Mock CLAT 49 Question Paper - Updated

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

MOCK CLAT 49
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
c o m Maximum Marks : 120

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CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-54 10
Legal Reasoning 55-84 15
Logical Reasoning 85-108 26
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 32
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 36
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): A 21-metre-long ship, built using an age-old technique of stitching together planks of wood
with ropes, cords, coconut fibres, natural resins, and oils, is set to undertake a voyage from Odisha to Bali in
Indonesia in November 2025, manned by a crew from the Indian Navy. The project, an initiative of the
Government of India to “revive the country’s rich maritime tradition and heritage”, casts a rare spotlight on the
legacy of Indians as seafarers and the boats or ships they employed as they set off their transcontinental trade
voyages.
What’s the earliest known instance of people from the subcontinent taking part in sea trade? And as they set off
on some of the most daring expeditions, with little but the wind in their sails to guide them, what were the boats
or ships they employed?
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Early evidence of maritime trade shows the existence of maritime trade networks circa 3300-1300 BCE from
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Indus Valley, Mesopotamia and other coastal sites on the Arabian Sea. The dock at Lothal (in present-day
Gujarat), a remarkable engineering feat for its time, shows the civilisation’s deep understanding of the workings
of tides and winds. Meanwhile, Neolithic-Chalcolithic sites in present-day Odisha (dated to as early as circa
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2300 BCE) have yielded evidence of boat building and fishing, and, possibly, contact with South-East Asia.
Experts also point to how the Vedas (composed between circa 1500-500 BCE) feature colourful tales of seafaring
and the perils involved. The Buddhist fables Jataka Tales (composed circa 300 BCE- 400 CE) as well as Tamil
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Sangam literature (composed circa 300 BCE-300 CE) contain even clearer references to seas and seafaring.
Despite these hints and decades of scholarship on thriving maritime networks featuring India and Indians, the
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country’s maritime heritage has not percolated into popular 1H4I3H2H2Jof the country’s past. Archaeologist PJ
narratives
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Cherian, who has led the Pattanam (Muziris) excavations in Kerala, suggests that historians “failed to include
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our maritime heritage in greater narratives of India’s past due to commonly held biases”.
“The development of states, and organised, hierarchical land-based polities has definitely affected our
historiography, sidelining a history of waterbodies,” he told The Indian Express, adding, “You cannot create an
‘area of control’ when it comes
tr-5Q4Lto
1Tthe
4S3Pseas
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we see this tendency all over the world.” Early maritime activity was largely restricted to the coasts. “Movement
through the deep seas intensified by the 1st century BCE, with the emergence of the Roman Empire and its
insatiable appetite for commodities from the East,” Cherian said. “Mid-ocean crossings were made possible by
harnessing the power of monsoon winds to complete journeys quickly…Roman commerce simply spurred the
need for such voyages,” he added.
Extracted with edits and revisions from How Indians and their boats fared in the deep sea: Clues from a little-
known past, https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/indians-and-boats-in-deep-sea-
history-8954997/
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1. Which statement best encapsulates the central tr-idea of the passage?
(a) The passage primarily focuses on the construction technique of the 21-metre-long ship set to voyage from
Odisha to Bali.
(b) The passage delves into the maritime history of India, highlighting the country's rich seafaring legacy and
the reasons for its absence in popular narratives.
(c) The passage mainly discusses the Roman Empire's influence on India's maritime activities.
(d) The passage is chiefly about the biases historians hold against maritime heritage in India.
2. What can be inferred about the significance of the dock at Lothal?
(a) The dock at Lothal was primarily used for fishing activities.
(b) The dock was a symbol of the civilization's advanced understanding of maritime activities.
(c) The dock at Lothal was built to facilitate trade with the Roman Empire.
(d) The dock was constructed to challenge the maritime dominance of Mesopotamia.
3. Which of the following statements about early maritime activities in India is supported by the passage?
(a) The dock at Lothal was primarily constructed to facilitate trade with Mesopotamia.
(b) Early maritime activity in India was predominantly focused on deep-sea voyages.
(c) The emergence of the Roman Empire played a role in intensifying mid-ocean crossings from India.
(d) The Vedas provide the most detailed account of early seafaring techniques used by ancient Indians.
4. What does the term "historiography" most likely mean in the context of the passage?
(a) The study of historical writing and the written records of the past.
(b) The physical artifacts and tools used by ancient civilizations.
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(c) The maritime routes and networks used for trade.
(d) The biases and prejudices held by historians.
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5. What conclusion can be drawn about India's maritime heritage based on the passage?
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(a) India's maritime heritage is well-documented and popularly acknowledged in the country's historical
narratives.
historical writings.
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(b) India's maritime heritage has been overshadowed by the focus on land-based kingdoms and polities in
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(c) India's maritime activities were primarily influenced by the Roman Empire's demands.
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(d) India's maritime heritage is a recent phenomenon, beginning in the last few centuries.
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Passage (Q.6-Q.10): The Bihar government has released some details about the state’s caste survey that was
conducted this year. The survey provides an understanding of how the whole population of the state is divided
into different caste categories such as Backward Classes, Extremely Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, General (or unreserved) etc.
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In the days to come, more information from this survey will be released and the general public will hopefully be
able to make sense of it. The caste details could likely have massive political implications. That’s because, in
India, caste often plays a crucial role in determining the economic fortunes of people.
In this edition, ExplainSpeaking will look at the caste-wise data on two broad counts — employment and
consumer sentiments — sourced from the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy’s (CMIE) Economic Outlook.
The CMIE provides data for all the main caste groupings.
Some Basics on Employment Metrics:

There are three variables that one needs to look at when talking
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Force Participation Rate (LFPR). Simply put, it gives a sense of how many Indians are “demanding” a job. The
“Labour Force” consists of persons who are of 15 years of age or more and are either employed or are
unemployed and are willing to work and are actively looking for a job. The LFPR is expressed as a percentage
of the working-age population.
The second variable is Unemployment Rate (UER). It is nothing but the number of people in the labour force
who are looking for a job but as yet unemployed. The UER is expressed as a percentage of the labour force.
In everyday parlance, the unemployment rate often dominates the general public discourse. However, in India’s
case, the UER often underestimates the joblessness because the LFPR itself keeps falling.
Simply put, it has been found that if they do not get a job over time, a lot of unemployed people get discouraged
and leave the labour force (that is, stop actively looking for a job). With unemployed people leaving the labour
force, the ratio of unemployed to total labour force falls. As such, often in India, the UER falls not because more
people have got jobs but because the LFPR itself falls (that is, when more people — who failed to get a job —
stop looking for a job altogether).
As such, the best metric to look at is Employment Rate (ER). The ER dispenses with the labour force calculation
and simply looks at the total number of people employed as a percentage of the working-age population. By not
basing itself on LFPR, the ER avoids the problem of a falling LFPR artificially dragging the unemployment rate.
in India,
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Extracted with edits and revisions from How employment and consumer sentiments vary with caste and religion
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/explainspeaking-employment-
consumer-sentiments-caste-religion-india-8965910/
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6. What is the primary purpose of the passage?
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(a) To highlight the importance of the Bihar government's caste survey and its implications.
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(b) To explain the intricacies of employment metrics in India and their significance.
(c) To argue that the Employment Rate (ER) is the most misleading metric among all employment metrics.
(d) To discuss the role of the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE) in providing caste-wise data.
7.
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According to the passage, what does the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) represent?
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(a) The percentage of the working-age population that is currently employed.
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(b) The number of people in the labour force who are actively 1H4I3H2H2J
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(c) The percentage of the working-age population that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
(d) The total number of people employed as a percentage of the working-age population.
8.
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What can be inferred about the Unemployment Rate (UER) in India based on the passage?
(a) The UER is the most reliable metric to understand employment in India.
(b) The UER often underestimates joblessness
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(c) The UER is calculated based on the total number of people employed.
(d) The UER increases when more people stop looking for a job.
9. Which of the following best describes the author's tone when discussing the Employment Rate (ER)?
(a) Critical and dismissive.
(b) Neutral and informative.
(c) Enthusiastic and supportive.
(d) Sceptical and doubtful.
10. Which of the following statements, if true, would strengthen

