t17 Q+a Drishti Ias King R Queen P

flfoy lsok (izkjafHkd) VsLV lhjhT+k&2024
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe
ijh{k.k iqfLrdk
Test Code:
P1/P2/P3-2417 lkekU; vè;;u
VsLV – 17
le; % nks ?k.Vs iw.kk±d % 200
vuqns'k
1. ijh{kk izkjEHk gksus ds rqjUr ckn] vki bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk dh iM+rky vo'; dj ysa fd blesa dksbZ fcuk Nik] iQVk ;k
NwVk gqvk i`"B vFkok iz'u vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gks rks bls lgh ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ls cny yhft,A
2. mÙkj&i=kd esa lgh LFkku ij ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe A, B, C ;k D ;FkkfLFkfr Li"V :i ls dwVc¼ dhft;sA
3. bl iafDr ds lkFk esa fn;s x, dks"Bd esa vkidks viuk vuqØekad fy[kuk
gSA ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij vkSj oqQN u fy[ksaA
4. bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk esa 100 iz'uka'k (iz'u) fn;s x, gSaA izR;sd iz'uka'k
fgUnh vkSj vaxzs”kh esa Nik gSA izR;sd iz'uka'k esa pkj izR;qÙkj (mÙkj) fn;s
x, gSaA buesa ls ,d izR;qÙkj dks pqu ysa ftls vki mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djuk pkgrs gSaA ;fn vkidks ,slk yxs fd ,d ls vfèkd
izR;qÙkj lgh gSa rks ml izR;qÙkj dks vafdr djsa tks vkidks loksZÙke yxsA izR;sd iz'uka'k ds fy;s dsoy ,d gh izR;qÙkj pquuk gSA
5. vkidks vius lHkh izR;qÙkj vyx ls fn;s x, mÙkj&i=kd ij gh vafdr djus gSaA mÙkj&i=kd esa fn;s x, funsZ'k ns[k ysaA
6. lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSaA
7. blls igys fd vki ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds fofHkUu iz'uka'kksa ds izR;qÙkj mÙkj i=kd ij vafdr djuk 'kq: djsa] vkidks izos'k izek.k&i=k
ds lkFk izsf"kr vuqns'kksa ds vuqlkj dqN fooj.k mÙkj&i=kd esa nsus gSaA
8. vki vius lHkh izR;qÙkjksa dks mÙkj&i=kd esa Hkjus ds ckn rFkk ijh{kk ds lekiu ij dsoy mÙkj&i=kd vèkh{kd dks lkSai nsaA vkidks
vius lkFk ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr gSA
9. dPps dke ds fy;s dqN i=kd ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds var esa layXu gSaA
10. xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM%
oLrqfu"B iz'u&i=kksa esa mEehnokj }kjk fn;s x, xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM fn;k tk,xkA
(i) izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s pkj oSdfYid mÙkj gSaA mEehnokj }kjk izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s fn;s x, ,d xyr mÙkj ds fy;s iz'u gsrq fu;r
fd;s x, vadksa dk ,d&frgkbZ naM ds :i esa dkVk tk,xkA
(ii) ;fn dksbZ mEehnokj ,d ls vfèkd mÙkj nsrk gS] rks bls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk,xk] pkgs fn;s x, mÙkjksa esa ls ,d mÙkj lgh gks] ml
iz'u ds fy;s mi;qZDrkuqlkj gh naM fn;k tk,xkA
(iii) ;fn mEehnokj }kjk dksbZ iz'u gy ugha fd;k tkrk gS] vFkkZr~ mEehnokj }kjk mÙkj ugha fn;k tkrk gS] rks ml iz'u ds fy;s dksbZ
n.M ugha fn;k tk,xkA
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

è;ku nsa % vuqns'kksa dk vaxzs”kh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds vafre i`"B ij Nik gSA
FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

1. y{k}hi ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 5. ;qfr&fo;qfr (syzygy) ds nkSjku] paæek vkSj lw;Z dk
1. ;g {ks=kiQy ds lanHkZ Hkkjr dk lcls NksVk dsaæ'kkflr xq#Roh; cy rhoz gks tkrk gS ftlls Tokjh; cy esa o`f¼
çns'k gSA gksrh gSA ,slh fLFkfr esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk Tokj
ns[kk tk ldrk gS\
2. vaMeku vkSj fudksckj }hi lewg dh rqyuk esa bl
(a) y?kq vFkok fuEu Tokj (b) nh?kZ vFkok mPp Tokj
}hilewg esa }hiksa dh la[;k vf/d gSA (c) Tokjh; ck<+ (d) HkkVk Tokj
3. ;g rfeyukMq ds rV ls yxHkx 300 fdyksehVj iwoZ
6. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
esa fLFkr gSA 1. xSykikxksl }hi vVykafVd egklkxj esa fLFkr gSA
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 2. Hkweè; js[kk dksyafc;k] czk”khy vkSj bDokMksj ls gksdj
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks xqtjrh gSA
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 3. dksyafc;k viuh lhek ç'kkar vkSj vVykafVd nksuksa
egklkxjksa ls lk>k djrk gSA
2. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
1. uksvk&nsfgax (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
2. ladks'k (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
3. ekul 7. nf{k.k vesfjdh {ks=k esa ik, tkus okys îQ”ksaMk* çfl¼ gSa
4. lqcufljh (a) dkWiQh mRiknu ds fy;s (b) xUus dh Ñf"k ds fy;s
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh czãiq=k unh dh mÙkjh rV dh lgk;d (c) i'kqikyu ds fy;s (d) jcj mRiknu ds fy;s
ufn;k¡ ugha gSa\ 8. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks vlac¼rk ftuds eè; fo|eku gS
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj 1. eksgksjksfofdd % HkwiiZVh vkSj eSaVy
2. ysgeSu % eSaVy vkSj cká ØksM
3. xqVsucxZ % vkrafjd vkSj cká ØksM
1. tsV çokg lerkieaMy dh Åijh ijrksa esa yacor 4. dkWujkM % mijh vkSj fupyh eSaVy
:i ls çokfgr gksus okyh Hkwfu{ksih iou gSA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\
2. tsV çokg ogk¡ mRiUu gksrs gSa tgk¡ vyx&vyx (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
rkieku dh ok;qjkf'k;k¡ ,d=k gksrh gSaA (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 9. lkSj lw;kZri ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 dhft;s%
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 1. ,d gh v{kka'k ij egk}hih; Hkkx dh rqyuk esa
egklkxjh; Hkkx ij vf/d lw;kZri çkIr gksrk gSA
4. ;g Hkkjh o"kkZ vkSj mPp vkæZrk ls ;qDr mu {ks=kksa esa ikbZ 2. Hkweè; js[kk ij m".k dfVca/ dh rqyuk esa de
tkrh gS tgk¡ ouLifr dh o`f¼ vPNh gksA vr% bu {ks=kksa lw;kZri çkIr gksrk gSA
esa e`r tSo inkFkZ cM+h ek=kk esa ,df=kr gks tkrs gSa] tks 3. i`Foh bldh lrg ds fudV fLFkr ok;qeaMyh; ijrksa
e`nk dks áwel rFkk i;kZIr ek=kk esa tSo rÙo çnku djrs esa nh?kZ rjaxksa ds :i esa rki dk lapj.k djrh gSA
gSaA ;g fdl çdkj dh e`nk gS\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(a) ySVsjkbV e`nk (b) ou e`nk (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(c) ihVe; e`nk (d) tyks<+ e`nk (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, Harsh
2 2
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Nagar, Delhi New Delhi Prayagraj Lucknow Vasundhara Colony, Jaipur
Phone: 011-47532596, 8750187501 :: e-mail: help@groupdrishti.in :: Website: www.drishtiIAS.com
Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
1. With reference to Lakshadweep, consider the 5. During syzygy, the Moon and Sun’s gravitational
following statements : forces reinforce each other, increasing the tidal force.
1. It is the smallest union territory of India in terms Which of the following tides can be observed in such
of area. a situation ?
(a) Neap tide (b) Spring tide
2. The archipelago consists of more islands than
(c) Flood tide (d) Ebb tide
the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.
3. It lies about 300 kms east from the coast of 6. Consider the following statements :
Tamil Nadu. 1. Galapagos Island is situated in the Atlantic
Ocean.
How many of the above statements are correct ? 2. Equator passes through Columbia, Brazil and
(a) Only one (b) Only two Ecuador.
(c) All three (d) None 3. Columbia shares borders with both the Pacific
and Atlantic Ocean.
2. Consider the following :
1. Noa Dehing How many of the above statements are correct ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
2. Sankosh
(c) All three (d) None
3. Manas
7. ‘Fazendas’ are found in South American region.
4. Subansiri
They are famous for
How many of the above are not north bank tributary (a) Coffee production (b) Sugarcane cultivation
of the river Brahmaputra ? (c) Cattle ranching (d) Rubber production
(a) Only one (b) Only two 8. Consider the following pairs :
(c) Only three (d) All four Discontinuity Lies between

