t14 Q+a Drishti Ias King R Queen P

flfoy lsok (izkjafHkd) VsLV lhjhT+k&2024
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe
ijh{k.k iqfLrdk
Test Code:
P1/P2/P3-2414 lkekU; vè;;u
VsLV – 14
le; % nks ?k.Vs iw.kk±d % 200
vuqns'k
1. ijh{kk izkjEHk gksus ds rqjUr ckn] vki bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk dh iM+rky vo'; dj ysa fd blesa dksbZ fcuk Nik] iQVk ;k
NwVk gqvk i`"B vFkok iz'u vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gks rks bls lgh ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ls cny yhft,A
2. mÙkj&i=kd esa lgh LFkku ij ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe A, B, C ;k D ;FkkfLFkfr Li"V :i ls dwVc¼ dhft;sA
3. bl iafDr ds lkFk esa fn;s x, dks"Bd esa vkidks viuk vuqØekad fy[kuk
gSA ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij vkSj oqQN u fy[ksaA
4. bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk esa 100 iz'uka'k (iz'u) fn;s x, gSaA izR;sd iz'uka'k
fgUnh vkSj vaxzs”kh esa Nik gSA izR;sd iz'uka'k esa pkj izR;qÙkj (mÙkj) fn;s
x, gSaA buesa ls ,d izR;qÙkj dks pqu ysa ftls vki mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djuk pkgrs gSaA ;fn vkidks ,slk yxs fd ,d ls vfèkd
izR;qÙkj lgh gSa rks ml izR;qÙkj dks vafdr djsa tks vkidks loksZÙke yxsA izR;sd iz'uka'k ds fy;s dsoy ,d gh izR;qÙkj pquuk gSA
5. vkidks vius lHkh izR;qÙkj vyx ls fn;s x, mÙkj&i=kd ij gh vafdr djus gSaA mÙkj&i=kd esa fn;s x, funsZ'k ns[k ysaA
6. lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSaA
7. blls igys fd vki ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds fofHkUu iz'uka'kksa ds izR;qÙkj mÙkj i=kd ij vafdr djuk 'kq: djsa] vkidks izos'k izek.k&i=k
ds lkFk izsf"kr vuqns'kksa ds vuqlkj dqN fooj.k mÙkj&i=kd esa nsus gSaA
8. vki vius lHkh izR;qÙkjksa dks mÙkj&i=kd esa Hkjus ds ckn rFkk ijh{kk ds lekiu ij dsoy mÙkj&i=kd vèkh{kd dks lkSai nsaA vkidks
vius lkFk ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr gSA
9. dPps dke ds fy;s dqN i=kd ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds var esa layXu gSaA
10. xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM%
oLrqfu"B iz'u&i=kksa esa mEehnokj }kjk fn;s x, xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM fn;k tk,xkA
(i) izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s pkj oSdfYid mÙkj gSaA mEehnokj }kjk izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s fn;s x, ,d xyr mÙkj ds fy;s iz'u gsrq fu;r
fd;s x, vadksa dk ,d&frgkbZ naM ds :i esa dkVk tk,xkA
(ii) ;fn dksbZ mEehnokj ,d ls vfèkd mÙkj nsrk gS] rks bls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk,xk] pkgs fn;s x, mÙkjksa esa ls ,d mÙkj lgh gks] ml
iz'u ds fy;s mi;qZDrkuqlkj gh naM fn;k tk,xkA
(iii) ;fn mEehnokj }kjk dksbZ iz'u gy ugha fd;k tkrk gS] vFkkZr~ mEehnokj }kjk mÙkj ugha fn;k tkrk gS] rks ml iz'u ds fy;s dksbZ
n.M ugha fn;k tk,xkA
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

è;ku nsa % vuqns'kksa dk vaxzs”kh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds vafre i`"B ij Nik gSA
FREE BY KING R QUEEN P[ऋषभ राजपूत]

1. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh cM+h fcYyh (Big cats) çtkfr;ksa
1. gkWyekdZ fof'k"V igpku la[;k (HUID) ds fcuk ds laj{k.k dh fn'kk esa baVjus'kuy fcx dSV ,yk;al
gkWyekdZ okys lksus ds vkHkw"k.k ;k lksus dh (IBCA) dk;Zjr gS\
dykÑfr;ksa dh fcØh çfrcaf/r gSA (a) dsoy pkj (b) dsoy ik¡p
2. HUID Hkkjrh; ekud C;wjks (BIS) }kjk fn;k x;k
(c) dsoy Ng (d) lHkh lkr
12 vadksa dk v{kjkadh; dksM gSA
3. Hkkjrh; ekud C;wjks (BIS)] jk"Vªh; ekud fudk; 6. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
,d lkafof/d fudk; gSA 1. dyDdM+ eqaMuFkqjkbZ ck?k vkjf{kr {ks=k dks ^dsjy ds
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ unh vHk;kj.;* ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gSA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 2. ;g fr#usyosyh vkSj dU;kdqekjh f”kyksa esa fLFkr gSA
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
2. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1
1. vk; (b) dsoy 2
2. ekuo laink
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
3. vkfFkZd vlqj{kk
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
4. i;kZoj.kh; lqHks|rk
7. fo'ofo|ky; vuqnku vk;ksx }kjk vkjaHk us'kuy ØsfMV
lcls de fodflr ns'kksa (LDC) dks ukfer djus ds fy;s
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus la;qDr jk"Vª ds ekunaM gSa\ ÚseodZ (NCRF) dk mís'; gS%
(a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu (a) Ldwyh f'k{kk] mPp f'k{kk vkSj O;kolkf;d ,oa dkS'ky
(c) lHkh pkj (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha f'k{kk ds ekè;e ls vftZr ØsfMV dks ,dhÑr djukA
3. Hkkjr&czk”khy&nf{k.k vÚhdk (IBSA) laokn eap dh (b) ns'kHkj esa çkFkfed f'k{kk dh xq.koÙkk c<+kuk vkSj
LFkkiuk dks vkSipkfjd :i fn;k x;k Fkk lHkh 'kS{kf.kd laLFkkuksa esa ijh{kk ç.kkyh dk
(a) fçVksfj;k iSDV ekudhdj.k djukA
(b) fj;ks ,dkWMZ (c) jk"VªO;kih fo'ofo|ky;ksa vkSj dkWystksa ds fy;s ,d
(c) tksgkUlcxZ le>kSrk ,dhÑr xzsfMax ç.kkyh LFkkfir djukA
(d) czklhfy;k ?kks"k.kk (d) fo'ofo|ky;ksa vkSj m|ksx {ks=kksa ds chp vuqla/ku
4. gky gh esa tulekpkjksa esa jgk ¶çkstsDV xzhulSaM¸ lg;ksx dks c<+kok nsukA
fuEufyf•r esa ls fdlls lacaf/r gS\
8. çkWfeljh ,LVksisy ds fof/d fl¼kar ds lanHkZ esa]
(a) uohdj.kh; ÅtkZ igy
fuEufyf•r dFku ij fopkj dhft;s%
(b) dkcZu vfHkxzg.k HkaMkj.k
(c) lrr~ Ñf"k i¼fr;k¡ 1. ;g fdlh dks vius okns ls ihNs gVus ls jksdrk gSA
(d) oU;tho laj{k.k ç;kl 2. ;g ges'kk O;kid lkoZtfud fgr ds v/hu gSA
5. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\

1. ck?k 2. flag (a) dsoy 1
3. rsanqvk 4. fge rsanqvk (b) dsoy 2
5. I;wek 6. txqvkj (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
7. phrk (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, Harsh
2 2
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Nagar, Delhi New Delhi Prayagraj Lucknow Vasundhara Colony, Jaipur
Phone: 011-47532596, 8750187501 :: e-mail: help@groupdrishti.in :: Website: www.drishtiIAS.com

Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
1. Consider the following statements : International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) works
1. Sale of hallmarked gold jewellery or gold towards protection of how many of the above big
artefacts without Hallmark Unique cats ?
Identification Number (HUID) is prohibited. (a) Only four (b) Only five
2. HUID is a 12-digit alphanumeric code given (c) Only six (d) All seven
by Bureau of Indian standards (BIS). 6. Consider the following statements :
3. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the National 1. Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve is
Standards Body is a statutory body. known as the ‘River Sanctuary of Kerala’.
How many of the above statements are correct ? 2. It is located in Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari
Districts.
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
2. Consider the following :
(b) 2 only
1. Income (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Human Assets (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Economic Vulnerability
7. The University Grants Commission has launched
4. Environmental Vulnerability The National Credit Framework (NCrF) with the
How many of the above are United Nation’s criteria purpose of
to designate Least Developed Countries (LDC)? (a) Integrating the credits earned through school
(a) Only two (b) Only three education, higher education, and vocational
(c) All four (d) None and skill education.
(b) Enhancing the quality of primary education
3. The establishment of the India-Brazil-South Africa across the country and standardizing
(IBSA) Dialogue Forum was formalized by examination patterns in all educational
(a) Pretoria Pact institutions.
(b) Rio Accord (c) Establishing a unified grading system for
(c) Johannesburg Agreement universities and colleges nationwide.
(d) Brasilia Declaration (d) Promoting research collaborations between
universities and industry sectors.
4. “Project Greensand” recently seen in news is
associated with which of the following ? 8. With reference to the legal doctrine of promissory
estoppel, consider the following statement :
(a) Renewable energy initiatives.
1. It prevents someone from going back on a
(b) carbon capture storage.
promise.
(c) Sustainable agriculture practices.
2. It is always subject to overarching public
(d) Wildlife conservation efforts. interest.
5. Consider the following : Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Tiger 2. Lion (a) 1 only
3. Leopard 4. Snow leopard (b) 2 only
5. Puma 6. Jaguar (c) Both 1 and 2
7. Cheetah. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3 3

9. ^mÙkjes#j vfHkys•* ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
1. vfHkys• esa crk;k x;k gS fd LFkkuh; lHkk dSls (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
dk;Z djrh FkhA
14. çk;% tulekpkjksa esa ns•k tkus okyk] ¶OghV CykLV¸
2. lHkk fo'ks"k :i ls czkã.kksa ls cuh FkhA
lanfHkZr djrk gS&
mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\ (a) rs”kh ls çHkkfor djus okyk vkSj fouk'kdkjh dodh;
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
jksxA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(b) vkuqoaf'kd vfHk;kaf=kdh ds ekè;e ls fodflr dh
10. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% xbZ xsgw¡ dh ,d ubZ fdLeA
cpko vfHk;ku ns'k (c) xsgw¡ dh Rofjr •srh ds fy;s ,d Ñf"k rduhdA
1. nsoh 'kfDr % ;wØsu (d) xsgw¡ ds •srksa ds fy;s ,d fof'k"V flapkbZ fof/A
2. xaxk % viQxkfuLrku
15. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
3. nksLr % lwMku
1. ekugkfu fdlh O;fDr ds ckjs esa >wBs c;kuksa dks
4. dkosjh % lhfj;k vkSj rqfdZ;s
çpkfjr djus dk dk;Z gS tks fdlh O;fDr] O;olk;]
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ mRikn] lewg vFkok ljdkj dh çfr"Bk dks uqdlku
(a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu igq¡pkrk gSA
(c) lHkh pkj (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
2. Hkkjr esa ekugkfu iwjh rjg ls ,d nkafMd vijk/ gSA
11. gky gh esa tulekpkjksa esa jgk] 'C+C5' lewg lacaf/r gS 3. ekugkfudkjd c;ku fyf•r vkSj ekSf•d nksuksa gks
(a) dSjsfc;kbZ vkSj eè; vesfjdh ns'k ldrk gSA
(b) tyok;q ifjorZu vkSj dkcZu U;wuhdj.k igy
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(c) dks;yk vkSj lhesaV mRiknu lg;ksx
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(d) phu vkSj eè; ,f'k;kbZ ns'k
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh
12. fM,xks xkflZ;k ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
dhft;s% 16. ¶thukse bafM;k çkstsDV¸ ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
1. ;g Hkweè; js•k ds Bhd mÙkj esa eè; vVykafVd
ij fopkj dhft;s%
egklkxj esa fLFkr gSA 1. ;g tSoçkS|ksfxdh foHkkx dh ,d thu eSfiax ifj;kstuk gSA
2. ;g Úk¡lhlh x.kjkT; ls lacaf/r {ks=k gSA 2. bldk y{; fo'ks"k :i ls nf{k.k ,f'k;kbZ ns'kksa esa
mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\ jksxksa dk dkj.k cuus okys mRifjorZu esa vf/d
tkudkjh çkIr djuk gSA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 3. ;g jk"Vªh; ekuo thukse vuqla/ku laLFkku dh ekuo
thukse ifj;kstuk (HGP) dk fgLlk gSA
13. eSaxzkso fiêðk i{kh (fiêðk esxfjUpk) ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
1. bu if{k;ksa dh loZçFke x.kuk if'pe caxky esa dh (a) dsoy ,d
xbZ FkhA (b) dsoy nks
2. bls IUCN dh yky lwph esa ladVkiUu ds :i esa (c) lHkh rhu
lwphc¼ fd;k x;k gSA (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh
4 4

9. With reference to the ‘Uttaramerur inscription’, Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
consider the following statements : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The inscription describes how the local Sabha (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
functioned.
14. Often seen in the news, the term “Wheat blast”
2. The Sabha was exclusively composed of
brahmans. refers to
(a) a fast-acting and devastating fungal disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(b) a new variety of wheat developed through
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
genetic engineering.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) an agricultural technique for rapid wheat
cultivation.
Rescue operation Country involved
(d) a specialized irrigation method for wheat fields.
1. Devi shakti : Ukraine
2. Ganga : Afghanistan 15. Consider the following statements :
3. Dost : Sudan 1. Defamation is communication of a false
4. Kaveri : Syria and Turkey statement that harms the reputation of an
individual person, business, product, group or
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
government
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) All four (d) None 2. In India, defamation is only for a criminal
offence.
11. Recently seen in news, ‘C+C5’ grouping is
3. A defamatory statement can be written as well
associated with
as be spoken.
(a) Caribbean and Central American countries.
(b) Climate Change and Carbon Reduction How many of the above statements are correct ?
initiatives. (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Coal and Cement production collaboration. (c) All three (d) None
(d) China and Central Asian countries. 16. With reference to the “Genome India Project”,
12. With reference to Diego Garcia, consider the consider the following statements :
following statements : 1. It is a gene mapping project by the Department
1. It is located in the central Atlantic Ocean, just of Biotechnology.
north of the equator.
2. It is aiming to better understand disease-causing
2. It is a territory belonging to French Republic.
mutations specific to South Asian population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 3. It is part of the Human Genome Project (HGP)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only by the National Human Genome Research
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Institute.
13. With reference to Mangrove Pitta Birds, consider How many of the above statements are correct ?
the following statements :
(a) Only one
1. The first ever census of these birds was
conducted in West Bengal. (b) Only two
2. They are listed as Endangered in the IUCN red (c) All three
list. (d) None
5 5

17. jk"Vªh; DokaVe fe'ku (NQM) ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r mi;ZDq r esa ls fdruh eqæk,¡ fo'ks"k vkgj.k vf/dkj (SDR)
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% ckLdsV dk fgLlk gSa\
1. blls pqacdRoekih vkSj ijekf.od ?kfM+;k¡ fodflr (a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu
djus esa enn feysxhA (c) dsoy pkj (d) lHkh ik¡p
2. bl fe'ku ds fy;s LohÑr le;lhek o"kZ 2028 gSA 21. foLrkfjr fuf/ lqfo/k (EEF) ls vk'k; gS&
(a) eè;kof/ esa vnk;xh larqyu dh xaHkhj leL;kvksa ls
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls xyr gS@gSa\
tw> jgs ns'kksa dks varjkZ"Vªh; eqæk dks"k }kjk foÙkh;
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 lgk;rkA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (b) UNEP }kjk fodkl'khy ns'kksa esa tyok;q ifjorZu
18. ubZ ^fons'k O;kikj uhfr* ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa vuqdwyu ds fy;s ,d varjkZ"Vªh; vuqnku ç.kkyhA
ij fopkj dhft;s% (c) fo'oHkj esa m|ferk vkSj y?kq O;olk; fodkl dks
c<+kok nsus okyh fo'o cSad dh ,d igyA
1. blds rgr o"kZ 2030 rd 2 fVªfy;u MkWyj ds
(d) ;wfulsiQ (UNICEF) }kjk oafpr {ks=kksa esa f'k{kk vkSj
fu;kZr dk y{; j•k x;k gSA
LokLF; ns•Hkky ds cqfu;knh <k¡ps gsrq lgk;rk çnku
2. bldk mís'; bZ&dkWelZ fu;kZr dks lqxe cukuk gSA djus okyh ,d oSf'od igyA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 22. ^fons'kh vfHknk; fofu;eu vf/fu;e (FCRA)* ds lanHkZ
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. fons'kh vfHknk; fofu;eu vf/fu;e (FCRA) dks
igyh ckj o"kZ 1976 esa vfèkfu;fer fd;k x;k FkkA
19. çk;% tulekpkjksa esa ns•k tkus okyk Lokeh (SWAMIH) 2. ,d ckj iznku fd;s tkus ds mijkar FCRA ykbZlsal
fuos'k fuf/ lacaf/r gS& 5 o"kks± ds fy;s oS/ gksrk gSA
(a) Hkkjr esa oguh; vkokl ifj;kstukvksa dks lgk;d mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
cukus ds fy;s ,d oSdfYid fuos'k dks"k (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(b) Hkkjr esa çkS|ksfxdh LVkVZvi dks c<+kok nsus okyk ,d (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
m|e iwath dks"kA 23. O;kikj çkI; cêðkdj.k@NwV ç.kkyh (TReDS) ds lanHkZ esa]
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) Hkkjr ds fons'kh eqæk HkaMkj dks c<+kus ij dsafær ,d
1. dsoy lw{e] y?kq ,oa eè;e m|e gh TReDS esa
laçHkq /u dks"kA
foØsrk ds :i esa Hkkx ys ldrs gSaA
(d) uohdj.kh; ÅtkZ ifj;kstukvksa ds foÙkiks"k.k ds fy;s 2. dsoy ljdkjh foHkkx vkSj lkoZtfud miØe gh
lefiZr ,d cqfu;knh <k¡pk dks"kA TReDS esa Øsrk ds :i esa Hkkx ys ldrs gSaA
20. fuEufyf•r eqækvksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 3. TReDS dk fofu;eu Hkkjrh; fj”koZ cSad }kjk fd;k
1. vesfjdh MkWyj tk jgk gSA
2. ;wjks
(a) dsoy ,d
3. tkikuh ;su
(b) dsoy nks
4. ikmaM LVfyZax (c) lHkh rhu
5. phuh jWfUeUch (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh
6 6

