No.

: 1234567
ROHAN
Test Booklet Code

D1
Important Instructions :
This Booklet contains 12 pages.

Do not open this test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer sheet
and fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 1 hour 45 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 100 multiple-choice questions (four options with
a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 25 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 17 (Seventeen) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 17, 26 to 42, 51 to 67 and
76 to 92). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 8 (Eight) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 18 to 25, 43 to 50, 68 to 75 and 93 to
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer sheet
100). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 6 (Six) questions out of 8 (Eight) in each subject.
and fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2.Candidates
The test is ofare advised
1 hour to readduration
45 minutes all 8 questions
and the in
Testeach subject
Booklet of Section
contains B before they start
100 multiple-choice attempting
questions the
(four options with
question paper. answer)
a single correct In the event
fromofPhysics,
a candidate attempting
Chemistry more than
and Biology five questions,
(Botany the first
and Zoology). six questions
25 questions answered
in each subject by
are
the candidate
divided into two shall be evaluated.
Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer sheet
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 368.
and fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
4. Use Blue/ Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/ marking responses on Answer Sheet.
2. The test is of 1 hour 45 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 100 multiple-choice questions (four options with
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 25 questions in each subject are
6. Syllabus of this test is:
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
Physics: (1) Work, Energy & Power (2) Electric Charges & Fields (3) Electrostatic Potential & Capacitance
3. Each
Chemistry: (4)carries
question 4 marks.
Classification For each &
of Elements correct response,
Periodicity the candidate
in Properties will Bonding
(5) Chemical get 4 marks. For each
(6) Organic incorrect
Chemistry: response,
Some Basic
one mark will
Principles & be deducted
Techniques from
(Only the total scores.
Nomenclature The maximum marks are 368.
& Isomerism)
4. Use Blue/ (7)
Biology: Black
HumanBallReproduction
Point Pen only for writing particulars
(8) Reproductive on this page/
Health (9) Strategies marking responses
for Enhancement on Answer(Plant
in Food Production Sheet.
Breeding &
5. Rough work
Tissue is to (10)
Culture) be done in the
Microbes space provided
in Human forOrganisms
Welfare (11) this purpose in the Test(12)
& Populations Booklet only.of Inheritance & Variations
Principles
6. Sy (Monohybrid & Dihybrid Cross)
7. The CODE for this Booklet is D1. Make sure that the CODE printed on the original Copy of the Answer Sheet is the
same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
10. Each candidate must show on-demand his /her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
11. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
12. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty
and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet
second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
13. Use of Electronic/ Manual Calculator is prohibited.
14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance
Sheet.
17. Since you are writing this test at home, you will be tempted to CHEAT. It is completely your wish. Enough evidence exists
that those who CHEAT in Mock Tests are cheating themselves and ultimately, do not gain anything. We strongly
RECOMMEND that you ask your parents or siblings to become an invigilator and sit next to you so that natural tendency
to CHEAT is taken care off!!

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Roll Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

Facsimile signature stamp of

Centre Superintendent :
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 6. The integral form of exponential growth equation is:

1. N = N et 0
rt

1. Which of the following will breed more than once in 2.

dN
= rN
dt

their life cycle? 3. N = N + e

0 0
rt

1. Pacific salmon fish 4. r

= dt
2. Bamboo N

3. Cuckoo 7. Assertion: Temperature is the most ecologically

4. Both 1 and 3 relevant environmental factor influencing organisms.
Reason: Temperature significantly affects the enzyme
2. The carrying capacity of a population is determined kinetics and basal metabolism as well as activity and
by its: other physiological functions of the organisms.
1. Limiting resources 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
2. Death rate the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Birth rate 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
4. Population growth rate not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but the reason is false
3. All birds and mammals
4. Both assertion and reason are false
1. Avoid stress by escaping in time only
2. Change their body temperature with the ambient 8. The entire collection of plants/seeds having all the
temperature diverse alleles for all the genes in a given crop is called
3. Can regulate but only over a limited range of 1. Gene cloning
environmental conditions, beyond which they simply 2. Germplasm collection
conform 3. cDNA library
4. Maintain homeostasis by physiological or behavioural 4. Biofortification
regulation
9. Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus
4. Pusa shubhra is a variety of have been commercialised as
1. Cauliflower resistant to white rust 1 Immunosuppressive agent
2. Cauliflower resistant to black rot 2 Blood-cholesterol lowering agent
3. Chilli resistant to chilli mosaic virus 3 Clot buster
4. Brassica resistant to white rust 4 Agent to increase immunity
5. What is correctly explained using the given age 10. In a sewage treatment plant (STP), the primary
pyramid? treatment is a (A) which involves removal of
small and large particles from sewage through (B)
and (C) .
A B C
1. Physical process Filtration Sedimentation
2. Chemical process Filtration Sedimentation
1. A stable population, where post reproductive 3. Biological process Filtration
Sedimentation
individuals are minimum sedimentation
2. A growing population, where young individuals are 4. Biological process Microbial Sedimentation
maximum digestion
3. A declining population, where post reproductive
individuals are maximum 11. The BOD test measures the rate of:
4. A population showing negative growth 1. O2 uptake by microbes in a sample of water to oxidise
organic matter
2. Organic matter production
3. Air quality
4. Organic matter used by herbivore fishes

