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GATE Aptitude Questions

General Aptitude (GA) Questions for GATE Exam


GATE General Aptitude Questions: A common section found in the GATE question papers for all the subjects is the General Aptitude(GA). GATE
Question Papers comprises about 10 General Aptitude questions, accounting for a total of 15 marks. Typically, the GA test is conducted to analyse
the language skills and the analytical skills of the candidates. The difficulty level of these questions also often vary from easy to moderate.

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Explore Top 51 Expected Questions of Aptitude for GATE Exam 2022:

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In this article below, candidates can browse and find the GATE Aptitude Questions asked in the exams for the years 2016 to 2021.

Note: We have compiled here the GATE Aptitude Questions from the Computer Science subject. We will be adding more questions soon.

GATE General Aptitude Questions


Candidates can click on the respective year-wise GATE aptitude practice questions and find the corresponding year’s general aptitude questions
to solve and practise for the GATE exams.

See the compiled list of year wise aptitude questions below,

Aptitude questions for GATE 2021

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Aptitude questions for GATE 2020
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Aptitude questions
With BYJU'S Exam Prepfor GATE
Free Trial 2019

Aptitude questions for GATE 2018

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GATE Aptitude Questions 2021
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Q1. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 7 to 3.
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Among the options below, an acceptable value for the total number of students

in the class is:

A. 21

B. 37

C. 50

D. 73

Q2. A polygon is a convex if, for every pair of points, P and Q belonging to the polygon, the line segment PQ lies completely inside or on the
polygon.

Which of the following is not a convex polygon?

Q3. Consider the following sentences:

(i) Everybody in the class is prepared for the exam.

(ii) Babu invited Danish to his home because he enjoys playing chess.

Which of the following is the CORRECT observation about the above two sentences?

A. (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is unambiguous

B. (i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is unambiguous

C. (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is ambiguous

D. (i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is ambiguous

Q4.

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A circular sheet of paper is folded along the lines in the directions shown. The paper, after being punched in the final folded state as shown and
unfolded in the reverse order of folding, will look like _______.

Q5. __________ is to surgery what as writer is to ___________

Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the

above sentence?

A. Plan, outline

B. Hospital, library

C. Doctor, book

D. Medicine, grammar

Q6 – Q10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong

answer: – 2/3).

Q6. We have 2 rectangular sheets of paper, M and N, of dimensions 6 cm x 1 cm each.

Sheet M is rolled to form an open cylinder by bringing the short edges of the sheet

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together. Sheet N is cut into equal square patches and assembled to form the
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With
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possible Prep
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cube. Assuming the ends of the cylinder are closed, the

ratio of the volume of the cylinder to that of the cube is __________

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A. π/2
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B. 3/π
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C. 9/π

D. 3π

Q7.

Items Cost(₹) Profit % Marked Price(₹)

P 5,400 ____ 5,860

Q ______ 25 10,000

Details of prices of two items P and Q are presented in the above table. The ratio

of cost of item P to cost of item Q is 3:4. Discount is calculated as the difference

between the marked price and the selling price. The profit percentage is calculated as the ratio of the difference between selling price and cost,
to the cost (Profit % =[(Selling price−Cost / Cost )× 100]. The discount on item Q, as a percentage of its marked price, is ______

A. 25

B. 12.5

C. 10

D. 5

Q 8. There are five bags, each containing identical sets of ten distinct chocolates. One chocolate is picked from each bag. The probability that at
least two chocolates are identical is ___________

A. 0.3024

B. 0.4235

C. 0.6976

D. 0.8125

Q 9. Given below are two statements 1 and 2, and two conclusions I and II.

Statement 1: All bacteria are microorganisms.

Statement 2: All pathogens are microorganisms.

Conclusion I: Some pathogens are bacteria.

Conclusion II: All pathogens are not bacteria.

Based on the above statements and conclusions, which one of the following options is logically CORRECT?

A. Only conclusion I is correct

B. Only conclusion II is correct

C. Either conclusion I or II is correct

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is correct

Q 10. Some people suggest anti-obesity measures (AOM) such as displaying calorie information in restaurant menus. Such measures sidestep
addressing the core problems that cause obesity: poverty and income inequality. Which one of the following statements summarizes the
passage?