3. Consider the following statements : 1. Mohorovicic : Crust and mantle
1. Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing 2. Lehman : Mantle and outer core
vertically through the upper layers of the 3. Gutenberg : Inner and outer core
stratosphere. 4. Conrad : Upper and lower mantle
2. Jet Streams develop where air masses of How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
differing temperatures meet. (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
9. With reference to Solar insolation, consider the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
following statements :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. At the same latitude the insolation is more over
4. It is found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high the Ocean than over the Continents.
humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation. 2. The Equator receives less insolation than the
Thus, large quantity of dead organic matter tropics.
accumulates in these areas, and this gives a rich 3. The earth transmits the heat to the atmospheric
humus and organic content to the soil. Which type layers near to the earth in long wave form.
of soil is it ? How many of the above statements are correct ?
(a) Laterite soil (b) Forest soil (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Peaty soil (d) Alluvial soil (c) All three (d) None
3 3
10. nf{k.kh xksyk¼Z esa lkekU;r% o"kZ dk lcls cM+k fnu dc 15. ^MkdZ f'kfiax* in lokZsÙke :i ls lanfHkZr djrk gS&
gksrk gS\ (a) lhek 'kqYd fofu;eksa ls cpus ds fy;s ukSogu
(a) fnlacj ekg ds nwljs Hkkx esa (f'kfiax) laca/h lwpuk nsrs oDr dkxkZs laca/h
(b) fnlacj ekg ds igys Hkkx esa tkudkjh dks xqIr j[kus dh çFkkA
(c) tuojh ekg ds nwljs Hkkx esa (b) LFkkfir leqæh çksVksdkWy dk ikyu fd;s fcuk LosPNk
(d) tuojh ekg ds igys Hkkx esa ls varjkZ"Vªh; tyekxZ esa ukSdk;u djukA
(c) tgk”kksa }kjk vius vkl ikl ds okrkoj.k esa
11. Hkkjr esa rackdw cksMZ ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij
fopkj dhft;s% ?kqyus&feyus ds fy;s mUur NÁ rduhdksa dk ç;ksxA
(d) ,slh fLFkfr ftlesa xqIr rjhds ls ukSogu ds nkSjku
1. rackdw cksMZ ,d lkafof/d fudk; gSA
tgk”kksa dh Lopkfyr igpku ç.kkyh (AIS) dks
2. ;g Ñf"k ,oa fdlku dY;k.k ea=kky; ls lac¼ ,d
fuxjkuh ls cpus ds mís'; ls can dj fn;k tkrk gSA
fu;ked laLFkk gSA
3. rackdw cksMZ dk eq[; dk;kZy; xqaVwj esa gSA 16. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
4. Hkkjr fo'o esa rackdw dk lcls cM+k mRiknd ns'k gSA 1. Úk¡l
2. esMkxkLdj
3. ekWjh'kl
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
4. ls'ksYl
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
5. Hkkjr
12. fuEufyf[kr ns'kksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
6. ekynho
1. :l 2. teZuh
3. Hkkjr 4. tkiku
mi;ZqDr ns'kksa esa ls fdrus fgan egklkxj vk;ksx vkSj fgan
egklkxj fje ,lksfl,'ku nksuksa dk fgLlk gSa\
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ns'k pkj ns'kksa ds lewg (G-4) dk
(a) dsoy rhu (b) dsoy pkj
fgLlk gSa\
(c) dsoy ik¡p (d) lHkh Ng
17. frCcr ds iBkj ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
dhft;s%
1. ;g laogu /kjk ds fuekZ.k esa lgk;d gksrk gS tksfd
1. xyhy lkxj (Sea of Galilee) iw.kZr% b”kjk;y esa
varr% eLdkjsu mPp dks lqn`<+ djrh gSaA
fLFkr ,d rk”ks ty dh >hy gSA
2. bl iBkj ds vR;f/d xeZ gksus ls Hkkjrh; xzh"edkyhu
2. tkWMZu unh dk mn~xe geZu ioZr dh <yku ls gksrk
ekulwu ds ifjek.k ij udkjkRed çHkko iM+rk gSA
gS vkSj ;g e`r lkxj esa ty folftZr djrh gSA
3. ;g BaMh] 'kq"d lkbcsfj;kbZ iouksa dks mÙkj&if'peh
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ {ks=k rd igq¡pus ls jksdus dk dk;Z djrk gSA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 4. frCcr ds iBkj dk rki ftruk vf/d gksxk]
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 m".kdfVca/h; iwohZ tsV /kjk dk foLrkj mruk gh
14. êjeaLd iÙku* fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl lkxj ds fudV vf/d gksxkA
fLFkr gS\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(a) cSjsaV~l lkxj (b) dkjk lkxj (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(c) mÙkjh lkxj (d) 'osr lkxj (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
4 4
10. In the southern hemisphere, the longest day of the 15. The term ‘Dark shipping’ best refers to
year normally occurs in the (a) The practice of concealing cargo information
(a) Second half of the month of December on shipping manifests to evade customs
(b) First half of the month of December regulations.
(c) Second half of the month of January (b) The act of deliberately sailing through
international waters without adhering to
(d) First half of the month of January
established maritime protocols.
11. With reference to Tobacco Board in India, consider (c) A condition in which vessels use advanced
the following statements : camouflage techniques to blend into their
1. The Tobacco Board is a statutory body. surroundings.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry (d) A situation in which vessels have their
of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Automatic Identification System (AIS)
switched off so as not to be detectable.
3. The Tobacco Board’s Head Office is in Guntur.
4. India is the largest producer of tobacco in the 16. Consider the following :
world. 1. France
2. Madagascar
How many of the above statements are correct ?
3. Mauritius

4. Seychelles
(c) Only three (d) All four 5. India
12. Consider the following countries : 6. Maldives
1. Russia 2. Germany How many of the above countries are part of both

3. India 4. Japan Indian Ocean Commission and Indian Ocean Rim
Association ?
How many of the above countries are part of the
(a) Only three (b) Only four

Group of Four (G4) nations ?
(c) Only Five (c) All six
(c) Only three (d) All four 17. With reference to the Tibetan Plateau, consider the
following statements :
13. Consider the following statements : 1. It provides for convective currents, which
1. Sea of galilee is a freshwater lake, located ultimately strengthens the Mascarenes high.
completely inside Israel. 2. The excessive heating of the Tibetan Plateau
2. Jordan river originates on the slopes of Mount has a negative effect on the magnitude of the
Hermon and drains into the dead sea. Indian Summer monsoon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 3. It acts as a barrier for cold, dry Siberian winds
from reaching the North-western region.

4. The higher the heating of the Tibetan plateau,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the greater is extent of the Tropical Easterly Jet
14. ‘Murmansk port’ opens up into which of the Stream.
following seas? How many of the above statements are correct ?

(a) Barents sea (b) Kara sea (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) North sea (d) White sea (c) Only three (d) All four
5 5
18. if'peh fo{kksHk ds laca/ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj 21. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
dhft;s% 1. ikjknhi
1. if'peh fo{kksHk ds dkj.k gksus okyh o"kkZ Hkkjr esa 2. tokgjyky usg: iÙku
[kjhiQ iQlyksa ds fodkl ds fy;s vko';d gSA 3. eksjeqxkvks
2. ;s pØokrh xfrfof/;k¡ gSa ftudk ifjpkyu Hkweè; 4. dksfPp
lkxj ls Hkkjrh; miegk}hi dh vksj gksrk gSA
mi;ZqDr Hkkjrh; iÙkuksa dks mudh vofLFkfr ds lanHkZ esa
3. if'peh fo{kksHk ls igys ok;q Å"e] vkæZ gksrh gS
mÙkj ls nf{k.k fn'kk esa O;ofLFkr dhft;s%
rFkk blds mijkar ok;q BaMh] 'kq"d gksrh gSA
(a) 1&2&3&4 (b) 2&1&3&4
4. vy&uhuks o"kks± ds nkSjku if'peh fo{kksHk lkekU;r%
(c) 3&4&1&2 (d) 4&3&1&2
de”kksj gksrk gSA
22. gky gh esa ,d O;fDr X vius ifjokj ds lkFk vksd
a kjs'oj
eafnj n'kZu ds fy;s x;kA ;g eafnj ,d fo'kky unh ds
unh }hi ij fLFkr gS] ;fn O;fDr X ftKklko'k unh ds
mn~xe LFky ls ysdj mlds eqgkus rd dh ;k=kk djrs gS
19. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% vkSj ;g ekuk tk, fd mUgksua s bl nkSjku dksbZ varjkZ"Vªh;
dFku I: lhek ikj ugha dh gS rks viuh ;k=kk (mn~xe vkSj xarO;
xksyk¼ks± esa xzh"e ekg ds nkSjku vks”kksu fNæ dh eksVkbZ lfgr) ds nkSjku os U;wure fdrus jkT;ksa ls gksdj xqtjs gksxa \s
lokZf/d gksrh gSA (a) ,d jkT; (b) nks jkT;
dFku II:
(c) rhu jkT; (d) pkj jkT;
vks”kksu ijr dh eksVkbZ èkzqoh; lerkieaMyh; es?kksa ds
fuekZ.k ds ifjek.k ds O;qRØekuqikrh gksrh gSA 23. fuEufyf[kr fLFkfr;ksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk 1. leqæ dh lrg ds mij mPp ÅèokZ/j iou vi:i.kA
lgh gS\ 2. Hkweè; js[kk ds fudV 0 ls 10 fMxzh v{kka'kA
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] 3. ok;qeaMy ds Åijh Hkkx esa çfr pØokrh fLFkfr;k¡A
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA 4. fgekad ds yxHkx leqæ dk i`"Bh; rkiekuA
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] mi;ZqDr fLFkfr;ksa esa ls fdruh m".kdfVca/h; pØokrksa ds
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA fuekZ.k esa ;ksxnku nsaxha\
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gS (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gS (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
20. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 24. iwohZ ?kkV dh fuEufyf[kr igkfM+;ksa dks mÙkj ls nf{k.k
1. ikyk vkæZHkwfe % ef.kiqj fn'kk ds Øe esa O;ofLFkr dhft;s%
2. #ælkxj >hy % vle 1. ikyuh igkfM+;k¡ 2. toknh igkfM+;k¡
3. yksdVd >hy % f=kiqjk 3. ikydks.Mk igkfM+;k¡ 4. uYykekyk igkfM+;k¡
4. nhiksj chy % es?kky; 5. ukxjh igkfM+;k¡
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr ugha gSa\ uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx djds lgh fodYi pqfu;s%
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1 (b) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1 – 5
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj (c) 4 – 2 – 3 – 5 – 1 (d) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5
6 6
18. Consider the following statements regarding Western 21. Consider the following :
Disturbances : 1. Paradip
1. Rainfall caused by Western Disturbances, are 2. Jawaharlal Nehru Port
essential for the growth of Kharif crops in
3. Marmagoa
India.
4. Kochi
2. These are cyclonic activities which are carried
from the Mediterranean region towards Indian Arrange the following Indian ports in the North to

subcontinent. South direction:
3. Western Disturbances are preceded by warm, (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4
moist air and are followed by cold and dry air. (c) 3-4-1-2 (d) 4-3-1-2
4. Western Disturbances are generally weak
22. Mr. X, recently visited the temple Omkareshwara
during the El-Nino years.
with his family, this particular temple is located on
How many of the above statements are correct ? a riverine island of a vast river, if out of curiosity he