17. With reference to the National Quantum Mission How many of the above currencies are part of Special
(NQM), Consider the following statements : Drawing Rights (SDR) basket ?
1. It will help develop magnetometers and atom- (a) Only two (b) Only three
ic clocks. (c) Only four (d) All five
2. The approved timeline for the mission is till 21. The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) refers to
2028. (a) Financial assistance to countries facing serious
Which of the statements given above is/are not medium-term balance of payments problems
correct ? by IMF.
(b) An international grant system for climate
change adaptation in developing nations by
UNEP.
18. With reference to new ‘Foreign Trade Policy’, con- (c) A Wo r l d B a n k i n i t i a t i v e p r o m o t i n g
sider the following statements : entrepreneurship and small business
1. It has targeted exports of 2 trillion dollars by development worldwide.
2030. (d) A global initiative providing aid for education
2. It aims to develop e-commerce exports. and healthcare infrastructure in underprivileged
regions by UNICEF.
22. With reference to ‘Foreign Contribution Regulation
Act (FCRA)’, consider the following statements :
1. FCRA was first enacted in the year 1976.
19. The SWAMIH Investment Fund often in news, is 2. Once granted FCRA linces is valid for 5 years
associated with
(a) An alternate investment fund to support afford-
able housing projects in India
(b) A venture capital fund aimed at fostering tech-
23. Consider the following statements, with reference
nology startups in India.
to Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) :
(c) A sovereign wealth fund focused on boosting
1. Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in
India’s foreign exchange reserves.
TReDS.
(d) An infrastructure fund dedicated to financing
2. Only government departments and PSUs can
renewable energy projects. participate as buyers in TReDS.
20. Consider the following currencies : 3. Reserve Bank of India is regulating TReDS.
1. US dollar How many of the above statements are correct ?
2. Euro (a) Only one
3. Japanese yen (b) Only two
4. Pound sterling (c) All three
5. Chinese Renminbi (d) None
7 7

24. Hkkjrh; varfj{k uhfr 2023 ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r (c) i`Foh ds ok;qeaMy esa df.kdh; inkFkZ çnw"k.k dk
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% irk yxkus ds fy;s ,d mixzg dks {kksHklhek ijr
1. ;g uhfr futh {ks=k dks O;kid varfj{k xfrfof/;ksa esa LFkkfir fd;k x;k gSA
esa Hkkx ysus dh vuqefr nsxhA (d) ;g i`Foh dh fuEu d{kk esa LFkkfir ,d mixzg gS
2. ;g uhfr Hkkjr dks varfj{k {ks=k dh oSf'od
ftls eaxy xzg ij ekSle ds çk:i dk vkdyu
vFkZO;oLFkk esa viuh fgLlsnkjh c<+kus esa enn djsxhA
djus ds fy;s iqufuZnZsf'kr fd;k x;kA
3. bl uhfr dk y{; varfj{k eycs ds dkj.k gksus okys
uqdlku ds f•ykiQ chek çnku djus gsrq ,d fof/d 28. MAIA PLANTiNO-2 ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
<k¡pk çnku djuk gSA ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 1. ;g uklk vkSj brkyoh varfj{k ,tsalh dh la;qDr
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks igy ls i`Foh dh fuEu d{kk esa LFkkfir ,d i`Foh
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh os/'kkyk gSA
25. gky gh esa tulekpkjksa esa jgk ^cSaMhdwV*& 2. bl os/'kkyk ls çkIr MsVk dk mi;ksx fofHkUu çdkj
(a) iwokZsÙkj Hkkjr esa •srh dh tkus okyh /ku dh ,d ds df.kdh; ok;q çnw"k.k dk LokLF; ij iM+us okys
Lons'kh fdLeA çHkkoksa dh tk¡p gsrq LokLF; vè;;u esa fd;k tk,xkA
(b) eSugksy dh liQkbZ djus okyk ,d jkscksVA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) fgan egklkxj esa xgjs leqæ esa jgus okyh eNyh dh (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
•ksth xbZ ,d ubZ çtkfrA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(d) tyok;q fuxjkuh mís';ksa ds fy;s bljks }kjk çeksfpr
fd;k x;k ,d mixzgA 29. ^MCck VªsfMax* ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
dhft;s%
26. 'kgjh volajpuk fodkl fuf/ (UIDF) ds lanHkZ esa]
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. ;g ,d izdkj dk vukSipkfjd fofue; gS tks LVkWd
1. bl fuf/ dk izca/u jk"Vªh; vkokl cSad }kjk fd;k ekdsZV ds ckgj gksrk gSA
tkrk gSA 2. daiuh vf/fu;e 2013 ds rgr bls vijk/ dh
2. bls çkFkfedrk {ks=k ½.k U;wurk ds mi;ksx ds ekè;e Js.kh esa j•k x;k gSA
ls LFkkfir fd;k tk,xkA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
3. ;g eq[; :i ls fnYyh vkSj eqacbZ tSls fV;j&1 (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
'kgjksa ij dsafær gksrk gSA
30. ^fepkZ jkbl* ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
dhft;s%
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh
1. bldk Lokn vkSj xa/ gjh fepZ ds leku gksrk gSA
27. es?kk VªkWfiDl ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
2. if'pe caxky ds bl mRikn dks GI çek.ku çnku
lgh gS\
(a) ç'kkar egklkxj ds futZu {ks=k esa fu;af=kr rjhds ls
fd;k x;k gSA
,d mixzg dk iqu% ços'k djk;k x;kA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(b) xaHkhj •jkch vkus ds dkj.k ,d mixzg vVykafVd (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
egklkxj esa nq?kZVukxzLr gks x;kA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
8 8

24. Consider the following statements, with reference (c) It is a satellite placed in a tropopause layer to
to Indian Space Policy 2023 : detect the particulate matter pollution in the
1. The policy will allow the private sector to take
atmosphere of earth.
part in end-to-end space activities.
2. The policy will help India increase its share in (d) It is a satellite placed in low earth orbit,
the global space economy. redirected to explore weather patterns on Mars.
3. The policy aims to develop a legal framework 28. Consider the following statements with reference to
that provides insurance against damage due to
space debris. MAIA PLANTiNO-2 :
How many of the above statements are correct ? 1. It is an earth observatory placed in low earth
(a) Only one (b) Only two orbit by the joint initiative of NASA and Italian
(c) All three (d) None Space agency.
25. ‘Bandicoot’ recently in news is 2. Data from the Observatory will be used in
(a) An indigenous variety of rice cultivated in
health studies to examine the health effects of
northeastern India.
(b) A robot that can clean manholes. various types of particulate air pollution.
(c) A new species of deep-sea fish discovered in Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
the Indian Ocean. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) A satellite launched by ISRO for climate
monitoring purposes.
29. Consider the following statements with reference to
Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF) : ‘Dabba trading’ :
1. The fund is maintained by the National Housing 1. It is a type of informal trading taking place
Bank. outside the stock market.
2. It will be established through the use of priority
2. It is recognised as an offence under the
sector lending shortfall.
3. It is focusing mainly on tier-1 cities like Delhi Companies Act of 2013.
and Mumbai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
How many of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three (d) None
27. In reference to megha-tropiques which of the
‘Mircha Rice’ :
following statements is correct ?
(a) It is a satellite decommissioned by controlled 1. It has the taste and aroma of green chilies.
re-entries into uninhabited area in the Pacific 2. It is given GI tag from West Bengal.
Ocean.
(b) It is a satellite which experienced a critical
malfunction and crashed into the Atlantic (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ocean. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9 9

31. lafo/ku ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 2. fo/s;d dks fdlh ea=kh vFkok fdlh futh lnL;
1. lafo/ku dk igyk dk;Z ;g gS fd og cqfu;knh }kjk is'k fd;k tk ldrk gS vkSj blds fy;s jk"Vªifr
fu;eksa dk ,d ,slk lewg miyC/ djk, ftlls dh iwoZ vuqefr dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gSA
lekt ds lnL;ksa ds chp ,d U;wure leUo; vkSj mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
fo'okl cuk jgsA (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
2. lafo/ku dk nwljk dk;Z ;g Li"V djuk gS fd lekt (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
esa fu.kZ; ysus dh 'kfDr fdlds ikl gksxhA
35. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
3. lafo/ku dk rhljk dk;Z ;g gS fd og ljdkj }kjk
1. nÙkd xzg.k vkSj mÙkjkf/dkj
vius ukxfjdksa ij ykxw fd;s tkus okys fo/kuksa ij
2. etnwj&la?k
dqN lhek yxk,A
3. i'kq/u ,oa i'kqikyu
4. dkjkxkj
mi;ZDq r esa ls fdrus 7oha vuqlp
w h dh jkT; lwph esa lwphc¼
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
gSa\
1. tks lcls vkxs ogh thrs (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
2. fof/ dk 'kklu
3. U;kf;d leh{kk dh 'kfDr
1. Lora=krkfoghu lerk O;fDrxr igy dks u"V dj
4. vof'k"V 'kfDr
nsxhA
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus fczfV'k lafo/ku ls fy;s x, gSa\ 2. ca/qrk ds fcuk] Lora=krk vkSj lerk viuk LokHkkfod
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks ekxZ xzg.k ugha dj ldrsA
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
33. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
1. var%dj.k dh Lora=krk (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
2. /kfeZd ekeyksa ds çca/u dh Lora=krk 37. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
3. /kfeZd f'k{kk esa Hkkx ysus dh Lora=krk 1. ^Hkkjr la?k* dh rqyuk esa ^Hkkjr dk jkT;{ks=k* ,d
4. laxfBr gksus dh Lora=krk O;kid vfHkO;fDr gSA
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus /kfeZd Lora=krk ds vf/dkj ds 2. la?kh; O;oLFkk ds fgLls ds :i esa jkT; vkSj dsaæ
varxZr vkrs gSa\ 'kfDr;k¡ lk>k djrs gSaA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 3. dsaæ'kkflr çns'kksa vkSj vf/xzghr çns'kksa dk ç'kklu
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj lh/s jkT; ljdkj }kjk fd;k tkrk gSA
34. laoS/kfud la'kks/u fo/s;dksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1
1. lafo/ku esa la'kks/u dsoy laln ds fdlh Hkh lnu (b) dsoy 2
esa fo/s;d is'k djds 'kq: fd;k tk ldrk gS] u (c) lHkh rhu
fd jkT; fo/kulHkkvksa esaA (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, 10
Harsh 10

31. With reference to the constitution, consider the 2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister
following statements : or by a private member and does not require
1. The first function of the constitution is to prior permission of the President.
provide a set of basic rules that allow for
minimal coordination amongst members of
society.
2. The second function of the constitution is to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
specify who has power to make decisions in a 35. Consider the following :
society. 1. Adoption and succession
3. The third function of the constitution is to set 2. Trade union
limits on what government can impose on its 3. Livestock and animal husbandry
citizens.
4. Prison
How many of the above statements are correct ?
How many of the above are listed in the state list of
7th schedule ?
32. Consider the following statements : (c) Only three (d) All four
1. First past the post
36. consider the following statements :
2. Rule of law
1. Equality without liberty would kill individual
3. Power of judicial review
initiative.
4. Residual power
2. Without fraternity, liberty and equality could
How many of the above has been borrowed from not become a natural course of things.
British constitution ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) Only three (d) All four (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Freedom of conscience 37. Consider the following statements :
2. Freedom to manage religious affairs 1. ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than
3. Freedom to attend religious instruction the ‘Union of India’.
4. Freedom to form association 2. The states are the members of the federal
system and share a distribution of powers with
How many of the above are encompassed under the
the Centre.
right to freedom of religion ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two 3. The union territories and the acquired territories
are directly administered by the state
(c) Only three (d) All four
government.
Constitutional Amendment Bills : How many of the above statements are correct ?
1. An amendment of the Constitution can be (a) Only one
initiated only by introducing a bill in either (b) Only two
House of Parliament and not in the state (c) All three
legislatures. (d) None
Harsh 11

38. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
1. iQjsc ls çkIr ukxfjdrk (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
2. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku ds çfr vukLFkk (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
3. ;q¼ ds nkSjku 'k=kq ls laokn 42. la?k yksd lsok vk;ksx (UPSC) ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r
4. yxkrkj ik¡p o"kks± rd Hkkjr ls ckgj jguk dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus oapu }kjk ukxfjdrk lekIr gksus dk 1. UPSC dk vè;{k viuk igyk dk;Zdky iwjk djus
lVhd vk/kj gSa\ ds ckn ml leku in ij iqu% fu;qfDr dk ik=k gksrk
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks gSA
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj 2. laln dkuwu cukdj UPSC ds vf/dkj {ks=k dk
foLrkj dj ldrh gSA
39. dsaæ&jkT; laca/ksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
dhft;s% mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
1. jkT; lHkk }kjk fdlh çLrko dks ikfjr fd;k tkuk (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
2. jkT; }kjk vuqjks/ fd;k tkuk (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
3. jk"Vªh; vkikrdky dh fLFkfr 43. fu;a=kd ,oa egkys•k ijh{kd (CAG) ds lanHkZ esa]
4. l'kL=k foæksg dh fLFkfr fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh vlk/kj.k fLFkfr;ksa esa laln jkT; 1. bl in dks dk;Zdky dh lqj{kk çnku dh tkrh gSA
lwph esa lwphc¼ fo"k;ksa ij dkuwu cukrh gS\ 2. bls lafo/ku esa mfYyf•r çfØ;k ds vuqlkj jk"Vªifr
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks }kjk gh vinLFk fd;k tk ldrk gSA
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj 3. blds osru ,oa vU; lsok 'krZsa jk"Vªifr }kjk fu/kZfjr
dh tkrh gSaA
40. lkafof/d vuqnku ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij
fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
1. vuq P Ns n 275 la l n dks foÙkh; lgk;rk dh (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
vko';drk okys] u fd lHkh jkT;ksa] dks vuqnku nsus (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh
dk vf/dkj çnku djrk gSA 44. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
2. foÙk vk;ksx dh vuq'kalk ij jkT;ksa dks lkekU; ,oa 1. mPp U;k;ky; dk U;k;k/h'kA
fof'k"V nksuksa çdkj ds vuqnku çnku fd;s tkrs gSaA 2. ljdkj dh foÙk ç.kkyh dk fo'ks"k Kku j•us okyk
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ O;fDrA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 3. vFkZ'kkL=k dk fo'ks"k Kku j•us okyk O;fDrA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 4. 5 o"kZ rd pkVZMZ vdkmaVsaV ds :i esa dk;Zjr O;fDr
41. dsaæh; lrdZrk vk;ksx (CVC) ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh ;ksX;rk,¡ foÙk vk;ksx ds lnL; ds
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% :i esa p;u ds fy;s vko';d gS\
1. ;g ,d vUos"k.k vfHkdj.k gSA (a) dsoy ,d
2. dsaæh; lrdZrk vk;qDr vkSj vU; vk;qDrksa dk (b) dsoy nks
dk;Zdky muds dk;kZy; esa in /kj.k djus dh (c) dsoy rhu
rkjh• ls pkj o"kZ dk gksrk gSA (d) lHkh pkj
Harsh 12

38. Consider the following : Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Citizenship by fraud (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Disloyalty to the Constitution of India (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Communicated with the enemy during a war 42. With reference to Union Public Service Commission
4. Resident out of India for five years continuously (UPSC), consider the following statements :
How many of the above are accurate grounds for 1. The chairman of UPSC after having completed
loss of citizenship by deprivation ? first term is eligible for reappointment to that
(a) Only one (b) Only two office.
(c) Only three (d) All four 2. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by
39. With reference to Centre state relations, consider the an act made by the parliament.
following statements : Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. When states make a request (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. During a national emergency 43. With reference to Comptroller and Auditor General
4. During armed rebellion of India (CAG), consider the following statements :
How many of the above are extraordinary 1. The post is provided with the security of tenure.
circumstances in which parliament make law on 2. They can be removed by the president only in
matter enumerated in state list ? accordance with the procedure mentioned in
(a) Only one (b) Only two the Constitution.
(c) Only three (d) All four 3. Their salary and other service conditions are
40. With reference to statutory grants, consider the determined by President.
following statements : How many of the above statements are correct ?
1. Article 275 empowers Parliament to make (a) Only one (b) Only two
grants to the states which are in need of
financial assistance and not to every state.
2. Both general and specific grants are given to 44. Consider the following :
the states on the recommendation of the 1. Judge of high court
Finance Commission. 2. Person who has specialized knowledge of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? finance of government.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Person who has special knowledge of
economics.
4. Worked as chartered accountant for 5 years.
41. With reference to Central Vigilance Commission
(CVC), consider the following statements : How many of the above are qualification for
1. CVC is an investigation agency. selection as member of finance commission?
2. The term of office of the Central Vigilance (a) Only one
Commissioner and other Commissioners is four (b) Only two
years from the date on which they enter their (c) Only three
office. (d) All four
Harsh 13

45. jk"Vªh; vUos"k.k vfHkdj.k (NIA) ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r 48. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
dFkuksa ij fopkj fdft;s% 1. laln dks jkT; lwph ds fdlh fo"k; ij dkuwu cukus
1. ;g x`g ea=kky; ds ç'kklfud fu;a=k.k esa dk;Z djrk ds fy;s vf/Ñr dj ldrk gSA
gSA 2. Hkkjr ds jk"Vªifr ij egkfHk;ksx dh çfØ;kA
2. NIA dk eq[;ky; dksydkrk esa gSA 3. vkikrdky dh ?kks"k.kk dk vuqeksnu djukA
3. o"kZ 2008 esa eqacbZ esa gq, vkradoknh geyksa ds mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh jkT;lHkk dh fof'k"V 'kfDr;k¡ gSa\
vkyksd esa bldh LFkkiuk dh xbZ FkhA (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 49. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh 1. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku esa dgk x;k gS fd jkT;iky ckgjh
46. dsaæh; vUos"k.k C;wjks (CBI) ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r O;fDr gksuk pkfg;s] u fd ml jkT; dk fuoklh ftl
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% jkT; esa mls fu;qDr fd;k x;k gSA
1. ;g Hkkjr dh çeq• vUos"k.k iqfyl vfHkdj.k gSA 2. lafo/ku esa jk"Vªifr }kjk jkT;iky dks vinLFk djus
2. ;g dkfeZd] isa'ku vkSj yksd f'kdk;r ea=kky;] dk dksbZ vk/kj Li"V ugha fd;k x;k gSA
dkfeZd foHkkx ds varxZr dk;Z djrk gSA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
3. CBI Hkkjr esa baVjiksy ds jk"Vªh; dsaæh; C;wjks ds (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
:i esa dk;Z djrh gSA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 50. fdlh jkT; esa eq[;ea=kh dh fu;qfDr ds lanHkZ es]a fuEufyf•r
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugh dFku 1%
,d O;fDr tks jkT; fo/kueaMy dk lnL; ugha gS] mls
vf/dre 6 eghus dh vof/ ds fy;s eq[;ea=kh ds :i
1. 34osa la'kks/u }kjk jk"Vªifr ds fy;s lao/
S kfud la'kks/u
esa fu;qDr fd;k tk ldrk gSA
fo/s;dksa ij viuh lgefr nsuk vfuok;Z dj fn;k
dFku II%
x;kA
Ng ekg ds Hkhrj mls mls dsoy jkT; fo/kulHkk ds
2. jk"Vªifr lao/
S kfud la'kks/u fo/s;dksa ij fopkj&foe'kZ lnL; ds :i esa fuokZfpr gksuk vfuok;Z gS] ,slk ugha gksus
vkSj ernku ds mís'; ls nksuksa lnuksa dks la;qDr cSBd ij mldk eq[;ea=kh dk in lekIr gks tk,xkA
ds fy;s cqyk ldrs gSaA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds laca/ esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk
3. lafo/ku la'kks/u fo/s;d ds ekeys esa jk"Vªifr ikWdsV ,d lgh gS\
ohVks dk ç;ksx ugha dj ldrkA (a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
(b) dsoy 3 dFku&I dh O;k[;k ugha gSA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 (c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II lgh ugha gSA
(d) 2 vkSj 3 (d) dFku&II lgh gS fdarq dFku&I lgh ugha gSA
Harsh 14

