Most Important PYQs of Last 5 Yrs

1.
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants,
can be understood from a diagram called :
(1) Net square
(2) Bullet square
(3) Punch square
(4) Punnett square

2. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
(1) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
(2) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.
(3) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
(4) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
3. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
(a) Gregarious,polyphagous pest (i) Asterias
(b) Adult with radial symmetry
and larva with bilateral symmetry (ii) Scorpion
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

4. The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
(1) More than two genes affecting a single character
(2) Presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover
(3) Presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait
(4) A single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression

5.The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
(2) Depolarisation of ventricles
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of auricles

(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

7. Given below are two statements : One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from options
given below:
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct

8.Identify the correct set of statements :
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea
(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves
(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration
(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
(2) (b) and (c) Only
(3) (a) and (d) Only
(4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

10. Consider following features
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

11.Given below two statements : one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

12. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach
starting from mouth
(1) Pharynx - Oesophagus - Crop - Gizzard - Ileum - Colon - Rectum
(2) Pharynx - Oesophagus - Gizzard - Crop - Ileum - Colon - Rectum
(3) Pharynx - Oesophagus - Gizzard - Ileum - Crop - Colon - Rectum
(4) Pharynx - Oesophagus - Ileum - Crop - Gizzard - Colon - Rectum

13.Given below two statements : One labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is
used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1, 6-diphosphate.
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.

14. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) only (d)
(4) (a) and (b)

15.Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which
of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is
known to produce female flowers in the plants :
(1) Cytokinin
(2) ABA
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Ethylene
16. Complete the flowchart on central dogma.
(1) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
(2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(3) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
(4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

16.The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(a) Mustard
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Cassia
(d) Datura
(e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (c), (d), (e) Only
(2) (a), (b), (c) Only
(3) (b), (c) Only
(4) (d), (e) Only

18.In the equation GPP − R = NPP
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity
NPP is Net Primary Productivity
R here is ________.
(1) Reproductive allocation
(2) Photosynthetically active radiation
(3) Respiratory quotient
(4) Respiratory loss

19. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome
(b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

20. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
(1) Ulothrix
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Gracilaria
(4) Volvox
21.Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the
mesophyll cells.
Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C4 plants ack RuBisCo enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

22.Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the
correct option.
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis (iii)Salmonella
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

23.Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements :
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
(1) (a), (c), (e) Only
(2) (b), (d), (e) Only
(3) (a), (c), (d) Only
(4) (b), (e) Only

24.Consider the following statement :
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true

25.Match the following with respect to meiosis
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of
Inheritance.
Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape
and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

27.Match the hominids with their correct brain size :
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

28.Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

29.Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :
(1) Equisetum and Salvinia
(2) Lycopodium and Selaginella
(3) Selaginella and Salvinia
(4) Psilotum and Salvinia

30. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright.

31.Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
(1) Beijerinckia
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Frankia
(4) Rhodospirillum
32.What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
(1) Transcription of only snRNAs
(2) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(3) Transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
(4) Transcription of precursor of mRNA

33.Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus

List - I List - II
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
35.Match the following organisms with the products they produce
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd cerevisiae
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(v) Acetic Acid
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)

36.Given below two statements
Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes
to floral meristem.
Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages
laterally at successive node instead of leaves.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false

37. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing
radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its
detection using autoradiography because :
(1) mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complimentarity with it.
(2) mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
(3) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complimentarity
with it.
38.Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (d) and (e) only
(4) (c), (d) and (e) only

39.Given below are two statements
Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and
carried by air currents.
Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male
gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the current explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false

40.What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood
volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of
ventricular systole is 50 mL?
(1) 50 beats per minute

42.Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine
development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
(1) A and E only (2) A and B only
(3) C and D only (4) B and E only

43.Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout
their life.
(b) In Vertebrates notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
(1) (c) and (a)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (d) and (c)

44.Match List I with List II :
List I List II
A. M Phase I. Proteins are synthesized
B. G2 Phase II. Inactive phase
C. Quiescent stage III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
D. G1 Phase IV. Equational division
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

45.Cell in G0 phase :
(1) exit the cell cycle
(2) enter the cell cycle
(3) suspend the cell cycle
(4) terminate the cell cycle

46. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of
Diabetes Mellitus?
(1) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria

List I List II
(Interaction) (Species A and B)
A. Mutualism I. +(A), 0(B)
B. Commensalism II. –(A), 0(B)
C. Amensalism III. +(A), –(B)
D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +(B)
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
48.Given below two statements :
Assertion (A) : Mendel’s law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are
located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently.

49.Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?
(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
(4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea

List I List II
A. Oxidative decarboxylation I. Citrate synthase
B. Glycolysis II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Oxidative phosphorylation III. Electron transport system
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle IV. EMP pathway
(1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
(2) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(3) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV

51.Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?
(1) D → Seed
(2) A → Mesocarp
(3) B → Endocarp
(4) C → Thalamus
List I List II
A. Fovea I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil.
B. Iris II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue.
C. Blind spot III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.
D. Sclera IV. Point where optic nerve leaves eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

53.Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an
immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :
(1) Streptococcus cerevisiae
(2) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Clostridium butylicum
(4) Aspergillus niger

Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic
vessels and ultimately into the blood.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

List I List II
A. Heroin I. Effect on cardiovascular system
B. Marijuana II. Slow down body function
C. Cocaine III. Painkiller
D. Morphine IV. Interfere with transport of dopamine
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

56. Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
(1) Probe
(2) BAC
(3) YAC
(4) pBR322
57. Identify the incorrect pair.
(1) Drugs - Ricin
(2) Alkaloids - Codeine
(3) Toxin - Abrin
(4) Lectins - Concanavalin A

58. Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) A, C and D only
(2) A and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and C only

59.Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in
(1) Ducts of salivary glands
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(3) Eustachian tube
(4) Lining of intestine

60. Select the hormone-releasing Intra- uterine Devices.
(1) Vaults, LNG-20
(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

61. Given below are two statements:
Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and
Child Health Care Programme.
Reason R : Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.

Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

63.Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland
ecosystem.
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
Select the correct option
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

List - I List - II
(a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
(b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

List I List II
A. Gene ‘a’ I. -galactosidase
B. Gene ‘y’ II. Transacetylase
C. Gene ‘i’ III. Permease
D. Gene ‘z’ IV. Repressor protein
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

List I List II
A. Vasectomy I. Oral method
B. Coitus interruptus II. Barrier method
C. Cervical caps III. Surgical method
D. Saheli IV. Natural method
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of
fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

68.If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine,
Guanine and Cytosine in it ?
(1) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
(2) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
(3) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
(4) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
69.Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as
palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the
palindromic site.

Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal)
and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of type and two
subunits of type.)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

71. Match Column - I Column - II
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living plants or animals
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the
ejaculatory duct.
Statement Il: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth
canal.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules containing histamine
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

74.Read the following statements.
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Roundworms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
(1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct

75. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (d) are correct

76. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome
as a measure of the distance between genes was explained by :
(1) T.H. Morgan
(2) Gregor J. Mendel
(3) Alfred Sturtevant
(4) Sutton Boveri

List I List II
A. A Leopard and a Lion in a forest/grassland I. Competition
B. A Cuckoo laying egg in a Crow’s nest II. Brood parasitism
C. Fungi and root of a higher plant in Mycorrhizae III. Mutualism
D. A cattle egret and a Cattle in a field IV. Commensalism
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

78. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(1) A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(2) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles.

79.Which of the following statements is true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true
for Oogenesis?
(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone
(FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary
(e) It is initiated at puberty
(1) (b), (c) and (e) only (2) (c) and (e) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (b), (d) and (e) only
80.Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
(1) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
(2) Alpha cells of pancreas
(3) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(4) The cells of bone marrow

List I List II
A. Cartilaginous Joint I. Between flat skull bones
B. Ball and Socket Joint II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
C. Fibrous Joint III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
D. Saddle Joint IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

82.Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

83. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E.Coli.
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin

84. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis
in boll worm?
(1) Body temperature
(2) Moist surface of midgut
(3) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Acidic pH of stomach

Statement I : Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high
temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat.
Statement II : When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the
activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

86. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and
the confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test

87.Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a storehouse of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin
proteins.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
(1) C and D only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, C and D only

88.Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
(1) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
(2) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
(3) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
(4) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.

Statement I : During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
Statement II : The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

90. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is
termed
(1) Ori site
(2) Palindromic sequence
(3) Recognition site
(4) Selectable marker

91. Select the correct option.
(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline
cartilage.
(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.
(4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two
pairs of vertebral ribs.

92.Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong ?
(1) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
(2) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
(3) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
(4) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.

93.Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin related to human
Insulin?Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted
and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional
hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
(1) (c), (d) and (e) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (b) only (4) (c) and (d) only

94.Select the correct statements.
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.
(1) B and E only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) A, C and E only

List - I List - II
(a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(b) Physiological adaptation (ii) Desert lizard
(c) Behavioural adaptation (iii) Marine fish at depth
(d) Biochemical adaptation (iv) Polar seal
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
96.Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
(2) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
(3) The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous
contraction of the atria
(4) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
97.Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Bronchioles (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue
(b) Goblet Cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue
(c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue
(d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

List - I List - II
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
99.Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
E. Basophils are agranulocytes
(1) A and B only
(2) D and E only
(3) C and E only
(4) B and C only

100.Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
(1) C, D and E only
(2) A and B only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B and E only

SOLUTIONS
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (4)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (3)
31. (3) 32.(3) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (4) 43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (1)
46. (2) 47.(3) 48. (4) 49. (4) 50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (1) 57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (3)
61. (1) 62.(1) 63. (4) 64. (4) 65. (3) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (1) 71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (3)
76. (3) 77.(2) 78. (2) 79. (1) 80. (1) 81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (1) 90. (1)
91. (4) 92.(2) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100. (3)

Most Important PYQs of Last 5 Yrs

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1.

can be understood from a diagram called :

(1) Net square

(2) Bullet square

(3) Punch square

(4) Punnett square

(a) Gregarious,polyphagous pest (i) Asterias

(b) Adult with radial symmetry

and larva with bilateral symmetry (ii) Scorpion

(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana

(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(1) More than two genes affecting a single character

(2) Presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover

(4) A single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression

(1) Depolarisation of auricles

(2) Depolarisation of ventricles

(3) Repolarisation of ventricles

(4) Repolarisation of auricles

(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus

(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle

(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.

(1) A is not correct but R is correct

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(4) A is correct but R is not correct

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only

(2) (b) and (c) Only

(3) (a) and (d) Only

(4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus

(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(a) Organ system level of organisation

(b) Bilateral symmetry

(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca

(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata

(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

starting from mouth

(1) Pharynx - Oesophagus - Crop - Gizzard - Ileum - Colon - Rectum

(2) Pharynx - Oesophagus - Gizzard - Crop - Ileum - Colon - Rectum

(3) Pharynx - Oesophagus - Gizzard - Ileum - Crop - Colon - Rectum