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solely on the Unemployment Rate (UER)?
(a) Many countries besides India also experience a falling LFPR, leading to misleading UER figures.
(b) The LFPR in India has been consistently rising over the past decade.
(c) The majority of unemployed individuals in India are actively seeking employment.
(d) The Employment Rate (ER) in India has remained stable despite fluctuations in the LFPR and UER.
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): This literary analysis compares the spiritual landscape of Aldous Huxley’s Brave New
World against his nonfiction work, The Perennial Philosophy. In Brave New World, Huxley’s World State
appears spiritually promising. It embeds self-transcendence and interconnectedness into its social order,
minimizing the individual self in favor of a collective identity. These themes are highly suggestive of the
Perennial Philosophy, a framework championed by Huxley through which individuals can eclipse their separate
selves and spiritually actualize. However, the Brave New World does not eclipse self at all; it cultivates a
“selfness writ large” that idolatrizes instant gratification, consumerism, technology and progress, and social order
as ersatz for genuine liberation. This Perennial Perversion is spiritually bankrupt, systematically misleading
World State inhabitants with false promises of unitive liberation. As a consequence of preventing its citizens
from achieving genuine mystical unity, the World State’s population is spiritually and psychologically
damaged—far from happy and stable, despite the lie they have been conditioned to believe.
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The fundamental question of the Perennial Philosophy is as follows: How does one transcend the separative self
and realize its unity with everything? In his nonfiction work, The Perennial Philosophy, Aldous Huxley provides
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an answer by anthologizing numerous mystical writings across various religions. In his science fiction satire,
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Brave New World, Huxley provides a very different answer by discarding mysticism altogether. In the former,
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he stresses the unitive knowledge of the divine Ground as the final end of man. In the latter, he replaces this
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metaphysical Ground with decidedly man-made institutions, declaring that union is possible through social order
alone.
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Indeed, the Brave New World appears spiritually promising. The World State incorporates self-transcendence in
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all aspects of its social fabric. The beliefs and mantras recited by the World State are staggeringly similar to
those of the Perennial Philosophy. Its rituals and ceremonies are embedded with religious veneration and succeed
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in facilitating interconnectedness among its practitioners. Its citizens appear blissfully happy, their apparent
peace reflected repeatedly across the pages of Brave New World.
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Can the Perennial question be answered by circumventing Perennialism altogether? Unsurprisingly, Aldous
Huxley’s answer is a resounding “no”; God is not mocked. The World State “self-writ large” is very much intact.
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The purported self-transcendence of the World State is a lie, one of the many instruments used by the World
Controllers to subdue its population into willing subservience.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Perennial Perversion: Idolatrous Self-Worship in Brave New World
By Adam H. Post] tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
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11. Which of the following can be assumed about the World State's approach to spirituality based on the passage?
(a) The World State believes that genuine spiritual liberation can be achieved through technological
advancements.
(b) The World State's approach to spirituality is a genuine representation of the Perennial Philosophy.
(c) The World State's spiritual practices are designed to maintain societal order and prevent dissent.
(d) The World State's spiritual practices are rooted in ancient mystical traditions.
12. Which of the following is NOT a valid inference from the passage?
(a) Aldous Huxley believes that the Perennialtr-Philosophy
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offers
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(b) The World State's spiritual practices are identical to the teachings of the Perennial Philosophy.
(c) The World State's inhabitants are conditioned to believe they are happy and stable.
(d) Aldous Huxley's Brave New World critiques the World State's approach to spirituality.
13. According to the passage, what is the fundamental question of the Perennial Philosophy?
(a) How can one achieve happiness through social order?
(b) How does one transcend the separative self and realize its unity with everything?
(c) How can technology lead to spiritual liberation?
(d) How can one achieve spiritual liberation through rituals and ceremonies?
14. Which of the following best describes the figure of speech used in the phrase "selfness writ large"?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Hyperbole (d) Alliteration
15. What conclusion can be drawn about the World State's approach to spirituality based on the passage?
(a) The World State's spirituality is a genuine path to liberation and unity.
(b) The World State's approach to spirituality is a superficial imitation of the Perennial Philosophy.
(c) The World State's inhabitants are genuinely happy and spiritually liberated.
(d) The World State promotes mysticism as the ultimate path to spiritual liberation.
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): Human ancestors nearly died out between around 930,000 to 813,000 years ago in an
evolutionarily pivotal population bust, a contested new study concludes. This potential winnowing of human
ancestors into a barely sustainable number of survivors coincided with a period of extreme cold and extended
droughts in Africa and Eurasia, previous geologic evidence indicates.
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If the new DNA-derived scenario holds up, relatively few survivors of the Stone Age big chill may have evolved
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into a species ancestral to Homo sapiens, Neandertals and Denisovans, say population geneticist Wangjie Hu of
the Icahn School of Medicine at Mount Sinai in New York City and colleagues. Previous analyses of DNA
extracted from ancient fossils estimate that this common ancestral species appeared between around 700,000 and
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500,000 years ago. Not too long before that, members of the human genus, Homo, weathered a roughly 117,000-
year-long freeze while maintaining an average of 1,280 individuals capable of breeding, the researchers report
in the Sept. 1 Science. That number of our evolutionary precursors reproduced just enough to stave off extinction,
they say.
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Before the onset of the harsh climate, the number of potential breeders in the same ancestral population had
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totalled between 58,600 and 135,000 individuals, the teamtr-estimates. team devised a new statistical method
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to estimate the timing and sizes of ancient breeding populations using patterns of shared gene variants in human
populations today. The modern genetic data came from 3,154 people in 10 African populations and 40 non-
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African populations. Hu’s group obtained that information from two scientific databases of human DNA. The
scientists calculated the expected diversity of these modern variants based on hypothetical ancient population
histories, some of which included periods of drastic declines in numbers of breeding adults. A population crash
among human ancestors that lasted
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variation in the analyzed data, the researchers conclude. Africans displayed much stronger genetic evidence of
an ancient population crash than non-Africans did, the scientists found. A depleted population of human
ancestors probably lived in Africa starting around 900,000 years ago, although Eurasia cannot be excluded as a
home region for those survivors, the team says. As that diminished population began to rebound, its members
may have evolved into H. heidelbergensis, Hu’s group suspects (SN: 4/13/22). Some researchers regard H.
heidelbergensis as an ancestor of Denisovans, Neandertals and H. sapiens that first appeared around 700,000
years ago in Africa and Eurasia. But other scientists say that fossils assigned to H. heidelbergensis contain too
many skeletal differences to qualify as a single Homo species.
Extracted with edits and revisions from Extreme cold may have
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agohttps://www.sciencenews.org/article/extreme-cold-human-ancestors-population-crash-dna
16. In the context of the passage, the term "winnowing" most closely means:
(a) Strengthening through natural selection.
(b) Expanding rapidly in numbers.
(c) Reducing or diminishing gradually.
(d) Migrating to different geographical regions.
17. Which of the following conclusions aligns with the research findings presented in the passage?
(a) The DNA-derived scenario conclusively proves that human ancestors faced near-extinction due to volcanic
eruptions.
(b) The population crash among human ancestors was primarily due to their inability to adapt to changing
climates.
(c) The genetic variation in modern human populations can be best explained by a population crash among
human ancestors between 930,000 to 813,000 years ago.
(d) The majority of human ancestors migrated out of Africa to escape the extreme cold and droughts.
18. In the phrase "a contested new study concludes," the word "contested" primarily serves to:
(a) Emphasize the novelty of the study.
(b) Highlight the unanimous agreement about the study's findings.
(c) Indicate that the study's findings are debated or challenged.
(d) Suggest that the study was conducted in a competitive environment.
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19.
harsh climate period?
rs .
Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the population of human ancestors post the
(a) The population of human ancestors remained critically low for several millennia after the harsh climate.
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(b) The population of human ancestors rebounded and possibly evolved into a new species.
(c) The population of human ancestors migrated en masse to Eurasia post the climate challenges.
(d) The population of human ancestors diversified into multiple distinct species immediately after the harsh
20.
climate.
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According to the passage, which of the following statements about the ancient breeding populations is NOT
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(a) The number of potential breeders in the ancestral population before the harsh climate was estimated to be
between 58,600 and 135,000 individuals.
capable of breeding.
seismic activities.
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(b) The human genus, Homo, survived a roughly 117,000-year-long freeze with an average of 1,280 individuals
(c) The ancient population crash among human ancestors primarily occurred due to volcanic eruptions and
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(d) Africans displayed much stronger genetic evidence of an ancient population crash than non-Africans did.
Passage (Q.21-Q.24): The conceptual delineation of “spatial compression” in critical writings of Karl Marx and
David Harvey is mapped to explain how contemporary capitalist practices use “time” creatively to overcome the
spatial constraints to profit-making. The insights drawn from the discussions are used to examine the rapid
expansion of Amazon India, primarily achieved through its network of warehouses—a spatial construct. Thus
the tangible manifestations of restructuring time and space in the present-day capitalist landscape of India are
analysed.
The authors extend their heartfelt acknowledgement to the anonymous referee whose invaluable feedback and
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insights helped them explore and enrich crucial areas and issues within this article. The referee’s suggestions
have shaped the present form of the article, elevating its quality and impact. The authors would also like to
express gratitude to Suheel Mir for providing valuable suggestions.
Capitalism is continuously reproducing itself, and more so in the highly globalised world. The so-called “Fourth
Industrial Revolution” has created a need for the creative side of capitalism. It is characterised by the
convergence of technologies such as artificial intelligence, robotics, and the internet of things. Capitalism is said
to be a system that tends to reward innovation and creativity. With the Fourth Industrial Revolution raising the
stakes, businesses that fail to innovate and adapt may quickly become irrelevant, as new competitors emerge
with better products and services. These attributions are rather loose remarks on the reproduction of spaces in a
constantly and rapidly shrinking world. The spatial churning is increasingly evident in emerging markets, such
as India, where capitalism is quickly adapting and expanding itself in creative ways.
A noteworthy case of this phenomenon is Amazon India’s remarkable growth by way of expanding its network
of warehouses. Amazon has been instrumental in revolutionising traditional ways of doing business and shopping
(or offline markets), leading to what is referred to as “e-commerce penetration” in India. This entails a
comprehensive strategy of overcoming the physical aspects or limitations that constrain the traditional or offline
markets, such as convenience, accessibility, and diversity of products, competitive prices, discounts, and rapid
delivery experiences. All these limitations are associated with time and space, and capitalism has a long history
of dealing with them. The ability to constantly innovate the ways to effectively overcome the physical constraints
largely determines growth of capital in the globalised markets. So, the pertinent, or rather puzzling, question is:
How does Amazon India handle temporalities, overcoming barriers to the growth of capital, and how that
brought about by its creative aspects?
c o m
increasingly renders the offline markets redundant? What explains the constantly changing capitalist landscape
rs .
Extracted with edits and revisions from The Spatio-temporal Dynamics of Capitalist Landscape in India,
https://www.epw.in/journal/2023/39/insight/spatio-temporal-dynamics-capitalist-landscape.html
21. Which of the following best captures the primary focus of the passage?
(a) A detailed history of capitalism and its evolution over the centuries.
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(b) The role of technology, such as artificial intelligence and robotics, in shaping modern capitalism.
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(c) The strategies employed by Amazon India to overcome traditional market limitations and expand its reach.
(d) The impact of e-commerce penetration on offline markets in emerging economies.
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How would you best describe the author's tone in the passage?
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(a) Critical and disapproving of capitalist practices.
(b) Neutral and informative, presenting facts and observations.
23.
passage?
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(c) Enthusiastic and supportive of the Fourth Industrial Revolution.
(d) Skeptical of Amazon India's growth and strategies.
Which of the following statements about

tr-5Q4L1T4S3P2P2Uthe "Fourth Industrial Revolution" is NOT directly supported by the
(a) It is characterized by the convergence of technologies such as artificial intelligence, robotics, and the internet
of things.
(b) It has led to the obsolescence of traditional forms of capitalism.
(c) It has created a need for the creative side of capitalism.
(d) It emphasizes the importance of businesses innovating and adapting to remain relevant.
24. Which of the following is a primary factor that determines the growth of capital in globalized markets, as per the
passage?
(a) The ability to adapt to technological changes rapidly. 2P2U
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(b) The capacity to innovate ways to overcome physical constraints.
(c) The strength of offline markets and traditional business methods.
(d) The influence of media and public relations strategies.
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.54): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.29): NATO is preparing its biggest live joint command exercise since the cold war next year,
assembling more than 40,000 troops to practise how the alliance would attempt to repel Russian aggression
against one of its members. The Steadfast Defender exercise comes as part of Nato’s rapid push to transform
from crisis response to a war-fighting alliance, prompted by the invasion of Ukraine. It will start in spring next
year and is expected to involve between 500 and 700 air combat missions, more than 50 ships, and about 41,000
troops, NATO officials said. It is designed to model potential manoeuvres against an enemy modelled on a
coalition led by Russia, named Occasus for the purposes of the drill. NATO secretary-general Jens Stoltenberg
said in June last year that the alliance would increase the number of its high-readiness forces from 40,000 to
“well over 300,000”. It forms part of a historic overhaul to shift the alliance towards heavy military capabilities
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as opposed to the light and mobile forces deployed in the Balkans and Afghanistan. Following that statement,
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NATO leaders agreed at a summit in July to new regional defence plans and the creation of the so-called Allied
Reaction Force, a multinational force able to respond rapidly to threats.
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25.
https://www.ft.com/content/6c7a6941-2e0c-46d0-baf5-f53b681d2936
rs .
In June 2023,NATO countries conducted the biggest air drill known as Air Defender. Which of the following
countries have hosted it?
(a) Japan (b) Germany (c) Ukraine (d) Australia
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26.
(a) Brussels (b) Vilnius
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Which city hosted the 2023 NATO summit in July 2023?
a
(c) Madrid
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(d) Washington
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27. Which Eastern European country was known for its tr-1968 attempted political liberalization, which was
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suppressed by Soviet military intervention?
(a) Poland (b) Hungary (c) Czechoslovakia (d) Yugoslavia
28.
(c) Steadfast Defender

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In 2024, the Alliance will be conducting a significant collective defence exercise. What is the name of this
exercise?
(a) Resilient Guardian tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U (b) Unified Protector
(d) Shielded Alliance
29. What does the acronym ITPP stand for in the context of NATO's partnership with Japan and the ROK in the
Indo-Pacific region?
(a) International Trade and Partnership Program
(b) Indo-Pacific Territorial Protection Pact
(c) Individually Tailored Partnership Program
(d) Integrated Technology and Peace Protocol
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): For the second consecutive year, 2PGoogle