45. With reference to National Investigation Agency 48. Consider the following :
(NIA), consider the following statements : 1. Can authorize the Parliament to make a law on
1. It works under the administrative control of the a subject of state list.
Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. To impeach the President of India.
2. The headquarters of the NIA is in Kolkata. 3. To ratify the declaration of Emergency.
3. It was established in the backdrop of the 2008 How many of the above are the exclusive powers of
Mumbai terror attacks. Rajya Sabha ?
49. Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India, specifies that the
46. With reference to Central Bureau of Investigation Governor should be an outsider, that he should
(CBI), consider the following statements : not belong to the state where he is appointed.
1. It is the premier investigating police agency in 2. The Constitution does not lay down any
India. grounds upon which governor may be removed
2. It functions under the department of Personnel, by the President.
Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Grievances. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. The CBI acts as the National Central Bureau (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of Interpol in India. 50. With reference to the appointment of Chief Minister
How many of the above statements are correct ? in a state, consider the following statements :
Statement I :
A person who is not a member of the state legislature
(c) All three (d) None can be appointed as Chief Minister for a maximum
47. Consider the following statements : period of 6 months.
1. 34th amendment made it mandatory for the Statement II :
President to give his assent to the constitutional Within 6 months, he/she should be elected to the
state legislative assembly only, failing which he/she
amendment bills.
ceases to be the Chief Minister.
2. The President can summon both the Houses to Which one of the following statements is correct in
meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of respect of the above statement ?
deliberating and voting on the constitutional (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
amendment bills. and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
3. President cannot exercise pocket veto in case Statement-I.
of constitution amendment bills. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
(a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) 3 only incorrect.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(d) 2 and 3 correct.
Harsh 15

51. jkT; fo/kueaMy ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj 54. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
dhft;s% 1. laln ds lkFk&lkFk jkT; fo/kueaMy leorhZ lwph
1. lafo/ku jkT; fo/kueaMy ds nksuksa lnuksa ds chp esa 'kkfey fdlh Hkh fo"k; ds laca/ esa dkuwu cuk
xfrjks/ dks lacksf/r djus ds fy;s la;qDr cSBd dk ldrs gSaA
çko/ku djrk gSA 2. vof'k"V fo"k; ds laca/ esa dkuwu cukus dh 'kfDr
2. lk/kj.k fo/s;d jkT; fo/kueaMy ds fdlh Hkh lnu leorhZ lwph ds varxZr gSA
esa is'k fd;k tk ldrk gSA 3. ^f'k{kk* jkT; lwph dk fo"k; gS
3. /u fo/s;d dsoy fo/kulHkk esa is'k fd;k tk mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
ldrk gS] fo/ku ifj"kn esa ughaA (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 55. mÙkj&iwohZ ifj"kn ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha dhft;s%
1. bldk fuekZ.k jkT; iquxZBu vf/fu;e 1956 }kjk
52. iapk;rh jkt laLFkk ls lacaf/r fuEufyf•r lfefr;ksa ij
fd;k x;k FkkA
fopkj dhft;s%
2. mÙkj&iwohZ {ks=k ds fodkl ea=kh blds vè;{k ds :i
1. v'kksd esgrk lfefr esa dk;Z djrs gSaA
2. xkMfxy lfefr 3. ;g dsoy ^lsou flLVj* jkT;ksa ls lacaf/r fo"k;ksa
3. ,y-,e- fla?koh lfefr dks doj djrs gq, ,d lefUor çknsf'kd ;kstuk
4. th-oh-ds- jko lfefr rS;kj djrh gSA
buds xBu ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
dkykuqØfed Øe lgh gS\ (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(a) 1&2&3&4 (b) 4&3&2&1 (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(c) 1&3&4&2 (d) 1&4&3&2 56. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
53. okMZ lfefr;ksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj 1. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku dh çLrkouk esa vc rd dsoy
dhft;s% ,d ckj la'kks/u fd;k x;k gSA
2. 34osa laoS/kfud la'kks/u vf/fu;e }kjk çLrkouk esa
1. okMZ lfefr ,d yk• ls vf/d vkcknh okyh uxj
^v•aMrk* 'kCn tksM+k x;kA
ikfydk ds çknsf'kd {ks=k ds Hkhrj okMZ lfefr;ksa dk
3. çLrkouk Hkkjrh; lafo/ku dk U;k;ksfpr Hkkx gSA
xBu fd;k tkrk gSA
4. Hkkjr ds lafo/ku dh çLrkouk ds ihNs ds vkn'kZ
2. jkT; dk jkT;iky okMZ lfefr dh lajpuk vkSj
,e-,u- jkW; ds mís'; ladYi }kjk fu/kZfjr fd;s
izknsf'kd {ks=k ds ckjs esa çko/ku djrk gSA x, FksA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh ugha gS@gSa\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 (a) dsoy ,d
(b) dsoy 2 (b) dsoy nks
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (c) dsoy rhu
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (d) lHkh pkj
Harsh 16

51. With reference to State legislature, consider the 54. Consider the following statements :
following statements : 1. Parliament as well as the state legislature can
1. The Constitution does provide for the make laws with respect to any of the matters
mechanism of joint sitting of the two Houses enumerated in the Concurrent List.
of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock 2. The power to make laws with respect to
between them. residuary subject is enumerated under
2. Ordinary bills can be introduced in either House Concurrent List.
of the state legislature. 3. ‘Education’ is a State list subject.
3. Money bills can be introduced only in the How many of the above statements are correct ?
legislative assembly and not in the legislative
council.
55. With reference to the North-Eastern Council,
(a) Only one (b) Only two consider the following statements :
(c) All three (d) None 1. It was created by the State Reorganization Act
52. Consider the following committees related to of 1956.
Panchayati raj institution : 2. The Minister for Development of Northeastern
1. Ashok Mehta Commitee Region serves as its chairman.
2. Gadgil Committee 3. It formulates a coordinated regional plan
3. L M Singhvi Committee covering matters of the ‘seven sisters’ states
4. G V K Rao Committee only.
With reference to their appointment, which one of How many of the above statements are correct ?
the following is the correct chronological order ? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 4-3-2-1 (c) All three (d) None
(c) 1-3-4-2 (d) 1-4-3-2 56. Consider the following statements :
53. With reference to Wards Committees, consider the 1. The preamble of Indian constitution has been
following statements : amended only once so far.
1. The wards committee is made up within the 2. 34th Constitutional Amendment Act added the
territorial area of a municipality with a word ‘Integrity’ in the preamble.
population of over one lakh. 3. The preamble is a justiciable part of Indian
2. The governor of the state makes provisions constitution.
about the composition and territorial area of a 4. The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s
wards committee. Constitution were laid down by M.N Roy’s
Objectives Resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct ? How many of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four
Harsh 17

57. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku ds vuqPNsn 20 ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r 60. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku ds rgr fjV ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. vf/fu;e ds vf/Ñr gksus ds le; ykxw fdlh Hkh 1. v/huLFk U;k;ky;ksa ds fofu'p; ds mijkar mPp
flfoy ;k nkafMd fof/ ds mYya?ku dks NksM+dj U;k;ky;ksa }kjk mRçs"k.k fjV tkjh dh tkrh gSA
fdlh Hkh O;fDr dks fdlh Hkh vijk/ ds fy;s nks"kh 2. çfr"ks/ dsoy U;kf;d vkSj v¼Z&U;kf;d çkf/dj.kksa
ugha Bgjk;k tk,xkA ds fo#¼ gh tkjh dh tk ldrh gSA
2. fy•koV ds uewus vkSj vkok”k ds uewus vkRe&nks"kkjksi.k
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
ds f•ykiQ vf/dkj dk mYya?ku djrs gSaA
(a) dsoy 1
3. vuqPNsn 20 fdlh ukxfjd ;k fons'kh ;k dkuwuh
O;fDr ds fy;s miyC/ gSA (b) dsoy 2
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 61. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
58. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. jk"Vªifr dk fuokZpu
1. xzke iapk;rksa dk xBuA 2. mPpre U;k;ky; vkSj mPp U;k;ky;
2. nqcy
Z oxks± ds 'kSf{kd vkSj vkfFkZd fgrksa dh vfHko`f¼A 3. laln esa jkT;ksa dk çfrfuf/Ro
3. ckydksa ds fy;s çkjafHkd ckY;koLFkk ns•js• vkSj 4. la?k vkSj jkT;ksa ds chp fo/k;h 'kfDr;ksa dk foHkktu
f'k{kk dk mica/A 5. vuqPNsn 368 esa la'kks/u
4. xk;ksa] cNM+ksa vkSj vU; nq/k: ,oa okgd i'kqvksa ds
Hkkjrh; lafo/ku ds varxZr mi;ZqDr fdrus çko/kuksa esa
o/ dk çfr"ks/A la'kks/u ds fy;s jkT;ksa ds vuqleFkZu ds lkFk fo'ks"k cgqer
5. varjkZ"Vªh; 'kkafr ,oa lqj{kk LFkkfir djukA
dh vko';drk gksrh gS\
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus jkT; dh uhfr ds funs'kd rÙo (a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu
(DPSP) xka/hoknh fl¼karksa ij vk/kfjr ekus tkrs gSa\
(c) dsoy pkj (d) lHkh ik¡p
(a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu
(c) dsoy pkj (d) lHkh ik¡p
1. jk"Vªifr 'kklu dh mn~?kks"k.kk dks blds tkjh gksus dh
59. ds'kokuan Hkkjrh okn ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij
frfFk ls ,d eghus ds vanj laln ds nksuksa lnuksa }
fopkj dhft;s%
kjk vuqeksfnr fd;k tkuk pkfg;sA
1. bl okn dh lquokbZ lokZsPp U;k;ky; ds 11
2. vuqPNsn 356 dks dk;kZfUor djus esa jk"Vªifr dh
U;k;k/h'kksa okyh vc rd dh lcls cM+h laoS/kfud
ihB }kjk dh xbZ FkhA lgefr vafre vkSj fu.kkZ;d gksrh gSA
2. bl okn us vlhfer lalnh; laçHkqrk dks de dj mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
fn;kA (a) dsoy 1
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ (b) dsoy 2
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 18

57. With reference to Article 20 of Indian constitution, 60. With reference to writs under Indian constitution,
consider the following statements : consider the following statements :
1. No person shall be convicted of any offence 1. A writ of Certiorari is issued by higher courts
except for violation of any civil or criminal law after the lower Courts have declared their
in force at the time of the commission of the judgments.
act. 2. A writ of prohibition can only be issued against
2. Handwriting samples and voice samples violate judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
the right against self-incrimination.
3. Article 20 is available to a citizen or foreigner
or legal person. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three (d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Consider the following : 61. Consider the following :

1. Organise village panchayats. 1. Election of President
2. Promote educational and economic interests of 2. Supreme Court and High Courts
the weaker sections. 3. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Provide early childhood care and education for 4. Distribution of legislative powers between the
all children. Union and the states
4. Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other 5. Amendment to article 368
milch and draught cattle.
How many of the above provisions under the Indian
5. Establish international peace and security.
constitution would require amendments through
How many of the above-mentioned Directive special majority with ratification from states ?
Principles of State policy (DPSP) are considered to
be based on Gandhian principles ?
(c) Only four (d) All five
(c) Only four (d) All five 62. Consider the following statements :
1. A proclamation imposing President’s rule must
59. With reference to Keshavananda Bharati Judgment,
be approved by both the houses of parliament
consider the following statements :
within a month from the date of its issue.
1. The case was decided by the largest ever
constitutional bench consisting of 11 Supreme 2. The satisfaction of the President in invoking
Court judges. Article 356 is final and conclusive.
2. The case curtailed unlimited parliamentary Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
sovereignty. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 19

63. fuEufyf•r ;qXe ij fopkj dhft;s% 66. yksdlHkk vkSj jkT; fo/kulHkk esa vuqlwfpr tkfr@tutkfr
vkBoha vuqlwph la'kks/u ftuds }kjk leqnk;ksa vkSj vkaXy&Hkkjrh; leqnk; ds fy;s vkj{k.k ds
dh Hkk"kk,¡ tksM+k x;k lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. fla/h] vlfe;k vkSj % 21ok¡ la'kks/u vf/fu;e 1. vkaXy&Hkkjrh; leqnk; ds fy;s vkj{k.k o"kZ 2020
xqtjkrh esa lekIr dj fn;k x;k gSA
2. dksad.kh] ef.kiqjh % 71ok¡ la'kks/u vf/fu;e 2. vuqlwfpr tkfr@tutkfr leqnk;ksa ds fy;s vkj{k.k
vkSj usikyh 15 o"kZ rd c<+k fn;k x;k gSA
3. cksMks] Mksxjh vkSj % 92ok¡ la'kks/u vf/fu;e mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
eSfFkyh (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ 67. laln esa lhVksa ds iqu% lek;kstu ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 1. yksdlHkk vkSj jkT;lHkk esa lhVksa dh la[;k dks fiQj
64. yksd vnkyrksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj ls lek;ksftr djus ds fy;s ifjlheu vk;ksx vf/
dhft;s% fu;e ikfjr fd;k x;k gSA
2. jkT;ksa dks yksdlHkk dh lhVksa dk vkoaVu o"kZ 2026
1. muds ikl fdlh Hkh fookn ds fu/kZj.k ds fy;s
rd ds fy;s jksd fn;k x;k gSA
viuh çfØ;k fufnZ"V djus dh visf{kr 'kfDr;k¡ gSaA
2. yksd vnkyr ds fu.kZ; ds f•ykiQ fdlh Hkh U;k;ky;
esa dksbZ vihy ugha dh tk,xhA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
3. LFkk;h yksd vnkyrksa dh LFkkiuk ds fy;s fof/d 68. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
lsok çkf/dj.k vf/fu;e] 1987 dks o"kZ 2012 esa 1. Hkkjr dk ukxfjd
la'kksf/r fd;k x;k FkkA 2. 26 o"kZ ls vf/d vk;q
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 3. fdlh lalnh; fuokZpu {ks=k ds fy;s fuokZpd ds :i
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks esa iathÑr
fdlh O;fDr dks laln dk lnL; fuokZfpr gksus ds fy;s
mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lh ;ksX;rk Hkkjr ds lafo/ku esa
65. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% mfYyf•r gS\
1. jk"Vªifr 'kklu ç.kkyh esa ges'kk ^laln esa jk"Vªifr* (a) dsoy 1 (b) 1 vkSj 2
gksrk gSA (c) 2 vkSj 3 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3
2. lalnh; 'kklu ç.kkyh esa ges'kk ^laln esa lezkV* 69. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
gksrk gSA 1. Hkkjr ds lafo/ku esa laln lnL; cuus ds fy;s
fugZjrkvksa dh 'krks± dk mYys• fd;k x;k gSA
2. laln lnL; cuus ds fy;s fugjZrvksa dks lwphc¼
(a) dsoy 1
djus gsrq laln fof/ dk fuekZ.k dj ldrh gSA
(b) dsoy 2 mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 20

63. Consider the following pairs : 66. Consider the following statements with reference to
the reservation for SC/ST communities and the
Eighth Schedule Added by
Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha and state
languages
legistative assemblies :
1. Sindhi, Assamese : 21st Amendment Act 1. The reservation for the Anglo-Indian community
and Gujarati expired in 2020.
2. Konkani, Manipuri, : 71st Amendment Act 2. The reservation for SC/ST communities has
and Nepali been extended by 15 years.
3. Bodo, Dogri and : 92nd Amendment Act Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Maithili
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one (b) Only two 67. Consider the following statements with reference to
(c) All three (d) None readjustment of seats in the Parliament :
64. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the 1. Delimitation Commission Act is passed to
readjust the number of seats in Lok Sabha and
following statements :
Rajya Sabha.
1. They have the requisite powers to specify its 2. Allocation of seats in Lok Sabha to the states
own procedure for the determination of any is frozen upto the year 2026.
dispute. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
2. No appeal shall lie to any court against the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
award of the Lok Adalat. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was 68. Consider the following :
amended in 2012 to provide for the establishment 1. Citizen of India
of the Permanent Lok Adalats. 2. More than 26 years of age
3. Registered as an elector for a parliamentary
How many of the above statements are correct ? constituency
(a) Only one (b) Only two Which of the above qualifications for a person to be
(c) All three (d) None chosen a member of the Parliament is/are mentioned
in the constitution of India ?
65. Consider the following statement :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
1. Presidential form of government always has
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
‘President-in-Parliament'.
2. Parliamentary form of government always has
1. The Constitution of India has mentioned the
‘Crown-in- Parliament'. terms of disqualification to be member of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Parliament.
2. Parliament can make laws to list down
(a) 1 only
disqualifications to be a member of Parliament.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 21