Page: 1
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

12. The technology of biogas production was developed 16. Classical plant breeding:
in India mainly by the contribution of: 1. Involves crossing or hybridisation of purelines
1. KVIC and IARI 2. Involves artificial selection of plants with desirable
2. NEERI and RRI traits after hybridisation
3. KVIC and NEERI 3. Both (1) and (2)
4. IARI and NEERI 4. Utilizes molecular genetic tools

13. Read the following statements: 17. Assertion: 99% of animals and nearly all plants are
(i) Trichoderma is a symbiotic algae which is common conformers.
in root ecosystems and effective against several plant Reason: Mammals and birds are regulators.
pathogens 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
(ii) Dragonflies are biocontrol agents the correct explanation of the assertion
(iii) Bacillus thuringiensis spores are mixed in alcohol 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
and sprayed to vulnerable plants like brassicas and fruit not the correct explanation of the assertion
trees 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
(iv) Baculoviruses attack arthropods and other insects 4. Both assertion and reason are false
(v) Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV) have species-specific,
broad spectrum insecticidal applications Botany - Section B
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. (i) and (iii) 18. The interacting species live closely together in which
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv) of the following interaction?
3. (ii) and (v) 1. Parasitism, Predation and Commensalism
4. (ii) and (iv) 2. Commensalism, Amensalism
3. Mutualism and Competition
14. Assertion: While working on Staphylocci, Alexander 4. Parasitism, Mutualism, Commensalism
Fleming observed that Penicillium notatum inhibits the
growth of the bacteria. 19. Assertion: Among red, green and brown algae, the
Reason: This inhibiting chemical was commercially red algae are found in the deepest ocean.
extracted and its full potential was established by Reason: Red algae posses phycobilins, which can absorb
Alexander Fleming. the blue and green light that penetrates the deepest
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is water.
the correct explanation of the assertion 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
not the correct explanation of the assertion 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
3. Assertion is true but reason is false not the correct explanation of the assertion
4. Both assertion and reason are false 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
15. Assertion: Biofertilizers are preferred over chemical
fertilizers. 20. To get pollinated by a bee, the Mediterranean
Reason: Chemical fertilizers are more hazardous to the Orchid, Ophrys, employs:
environment. 1. Sexual deceit
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is 2. Pseudo-copulation
the correct explanation of the assertion 3. Reward in the form of Nectar
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is 4. Place for laying eggs
not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 21. Biofortification includes the improvement in all,
4. Both assertion and reason are false except
1. Vitamin content
2. Micronutrient content
3. Carbohydrate Content
4. Protein content

Page: 2
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

22. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for 28. The primary mechanism by which the combination
designing novel - oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy is by:
1. Bioinsecticidal plants 1. preventing ovulation
2. Bio-mineralization processes 2. causing follicular atresia
3. Biofertilizers 3. preventing implantation
4. Bio-metallurgical techniques 4. causing increase in sperm mortality in birth canal

23. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen, and sugar content 29. Which of the following is a recessive trait in Pisum
leads to resistance against stem borers in sativum?
1. Wheat 1. Yellow pod color
2. Cotton 2. Axial flower position
3. Maize 3. Inflated pod shape
4. Brassica 4. Violet flower color