2U has not featured a doodle to commemorate
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International Yoga Day 2023, leaving many yoga enthusiasts and internet users surprised. The absence of a
dedicated doodle has sparked speculation and discussion among online users. Google, known for its creative and
interactive doodles that celebrate various occasions and events, has traditionally featured International Yoga Day
in the past. The decision to skip the yoga-themed doodle for two consecutive years has raised questions among
users. Taking to Twitter, some users expressed disappointment over the absence of Google Doodle on
International Yoga Day, a username Anand Prasad wrote, “It's International Yoga Day today but Google Doodle
(at least in India, not sure elsewhere) is not promoting that." Google Doodle featured Father's Day on June 21
every year, as it is observed in the United States, India, the United Kingdom, and over 70 other countries. This
day is also significant as it marks the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, representing the first day of
summer, while in the Southern Hemisphere, it corresponds to the Winter Solstice. Another user, Srinivas Reddy
said, “Google Doodles, today is world yoga day, why couldn't you display it in Google Doodle?" Another user,
Ankit L said, “Google missed his iconic Google doodle on International Yoga Day."
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/no-international-yoga-day-2023-google-doodle-for-second-year-
running-internet-queries-absence-11687318283512.html
30. What is the theme for International Yoga Day 2023 as determined by the United Nations?
(a) Yoga for Peace and Harmony
(b) Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
(c) Yoga for Health and Happiness
(d) Yoga for Climate Action
31. Who proposed the draft resolution establishing the International Day of Yoga?
(a) United Nations
(c) India
(b) World Health Organization
(d) World Yoga Federation
c o m
32. Which age group is the WHO mYoga app primarily designed as of daily companion?
(a) Children aged 6-12 years (b) Adolescents aged 13-19 years
rs .
33.
(c) Adults aged 12-65 years (d) Adults aged 18-50 years
k e
What is the official color associated with World Happiness Day, often symbolizing happiness, joy, and
optimism?
(a) Blue (b) Red
an
(c) Green
r
(d) Yellow
p
2H2J
1H4I3H on the pursuit of wisdom, self-realization,
34. tr-5B4H
Which type of yoga is considered the yoga of knowledge and focuses
o
and understanding the nature of reality?
(a) Mantra Yoga (b) Laya Yoga (c) Jnana Yoga (d) Nada Yoga
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Passage (Q.35-Q.39): The anti-government protests that erupted throughout Iran in September 2022 were the
latest episode in a dismayingly familiar cycle: when discontent boils over in unrest, the Islamic Republic vaguely
acknowledges popular concerns,
tr-5Q4Lperhaps even signaling measures to quiet them, but then proceeds to quash their
1T4S3P2P2U
expression with brute force and to revert to its old ways. Failing to address the underlying grievances, it sets the
stage for another bloody confrontation between state and society. Nowhere is this cycle more apparent than in
provinces historically mismanaged by the capital and beset with local social and environmental problems. In one
such province, Khuzestan in the south west, protests have been frequent, including as part of the late 2022
nationwide movement. Yet the piecemeal government efforts to respond cannot repair the damage done by
decades’ worth of mismanagement, exacerbated by factors like sanctions and climate change. The necessary
changes go beyond what Tehran has proven willing or able to undertake, underscoring the need for a fundamental
reconsideration of how it governs. Yet the wounds of that bitter decade have been left to fester, not by a foreign
foe but by successive Iranian governments, which have drawn on the province’s wealth of natural resources
without efficiently investing in its development, a fact4Sof which
2P2U its population is glaringly aware.
tr-5Q4L1T 3P
https://www.crisisgroup.org/middle-east-north-africa/gulf-and-arabian-peninsula/iran/241-irans-khuzestan-
thirst-and-turmoil
35. Recently, foreign exchange rates have been increased all time high to 55,000 rials. Which of the following best
describes the term "forex exchange"?
(a) A platform where stocks and bonds of various companies are traded.
(b) The process of converting one currency into another currency for various purposes.
(c) A system where commodities like gold and oil are traded internationally.
(d) The central authority responsible for printing and regulating the money supply of a country.
36. Which country did Iran accuse of conducting a cyberattack on its Fordow nuclear facility causing a temporary
shutdown of its operations in April 2023?
(a) Israel (b) United States (c) Saudi Arabia (d) United Kingdom
37. When was UNHCR established, and what event prompted its creation?
(a) Established in 1980 after a global health crisis
(b) Established in 2001 to address climate change challenges
(c) Established in 1950 in the aftermath of the Second World War
(d) Established in 1991 to aid refugees from natural disasters
38. Which international agreement, often associated with Iran, aimed to restrict Iran's nuclear program in exchange
for sanctions relief?
39.
(a) JCPOA (b) CENTO (c) OPEC (d) SEATO
c o m
Which Middle Eastern country has been a key regional rival of Iran and has engaged in proxy conflicts in the
region, contributing to the Iran crisis?
(a) Iraq (b) Saudi Arabia (c) Turkey (d) Egypt
rs .
k e
Passage (Q.40-Q.44): In a significant achievement for the Indian Navy and the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO), the indigenous heavyweight torpedo Varunastra successfully engaged an
underwater target off the western seaboard on Tuesday, June 6. The successful engagement of an indigenous
n
torpedo showcases the Indian Navy's and DRDO's pursuit of precise delivery of ordnance in the underwater
a
domain. In an eight-second video released by the Indian Navy, the Varunastra torpedo is seen striking a
r
submerged pontoon target in the sea, resulting in a powerful explosion and the subsequent rise of seawater due
p
2H2J
5B4H1H4I3Hto
to the shockwaves. The successful engagement serves as atr-testament the Indian Navy's commitment to future-
o
proof combat readiness through self-reliance (Aatmanirbharta), as stated by the Navy spokesperson. Varunastra,
which was inducted into the Indian Navy in 2016, is an electrically-propelled anti-submarine torpedo capable of
T
targeting submarines in both deep and shallow waters. Developed by the Naval Science and Technological
Laboratory, a unit of DRDO based in Visakhapatnam, Varunastra can be launched from all anti-submarine
warfare (ASW) ships equipped to fire heavyweight torpedoes even in challenging countermeasures scenarios.
The successful engagementtr-by5Q4LVarunastra
1T4S3P2P2U reinforces India's capabilities in underwater warfare and marks a
significant milestone in the country's pursuit of indigenous defence technologies.
https://myind.net/Home/viewArticle/indigenous-torpedo-varunastra-of-the-indian-navy-successfully-strikes-
underwater-target
40. What is the name of the company that manufactures the Varunastra Torpedo?
(a) Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL) (b) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL)
(c) Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) (d) Larsen & Toubro Ltd (L&T)
41. What is the primary method of propulsion used by VARUNASTRA?

(a) Pump-Jet Propellers (b) Rim-Driven
2P2U Propellers
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
(c) Contrarotating propellers (d) Screw Propellers
42. Which statement accurately describes the purpose of ballast tanks in submarines?
(a) Ballast tanks are used to store food supplies.
(b) Ballast tanks help control the submarine's buoyancy.
(c) Ballast tanks are primarily for communication.
(d) Ballast tanks are storage for ammunition.
43. What type of guidance system allows a torpedo to track and home in on its target?
(a) Inertial guidance (b) GPS guidance (c) Wake homing (d) Radio guidance
44. Which countries are the primary developers and collaborators in the development of the BrahMos missile?
(a) India and Russia (b) India and the United States
(c) India and China (d) India and France
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): A systematic, consistent, national-level dataset on India’s water bodies that could inform
efforts to improve water management and increase resilience has been long awaited. The National Water Body
Census 2023 is a crucial milestone in creating such a database. This blog explores the census data related to
urban water bodies, highlighting existing water challenges across Indian cities and ways to strengthen urban
water resilience. Rising urban populations and depletion of existing water resources, further exacerbated by
m
climate change, impacts the availability of essential services, quality of life and the health of natural habitats and
o
native biodiversity. Surface water bodies such as ponds, tanks, lakes, reservoirs and percolation tanks play a
c
significant role in mitigating both current and future water-stress incidents. They serve as storage reservoirs that
rs .
can be accessed during water-scarce periods to recharge groundwater and facilitate flood control by absorbing
stormwater run-off. The census studies such water bodies by categorizing them based on storage capacity, uses
and other aspects. Although data collected has been helpful in illuminating the reality of water-stress in India,
role in microclimatic control, ecosystem services and biodiversity conservation.
k e
the census falls short of recognizing the co-benefits of urban water bodies beyond water storage, such as their
https://thecityfix.com/blog/indias-first-water-body-census-connecting-the-missing-links/
45.
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu
r an
Which state has the highest number of water bodies in urban areas as per the First Waterbodies Census 2023?
(c) Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh
p
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o
46. Which Indian state leads in the category of water conservation schemes, as per the first census of water bodies
conducted in 2017-18?
47.
(a) Kerala
outdoor water use?