70. yksdlHkk vè;{k ds in ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
1. lnu vius ihBklhu vf/dkjh dk fuokZpu mifLFkr (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
lnL;ksa ds lk/kj.k cgqer ls djrk gS] tks lnu esa 73. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
ernku djrs gSaA 1. lekurk dk vf/dkj
2. lnu çHkkoh cgqer ls ikfjr çLrko ds ekè;e ls 2. f'k{kk dk vf/dkj
vè;{k dks fu"dkflr dj ldrk gSA 3. thou vkSj Lora=krk dk vf/dkj
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdls ¶ekuokf/dkjksa dh lkoZHkkSe ?kks"k.kk¸
3. fu"dklu çLrko ikfjr djus ls igys yksdlHkk
ds rgr ekuokf/dkj ?kksf"kr fd;k x;k gS@gSa\
vè;{k dks 14 fnu igys uksfVl fn;k tkrk gSA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ (c) dsoy 3 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 74. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 1. fujadq'krk lHkh jktuhfrd iz.kkfy;ksa dh 'kfDr;ksa dks
,d gh 'kfDr esa tksM+rh gSA
2. rkuk'kkgh ,d jktuhfrd iz.kkyh gS tks ,d gh 'kkld
dFku I%
dh vfu;af=kr 'kfDr dk o.kZu djrh gSA
lnu ds fdlh lnL; }kjk vkf/dkfjd lpsrd dh
vogsyuk djus ij vko';d :i ls lnL; dks lnu ls
fugjZr ?kksf"kr dj fn;k tkrk gSA
dFku II% 75. canh çR;{khdj.k dh fjV U;k;ky;ksa }kjk tkjh dh tkrh gS%
lpsrd dh voKk ds ekeys esa fdlh lnL; dh fugjZrk (a) ml lkoZtfud vf/dkjh dks viuk dk;Z djus dk
ny&cny fojks/h dkuwu ds rgr fu;af=kr gksrh gSA vkns'k nsus ds fy;s tks viuk dÙkZO; fuHkkus esa foiQy
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ,d jgk gSA
lgh gS\ (b) fdlh O;fDr }kjk lkoZtfud dk;kZy; ij voS/
(a) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku II] vf/xzg.k djus ls jksdus ds fy;sA
dFku I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA (c) xSj&dkuwuh :i ls fgjklr esa fy;s x, O;fDr dh
(b) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku II] fjgkbZ lqfuf'pr djus ds fy;s
dFku I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA (d) v/huLFk U;k;ky;ksa dks fdlh okn dks 'kh"kZ U;k;ky;
(c) dFku I lgh gS fdarq dFku II xyr gSA esa LFkkukarfjr djus dk vkns'k nsuk
(d) dFku I xyr gS fdarq dFku II lgh gSA
76. lafo/ku ds Hkkx IV esa mfYyf•r] fuEufyf•r funs'kd
fl¼karksa ij fopkj dhft;s
72. vuqPNsn 18 ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj 1. iwath ds ladsaæ.k dh jksdFkke
dhft;s% 2. iq:"kksa vkSj efgykvksa ds fy;s leku osru lqfuf'pr
1. jkT; ds v/hu fdlh ykHk ;k fo'okl dk in / djuk
kj.k djus okyk dksbZ fons'kh O;fDr Hkkjr ds jk"Vªifr 3. dk;Z djus dk vf/dkj lqjf{kr djuk
dh lgefr ds fcuk fdlh Hkh vU; fons'kh jkT; ls 4. xkSgR;k dk fu"ks/
dksbZ mikf/ Lohdkj dj ldrk gSA mi;ZDq r esa ls fdruksa dks lektoknh fl¼kar ekuk tk ldrk gS\
2. ;g Hkkjr ds ukxfjd dks fdlh Hkh fons'kh jkT; ls (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
dksbZ Hkh mikf/ Lohdkj djus ls jksdrk gSA (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
Harsh 22

70. Consider the following statements with reference to Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
office of Speaker of Lok Sabha: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The House elects its presiding officer by a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
simple majority of members present, who vote
in the House.
1. Right to equality.
2. The House can remove the Speaker through a
2. Right to education.
resolution passed by an effective majority.
3. Right to life and liberty.
3. 14 days advance notice is given to Speaker
before passing resolution of removal. Which of the above is/are declared as Human Rights
under ‘Universal Declaration of Human Rights’ ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
71. Consider the following statements : 74. Consider the following :
Statement I: 1. Autocracy combines all the political system’s
Defying the official whip by a member of the house, powers into a single force.
necessarily leads to disqualification of the member 2. Dictatorship is a political system characterized
from the house. by an unchecked power of a single ruler.
Statement II: Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Disqualification of a member in case of disobeying (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
a whip is governed under Anti-defection law. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is correct in respect to
75. The writ of habeas corpus is issued by the courts to :
the above statements?
(a) order the public official who has failed to
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
perform his duty to do his work.
and statement II is the correct explanation for
statement I. (b) to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office
by a person.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(c) secure the release of a person who is unlawfully
but statement II is not the correct explanation
detained
for statement I.
(d) to order a lower court to transfer a case to the
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
highest court.
incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 76. Consider the following Directive Principles, as
correct. mentioned in the Part IV of the constitution
1. Prevention of concentration of wealth
72. With reference to Article 18, consider the following
2. Ensuring equal pay for men and women
statements :
3. Securing the right to work
1. A foreigner holding any office of profit or trust
4. Prohibiting the slaughter of cows
under the state can accept any title from any
foreign state without the consent of the How many of the above can be considered to have
President of India. socialistic principles ?
2. It prohibits a citizen of India from accepting (a) Only one (b) Only two
any title from any foreign state. (c) Only three (d) All four
Harsh 23

77. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 81. Hkkjr ds lafo/ku ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ij fopkj
1. vuqPNsn 323 A dsoy lkoZtfud lsok ekeyksa ds dhft;s%
fy;s U;k;kf/dj.k dh LFkkiuk ij fopkj djrk gSA 1. çLrkouk 2. Hkkx III
2. vuqPNsn 323 A ds rgr U;k;kf/dj.k dsoy laln 3. Hkkx IV 4. Hkkx IVA
}kjk LFkkfir fd;s tk ldrs gSaA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus Hkkxksa dks 97osa laoS/kfud la'kks/u
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ vf/fu;e 2011 }kjk la'kksf/r fd;k x;k Fkk\
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
78. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 82. la;qDr jkT; yksd lsok vk;ksx (JSPSC) ds lanHkZ esa]
1. tufgr ;kfpdk (PIL) dh vo/kj.kk vesfjdh fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
U;k;'kkL=k ls yh xbZ gSA 1. laln ds ikl fof/ fuekZ.k djds JSPSC ds xBu
2. tufgr ;kfpdk ljdkjksa] ds lkFk&lkFk futh i{kdkjksa dk çko/ku djus dh 'kfDr gSA
ds f•ykiQ Hkh nk;j dh tk ldrh gSA 2. JSPSC ds vè;{k vkSj vU; lnL;ksa dh fu;qfDr
3. dsoy ogh O;fDr] ftldk fdlh eqís esa çR;{k fgr Hkkjr ds jk"Vªifr }kjk dh tkrh gSA
gks] tufgr ;kfpdk nk;j dj ldrk gSA 3. vkt rd] Hkkjr esa dksbZ JSPSC ugha cuk;k x;k
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ gSA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
79. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
1. Hkkjr ds lafo/ku ds vuqlkj] la?k dh j{kk ;k flfoy
83. fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl okn esa lokZsPp U;k;ky; us ;g
lsok esa çR;sd O;fDr jk"Vªifr ds çlkni;±r in /
fu.kZ; nsdj fof/ }kjk LFkkfir çfØ;k ds nk;js dk foLrkj
kj.k djrk gSA
fd;k gS fd ,slh çfØ;k ¶fu"i{k] U;k;laxr vkSj mfpr
2. Hkkjr esa jk"Vªifr dk çlkni;±r dk fl¼kar iw.kZ gSA
gksuh pkfg;s] u fd dkYifud] neudkjh ;k euekuh¸\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ (a) esudk xka/h okn
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (b) ds'kokuan Hkkjrh okn
(c) ,l-vkj- cksEebZ okn
80. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (d) 'kk;jk ckuks okn
U;k;k/h'k lsokfuo`fÙk dh vk;q
84. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku ds fdl Hkkx esa vuqlwfpr {ks=kksa vkSj
1. mPp U;k;ky; % 65
tutkrh; {ks=kksa ds fy;s fo'ks"k çko/ku gSa] tks muds ç'kklu
2. lokZsPp U;k;ky; % 67 vkSj fodkl ds mik;ksa dks fufnZ"V djrs gSa\
3. v/huLFk U;k;ky; % 62 (a) Hkkx IX
mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls fdrus lgh lqesfyr gSa\ (b) Hkkx IX-A
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (c) Hkkx IX-B
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (d) Hkkx X
Harsh 24

77. Consider the following statements : 81. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider
1. Article 323 A contemplates the establishment the following :
of tribunals for public service matters only. 1. Preamble 2. Part III
2. Tribunals under Article 323 A can be established 3. Part IV 4. Part IVA
only by Parliament. How many of the above parts were amended by 97th
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only three (d) All four
78. Consider the following statements : 82. With reference to Joint State Public Service
1. Expression ‘Public Interest Litigation (PIL)’ Commission (JSPSC), consider the following
has been borrowed from American statements :
jurisprudence. 1. Parliament has the power to provide for the
2. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed against creation of a JSPSC by creating a law for it.
Government, as well as private parties. 2. Chairman and other members of JSPSC are
3. Only a person having direct interest in an issue appointed by the President of India.
can file a PIL. 3. Till date, no JSPSC have been created in India.
How many of the above statements are correct ? How many of the above statements are correct ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three (d) None
79. Consider the following statements : 83. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court
1. As per the Constitution of India, every person had expanded the scope of procedure established by
in the defence or civil service of the Union law by ruling that such procedure has to be “fair,
holds office as per the pleasure of the President. just and reasonable, not fanciful, oppressive or
2. In India the Doctrine of pleasure of President arbitrary” ?
is absolute. (a) Maneka Gandhi case
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (b) Kesavananda Bharati case
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) S.R. Bommai case
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Shayara Bano case
80. Consider the following pairs : 84. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains
Judge Retirement age special provisions for Scheduled Areas and Tribal
1. High court : 65 Areas, specifying measures for their administration
2. Supreme court : 67 and development ?
3. Lower courts : 62 (a) Part IX
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (b) Part IX-A
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Part IX-B
(c) All three (d) None (d) Part X
Harsh 25

85. fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl lfefr@vk;ksx esa ;g lq>ko fn;k (c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA
Fkk fd jkT;iky dk ik¡p o"kZ dk fuf'pr dk;Zdky gksuk (d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gSA
pkfg;s rFkk dsaæ ljdkj dh bPNkuqlkj mudk fu"dklu
88. ubZ vf•y Hkkjrh; lsok,¡ l`ftr djus ds fy;s laln dks
ugha fd;k tkuk pkfg;s\
vf/Ñr djus dh jkT;lHkk dh 'kfDr gS
(a) çFke ç'kklfud lq/kj vk;ksx (o"kZ 1966)
(a) jkT;lHkk dh fo'ks"k 'kfDr
(b) jkteUukj lfefr (o"kZ 1969)
(b) yksdlHkk ds leku leorhZ 'kfDr
(c) ljdkfj;k vk;ksx (o"kZ 1983)
(c) jkT;lHkk dh la?kh; 'kfDr
(d) iqaNh vk;ksx (o"kZ 2007)
(d) lHkh jkT;ksa dh lgefr ds ckn dk;kZUo;u ;ksX;
86. laifÙk ds vf/dkj dh laoS/kfud fLFkfr ds laca/ esa]
89. la?k yksd lsok vk;ksx ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. ;g lafo/ku ds Hkkx XI ds rgr ,d fof/d vf/
1. lafo/ku us vk;ksx dh 'kfDr fufnZ"V dh gSA
dkj gSA
2. lafo/ku vk;ksx dh lnL;rk ds fy;s Li"V ;ksX;rk
2. bls laln ds lkekU; fof/ ds ekè;e ls fofu;fer
fu/kZfjr djrk gSA
;k la'kksf/r fd;k tk ldrk gSA
3. lafo/ku jk"Vªifr dks vè;{k dh lsok dh 'krs± fu/
3. ;g lafo/ku dh ewy lajpuk dk fgLlk ugha gSA
kZfjr djus dk vf/dkj nsrk gSA
4. ;g dsoy dk;Zdkjh dkjZokbZ ds rgr futh laifÙk
dh j{kk djrk gSA
(a) dsoy ,d
(b) dsoy nks
(c) lHkh rhu
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
87. ^vko';d /kfeZd vkpj.k fl¼kar* ds lanHkZ es]a fuEufyf•r
90. jkT; yksd lsok vk;ksx (SPSC) ds {ks=kkf/dkj ls ckgj
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
ds fo"k;ksa ds laca/ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
dFku I%
dhft;s%
^vko';d /kfeZd vkpj.k fl¼kar* dks Hkkjr ds lafo/
1. vU; fiNM+k oxZ] vuqlwfpr tutkfr vkSj vuqlwfpr
ku ds vuqPNsn 25 ds }kjk oS/rk çnku dh xbZ gSA
tkfr ds i{k esa fu;qfDr;ksa ;k inksa dk vkj{k.k djrs
dFku II%
le; blls ijke'kZ ugha fd;k tkrk gSA
/eZ ls lacaf/r dkSu&ls vkpj.k ^vko';d* gS ;g fu/
kZfjr djus dh fo'ks"k 'kfDr laln esa fufgr gSA 2. jkT;iky inksa] lsokvksa vkSj fo"k;ksa dks SPSC ds
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ,d {ks=kkf/dkj ls ckgj dj ldrs gSaA
dFku lgh gS\ mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] (a) dsoy 1
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA (b) dsoy 2
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
dFku&I lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 26

85. Which one of the following committee/commission (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
suggested that the Governor should be given a fixed incorrect.
tenure of five years, and their removal should not (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
be to the sweet will of the Government at the Centre ? correct.
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission 88. Rajya Sabha’s power to authorize the Parliament to
(1966) create new All-India Services is
(b) Rajmannar Committee (1969) (a) Special power of Rajya Sabha
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) (b) Concurrent power vis-a-vis Lok Sabha
(d) Punchhi Commission (2007) (c) Federal power of Rajya Sabha
86. With respect to the constitutional position of Right (d) Executable after consent from all states
to Property, consider the following statements :
89. With reference to the Union Public Service
1. It is a legal right under Part XI of the
Commission, consider the following statements :
constitution.
1. The Constitution has specified the strength of
2. It can be regulated or modified through an
the commission.
ordinary law of Parliament.
2. The Constitution prescribes the explicit
3. It is not a part of the basic structure of the
qualification for the membership of the
constitution.
commission.
4. It protects private property under executive
3. The Constitution authorizes the President to
action only.
determine the conditions of the service of the
How many of the statements given above are chairman.
correct ?
(a) Only one
(c) Only three (d) All four
(b) Only two
(c) All three
‘Doctrine of Essential Religious Practices’ :
Statement I: (d) None
‘Doctrine of Essential Religious Practices’ drives 90. With respect to matters kept outside the jurisdiction
legitimacy from Article 25 of the constitution of of State Public Service Commission (SPSC)
India. consider the following statements :
Statement II: 1. It is not consulted while making reservation of
To determine which practices of the religion appointments or posts in favour of other
constitute ‘essential’ is the exclusive power of the backward classes, scheduled tribe and
Parliament. scheduled caste.
Which one of the following statements is correct in 2. The governor can exclude posts, services and
respect of the above statement ? matters from the purview of the SPSC.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I. (a) 1 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (b) 2 only
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation (c) Both 1 and 2
for Statement-I. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 27

91. jk"Vªh; fiNM+k oxZ vk;ksx (NCBC) ds lanHkZ esa] 95. iapk;rksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. iapk;r ds vçR;{k :i ls fuokZfpr lnL;ksa dks
1. 103osa laoS/kfud la'kks/u us NCBC ds fy;s ,d iapk;r dh cSBdksa esa er nsus dk vf/dkj ugha gSA
u;k vuqPNsn 338&B 'kkfey fd;kA 2. iapk;rksa dh dqy lhVksa esa ls de&ls&de ,d frgkbZ
2. vk;ksx esa ,d vè;{k] ,d mikè;{k vkSj rhu vU; dk vkj{k.k dk çko/ku ukjh 'kfDr oanu vf/fu;e]
lnL; gksrs gSaA 2023 }kjk fd;k x;kA
3. iapk;r laca/h lHkh pquko djkus dh 'kfDr jkT;
3. bldh vuq'kalk,¡ dsoy lykgdkjh çÑfr dh gSaA
fuokZpu vk;ksx esa fufgr gSA
4. blesa fdlh eqdnes dh lquokbZ ds fy;s flfoy
U;k;ky; dh lHkh 'kfDr;k¡ gSaA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(a) dsoy ,d
uhps fn;s x, dwV dk mi;ksx djds lgh mÙkj pqfu;s%
(b) dsoy nks
(a) 1 vkSj 2 (b) 2 vkSj 4
(c) lHkh rhu
(c) 1, 2 vkSj 3 (d) 2, 3 vkSj 4 (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
92. ;fn Hkkjr dk jk"Vªifr fdlh fo'ks"k jkT; ds lanHkZ esa 96. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
lafo/ku ds vuqPNsn 356 ds rgr çnku dh xbZ viuh 1. 73osa laoS/kfud la'kks/u vf/fu;e] 1992 ds çko/
'kfDr dk ç;ksx djrk gS] rks% ku ukxkySaM] es?kky; vkSj v#.kkpy çns'k ij ykxw
(a) jkT; dh fo/kulHkk Lor% Hkax gks tkrh gSA ugha gksrs gSaA
(b) ml jkT; ds fo/kueaMy dh 'kfDr;ksa dk ç;ksx laln 2. iapk;r mica/ (vuqlwfpr {ks=kksa ij foLrkj) vf/
ds vf/dkj ds rgr fd;k tk ldrk gSA fu;e] 1996 dqN la'kks/uksa ds lkFk iapk;rksa ls
(c) ml jkT; esa vuqPNsn 19 fuyafcr gks tkrk gSA lacaf/r lafo/ku ds Hkkx IX ds çko/kuksa dks
vuqlwfpr {ks=kksa rd foLrkfjr djrk gSA
(d) jk"Vªifr ml jkT; ls lacaf/r dkuwu cuk ldrk gSA
93. fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl lewg dh lHkh pkj Hkk"kkvksa dks
(a) dsoy 1
'kkL=kh; Hkk"kk dk n”kkZ fn;k x;k gS\
(b) dsoy 2
(a) rfey] rsyqxq] fganh] mfM+;k
(b) dUuM+] laFkkyh] mnZw] laLÑr
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(c) laLÑr] ey;kye] ejkBh] eSfFkyh
(d) dUuM+] rfey] ey;kye] mfM+;k
1. vf/lwfpr {ks=k lfefr esa fuokZfpr rFkk euksuhr nksuksa
94. vkoklu ,oa 'kgjh dk;Z ea=kky; }kjk ykWUp fd;k x;k lnL; gksrs gSaA
AAINA MS'kcksMZ lacaf/r gS 2. uxj fuxe vk;qDr uxj fuxe dk fuokZfpr eq[;
(a) ve`r fe'ku ifj;kstukvksa ds dk;kZUo;u dh fLFkfr dk;Zdkjh çkf/dkjh gksrk gSA
ls mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(b) 'kgjh LFkkuh; fudk;ksa ds fy;s çn'kZu esfVªDl ls (a) dsoy 1
(c) ç/kuea=kh vkokl ;kstuk ds varxZr yf{kr ykHkkFkhZ (b) dsoy 2
ls (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
(d) LekVZ flVh fe'ku ds varxZr mi&?kVd ls (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 28