(a) Only one (b) Only two makes a journey from the source of the river to its
(c) Only three (d) All four mouth, how many minimum states would he had
19. Consider the following statements : travelled (including the source and the destination)
Statement I: during the course of his journey, assuming he didn’t

The ozone hole is thickest during the hemispherical crossed the international boundary ?

summer months. (a) One state (b) Two states
Statement II:
(c) Three states (d) Four states

Thickness of the Ozone layer is inversely proportional

to the magnitude of formation of the Polar 23. Consider the following situations given below :
Stratospheric Clouds. 1. High level of vertical wind shear above the sea
Which of the following is correct in respect to the surface.

above statements ? 2. 0 to 10-degree latitudes, near the equator.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
3. Anti-cyclonic conditions in the upper reaches
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
of the atmosphere.
Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, 4. Near freezing sea surface temperature.
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation How many of the above situations will aid the

for Statement-I. formation of tropical cyclones?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (a) Only one (b) Only two
incorrect (c) Only three (d) All four
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct 24. Arrange the following hills of Eastern Ghats in North
to South direction:
20. Consider the following pairs :
1. Palani hills 2. Javadi hills
1. Pala wetland : Manipur
3. Palkonda hills 4. Nallamala hills
2. Rudrasagar Lake : Assam
3. Loktak Lake : Tripura 5. Nagari hills
4. Deepor Beel : Meghalaya Select the correct options from the codes given

How many of the above are not correctly matched ? below :
(a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1 (b) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1 – 5

(c) Only three (d) All four (c) 4 – 2 – 3 – 5 – 1 (d) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5
7 7
25. fuEufyf[kr ufn;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh çR;{k rkSj ij xaxk unh 3. :ikarj ifjlhek lkekU;r% fdlh Hkh Tokykeq[kh;
dh lgk;d unh ugha gS\ vkSj Hkwdaih; xfrfof/ ls lacaf/r ugha gksrh gSA
(a) xkserh unh (b) pacy unh mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(c) lksu unh (d) iquiqu unh (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
26. Hkkjr esa tyks<+ e`nk ds laca/ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
fopkj dhft;s% 30. lkxjh; ry ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
1. Hkkjr esa tyks<+ e`nk dsoy fla/q&xaxk ds eSnkuh {ks=kksa
dhft;s%
esa ikbZ tkrh gSA 1. eè; egklkxjh; dVd ds lehi dh pêðkusa lcls
2. buesa iksVk'k rks çpqj ek=kk esa ik;k tkrk gS] ysfdu
uohure gSaA
iQkWLiQksjl dh ek=kk de gksrh gSA 2. egklkxjh; iiZVh egk}hih; iiZVh ls Hkh iqjkuh gSA
3. xgjh [kkb;ksa esa Hkwdai ds mn~xe vf/d xgjkbZ ij
3. o`gn~ eSnkuh {ks=kksa esa bldh lajpuk vR;f/d
le:i gSA gSa vkSj eè; egklkxjh; dVd {ks=kksa esa Hkwdai ds
dsaæ mFkyh xgjkbZ esa gksrs gSaA
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
27. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 31. Hkwfe ls lkxj rd egklkxjh; ry foU;kl ds lanHkZ esa
Hkw&vkÑfr;k¡ ftlls ls lacaf/r gSa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk Øe lgh gS\
1. ySiht % Hkw&ty (a) egk}hih; eXurV] egk}hih; <ky] egk}hih; mHkkj]
2. fiQ;kWMZ % o"kkZ foryh; eSnku
3. Mªefyu % ok;oh; (b) egk}hih; eXurV] egk}hih; mHkkj] egk}hih; <ky]
4. ldZ % fgekuh foryh; eSnku
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ (c) egk}hih; <ky] egk}hih; eXurV] egk}hih; mHkkj]
foryh; eSnku
(d) egk}hih; <ky] egk}hih; mHkkj] egk}hih; eXurV]
foryh; eSnku
28. i`Foh ds vkarfjd Hkkx ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa 32. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. vkWDlhtu og rRo gS] tks i`Foh dh Hkw&iiZVh esa
1. cká ØksM Bksl voLFkk esa gS] tcfd vkarfjd ØksM lcls çpqj ek=kk esa ik;k tkrk gSA
v¼Z&foxfyr voLFkk esa gSA 2. i`Foh dh Hkw&iiZVh dk vk/k Hkkx iQsYMLikj [kfut
2. LFkyeaMy Hkw&iiZVh dh lcls Åijh ijr gSA ls cuk gSA
mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
1. o"kkZ ty 2. ygjsa
1. vilkjh ifjlhek lkekU;r% mFkys Hkwdai {ks=kksa vkSj
3. fgeun 4. Hkw&ty
Tokykeq[kh; rIrLFyksa ls lacaf/r gSA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus Hkw&vkÑfrd dkjd gSa\
2. vfHklj.k ifjlhek lkekU;r% xgjs Hkwdai {ks=kksa vkSj (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
Tokykeq[kh çLiQqVu ls lacaf/r gSA (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
8 8
25. Which of the following rivers is not a direct tributary 3. Transform boundaries are not associated with
of River Ganga ? any volcanic and earthquake activity generally.
(a) Gomti river (b) Chambal river How many of the above statements are correct ?
(c) Son river (d) Punpun river (a) Only one (b) Only two
26. Consider the following statements regarding alluvial (c) All three (d) None
soils in India : 30. Consider the following statements with reference to
1. Alluvial soils in India are found only in the Sea floor :
regions of Indo-Gangetic plains. 1. Rocks closer to mid oceanic ridge are youngest.
2. These are rich in Potash but are poor in 2. The oceanic crust is older than continental crust.
phosphorous content. 3. Deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake
3. These are highly homogenous in texture across occurrence and mid-oceanic ridge have shallow
the great plains. foci of earthquakes.
How many of the above statements are correct ? How many of the above statements are correct ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three (d) None
27. Consider the following pairs : 31. Which among the following sequence is correct with
Landform Associated with reference to Ocean floor configuration from land to

1. Lapies : Ground water sea ?
2. Fjords : Rainfall (a) Continental shelf, continental slope, continental
rise, abyssal plain
3. Drumlins : Aerial
(b) Continental shelf, continental rise, continental
4. Cirques : Glacial
slope, abyssal plain
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ? (c) Continental slope, Continental shelf,
(a) Only one (b) Only two Continental rise, abyssal plain
(c) Only three (d) All four (d) Continental slope, Continental rise, continental
28. Consider the following statements with reference to shelf, abyssal plain
interior of Earth : 32. Consider the following statements :
1. The outer core is in solid state while the inner 1. Oxygen is the element that makes up the largest
core is in semi-molten state. percentage of the earth’s crust.
2. Lithosphere is the uppermost layer of crust. 2. Half of earth’s crust is composed of mineral
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? feldspar.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
29. Consider the following statements : (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Divergent boundaries are associated with 33. Consider the following :
shallow earthquake zones and volcanic 1. Rainwater 2. Waves
hotspots generally. 3. Glaciers 4. Ground water
2. Convergent boundaries are associated with How many of the above are geomorphic agents ?
deep earthquake zones and volcanic eruptions (a) Only one (b) Only two
generally. (c) Only three (d) All four
9 9
34. fla/q unh iz.kkyh ra=k ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
1. bldk mn~xe frCcrh {ks=k esa cks[kj&pw ds lehiorhZ (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
fgeun ls gksrk gSA 38. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
2. ;g tEew vkSj d'ehj esa fxyfxr ds ikl egk[kîó
1. lqcufljh 2. dkesax
dk fuekZ.k djrh gSA
3. Vhyk 4. lsrh
3. blds nkfgus fdukjs ls tqM+us okyh lgk;d ufn;k¡
5. yksfgr
>sye] fpukc vkSj C;kl gSaA
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh czãiq=k unh dh lgk;d ufn;k¡ gSa\
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh ugha gSa\
(a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu
(c) dsoy pkj (d) lHkh ik¡p
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
1. fgeky; dh ufn;k¡ iwoZorhZ gSa vkSj ifj.kkeLo:i
1. tqvkjh 2. ekaMoh
eSnkuh bykdksa esa o`{kkdkj çfr:i dk fuekZ.k djrh gSAa
3. Hkjriq>k 4. isfj;kj
2. çk;}hih; ufn;k¡ vè;kjks f ir gks r h gS a ftlds
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh ufn;k¡ xksok jkT; ls gksdj çokfgr ifj.kkeLo:i tkyhuqek] vjh; vkSj vk;rkdkj
gksrh gSa\ viokg çfr:i cukrh gSaA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 3. çk;}hih; ufn;k¡ uohure] lfØ; gksrh gSa vkSj xgjh
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj ?kkfV;ksa dk fuekZ.k djrh gSaA
36. daVhys ou ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% 4. fgeky;h ufn;k¡ larqfyr ifjPNsfndk okyh iqjkuh
1. ikS/s o"kZ ds vf/dka'k le; iÙkh jfgr gksrs gSaA ufn;k¡ gSaA
2. ikbZ tkus okyh egÙoiw.kZ çtkfr;k¡ lseqy] dqlqe] mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
vkaoyk vkSj egqvk gSaA (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
3. ;s mu {ks=kksa esa gksrs gSa] tgk¡ 50 lseh- ls de o"kkZ (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
gksrh gSA 40. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 1. v{kka'k
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 2. leqæ ls nwjh
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 3. mPpkop
37. rVh; eSnkuksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% 4. i`Foh dh lrg ij ok;qnkc ,oa iouksa dk forj.k
1. if'peh rVh; eSnku ,d mHkjrk gqvk rVh; eSnku gSA 5. Åijh ok;q ifjlapj.k
2. if'peh rVh; eSnku chp esa ladh.kZ gSa vkSj mÙkj 6. if'peh fo{kksHk
vkSj nf{k.k dh vksj pkSM+s gksrs tkrs gSaA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dkjd Hkkjr dh tyok;q dk fuèkkZj.k
3. if'peh rVh; eSnkuksa ls çokfgr gksus okyh ufn;k¡ djrs gSa\
dksbZ MsYVk vf/drj ugha cukrh gSaA (a) dsoy rhu (b) dsoy pkj
4. iwohZ rVh; eSnku tyeXu rVh; eSnku gSA (c) dsoy ik¡p (d) lHkh Ng
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, 10
Harsh 10
34. With reference to Indus river system, consider the How many of the above statements are correct ?