A. The proposed AOM addresses the core problems that cause obesity.

B. If obesity reduces, poverty will naturally reduce, since obesity causes poverty.

C. AOM are addressing the core problems and are likely to succeed.

D. AOM are addressing the core problems and are not likely to succeed.

Computer Science Paper II

General Aptitude (GA)

Q 1 – Q 5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong

answer: – 1/3).

Q1. Gauri said that she can play the keyboard __________ her sister.

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A. as well as
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B. as better
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C. as nicest as

D. as worse as
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Q2.
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A transparent square sheet shown above is folded along the dotted line. The folded

sheet will look like ________.

Q3. If θ is the angle, in degrees, between the longest diagonal of the cube and anyone of the edges of the cube, then, cos θ =

A. ½

B. 1/√3

C. 1/√2

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D. √3 /2
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With½)
Q4. If (x- 2 – (x-3/2)
BYJU'S 2 = Free
Exam Prep x+2,Trial
then the value of x is

A. 2

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B. 4
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C. 6
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D. 8

Q5. Pen : Write :: Knife : _________

Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above?

A. Vegetables

B. Sharp

C. Cut

D. Blunt

Q 6 – Q 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q6. Listening to music during exercise improves exercise performance and reduces discomfort. Scientists researched whether listening to music
while studying can help students learn better, and the results were inconclusive. Students who needed external stimulation for studying fared
worse, while students who did not need any external stimulation benefited from music.

Which one of the following statements is the CORRECT inference of the above

passage?

A. Listening to music has no effect on learning and a positive effect on physical exercise.

B. Listening to music has a clear positive effect both on physical exercise and on learning.

C. Listening to music has a clear positive effect on physical exercise. Music has a positive effect on learning only in some students.

D. Listening to music has a clear positive effect on learning in all students. Music has a positive effect only in some students who exercise.

Q7.

A jigsaw puzzle has 2 pieces. One of the pieces is shown above. Which one of

the given options for the missing piece when assembled will form a rectangle?

The piece can be moved, rotated or flipped to assemble with the above piece.

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C
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Q 8. The number of students in three classes is in the ratio 3:13:6. If 18 students are added to each class, the ratio changes to 15:35:21. The total
number of students in all the three classes in the beginning was:

A. 22

B. 66

C. 88

D. 110

Q9.

The number of units of a product sold in three different years and the respective

net profits are presented in the figure above. The cost/unit in Year 3 was ` 1, which was half the cost/unit in Year 2. The cost/unit in Year 3 was
one-third of the

cost/unit in Year 1. Taxes were paid on the selling price at 10%, 13% and 15%

respectively, for the three years. Net profit is calculated as the difference between the selling price and the sum of cost and taxes paid in that
year. The ratio of the selling price in Year 2 to the selling price in Year 3 is ________.

A. 4:3

B. 1:1

C. 3:4

D. 1:2

Q10. Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U, with distinct heights, compare their heights

and make the following observations.

Observation I: S is taller than R.

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Observation II: Q is the shortest of all.
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Observation III: UExam Prep than
is taller Free Trial
only one student.

Observation IV: T is taller than S, but is not the tallest.

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The number of students that are taller than R is the same as the number of
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students shorter than ______.
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A. T

B. R

C. S

D. P

GATE Aptitude Questions 2020


Computer Science Paper

General Aptitude(GA)

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each.

Q1. Raman is confident of speaking English ______ six months, as he has been practising regularly____ the last three weeks.

A. during, for

B. for, since

C. for, in

D. within, for

Q2. His knowledge of the subject was excellent, but his classroom performance was______

A. extremely poor

B. good

C. desirable

D. Praiseworthy

Q3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cook : Cook : : Fly:___

A. Flyer

B. Flying

C. Flew

D. Flighter

Q4. The dawn of the 21st century witnessed the melting glaciers oscillating between giving too much and too little to billions of people who
depend on them for fresh water. The UN climate report estimates that without deep cuts to man-made emissions, at least 30% of the Northern
Hemisphere’s surface permafrost could melt by the end of the century. Given this situation of imminent global exodus of billions of people
displaced by rising seas, nation-states need to rethink their carbon footprint for political concerns if not for environmental ones.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

A. Nation-states do not have environmental concerns

B. Nation-states are responsible for providing fresh water to billions of people

C. Billions of people are responsible for man-made emissions

D. Billions of people are affected by melting glaciers

Q5. There are multiple routes to reach from node 1 to node 2, as shown in the figure below:

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The cost of the travel on an edge between two nodes is given in rupees. Nodes, ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’, ‘e’ and ‘f’ are toll booths. Which is the cheapest
route from node 1 to node 2?