(a) Canal Irrigation
(c) Xeriscaping
T
(b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U
(b) Aquifer Recharge
(d) Watershed Management
(d) Tamil Nadu
Which water conservation scheme involves modifying landscapes to use drought-tolerant plants and reduce
48. What international framework aims to conserve wetlands of international importance and promote their
sustainable use?
(a) ICJ Statute (b) CBD
(c) Ramsar Convention (d) Vienna Convention
49. Which of the following state of India lost maximum number of water bodies due to encroachment?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Chandigarh
4S3P2P2U
(d) Jharkhand
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Passage (Q.50-Q.54): In 118 countries (two-thirds of the 180 countries evaluated by the Index), most of the
Index questionnaire’s respondents reported that political actors in their countries were often or systematically
involved in massive disinformation or propaganda campaigns. The difference is being blurred between true and
false, real and artificial, facts and artifices, jeopardising the right to information. The remarkable development
of artificial intelligence is wreaking further havoc on the media world, which had already been undermined by
Web 2.0. Meanwhile, Twitter owner Elon Musk is pushing an arbitrary, payment-based approach to information
to the extreme, showing that platforms are quicksand for journalism. The disinformation industry disseminates
manipulative content on a huge scale, as shown by an investigation by the Forbidden Stories consortium, a
project co-founded by RSF. And now AI is digesting content and regurgitating it in the form of syntheses that
flout the principles of rigour and reliability. The fifth version of Midjourney, an AI programme that generates
very high-definition images in response to natural language requests, has been feeding social media with
increasingly plausible and undetectable fake “photos”, including quite realistic-looking ones of Donald Trump
being stopped by police officers and a comatose Julian Assange in a straitjacket, which went viral.
https://reliefweb.int/report/world/2023-world-press-freedom-index-journalism-threatened-fake-content-
industry-enru
50. Which European country has experienced a significant decline in press freedom and ranks 21st in the 2023 World
Press Freedom Index due to a record number of cases of violence against journalists and arrests?
(a) Germany (b) Poland (c) France (d) Romania
51. In the 21st edition of the World Press Freedom Index, what is India's new ranking in terms of press freedom, and
how does it compare to its 2022 ranking?
(a) 150th, improved by 9 ranks
(c) 141st, improved by 8 ranks
(b) 161st, slipped by 11 ranks
(d) 130th, slipped by 5 ranks
c o m
52.
rs .
In the World Press Freedom Index, what is the highest possible score that a country can achieve to indicate the
best level of press freedom?
53.
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100
k e
How many contextual indicators are used to evaluate each country or territory's score in the World Press Freedom
Index?
(a) 3 (b) 5
a
(c) 8
r n (d) 10
p
3H 2H2J
54. Which of the following India’s neighbour ranked better astr-per 1H4I2023
5B4Hthe World Press Freedom Index?
o
(a) Bhutan (b) Sri Lanka (c) Pakistan (d) All of the above
T tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U
2P2U
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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.55-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.55-Q.59): Contributory negligence means that when the immediate cause of the damage is the
negligence of the plaintiff himself, the plaintiff cannot sue the defendant for damages and the defendant can use
it as a defence. This is because the plaintiff in such a case is considered to be the author of his own wrong. It is
based on the maxim volenti non fit iniuria which states that if someone willingly places themselves in a position
which might result in harm, they are not entitled to claim for damages caused by such harm. The plaintiff is not
entitled to recover from the defendant if it is proved that:
1) The plaintiff by the exercise of ordinary care could have avoided the consequence of the defendant’s
negligence.
2) The defendant could not have avoided the consequence of the plaintiff’s negligence by an exercise of
m
ordinary care
3) There has been as much want of reasonable care on the plaintiff’s part as on the defendant’s part and the
former cannot sue the latter for the same.
.c o
The burden of proving contributory negligence rests on the defendant in the first instance and in the absence of
rs
such evidence, the plaintiff is not bound to prove its non-existence. In the case of Shelton Vs L & W Railway
(1946), while the plaintiff was crossing a railway line, a servant of the railway company who was in charge of
e
crossing shouted a warning to him. Due to the plaintiff being deaf, he was unable to hear the warning and was
consequently injured. The court held that this amounted to contributory negligence by him.
55.
a k
[Source: The Lawyers & Jurists. https://www.lawyersnjurists.com/article/tort-law-part-10/ ]
n
In daytime there was a head-on collision between a bus belonging to the Madhya Pradesh SRTC and a private
r
bus. Abhay, who was the driver of the bus of Madhya Pradesh SRTC sustained injuries including a fractured
p
right femur. It was found that the private bus was on the wrong side
tr-5B4H1H 4I3Hof the road, but Abhay had also not slowed
2H2J
down his bus nor swerved to his left on seeing the oncoming bus. Decide if the defence of Contributory
To
negligence can be taken by the private bus driver or not.
(a) The defence of contributory negligence can be raised as both parties were at fault.
(b) The defence could not be raised because Abhay had breached the speed limit by driving too fast. Therefore,
he is breaching his duty of care to others.
(c) The defence cannot be taken because if he hadn't driven fast, the accident would not have occurred. Hence,
4L1T4S3P2P2U
he will be solely liable. tr-5Q
(d) The defence will prevail because the conduct of abhay is held to have contributed to the causation of accident.
56. Bhavesh was driving motorbike and Bhaskar was a pillion rider. A major accident occurred as their motorbike
which was over-speeding crashed into a bus which was on the right side and was moving in a constant speed
limit. Bhaskar suffered head injuries due to the accident and sued Bhavesh for the same. Bhaskar did not wear a
helmet, which was compulsory according to the rules to wear. He had the knowledge for the same. He sued
Bhavesh for damages. Decide.
(a) This is a case of contributory negligence because there was an omission on Bhaskar’s part.
(b) This will not be covered under the defence of contributory negligence because there was negligence in
driving the bike by the rider as he over-speeded it.4S3P2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T
(c) This will be covered under the defence of contributory negligence because Bhaskar was aware that he is
supposed to wear a helmet.
(d) This will not be covered under the defence of contributory negligence because there was nothing done on
the part of Bhaskar which contributes to his injuries.
57. Vikram was resting his elbow on the window sill of a passenger bus which was moving on the roads of
metropolitan area. Such areas are usually filled with traffic and heavy vehicles. He was injured by another bus
coming from opposite direction. The bus coming from opposite direction was driven by Varun. Vikram decides
to file a lawsuit against Varun. Owing to which, defence of contributory negligence was taken by Varun. Decide.
(a) Vikram will succeed as resting the elbow on window was something done by every ordinary passenger.
Hence, defence of contributory negligence will not prevail.
(b) Vikram will fail the lawsuit because he has consented to such risks by sitting in the bus. Hence, principle of
volenti non fit injuria will apply.
(c) Vikram will succeed because Varun has breached his duty of care. Hence, defence of contributory negligence
will not prevail.
(d) Vikram will fail to succeed because it is common for such incidents to occur in metropolitan cities, where
there is a greater risk of vehicles coming from multiple directions and causing harm. Therefore, the defense
58.
of contributory negligence will prevail.
c o m
Emmanuel a motor cyclist drives on the road without having a driving license. Few kms after he starts driving,
rs .
he was run down by a truck carrying timber, resulting in an accident. The plaintiff died on the spot. Wife of the
deceased bought the suit against the truck driver. The driver of the truck named Bishnoi claimed the defence of
contributory negligence. Decide.
k e
(a) The defence will not be applicable as Emmanuel did not have the license, thereby breaching the law.
(b) The defence will be applicable as Emmanuel himself took the risk by riding on the road thereby accepting
the risk.
n
(c) The defence will not be applicable as negligence on part of Emmanuel cannot be connected to the accident.
a
(d) The defence will be applicable as there was absence of reasonable care to be taken by Emmanuel and hence,
he was partly blameworthy.
r
p
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o
59. Rohit, the plaintiff, rode on the pillion of the motorcycle driven by Raman. The lights of the bike were defective
and in spite of knowing the risks involved, Rohit consented to the same. The motorcycle collided with an
were defective.
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incoming sedan, not because the lights were defective but because the motor-cyclist was going on the wrong
side and was negligent in looking for a proper look-out. In a claim for injuries suffered by the plaintiff against
Raman. Raman claimed the defence of contributory negligence. Decide.
(a) The defence will prevailtr-5Q
because
4L1T4S3Pplaintiff
2P2U consented to the risk by sitting at the pillion knowing the lights
(b) Defence will not prevail because accident was unrelated to the risk involved in this conduct.
(c) Defence of volenti non fit injuria will prevail as Rohit was pillion, thereby knowing and accepting the risk.
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Passage (Q.60-Q.64): Echoing a view similar to that of the Supreme Court in Hussain v. Union of India, the
Calcutta High Court in Kader Khan v. State of W.B. has proposed an amendment to the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 (hereinafter referred to as “the Code”) to provide for trial in absentia of absconding accused to
further speedy justice, in light of the emergence of victim rights and in particular the victims of sexual abuse.
The Court observed that the present laws do not address situations
2P2U where the accused waives his right off of a
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fair trial by abscondence which subjects the victims to secondary victimisation.
One of the immutable principles of justice is that the accused be present at his trial for the meaningful exercise
of his right to defence. However, it is interesting to explore the nuances of this right where the accused absconds,
and the entire criminal justice system comes to a standstill. Would it be right to let such an accused take the
system for ransom by withdrawing himself from the criminal proceedings and rendering the case infructuous?
Although the Code does provide for a situation where the evidence may be recorded in the absence of the
accused, it lacks a provision on trial in absentia. Section 273 of the Code while stipulating the fundamental
postulate of a fair trial also provides for an exception for the same. It makes it imperative for the evidence to be
taken in the presence of the accused unless such personal attendance of the accused is dispensed with. Further,
Section 299 of the Code enables the Court to record the evidence of the prosecution witness where the accused
absconds. Although it is an enabling provision, it does not resolve the issue of trial in the event of an “absentee
accused”. It partially attempts to provide a solution in the form of evidence in absentia albeit with limitations.
Another situation contemplated by the Code, where the absence of the accused does not result in the arrest of the
proceedings, is that provided under Section 317. The courts have the power to dispense with the presence of a
disruptive accused but do not have the same power in the case of an absconder accused. Under this provision,
the court may under two conditions dispense with the personal attendance of the accused first, if it is satisfied
that in the interests of justice it is not necessary and second, where the accused “persistently” disturbs the court
proceedings. It may be observed here that in the second condition the “conduct” of the accused becomes a factor.
60. Manu had murdered Sanu in a gruesome fight by hitting him on the head with a hammer. After killing Sanu,
m
Manu started running till he reached a port and boarded a ferry. By the time the police found Sanu's body and
o
were able to identify that the killer was Manu, he had already travelled 500 kms away from the crime scene.
c
Meanwhile, a criminal complaint was lodged in the Court and a trial was to be held. Although multiple summons
Court conduct the trial without Manu?
rs .
have been issued so far, Manu has still not responded to any of them. In the interest of speedy justice, can the
(a) Yes, because Manu has absconded and if the trial is not conducted then it will delay the proceedings
k e
(b) Yes, because if the trial is not conducted without him then it may not be possible to conduct it at all
(c) No, because there is no legal provision to allow a trial to be conducted without Manu
(d) No, because Manu has essentially withdrawn himself from the proceedings thereby rendering the trial
61.
infrunctuous
r an
Sanju was accused of manslaughter by running over a pedestrian with his vehicle while driving at night. The
p
2J
4H1H4I3H2Hsuffered
incident left a deep psychological impact on Sanju and he frequently
tr-5B from psychotic episodes which
o
reminded him of the tragic incident. During such episodes, he became impossible to handle because he started
mumbling random gibberish, zoned out and sometimes even started throwing objects here and there. In these
T
circumstances, can the Court dispense with his physical presence during the trials?
(a) Yes, because there is no need to have Sanju be physically present in the trial
(b) Yes, because Sanju has a tendency to persistently disturb the court proceedings during his trial
(c) No, because there is no tr-
provision for
5Q4L1T4S3P trial in absentia in the Code of Criminal Procedure
2P2U
(d) No, because the conduct of Sanju is not such that he can disturb the proceedings of the court
62. Rani was accused of theft. She had allegedly entered the house of her neighbour by climbing the drain pipe.
While everyone was sleeping, she quietly emptied the safe and put all the previous objects in her bag. Using
some of the money, which she had also stolen from the safe, Rani booked a trip to Maldives. When she had gone
away on a trip to Maldives, the police came and searched her house to look for the stolen objects. The police
also questioned the witnesses, that is, her neighbours about her character as well as what she was doing on the
day of the theft. Rani contends that this act of the police is illegal. Decide on the basis on the passage.
(a) No, because an accused has a right to be present at his trial for the meaningful exercise of his right to defense
(b) No, because evidence must be recorded in the presence of the accused in case of a criminal offence
2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
(c) Yes, because Rani has not an absconded so evidence cannot be recorded without her presence
(d) Yes, because the Code does provide for a situation where the evidence may be recorded in the absence of
the accused
63. In the previous question, Rani had gone for a trip. Assume that instead of going for a trip, after the robbery, she
quickly packed up her things and left the country without telling anyone, to hide in Maldives while the situation
subsided. In this situation, the police collected evidence in her absence by questioning her neighbours. Is this
legal on the part of the police?
(a) Yes, because Rani is an absconded so evidence can be recorded in her absence
(b) Yes, because law allows the police to conduct a trial in absentia
(c) No, because Rani has merely left the country and this cannot be termed as 'absconding'
(d) No, because there is no legal provision which allows the police to conduct a trial in absentia
64. After the police collected enough evidence against Rani, the state presented the same before the court and the
matter was listed for final arguments. However, Rani is still not to be found anywhere in the country. Several
notices have been posted to her but she has failed to appear in court. A simple open and shut case is unnecessarily
(a) Yes, because she has waived her right to trial by way of abscondence
c m
being delayed because of Rani's absence. In this situation, can the trial be conducted without Rani?
o
(b) Yes, because Section 299 is an enabling provision that attempts to provide a solution in the form of evidence
in absentia
rs
(c) No, because the law on conducting a trial in the absence of an accused is incomplete
.
(d) No, because the personal appearance of Rani has not been dispensed with, by the Court
k e
Passage (Q.65-Q.69): Our Constitution, while guaranteeing the freedom of speech and expression, places
“reasonable restrictions” on this basic human right. Before 2015, as per Section 66A of Information Technology
n
Act, 2000 (IT Act), anyone who posted material that was grossly offensive, inconvenient, injurious, menacing
a
in character or insulting, could be imprisoned for up to three years. This draconian provision was struck down
r
by India’s Supreme Court in 2015 for being violative of the constitutionally guaranteed right of free speech and
p
4H1H 4I3H2H2J
expression in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India. The court also
tr-5B absolved content hosting platforms like search
o
engines and social media websites from constantly monitoring their platforms for illegal content, enhancing
existing safe-harbour protection (legal protection given to internet companies for content posted by their
T
users).The court made it clear that only authorised government agencies and the judiciary could legitimately
request internet platforms to take down content.
The Union Ministry of Electronics