91. Consider the following statements with reference to 95. Consider the following statements with reference to
National Commission for Backward Classes panchayats :
(NCBC) : 1. The indirectly elected members of a panchayat
1. 103rd constitutional amendment inserted a new do not have the right to vote at the meetings of
Article 338-B for NCBC. the panchayat.
2. The commission consists of a chairperson, a 2. The reservation of not less than one-third of
vice-chairperson and three other members. the total number of seats in panchayats is
3. Its recommendations are only advisory in provided for by the Nari Shakti Vandan
nature. Adhiniyam, 2023.
4. It has all the powers of a civil court to try a suit. 3. Power to conduct all elections to the panchayats
is vested in the state election commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(b) Only two
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) All three
92. If the President of India exercises his power as (d) None
provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of a
particular State, then
1. The provisions of the 73rd Constitutional
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically
Amendment Act, 1992 do not apply to
dissolved.
Nagaland, Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that state can
2. Panchayats Extension to the Scheduled Areas
be exercised under the authority of the
Act, 1996 extends the provisions of Part IX of
Parliament. the constitution relating to panchayats to
(c) article 19 is suspended in that State. scheduled areas with certain modifications.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that
State.
(a) 1 only
93. In which one of the following groups are all the four (b) 2 only
languages conferred with classical language status ? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Tamil, Telugu, Hindi, Odia (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Kannada, Santhali, Urdu, Sanskrit
(c) Sanskrit, Malayalam, Marathi, Maithili 1. Notified area committee has both elected as
(d) Kannada, Tamil, Malayalam, Odia well as nominated members.
94. AAINA Dashboard launched by Ministry of Housing 2. The municipal commissioner is the elected
and Urban Affairs is best associated with chief executive authority of a municipal
(a) Implementation status of AMRUT Mission corporation.
projects Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(b) Performance metrics for Urban Local Bodies (a) 1 only
(c) Targeted beneficiaries under Pradhan Mantri (b) 2 only
Awas Yojna (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Sub-components under Smart Cities Mission (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 29

98. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ,d lafof/d fudk; ugha gS\ dsoy nks
(a)
(a) uxj fuxe dsoy rhu
(b)
(b) uxj {ks=k lfefr dsoy pkj
(c)
(c) iksVZ VªLV lHkh ik¡p
(d)
(d) vf/lwfpr {ks=k lfefr 100. LFkkuh; ljdkj gsrq dsaæh; ifj"kn ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
99. 'kgjh LFkkuh; fudk; ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ij fopkj
1. ;g 74osa laoS/kfud la'kks/u] 1992 ds ckn LFkkfir
dhft;s%
,d laoS/kfud fudk; gSA
1. uxjh; lq/kj U;kl 2. ;g ,d ijke'kZnk;h fudk; gS tks xzkeh.k LFkkuh;
2. Vkmuf'ki ljdkj ls tqM+s fo"k;ksa dks lacksf/r djrk gSA
3. vkoklh; cksMZ mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
4. 'kgjh fodkl çkf/dj.k (a) dsoy 1
5. Nkouh cksMZ (b) dsoy 2
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruksa dks fo'ks"k ç;kstu ,tsalh ekuk tk (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
ldrk gS\ (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 30

98. Which among the following is not a statutory body? (a) Only two
(a) Municipal Corporation (b) Only three
(b) Town Area Committee (c) Only four
(c) Port Trust (d) All five
(d) Notified Area Committee 100. Consider the following statements with reference to
Central Council of Local Government :
99. With reference to urban local government, consider
1. It is a constitutional body set up after the 74th
the following :
Constitutional Amendment, 1992.
1. Town improvement trust
2. It is an advisory body that deals with matters
2. Township of rural local government.
3. Housing board Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
4. Urban development authority (a) 1 only
5. Cantonment board (b) 2 only
How many of the above can be considered as Special (c) Both 1 and 2
Purpose Agency ? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 31

CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET SERIES
TEST BOOKLET
Test Code:
P1/P2/P3-2414 GENERAL STUDIES
TEST – 14
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
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2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN
THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
in the Box provided alongside this line. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each
question is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
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6. All items carry equal marks.
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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and examination has concluded,
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(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
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(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
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Note: Hindi version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this Booklet.

CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
TEST BOOKLET SERIES

ANSWER & EXPLANATION
Test Code:
P1/P2/P3-2414 GENERAL STUDIES
(English Version) TEST – 14
ANSWERS
Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers
1 (b) 26 (b) 51 (b) 76 (c)
2 (c) 27 (a) 52 (d) 77 (c)
3 (d) 28 (c) 53 (c) 78 (a)
4 (b) 29 (a) 54 (a) 79 (a)
5 (d) 30 (d) 55 (d) 80 (d)
6 (b) 31 (c) 56 (a) 81 (b)
7 (a) 32 (b) 57 (a) 82 (b)
8 (c) 33 (c) 58 (b) 83 (a)
9 (c) 34 (c) 59 (b) 84 (d)
10 (d) 35 (b) 60 (c) 85 (d)
11 (d) 36 (c) 61 (d) 86 (c)
12 (d) 37 (b) 62 (d) 87 (c)
13 (d) 38 (c) 63 (b) 88 (a)
14 (a) 39 (c) 64 (b) 89 (a)

15 (b) 40 (c) 65 (d) 90 (c)
16 (a) 41 (b) 66 (a) 91 (d)
17 (a) 42 (b) 67 (b) 92 (b)
18 (c) 43 (b) 68 (a) 93 (d)
19 (a) 44 (c) 69 (c) 94 (b)
20 (d) 45 (b) 70 (c) 95 (a)
21 (a) 46 (c) 71 (d) 96 (b)
22 (c) 47 (b) 72 (b) 97 (d)
23 (b) 48 (a) 73 (d) 98 (d)
24 (b) 49 (b) 74 (c) 99 (b)
25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (c) 100 (d)

1. (b) They are periodically revised to reflect improved data
availability and insights from new research. Hence,
Explanation:
option (c) is correct.
Bureau of India Standards (BIS) has prohibited the
sale of hallmarked gold jewellery or gold artefacts 3. (d)
without 6-digit alphanumeric Hallmark Unique
Identification Number (HUID) after 31st March 2023. Explanation:
However, Hallmarked jewellery lying with consumers India Brazil-South africa (IBSA) is a unique Forum
as per old schemes shall remain valid. Hence, statement which brings together India, Brazil and South Africa,
(1) is correct and statement (2) is NOT correct. three large democracies and major economies from three
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the National different continents, facing similar challenges.
Standards Body is a statutory body functioning under All three countries are developing, pluralistic, multi-
the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public cultural, multi-ethnic, multi-lingual and multi-
Distribution, Government of India. Hence, statement religious nations.
(3) is correct. The grouping was formalized and named the IBSA
Hallmarking is the accurate determination and official Dialogue Forum when the Foreign Ministers of the
recording of the proportionate content of precious metal three countries met in Brasilia on 6 June 2003 and
in precious metal articles. issued the Brasilia Declaration.
Hallmarking scheme for Jewellery was started by IBSA’s success demonstrates, most vividly, the
BIS in the year 2000. In India, at present two precious desirability and feasibility of South-South cooperation
metals namely gold and silver have been brought beyond the conventional areas of exchange of experts
under the purview of Hallmarking. and training. Hence, option (d) is correct.
However, Mandatory Hallmarking has been successfully
implemented in 288 districts of the country with effect 4. (b)
from 23 June 2021 by Hallmarking of Gold Jewellery
Explanation:
and Gold Artefacts Order, 2022.
Project Greensand is a project that aims to reduce
After introduction of 6-digit HUID in 2021, hallmark
consisted of 3 marks viz, BIS logo, purity of the article carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions by capturing and
and six-digit alphanumeric HUID. Each hallmarked storing them in the North Sea. The project’s goal is
article has unique HUID number which is traceable. to safely store up to 8 million tons of CO2 per year in
the Siri area of the North Sea.
2. (c) Project Greensand is the first project to demonstrate that
Explanation: CO2 can be transported across national borders and
The Committee for Development Policy (CDP) is stored offshore. It also marks the first cross-border
mandated by the General Assembly (GA) and the offshore injection of CO2.
Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) to review The project is in Denmark. Denmark is also the first
the list of LDCs every three years and to make country to import and bury CO2 undersea. Hence,
recommendations on the inclusion and graduation of option (b) is correct.
eligible countries using the following criteria:
Â Income
5. (d)
Â Human Assets Explanation:
Â Economic and Environmental Vulnerability In the mega international event held on April 2023, at
Each of the three criteria is measured using key Mysuru, Karnataka, to commemorate 50 years of
indicators which reflect long-term structural handicaps. Project Tiger, the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi
These indicators are chosen on the basis that they are launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for
methodologically robust, maintain stability of the conservation of seven big cats namely Tiger, Lion,
criteria, ensure equal treatment of countries over time, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma
and are frequently updated for all countries. harbouring our planet.
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, Harsh 2
Dr. Mukherjee Karol Bagh, New Civil Lines, Vidhan Sabha Marg, Tower-2, Main Tonk Road,
Nagar, Delhi Delhi Prayagraj Lucknow Vasundhara Colony, Jaipur

India has a long-standing experience on the tiger agenda Â National Higher Education Qualification Framework
and conservation of other big cats like lion, snow (NHEQF), and
leopard, leopard, and now the translocation of the Â National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF).
Cheetah to bring an extinct big cat back to its natural The total ‘Notional Learning hours in a year’ for
habitat. assignment of Credits will be 1200 hours. A minimum
The alliance aims to reach out to 97 countries of 40 credits may be earned for 1200 hours of
covering the natural habitats of Tiger, Lion, Snow learning every year with 20 credits per semester of
Leopard, Puma, Jaguar, and Cheetah. IBCA would six months.
further strengthen global cooperation and efforts to Notional hours refer to the time that the average student
conserve the wild denizens, especially the big cats. would need to attend all classes, study for tests and do
Hence, option (d) is correct. assignments and homework. Hence, option (a) is
correct.
6. (b)
Explanation: 8. (c)
The Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) Explanation:
in Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari District of Tamil The doctrine of promissory estoppel is a contract law
Nadu is one of the protected areas having diverse flora concept. It prevents someone from going back on a
and fauna. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct and promise. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
statement (2) is correct. It states that if someone makes a promise to another
This region has got vegetation types which gradually person and the other person relies on that promise, the
changes from dry thorn forest to dry deciduous, moist person who made the promise cannot later renege on it.
deciduous and a patch of West coast wet evergreen In the Chhaganlal Keshavalal Mehta v. Patel
forests on the higher reaches of the reserve. Narandas Haribhai (1981) case, the Supreme Court
KMTR was declared as the “First Tiger Reserve of listed out a checklist for when the doctrine can be
Tamil Nadu” and the 17th Tiger Reserve of the applied.
country. Forests of this reserve have rich biodiversity Â Firstly, there must be a clear and unambiguous
and endemism. promise.
Â Secondly, the plaintiff must have acted relying
7. (a) reasonably on that promise.
Explanation: Â Thirdly, the plaintiff must have suffered a loss.
The University Grants Commission has announced The Supreme Court recently pointed out that “promissory
the implementation of the National Credit estoppel is always subject to overarching public
Framework (NCrF) for all regulatory organisations interest”. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
and universities in India.
This framework is designed to integrate the credits 9. (c)
earned through school education, higher education, Explanation:
vocational, and skill education, and provide lifelong Indian Prime Minister recently referred to the
learning opportunities. Uttaramerur inscription in Kanchipuram, Tamil
According to the framework, an academic year will be Nadu, while discussing India’s democratic history.
defined by the number of hours a student puts in and The inscription, dating back to the reign of Chola
credits will be provided to them accordingly at the end Ruler Parantaka I (907-953 AD), provides a detailed
of each academic year. NCrF is a meta-framework that description of how the village’s self-governance
consists of three verticals: functioned.
Â National School Education Qualification Framework The inscription describes how the local sabha, or
(NSEQF) village assembly, functioned. It outlines how members

were selected, the qualifications required, and their roles Occupying an area of 17 square miles (44 square km),
and responsibilities, including specialized committees it consists of a V-shaped sand-fringed cay about 15
tasked with different functions. Hence, statement (1) miles (24 km) in length with a maximum width of about
is correct. 7 miles (11 km); its lagoon is open at the north end.
The sabha was exclusively composed of brahmans, Diego Garcia is an island of the British Indian Ocean
and the inscription detailed the circumstances in which Territory, a disputed overseas territory of the United
members could be removed. Hence, statement (2) is Kingdom also claimed by Mauritius. Hence, statement
correct. (2) is NOT correct.
The island had been in news because of several stranded
10. (d) Tamilians.
Explanation: 13. (d)
In August 2021, Operation Devi Shakti was launched
to facilitate the safe return of Indian nationals from Explanation:
Afghanistan following the fall of Kabul. Hence, pair The first mangrove pitta bird census was conducted
(1) is NOT correctly matched. in two coastal districts of Odisha (Kendrapara and
In 2022, Operation Ganga was executed to evacuate Jagatsingpur). Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct.
The Mangrove Pitta bird (Pitta megarhyncha) is a
Indian nationals stranded in Ukraine due to
heightened tensions between Russia and Ukraine. species of bird that can be found in a few pockets of
Hence, pair (2) is NOT correctly matched. eastern India, including Odisha’s Bhitarkanika and
West Bengal’s Sundarbans.
Operation Dost was launched to aid Syria and
The Mangrove Pitta bird is a ground forager (an animal
Turkey after a devastating earthquake on February 6,
that searches widely for food) and tree rester that
2023, it signifies India’s commitment to humanitarian
primarily inhabits coastal mangrove forests in India.
assistance. Hence, pair (3) is NOT correctly matched.
The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of
Similarly, Operation Kaveri, also launched in 2023,
Nature) has categorized and evaluated the species and
focuses on rescuing over 3,000 Indian citizens
has listed it as “Near Threatened”. Hence, statement
stranded in Sudan. The country is experiencing tension
(2) is NOT correct.
due to conflicts between the army and a paramilitary
These birds are found in India, Bangladesh, Myanmar,
force. Hence, pair (4) is NOT correctly matched.
Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore, Indonesia.
11. (d)
14. (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
C+C5 stands for China plus Central Asia. It’s a group
Wheat blast is a destructive fungal disease that affects
made up of China and the five Central Asian republics: wheat production in tropical areas of South America and
Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, South Asia. It’s caused by the plant fungus Magnaporthe
Kyrgyzstan. Hence, option (d) is correct. oryzae pathotype Triticum.
In April 2023, China convened an online meeting of Wheat blast can shrivel and deform wheat grains within
trade ministers from the C+C5 group. It was the latest a week of the first symptoms. It can cause bleaching of
in a series of diplomatic engagements by China with the heads and can lower yields. In favourable conditions,
the region since the Russian invasion of Ukraine. it can cause complete yield loss.
Wheat blast is a serious disease that threatens wheat
12. (d)
cultivation in some of the poorest parts of the world. It
Explanation: has the potential to spread throughout the world.
Diego Garcia, coral atoll, largest and southernmost The fungicides azoxystrobin plus tebuconazole,
member of the Chagos Archipelago, in the central Indian trifloxystrobin plus prothioconazole, and
Ocean is part of the British Indian Ocean Territory pyraclostrobin plus epoxconazole can reduce disease
located just south of equator. Hence, statement (1) is control by 43–58% and increase yield performance.
NOT correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

15. (b) genomes, researchers can learn about these unique
genetic variants and use the information to create
Explanation: personalized drugs and therapies. Hence, statement (2)
Defamation refers to the communication of a false is NOT correct.
statement that harms the reputation of an individual The Human Genome Project (HGP) was a voyage of
person, business, product, group, or government. This biological discovery led by an international group of
can occur through spoken words (slander) or written researchers looking to comprehensively study all of the
words (libel). Hence, statement (1) is correct. DNA (known as a genome) of a select set of organisms
In India, defamation is both a civil wrong and a by the National Human Genome Research Institute.
criminal offense. Criminal law deals with criminal Launched in October 1990 and completed in April 2003,
defamation, and a person can be criminally prosecuted the Human Genome Project’s signature accomplishment
for defamatory statements. Additionally, defamation can – generating the first sequence of the human genome
also be the basis for a civil lawsuit in Tort laws where – provided fundamental information about the human
the affected party seeks damages. Hence, statement blueprint, which has since accelerated the study of
(2) is NOT correct. human biology and improved the practice of medicine.
Defamatory statements can be both spoken and written. 17. (a)
Slander refers to spoken defamatory statements,
while libel refers to written or published defamatory Explanation:
statements. In legal terms, both slander and libel are The National Quantum Mission (NQM), with a budget
of Rs. 6003.65 crore spanning from 2023-24 to 2030-31,
forms of defamation. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
aims to catapult India into a global leader in Quantum
16. (a) Technology (QT). Hence, statement (2) is NOT
correct.
Explanation: It focuses on:
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, Â Developing intermediate-scale quantum computers
the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the in 8 years.
ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) in 2020. Â Enabling secure quantum communications within
Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct, and statement India and globally.
(1) is correct. Â Creating advanced tools like magnetometers and
The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from atomic clocks. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
citizens across India, to build a reference genome. This
Â Innovating quantum materials for devices.
is no mean feat, given that the genome contains all the
Â Building photon sources/detectors for various
genetic matter in an organism, i.e., the complete set of
applications.
DNAs.
Implementation involves setting up four Thematic Hubs
This project is led by the Centre for Brain Research at
in top academic and R&D institutes. NQM is poised to
Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Science, which acts
revolutionize sectors like communication, health,
as the central coordinator between a collaboration of 20
finance, and energy. It aligns with national initiatives
leading institutions, each collecting samples and
like Digital India, Make in India, and Sustainable
conducting its own research. Institutes involved include Development Goals, fostering a more self-reliant and
the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in Bengaluru as competitive technology ecosystem.
well as several Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs).
India’s population of 1.3 billion is made up of over 18. (c)
4,600 diverse population groups, many of which are Explanation:
endogamous (Matrimony in Close Ethnic Groups). Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, Consumer
These groups have unique genetic variations and Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and Textiles
disease-causing mutations that cannot be compared to launched the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 which
other populations. By creating a database of Indian came into effect from April 1, 2023.

