1.

Which of the following technique can’t be used for generating electron-hole

pairs in electronic devices?
a)Thermal excitation
b)Impact ionization
c)Photo excitation
d) Impurity injection

2. Which of the following is correct about photo diode electronic devices?

a) P-N junction is connected in reverse bias.
b) Electron-hole pairs are generated by impurity injection in depletion layer
c) It is a photovoltaic cell
d) No external voltage is applied

3. What type of semiconductor is used in LED electronic circuits?

a) Intrinsic semiconductor
b) Compound semiconductor
c) Degenerated semiconductor
d) Compensated semiconductor

4. In which of the following region does BJT act as the amplifier electronic
device?
a) Cut-off
b) Saturation
c) Active
d) Reverse saturation

5. When an electronic circuit is in equilibrium then which of the following

equation is valid?
a) Jdrift + Jdiffusion = 1
b) Jdrift + Jdiffusion = 0
c) Jdrift + Jdiffusion = -1
d) Jdrift + Jdiffusion = 2

6. Which of the following diode is used in adjustable band pass filter electronic
circuits?
a) Zener diode
b) Varactor diode
c) Tunnel diode
d) Schottky diode
7. Which of the following type of transistor is preferred in digital and analog
electronic circuits?
a) BJT
b) JFET
c) MOSFET
d) FET

8. Which of the following isn’t true?

a) Both transformer and amplifier can provide voltage gain
b) Both transformer and amplifier can provide current gain
c) Both transformer and amplifier can provide power gain
d) None of the mentioned

9. Symmetrically saturated amplifiers operating in clipping mode can be used to

convert a sine wave to a
a) Square wave
b) Pseudo Square wave
c) Sawtooth wave
d) Triangular wave

10. What is meant by stability of the an amplified signal?

a) The amplified signal must have a finite amplitude
b) The amplified signal should not have self oscillation
c) The input and the output signal must be proportional
d) The ratio of the input and the output signal must be finite

11. Coulomb is the unit of which quantity?

a) Field strength
b) Charge
c) Permittivity
d) Force

12. Coulomb law is employed in

a) Electrostatics
b) Magnetostatics
c) Electromagnetics
d) Maxwell theory
13. Find the force on a charge 2C in a field 1V/m.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

14. The Gaussian surface is

a) Real boundary
b) Imaginary surface
c) Tangential
d) Normal

15. Potential difference is the work done in moving a unit positive charge from
one point to another in an electric field. State True/False.
a) True
b) False

16. The best definition of polarisation is

a) Orientation of dipoles in random direction
b) Electric dipole moment per unit volume
c) Orientation of dipole moments
d) Change in polarity of every dipole

17. The induced emf in a material opposes the flux producing it. This is
a) Faraday law
b) Ampere law
c) Lenz law
d) Curie law

18. The energy in a magnetic material is due to which process?

a) Emf
b) Magnetization
c) Magnetostriction
d) Polarization

19. Which of the following is true regarding magnetic lines of force?

a) Real
b) Imaginary
c) Does not exist
d) Parallel to field
20. When a dielectric loses its dielectric property, the phenomenon is called
a) Dielectric loss
b) Dielectric breakdown
c) Polarisation
d) Magnetization

21. Which of the following is an example of physical device which adds the
signals?
a) Radio
b) Audio mixer
c) Frequency divider
d) Subtractor

22. Which of the passive component performs differentiation operation?

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor
d) Amplifier

23. What is the area of a Unit Impulse function?

a) Zero
b) Half of Unity
c) Depends on the function
d) Unity

24. Which of the following is a type of digital logic circuit?

a) Combinational logic circuits
b) Sequential logic circuits
c) Both Combinational & Sequential logic circuits
d) None of the mentioned

25. The device shown here is most likely a ________

a) Comparator
b) Multiplexer
c) Inverter
d) Demultiplexer
26. The register is a type of ___________
a) Sequential circuit
b) Combinational circuit
c) CPU
d) Latches

27. In DTL amplifying function is performed by ___________

a) Diode
b) Transistor
c) Inductor
d) Capacitor

28. In which operation carry is obtained?

a) Subtraction
b) Addition
c) Multiplication
d) Both addition and subtraction

29. Binary coded decimal is a combination of __________

a) Two binary digits
b) Three binary digits
c) Four binary digits
d) Five binary digits

30. The full form of TCTL is ____________

a) Transistor-coupled transistor logic
b) Transistor-capacitor transistor logic
c) Transistor-complemented transistor logic
d) Transistor-complementary transistor logic