following : (a) Only one (b) Only two
1. It originates from glacier near Bokhar chu in (c) Only three (d) All four
Tibetan region.
2. It forms gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and
Kashmir. 1. Subansiri 2. Kameng
3. Tributaries joining it’s right bank are Jhelum, 3. Tila 4. Seti
Chenab and Beas. 5. Lohit
How many of the above statements are not correct ? How many of the above are tributaries of Brahmaputra

(a) Only one (b) Only two River ?
(c) All three (d) None (a) Only two (b) Only three
35. Consider the following : (c) Only four (d) All five
1. zuari 2. Mandovi 39. Consider the following :
3. Bharathapuzha 4. Periyar 1. The Himalayan rivers are antecedent and
How many of the above rivers pass through the state consequent leading to dendritic pattern in

of Goa ? plains.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. Peninsular rivers are superimposed resulting
(c) Only three (d) All four in trellis, radial and rectangular patterns.
36. With reference to Thorn forest, consider the 3. Peninsular rivers are young, active and
following : deepening in the valleys.
1. Plants remain leafless for most part of the year. 4. The Himalayan rivers are old rivers with graded
2. Important species found are semul, kusum, profile.
amla and mahua. How many of the above statements are correct ?

3. These occur in areas which recieve rainfall less (a) Only one (b) Only two
than 50 cm. (c) Only three (d) All four
How many of the above statements are correct ? 40. Consider the following :

(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Latitude
(c) All three (d) None 2. Distance from sea
37. With reference to coastal plains, consider the 3. Altitude
following : 4. Distribution of air pressure and winds on
1. The western coastal plain is an emergent coastal surface of earth
plain.
5. Upper air circulation
2. The western coastal plains are narrow in middle
6. Western disturbances
and get broader towards north and south.
3. Most rivers flowing through western coastal How many of the above are factors determining

plains do not form any delta. climate of India ?
4. Eastern coastal plain is submergent coastal (a) Only three (b) Only four
plain. (c) Only five (d) All six
Harsh 11
41. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 3. ekulwuh o"kkZ dkiQh gn rd mPpkokpksa ;k LFkykÑfr
1. vDrwcj vkSj uoacj ds eghus fuofrZr ekulwu ds }kjk fu;af=kr gksrh gSA
fy;s tkus tkrs gSaA
2. ekulwu dk fuorZu lcls igys iwokZsÙkj Hkkjr ls
gksrk gSA (a) dsoy ,d
3. fuofrZr nf{k.k&if'peh ekulwu dks cknyksa ls f?kjs (b) dsoy nks
vkleku vkSj rkieku esa fxjkoV ds :i esa tkuk (c) lHkh rhu
tkrk gSA (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 45. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha dFku&I:
42. vy uhuks vkSj yk uhuk ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ySVsjkbV e`nk Ñf"k ds fy;s mi;qDr ugha gksrh gSA
ij fopkj dhft;s% dFku&II:
1. vy uhuks ,d tyok;q iz f r:i gS tks iw o hZ

bl e`nk esa dkcZfud inkFkZ] ukbVªkstu] iQkWLiQsV vkSj
m".kdfVca/h; ç'kkar egklkxj esa lrgh ty ds
dSfY'k;e dh deh gksrh gS tcfd vk;ju vkWDlkbM vkSj
vlkekU; :i ls 'khryu dh fLFkfr dks n'kkZrk gSA
2. yk uhuk ,d tyok;q çfr:i gS tks m".kdfVca/h; iksVk'k vf/d ek=kk esa gksrs gSaA
iwohZ ç'kkar {ks=k esa vlkekU; :i ls rkiu dh fLFkfr mijksDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d
dks n'kkZrk gSA lgh gS\
3. vy uhuks eksMksdh ?kVuk dh fo'ks"krk vlkekU; :i (a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
ls xeZ eè; Hkweè;js[kh; ç'kkar {ks=k gS ftlds if'pe dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gS
vkSj iwoZ nksuksa vksj vlkekU; :i ls BaMs {ks=k gSaA
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gS
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gS
43. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gS
1. nsonkj] ,d vR;f/d ewY;oku LFkkfud çtkfr gS]
tks eq[; :i ls fgeky; Js.kh ds if'peh Hkkx esa
mxrh gSA 1. lkekftd okfudh dk vFkZ gS xzkeh.k fodkl esa
2. fgeky; dh nf{k.kh <ykuksa ij l?ku ouLifr lgk;rk ds mís'; ls ouksa dk çca/u vkSj laj{k.k
vkoj.k gSA rFkk catj Hkwfe ij ouhdj.k djukA
3. vf/d mUurka'k ij dkbZ vkSj ykbdsu VqaMªk ouLifr 2. Ñf"kokfudh dk vFkZ gS vif'k"V Hkwfe dks mi;ksx
dk fgLlk curs gSaA
esa ykrs gq, ,d gh Hkwfe ij o`{k vkSj Ñf"k iQlysa
,d lkFk yxkuk gSA
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
44. fuEu ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1
1. rfeyukMq rV nf{k.k if'peh ekulwu dh caxky dh
(b) dsoy 2
[kkM+h 'kk[kk ds lekukarj fLFkr gSA
2. NksVk ukxiqj iBkj esa vjc lkxj dh ekulwu 'kk[kk (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
ls o"kkZ gksrh gSA (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 12
41. Consider the following : 3. Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief
1. The months of October and November are or topography.
known for retreating monsoon. How many of the above statements are correct ?
2. The monsoon retreats from northeast India first.

(a) Only one
3. The retreating southwest monsoon is marked
(b) Only two
by clouded skies and a fall in temperature.
(c) All three
(d) None

45. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I:
42. With reference to EL Nino and La Nina, consider

Laterite soil is not suitable for cultivation.
the following statements :

Statement-II:
1. El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the

These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen ,
unusual cooling of surface waters in the eastern

phosphate and calcium while iron oxide and potash
tropical Pacific Ocean.
are in excess.
2. La Nina is a climate pattern that describes the
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
unusual warming of the tropical eastern Pacific.

the above statements ?
3. The El Niño Modoki phenomenon is
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
characterized by the anomalously warm central
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
equatorial Pacific flanked by anomalously cool
regions in both west and east. Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation

for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
43. Consider the following : incorrect
1. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species, grows
mainly in the western part of the Himalayan
correct
range.
2. The southern slopes of Himalayas carry thicker 46. Consider the following :
vegetation cover. 1. Social forestry means management and
3. At higher altitudes mosses and lichens form protection of forest and afforestation on barren
part of tundra vegetation. lands with purpose of helping in rural
development.
2. Agroforestry is raising of trees and agriculture