The policy is based on the principles of trust and They must also fall under the ‘Affordable and
Â
partnership with exporters and aims at process re- Middle-Income Project’ category (any housing
engineering and automation to facilitate ease of doing projects wherein housing units do not exceed 200
business for exporters. sq.m.).
The key approach is based on Four Pillars: Net-worth positive projects are also eligible for
Â Incentive to Remission, SWAMIH funding.
Â Export promotion through collaboration - Exporters, Objective:
States, Districts, Indian Missions, Â It aims to provide financing to enable completion of
stalled housing projects and ensure delivery of
Â Ease of doing business, reduction in transaction
apartments to homebuyers.
cost and e-initiatives, and
Â To unlock liquidity in the real estate sector and
Â Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing
provide a boost to core industries such as cement
Districts as Export Hubs and streamlining Special
and steel. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment,
and Technologies (SCOMET) policy. Hence, 20. (d)
statement (2) is correct.
Explanation:
Goals and Targets:
The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the
Â The government aims to increase India’s overall
IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable
exports to USD 2 trillion by 2030, with equal
currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged
contributions from the merchandise and services
for these currencies.
sectors. Hence, statement (1) is correct. The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and
Â The government also intends to encourage the use some other international organizations.
of the Indian currency in cross-border trade, The currency value of the SDR is determined by
aided by a new payment settlement framework summing the values in US dollars, based on market
introduced by the RBI in July 2022. exchange rates, of a SDR basket of currencies.
Â This could be particularly advantageous in the case The SDR basket of currencies includes the US dollar,
of countries with which India enjoys a trade surplus. Euro, Japanese yen, pound sterling and the Chinese
renminbi (included in 2016).
19. (a) The SDR currency value is calculated daily (except on
IMF holidays or whenever the IMF is closed for
Explanation:
business) and the valuation basket is reviewed and
SWAMIH Investment Fund (Special Window for
adjusted every five years.
Affordable & Mid-Income Housing) is a government
Quota (the amount contributed to the IMF) of a
backed fund, set up as a Category-II AIF (Alternate
country is denominated in SDRs.
Investment Fund) debt fund registered with SEBI Members’ voting power is related directly to their
(Securities and Exchange Board of India), launched quotas.
in 2019. IMF makes the general SDR allocation to its members
The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance and in proportion to their existing quotas in the IMF.
is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd. (a State Bank India’s foreign exchange reserves also incorporate
Group company). SDR other than gold reserves, foreign currency assets
Eligibility Criteria: and Reserve Tranche in the IMF. Hence, option (d) is
Â The real estate projects must be Real Estate correct.
(Regulation and Development) Act (RERA)-
registered which have been stalled due to a lack of 21. (a)
adequate funds. Explanation:
Â Each of these projects must be very close to The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) provides financial
completion. assistance given by the International Monetary Fund

to countries facing serious medium-term balance of TReDS is an electronic platform for facilitating the
payments problems because of structural weaknesses financing / discounting of trade receivables of Micro,
that require time to address. To help countries implement Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) through
medium-term structural reforms, the EFF offers longer multiple financiers. These receivables can be due from
program engagement and a longer repayment period. corporates and other buyers, including Government
Hence, option (a) is correct. Departments and Public Sector Undertakings
Periodic reviews of policies and program implementation, (PSUs). Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
as access to IMF resources occurs in tranches. The Sellers, buyers and financiers are the participants on a
IMF’s Executive Board regularly assesses program TReDS platform.
performance and can adjust the program to adapt to Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS.
economic developments. Hence, statement (1) Is correct.
Corporates, Government Departments, PSUs and any
22. (c) other entity can participate as buyers in TReDS.
Explanation: Banks, NBFC - Factors and other financial institutions
FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976
as permitted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), can
amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering participate as financiers in TReDS.
in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country 24. (b)
through independent organizations. Hence, statement
(1) is correct. Explanation:
The FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to The Indian Space Policy 2023 was approved by the
receive foreign donations to be: Cabinet Committee on Security.
The policy seeks to institutionalize private sector
registered under the Act
participation in the space sector, with ISRO focusing
to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign
on research and development of advanced space
funds in State Bank of India, Delhi
technologies.
to utilize those funds only for the purpose for which
The policy delineates the roles and responsibilities of
they have been received and as stipulated in the Act.
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), space
FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or
sector PSU NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), and
associations that have definite cultural, economic,
Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization
educational, religious, and social program.
Center (IN-SPACe).
FCRA registration is valid for 5 years, and NGOs are
The policy will help India increase its share in the global
expected to apply for renewal within six months of
space economy substantially from less than 2% to 10%
the date of expiry of registration. Hence, statement (2) in the future. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
is correct. The policy will allow the private sector to take part
The government can also cancel the FCRA registration in end-to-end space activities that include building
of any NGO if it finds that the NGO is in violation satellites, rockets, and launch vehicles, data collection
of the Act, if it has not been engaged in any reasonable and dissemination. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
activity in its chosen field for the benefit of society for The private sector can use ISRO facilities for a small
two consecutive years, or if it has become defunct. charge and is encouraged to invest in creating new
Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not infrastructure for the sector.
eligible for re-registration for three years. There is no such legal framework that provides
insurance against damage due to space debris Hence,
23. (b)
statement (3) is NOT correct.
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the 25. (b)
guidelines for setting up and operating the Trade Explanation:
Receivables Discounting System (TReDS). Hence, Bandicoot, a robot that can clean manholes. Hence,
statement (3) is correct. option (b) is correct.

The device’s drone unit, improvised with four spider- targeted zone, and allowable operating conditions of
like legs to grip the sides of a manhole, can grip and subsystems, especially the maximum deliverable thrust
pull-out waste. It thereby eliminates the need for people and the maximum firing duration constraint on thrusters.
to physically descend into the dangerous, often toxic-gas All manoeuvre plans were screened to ensure that there
spewing manholes. would be no post manoeuvre close approaches with
Genrobotics, the Kerala-based startup that created other space objects, especially with the crewed space
Bandicoot and started off in their home state, now has stations like International Space Stations and the
orders to supply Bandicoots to 18 other states in India. Chinese Space Station.
26. (b) 28. (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
Union Budget 2023-24 has announced the setting up of NASA and the Italian space agency Agenzia Spaziale
the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF) Italiana (ASI) are partnering to build and launch the
through use of priority sector lending shortfall. Rs. Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols (MAIA) mission in
10,000 crore per annum will be made available for this low earth orbit, an effort to investigate the health
purpose. Hence, statement (2) is correct. impacts of tiny airborne particles polluting some of the
The Fund will be managed by the National Housing world’s most populous cities. Hence, statement (1) is
Bank and will be used by public agencies to create correct.
urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities on the MAIA marks the first NASA mission whose primary
basis of given guidelines. Hence, statement (1) is goal is to benefit societal health, as well as the first time
epidemiologists and public health researchers have been
correct and statement (3) is NOT correct.
directly involved in development of a satellite mission.
As per the Budget announcement, States will be
Hence, statement (2) is correct.
encouraged to leverage resources from the grants of the
Set to launch before the end of 2024, the MAIA
15th Finance Commission, as well as existing schemes,
observatory will consist of a satellite known as
to adopt appropriate user charges while accessing the
PLATiNO-2 provided by ASI and a science instrument
UIDF.
built at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in Southern
The Fund would be operationalised broadly along the
California.
lines of the existing Rural Infrastructure Development
The mission will collect and analyse data from the
Fund.
observatory, sensors on the ground, and atmospheric
27. (a) models.
Explanation: 29. (a)

The controlled re-entry experiment for the Explanation:
decommissioned Megha-Tropiques-1 (MT-1) was Dabba trading is a form of informal trading that takes
carried out successfully on March 7, 2023. Hence, place outside the purview of the stock exchanges.
option (a) is correct. In this practice, traders bet on stock price movements
The satellite was launched on October 12, 2011, as a without incurring a real transaction to take physical
collaborative effort between ISRO and the French space ownership of a particular stock as is done in an exchange.
agency CNES for carrying out tropical weather and This results in gambling centred around stock price
climate studies. Since August 2022, the satellite’s movements, which is illegal and unregulated. Hence,
perigee was progressively lowered through a series of statement (1) is correct.
20 manoeuvres spending about 120 kg of fuel. It is recognised as an offence under Section 23(1) of
Multiple Manoeuvres including the final de-boost the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act (SCRA),
strategy were designed after taking into consideration 1956 and upon conviction, can invite imprisonment for
several constraints, including visibility of the re-entry a term extending up to 10 years or a fine up to ₹25 crore,
trace over ground stations, ground impact within the or both. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.

30. (d) UNITED STATES Fundamental rights
Explanation: Power of judicial review
Bihar’s famous ‘Marcha Rice/ Mircha Rice’ which is Independence of Judiciary
known for its aroma and palatability was awarded the CANADIAN Quasi federal form of government
Geographical Indication tag, according to the GI registry.
Idea of residual powers
Marcha is a short indigenous cultivar of rice found in
West Champaran district of Bihar. Hence, statement IRISH Directive principles of state policy
(2) is NOT correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.
By its size and shape, its grain appears like black
pepper, so it is known as ‘Mircha’ (pepper in Hindi) or 33. (c)
‘Marcha Rice’. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. Explanation:
Right to freedom of religion:
31. (c)
Â Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice
Explanation: and propagation of religion.
It specifies the basic allocation of power in a society. Â Freedom to manage religious affairs.
It decides who gets to decide what the laws will be. Â Freedom to pay taxes for promotion of any particular
religion.
It is a significant rule of the nation. Â Freedom to attend religious instructions or worship
The relationship of people with governments is decided in certain educational institutions.
by this. Cultural and educational rights:
It sets down standards and procedures that are necessary Â Protection of language and culture of minorities.
to live in peace for individuals belonging to various
Â Right of minorities to establish educational
religious groups.
institutions.
It sets out how the government will be chosen and who
will have the authority and duty to decide things. Protection of right to form association is under right to
It defines the parameters of the government’s control freedom. Hence, option (c) is correct.
and informs us about people’s rights. 34. (c)
The first function of the constitution is to provide a set of
basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst Explanation:
members of society. Hence, statement (1) is correct. State legislatures cannot begin a constitutional
The second function of the constitution is to specify amendment process; instead, a measure must be
who has power to make decisions in a society. Hence, introduced in one of the two houses of Parliament.
statement (2) is correct. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
The third function of the constitution is to set limits on The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a
what government can impose on its citizens. Hence, private member and does not require prior permission
statement (3) is correct. of the president. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
It provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a
32. (b) special majority of Parliament and the special majority
Explanation: of parliament along with the ratification of half of the
states legislatures by a simple majority.
CONSTITUTION BORROWED FEATURES Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution
BRITISH First past the post requires amendment by a simple majority of each house
Parliamentary form of government present and voting. These amendments are not deemed
Rule of law to be amendments under Article 368.
After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an Act
Institution of speaker
(i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution
Law making procedure
stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

35. (b) 37. (b)
Union list State list Concurrent list Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the
Defence Agriculture Forest ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states
while the former includes not only the states, but also
Atomic energy Prison Trade union
union territories and territories that may be acquired by
Post and telegraph Livestock and Transfer of the Government of India at any future time. Hence,
animal husbandry property other statement (1) is correct.
than agriculture The states are the members of the federal system and
land share a distribution of powers with the Centre. Hence,
Airways Land Education statement (2) is correct.
Ports Local government Adoption and The union territories and the acquired territories, on the
succession other hand, are directly administered by the Central
Hence, option (b) is correct. Government. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign
36. (c) territories according to the modes recognised by
international law, i.e., cession (following treaty,
Explanation:
purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto
Equality: The term ‘Equality’ means no section of
unoccupied by a recognized ruler), conquest or
society has any special privileges and all the people
subjugation.
have given equal opportunities for everything without
For example, India acquired several foreign territories
any discriminations. Everyone is equal before the law.
such as Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu;
Liberty: The term ‘Liberty’ means freedom for the
Puducherry; and Sikkim since the commencement of
people to choose their way of life, have political views
the Constitution.
and behavior in society. Liberty does not mean freedom
to do anything, a person can do anything but in the limit 38. (c)
set by the law.
Fraternity: The term ‘Fraternity’ means a feeling of Explanation:
brotherhood and an emotional attachment with the Loss of Citizenship
country and all the people. Fraternity helps to promote The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes three ways of losing
dignity and unity in the nation. citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it
Importance of Objectives: It provides a way of life. It under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and
includes fraternity, liberty, and equality as the notion deprivation:
of a happy life and which can not be taken from each By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of full age and
other. capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian
Liberty cannot be divorced from equality; equality citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration,
cannot be divorced from liberty. Nor can liberty and that person ceases to be a citizen of India.
equality be divorced from fraternity. By Termination: When an Indian citizen voluntarily
Without equality, liberty would produce the supremacy (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue
of the few over the many. influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of
Equality without liberty would kill individual another country, his Indian citizenship automatically
initiative. Hence, statement (1) is correct. terminates.
Without fraternity, liberty would produce the supremacy By Deprivation: It is a compulsory termination of
of the few over the many. Indian citizenship by the Central government, if:
Without fraternity, liberty and equality could not become Â the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud:
a natural course of things. Hence, statement (2) is Â the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution
correct. of India:

the citizen has unlawfully traded or Also, different sums may be fixed for different states.
communicated with the enemy during a war; These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of
the citizen has, within five years after India every year.
registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also
in any country for two years; and provides for specific grants for promoting the welfare
the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of of the scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level
India for seven years continuously. Hence,
of administration of the scheduled areas in a state
option (c) is correct.
including the State of Assam.
39. (c) The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general
and specific) are given to the states on the
Explanation:
recommendation of the Finance Commission. Hence,
The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws
on any matter enumerated in the State List under the statement (2) is correct.
following five extraordinary circumstances: Discretionary Grants
When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states
Â If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is
the national interest that Parliament should make not within their respective legislative competence.
laws with respect to goods and services tax or a Under this provision, the Centre makes grants to the
matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes states.
competent to make laws on that matter. These grants are also known as discretionary grants, the
Â Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds reason being that the Centre is under no obligation to
of the members present and voting. The resolution give these grants and the matter lies within its discretion.
remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any These grants have a two-fold purpose: to help the state
number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. financially to fulfil plan targets;
During a National Emergency To give some leverage to the Centre to influence and
Â The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with coordinate state action to effectuate the national plan.
respect to goods and services tax or matters in the
State List, while a proclamation of national 41. (b)
emergency is in operation.
Explanation:
During President’s Rule
Central Vigilance Commission is the apex vigilance
Â When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the
institution, free of control from any executive authority,
Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with
monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central
respect to any matter in the State List in relation to
that state. Government and advising various authorities in Central
Government organizations in planning, executing,
When States Make a Request
reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.
Â When the legislatures of two or more states pass
resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws Vigilance means to ensure clean and prompt
on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can administrative action towards achieving efficiency
make laws for regulating that matter. Hence, option and effectiveness of the employees in particular and the
(c) is correct. organization in general, as lack of Vigilance leans to
waste, losses and economic decline.
40. (c) The CVC was set up by the Government in February
Explanation: 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on
Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K.
Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants Santhanam.
to the states which are in need of financial assistance In 2003, the Parliament enacted CVC Act conferring
and not to every state. Hence, statement (1) is correct. statutory status on the CVC.

The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/ He is provided with the security of tenure. Hence,
Department. It is an independent body which is only statement (1) is correct.
responsible to Parliament. He can be removed by the president only in accordance
It is not an investigating agency. Hence, statement with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus,
(1) is NOT correct. he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the
The CVC either gets the investigation done through the president, though he is appointed by him. Hence,
CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in statement (2) is correct.
government offices. He is not eligible for further office, either under the
It is empowered to inquire into offences alleged to have Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to
been committed under the Prevention of Corruption hold his office.
Act, 1988 by certain categories of public servants. His salary and other service conditions are determined
Its annual report gives the details of the work done by by Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of
the commission and points to systemic failures which the Supreme Court. Hence, statement (3) is NOT
lead to corruption in government departments. correct.
The term of office of the Central Vigilance Commissioner Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of
and the Vigilance Commissioners is four years from absence, pension or age of retirement can be altered to
the date on which they enter their office. Hence,
his disadvantage after his appointment.
statement (2) is correct.
The conditions of service of persons serving in the
42. (b) Indian Audit and Accounts Department and the
administrative powers of the CAG are prescribed by the
Explanation:
president after consultation with the CAG.
The additional functions relating to the services of the
The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG,
Union can be conferred on Union Public Service
including all salaries, allowances and pensions of
Commision (UPSC) by the Parliament.
persons serving in that office are charged upon the
It can also place the personnel system of any authority,
Consolidated Fund of India.
corporate body or public institution within the
Thus, they are not subject to the vote of Parliament.
jurisdiction of the UPSC.
Further, no minister can represent the CAG in Parliament
The UPSC presents, annually, to the president a report
(both Houses) and no minister can be called upon to
on its performance.
take any responsibility for any actions done by him.
The President places this report before both the Houses
of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining 44. (c)
the cases where the advice of the Commission was not
accepted and the reasons for such non-acceptance. Explanation:
All such cases of non-acceptance must be approved by The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and
the Appointments Committee of the Union cabinet four other members to be appointed by the president.
The chairman or a member of UPSC is (after having They hold office for such period as specified by the
completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment president in his order.
to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term). Hence, They are eligible for reappointment.
statement (1) is NOT correct. The Constitution authorizes Parliament to determine
The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made the qualifications of members of the commission and
by the parliament. Hence, statement (2) is correct. the manner in which they should be selected.
Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the
43. (b) qualifications of the chairman and members of the
Explanation: commission
The Constitution has made the following provisions to The chairman should be a person having experience
safeguard and ensure the independence of Comptroller in public affairs and the four other members should be
and Auditor General of India (CAG): selected from amongst the following:

Â A judge of the high court or one qualified to be Its conviction rate is as high as 65 to 70% and it is
appointed as one. comparable to the best investigation agencies in the
Â A person who has specialized knowledge of finance world.
and accounts of the government.
47. (b)
Â A person who has wide experience in financial
matters and in administration. Explanation:
The 24th amendment made it mandatory for the
Â A person who has special knowledge of economics.
President to give his assent to the Constitutional
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Amendment bills. It came into existence on 5th
45. (b) November 1971. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct.
Since President is obliged to give his assent to
Explanation: constitutional amendment bills, there is no point of
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was pocket veto in this case. Hence, statement (3) is
constituted in 2009 under the provisions of the National correct.
Investigation Agency Act, 2008 (NIA Act). In the Indian parliamentary system, a joint sitting of
The NIA was established in the backdrop of the 2008 both Houses of Parliament (i.e., the Lok Sabha and the
Mumbai terror attacks, popularly known as the 26/11 Rajya Sabha) is available for the consideration of certain
incident. Hence, statement (3) is correct. types of bills.
It is the central counter-terrorism law enforcement Joint sittings are governed by Article 108 of the Indian
agency in the country. Constitution.
The NIA works under the administrative control of the Joint sittings are called to resolve disagreements
Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. between the two Houses on certain bills, like if the bill
Hence, statement (1) is correct. is rejected by the other house, if more than six months
The headquarters of the NIA is in New Delhi. Hence, have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by
statement (2) is NOT correct. the other house without the bill being passed by it.
The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary
46. (c) bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or
Explanation: constitutional amendment bills.
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier The constitutional amendment bill must be passed by
investigating police agency in India. Hence, statement each house separately. Hence, statement (2) is NOT
(1) is correct. correct.
It provides assistance to the Central Vigilance
48. (a)
Commission and Lokpal.
It functions under the superintendence of the Dept of Explanation:
Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public The Rajya Sabha has been given four exclusive or
Grievances, Government of India - which falls under special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:
the prime minister’s office. Hence, statement (2) is Â Rajya Sabha can authorize the Parliament to make
correct. a law on a subject enumerated in the State List

However, for investigations of offences under the (Article 249). Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Prevention of Corruption Act, its superintendence vests Â It can authorize the Parliament to establish new
with the Central Vigilance Commission. All-India Services that are shared by the Centre
It is also the nodal police agency in India which and the states (Article 312).
coordinates investigation on behalf of Interpol Â It can act on its own to remove the vice president.
Member countries. In other words, a resolution to remove the vice-
The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of president may only be submitted in the Rajya Sabha
Interpol in India. Hence, statement (3) is correct. and not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67).