24. Assertion: Wine and beer are 'soft' liquors whereas 30. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
whisky, brandy, rum and vodka are 'hard' liquors. pregnancy are
Reason: Wine and beer are processed without distillation 1. hCG, hPL, progesterone, prolactin
whereas as whisky, brandy rum and vodka are processed 2. hCG, hPL, oestrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
by distillation. 3. hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogens
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is 4. hCG, progesterone, estrogens, glucocorticoids
the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is 31. In context of amniocentesis, which of the following
not the correct explanation of the assertion statements is incorrect?
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 1. it is used for prenatal sex determination
4. Both assertion and reason are false 2. it can be used for detection of down's syndrome
3. it can be used for detection of cleft palate
25. Baculoviruses are pathogens that 4. it is usually done when a woman is between 14-16
1. Attack insects and arthropods weeks pregnant.
2. Have genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus
3. Show specific insecticidal application 32. The hormones that attain a peak level in the middle
4. All of the above of the menstrual cycle include:
I. Oestrogen
Zoology - Section A II. Progesterone
III. LH
26. Seminal plasma mainly consists of contributions IV. FSH
from all the following except: 1. I, II, and III only
1. Testes 2. I, III, and IV only
2. Seminal vesicles 3. II, III, and IV only
3. Prostate 4. I, II, III, and IV
4. Bulbo-urethral glands
33. Identify the incorrect statement:
27. The primary mechanism of action of copper IUDs is 1. Fetal ejection reflex is initiated by a fully developed
that they prevent: fetus and placenta
1. fertilization 2. Colostrum contains IgA class of antibodies and is
2. ovulation very important for new born
3. implantation 3. For fertility, at least 60% of sperms in semen should
4. insemination show vigorous motility
4. The most common site of fertilization is the oviduct
and that of implantation is endometrium

Page: 3
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

34. A true breeding plant is 38. Which of the following events is not associated with
1. one that is able to breed on its own ovulation in human female?
2. produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated 1. Decrease in Oestradiol
plants 2. Full development of Graafian follicle
3. near homozygous and produces offspring of its own 3. Release of secondary oocyte
kind 4. LH Surge
4. always homozygous recessive in its genetic
constitution 39. Artificial insemination means:
1. Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube
35. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If containing ova
a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a 2. Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green into the vagina
seeded plants would you expect in F1generation ? 3. Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into
1. 50:50 the ovary
2. 9:1 4. Transfer of sperms of healthy donor to a test tube
3. 1:3 containing ova
4. 3:1
40. Government of India legalized Medical Termination
36. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II of Pregnancy in:
and select your answer from the codes given: 1. 1971
COLUMN 2. 1975
COLUMN II 3. 1993
I
4. 2017
a. injection of washed sperm into the uterus
A. IUI
with a catheter 41. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to
b. an egg fertilized in vitro (outside the produce:
B. ZIFT body) is placed into a woman's fallopian 1. Oestrogen only
tube 2. progesterone
c. eggs are removed from a woman's 3. human chorionic gonadotropin
C. GIFT ovaries, and placed in one of the Fallopian 4. relaxin only
tubes, along with the man's sperm
d. injection of a single sperm directly into a 42. Before placenta takes over, what structure secretes
D. ICSI large amounts of progesterone to support pregnancy?
mature egg
1. Corpus albicans
Codes
2. Graafian follicle
A B C D 3. Chorion
1. a b c d 4. Corpus luteum
2. d b c a
3. a c b d Zoology - Section B
4. d c b a
43. In a dihybrid cross between two pea plants with
37. Which of the following sexually transmitted round and yellow seeds [heterozygous at both loci], the
infections is completely curable if diagnosed and treated yellow and green color will segregate in a ratio:
early? 1. 1 : 1
1. Hepatitis B 2. 3 : 1
2. Syphilis 3. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
3. Genital herpes 4. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
4. HIV

Page: 4
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

44. At what stage of the follicular development does the 50. In a plant red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit
primary oocyte complete its first meiotic division? (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a
1. Primary follicle plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is
2. Secondary follicle rrtt
3. Tertiary follicle 1. 50% will be tall with red fruit
4. Graafian follicle 2. 75% will be tall with red fruit
3. All the offspring will be tall with red fruit
45. Which of these is not an important component of 4. 25% will be tall with red fruit
initiation of parturition in humans?
1. Increase in oestrogen and progesterone ratio Chemistry - Section A
2. Synthesis of prostaglandins
3. Release of oxytocin 51. The IUPAC name of the following compound is -
4. Release of prolactin