crops on same land including waste patches.
44. Consider the following : Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to (a) 1 only
Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon. (b) 2 only
2. The Chota Nagpur plateau gets rainfall from (c) Both 1 and 2
Arabian sea branch of monsoon. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 13
47. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% 51- OSIRIS-REx fe'ku ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls
1. lkxkSu 2. lky dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\
3. 'kh'ke 4. lseqy (a) bl fe'ku ds varxZr varfj{k ;ku }kjk {kqæxzg csUuw
dks Li'kZ fd;s tkus ls çkIr /wy vkSj dadM+ ds
5. dVgy
,d=k uewus i`Foh ij igq¡pk, x,A
mi;ZqDr çtkfr;ksa esa ls fdruh vkæZ i.kZikrh ou dh gSa\ (b) varfj{k ;ku us eaxy xzg dh ifjØek dh] mlds
(a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu ok;qeMa y vkSj lrg dh fo'ks"krkvksa dk vè;;u fd;kA
(c) dsoy pkj (d) lHkh ik¡p (c) ;g fe'ku xzg dh çfrj{kk dk igyk ijh{k.k Fkk]
ftlesa {kqæxzg fMfMeksl ds ç{ksi iFk dks cnyus ds
fy;s varfj{k ;ku dk mi;ksx 'kkfey FkkA
1. Tokj ls eqDr 'kkar rVh; {ks=kA (d) paæek dh feêðh dh lajpuk dk vè;;u djus ds
2. MsYVk ds fuekZ.k {ks=k esa mFkys leqæh {ks=k dk gksukA fy;s ç;ksxksa dk lapkyu djrs gq,] ,d ySaMj paæek
3. unh ekxZ ij dksbZ cM+h >hysa ugha gksuh pkfg;sA ij liQyrkiwoZd mrjkA
mi;ZqDr ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa ls fdruh MsYVk ds fuekZ.k ds fy;s 52- gky gh esa tu&lekpkjksa esa jgk] R21/Matrix-M lanfHkZr
vuqdwy gSa\ djrk gS
(a) thukse vuqØe.k dh eSfVªDl rduhd
(b) cPpksa esa eysfj;k dh jksdFkke ds fy;s Vhdk
(c) paæek ds nf{k.kh èkzo q ds fy;s çLrkfor fe'ku gsrq LFky
49. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% (d) uohu dksjksuk ok;jl oxhZdj.k ;kstuk
1. vkez o"kkZ dsjy vkSj rVh; dukZVd esa vke ckr gSA 53- Hkkjr ds /ksMkZs xzke dks gky gh esa la;qDr jk"Vª fo'o
2. iQwyksa okyh ckSNkj jktLFkku rFkk vklikl ds {ks=kksa i;ZVu laxBu (UNWTO) dh] loZJs"B i;ZVu xzkeh.k
esa gksrh gSA {ks=kksa dh lwph esa lwphc¼ fd;k x;k gSA /ksMkZs fuEufyf[kr
esa ls fdl jkT; esa fLFkr gS\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) egkjk"Vª (b) jktLFkku
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (c) xqtjkr (d) xksok
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
54- lkfgR; ds {ks=k esa o"kZ 2023 ds ukscsy iqjLdkj çkIrdÙkkZ]
50. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% tkWu iQkWls fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl Hkk"kk esa fy[krs gSa\
1. oS r j.kk ukfld f”kys es a =;a c d igkfM+ ; ks a ls (a) ;ksuksLdZ (b) cksdey
fudyrh gSA (c) iQjksth (d) Msfu'k
2. dkyh unh csyxke f”kys ls fudydj dkjokj [kkM+h 55- VksVks yksxksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
esa viuk ty folftZr djrh gSA dhft;s%
3. csnrh unh dk mn~xe LFky gqcyh (/kjokM+) gSA
1- VksVks f=kiqjk dk ,d vkfne vkSj fiNM+k tutkrh;
lewg gSA
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 2- VksVks yksxksa dks eaxksykW;M ekuk tkrk gSA
(a) dsoy ,d 3- VksVks Hkk"kk dh viuh fyf[kr fyfi gSA
(b) dsoy nks mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(c) lHkh rhu (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
Harsh 14
47. Consider the following : 51. Which among following is the correct statement
1. Teak 2. Sal with reference to the OSIRIS-REx mission ?
3. Shisham 4. Semul (a) spacecraft briefly touched asteroid Bennu, from
5. Jackfruit where it collected samples of dust and pebbles
and delivered them back to Earth.
How many of the above are species of moist
(b) spacecraft orbited Mars, studying its atmosphere

deciduous forest ?
and surface features.
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) mission was the first test of planetary defence,
(c) Only four (d) All five
involving the use of a spacecraft to change the
48. Consider the following : trajectory of an asteroid Didymos.
1. Coast should be sheltered, preferably tideless. (d) a lander, successfully touched down on the
2. The sea adjoining the delta should be shallow. Moon, conducting experiments to study lunar
3. There should be no large lakes on the river soil composition.
course. 52. Recently seen in news, R21/Matrix-M refers to
How many of the above conditions are favorable for (a) Genome sequencing matrix technique

the formation of Deltas ? (b) Vaccine for preventing Malaria in children
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Lunar south pole site for proposed mission
(c) All three (d) None (d) New Corona virus classification scheme
49. Consider the following : 53. Dhordo village of India has recently been listed on
1. Mango showers are a phenomenon common in the United Nations World Tourism Organisation
Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. (UNWTO) list of best tourism villages. Dhordo is
2. Blossom showers occur in Rajasthan and located in which of the following states ?
adjoining areas. (a) Maharashtra (b) Rajasthan
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (c) Gujarat (d) Goa

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 54. The recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature 2023, Jon
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Fosse writes in which of the following languages ?
50. Consider the following : (a) Nynorsk (b) Bokmal
1. Vaitarna rises from Trimbak hills in Nasik (c) Faroese (d) Danish
district. 55. With reference to Toto people, consider the following
2. Kalinadi river rises from Belgaum district and statements :
falls in Karwar bay. 1. Toto is a primitive and isolated tribal group
3. The source of Bedti river lies in Hubli Dharwar. found in Tripura.
How many of the above statements are correct ? 2. Totos are considered mongoloid people.

(a) Only one 3. Toto language has its own written script.
(b) Only two How many of the above statements are correct ?

(c) All three (a) Only one (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three (d) None
Harsh 15
56- Hkkjrh; ok;q lsuk (IAF) ds èot ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr 60- o"kZ 1973 dk ^;kse fdIiqj ;q¼* b”kjk;y vkSj fuEufyf[kr
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% esa ls fdl ns'k ds chp yM+k x;k Fkk\
1- v'kksd flag ds lkFk&lkFk fgeky;h bZxy Hkh èot (a) felz] tkWMZu (b) tkWMZu] bjkd
dk fgLlk gSaA (c) bjkd] lhfj;k (d) lhfj;k] felz
2- IAF dk vkn'kZ okD; ok;q iqjk.k ls fy;k x;k gSA 61- gky gh esa tu&lekpkjksa esa jgs] 'A23a' vkSj 'A76a' D;k
lanfHkZr djrs gSa\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ (a) nqyZHk [kxksyh; ifj?kVuk,¡
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (b) leqæh thoksa dh ubZ çtkfr;k¡
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (c) varjkZ"Vªh; varfj{k LVs'ku
57- oSf'od uokpkj lwpdkad fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl laxBu (d) fge'kSy
}kjk tkjh fd;k tkrk gS\ 62- iks"kd rÙo vk/kfjr lfClMh ;kstuk ds lanHkZ esa]
fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) fo'o vkfFkZd eap
1- tks moZjd eksfyCMsue vkSj ftad tSls vfrfjDr lw{e
(b) fo'o ckSf¼d laink laxBu iks"kd rÙoksa ls le`¼ gksrs gSa] mUgsa vfrfjDr lfClMh
(c) la;qDr jk"Vª 'kSf{kd] oSKkfud rFkk lkaLÑfrd laxBu nh tkrh gSA
(;wusLdks) 2- ;g ;kstuk Ñf"k ,oa fdlku dY;k.k ea=kky; }kjk
(d) la;qDr jk"Vª foKku vkSj çkS|ksfxdh laxBu fØ;kfUor dh tk jgh gSA
58- fo;uk dUosa'ku 1961 ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij 3- çfro"kZ ,d fuf'pr lfClMh nj r; dh tkrh gSA
fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
1- ;g dUosa'ku jktuf;d çfrj{kk dk fl¼kar çnku
djrk gSA 63- gkbMªksdkcZu vUos"k.k vkSj ykblsaflax uhfr ds lanHkZ esa]
2- Hkkjr fo;uk dUosa'ku dk i{kdkj gS ysfdu vHkh fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
rd Hkkjr us bldk vuqeksnu ugha fd;k x;k gSA 1- ;g lHkh gkbMªksdkcZuksa dks 'kkfey djus okyh ,d
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ leku ykblsaflax ç.kkyh çnku djrh gSA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 2- bl ç.kkyh ds varxZr mFkys ty {ks=kksa ls ysdj xgjs
ty {ks=kksa ,oa xgjs ty {ks=kksa ls ysdj vfr xgjs
ty okys {ks=kksa rd jkW;YVh njsa c<+ tk,axhA
59- la;qDr jk"Vª ekuokf/dkj ifj"kn (UNHRC) ds lanHkZ esa] mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
1- bldh LFkkiuk o"kZ 2006 esa gqbZ Fkh vkSj blus (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
ekuokfèkdkj ij iwoZ la;qDr jk"Vª vk;ksx dk LFkku 64- fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
fy;k FkkA 1- Hkkjr fo'o esa gYnh dk lcls cM+k mRiknd] miHkksDrk
2- blesa dqy 15 lnL; ns'k 'kkfey gSa ftudk fuokZpu vkSj fu;kZrd gSA
gj nks o"kZ esa gksrk gSA 2- gYnh vnjd ifjokj dk ,d ckjgeklh 'kkdh;
ikni gSA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 16
56. With reference to the Indian Air Force (IAF) ensign, 60. The 1973, ‘Yom Kippur war’ was fought between
consider the following statements : Israel and which of the following countries ?
1. The Ashoka lion as well as Himalayan eagle (a) Egypt, Jordan (b) Jordan, Iraq
feature as part of the ensign. (c) Iraq, Syria (d) Syria, Egypt
2. The motto of the IAF is taken from Vayu Puran. 61. Recently seen in news, what do ‘A23a’ and ‘A76a’
refer to ?
(a) Rare astronomical phenomena

(b) New species of marine organisms
(c) International space stations
57. Global Innovation Index is published by which of (d) Icebergs
the following organisations ? 62. With reference to Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme,
(a) World Economic Forum consider the following statements :
(b) World Intellectual Property Organisation 1. Fertilizers which are fortified with additional
(c) United Nations Educational, Scientific and micronutrients such as molybdenum and Zinc
Cultural Organisation are given additional subsidy.
2. The scheme is being implemented by the
(d) United Nations Science and Technology
Ministry of Agriculture and farmers’ welfare.
Organisation
3. A fixed subsidy rate is decided annually.
58. Consider the following statements with reference to
Vienna Convention 1961 :