tr-5Q4L1Tand
4S3PInformation
2P2U Technology then released the amendment to guidelines under
the Information Technology Act, to tackle the menace of “fake news” and reduce the flow of obscene and illegal
content on social media. It seeks to mandate the use of “automated filters” for content takedowns on internet
platforms and requires them to trace the originator of that information on their services. Apart from state
authorities, content sharing and social media companies take down content in tandem with their community
standards and terms and conditions. This is often arbitrary and inconsistent.
We believe that such government regulation undermines free speech and privacy rights of Indians in the online
world, while promoting private censorship by companies. It is suggested that tech-companies must re-think their
internal policies to ensure that self-initiated content takedowns are not arbitrary and users have a right to voice
their concerns. Government agencies should work 4S with2P2U
internet platforms to educate users in identifying
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disinformation to check its spread. The government should adhere to constitutionally mandated principles and
conduct multi-stakeholder consultations before drafting internet policy to safeguard the varying interests of
interested parties.
65. WhatsApp is an internationally available freeware, cross-platform, centralized instant messaging and voice-over-
IP service owned by American company Meta Platforms. It allows users to send text and voice messages, make
voice and video calls, and share images, documents, user locations, and other content. Mihika is the administrator
of a WhatsApp group called "Chitty Chats," which has ten members who have formed a secret group to continue
the college gossip. Malini, a group member, sent a video of a girl showering that she had gotten from a friend.
Instead of removing and reporting the content, the users spread it in other groups as well. What will be the
liability of the social media platform in the present case in pre Shreya singhal regime for the content posted by
their user:
(a) The social media intermediary will be held accountable under Section 66A of the IT Act for failing to remove
the obscene content.
(b) The social media intermediary will be protected under the safe harbor policy.
(c) Because the social media intermediary is in charge of content regularisation, it will be held accountable.
66.
c m
(d) The user, not the company, shall be held responsible for the content posted and shared online by its user.
o
What will be liability of Malini in the present case pre Shreya Singhal regime for the obscene content posted and
later shared with others?
rs .
(a) Yes, Malini would face criminal charges under Section 66A of the IT Act for posting and sharing
inappropriate content.
unconstitutional.
(c) Yes, Malini might face punishment for sharing obscene and insulting content.
k e
(b) No, Malini could not be penalized under Section 66A of the IT Act since it has been declared
user.
r an
(d) No, Malini could not be penalized since she received the content from another user. The liability lies on that
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67. tr-5B4Huploaded
Malini, a social media influencer with millions of followers, a video on her profile. It is about the
o
situation in rural India about female hygiene during menstruation. The funds dedicated to women and child
development are being mishandled, as evidenced by the fact that nearly three out of every five women die from
T
diseases connected to menstruation. She shared a video in which she criticized the administration and tagged
other female influencers to join her in her fight against the government. In accordance with internal policy, the
social media platform removed the post and prohibited any other user from posting identical information. Decide.
(a) It is arbitrary and unconstitutional
justification.
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P for the social media platform to remove content without providing a
2P2U
(b) The social media platform has the ability to delete the content, albeit this is believed to be arbitrary and
inconsistent.
(c) The government, not the social media platform, might legitimately request that information be removed off
the internet.
(d) Malini's video was a dissent against the system, and removing it arbitrarily is a violation of her fundamental
right to free expression.
68. Choose an incorrect statement in light of the information given in the passage:
(a) Despite Shreya Singhal, state authorities continued their
2P2U use of Section 66A and other legal provisions to
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
curb online speech.
(b) It is believed that that government regulation such as the draft amendment to the rules that regulate platform
liability undermines free speech and privacy rights of Indians in the online world, while promoting private
censorship by companies.
(c) Content hosting platforms must maintain transparency while taking down user content.
(d) The amendment rules allows for the social media intermediary to remove user content.
69. A journalist named Barkha’s account was blocked by a social media platform Jwitter, and its primary purpose is
to connect people and allow people to share their thoughts with a big audience. The account was blocked after
she posted personal details of people who were sending her rape threats and obscene pictures. While blocking
her account, Jwitter failed to takedown the obscene content directed at Barkha by its other users. Choose a correct
statement:
(a) Jwitter has an obligation not only to prohibit the user in accordance with its community rules, but also to
delete the obscene content directed against Barkha by its other users.
(b) The social media intermediary disabled the user account appropriately because she shared personal
information about those who were sending her rape threats and obscene photographs.
(c) The social media account should not have removed the obscene information posted by its other user rather
completely blocked Barkha's account.
(d) Instead of blocking the user's account, the social media intermediary could have deleted or removed the
obscene posts that violated its community standards.
c o m
Passage (Q.70-Q.74): Remarks, speeches, illustrations and social media comments made by individuals have
rs .
on several occasions resulted in accusations of being in ‘contempt of court’. These, however, do not always
hold and are dismissed by the Attorney General of India, whose prior consent is required for the Supreme Court
to initiate criminal contempt action. So what really does the law say about contempt of court? When is one guilty
k e
of it? According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, contempt of court can either be civil contempt or criminal
contempt. Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other
process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. On the other hand, criminal contempt
n
means the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or
a
otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which (i) scandalizes or tends to scandalize,
r
or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or (ii) Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with,
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the due course of any judicial proceeding; or (iii) Interferes or1Htends
tr-5B4H to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to
o
obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner. A contempt of court may be punished with simple
imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees,
T
or with both, provided that the accused may be discharged or the punishment awarded may be remitted on
apology being made to the satisfaction of the court. According to the Supreme court bar association v. Union of
India (1995), the object of punishment is both curative and corrective and these coercions are meant to assist an
individual complainant to enforce
tr-5Q4L1This
4S3Premedy
2P2U and there is also an element of public policy for punishing civil
contempt since the administration of justice would be undermined if the order of any court of law is to be
disregarded with impunity.
(Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/what-is/what-is-contempt-of-court-7048008/ )
70. What is the difference between civil contempt and criminal contempt according to the Contempt of Courts Act,
1971 in India?
(a) Civil contempt is the publication of any matter that lowers the authority of the court, while criminal contempt
means wilful disobedience to any judgment or order of the court.
(b) Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of
a court, while criminal contempt is the interference or2Pobstruction
2U of the administration of justice.
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
(c) Civil contempt and criminal contempt are the same thing, and the difference is only in the punishment
awarded.
(d) Civil contempt is the willful disobedience or obstruction of the administration of justice, while criminal
contempt means the publication of any matter that scandalizes or tends to lower the authority of the court, or
prejudices the due course of any judicial proceeding.
71. W did not repay the loan to the company that provided it to him. The loan company filed a complaint against
him, and his attorney L asked the trial court not to demand him to provide any security as a surety. W appealed
to the High Court after the trial court ordered him to provide security. When the judge asked L to state under
which Section the trial court issued the order, L became enraged and threatened the judge with impeachment or
transfer because any judge who has cross-examined him has always been impeached. The judge charged
him with contempt of court. Decide.
(a) W shall not be held liable for contempt of court because he was a senior advocate and questioning him would
tarnish his reputation among junior advocates.
(b) W will be held in contempt of court because he attempted to obstruct the administration of justice.
(c) If W can prove that what he said was true, he will not be held in contempt of court.
(d) W will be held in contempt of court because he did not follow the trial court's decision.
72.
c o m
For making fun of the judiciary and publishing an article about it in the national newspaper, H was found in
contempt of court. He did, however, formally apologize to the court for his behavior and make a commitment to
never again perform such an act. In the newspaper, he also published an apology, in which he claimed that
correct option w.r.t the court's authority in taking such an action.
rs .
everything he had written was inaccurate and inappropriate. The court did not punish him as a result. Choose the
(a) Because each contemnor must be treated equally, the court is not permitted to act in this manner.
one court does not have the authority to overturn the punishment.
k e
(b) The court lacks the authority to do so because the country's entire judicial system was made fun of, and only
(c) The contemnor must submit an appropriate apology before the court can decide whether or not to impose
any punishment.
an
(d) Depending on the particulars of each case, the court may choose not to impose any punishment.
r
p
2H2J
1H4I3H as a witness. On April 20, he received
73. In the dispute between JMD Agarbatti and V.P. Singh,tr-5B Y4Hserved
o
summon from the court. He knowingly did not show up for the session. As a result of his absence, the proceedings
were adjourned. On June 29, he received a new summon from court. He missed the proceeding for the second
T
time. He received a show-cause notice asking him to explain why contempt charges should not be brought against
him. Analyze his behavior to see if he has shown any contempt.
(a) Due to his disregard for the court's instructions, Y will be held accountable for civil contempt
(b) Y shall not be held liabletr-for
so.
5Q4Lcontempt
1T4S3P2P2Uof court because he must have had a reasonable justification for doing
(c) Y shall be held in contempt of court because the proceedings were adjourned due to his non-appearance.
(d) The information provided in the passage is insufficient to determine whether Y has shown contempt.
74. X was K's legal counsel. K was the defendant in the trial that was being held against him, and he was asked to
appear in court. K was asked by X not to appear in court on the grounds of a medical emergency because X had
no convincing evidence of K's innocence. He continued to do this for six months. When the court learned about
this later, it found him guilty of contempt. Identify X's responsibility.
(a) K must be held accountable rather than X, who shall not be held responsible.
(b) If X can demonstrate that K's failure to show up was due
2P2Uto a medical emergency, none of them will be held
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
accountable.
(c) X won't be held accountable if he informed the court of K's medical condition and his non-appearance in
advance.
(d) X will be held accountable because he obstructed the execution of justice and the legal proceedings.
Passage (Q.75-Q.79): An executive magistrate in Srinagar has sent 11 men to jail after they were detained for
allegedly not rising for the National Anthem at an event on June 25 where J&K Lt Governor Manoj Sinha was
present. The order noted that “there is every likelihood that they may commit breach of peace and disturb public
tranquillity if released.” Section 107 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 allows an Executive Magistrate
to ask any person who is “likely to commit a breach of the peace or disturb the public tranquillity or to do any
wrongful act that may probably occasion a breach of the peace or disturb the public tranquillity to show cause
why he should not be ordered to execute a bond for keeping the peace”. Section 151 CrPC allows a police officer
who knows of a design to commit a cognizable offence to “arrest, without orders from a Magistrate and without
a warrant, the person so designing”. The court granted protection to three children belonging to the millenarian
Christian sect Jehovah’s Witnesses, who did not join in the singing of the National Anthem at their school. The
court held that forcing them to sing the Anthem violated their fundamental right to religion under Article 25 of
the Constitution. The children, siblings named Bijoe Emmanuel, Binu, and Bindu, who were students of Classes
10, 9, and 5 respectively, were expelled from NSS High School, run by the Hindu organization Nair Service
o m
Society, on July 26, 1985. In its August 11, 1986, judgment, the Supreme Court said that “Article 25 (“Freedom
c
of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion”) incorporated in recognition of the
rs .
principle that the real test of a true democracy is the ability of even an insignificant minority to find its identity
under the country’s Constitution.” Standing up respectfully when the National Anthem is sung — as the children
had done — but not singing oneself “does not either prevent the singing of the National Anthem or cause
e
disturbance to an assembly engaged in such singing so as to constitute the offence [under] the Prevention of
Insults to National Honor Act, [1971],” the court said. Section 3 of the Act prescribes jail up to three years and/
k
or a fine for “intentionally preventing the singing of the National Anthem or causing disturbance to any assembly
engaged in such singing”.
an
(Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/standing-up-for-national-anthem-what-the-
supreme-court-has-ruled-8812737/ )
r
p
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tr-5B4H1H4I3H
o
75. What legal provisions were used by the Executive Magistrate to detain 11 men in Srinagar for allegedly not
rising during the National Anthem event, and what justification did the order provide for sending them to jail?
sending them to jail.

