stopped breathing because (A) The ability to guarantee sustained
of electric shock? demand for the product or service
(B) The ability to respond promptly to
I. Call emergency number. an increased demand for goods
II. Clear airway of the victim. and services
III. Place victim in the recovery (C) The ability to focus on customer
position. satisfaction by providing quality
IV. Begin chest compression. service
V. Administer mouth-to-mouth (D) The ability to maintain sufficient
resuscitation. capital investment to keep the
firm afloat even when business
(A) IV, II, III, V, I is slow
(B) I, IV, II, V, III
(C) III, II, IV, I, V
(D) V, III, II, I, IV 18. Preliminary research carried out to
determine whether a business idea is
potentially sound is called a
15. Why should a DC universal motor NEVER
be installed in a hazardous location that (A) contract
contains flammable materials? (B) business plan
(C) marketing plan
(A) The voltage will fluctuate. (D) feasibility study
(B) Motor castings are not fireproof.
(C) Sparking at the brushes can cause
fire.
(D) Motor windings can catch fire.

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19. How can managers and engineers develop 23. What is the meaning of the acronym
a culture of ethics in an organization? EPROM?

I. Engage in proper customer service. (A) Electronic programmable read only

II. Provide kickback opportunities for memory
stakeholders. (B) Electrical programmable read only
III. Develop a sense of integrity and memory
accountability in business. (C) Exclusive programmable read only
memory
(A) I and II only (D) Erasable programmable read only
(B) I and III only memory
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
24. What is 110112 converted to decimal?

20. The type of leadership style demonstrated (A) 2610

by a lead engineer who involves workers (B) 2710
in the decision-making process of the (C) 3910
company is described as (D) 4310

(A) autocratic
(B) democratic 25. What is 5510 converted to binary?
(C) laissez-faire
(D) authoritarian (A) 1010102
(B) 1011012
(C) 1101112
21. Which of the following tachometers uses (D) 1110112
a flashing light to measure the speed of a
moving object?
26. What is 2AF16 converted to decimal?
(A) Frequency
(B) Direct (A) 30010
(C) Strobe (B) 67310
(D) Quartz (C) 68710
(D) 1920810

22. Which of the following digital devices has

a number of input lines equal to the number 27. Which of the following control systems
of code combinations to be generated? is self-regulating and compensates
automatically for any disturbances that
(A) Encoder change the process variable?
(B) Decoder
(C) Multiplexer (A) Closed loop
(D) Demultiplexer (B) Closed gain
(C) Open gain
(D) Open loop

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28. Servo robotics, when programmed, can be 30. Which of the following BEST describes
used to control the function of a microprocessor?

I. speed (A) It is designed for single use on an

II. path trajectory automation network.
III. acceleration (B) It performs a dedicated task in a
single integrated circuit.
(A) I and II only (C) It interfaces with other components
(B) I and III only on the main assembly.
(C) II and III only (D) It is a group of computers and
(D) I, II and III devices connected to serve a
region.

29. The robotic controller that uses sensors to

tell the controller the position or speed of
the arm as it moves between programmed
points is known as

(A) a closed loop servo controller

(B) an open loop servo controller
(C) an open loop pneumatic controller
(D) a closed loop pneumatic controller

Item 31 refers to the following diagram which shows a series/parallel resistive circuit.

R2 = 6 Ω

R1 = 4 Ω

R3 = 3 Ω

31. The equivalent resistance of the circuit above is

(A) 6.0 Ω
(B) 6.5 Ω
(C) 11.0 Ω
(D) 13.0 Ω

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32. A coil of copper wire has a resistance of Items 36 –37 refer to the following diagram
30 Ω at 17 °C. If the temperature coefficient which represents a series resistive circuit.
of resistance of copper is 0.0046/°C, what
is the resistance of the coil when the
temperature rises to 97 °C?

(A) 10.32 Ω
(B) 41.04 Ω
(C) 44.71 Ω
(D) 80.34 Ω

33. The force exerted on a current-carrying 36. What is the current flowing in the circuit?
conductor in a magnetic field is at its
maximum when the value of the angle, θ, (A) 0.5 A
is (B) 1.4 A
(C) 2.0 A
(A) 0° (D) 19.0 A
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90° 37. What is the value of the voltage drop across
the 8 Ω resistor?
34. Materials which exhibit a rise in resistance (A) 2V
as a result of a rise in temperature have a (B) 16 V
(C) 18 V
(A) zero temperature coefficient (D) 36 V
(B) saturated temperature coefficient
(C) negative temperature coefficient
(D) positive temperature coefficient

35. A material whose resistance remains

relatively constant in spite of a change in
temperature has a temperture coefficient of
resistance that is

(A) zero
(B) negative
(C) positive
(D) saturated

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Item 38 refers to the following diagram 40. The time taken to complete each cycle of
which represents a parallel resistive circuit. a sinewave is known as the

(A) period
(B) RMS value
(C) amplitude
(D) frequency

41. A transformer has a rated output of

250 kVA at a power factor of 0.8. What is
38. Which of the following formulae is used to
the reactive power?
calculate the value of I1 using Kirchhoff’s
current law?
(A) 150 kVar
I1 (B) 200 kVar
(A) I1 = R1 + R2 IT (C) 250 kVar
(D) 300 kVar
I2
(B) I1 = IT
R1 + R2
R1 42. A 65 µF capacitor is connected to a 120
(C) I1 = R1 + R2 IT
V/60 Hz supply. What is the apparent
R2 power?
(D) I1 = R1 + R2 IT
(A) 0.222 kVA
(B) 0.353 kVA
Item 39 refers to the following diagram (C) 2.449 kVA
which represents a simple resistive circuit. (D) 4.899 kVA
RT = 5 Ω
43. On which valve of the waveform is the
nominal voltage distributed by power
IT = 3 A utility companies based?

(A) Peak
(B) Average
15 V (C) Peak-to-peak
(D) Root mean square
39. What is the total power dissipated by the
circuit?

(A) 23 W
(B) 45 W
(C) 75 W
(D) 135 W

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Item 44 refers to the following phasor diagrams labelled 1, 2, 3, 4.

44. Which of the phasor diagrams is correct for a purely inductor circuit?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Item 45 refers to the following circuit of a capacitor (C1) connected in series with a parallel bank
of capacitors (C2 and C3).

45. What is the total capacitance of the network?

(A) 2.0 µF
(B) 4.3 µF
(C) 7.3 µF
(D) 9.0 µF

END OF TEST

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

02170010/MJ/CAPE 2019
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TEST CODE: 0 2 1 7 0 0 1 0

SUBJECT: ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONIC ENGINEERING TECHNOLOGY – UNIT 1 – Paper 01

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