1. The convention provides the principle of (c) All three (d) None
Diplomatic Immunity.
63. With reference to Hydrocarbon Exploration and
2. India is a party to the Vienna Convention but Licensing Policy, consider the following statements :
is yet to ratify it. 1. It provides for a uniform licensing system
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? covering all hydrocarbons.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Under this system the royalty rates will increase
from shallow water to deep water to ultra-deep-
water areas.
59. With reference to United Nations Human Rights
Council (UNHRC), consider the following

statements :
1. It was established in 2006 and it replaced the
former United Nations Commission on Human
1. India is the world’s largest producer, consumer,
Rights.
and exporter of turmeric.
2. It consists of a total of 15 member states which 2. Turmeric is a perennial herbaceous plant of
are elected every two years. ginger family.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 17
65- ^baVjus'kuy ekbxzs'ku vkmVyqd 2023* dks tkjh fd;k mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
x;k FkkA (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(a) vkfFkZd lg;ksx vkSj fodkl laxBu (OECD) }kjk (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(b) fo'o cSad }kjk 69- vksfjuksdks unh ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
(c) varjkZ"Vªh; eqæk dks"k }kjk dhft;s%
(d) ;wukbVsM us'kal usVodZ vkWu ekbxzs'ku }kjk 1- ;g ves”ku unh dh eq[; lgk;d unh gSA
2- bldk mn~xe is: esa ekStnw fVfVdkdk >hy ls gksrk gSA
66- fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
3- ;g osustq,yk esa MsYVk dk fuekZ.k djrh gSA
1- nf{k.k vÚhdk esa fLFkr fdEcyhZ iBkj ghjs ds [kuu
ds fy;s çfl¼ gSA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
2- vkWLVªsfy;k esa fLFkr dVaxk iBkj rkacs vkSj ;wjsfu;e
fu{ksiksa ds fy;s çfl¼ gSA
3- vtZsaVhuk esa fLFkr iSVkxksfu;kbZ iBkj m".kdfVca/h; 70- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ns'k rkacs dk lcls cM+k
lnkcgkj ou ds fy;s çfl¼ gSA mRiknd gS\
(a) fpyh (b) czk”khy
(c) vaxksyk (d) xSckWu
71- fo'o dh LFkkuh; iouksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa
ij fopkj dhft;s%
67- ;s eè; Hkkjr esa jktegy igkfM+;ksa ls ysdj vjkoyh rd 1- feLVªy jksu ?kkVh ls Hkweè;lkxjh; rVh; {ks=k rd
fuokljr gSAa laFkky] Hkhy] xksMa ] eqMa k] mjk¡o vkfn tutkfr;k¡ çokfgr gksus okyh ,d rs”k mÙkj vkSj mÙkj&if'peh
bl lewg ls lacaf/r gSaA muds cky Åuh u gksdj eksVs iou gSA
vkSj lh/s gksrs gSaA ,slk ekuk tkrk gS fd ;s ogh yksx Fks 2- iQksgsu m".k ,oa 'kq"d] rs”k iou gS tks le;≤
ftUgksaus Hkweè;lkxjh; tkfr;ksa ds lkFk feydj fla/q ?kkVh ij vkYIl dh yhokMZ <ykuksa ls vorfyr gksrh gSA
lH;rk dk fodkl fd;k FkkA buds dadky eksgutksnM+ks mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
vkSj gM+Iik ds mR[kuu ls çkIr gq, gSaA (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
mi;ZqDr ifjPNsn esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ekuo tkfr (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
dh ppkZ dh xbZ gS\ 72- VSxk ck;kse ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
(a) usxzkbM dhft;s%
(b) çksVks&vkLVªsykWbM~l 1- ;g 70 fMxzh v{kka'k ls Åij vkdZfVd o`Ùk esa VqaMªk
ds mÙkj esa fLFkr gSA
(c) eksaxksyksbM~l
2- VSxk ck;kse esa 'kadq/kjh o`{k lcls çeq[k çdkj ds
(d) iqjk&Hkweè;lkxjh;
o`{k gSaA
68- fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
1- ekmaV ,dkadkxqvk ,aMht ioZr Ükà[kyk dh lcls Å¡ph (a) dsoy 1

pksVh gSA (b) dsoy 2
2- xzsV fMokbfMax jsat if'peh ;wjksi esa fLFkr gSA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
3- ekmaV K2] egku fgeky; esa fLFkr gSA (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 18
65. ‘International Migration Outlook 2023’ was How many of the above statements are correct ?

released by (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and (c) All three (d) None
Development (OECD) 69. Consider the following statements with reference to
(b) World Bank Orinoco River :
(c) International Monetary Fund 1. It is the primary tributary of the Amazon River.
(d) United Nations Network on Migration 2. It starts from the Lake Titicaca present in Peru.
66. Consider the following statements : 3. It forms delta in Venezuela.
1. Kimberley Plateau situated in South Africa is How many of the above statements are correct ?
famous for diamond mining.

2. Katanga plateau situated in Australia is famous
for copper and uranium deposits.
3. Patagonian Plateau situated in Argentina is 70. Which among the following countries is the largest
famous for tropical evergreen forest. producer of copper ?
(a) Chile (b) Brazil
(c) Angola (d) Gabon

(c) All three (d) None 71. Consider the following statements with reference to
local winds of the world :
67. They are settled in the central India from the
Rajmahal hills to the Aravalis. Santhal, Bhil, Gond, 1. Mistral is a strong north and northwesterly wind
Munda, Oraon etc. tribes are related to this group. blowing from the Rhone valley to the
Their hair is coarse and straight instead of being Mediterranean coast.
woolly. It is considered that they were the people 2. Foehn is warm and dry, gusty wind that
who, in collaboration with the Mediterranean race, periodically descends the leeward slopes of
had developed the Indus Valley Civilization. Their Alps.
skeletons have been found in the excavations of Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Mohenjodaro and Harappa. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which among following human races is discussed

in above paragraph?
(a) The Negritos 72. Consider the following statements with reference to
Taiga biome :
(b) The Proto-Australoids
(c) The Mongoloids 1. It is located north of tundra in the Arctic circle
above 70 degrees latitude.
(d) Paleo-Mediterraneans
2. The coniferous trees are the most dominant
type of trees in the Taiga biome.
1. Mount Aconcagua is the highest peak of
mountain range Andes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

2. The Great Dividing Range is situated in western (a) 1 only
Europe. (b) 2 only
3. Mount K2, the world’s second highest (c) Both 1 and 2
mountain, is situated in the Great Himalayas. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 19
73- leqæksa dh yo.krk ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij 75- fuEufyf[kr esa ls fo'o dk ,dek=k ,slk jk"Vªh; m|ku
fopkj dhft;s% dkSu&lk gS tgk¡ cM+h fcYyh dh pkj çtkfr;k¡ vFkkZr~ ck?k]
rsanqvk] fge rsanqvk vkSj DykmMsM rsanqvk ikbZ tkrh gSa\
dFku I% lokZf/d yo.krk rFkkdfFkr miks".kdfVca/h;
(a) gsfel jk"Vªh; m|ku
eè; oy; {ks=kksa esa ikbZ tkrh gS tks yxHkx 20° ls 30°
(b) iQkSaxiqbZ jk"Vªh; m|ku
mÙkj vkSj nf{k.k esa dsafær gSaA (c) fMCkzw&lS[kksok jk"Vªh; m|ku
dFku II% miks".kdfVca/h; {ks=kksa esa ok"ihdj.k O;kid (d) ukeniQk jk"Vªh; m|ku
gksrk gS] fdarq o"kkZ U;wure gksrh gSA 76- fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d 1- tc vkæZrk /jkry ds Åij gok esa la?kuu dsaædksa
lgh gS\ ij la?kfur u gksdj Bksl oLrq tSls iRFkj dh BaMh
lrgksa ij ikuh dh cw¡nksa ds :i esa tek gksrh gS] rks
(a) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku II]
bls rq"kkj dgk tkrk gSA
dFku I dh lgh O;k[;k gS 2- BaMh lrgksa ij vksl rc curh gS tc vkslkad teko
(b) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku II] fcanq ls uhps gksrk gSA
dFku I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) dFku I lgh gS fdarq dFku II xyr gS (a) dsoy 1
(d) dFku I xyr gS fdarq dFku II lgh gS (b) dsoy 2
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
74- çoky fojatu ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
dhft;s%
77- fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
dFku I% egklkxj ok;qeMa y esa fueZDq r dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM
1- vilkSj dh fLFkfr rc curh gS tc tqykbZ ds igys
dks vo'kksf"kr djrs gSa] ftlds ifj.kkeLo:i ty dk lIrkg esa i`Foh lw;Z ds lcls fudV gksrh gSA
ih,p eku de gks tkrk gSA 2- milkSj dh fLFkfr rc curh gS tc tuojh ds rhljs
dFku II% çoky fojatu dk vFkZ ges'kk çoky fHkfÙk;ksa lIrkg esa i`Foh lw;Z ls lokZf/d nwj gksrh gSA
dh e`R;q gksrk gSA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
lgh gS\
(a) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku II]
78- tc vleku rkieku okys nks fiaM ,d nwljs ds laidZ esa
vkrs gSa] rks xeZ ls BaMs fiaM dh vksj ÅtkZ dk çokg gksrk
dFku I dh lgh O;k[;k gS
gSA ;g ?kVuk ok;qeaMy dh fupyh ijr dks xeZ djus esa
(b) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku II] egÙoiw.kZ gSA
dFku I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gS mi;ZqDr çfØ;k fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ?kVuk dks n'kkZrh gS\
(c) dFku I lgh gS fdarq dFku II xyr gS (a) pkyu (b) laogu
(d) dFku I xyr gS fdarq dFku II lgh gS (c) vfHkogu (d) fofdj.k
Harsh 20
73. Consider the following statements with reference to 75. Which among the following is the only park in the
salinity of the seas : world to have the four Feline species of big cat
Statement I: namely the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard and
The highest salinities are found in the so-called sub-
Clouded Leopard ?
tropical central gyre regions centered at about 20°
to 30° North and South. (a) Hemis National Park
Statement II: (b) Phawngpui National Park
Evaporation is extensive, but rainfall is minimal in (c) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
the sub tropics.
(d) Namdapha National Park
the above statements ? 76. Consider the following statements :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 1. When moisture is deposited in form of water
and Statement II is the correct explanation for droplets on cooler surface of solid objects such
Statement I as stones, it is known as frost.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Dew forms on cold surfaces when condensation
and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement I. takes place below freezing point.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
incorrect (a) 1 only
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (b) 2 only
correct
(c) Both 1 and 2
74. Consider the following statements with reference to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
coral bleaching :
Statement I: 77. Consider the following statements :
The ocean absorbs carbon dioxide released into the 1. Aphelion is formed when earth is nearest to the
atmosphere, resulting in reduced pH value of the
Sun in the first week of July.
water.
Statement II: 2. Perihelion is formed when earth is farthest from
Coral bleaching always means the death of a coral the Sun in the third week of January.
reef. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Which of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and Statement II is the correct explanation for 78. When two bodies of unequal temperature come in
Statement I contact with one another, there is flow of energy
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct from warmer to cooler body. This phenomenon is
and Statement II is not the correct explanation
important in heating the lower layer of atmosphere.
for Statement I
The above process reflects which of the following
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect phenomenon ?
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (a) Conduction (b) Convection
correct (c) Advection (d) Radiation
Harsh 21
79- fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% 83- fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1- ns'kkarj dFku&I% {kksHkeaMy dh eksVkbZ Hkweè; js[kk ij lokZf/d