A. 1-a-c-2

B. 1-f-b-2

C. 1-b-2

D. 1-f-e-2

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

Q6. Goods and services tax is an indirect tax introduced in India in 2017 that is imposed on the supply of goods and services, and it subsumes all
indirect taxes except few. It is a destination-based tax imposed on goods and services used, and it is not imposed at the point of origin from
where goods come. GST also has a few components specific to state governments, central government and Union Territories(UTs). Which one of
the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

A. GST is imposed on the production of goods and services.

B. GST includes all indirect taxes.

C. GST does not have a component specific to UT.

D. GST is imposed at the point of usage of goods and services.

Q7. If P =3, R=27, T=243, then Q+S=______

A. 40

B. 80

C. 90

D. 110

Q8. The figure below shows an annular ring with outer and inner radii as b and a, respectively. The annular space has been painted in the form
of blue colour circles touching the outer and the inner periphery of annual space. If maximum n number of circles can be painted, then the
unpainted area available in annular space is _______

A. Π [(b2-a2) – n/4(b-a)2]

B. Π [(b2-a2) – n(b-a)2]

C. Π [(b2-a2) + n/4(b-a)2]

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D. Π [(b2-a2) + n(b-a)2]
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With
Q9. Two BYJU'S Exam
straight Prepare
angles Free Trial perpendicular to each other in X-Y plane. If α and β are the acute angles the straight lines make with the X-
drawn
axis, then α+ β is _____

A. 60°
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B. 90°
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C. 120°

D. 180°

Q10. The total revenue of a company during 2014-2018 is shown in the bar graph. If the total expenditure of the company in each year is 500
million rupees, then the aggregate profit or loss(in percentage) on the total expenditure of the company during 2014-2018 is ______

A. 16.67% profit

B. 16.67% loss

C. 20% profit

D. 20% loss

GATE Aptitude Questions 2019


Computer Science Paper Set 6

General Aptitude(GA)

Q 1 – Q 5 carry one mark each.

Q 1. The expenditure on the project _____ as follows: equipment Rs.20 lakhs, salaries Rs.12 lakhs, and contingency Rs.3 lakhs.

(A) break down

(B) break

(C) breaks down

(D) breaks

Q 2. The search engine’s business model ___________ around the fulcrum of trust.

(A) revolves

(B) plays

(C) sinks

(D) bursts

Q 3. Two cars start at the same time from the same location and go in the same direction. The speed of the first car is 50 km/h and the speed of
the second car is 60 km/h. The number of hours it takes for the distance between the two cars to be 20 km is ___.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 6

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Q 4. Ten friends planned to share equally the cost of buying a gift for their teacher. When two of them decided not to contribute, each of the
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other friends had to pay Rs 150 more. The cost of the gift was Rs. ____.
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(A) 666

(B) 3000
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(C) 6000
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(D)12000

Q 5. A court is to a judge as _____________ is to a teacher.

(A) a student

(B) a punishment

(C) a syllabus

(D) a school

Q 6 – Q 10 carry two marks each.

Q 6. The police arrested four criminals – P, Q, R and S. The criminals knew each other. They made the following statements:

P says, “Q committed the crime.”

Q says “S committed the crime.”

R says, “I did not do it.”

S says, “What Q said about me is false.”

Assume only one of the arrested four committed the crime and only one of the statements made above is true. Who committed the crime?

(A) P

(B) R

(C) S

(D) Q

Q 7. In the given diagram, teachers are represented in the triangle, researchers in the circle and administrators in the rectangle. Out of the total
number of the people, the percentage of administrators shall be in the range of ___________.