T
(a) The Executive Magistrate used Section 151 of the CrPC to arrest the men for alleged disturbance of public
tranquillity, and the order cited Section 3 of the Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act as the basis for
(b) The Executive Magistrate invoked

tr-5Q 4L1T4S3PSection
2P2U 107 of the CrPC, asking the men to show cause for not executing
a bond to keep peace, and the order stated that there was a likelihood of them committing a breach of peace
if released.
(c) The Executive Magistrate utilized Section 151 of the CrPC to arrest the men for disrespecting the National
Anthem, and the order cited Section 25 of the Constitution as the basis for sending them to jail.
(d) The Executive Magistrate employed Section 107 of the CrPC, ordering the men to show cause for not singing
the National Anthem, and the order stated that their refusal to sing violated Article 151 of the Constitution.
76. H and T were married five years ago. Since they were experiencing several internal issues, they had no children
of their own until recently. H had previously been married. In the previous marriage, his wife killed herself. Even
at this point, H was accused of deliberately inducing his
2P2U wife's death in order to obtain dowry, which is
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
considered to be a cognizable offence. When certain proof was established to be against him, he was put into
custody right away. However, the police failed to produce an arrest warrant and did not secure the necessary
order from the magistrate. Applying the passage as a guide, determine whether H's arrest was legitimate.
(a) H was rightfully detained because he had even earlier been responsible for the death of his first wife.
(b) H. cannot be detained until there is concrete proof against him.
(c) The arrest of H under Section 151 was not justified as Section 151 applies in the cases where the offence
will happen in future and not on past acts.
(d) Since no arrest warrant was presented by the police at the time of H's detention, his arrest cannot be justified.
77. V practiced the XYZ religion. After receiving his master's degree from Germany, he just relocated to India. He
went to see the parade because it was Republic Day on that particular day. The entire audience sang the national
anthem while standing still in respect of the flag. Even V saluted the tricolour while standing up, but because he
followed XYZ faith, he did not sing the national anthem. He was instantly taken into custody by the police after
they discovered him flouting the rules. Identify whether or not he received appropriate treatment in this situation.
Give relevant justifications for your decision as well.
(a) In accordance with Section 3 of the Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act, V should spend three years
in prison.
(b) V was properly arrested, and he ought to be asked to show cause why no legal action should be taken against
him.
(c) Since V didn't do anything to insult or undermine the national anthem, he shouldn't be detained.
(d) There is insufficient information in the passage to decide whether V's imprisonment is legal.
78.
c o m
F intended to go to the movies with his friends. Within two minutes of him entering the theatre, the national
anthem had already started. To sing along with the anthem, the entire audience rose to their feet. F mistakenly
stumbled as he was about to reach for his seat, interfering with the singing of the national anthem by the crowd.
rs .
He was detained right away under Section 3 of the Act for intentionally disrupting with the singing of the
National Anthem and disturbing the crowd who was doing so. Determine the accuracy of his arrest using the
passage as a point of reference.
k e
(a) Since F did not purposefully interrupt the audience, he shouldn't have been detained.
(b) F was appropriately detained as a result of his act disturbing and interrupting other audience members.
(c) Since it is not required that everyone sing the national anthem, F shouldn't be detained.
79.
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(d) F was appropriately detained because he disgraced and disrespected the national anthem.
a
W visited a swimming school near to his home to take swimming lessons. In the institution, it was customary to
p
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5B4H1H4I3H2H
start each session by singing the national song. W didn'ttr-participate in the singing because he wasn't familiar
o
with the national song, instead choosing to simply stand and observe. On that day, he was instructed to learn the
national anthem before the next session. He once more failed to learn it, nevertheless. He was imprisoned for
T
disrespecting the national anthem. Assess the accuracy of his arrest. Justify your response using the relevant
logic.
(a) Since W was still a minor child, he shouldn't have been arrested.
(b) W ought to be detained tr-
because
5Q4L1T4She had
3P2P2U enough time to memorize the national song.
(c) In order to punish W for his lack of cooperation, he should serve two years in prison.
(d) It violates W's fundamental right to freedom of religion under Article 25 to make him sing the national
anthem.
Passage (Q.80-Q.84): The Kerala High Court has reiterated that no State government employee, worker, or
association has the legal right to call for a general strike or instigate the employees to strike, in the guise of the
fundamental right of freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by the Constitution. A Division Bench of
the court comprising Chief Justice S. Manikumar and Justice Shaji P. Chaly recapitulated its earlier position on
the strike by government employees in a petition moved by S. Chandrachooden Nair of Thiruvananthapuram
to declare the two-day national strike held on March4S28 2Pand
2U 29, 2022 as unconstitutional. The court made it
tr-5Q4L1T 3P
clear that the provisions of Kerala Service Rules, as well as the notifications issued by the State government,
had concluded that the participation of any government employee in a strike, in violation of the provisions of
the Government Servants’ Conduct Rules, 1960, affecting the normal life of the public and public exchequer,
was not protected by the Constitution. The State government informed the court that 1, 72,668 employees had
struck work on March 28 and 1, 62,354 on March 29. There are 4, 65,867 employees in the government service.
The salary of 1, 68,598 employees was withheld for striking work on March 28 and that of 1, 29,209 employees
on March 29. The State also said that disciplinary action was taken against 24 employees, who were absent on
March 28 and against four for being absent on March 29. The court took note of the government statement on
the steps being taken against the workers/government employees, who had participated in the strike. The State
also indicated that steps were being taken to identify the workers/employees who had taken leave for
participating in the strike. The Bench disposed off the petition by taking note of the steps taken by the
government against the employees who went on strike. The court said it would issue a direction to the State
government to proceed against the erring workers/employees who had acted against the Kerala Service Rules
and other conduct rules and circulars issued by the State government.
(Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/no-constitutional-protection-for-state-govt-employees-
participating-in-a-general-strike-rules-kerala-hc/article66342679.ece )
80. According to the passage, what was the stance of the Kerala High Court regarding the participation of
government employees in a strike?
(a) Government employees have the legal right to call for a general strike as per the Constitution.
(b) Government employees can participate in a strike without violating the Government Servants’ Conduct
Rules.
and Conduct Rules.
c m
(c) Government employees are prohibited from participating in a strike as it violates the Kerala Service Rules
o
(d) Government employees can participate in a strike only if it does not affect the normal life of the public and
81.
public exchequer.
rs .
R was a PCW Pvt Ltd employee. He'd been there for the past seventeen years. Workers who were newly hired
k e
were paid more than those who were more experienced. R had only had a 5% rise in the last seventeen years, but
he never complained because he needed a job. He and five other employees went on strike and did not show up
to work on the day a foreign client was scheduled to visit. The corporation suffered enormous losses as a result
employees' strike is legitimate.
r n
of this, and the State Government deemed the act illegal. Read the passage and decide whether or not the
a
(a) Employees' strike cannot be considered legal because the state government has already ruled such strikes
p
2H2J
illegal. tr-5B4H1H4I3H
o
(b) Employees' strike is valid since the conditions that would cause the State Government to declare the strike
illegal have not been met.
82.
T
(c) Employees' strike will be considered illegal because it has caused significant financial harm to the company.
(d) Since a strike represents free speech and expression, it shall not be ruled criminal.
Q worked for the government.tr-5QDue to3Pthe

4L1T4S 2P2Ubudget deficit, the government did not pay its employees' salaries. Q
had a monthly salary of Rs. 80,000 but had only received Rs. 30,000 for the previous eight months. Even
throughout the budget shortfall, the majority of the other employees were paid in full. This prompted Q, who,
along with other staff, went on strike. Determine whether their actions can be contested by the government. (M)
(a) The Government cannot contest their actions because they were biased towards specific employees.
(b) The government can contest their decision because it would result in losses for the government agency.
(c) The government cannot challenge their actions because they were not paid even half of what they were owed.
(d) The government can contest their action because strikes by such personnel are expressly outlawed.
83. The government reduced staff compensation significantly without providing any justification. They additionally
fired a number of XYZ caste employees. This was deemed 2P2Udiscriminating and partial. Z was a member of the
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
community that received the highest pay in the department. However, his friend Q, who belonged to the XYZ
community, got fired from his work and was not paid for the past couple of months. As a result, Z advised Q to
strike alongside all other employees from the same community. Determine what happens if Q is swayed by Z's
advice.
(a) If Z causes Q to go on strike, the state government can take specified actions.
(b) The government cannot limit this freedom because a strike is a form of speech and expression.
(c) Because they were at fault for the discrimination, the state government should not take any action.
(d) This passage contains inadequate information to establish the implications of such an action.
84. Y worked for R.K Enterprises pvt ltd. He and other staff engaged in serious fraud through tampering with the
company's accounts. He had been doing so for the last eight years and had stolen crores of rupees. He had worked
for the company for thirty years, so no one ever questioned his integrity. When the truth was out, he was fired
and a lawsuit was filed against him. To prevent this, he went on strike after inciting numerous employees to do
so. Find out if the state government has any say in the situation.
(a) Because this is a company-sensitive topic, the state government has no voice in the matter.
(b) The state administration will take measures against all employees who go on strike.
(c) Employees' strike is valid since the conditions that would cause the State Government to declare the strike
illegal have not been met.
(d) Employees' strike cannot be considered legal because the state government has already ruled such strikes
illegal.
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
p
2H2J
tr-5B4H1H4I3H
To tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U
2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): When Van Gogh looked up at the night sky, he saw beauty; Galileo saw a mystery and
seers and shamans saw the future and, sometimes, their own past and ancestors. Soon, though — enamoured as
humanity is with cities and screens — the pinpricks of light in the shroud of darkness may be unavailable and
the constellations visible only to the rich or famous who can afford private space flights on billionaires’ pet
projects. A recent report by the German Centre of Geosciences has flagged once again — in 2020, a group of
UK MPs called for a “minister of the dark sky” — the grave dangers to “starry, starry nights”.
At the current rate of light pollution, scientists have predicted, most major constellations will not be visible in
the night sky in 20 years. From screens to buildings, LEDs and other sources of light have increased light
animals who navigate by the stars. It can also have consequences for human health.
c m
pollution exponentially. Apart from obliterating the view of the night sky, light pollution will also affect several
o
Perhaps, in the age of countless images and algorithms, the dark around, the splendour of the Morning Star, of
rs .
the Hunter and the Bear hold little value. Yet, in the deeper sense, all the “content” we consume is inward-
looking, so often designed to sell our data and attention. Content does not spark a sense of wonder, either at the
“final frontier” of science fiction writers, or the stories told around the fire-side by the ancients. And, who knows
k e
what new tales can be told, leaps of imagination of the lives and worlds yet unexplored light years away. It’s
important not to be blinded to the potential of those stories by the bright city lights. A little more darkness, in
fact, might be illuminating.
85.
r an
Based on the passage, which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments?
(a) City life and modern technology have no significant impact on the visibility of stars.
p
4I3H2H2J
4H1Hstudy
(b) Scientists have not been able to find a way to observe and
tr-5B events in the universe in presence of so
o
much of light.
(c) If given an opportunity, some people would sit in the dark and indulge in aesthetic appreciation of the night
86.
sky.
T
(d) There is no evidence that light pollution has a detrimental effect on human health.
Based on the passage, whichtr-5Q