46. The regeneration of the uterine endometrium through

proliferation corresponds to:
1. the ovarian follicular phase and is regulated by
estrogen
2. the ovarian luteal phase and is regulated by
progesterone
3. the ovarian follicular phase and is regulated by
progesterone
4. the ovarian luteal phase and is regulated by estrogen
1. 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentanoic acid
47. Sterility is likely if the semen analysis shows: 2. 4-Bromo-2-methylcyclopentanecarboxylic acid
I. A sperm count of 50 million/ml 3. 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid
II. Morphological abnormalities in 50% of the sperms 4. 5-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentanoic acid
III. Lack of vigorous motility in 70% of the sperms
1. Only III
2. Only II and III
3. Only II
4. Only I

48. Inhibin is a hormone that:

1. inhibits FSH production in both males and females
2. inhibits LH production in both males and females
3. inhibits FSH production in males and LH production
in females
4. inhibits LH production in males and FSH production
in females

49. Implantation in humans occurs:

1. at Morula stage, 4th - 5th day post fertilization
2. at Blastocyst stage, 4th - 5th day post fertilization
3. at Morula stage, 7th - 8th day post fertilization
4. at Blastocyst stage, 7th - 8th day post fertilization

Page: 5
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

52. The correct structure of P Cl 3 F2 is 55. The compounds that show geometrical isomerism
among the following are:
a. 2-Butene
b. Propene
c. 1-Phenylpropene
d. 2-Methylbut-2-ene
1. a, b
1. 2. c, d
3. a, b, c
4. a, c

56. The isostructural pairs among the following is-

2− 2−
A. SO and CrO
4 4

B. SiCl4 and TiCl4

−
C. NH3 and NO
2. 3

D. BCl3 and BrCl3

1. C and D only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. B and C only

57. An element belongs to 3rd period and group 13 of

3.
the periodic table. Which of the following properties will
be shown by the element?
(a) Good conductor of electricity
(b) Liquid, metallic
(c) Solid, metallic
(d) Solid, non-metallic
4. Choose the correct option
1. (a), (c)
53. Among the following, the incorrect statements are- 2. (b), (c)
(a) NaCl being an ionic compound is a good conductor 3. (c), (d)
of electricity in the solid-state 4. (b), (d)
(b) In canonical structure, there is a difference in the
arrangement of atoms
(c) Hybrid orbitals form stronger bonds than pure
orbitals
(d) VSEPR theory can explain the square planar 58. The IUPAC name for is
geometry of XeF4 1. 1-Hydroxypentane-1,4-dione
1. (a), (b) 2. 1,4-Dioxopentanol
2. (b), (c) 3. 1-Carboxybutan-3-one
3. (c), (d) 4. 4-Oxopentanoic acid
4. (b), (d)
59. Functional isomer is not possible for -
54. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the 1. Alcohols
following will not be a viable molecule? 2. Aldehydes
1. He 2+

2
3. Alkyl halides
2. He 2
+
4. Cyanides
3. H −

4. H 2−

Page: 6
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

60. The incorrect order of given properties is- 64. What is the IUPAC name of this compound?
1. Van der waal radius - Ne < F < O
2. Negative electron gain enthalpy - O < Se < S
3. Electronegativity – Cl– < Cl < Cl+
4. Ionisation potential - P > S > Si

61. Match the species given in Column I with the shape

given in Column II and mark the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. SF4 1. Tetrahedral
B. BrF3 2. Pyramidal
C. BrO-3 3. Sea-saw shaped 1. 3-Ethyl-4-methylhept-5-en-2-one
D. NH4+ 4. Bent T-shaped 2. 4-Ethyl-4-methylhept-5-en-2-one
3. 4-Ethyl-3-methylhept-5-en-2-one
Codes 4. 3-Ethyl-3-methylhept-5-en-2-one
A B C D
1. 3 2 1 4
2. 3 4 2 1 65. Consider the electronic configuration of the
3. 1 2 3 4 following elements:
2 2 6 1
A : 1s 2s 2p 3s
4. 1 4 3 2
2 2 6 2 5
B : 2s 2s 2p 3s 3p

62. Which pair of oxides are acidic in nature? C : 1s

2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
2

1. B O , CaO
2 3 2 2 5
D : 1s 2s 2p
2. B O , SiO
2 3 2
The element having a maximum difference between the
3. N O , BaO
2
first and second ionization energy is
4. CaO , SiO 2
1. A
63. Among the following, the order that presents the 2. C
correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the 3. B
given oxides is - 4. D
1. Al O < MgO < Na O < K O
2 3 2 2
66. Assertion(A): SF4 has two significant lp-bp
2. MgO < K O < Al O < Na O
2 2 3 2

3. Na O < K O < MgO < Al O

2 2
4. K O < Na O < Al O < MgO
2 2
2 3
repulsions.
2 3
Reason(R): Its shape is a see-saw.
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
3. A is true and R is false.
4. A and R both are false.