2- mÙkqaxrk gksrh gSA
3- leqæ ls nwjh
dFku&II% çcy laogu /kjkvksa }kjk Å"ek dks dkiQh
4- ok;qlagfr

Å¡pkbZ rd igq¡pk;k tkrk gSA
5- egklkxjh; /kjk,¡
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dkjd i`Foh ij rkieku forj.k dks lgh gS\
fu;af=kr djus esa Hkwfedk fuHkkrs gSa\
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
(a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
(c) dsoy pkj (d) lHkh ik¡p
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
80- fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
1- lfnZ;ksa dh jkr yach (c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA
2- lkiQ vkleku (d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gSA
3- 'kkar ok;q
84- okrkoj.k eq[;r% xeZ gksrk gS
rkieku O;qRØe.k ds fy;s mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh vkn'kZ
(a) fgef'k[kjksa ls ijkorZu
fLFkfr;k¡ gSa\
(b) nh?kZ rjax LFkyh; fofdj.k
(c) çdhf.kZr fofdj.k
(d) mijksDr lHkh
81- ok;q okrkxzksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
dhft;s% 85- ;g ,d likV 'kh"kZ okyk leqæh ioZr gSA ;g pj.kc¼
1- okrkxz lkekU;r% Hkweè; js[kk ds ikl fupys v{kka'kksa :i ls Øec¼ voryu vkSj lery 'kh"kZ okys tyeXu
esa curs gSaA ioZr cuus dk lk{; nsrk gSA
2- ;g rkieku vkSj nkc esa rhoz mrkj&p<+ko dh fo'ks"krk fuEufyf[kr esa ls egklkxjh; fury dh fdl mPpkokp
j[krs gSaA fo'ks"krk ij Åij ppkZ dh xbZ gS\
3- ;fn dksbZ ok;qjkf'k iwjh rjg ls Hkwfe dh lrg ls (a) eè; egklkxjh; dVd
Åij mB tkrh gS] rks bls vf/fo"V okrkxz dgk (b) X;ksV
tkrk gSA (c) ,Vksy
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ (d) dUnjk
86- fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
1- vxqygkl /kjk
82- Hk;kud rfM+r>a>k ls dHkh&dHkh ok;q vkØked :i esa 2- csaxq,yk /kjk
gkFkh dh lwaM dh rjg lfiZy vojksg.k djrh gSA blesa
3- gEcksYV /kjk
dsaæ ij vR;ar de ok;qnkc gksrk gS vkSj ;g O;kid :i
ls Hk;adj fouk'kdkjh gksrs gSaA bl ifj?kVuk dks dgk 4- ySczkMksj /kjk
tkrk gS% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh xeZ egklkxjh; /kjk,¡ gSa\
(a) VksjusMks (b) foyh foyh (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(c) 'khrks".k pØokr (d) gfjdsu (c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
Harsh 22
79. Consider the following : 83. Consider the following statements :
1. Longitude Statement-I:

The thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the
2. Altitude

equator.
3. Distance from sea Statement-II:

4. Airmass Heat is transported to great heights by strong

5. Ocean currents convectional currents.
How many of the above factors play a role in

the above statements ?

controlling temperature distribution on Earth ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) Only two (b) Only three and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(c) Only four (d) All five Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
80. Consider the following : and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
1. Long winter night for Statement-I
2. Clear skies (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
3. Still air incorrect
How many of the above are ideal conditions for correct

temperature inversion to take place ?
84. The atmosphere is mainly heated by
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Reflections from ice-caps
(c) All three (d) None (b) Long wave Terrestrial radiation
81. With reference to air fronts, consider the following : (c) Scattered radiation
(d) All of the above
1. The fronts occur generally in lower latitudes
near the equator. 85. It is a flat-topped seamount. They show evidence of
gradual subsidence through stages to become flat
2. They are characterized by steep gradients in
topped submerged mountains.
temperature and pressure. Which of the following minor relief features of ocean

3. If an airmass is fully lifted above the land floor is discussed above ?
surface, it is called occluded front. (a) Mid oceanic ridge
How many of the above statements are correct ? (b) Guyots
(c) Atoll

(d) Canyon
82. From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiraling 1. Agulhas current
wind descends like trunk of an elephant with great 2. Benguela current
force with very low pressure at Centre causing 3. Humboldt current
massive destruction on its way especially in middle 4. Labrador current
latitudes. Such a phenomenon is known as How many of the above are warm ocean currents ?

(a) Tornado (b) Willy willy (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Temperate cyclone (d) Hurricanes (c) Only three (d) All four
Harsh 23
87- leqæ esa og fof'k"V {ks=k tgk¡ yo.krk rs”kh ls c<+rh 91- xHkZ dk fpfdRldh; lekiu (MTP) la'kks/u vf/fu;e]
dgykrk gS% 2021 ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) gsyksdykbu (b) FkekZsdykbu 1- ;g vf/fu;e dsoy fookfgr efgykvksa dks 'kkfey
(c) vkblksDykbu (d) ,aVhDykbu djrk gS ,oa vfookfgr efgykvksa dks xHkZ dk lekiu

88- ;s es?k vDlj m".k okrkxzksa dh lhekvksa ij fufeZr gksrs gSa] djus ls jksdrk gSA
tgk¡ m".k] vkæZ ok;q 'khry ok;q ds Åij vf/jksfir gksrh 2- dkuwu ds rgr Hkzw.k dh vlkekU;rkvksa ds ekeys esa
gSA ;g ifj?kVuk es?kksa dks mRiUu djrh gS D;ksafd vkæZ xHkZ/kj.k ds 24 lIrkg ds ckn Hkh xHkZ dk lekiu
ok;q iwjs okrkxz ij 'khry gks tkrh gSA bu es?kksa dh mifLFkfr
fd;k tk ldrk gSA
dk vFkZ vkerkSj ij es?k vkPNkfnr 'khry fnu gksrk gSA
;fn bu es?kksa ls o"kkZ gksrh gS] rks ;g vkerkSj ij cwankckanh mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
;k gYdh ciQZ ds :i esa gksrh gSA (a) dsoy 1
mi;ZqDr ifjPNsn esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl es?k dh ppkZ (b) dsoy 2
dh xbZ gS\ (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
(a) i{kkHk es?k
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(b) diklh o"khZ es?k
(c) Lrjh es?k 92- jk"Vª h ; vkS " kf/ ew Y ; fu/kZ j .k çkf/dj.k (NPPA)
(d) diklh eè; es?k fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ea=kky; ds fu;a=k.k esa vkrk gS\
89- eSaxzkso ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) jlk;u vkSj moZjd ea=kky;
1- ;s vR;f/d çfrdwy okrkoj.k tSls mPp yo.krk (b) LokLF; vkSj ifjokj dY;k.k ea=kky;
vkSj de vkWDlhtu dh fLFkfr esa Hkh thfor jg (c) foKku vkSj çkS|ksfxdh ea=kky;
ldrs gSaA (d) okf.kT; ekeyksa ds ea=kky;
2- eSaxzkso] jsfxLrkuh ikS/ksa dh rjg] eksVh jlhyh ifÙk;ksa
esa rktk ty laxzg.k djrs gSaA 93- fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s%
3- budh fo'ks"k tM+sa gksrh gSa ftUgsa 'olu tM+sa ;k 1- ih,e 2-5 vkSj ih,e 10
U;wesVksiQkslZ dgk tkrk gSA 2- dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 3- dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 4- csa”khu
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 5- lYiQj MkbvkWDlkbM
90- fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft;s% 6- ehFksu
1- xhtjkbZV
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus çnw"kd fo'o LokLF; laxBu ds
2- Ükàx çLrj
oSf'od ok;q xq.koÙkk fn'kkfunZs'kksa (AQGs) ds varxZr
3- ckyqdk'e
vkrs gSa\
4- 'ksy
(a) dsoy rhu
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdruh ;kaf=kd :i ls fufeZr volknh
'kSy gSa\ (b) dsoy pkj
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (c) dsoy ik¡p
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj (d) lHkh Ng
Harsh 24
87. The distinct zone in the ocean where salinity 91. Consider the following statements with reference to
increases sharply is called : Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(a) Halocline (b) Thermocline Amendment Act, 2021 :
(c) Isocline (d) Anticline 1. The act covers only married women and bars
88. These clouds often form at the boundary of a warm unmarried women from terminating pregnancy.
front, where warm, moist air is forced up over cold
2. Under the law it is possible to terminate
air. This movement produces clouds as the moist air
pregnancy beyond 24 weeks of gestation in
is cooled across the entire front. The presence of
case of foetal abnormalities.
these clouds usually means a chilly, overcast day. If
precipitation falls from these clouds, it is usually in Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

