AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE

7. If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the take-off distance required will be
1. The speed V2 is a) Increased
a) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an b) Decreased
engine failure. c) Unaffected
b) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems. d) Reduced with a wind
c) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in
the case of an engine failure. 8. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
d) the take-off safety speed. a) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
b) lift off speed.
2. In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 c) take-off decision speed.
a) the take-off must be rejected. d) critical engine failure speed.
b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available. 9. The speed V1 is defined as
d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1. a) take-off climb speed.
b) speed for best angle of climb.
3. The result of a flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is c) engine failure speed.
a) a higher V1. d) take-off decision speed.
b) a longer take-off run.
c) a shorter ground roll. 10. A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is
d) an increased acceleration nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.
The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
4. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : a) very significantly decreased
a) the accelerate-stop distance available. b) increased
a) the take-off run available. c) unchanged
b) the take-off distance available. d) Decreased
c) the landing distance available.
11. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
5. In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included? consequences on take-off performance:
b) In the accelerate stop distance available. a) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
c) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance. b) an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
d) In the all-engine take-off distance. c) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
e) In the take-off run available d) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

6. Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives 12. The take-off distance available is
will decrease the take-off ground run? a) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.
a) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature. b) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
b) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting. c) the runway length minus stopway.
c) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass. d) the runway length plus half of the clearway
d) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.

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13. The length of a clearway may be included in: 19. Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-
a) the accelerate-stop distance available. off ?
b) the take-off run available. a) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind
c) the distance to reach V1. components.
d) the take-off distance available. b) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature ,standard pressure and wind
components.
14. The take-off distance required increases c) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind
a) due to contamination on the runway. components.
b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. c) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind
c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. components.
d) due to lower gross mass at take-off.
20. If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the take-off distance required will be
15. The take-off decision speed V1 is: a) Increased
a) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be b) Decreased
aborted. c) Unaffected
b) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed. d) Reduced with a wind
c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
d) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR. 21. How does higher air humidity affect aircraft take-off performance?
Take-off distances are:
16. During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater a) Longer due to denser air.
than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed b) Longer due to thinner air.
immediately above the correct value of V1? c) Shorter due to thinner air.
a) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available. d) Shorter due to denser air.
b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases. 22. If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the take-off distance will be:
d) It may lead to over-rotation. a) Unaffected.
b) Increased.
17. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1? c) Decreased.
a) All Engine Take-off distance d) Controlled by wind.
b) Take-off run
c) Accelerate Stop Distance 23. What is the effect of runway slope on the take-off?
d) Take-off distance a) A downhill slope will decrease the take-off performance.
b) An uphill slope will increase the take-off performance.
18. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following c) An uphill slope will increase the take-off distance.
consequences on take-off performance: d) A downhill slope will increase the take-off distance.
a) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
b) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance 24. That part of the take-off strip that includes the Take Off Run Available and the
c) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance stopway, is referred to as
d) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance a) The Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
b) The Clearway
c) The Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d) The Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA) or Emergency Distance Available (EDA)

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 c) Decreases takeoff distance.
25. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: d) Increases takeoff distance.
a) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface. 32. If the density of the air is increased above ISA conditions, the effect will be:
b) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue a) To decrease just the take-off run.
or discontinue the takeoff. b) To increase the take-off distance.
c) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed). c) No change to the take-off performance.
d) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to d) To increase the take-off performance.
have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off . 33. What name is given to the distance which comprises the Take-Off Run Available
(TORA) and any clearway?
26. In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 a) Emergency Distance Available (EDA)
a) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR. b) The Take-Off Distance Required (TODA)
b) the take-off must be continued. c) The Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
c) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF. d) The Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance. 34. The horizontal distance covered during take-off, from brake release to the 50ft
screen height, and which includes any stopway or clearway, is referred to as
a) The Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
27. How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors
remain constant and not limiting? b) The Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
a) An uphill slope increases take-off mass. c) The Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
b) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope. d) The Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)
c) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
d) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
35. That part of a runway surface that is used for normal operations during take-off,
28. Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take- excluding any clearway or stopway , is referred to as
off distance available ? a) The Take Off Run Available (TORA)
a) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane. b) The Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
b) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway. c) The Take Off Distance Available (TODA)
c) No. d) The Emergency Distance Available (EDA)
d) No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway. 36. From the table shown, extract the rate of climb for an aircraft operating at 5000 ft
with an outside air temperature of 0⁰ C.
29. What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds?
The slope
a) has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
b) decreases the take-off speed V1.
c) decreases the TAS for take-off.
d) increases the IAS for take-off.
30. What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is decreased?
a) It will increase the take-off distance required.
b) It will increase the take-off ground run.
c) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
d) It will decrease the take-off distance required.
31. What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?
a) Increases takeoff speed.
b) Decreases takeoff speed.