ÂDuring emergency situation: If the President A person who is not a state legislative assembly
issues a proclamation imposing national emergency, member can also become Chief Minister, provided
president’s rule, or financial emergency at a time he gets selected for state legislatures (either of the two
when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved, or the houses) within six months.
dissolution of the Lok Sabha occurs within the The Chief Minister can be a member of either of the two
period allowed for its approval, the proclamation houses of the state legislature.
can remain effective even if it is approved solely by The Chief Minister enjoys that office till the pleasure of
the Rajya Sabha (Articles 352, 356 and 360). the Governor, and the term of office is not fixed.
The Chief Minister can be removed when and if he loses
To impeach the President of India and to ratify the
the support of the majority from the state legislature.
declaration of emergency is not the exclusive power
The Governor is responsible for administering the oath
of Rajya Sabha. It is in concurrence with Lok Sabha’s
of office to the chief minister. Hence, Statement-I is
power. Hence, statement (2) and (3) are NOT correct.
correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
49. (b)
51. (b)
The qualifications and eligibility criteria for the
The constitution does not provide for the mechanism of
appointment of a Governor are outlined in Article 157 joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to
of the Indian Constitution. resolve a deadlock between them. Hence, statement
Citizenship: The person must be a citizen of India. (1) is NOT correct.
Age: He should have completed the age of 35 years. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament is
There are two conventions that the government envisaged under Article 108 of the constitution of India.
follows before nominating a person as a Governor: Ordinary bills can be introduced in either House of the
Â That person is not appointed as the governor who state legislature. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
belongs to the state. He shall be an outsider having It can be introduced either by a minister or by a private
no relation to the state he is being appointed to. member.
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. Regarding money bills, it can be introduced in the
Â Consultation of the Chief Minister is taken by the legislative assembly only and not in the legislative
President before appointing a governor. council. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the
Since the Governor holds the office under the pleasure
governor. It can be introduced only by a minister and
of the President, his office has no fixed term. President
not by a private member.
can remove the Governor and the grounds upon which
he may be removed are not laid down in the constitution. 52. (d)
Explanation:
Governor may also get transferred from one state to
The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed in 1977
another by the President. He also can be reappointed.
to examine and recommend measures for strengthening
50. (c) Panchayati Raj institutions.
It played a crucial role in shaping the Panchayati Raj
Explanation: system by emphasizing decentralization of powers,
financial autonomy, and the establishment of a three-tier
The governor shall appoint the Chief Minister as the structure of Panchayati Raj at the village, block, and
majority party’s leader in the state legislative district levels.
assembly under Article 164. The G V K Rao Committee was appointed in 1985
The Governor may use his discretion in appointing a focused on the financial aspects of Panchayati Raj
chief minister from the coalition government provided institutions, addressing issues related to resource
that the person seeks a vote of confidence within one mobilization, fiscal autonomy, and the devolution of
month. finances.

The L M Singhvi Committee, appointed in 1986, aimed This list has at present 52 subjects like criminal law and
at reviewing the functioning of Panchayati Raj procedure, civil procedure, marriage and divorce,
institutions. It recommended constitutional recognition population control and family planning, electricity, labor
and status for these institutions, emphasizing their welfare etc.
importance in grassroots governance. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five
The Gadgil Committee was appointed in 1988 to subjects to concurrent list from state list that is (a)
examine the working of the Panchayati Raj institutions. education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d)
It recommended measures for their effective functioning, protection of wild animals and birds, and (e)
including electoral reforms, decentralization of administration of justice; constitution and organization
planning, and enhanced powers for local bodies. Hence, of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high
option (d) is correct. courts. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
The power to make laws with respect to residuary
53. (c)
subjects (i.e., the matters which are not enumerated in
Explanation: any of the lists) is vested in the Parliament. Hence,
This residuary power of legislation includes the power
There shall be constituted Wards Committees, consisting to levy residuary taxes.
of one or more wards, within the territorial area of a
Municipality having a population of three lakhs or 55. (d)
more. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. Explanation:
The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision Northeastern Council was established under the
with respect to: Northeastern Council Act, 1971 as an apex level body
Â The composition and the territorial area of a Wards
for securing balanced and coordinated development and
Committee; Hence, statement (2) is NOT facilitating coordination with the States. Hence,
correct. statement (1) is NOT correct.
Â The manner in which the seats on a Wards Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram,
Committee shall be filled. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and
A member of a Municipality representing a ward within Sikkim. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
the territorial area of the Wards Committee shall be a The Union Cabinet, in June 2018, approved the proposal
member of that Committee. of Ministry of Development of Northeastern Region
Where a Wards Committee consists of: (DoNER) for the nomination of the Union Home
Â One ward, the member representing that ward in the Minister as ex-officio Chairman of Northeastern
Municipality; or Council. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
Â Two or more wards, one of the members representing The Cabinet also approved that Minister of State
such wards in the Municipality elected by the (Independent Charge), Ministry of DoNER would
members of the Wards Committee, shall be the serve as Vice Chairman of the Council.
Chairperson of that Committee. All the Governors and Chief Ministers of
Nothing in this article shall be deemed to prevent the Northeastern States are the members of the
Legislature of a State from making any provision for Northeastern Council.
the constitution of Committees in addition to the Wards
56. (a)
Committees.
Explanation:
54. (a)
A preamble is an introductory statement in a document
Explanation: that explains the document’s philosophy and objectives.
Both the Parliament and state legislature can make laws In a Constitution, it presents the intention of its
with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the framers, the history behind its creation, and the core
Concurrent list. Hence, statement (1) is correct. values and principles of the nation.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has only been These principles aim at ensuring socioeconomic justice
amended once, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional to the people and establishing India as a Welfare State.
Amendment Act. Hence, statement (1) is correct. The Directive Principles are classified on the basis of
The amendment added the words “Socialist”, “Secular”, their ideological source and objectives. These are
and “Integrity” to the Preamble. The terms “Socialist” Directives based on:
and “Secular” were added between “Sovereign” and Â Socialist Principles
“Democratic”. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
Â Gandhian Principles
The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s Constitution
were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru’s Objectives Â Liberal and Intellectual Principles
Resolution. Hence, statement (4) is NOT correct. In the given question, following DPSPs are mentioned:
In the 1995 case of Union Government Vs LIC of Organise village panchayats: This is in line with
India the Supreme Court has once again held that Gandhian principles, as Mahatma Gandhi emphasized
Preamble is the integral part of the Constitution but is the decentralization of power and governance to the
not directly enforceable (not justiciable) in a court of grassroots level, promoting local self-government
justice in India. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct. through village panchayats. It’s provided under article
57. (a) 40.
Promote educational and economic interests of the
Explanation: weaker sections: Gandhian philosophy advocated for
Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and
the upliftment of the weaker sections of society,
excessive punishment to an accused person, whether
emphasizing education and economic empowerment for
citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or
their betterment. It’s provided under article 46.
a corporation. It contains three provisions in that
Provide early childhood care and education for all
direction. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
It contains provisions related to No ex-post-facto law,
children: While this is a noble objective, it is not
No double jeopardy, No self-incrimination. derived from Gandhian principles. It is based on
No self-incrimination: No person accused of any Liberal and Intellectual Principles and is provided
offence shall be compelled to be a witness against for under article 45.
himself. The protection against self-incrimination Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other
extends to both oral evidence and documentary milch and draught cattle: This is consistent with
evidence. Gandhian principles, as Mahatma Gandhi was a strong
No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be convicted of advocate for the protection of cows and believed in their
any offence except for violation of a law in force at the sacred status. It’s provided under article 48.
time of the commission of the act, nor subjected to a Establish international peace and security: This is a
penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force broader goal not explicitly rooted in Gandhian principles
at the time of the commission of the act. However, this as its a part of Liberal and Intellectual Principle. It’s
limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not provided under article 51.
on civil laws or tax laws. Hence, statement (1) is NOT Hence, option (b) is correct.
correct.
In 2019, the SC in its ruling in Ritesh Sinha versus 59. (b)
State of Uttar Pradesh broadened the parameters of
handwriting samples to include voice samples, Explaantion:
adding that this would not violate the right against The concept of ‘basic structure’ came into existence
self-incrimination. Hence, statement (2) is NOT in the landmark judgment in Kesavananda Bharati vs
correct. State of Kerala case (1973).
The basic structure doctrine is a judicial creation that
58. (b) has been accepted by all branches of the government
Explanation: and the people of India.
Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51) Kesavananda Bharati case curtailed unlimited
contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). parliamentary sovereignty and started a new

interpretive enterprise by recognizing the basic identity provisions that can be amended by the special
of the Constitution, which may not be destroyed by any majority, but the amendments should be within Basic
amendment. Hence, statement (2) is correct. structure of the constitution.
The Kesavananda Bharati case was heard by a bench of All provisions that do not require ratification by states,
13 judges of the Supreme Court of India, making it and those that come directly under the purview of Article
the largest benches in Indian legal history. Hence, 368, can be amended by the special majority.
statement (1) is NOT correct. Special Majority with Consent of Half of States:
Those provisions of the Constitution which are related
60. (c) to the federal structure of the polity can only be amended
Expalantion: by a special majority of the Parliament and also with
There are five types of Writs which are Habeas the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple
Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Quo Warranto and majority.
Prohibition and all these writs are an effective method Important provisions that require ratification by the
of enforcing the rights of the people and to compel the states include the election of President, Supreme
authorities to fulfil the duties which are bound to Court and High Courts, representation of states in
perform under the law. Parliament, distribution of legislative powers
Certiorari: A writ issued by a higher court to review between the Union and the states, and the extent of
a lower court’s decision. The Supreme Court uses executive power of the Union and the states. Most
certiorari to review legal questions, correct errors, and importantly, an amendment to Article 368 itself,
prevent lower courts from going too far. Hence, requires ratification by the states. Hence, option (d)
statement (1) is correct. is correct.
The Supreme Court grants certiorari in cases involving
62. (d)
constitutional issues, compelling interests, or relevant
social issues. Explanation:
Prohibition: A writ issued by a superior court that Article 355 imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that
directs an inferior court to stop doing something that is the government of every state is carried on in
prohibited by law. accordance with the provisions of the constitution.
A writ of prohibition can only be issued against It is this duty in the performance of which the centre
judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It cannot be takes over the government of a state under Article 356
issued against administrative authorities, legislative in case of failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
bodies, and private individuals or bodies. Hence, This is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’.
statement (2) is correct. A proclamation imposing President’s rule must be
approved by both the houses of parliament within
61. (d)
two months from the date of its issue. Hence, statement
Explanation: (1) is NOT correct.
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with However, if the proclamation of President’s rule is
the power of parliament to amend the constitution and issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been
its procedures. dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place
It provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a during the period of two months without approving the
special majority of Parliament and the special proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30
majority of parliament along with the ratification of days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its
half of the states legislatures by a simple majority. reconstitution, provided that the Rajya Sabha approves
Special Majority: Under Article 368(2), Parliament it in the meantime
can amend the Constitution by passing a Bill with a The 38th Amendment act of 1975 made the satisfaction
special majority. of the President in invoking Article 356 final and
Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of conclusive which would not be challenged in any court
State Policy (DPSP) are the two most important on any ground.

But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was
44 th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the amended in 2002 to provide for the establishment of
satisfaction of the President is not beyond judicial the Permanent Lok Adalats to deal with cases
review. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. pertaining to the public utility services. Hence,
63. (b) An award of a Lok Adalat shall be deemed to be a
decree of a Civil Court or an order of any other court.
Explanation:
Further, a Lok Adalat shall have the requisite powers to
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of
specify its own procedure for the determination of any
the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, dispute coming before it. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Every award made by a Lok Adalat shall be final
Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, and binding on all the parties to the dispute. No appeal
Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, shall lie to any court against the award of the Lok Adalat.
Maithili and Dogri. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the
Constitution. 65. (d)
Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Explanation:
Act of 1967. Assamese and Gujarati were there The USA operates under a presidential form of
initially in the Eight Schedule. Hence, pair (1) is NOT government. Here, the President is separate from the
correctly matched. legislative branch, which is the Congress comprising
Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the the Senate and the House of Representatives. The
71st Amendment Act of 1992. Hence, pair (2) is President is not part of Congress.
The President holds executive authority, while the
correctly matched.
Congress holds legislative power. They function
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by
independently of each other, with a system of checks
the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 which came into
and balances in place. Hence, statement (1) is NOT
force in 2004. Hence, pair (3) is correctly matched. correct.
In the UK, the parliamentary system includes the Crown
64. (b)
(the monarch) as a symbolic or ceremonial head of state
Explanation: and ‘Crown-in- Parliament’. However, the monarch’s
The term ‘Lok Adalat’ means ‘People’s Court’ and is powers are largely ceremonial, and the real power
based on Gandhian principles. resides in Parliament. The Prime Minister is a member
The first Lok Adalat camp was organized in Gujarat of Parliament and is the head of the government. The
in 1982 as a voluntary and conciliatory agency without executive authority is vested in the Prime Minister and
any statutory backing for its decisions. the Cabinet, who are accountable to the Parliament.
In view of its growing popularity over time, it was given However, parliamentary form of government does not
always has ‘crown-in-Parliament’. Hence, statement
statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities
(2) is NOT correct.
Act, 1987. The Act makes the provisions relating to the
India, often considered to have a quasi or partial
organization and functioning of the Lok Adalats.
presidential system, has a ‘President-in-Parliament’.
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) along
However, the President’s powers are limited, and the
with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Prime Minister, who heads the government, is
Adalats. answerable to the Parliament.
NALSA was constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987 which came into force on 9th 66. (a)
November 1995 to establish a nationwide uniform Explanation:
network for providing free and competent legal services The Indian Parliament has passed the 104 th
to the weaker sections of the society. Constitutional Amendment Act 2019 which extended

the reservation for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled 68. (a)
Tribes in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembelies
were extended for up to ten years. Hence, statement Explanation:
(2) is NOT correct.
It abolishes the provision for the nomination of 2 Anglo-
Indians to Lok Sabha by President and 1 member in They are citizens of India
State Assemblies by the Governor which ceased the Fall above the age limit of 30 years in the case of Rajya
representation of the Anglo-Indian Community from Sabha and 25 years in the case of Lok Sabha
the Parliament which was existing since 1952. Possess additional qualifications as per parliamentary
The reservation for the Anglo-Indian community was
laws.
extended till the year 2020 through the 95th Amendment
These additional qualifications mentioned in
Act, 2009. Originally, this provision was to operate till
1960. Hence, statement (1) is correct. Representation of People Act 1951 are as follows;
The Anglo-Indian community in India traces its origins Â The first qualification is that only electors can be
to an official policy of the British East India Company elected. Therefore, candidates must be registered
to encourage marriages of its officers with local women. voters in a parliamentary constituency and must be
eligible to vote. If due to any reason, they lose the
67. (b)
eligibility to vote, they would also lose the eligibility
Explanation: to stand in an election.
Article 82 of the Indian Constitution mandates the Â A person doesn’t need to be a registered voter in the
readjustment of Lok Sabha seats and state territorial same constituency. This applies to both Lok Sabha
boundaries after each census. However, until the first
and Rajya Sabha.
census post-2026, there’s no obligation to readjust seats
allocated to states based on the 1971 census or redefine Hence, option (a) is correct.
state territorial boundaries based on the 2001 census.
69. (c)
This provision allows a pause in readjustment until the
latest census figures post-2026. Explanation:
Under Article 170, States also get divided into territorial Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the
constituencies as per Delimitation Act after every disqualifications for membership of Parliament. It
Census.
outlines various conditions that disqualify an individual
Delimitation means the act or process of fixing limits
from being chosen or continuing as a Member of
or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country
or a province having a legislative body. There is no Parliament. Grounds of Disqualification:
provision for adjusting seats for Rajya Sabha there is Â Office of Profit: Holding an office of profit under
an allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha mentioned in the the government of India or any state government,
Fourth Schedule of the constitution of India. Hence, other than an office declared by Parliament by law
statement (1) is NOT correct. not to disqualify its holder.
The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 empowered the Â Unsoundness of Mind: Being of unsound mind and
government to undertake readjustment and declared as such by a competent court.
rationalization of territorial constituencies in the states Â Undischarged Insolvent: Being an undischarged
on the basis of the population figures of 1991 census. insolvent.
This ban on readjustment was extended for another
Â Disqualified by Law: Being disqualified for
25 years upto the year 2026. Hence, statement (2) is
election under any law relating to corrupt practices
correct.
or other offenses in connection with elections.
The 87th Amendment Act of 2003 provided for the
delimitation of constituencies based on 2001 census and Â Voluntary Giving up of Citizenship: Voluntarily
not 1991 census. However, this can be done without acquiring the citizenship of a foreign country or
altering the number of seats allotted to each state in the being under any acknowledgment of allegiance or
Lok Sabha. adherence to a foreign state.

ÂDisqualification under Specific Legislation: Being Â A two-line whip directs them to be present during
disqualified under any law made by Parliament. The the vote.
Representation of People Act (RPA), 1951 lays Â A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on
down certain rules for disqualification of MPs and
important occasions such as a no-confidence motion,
MLAs.
and places an obligation on members to follow the
A person shall be disqualified for being a member of
party line.
either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under
the Tenth Schedule. In India, defying a three-line whip can put a lawmaker’s
Hence, statement (1) and statement (2) are correct. membership of the House at risk. The anti-defection law
allows the Speaker/ Chairperson to disqualify such a
70. (c) member; the only exception is when more than a third
Explanation: of legislators vote against a directive, effectively
No specific qualifications are prescribed for being splitting the party. Hence, Statement I is incorrect but
elected as the speaker. Statement II is correct.
The constitution states that the Speaker must be a
member of the House but an understanding of the 72. (b)
constitution and conventions of Parliament is considered Explanation:
a major asset.
The House elects its presiding officer by a simple
majority of members present, who vote in the House.
Hence, statement (1) is correct. It prohibits the state from conferring any title on any
The Speaker’s term is coterminous with the term of citizen or a foreigner (except a military or academic
the Lok Sabha i.e. 5 years. distinction).
However, the constitution has given the Lower House It prohibits a citizen of India from accepting any title
authority to remove the Speaker if needed. The House from any foreign state. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
can remove the Speaker through a resolution passed A foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under
by an effective majority (more than 50% of the total the state cannot accept any title from any foreign state
strength of the house present and voting) as per Articles
without the consent of the President of India. Hence,
94 and 96 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement
(2) is correct.
14 days advance notice is to be given to speaker before passing No citizen or foreigner holding any office of profit or
resolution of removal. Hence, statement (3) is correct. trust within the territory of India can accept any present,
The Speaker can also be removed on getting disqualified emolument or office from or under any foreign State
from being a Lok Sabha member under sections 7 without the consent of the president.
and 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
73. (d)
71. (d)
Explanation:
Explanation: The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
Defying of a whip, doesn’t necessarily make the member is a milestone document in the history of human rights.
liable for disqualification, rather it is only after the Drafted by representatives with different legal and
defection of a three-line whip, that a legislature is liable cultural backgrounds from all regions of the world, the
for disqualification under anti-defection law.
Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations
Whips can be of varying degrees of seriousness. The
General Assembly in Paris on 10 December 1948
importance of a whip can be inferred from the number
of times an order is underlined. (General Assembly resolution 217 A) as a common
Â A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued standard of achievements for all peoples and all nations.
to inform party members of a vote, and allows them It sets out, for the first time, fundamental human rights
to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party to be universally protected and it has been translated
line. into over 500 languages.