of4L
the following,
1T4S3P2P2U if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
(a) A significant decrease in light pollution was recorded in cities that adopted policies to limit the use of
artificial lights.
(b) Most animals, even those reported to navigate by the stars, have shown resilience and adaptability to light
pollution.
(c) Public awareness and interest in the celestial bodies and constellations have been on the rise in recent years.
(d) Technological advances have enabled people to observe celestial bodies and constellations without the need
for a dark sky.
87. Based on the specifics detailed in the passage, which of the following statements is most accurate?
(a) The German Centre of Geosciences report is the first-ever attempt to bring attention to the issues of light
pollution. 2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
(b) Light pollution has been projected to obliterate all celestial bodies, including minor constellations, from the
night sky in 20 years.
(c) The author suggests that the abundance of digital content prevents humans from being inspired by celestial
bodies and constellations.
(d) The author explicitly encourages governments to invest more resources into space exploration to counteract
the impact of light pollution.
88. Based on the passage, which of the following can be most accurately inferred?
(a) The author supports the development of private space flights for everyone to appreciate the night sky.
(b) Light pollution is the only environmental problem affecting animal navigation.
(c) The author believes that the problem of light pollution can be solved entirely by switching off screens and
LEDs.
(d) The author suggests that exposure to natural darkness and the night sky can encourage imagination and
creativity.
89. Which of the following can be answered on the basis of information in the passage?
(a) How darkness is perceived today as compared to how it was perceived during the earlier times?
(b) How has technology affected day-to-day life of humans in the presence of darkness?
(c) What is the impact of light on the day-to-day life of humans enchanted by technology?
m
(d) What is the impact of light on the quality of ability of humans to tell fictional stories?
90.
(a) By arguing that darkness allows us to escape from the monotony of urban life.
.c o
Based on the passage, how does the author resolve the paradox that more darkness could be more illuminating?
rs
(b) By suggesting that darkness improves our physical vision and makes us see better.
(c) By implying that the darkness of the night sky, free from light pollution, allows us to witness the beauty and
wonder of the universe.
e
(d) By stating that humans have an innate fear of darkness that needs to be overcome.
k
n
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): The U.S. is close to breaching its $31.4 trillion debt ceiling, the government-imposed
a
limit on the total funds it can borrow to pay for existing legal obligations including interest on national debt,
r
military salaries tax refunds and Medicare and Social Security. A breach, should it happen by the June 1 deadline,
risks an economic debacle that could lead to a credit rating downgrade,
2H2J with the knock-on effect of soaring
p
tr-5B4H1H4I3H
interest rates and tanking stock markets. This in turn would have a deleterious impact on retirement and savings
o
accounts, the pace of business activity, and therefore on employment. With the global economy limping out of
T
the COVID-19 recession scenario, a U.S. federal government debt default would represent a shock to the
financial system and a still-fragile recovery across many economies may be compromised. Matters could worsen
if the U.S. federal government goes into its 22nd shutdown and government employees are laid-off. In an attempt
to coax lawmakers into cooperation and2Phammer
House put out its calculations 4L1T4S3P 2U
tr-5Qof
out an agreement to raise or suspend the debt ceiling, the White
the damage that would result: 8.3 million jobs lost, 6.1% drop in annualised
growth of real GDP, and unemployment at 5%.
At the heart of this fiscal quagmire is a lack of bipartisan consensus on how to avoid repeating cycles of national
economic stress stemming from the debt ceiling itself. Some analysts observe that the ceiling is a useful device
for the U.S. government to tie its own hands and submit to a credible commitment to limit public spending,
especially as it requires legislative consent, and with it, some congressional oversight authority. Others argue
that the ceiling is an “antiquated mechanism” that places unwarranted restrictions on robust fiscal policy,
including on the need to meet previously legislated fiscal obligations. Either way, the deeper reason to worry
about the debt ceiling bringing the economy to the “point of default every few years” is that the ceiling readily
serves as a political tool for the opposition party 2P2U
tr-5Qto gain
4L1T 4S3Pleverage over the fiscal priorities of the administration
and hobble its plan to deliver on campaign promises. A major debt payment is due on June 15. The government
could make do with the ever-shrinking fiscal wiggle room until then. However, House of Representatives
Speaker Kevin McCarthy, a Republican, would be wise to realise that putting partisan goals and personal
popularity ahead of the greater good will not be something that the American middle class will forgive easily in
the 2024 presidential election, especially if this brinkmanship ends up causing a painfully intractable economic
crisis.
91. The statement “Some analysts observe that the ceiling is a useful device for the U.S. government to tie its own
hands and submit to a credible commitment to limit public spending, especially as it requires legislative consent,
and with it, some congressional oversight authority” assumes that
(a) In absence of debt ceiling, the administration will make spending decisions on the expected lines.
(b) The current public spending by the administration hasn’t been on the expected lines.
(c) In absence of debt ceiling, the public-spending decisions by the administration may become questionable.
(d) The opposition authority over the administration is for the benefit of the administration.
92. Which of the following situations is most similar to the political dynamics described between the opposition
party and its use of the debt ceiling as a leveraging tool?
(a) A board of directors using company profits to dictate company policies.
(b) A junior sports team coach using team selection to influence club decisions.
(c) Opposition in a parliament using a budget proposal to negotiate policies.
m
(d) A department head withholding project approval until their conditions are met.
93.
.c o
Which of the following is assumed by the author while suggesting “House of Representatives Speaker Kevin
McCarthy, a Republican, would be wise to realise that putting partisan goals and personal popularity ahead of
rs
the greater good will not be something that the American middle class will forgive easily in the 2024 presidential
election, especially if this brinkmanship ends up causing a painfully intractable economic crisis”
(a) The middle class values fiscal responsibility over partisan politics.
(b) Election outcomes are primarily determined by the middle class's sentiment.
(c) Economic downturns have a significant impact on the middle class's livelihood.
k e
n
(d) The middle class closely follows political decisions regarding the debt ceiling.
94.
r a
Which of the following can be concluded from the information present in the passage?
(a) The debt ceiling is an ineffective mechanism as it hastr-no
authority.
p
impact on2Jfiscal policy or congressional oversight
5B4H1H4I3H2H
of the White House.
To
(b) The U.S. debt ceiling, irrespective of its criticisms, acts as a political tool leveraged by the party not in control
(c) The potential breach of the U.S. debt ceiling poses no major threat to the global economy or financial system.
(d) The majority of analysts unequivocally support the existence of the debt ceiling due to its role in limiting
public spending. 2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
95. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following inferences can be reasonably made?
(a) The author believes that the debt ceiling is an ineffective tool for fiscal responsibility.
(b) Kevin McCarthy, the House Speaker, is not intentionally pushing the country toward an economic crisis for
political gains.
(c) The author assumes that a rise or suspension of the debt ceiling would eliminate all risks of economic crises.
(d) The author infers that using the debt ceiling as a political tool has potential to harm the economy.
96. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) The debt ceiling serves as a useful tool for limiting public spending and maintaining fiscal responsibility.
(b) The lack of bipartisan consensus contributestr-5Qto 1T4S3P2P2U cycles of national economic stress stemming from
4Lrepeating
the debt ceiling.
(c) If the U.S. federal government goes into a shutdown, it could exacerbate the economic consequences of a
debt ceiling breach.
(d) Using the debt ceiling as a political tool poses no significant risk to the U.S. economy.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): As far as pushing the limits of human endurance and achievement is concerned, Pasang
Dawa Sherpa and Kami Rita Sherpa were already straddling the extremes. The two are mountaineers, guides and
friends who have been working the Everest trail for the better part of their lives. As their careers wind down —
Pasang is 46 years old and Kami 53 — they are locked in a race to break the record for the most number of
ascents to the world’s highest peak. On May 14, Pasang tied Kami’s record and climbed the Mountain for the
26th time. The next day, his rival did it again. Then, merely a week later, both men surpassed each other once
again — Kami is now in the lead with 28 summits. The current season (from April to June) will end soon, and it
is anybody’s guess who will hold the record at its close.
Kami and Pasang are locked in a dangerous race: The sheer number of gruelling climbs in so short a time carries
grave risks. The Everest climb, even under normal circumstances, is perilous: This season alone, 11 people have
died on the trail. So, why do they do it? Some seek to find the answer in the rewards offered by mountaineering
arguments miss the heart of the matter. They do not hear the call of the mountain.
c o m
associations and companies for the person who holds the record. Others believe it is a matter of ego. But these
rs .
Most people, when confronted with the awe-inspiring scale of nature — the ocean, great mountains, the desert
— feel dwarfed, even insignificant. But there are those who have to climb the world’s tallest mountain “because
it’s there”. Kami and Pasang have been on top of the world, multiple times: The Mountain holds no surprises,
97. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?
k e
the peak has been underfoot. The only competition that remains is a test of the human spirit.
n
(a) Pasang Dawa Sherpa and Kami Rita Sherpa showing their extreme sides are locked in a race to break the
a
record for the most number of climbs to Mount Everest.
r
(b) Competing in a race to climb Mount Everest multiple times can be dangerous as climbing the peak even
p
2H2J
under normal circumstances is difficult. tr-5B4H1H4I3H
o
(c) The two sherpas trying to break the record for the most number of ascents to Mount Everest are driven by
their inner calling and the desire to test the human spirit.
98.
climbing Mount Everest?
T
(d) In a bid to show the nature dwarf and insignificant, the two sherpas are locked in race to break the record for
the most number of climbs to Mount Everest.
Based on the passage, whichtr-of