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 b) Greater than weight
c) Equal to weight
d) Independent of weight
41. The horizontal distance covered during take-off, from brake release to the 50ft
screen height, and which includes any stopway or clearway, is referred to as
a) The Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
b) The Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
c) The Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d) The Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)
42. A 15 knot head wind at 60⁰ off the runway gives a headwind component of
approximately
a) 8 knots
b) 14 knots
c) 12 knots
d) 3 knots
43. What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on rotate speed and stalling speed?
a) It will increase rotate speed and decrease stalling speed.
b) It will decrease rotate speed and increase stalling speed.
c) It will increase both speeds.
a) 555 feet per minute d) It will decrease both speeds.
b) 425 feet per minute 44. The main reason for taking off into wind is to:
c) 490 feet per minute a) Decrease the takeoff distance available (TODA).
d) 295 feet per minute b) Decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off.
37. The best rate of climb is achieved: c) Increase the take-off distance.
a) When flying at the speed for maximum excess thrust available d) Increase the ground speed of the aircraft.
b) When climbing into the wind 45. To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time, an aircraft should be
c) When flying at VX flown at :
d) When flying at the maximum excess power available a) 60 knots
38. One effect of climbing an aircraft with flap selected would be : b) The best rate of climb speed (VY)
a) An improved climb performance c) The best angle of climb speed (VX)
b) A decreased co-efficient of drag d) The best speed for maximum endurance
c) A decreased co-efficient of lift
d) A reduced rate and angle of climb

46. Climbing at VX will achieve

39. Climbing at VY will achieve:
a) The best time to height
a) The maximum angle of climb
b) The greatest increase in altitude in a given time
b) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time
c) The maximum angle of climb
c) The maximum increase in height in the shortest horizontal distance
d) The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance
d) The best obstacle clearance performance
40. The lift produced by the wing of an aircraft in a steady climb maintaining a
constant indicated airspeed will be : 47. Increasing the mass (and, therefore, the weight) of an aircraft will:
a) Less than weight a) Decrease the rate and angle of climb

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b) Increase the rate and angle of climb
c) Increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb
d) Decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb
an increase in weight, an increase in altitude, lowering the landing gear, or
lowering the flaps all decrease both excess thrust and excess power for all
aircraft. Therefore, maximum Angle-of-Climb (Vx) and maximum Rate-of-
Climb (Vy) performance decrease under any of these condition

48. An aircraft cruising at a pressure altitude 2000 feet is cleared to climb to a

pressure altitude of 8000 feet. Using the table, calculate the time taken in minutes,
the fuel used in gallons and the horizontal distance flown in the climb, assuming a) 19 minutes, 4 gallons, 27 miles
zero wind. b) 23 minutes, 4.07 gallons , 32 miles
c) 15 minutes, 3.3 gallons, 22 miles
d) 4 minutes, 0.7 gallons, 5 miles

49. How will an aircraft’s maximum rate of climb be affected by selecting take-off
flap?
a) The maximum rate of climb will increase
b) The maximum rate of climb will not be affected

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c) The maximum rate of climb will remain the same provided that the pilot chooses an appropriate c) 12 knots
power setting d) 3 knots
d) The maximum rate of climb will decrease

54. Increasing the aeroplane's gross weight will have what effect on the take-off?
50. Complete the statement as accurately as possible using one of the options a, b, c, a) Decrease the stall speed and the take-off run required.
d. b) Increase the stall speed and decrease the take-off run required.
The main reason for taking off into the wind is to: c) Increase the stall speed and the take-off run required.
d) Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off run required.
a) Increase the take-off distance required
b) Decrease the take-off distance available
c) Increase the ground speed of the aircraft at lift off
d) Decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift off , and to decrease the take off distance 55. If the centre of gravity of an aircraft is moved rearwards, the effect is:
required a) A stronger lift/weight couple which requires a greater tail-plane to maintain the aircraft in
equilibrium
b) An increased range and endurance
c) A reduced range and endurance
51. That part of the take-off strip that includes the Take Off Run Available and the
d) A greater tail load
stopway , is referred to as
a) The Take-Off Run Available (TORA) 56. A wing contaminated by a small amount of ice will produce:
a) More weight and more lift
b) The Clearway
b) More drag, more weight and less lift
c) The Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
c) An increase in both lift and drag co-efficient
d) The Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA) or Emergency Distance Available (EDA)
d) An increase in weight and decrease in drag
57. A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows that
he is flying in a tailwind. How will the speed selected by the pilot compare with the
52. What name is given to the distance which comprises the Take-Off Run Available maximum range speed for still air quoted in the Flight Manual?
(TORA) and any clearway? a) It will be decreased slightly
a) Emergency Distance Available (EDA) b) It will be increased slightly
b) The Take-Off Distance Required (TODA) c) It will be the same as for still air
c) The Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA) d) The speed will be greater by the value of the tailwind component
d) The Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
58. The true airspeed of an aircraft which maintains a constant indicated airspeed
will:
a) Increase as altitude increases
b) Remain constant as altitude increases
c) Decrease as altitude increases
d) Act unpredictably , as true airspeed has no connection with indicated airspeed
59. Examine the graph in Figure 4.16. Which of the speeds indicated by A,B,C, or D
should be flown for maximum endurance?