67. Atoms X and Y form an ionic compound with

formula XY . 2

Which option below could give the correct atomic

numbers for X and Y?
1. X = 11; Y = 16
2. X = 3; Y = 17
3. X = 12; Y = 9
4. X = 6; Y = 16

Page: 7
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry - Section B 74. The IUPAC name of the given compound is-

68. The number of chiral centres in the following

compound is-

1. 1-Chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene
2. 1-Chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
3. 2-Chloro-1-nitro-5-methylbenezene
1. 4 4. m-Nitro-p-chlorotoluene
2. 5
3. 6 75. From the given pairs below, the pair in which both
4. 7 elements have the same electronegativity is
1. O and Cl
69. Which of the following species has the highest bond 2. N and Cl
energy? 3. N and Br
1. N2 4. C and Br
2. CO
3. CO+ Physics - Section A
4. N +

2
76. A and B are two concentric metallic shells. If A is
70. The IUPAC name of the compound positively charged and B is earthed, then electric:
CH3-CH=CH – C ≡ CH is
1. Pent - 4 - yn-2-ene
2. Pent -3-en-1-yne
3. pent – 2– en – 4 – yne
4. Pent – 1 – yn –3 –ene

71. How many cyclic isomers are possible for the

molecular formula C5H10 ? 1. field at the common centre is non-zero.
1. 2 2. field outside B is non-zero.
2. 3 3. potential outside B is positive.
3. 4 4. potential at the common centre is positive.
4. 5
77. The potential on the surface of a spherical region
72. The formal charge on nitrogen in N O is
−

3
varies from 2 V to 4 V from point to point. There are no
1. -1 charges in the interior of the region.
2. +1 Assertion (A): The potential at the centre cannot be 0 V.
3. +5 Reason (R): Potential in the interior of a sphere must
4. -3 always be greater than the potential on the surface.
1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
73. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of 2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
the following statements is true? 3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1. Bond angle changes but bond length remains same explanation of (A).
2. Both bond angle and bond length change 4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
3. Both bond angle and bond length remains same explanation of (A).
4. Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

Page: 8
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

78. An infinite line charge produces a field of 84. Assertion: Electrons move away from a low
9×10 4 N/C at a distance of 2 cm. The linear charge potential to a high potential region.
density is: Reason: Electrons are negatively charged.
1. 0. 1 μC/m
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
2. 100 μC/m the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. 1.0 μC/m 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
4. 10 μC/m the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
79. The charge on 500 cc of water due to protons will 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
be:
85. An elevator can carry a maximum load of 1800 kg
1. 6.0 × 1027 C
(elevator + passengers) is moving up with a constant
2. 2.67 × 107 C speed of 2 m/s. The frictional force opposing the motion
3. 6 × 1023 C is 4000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor
23
4. 1.67 × 10 C to the elevator is:
1. 59000 W
80. 512 identical drops of mercury are charged to a 2. 44000 W
potential of 2 V each. The drops are joined to 3. 11000 W
form a single drop. The potential of this drop is: 4. 22000 W
1. 32 V
2. 64 V 86. Statement I: In an elastic collision, the relative
3. 96 V velocity of approach equals the relative velocity of
4. 128 V separation.
Statement II: In an elastic collision, the kinetic energy
81. The total work done on a particle is equal to the before the collision is equal to the kinetic energy after
change in its kinetic energy the collision.
1. always 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. only if the forces acting on it are conservative 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. only if gravitational force alone acts on it 3. Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.
4. only if elastic force alone acts on it 4. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

82. A proton and an electron are placed in a uniform 87. A force acts on a 2 kg object so that its position is
electric field. given as a function of time as x = 3t + 5. What is the
2

work done by this force in the first 5 seconds?