5Qthe
4L1Tfollowing
4S3P2P2U can be inferred about Kami and Pasang's motivations for repeatedly
(a) Kami and Pasang are motivated primarily by the material rewards offered by mountaineering associations
and companies.
(b) The primary driving force for Kami and Pasang is a test of ego, where they are driven by pride and the desire
for recognition.
(c) Kami and Pasang are driven to climb Mount Everest because they are searching for unknown aspects of the
mountain that have yet to be discovered.
(d) The fundamental motivation behind Kami and Pasang's numerous ascents can be attributed to their
connection with the mountain and a deep-seated desire to challenge the human spirit.
tr-5Q 4L1T4S3P2P2U
99. Which of the following statements would, if true, most directly challenge the assertion that “The mountain holds
no surprises” for Kami and Pasang?
(a) Kami and Pasang took a newly discovered route on their 27th ascent.
(b) The duo encountered an unexpected snowstorm during their most recent climb.
(c) Kami mentioned in an interview about revisiting certain terrains to re-familiarize.
(d) Pasang recently undertook a training for a specific Everest zone's harsh conditions.
100. Based on the passage, which of the following is an assumption underlying the claim that for Kami and Pasang,
"The only competition that remains is a test of the human spirit"?
(a) Both climbers have surpassed all other forms of competitive challenges on Everest.
(b) External rewards or recognitions are not the motivators for their ascents anymore.
(c) Kami and Pasang are equally skilled and experienced, making external challenges negligible.
(d) Their numerous climbs signify that the physical challenges of Everest have been overcome.
101. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument that Kami and Pasang are primarily
motivated by a spiritual connection to the mountain and the challenge it presents to the human spirit?
(a) Major sporting brands have them onboard as brand representatives because of their eminence in the
mountaineering world
(b) Kami and Pasang signed more than half of their brand association contracts after they started frequent
climbing to Mount Everest.
o m
(c) Their love for nature and calling from mountains are the primary motivators for climbing Mount Everest
frequently.
c
rs .
(d) Other climbers get inspiration from the two sherpas after they started frequent climbing to Mount Everest.
102. If you were advising a mountaineering association considering rewarding climbers for their ascents, what
information from the passage would suggest caution in this approach?
(a) The record for most ascents to Everest is held by Kami and Pasang.
k e
(b) The current climbing season ends in June and the record-holder at its close is uncertain.
an
(c) Kami and Pasang continue to surpass each other's climbing records.
(d) The Everest climb carries grave risks, and in a single season alone, 11 people have died on the trail.
r
p
4H1H4I3H 2H2J
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): The lack of stable employment opportunities
tr-5B offering a reasonable income and a
o
modicum of security can be identified as the single most important challenge facing the Indian economy. If this
issue could be adequately resolved, then the associated problems of poverty, insecurity, crime, and a host of
T
other social problems could be dramatically reduced. The data on unemployment — its measures, its incidence,
and its different forms — become extremely important for policymakers in this context. However, during the
past seven or eight years, the quality of the data on unemployment has become contentious. The deterioration in
the quality of official Indiantr-economic statistics
5Q4L1T4S3P2P
2U as well as the reliability of what is available has been part of a
bigger problem of the government not willing to face unpleasant realities. The unemployment figures measured
by official sources are available from the PLFS (Periodic Labour Force Survey). These statistics show an
improvement in unemployment rates in recent times. The rate of unemployment was measured at around 4.1%
in March 2022, down from 4.2% in March 2021. On the other hand, the most well-known non-government
source of data on the Indian economy is available from the CMIE (Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy).
According to the CMIE, unemployment in India in May 2022 was 7.14%; the figure has increased to 8.11% in
April 2023. The trends for and the levels of unemployment are quite different in the two measures.
One reason for the variation in estimates stems from the way employment is defined. The PLFS defines activity
as employment. Hence, if a person has been engaged 4S in an activity for the better part of 365 days preceding the
2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T 3P
survey, the activity is taken as primary. If the respondent engaged in some additional activity during the 30 days
preceding the survey, then the activity is taken as secondary. There is no direct reference to income. The estimate
of the unemployment rate turns out to be lower because this methodology includes unpaid work, such as women’s
work in a household, as gainful employment. On the other hand, the CMIE estimates, keeping to more accepted
international norms, treat employment only as some form of paid activity. One cannot be gainfully employed
without receiving a remuneration. The PLFS methodology reveals the attitude of the government. It reduces the
importance of increasing women’s labour force participation rate by treating women engaged in household work
as already employed. It also shows that the government is unwilling to face the unemployment problem squarely.
This is unwarranted and worrying.
103. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments?"
(a) The PLFS unemployment figures have been validated by an independent, internationally recognized
statistical body.
(b) The Government has initiated new measures to improve the quality of data on unemployment.
(c) A survey found that a substantial number of women engaged in household work are willing to join the paid
workforce if given opportunities.
(d) The Government has announced a new scheme to provide subsidies to companies that hire new employees.
104. The author implies that the quality of official Indian economic statistics has deteriorated in recent years. What
would be the most direct consequence if another official report contradicted this claim?
(a) The validity of the author's stance on PLFS methodology would be discredited.
(b) The reliability of all official Indian economic statistics would be restored.
(c) Doubts regarding the government's ability to face unpleasant realities would lessen.
(d) The CMIE's credibility would be bolstered at the expense of PLFS data.
c o m
105. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
(a) The PLFS has introduced a new survey method, focusing solely on paid employment.
rs .
(b) Several women engaged in household work express satisfaction with their current status and have no
intention to join the paid workforce.
k e
(c) The CMIE's methodologies for calculating unemployment rates have been heavily criticized by various
international organizations.
r an
(d) The government is launching training programs to equip unemployed individuals with marketable skills.
106. Based on the author's discussion, which of the following is an implication of the different definitions of
p
2H2J
employment used by the PLFS and CMIE? tr-5B4H1H4I3H
o
(a) The PLFS and CMIE are in complete agreement on the unemployment rate in India.
(b) The Government might be underestimating the real level of unemployment by using the PLFS's
methodology.
T
(c) The CMIE is inherently more reliable as it aligns with international norms.
(d) Women engaged in household work are not a significant part of the labor force in India.
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U
107. If it were discovered that many unpaid workers captured in the PLFS data were satisfied with their roles and did
not desire paid employment, which of the author's claims would be most weakened?
(a) The PLFS methodology avoids confronting the unemployment issue squarely.
(b) The PLFS methodology includes paid work as gainful employment.
(c) The CMIE estimates are more aligned with accepted international norms.
(d) The quality of official Indian economic statistics has deteriorated in recent years.
108. How does the author resolve the apparent discrepancy in the different unemployment rates reported by the PLFS
and the CMIE?
(a) The author argues that the PLFS and CMIE have fundamentally
2P2U different understandings of employment.
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
(b) The author proposes a new method of measuring unemployment that bridges the gap between the PLFS and
CMIE data.
(c) The author believes the discrepancy is due to the CMIE's flawed data collection methods.
(d) The author suggests that both the PLFS and CMIE data are incorrect due to government interference.
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.112): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
The sales of apples in a local market, Shop A, in January are 450 kilograms, while in February, at Shop B, the
sales are 600 kilograms. At Shop C in January, the total sales are 10% higher than the total sales at Shop A in
February. The combined sales at Shops C in January and Shop B in February amount to 820 kilograms. The
average sales at Shop B are 400 kilograms. The sales at Shop C in February are 20% higher than the sales at
Shop A in January. The total sales in January at Shops A, B, C and D are 1200 kilograms. The total sales in
February are 25% higher than in January at all the shops.
109. Total sales at Shop A are what percentage of total sales at Shop B in both months?
(a) 81.25 % (b) 95% (c) 96% (d) 92.25%
110. What is the average sales in February at all the shops together?
(a) 300 (b) 325 (c) 375
c o
(d) 400 m
111. What is the ratio of total sales at Shop C to Shop D in both months?
(a) 76 : 49 (b) 78 : 49 (c) 19 : 12
rs .
(d) 6 : 5
k e
112. In March at Shop A, the sales increase by 20%, and at Shop B, they increase by 25% compared to February.
n
What are the total sales in March at Shop A and Shop B?
(a) 1200 (b) 1000 (c) 990 (d) 880
p r a
Directions (Q.113-Q.116): Read the data carefully and answer the following
tr-5B4H1H4I3H
In a school, a total of 180 students appeared in an examination
2H2J
questions.
consisting of three subjects: Mathematics (M1),
o
Science (S2), and History (H3). 45% of students passed in Mathematics, 60% passed in Science, and 55% passed
in History. 15% of students passed only in Mathematics and Science, 10% passed only in Mathematics and also
113. How many students passed tr-

(a) 54
T
10% passed only in science, and 5% of students passed in all three subjects. 10% of the students failed in all
three subjects.
in5QScience
(b) 36
2P2U
4L1T4S3Pand History but failed in Mathematics?
(c) 27 (d) 24
114. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed only in Science to the number of students who passed in
History only?
(a) 7 ∶ 18 (b) 2 ∶ 1 (c) 3 ∶ 2 (d) 37 : 85
115. The number of students who passed in Mathematics only is what percentage of the number of students who
passed in Mathematics and History but failed in Science?
(a) 66.67% (b) 33.33% (c) 57.14% (d) 28.33%
2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
116. The number of students who passed in at most one subject is what percentage of the total number of students in
the school?
2
(a) 163 % (b) 25% (c) 35% (d) 15%
Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
In an examination, there are 100 questions. A student named Sarah is awarded 6 marks for each correct answer.
She loses 2 marks for each wrong answer and loses 1 mark for each un-attempted question. The net score of
Sarah in that test is 321.
117. If n = the number of ways in which Sarah could have attempted the exam, then find the value of n – 1.
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 6
118. The maximum number of questions attempted by Sarah could be:

(a) 96 (b) 97 (c) 99 (d) 90
119. What is the number of questions that Sarah got wrong if the number of correct questions that she got is a multiple
of 8?
(a) 27 (b) 30 (c) 36 (d) 42
c o m
120. What can be the maximum number of questions Sarah left un-attempted?
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 27 (d) 33
rs .
k e
r an
p
2H2J
tr-5B4H1H4I3H
To tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U
2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
p
2H2J
tr-5B4H1H4I3H
To tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U
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Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
p
2H2J
tr-5B4H1H4I3H
To tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
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Notes:-
c o m
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k e
r an
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tr-5B4H1H4I3H
To tr-5Q4L1T4S3P
2P2U
2P2U
tr-5Q4L1T4S3P

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

c o m Maximum Marks : 120

4. Answer all questions. No clarification

Subject Q. No. Page No.

Some Basics on Employment Metrics:

10. Which of the following statements, if true, would strengthen

brought about by its creative aspects?

Which of the following statements about

(c) Steadfast Defender

Passage (Q.30-Q.34): For the second consecutive year, 2PGoogle

41. What is the primary method of propulsion used by VARUNASTRA?

role in microclimatic control, ecosystem services and biodiversity conservation.

outdoor water use?

Court conduct the trial without Manu?

The Union Ministry of Electronics

correct option w.r.t the court's authority in taking such an action.

sending them to jail.

(b) The Executive Magistrate invoked

and Conduct Rules.

employees' strike is legitimate.

Q worked for the government.tr-5QDue to3Pthe

Based on the passage, whichtr-5Q

of the White House.

97. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?

Based on the passage, whichtr-of

113. How many students passed tr-

118. The maximum number of questions attempted by Sarah could be:

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