53. A 15 knot head wind at 60⁰ off the runway gives a crosswind component of
approximately
a) 8 knots
b) 14 knots

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 61. What speed, from Figure 4.15, should be flown for maximum range?

a) A
b) B a) A
c) C b) B
d) D c) C
d) D

60. What speed must be flown to attain cruise endurance?

a) VY
62. The true airspeed of an aircraft which maintains a constant indicated airspeed
b) Maximum Speed will:
c) VMP a) Increase as altitude increases
d) VMD b) Remain constant as altitude increases
c) Decrease as altitude increases
d) Act unpredictably , as true airspeed has no connection with indicated airspeed

63. The Centre of Pressure of a given aircraft is aft of the aircraft’s Centre of Gravity.
During straight and level flight, any increase in the lift causing an imbalance in the
equilibrium of forces is compensated for by:
a) An upward force generated by the tailplane
b) A downward force generated by the tailplane
c) An increase in thrust
d) A decrease in drag

64. What would the effect of an increase in temperature upon air density and aircraft
performance?

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a) Increase density and reduced aircraft performance 69. How will an aircraft’s maximum rate of climb be affected by selecting take-off
b) Increase density and increased aircraft performance flap?
a) The maximum rate of climb will increase
c) Reduced density and an increase in aircraft performance
b) The maximum rate of climb will not be affected
d) Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance
c) The maximum rate of climb will remain the same provided that the pilot chooses an appropriate
power setting
d) The maximum rate of climb will decrease
65. If weight is increased , the range of the aircraft will be
a) Reduced
b) Unchanged
c) Increased 70. Complete the statement as accurately as possible using one of the options a., b.,
c., d.
d) Increased unless lift can be reduced
If the density of the air increases the effect will be…………………………………………
a) To increase the take-off distance required
b) To increase the take-off run
66. To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time, an aircraft should be c) To decrease the take-off distance required
flown at : d) To decrease the indicated speed at lift off
a) 60 knots
b) The best rate of climb speed (VY)
c) The best angle of climb speed (VX)
71. What is the maximum range speed for a piston engine aircraft?
d) The best speed for maximum endurance
a) VMP
b) VMD
c) At a lower speed than VMP
67. Climbing at VX will achieve d) At a speed less than VMD
a) The best time to height
b) The greatest increase in altitude in a given time
c) The maximum angle of climb
72. The glide range will be maximized by flying at :
d) The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance
a) A relatively high angle of attack such as 10⁰
b) A relatively low angle of attack such as 4⁰ which will give the best lift/drag ratio
c) A negative angle of attack
68. Increasing the mass (and, therefore, the weight) of an aircraft will: d) A high descent angle
a) Decrease the rate and angle of climb
b) Increase the rate and angle of climb
c) Increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb
73. Compared to a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a downward
d) Decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb
sloping runway?
a) The landing performance will improve
b) The landing distance will be decreased
c) The landing distance will be increased
d) The landing distance will be unaffected

74. If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 55 knots, VREF would be
approximately

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a) 65 knots b) It decreases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available
b) 75 knots c) It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower speeds
c) 71 knots d) It will reduce the ground speed and reduce the landing distance required
d) 69 knots
80. Why is flap used for landing?
a) The approach speed is increased and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward
vision
75. Which load factor determines VA?
a) gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust. b) The approach speed is reduced and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward
b) manoeuvring flap limit load factor. vision
c) manoeuvring limit load factor. c) The approach speed is reduced and a flatter approach path is flown which improves vision
d) manoeuvring ultimate load factor. d) The approach speed is increased and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward
vision