(A) 0 to 15

(B) 16 to 30

(C) 31 to 45

(D) 46 to 60

Q 8. “A recent High Court judgement has sought to dispel the idea of begging as a disease — which leads to its stigmatization and
criminalization — and to regard it as a symptom. The underlying disease is the failure of the state to protect citizens who fall through the social
security net.”

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Beggars are lazy people who beg because they are unwilling to work

(B) Beggars are created because of the lack of social welfare schemes

(C) Begging is an offence that has to be dealt with firmly

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(D) Begging has to be banned because it adversely affects the welfare of the state
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Q 9. InWith BYJU'S Exam
a college, Prep
there areFree Trialstudent clubs. Sixty students are only in the Drama club, 80 students are only in the Dance club, 30 students are
three
only in the Maths club, 40 students are in both Drama and Dance clubs, 12 students are in both Dance and Maths clubs, 7 students are in both
Drama and Maths clubs, and 2 students are in all the clubs. If 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs, then the total
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number of students in the college is _____.
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(A) 1000
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(B) 975

(C) 900

(D) 225

Q 10. Three of the five students allocated to a hostel put in special requests to the warden. Given the floor plan of the vacant rooms, select the
allocation plan that will accommodate all their requests. Request by X: Due to pollen allergy, I want to avoid a wing next to the garden. Request
by Y: I want to live as far from the washrooms as possible, since I am very sensitive to smell. Request by Z: I believe in Vaastu and so want to stay
in the South-west wing. The shaded rooms are already occupied. WR is washroom.

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GATE Aptitude Questions 2018


Computer Science Paper Set 3

General Aptitude (GA)

Q 1 – Q 5 carry one mark each.

Q 1. “From where are they bringing their books? ________ bringing _______ books from _____.” The words that best fill the blanks in the
above sentence are

(A) Their, they’re, there

(B) They’re, their, there

(C) There, their, they’re

(D) They’re, there, there

Q 2. “A _________ investigation can sometimes yield new facts, but typically organized ones are more successful.” The word that best fills
the blank in the above sentence is

(A) meandering

(B) timely

(C) consistent

(D) systematic

Q 3. The area of a square is d. What is the area of the circle which has the diagonal of the square as its diameter?

(A) πd

(B) πd2

(C)1/4πd2

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(D) ½ πd
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Q 4. What wouldExam Prep
be the Free Trialnatural number, which when divided either by 20 or by 42 or by 76 leaves a remainder of 7 in each case?
smallest

(A) 3047

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(B) 6047
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(C) 7987
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(D) 63847

Q 5. What is the missing number in the following sequence?

2, 12, 60, 240, 720, 1440, _____, 0

(A) 2880

(B) 1440

(C) 720

(D) 0

Q 6 – Q 10 carry two marks each.

Q 6. In appreciation of the social improvements completed in a town, a wealthy philanthropist decided to gift Rs 750 to each male senior citizen
in the town and Rs 1000 to each female senior citizen. Altogether, there were 300 senior citizens eligible for this gift. However, only 8/9th of the
eligible men and 2/3rd of the eligible women claimed the gift. How much money (in Rupees) did the philanthropist give away in total?

(A) 1,50,000

(B) 2,00,000

(C) 1,75,000

(D) 1,51,000

Q 7. If pqr ≠ 0 and p−x = 1/ q , q−y =1/r, r−z =1/p, what is the value of the product xyz?

A. -1

B. 1/ pqr

C. 1

D. Pqr

Q 8. At a party, 60% of the invited guests are male and 40% are female. If 80% of the invited guests attended the party and if all the invited
female guests attended, what would be the ratio of males to females among the attendees in the party?

(A) 2:3

(B) 1:1

(C) 3:2

(D) 2:1

Q 9. In the figure below, ∠DEC + ∠BFC is equal to ____________ .

A. ∠BCD − ∠BAD

B. ∠BAD + ∠BCF

C. ∠BAD + ∠BCD

D. ∠CBA + ∠ADC

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Q 10. A six sided unbiased die with four green faces and two red faces is rolled seven times. Which of the following combinations is the most
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(A) Three green faces and four red faces.

(B) Four green faces and three red faces.


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(C) Five green faces and two red faces.
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(D) Six green faces and one red face.

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