The UDHR is widely recognized as having inspired, Dictatorship: Dictatorship is a political system
and paved the way for, the adoption of more than seventy characterised by an unchecked power of a single ruler,
human rights treaties, applied today on a permanent the dictator or a group of governors.A dictator would
basis at global and regional levels (all containing never claim to rule through free elections. Hence,
references to it in their preambles). statement (2) is correct.
All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and
rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience 75. (c)
and should act towards one another in a spirit of Explanation:
brotherhood. Hebeas corpus is a writ issued by the court to a person
who has detained another person, to produce the body
Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set of the latter before it.
forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, The writ of habeas corpus is issued to secure the release
such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political of a person who is unlawfully detained.
or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth The court then examines the cause and legality of
or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be detention.
made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or It would set the detained person free, if the detention is
international status of the country or territory to which found to be illegal.
a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non- The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both
self-governing or under any other limitation of public authorities as well as private individuals.
sovereignty. The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the
Â detention is lawful,
Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of Â the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a
person. court,
Â detention is by a competent court, and
No one shall be held in slavery or servitude; slavery and Â detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.
the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms.
Â Hence, option (c) is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
74. (c) 76. (c)
Absolutism: The term “absolutism” refers to a political Socialistic principles :
system that existed in the early modern period and was Â To promote the welfare of the people by securing a
traditionally characterised as the reign of a king whose social order permeated by justice–social, economic
power was tied to his person and who ruled without the and political– and to minimize inequalities in
participation of state institutions. income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article
Aristocracy: The meaning of Aristocracy is “the rule 38).
of the best”.The governance of a small group of elites Â To secure the right to adequate means of livelihood
is referred to as aristocracy. This indicates that the State for all citizens;
is managed by a limited group of exceptionally skilled Â the equitable distribution of material resources of
persons. the community for the common good;
Autocracy: Autocracy combines all of the political
Â prevention of concentration of wealth and means of
system’s powers into a single force and excludes any
form of public involvement in state power. Autocracy production;
means who draws their power (cracy) from themselves Â equal pay for equal work for men and women;
(auto). Examples are monarchy and dictatorship. Hence, Â preservation of the health and strength of workers
statement (1) is correct. and children against forcible abuse;

Â opportunities for healthy development of children The expression ‘Public Interest Litigation’ has been
(Article 39). borrowed from American jurisprudence. Hence,
Â To promote equal justice and to provide free legal statement (1) is correct.
aid to the poor (Article 39 A). PIL is not defined in any statute or in any act. It has
Â To secure the right to work to education and to public been interpreted by judges to consider the intent of
public at large.
assistance in cases of unemployment, old age,
Any citizen can file a public case by filing a petition:
sickness and disablement (Article 41).
Â Under Art 32 of the Indian Constitution, in the
Â To make provision for just and humane conditions Supreme Court.
of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
Â Under Art 226 of the Indian Constitution, in the High
Court.
To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and Â Under sec. 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code, in
drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47). the Court of Magistrate.
To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other In SP Gupta Vs Union of India case it was held that “any
milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds member of the public or social action group acting
(Article 48). bonafide” can invoke the Writ Jurisdiction of the High
Hence, option (c) is correct. Courts (under article 226) or the Supreme Court (under
Article 32) seeking redressal against violation of legal
77. (c)
or constitutional rights of persons who due to social or
Explanation: economic or any other disability cannot approach the
Tribunals were not part of the original constitution, Court. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
it was incorporated in the Indian Constitution by 42nd A Public Interest Litigation can be filed against a State/
Amendment Act, 1976. Central Govt., Municipal Authorities, but not against
Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals. any private party. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters.
79. (a)
Articles 323 A and 323 B differ in the following three
aspects: Explanation:
While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment According to Article 310 of the Indian Constitution,
of tribunals for public service matters only, Article all persons who are members of the defence services or
323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals for civil services of the Union hold their offices during the
certain other matters. Hence, statement (1) is correct. pleasure of the President. This implies that the
While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established President has the authority to terminate their services
only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can or remove them from office at any time without
be established both by Parliament and state legislatures assigning any specific reason. Hence, statement (1) is
with respect to matters falling within their legislative correct.
competence. Hence, statement (2) is correct. Article 311(2) mandates the compliance of the
Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre Principles of Natural Justice. A civil servant cannot
and one for each state or two or more states may be be punished without:
established. There is no question of the hierarchy of Â holding an enquiry;
tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of Â informing the civil servant about the charges against
tribunals may be created. him; and
Â giving him a reasonable opportunity of being heard
78. (a) in respect of those charges.
Explanation: Hence, the ‘principle of pleasure’ is not absolute but
Public interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed restricted by constitutional and statutory regulations.
in a court of law, for the protection of “Public Interest”. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.

80. (d) The resolution to such an agreement shall be passed
by each House of the Legislature of each of the States.
Explanation: Only then, the Parliament may by law provide for the
The retirement age for judges of the High Court is appointment of a Joint State Public Service
62, not 65. Hence, pair (1) is NOT correctly matched. Commission (JSPSC). Hence, statement (1) is
The retirement age for judges of the Supreme Court correct.
is 65, not 67. Hence, pair (2) is NOT correctly The Article 316 of the Indian Constitution states that
matched. the Chairman and other members of JSPSC shall be
The retirement age for judges in the lower courts is appointed by the President of India. Hence,
60, not 62. Hence, pair (3) is NOT correctly matched. statement (2) is correct.
The Venkatachaliah Report (Report of the National Under Article 317, a member of a JSPSC may submit
Commission to review the working of the Constitution, a written resignation to the President of India to resign
2002) recommended that the retirement age of the his/her office.
Judges of the High Court should be increased to 65 years The President is empowered to suspend the Chairman
and that of the Judges of the Supreme Court should be or any other member of the Commission from his/her
increased to 68 years. office after a reference about the same has been made
The Constitution (114th Amendment) Bill was to the Supreme Court.
introduced in 2010 to increase the retirement age of A JSPSC is a statutory body. It is not a constitutional
High Court judges to 65. However, it was not taken up body. After the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in
for consideration in Parliament and lapsed with the 1966, the two states of Punjab and Haryana had a
dissolution of the 15th Lok Sabha. JSPSC for a short period. Hence, statement (3) is NOT
correct.
81. (b)
83. (a)
Explaantion:
The 97th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution,
Explanation:
In 1978, the Supreme Court of India ruled that a
enacted in 2011, was a significant milestone in the
procedure established by law must be “fair, just and
history of India’s cooperative movement.
reasonable, not fanciful, oppressive or arbitrary”.
This constitutional amendment provided constitutional
This ruling introduced the principle of “procedural due
recognition and protection to cooperative societies,
process”.
making several pivotal changes in the constitution.
Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no one
The amendment introduced the right to form cooperative
can be deprived of their life or personal liberty except
societies as a fundamental right under Article 19 (Part
by a procedure established by law. This procedure must
III) of the Constitution. be reasonable, fair, and just, and not arbitrary, whimsical,
It also introduced a new Directive Principle of State
or fanciful.
Policy (Part IV), as per Article 43B, emphasizing the The standard test for Article 21 is the rationality review
state’s role in promoting cooperative societies. expressed in the Maneka Gandhi case. This requires that
Also, the amendment incorporated a new section, Part any procedure by which the state interferes with an
IX-B, titled “The Cooperative Societies”, from Article article 21 right must be “fair, just and reasonable, not
243-ZH to 243-ZT, detailing the function and operation fanciful, oppressive or arbitrary”. Hence, option (a) is
of these societies. Hence, option (b) is correct. correct.
82. (b) 84. (d)
As per Article 315 of the Indian Constitution, two or Part X of the Indian Constitution contains special
more States may agree that there shall be one Public provisions for Scheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule) and
Service Commission for that group of States. Tribal Areas (Sixth Schedule).

These provisions are aimed at safeguarding the rights 86. (c)
and interests of tribal and indigenous communities and
Explanation:
promoting their socio-economic development.
The right to property was removed from the list of
Article 244 in Part X of the constitution envisages a
Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act of
special system of administration for certain areas 1978.
designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas.’ Article 300-A of Part XII of the Constitution
The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with the establishes it as a legal right. Hence, statement (1) is
administration and control of scheduled tribes in any NOT correct.
state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram. It can be regulated, i.e., limited, shortened, or modified,
The Sixth schedule of the constitution, on the other without requiring a constitutional amendment, through
hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas ordinary parliamentary legislation. Hence, statement
in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, (2) is correct.
Tripura and Mizoram. Hence, option (d) is correct. It shields private property from executive action but not
from legislative action. Hence, statement (4) is correct.
85. (d) In the event of a violation, the aggrieved party cannot
Explanation: directly petition the Supreme Court for its enforcement
under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies,
National Integration Council: It recommended the including writs). He has the right to file a petition with
creation of a superseding structure for matters the High Court under Article 226.
There is no guaranteed right to compensation in the
relating to internal security (like the Homeland
event that the state acquires or requisites private
Security Department in the United States). This structure
property. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
could be known as the ‘National Integration Council’.
It states that no one’s property may be taken from him
Amendment to Article 355 and Article 356:The unless he has legal authority to do so.
recommendation seeks to protect the States’ interest
by curbing the center’s misuse of powers. 87. (c)
Subjects in the Concurrent List:The Commission Explanation:
recommended that the States should be consulted Essential religious practice doctrine is a method of
through the inter-state council before bills are interpretation adopted by Indian constitutional courts
introduced on matters that fall in the concurrent list. to determine the core and essential aspects of a religion
Appointment and Removal of Governors:The that should be protected under the freedom of religion
Governor should stay away from active politics (even guaranteed by the Indian constitution.
at a local level) for at least two years prior to his The Indian Supreme Court first laid down the principles
appointment. for determining what is an ‘essential religious practice’
There should be a say of the state’s Chief minister while vide Commissioner of Hindu Religious Endowments
Madras v Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamira of Sri
making the Governor’s appointment.
Shirur Mutt 1954 case popularly known as the Shirur
A committee should be formed that is entrusted with
Mutt case.
the task of appointment of governors. This committee
The apex court held that to be an essential religious
may comprise the Prime Minister, the Home Minister, practice that merits protection under Article 25, it has
the Lok Sabha’s speaker and the concerned Chief to be shown to be essential to the religion concerned, in
Minister of the State. the sense that if the practice is renounced, the religion
The term of the appointment should be five years. in question ceases to be that religion.
Governor could only be removed via a resolution by Hence, statement-I is correct, but statement-II is NOT
the State Legislature. Hence, option (d) is correct. correct.

88. (a) According to the Constitution, the governor may enact
rules identifying the subjects in which the SPSC is not
Explanation: required to be consulted on state services and jobs.
The Rajya Sabha has exclusive power, where it can
But all such regulations made by the governor shall be
authorize the Parliament to create new All-India
laid before each house of the state legislature for at least
Services common to both the Centre and states.
14 days (about 2 weeks). The state legislature can amend
Rajya Sabha has the authority to initiate the proceedings
or repeal them.
to make new All India Services as per Article 312(1)
of the Indian Constitution. 91. (d)
The power is exclusively vested with the upper house
of Parliament and not with the lower house. Hence, Explanation:
102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides
option (a) is correct.
constitutional status to the National Commission for
89. (a) Backward Classes (NCBC). Hence, statement (1) is
NOT correct.
Explanation:
It has the authority to examine complaints and welfare
The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members
measures regarding socially and educationally backward
appointed by the president of India.
classes.
The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the
The Commission consists of five members including
commission has left the matter to the discretion of the
president, who determines its composition. Hence, a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other
statement (1) is NOT correct. Members appointed by the President by warrant under
Usually, the commission consists of nine to eleven his hand and seal. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
members including the chairmen. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the
Further, no qualifications are prescribed for the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members is
commission’s membership except that one-half of the determined by President.
members of the commission should be such persons The commission investigates and monitors all matters
who have held office for at least ten years either under relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and
the Government of India or under the government of educationally backward classes under the Constitution
the state. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. or under any other law to evaluate the working of such
The constitution also authorizes the president to safeguards.
determine the conditions of service of the chairmen and Its recommendations are only of advisory nature.
other members of the commission. Hence, statement Hence, statement (3) is correct.
(3) is correct. The commission, while investigating into any matter or
enquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a
90. (c) civil court to try a suit. Hence, statement (4) is correct.
Explanation: It participates and advises on the socio-economic
development of the socially and educationally backward
The following aspects are maintained beyond the classes and to evaluate the progress of their development
SPSC’s functional authority, the SPSC is not consulted under the Union and any State.
on the following matters: It presents to the President, annually and at such other
When appointments or offices are reserved in favour of times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon
any backward class of individuals. In making the working of those safeguards. The President laid such
appointments to services and posts, taking into account reports before each House of Parliament.
the claims of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
92. (b)
The governor has the authority to exclude jobs, services, Explanation:
and topics from the SPSC’s jurisdiction. Hence, The President acquires the following extraordinary
statement (2) is correct. powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state:

He can take up the functions of the state government While not ranking the ULBs, the AAINA dashboard
and powers vested in the governor or any other executive would serve as a tool for comparing similarly placed
authority in the state. cities and promoting peer learning among cities.
He can declare that the powers of the state legislature The Dashboard will present the data submitted by the
are to be exercised by Parliament. ULBs on the basis of indicators across five broad pillars
He can take all other necessary steps including the namely, (i) Political & Administrative Structure, (ii)
suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to Finance, (iii) Planning, (iv) Citizen Centric Governance
anybody or authority in the state. and (v) Delivery of Basic Services.
The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries The ULBs will submit their data, including audited
on the state administration with the help of the chief accounts, and self-reported performance metrics by
secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the logging in to the dashboard’s portal.
President. With active cooperation of all ULBs, the ‘AAINA
Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the Dashboard for Cities’ aims to create a robust database
state legislative assembly. Parliament passes the state of the key performance metrics of Urban Local Bodies,
legislative bills and the state budget. Hence, option (b) which could be accessed by all stakeholders, and
is correct. subsequently would open for public view once it gets
populated. Hence, option (b) is correct.
93. (d)
95. (a)
Explanation:
Classical languages of India refer to languages that Explanation:
have a rich literary and historical heritage and have been The chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and
recognized for their cultural and historical significance. district levels shall be elected indirectly – by and from
These languages have a documented literary tradition amongst the elected members thereof. However, the
that extends back to ancient times. chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be
The Government of India has granted classical status
elected in such manner as the state legislature
to certain languages based on their antiquity, unique determines.
The chairperson of a panchayat and other members of
linguistic features, and cultural importance.
a panchayat elected directly or indirectly shall have
The Government of India has recognized six languages
the right to vote in the meetings of the panchayats.
as classical languages. These are Tamil, Sanskrit,
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct.
Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Odia. Hence, option
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992
(d) is correct.
provides for the reservation of not less than one-third
94. (b) of the total number of seats for women (including the
number of seats reserved for women belonging the SCs
Explanation: and STs).
The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal has been Further, not less than one-third of the total number of
made lunched by Ministry of Housing and Urban offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level
Affairs (MoHUA) where Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) shall be reserved for women. Hence, statement (2) is
across the country can participate to voluntarily submit NOT correct.
their key data on a regular basis, through a simple, The superintendence, direction and control of the
easy-to-fill, data entry form on the portal. preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all
The primary objectives of the AAINA Dashboard are elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state
to help cities to election commission. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Â see how they are faring vis-à-vis other cities,
Â inspire them by pointing to possibilities and areas 96. (b)
of improvement, and Explanation:
Â providing opportunity to learn and engage with The 73rd Constitutional Amendment act does not apply
frontrunners. to the states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram

and certain other areas. These areas include, (a) the 98. (d)
scheduled areas and the tribal areas in the states; (b) the
hill areas of Manipur for which district councils exist; Explanation:
and (c) Darjeeling district of West Bengal for which Municipal Corporation: These are established in the
Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists. Hence, states by the acts of concerned state legislature and
statement (1) is NOT correct. in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament
However, the Parliament may extend the provisions of of India. These are created for the administration of big
this Part to the scheduled areas and tribal areas subject cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata etc. They have three
to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. authorities, namely, the council as the deliberative and
Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the legislative wing, the standing committees to facilitate
“Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the the council and the commissioner as the chief executive
Scheduled Areas Act”, 1996, popularly known as the
authority.
PESA Act or the Extension Act.
Town Area Committe: These are created by a separate
The objectives of the PESA Act include extending the
act of a state legislature which regulates their
provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to
the panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain composition and functions. These are semi municipal
modifications. Hence, statement (2) is correct. authorities that are entrusted with a limited number of
civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and
97. (d) conservancy.
Explanation: Port Trust: These are created by acts of Parliament.
A municipal corporation has three authorities, They are established in port areas for two purposes: (a)
namely, the council, the standing committees and the to manage and protect the ports; and (b) to provide civic
commissioner. amenities.
The Council is headed by a Mayor. He is assisted by Notified Area Committee: These are established by
a Deputy Mayor. He is elected in a majority of the states notification in the government gazette. They are
for a one-year renewable term. created for the administration of two types of areas – a
The municipal commissioner is responsible for the fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town
implementation of the decisions taken by the council
which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary
and its standing committees. Thus, he is the chief
for the constitution of a municipality, but which
executive authority of the corporation. He is
otherwise is considered important by the state
appointed by the state government and is generally
a member of the IAS. Hence, statement (2) is NOT government. Thus, it is not a statutory body. Hence,
correct. option (d) is correct.
A notified area committee is created for the
99. (b)
administration of two types of areas–a fast developing
town due to industrialisation, and a town which does Explanation:
not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the Following eight types of urban local bodies are created
constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is in India for the administration of urban areas:
considered important by the state government. Â Municipal corporation,
Since it is established by a notification in the
Â Municipality,
government gazette, it is called as notified area
committee. Â Notified area committee,
But unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated Â Town area committee,
body, that is, all the members of a notified area Â Cantonment board,
committee including the chairman are nominated by the
Â Township,
state government. Thus, it is neither an elected body
nor a statutory body. Hence, statement (1) is NOT Â Port trust
correct. Â Special purpose agency

Special Purpose Agency: These are set up by states The Council is an advisory body. It consists of the
to undertake designated activities or specific Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs in the
functions that ‘legitimately’ belong to the domain of Government of India and the ministers for local self-
municipal corporations or municipalities or other local government in states. The union minister acts as the
urban governments. These are function based and not Chairman of the Council.
area based. Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural local
Some such bodies are town improvement trusts, governments, but after 1958 it has been dealing with
urban development authorities, housing boards, matters of urban local government only. Hence,
water supply and sewerage boards, pollution control statement (2) is NOT correct.
board, electricity supply boards, city transport boards The Council performs the following functions with
etc. Hence, option (b) is correct. regard to local government: (i) Considering and
recommending the policy matters (ii) Making proposals
100. (d)
for legislation (iii) Examining the possibility of
Explanation: cooperation between the Centre and the states (iv)
The Central Council of Local Government was set Drawing up a common programme of action (v)
up in 1954, under Article 263 of the Constitution by Recommending Central financial assistance (vi)
an order of the President of India. Hence, statement Reviewing the work done by the local bodies with the
(1) is NOT correct. Central financial assistance.

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26. (b) 28. (c)

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correct. a law on a subject enumerated in the State List