81. The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is
76. Complete the statement as accurately as possible using one of the options a., b., created by the speed:
c., d. a) VMO
During take-off, the use of the manufacturer’s recommended flap setting ,
b) VD
a) Compared to zero flap , will increase the length of the take-off run and obstacle clearance c) VC
performance d) Vflutter
b) Compared to zero flap, will decrease the take-off run required but reduce obstacle clearance
performance
c) Compared to zero flap will increase the indicated airspeed at which the aircraft can lift-off 82. The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
d) Compared to zero flap , will ensure a steeper angle of climb after lift-off a) Increasing the angle of attack
b) Increasing the CAS
c) Increasing the TAS
d) Decreasing the ‘nose up’ elevator trim setting
77. What speed must be flown to attain maximum cruise range?
a) VX
b) Maximum Speed
c) VMD 83. The speed instability region is:
d) VMP a) The same as the region of negative gradient of the thrust or power required curve
b) Region where the aeroplane cannot be flown manually
c) Area above the intersection of power required curve and drag curve
d) Located in the area below the low speed buffet
78. What is the effect of a headwind on the glide angle and gliding range with respect
to ground?
a) Glide angle and glide range will remain the same as in still air
b) Glide angle and glide range will increase 84. The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of :
c) Glide angle and glide range will decrease a) The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage
d) Glide angle will increase and glide range decrease b) The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage
c) True airspeed to rate of climb
d) Rate of climb to true airspeed
79. Landings are carried out into wind because
a) It increases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available

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85. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an 90. (Refer to Figure 38) Determine the approximate landing roll distance.
aeroplane in level flight ? Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft
a) The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum Headwind = calm
power available from the engine Temperature = 101⁰F
b) The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the minimum power required equals the a) 445 feet
power available from the engine b) 545 feet
c) The maximum level speed will be obtained when the power required equals the minimum c) 495 feet
power available from the engine d) Cannot be calculated from given Figure 38
d) The minimum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum
power available from the engine
91. Can the length of a stop way be added to the runway length to determine the take
off distance available ?
a) No
86. What happens to the fuel cost when flying above the optimum cruise speed ?
b) Yes , but the stop way must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplance
a) Cost will increase with increased speed
c) No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway
b) Cost is not affected by speed
d) Yes , but the stop way must have the same width as the runway
c) Cost will decrease with increased speed
d) It all depends on how much the speed is changed by

92. (Refer to figure 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single
engine aeroplane , determine the maximum allowable take off mass.
87. What factors affect the descent angle in a glide ? OAT = ISA
a) Configuration and angle of attack Pressure Altitude = 4000 ft
b) Configuration and altitude Headwind component = 5 knots
c) Mass and altitude Flaps up
Runway Tarred and Dry
d) Mass and configuration
Factored runway length = 2000 ft
Obstacle height = 50 ft
a) 2900 lbs
88. When in gliding manoeuvre, in order to achieve maximum endurance the aircraft b) 3650 lbs
should be flown at: c) 3240 lbs
a) The speed for min. power d) 300 lbs
b) The speed for max. lift
c) The speed for min. drag
d) The speed for max. lift/drag
93. (Refer to figure 2.2) With regard to the SOCATA TB 20 take-off performance chart,
determine the maximum allowed takeoff weight, Given :
OAT = ISA
Pressure altitude = 4000 ft
89. Which of the following will not increase the minimum glide angle to the ground?
Weight = 2640 lbs
a) Increased weight
Headwind component = 5 knots
b) Lowering the landing gear Flaps = 10 ⁰
c) Increased flap angle Runway = 2000 ft length ; tarred and dry
d) Increase headwind Obstacle Height : 50 ft
a) Greater than 3500 lbs
b) 2860 lbs
c) 2400 lbs

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 d) 3240 lbs
99. (Refer to Figure 38) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50 ft
94. (Refer Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle, given the following conditions:
obstacle. Pressure altitude = 5000 ft
Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft Headwind = 8 knots
Headwind = 8 kts Temperature = 41 ⁰F
Temperature = 41°F Runway = Hard Surface
Runway = Hard surface a) 837 ft
a) 837 feet. b) 956 ft
b) 956 feet. c) 1,076 ft
c) 1,076 feet. d) 1157 ft
d) 1,185 feet
100. Structural damage or failure is more likely to occur in smooth air at speeds
above
a) VNO
b) VA
c) VNE
95. The coefficient of lift (CL) may be increased by lowering the flaps or by d) VS
a) Increase in angle of attack
b) Increase in CAS
c) Reducing nose up elevator trim
d) Increasing TAS

96. What is one purpose of wing flaps?

a) To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed
b) To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls
c) To decrease wing area to vary the lift
d) To increase wing area to decrease the lift

97. (Refer to figure 2.1) Airport characteristics ; hard, dry and zero slope runway.
Actual conditions :
Pressure Altitude ; 1500 ft
Outside Temperature : +18 ⁰ C
Wind component : 4 knots tailwind
For a take-off mass of 1270 kg the take-off distance will be ?
a) 440
b) 615
c) 525
d) 415

98. (Refer to Figure 32) What is the total takeoff distance required to clear a 5-ft
obstacle with the following conditions:
Temperature = 50⁰F
Pressure altitude = 4,000 ft
Headwind 15 knots
a) 1,200 ft
b) 880ft
c) 700ft
d) 1,500 ft

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