31. Which of the following is a special-purpose register of microprocessor?

a) Program counter
b) Instruction register
c) Accumulator
d) Temporary register

32. Operation code field is present in :

a) programming language instruction
b) assembly language instruction
c) machine language instruction
d) none of the mentioned
33. The number of address lines used by the I/O processor in 8089 is
a) 20
b) 12
c) 16
d) 8

34. The instruction, MOV AX, 0005H belongs to the address mode
a) register
b) direct
c) immediate
d) register relative

35. Which of the following is not an addressing mode of 8051?

a) register instructions
b) register specific instructions
c) indexed addressing
d) none

36. The PCON register consists of

a) power mode bit
b) power idle bit
c) power ideal bit
d) power down bit and idle bit

37. The power control register is

a) used for power saving during idle state
b) used for eventual power off to 8051 chip
c) non-bit addressable register
d) all of the mentioned

38. Which of the following is true about stack pointer?

a) Stack pointer contains the address of the top of the stack memory
b) Stack pointer is an 8-bit register
c) Stack pointer stores data permanently
d) Stack pointer is initialized after stack operation

39. Which of the following register is not used in opcode fetch operations?
a) Program counter
b) Memory address register
c) Memory data register
d) Flag register
40. What is the word length of the Pentium-II microprocessor?
a) 8-bit
b) 32-bit
c) 64-bit
d) 16-bit

41. Which of the following is not an example of wireless communication?

a) Wi-Fi
b) Mobiles
c) Landline
d) Wireless

42. Which of the following is the drawback for cordless telephones?

a) Security
b) Wireless technology
c) Limited coverage area
d) Mobile

43. What is the main disadvantage of RF pulse system?

a) Simplicity
b) Interference and noise
c) Not real time
d) Complexity

44. Which of the following is true for first-generation wireless systems?

a) Low rate
b) Efficient
c) High data rate
d) Digital technology

45. Which two channels are responsible for initiating mobile calls?
a) FVC and FCC
b) FVC and RVC
c) FCC and RCC
d) FCC and RVC

46. What is MIN?

a) Subscriber’s telephone number
b) Paging message
c) Traffic request number
d) Mobile Internet
47. TDMA systems transmit in a continuous way.
a) True
b) False

48. Because of _______ transmissions in TDMA, the handoff process in

__________
a) Continuous, complex
b) Continuous, simple
c) Discontinuous, complex
d) Discontinuous, simple

49. Frequency division multiple access (FDMA) assigns ______ channels to

_______ users.
a) Individual, individual
b) Many, individual
c) Individual, many
d) Many, many

50. The bandwidth of FDMA channel is ______

a) Wide
b) Narrow
c) Large
d) Zero

51. VLSI technology uses ________ to form integrated circuit.

a) transistors
b) switches
c) diodes
d) buffers

52. ______ architecture is used to design VLSI.

a) system on a device
b) single open circuit
c) system on a chip
d) system on a circuit

53. ______ is used in logic design of VLSI.

a) LIFO
b) FIFO
c) FILO
d) LILO
54. Gate minimization technique is used to simplify the logic.
a) true
b) false

55. Switch logic is based on

a) pass transistors
b) transmission gates
c) pass transistors and transmission gates
d) design rules

56. In positive logic convention, the true state is represented as:

a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) -0

57. In CMOS logic circuit the p-MOS transistor acts as:

a) Pull down network
b) Pull up network
c) Load
d) Short to ground
58. Gate logic is also called as
a) transistor logic
b) switch logic
c) complementary logic
d) restoring logic

59. The CMOS inverter has _____ power dissipation.

a) low
b) more
c) no
d) very less

60. As the number of inputs increases, the NAND gate delay

a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not vary
d) exponentially decreases
61. What is internet?
a) A network of interconnected local area networks
b) A collection of unrelated computers
c) Interconnection of wide area networks
d) A single network

62. Which of the following is an example of Bluetooth?

a) wide area network
b) virtual private network
c) local area network
d) personal area network

63. What is the full form of OSI?

a) optical service implementation
b) open service Internet
c) open system interconnection
d) operating system interface

64. How many layers are there in the ISO OSI reference model?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6

65. How is a single channel shared by multiple signals in a computer network?

a) multiplexing
b) phase modulation
c) analog modulation
d) digital modulation

66. Which type of network shares the communication channel among all the
machines?
a) anycast network
b) multicast network
c) unicast network
d) broadcast network

67. Which of the following maintains the Domain Name System?

a) a single server
b) a single computer
c) distributed database system
d) none of the mentioned
68. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
a) 1000 BASE-LX
b) 1000 BASE-CX
c) 1000 BASE-SX
d) All of the mentioned

69. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public
networks?
a) virtual private network
b) local area network
c) storage area network
d) enterprise private network

70. What is the term for the data communication system within a building or
campus?
a) MAN
b) LAN
c) PAN
d) WAN

71. Which memory storage is widely used in PCs and Embedded Systems?
a) EEPROM
b) Flash memory
c) SRAM
d) DRAM

72. Which type of memory is suitable for low volume production of embedded
systems?
a) Non-volatile
b) RAM
c) Volatile
d) ROM

73. Which level simulates the algorithms that are used within the embedded
systems?
a) algorithmic level
b) switch level
c) gate level
d) circuit level
74. How an embedded system communicate with the outside world?
a) Memory
b) Output
c) Peripherals
d) Input

75. Which of the following is the biggest challenge in the cache memory design?
a) coherency
b) memory access
c) size
d) delay

76. What does PCM stand for?

a) peculiar code modulation
b) pulse codec machine
c) pulse code modulation
d) peripheral code machine

77. Which of the following is the common method for connecting the peripheral to
the processor?
a) software
b) exception
c) external interrupts
d) internal interrupts

78. Which interrupts generate fast interrupt exception?

a) software interrupt
b) hardware interrupt
c) internal interrupt
d) external interrupt

79. Which one of the following offers CPUs as integrated memory or peripheral
interfaces?
a) Memory system
b) Embedded system
c) Microcontroller
d) Microprocessor

80. What is the color format of chrominance in a digital signal processor?

a) VGBA
b) VIBGYOR
c) White
d) RGBA
81. In which of the exceptions does the external event causes the exception?
a) synchronous exception
b) asynchronous exception
c) precise
d) imprecise

82. Which of the following are interfaced as inputs to the parallel ports?
a) LEDs
b) switch
c) alphanumeric display
d) seven segmented display

83. Which of the following is also known as tri-state?

a) output port
b) input port
c) parallel port
d) output-input port

84. How buffers are enabled in the parallel ports?

a) by the data register
b) by data direction register
c) by individual control register
d) by data and individual control register

85. Why is SRAM more preferably in non-volatile memory?

a) low-cost
b) high-cost
c) low power consumption
d) transistor as a storage element

86. What is the principle of fibre optical communication?

a) Frequency modulation
b) Population inversion
c) Total internal reflection
d) Doppler Effect

87. Which of the following loss occurs inside the fibre?

a) Radiative loss
b) Scattering
c) Absorption
d) Attenuation
88. fibre optic telephone transmission can handle more than thousands of voice
channels.
a) True
b) False

89. Which of the following is known as fibre optic back bone?

a) Telecommunication
b) Cable television
c) Delay lines
d) Bus topology

90. Multimode step index fiber has ___________

a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture

91. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is?

a) Coaxial cables
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Standard multimode fibers
d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers

92. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in
___________
a) C-band
b) L-band
c) O-band
d) C-band and L-band

93. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______

a) Relay
b) Repeater
c) Transponder
d) Duplexer

94. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.

a) True
b) False
95. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite?
a) More number of operating channel
b) Better reception
c) More gain
d) Redundancy

96. What is the component that converts an electrical signal into a signal suitable
for transmission in a given medium called?
a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) Amplifier
d) Duplexer

97. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?

a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee

98. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see?

a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 40

99. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of _________

a) Circular polarization
b) Maneuver ability
c) Beamwidth
d) Gain

100. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation pattern is ________

a) Zone beam
b) Hemispheric beam
c) Spot beam
d) Global beam
ANSWERS
1.D 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.B
6.B 7.C 8.C 9.B 10.B
11.B 12.A 13.C 14.B 15.A
16.B 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.B
21.B 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.D
26.A 27.B 28.B 29.D 30.A
31.A 32.C 33.C 34.C 35.D
36.D 37.D 38.A 39.D 40.C
41.C 42.C 43.B 44.A 45.C
46.A 47.B 48.D 49.A 50.B
51.A 52.C 53.B 54.A 55.C
56.A 57.B 58.D 59.C 60.A
61.C 62.D 63.C 64.A 65.A
66.D 67.C 68.D 69.A 70.B
71.D 72.A 73.A 74.C 75.A
76.C 77.C 78.D 79.C 80.D
81.B 82.B 83.A 84.B 85.C
86.C 87.B 88.A 89.D 90.A
91.B 92.C 93.C 94.A 95.A
96.A 97.C 98.D 99.A 100.C