(a) The electric forces acting on them will be equal. 1. 850 J
(b) The magnitudes of the forces will be equal. 2. 900 J
(c) Their accelerations will be equal. 3. 950 J
(d) The magnitudes of their accelerations will be equal. 4. 875 J
Choose the correct option:
1. (a), (b) 88. Assertion: Work done in moving a charge between
2. (b) only any two points in a uniform electric field is independent
3. (c), (d) of the path followed by the charge, between these points.
4. (a), (d) Reason: Electrostatic forces are non-conservative.
1. Both the assertion and reason are true and reason
83. Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are explains the assertion.
connected to each other by a wire. The ratio of electric 2. Both the assertion and reason are true but reason does
fields at the surfaces of the two spheres is: not explain the assertion.
1. a

b
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
2. 1 4. Assertion is false but reason is true.
3.
2a

4. b

Page: 9
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

89. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with 94. Consider the charges q, q and -q placed at the
an electric field of intensity 2 × 10 NC . It5 −1
vertices of an equilateral triangle of each side l. The
experiences a torque equal to 4 N-m. The charge on the force on each charge (q) is:
dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm is:
2
q
1. F =
1. 8 mC 4πε0 l

q
3

2. 4 mC 2. F =
4πε0 l

3. 6 mC q
2

4. 2 mC 3. F =
2
4πε0 l

90. Statement I: Gauss law for electric fields is a
consequence of the conservation of energy.
Statement II: Coulomb's law for electric charges leads
to a conservative electric field.
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
91. A charge of 5 C is moved in an electric field of a
fixed charge distribution from point A to another point B
slowly. If the work done by the external agent doing this
work is 75 J, then potential difference (VA – VB) will
be:
1. 15 volt
2. 10 volt
3. –15 volt
4. –10 volt
92. A hexagon of side 8 cm has a charge 4 μC at each of was mv = mgl.
4. zero
95. A particle of mass 4M kg at rest splits into two
particles of mass M and 3M. The ratio of the kinetic
energies of mass M and 3M would be:
1. 3 : 1
2. 1 : 4
3. 1 : 1
4. 1 : 3
96. A particle of mass m is attached to a light string of
length I, the other end of which is fixed. Initially, the
string is kept horizontal and the particle is given an
upward velocity v. The particle is just able to complete a
circle.
(a) The string becomes slack when the particle reaches
its highest point.
(b) The velocity of the particle becomes zero at the
highest point.
(c) The kinetic energy of the ball in its initial position
1 2

its vertices. The potential at the centre of the hexagon is: (d) The particle again passes through the initial position.
2

1. 2.7 × 10 V
6

Choose the correct option:

2. 7.2 × 10 V
11
1. (a) and (b)
3. 2.5 × 10 V
12
2. (b) and (c)
4. 3.4 × 10 V
4
3. (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (d)
Physics - Section B
97. Assertion: If a man is walking on a rough road, the
93. Assertion: When charges are shared between any work done by the frictional force is positive.
two bodies, no charge is really lost but some loss of Reason: Frictional force acts in the direction of the
energy does occur. motion of the man.
Reason: Some energy disappears in the form of heat, 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
sparking, etc. the correct explanation of the assertion.
1. Both the assertion and reason are true and reason 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
explains the assertion. the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Both the assertion and reason are true but reason does 3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
not explain the assertion. 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but reason is true.

Page: 10
 Test #4 (02-Oct) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

98. Two tiny spheres carrying charges of 1.5 µC and

2.5 µC are located 30 cm apart. What is the potential at a Fill OMR Sheet*
point 10 cm from the midpoint in a plane normal to the
line and passing through the mid-point? *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
1. 1.5 × 10 V
5
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
2. 1.0 × 10 V
5
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
3. 2.4 × 10 V
5
for the questions in the test.
4. 2.0 × 10 V
5

99. Two charges ±10 µC are placed 5.0 mm apart. The

electric field at a point P on the axis of the dipole 15 cm
away from its centre O on the side of the positive charge, CLICK HERE to get
as shown in the figure is:
FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY
NEETprep course
5 −1
1. 2. 7 × 10 NC
6 −1
2. 4. 13 × 10 NC
6 −1
3. 3. 86 × 10 NC
5 −1
4. 1. 33 × 10 NC

100. Two point charges placed at a certain distance r in

the air, exert force F on each other. The distance r’ at
which these charges will experience the same force in a
medium of dielectric constant K is:
1. r

2. r

√K

3. r√K
4. rK

Page: 11