the form of drizzle or light snow. (a) 1 only
Which among the following clouds is discussed in
(b) 2 only

the above paragraph ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Cirrus clouds
(b) Cumulo Nimbus clouds (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Stratus clouds 92. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)
(d) Altocumulus clouds comes under the control of which of the following
89. Consider the following statements with reference to ministries ?
mangroves : (a) Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers
1. They can survive under extreme hostile (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
environments such as high salt and low oxygen
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
conditions.
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
2. Mangroves, like desert plants, store fresh water
in thick succulent leaves. 93. Consider the following :
3. They have special roots called breathing roots 1. PM 2.5 and PM 10
or pneumatophores.
2. Carbon Dioxide
How many of the above statements are correct ? 3. Carbon Monoxide

4. Benzene
5. Sulphur Dioxide
6. Methane
1. Geyserite
2. Chert How many of the above pollutants are covered under

3. Sandstone the World Health Organization’s Global Air Quality
4. Shale Guidelines (AQGs) ?
How many of the above are mechanically formed (a) Only three

sedimentary rocks ? (b) Only four
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only five
(c) Only three (d) All four (d) All six
Harsh 25
94- jseu eSXlsls iqjLdkj ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij 98- ,aVh&Mafiax 'kqYd ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij
fopkj dhft;s% fopkj dhft;s%
1- ;g iqjLdkj baMksusf'k;k ns'k }kjk mu O;fDr;ksa dks 1- ;s fu;kZrd ns'k }kjk mRikndksa dks nh tkus okyh
iznku tkrk gS ftUgksaus ,f'k;k esa tulsok ds {ks=k esa lgkf;dh dh HkjikbZ ds fy;s vk;kfrr oLrqvksa ij
vlkèkkj.k dk;Z fd;k gSA yxk, x, VSfjiQ gSaA
2- bldh LFkkiuk o"kZ 1991 esa ,f'k;k ds lokZsPp lEeku 2- okf.kT; foHkkx ,aVh&Mafiax 'kqYd dh fliQkfj'k djrk
vkSj çeq[k iqjLdkj ds :i esa dh xbZ FkhA gS vkSj foÙk ea=kky; bl rjg ds 'kqYdksa dks mnxzfgr
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ djrk gSA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 3- fo'o O;kikj laxBu le>kSrs ds rgr ,aVh&Mafiax
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 'kqYd mnxzg.k fuf"k¼ gSA
95- fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
1- iqfyDdyh ,d yksddyk Lo:i gSA ftldk vk;kstu (a) dsoy ,d
iksaxy mRlo ds nkSjku fd;k tkrk gSA (b) dsoy nks
2- eqfn;sV~Vq] dsjy dk ikjaifjd jaxeap o u`R; ukfVdk (c) lHkh rhu
gS tksfd ;wusLdks ekuork dh vewrZ lkaLÑfrd /jksgj (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
dk fgLlk gSA 99- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk fo'o cSad ds ykWftfLVd
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ ijiQkWes±l baMsDl esa ,d ekinaM ugha gS\
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (a) vk/kjHkwr lajpuk dh xq.koÙkk
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (b) f'kiesaV dh lqyHk O;oLFkk
96- tkikuh efLr"d'kksFk ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij (c) çsf"kr oLrq dh VªSfdax vkSj vuqjs[k.k
fopkj dhft;s% (d) eqæk fofu;e
1- ;g ,ukfiQyht ePNj ds dkVus ds dkj.k gksrk gS 100- baVjus'kuy vkWxZukbts'ku iQkWj yhxy esVªksykWth (OIML)
2- jksx ds fy;s Vhdkdj.k Hkkjr esa lkoZHkkSfed Vhdkdj.k ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
dk;ZØe ds varxZr vkrk gSA 1- Hkkjr gky gh esa bldk lnL; cuk gSA
3- ;g ,d thok.kq laØe.k gSA 2- OIML dh LFkkiuk o"kZ 1955 esa gqbZ Fkh rFkk bldk
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ eq[;ky; isfjl esa gSA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 3- varjkZ"Vªh; ck”kkj esa otu ;k eki dh fcØh ds fy;s
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha OIML iSVuZ vuqeksnu çek.ki=k vfuok;Z gSA
97- gky gh esa tu&lekpkjksa esa jgk] ^LVkWeZ 0558* lanfHkZr djrk gS mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
(a) ,d gSfdax lewg dks (a) dsoy 1
(b) ,d u, [kksts x, cfgxzZg dks (b) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(c) ,d lSU; vfHk;ku dks (c) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(d) ,d uohu ekSleh; ifj?kVuk dks (d) 1] 2 vkSj 3
Harsh 26
94. With reference to Ramon Magsaysay Award, 98. With reference to anti-dumping duties, consider the
consider the following statements : following statements :
1. The Award is given by the country of Indonesia 1. They are tariffs levied on imported goods to
to individuals who demonstrate exceptional offset subsidies made to producers of these
spirit in serving the people of Asia. goods in the exporting country.
2. It was established in 1991 as Asia’s highest 2. Department of Commerce recommends the
honour and premier prize. Anti-dumping duty, and the Ministry of
Finance levies such duty.
3. Levying anti-dumping duties is forbidden under
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only World Trade Organisation agreement.
95. Consider the following statements : (a) Only one
1. Pulikkali is a recreational street folk art (b) Only two
performed during Pongal celebrations. (c) All three
2. Mudiyettu, a ritual theatre dance drama of (d) None
Kerala is part of UNESCO Intangible Cultural 99. Which of the following is not a parameter in World
Heritage of Humanity. Bank’s Logistics Performance Index ?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Infrastructure quality
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Ease of arranging shipments
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Consignment tracking and tracing
96. With reference to Japanese Encephalitis, consider (d) Currency regulations
the following statements : 100. With reference to International Organisation of Legal
1. It is caused due to bite of Anopheles Mosquito Metrology (OIML), consider the following
statements :
2. The vaccination for disease is covered under
Universal Immunisation program in India. 1. India has recently acquired its membership.
2. The OIML was established in 1955 and is
3. It is a bacterial infection.
headquartered in Paris.
How many of the above statements are correct ? 3. To sell a weight or measure in the international
(a) Only one (b) Only two market an OIML Pattern Approval certificate
(c) All three (d) None is mandatory.
97. Recently seen in news, ‘Storm 0558’ refers to Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) a hacking group (a) 1 only
(b) a newly discovered exoplanet (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) a military operation (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) a novel weather phenomenon (d) 1, 2 and 3
Harsh 27
CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET SERIES
TEST BOOKLET
Test Code:
P1/P2/P3-2417 GENERAL STUDIES
TEST – 17
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN
THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
in the Box provided alongside this line. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each
question is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have
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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE

TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
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given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Note: Hindi version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this Booklet.

CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
TEST BOOKLET SERIES

ANSWER & EXPLANATION
Test Code:
P1/P2/P3-2417 GENERAL STUDIES
(English Version) TEST – 17
ANSWERS
Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers
1 (a) 26 (a) 51 (a) 76 (d)
2 (a) 27 (b) 52 (b) 77 (d)
3 (b) 28 (d) 53 (c) 78 (a)
4 (c) 29 (b) 54 (a) 79 (c)
5 (b) 30 (b) 55 (b) 80 (c)
6 (b) 31 (a) 56 (a) 81 (b)
7 (a) 32 (c) 57 (b) 82 (a)
8 (a) 33 (d) 58 (a) 83 (a)
9 (b) 34 (a) 59 (a) 84 (b)
10 (a) 35 (b) 60 (d) 85 (b)
11 (b) 36 (b) 61 (d) 86 (a)
12 (c) 37 (b) 62 (b) 87 (a)
13 (c) 38 (b) 63 (a) 88 (c)
14 (a) 39 (b) 64 (c) 89 (c)

15 (d) 40 (d) 65 (a) 90 (b)
16 (b) 41 (a) 66 (d) 91 (b)
17 (c) 42 (a) 67 (b) 92 (a)
18 (b) 43 (c) 68 (a) 93 (a)
19 (a) 44 (c) 69 (a) 94 (d)
20 (d) 45 (a) 70 (a) 95 (b)
21 (a) 46 (c) 71 (c) 96 (a)
22 (c) 47 (c) 72 (b) 97 (a)
23 (a) 48 (c) 73 (a) 98 (a)
24 (a) 49 (a) 74 (c) 99 (d)
25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100 (c)

1. (a) 3. (b)
Explanation: Explanation:
India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep is an The Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing
archipelago consisting of 36 islands with an area of horizontally through the upper layers of the
32 sq km. It is a uni-district Union Territory and is troposphere, generally from west to east, at an altitude
comprised of 12 atolls, three reefs, five submerged banks of 20,000-50,000 feet. Hence, statement (1) is NOT
and ten inhabited islands. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
correct. Jet Streams develop where air masses of differing
It is directly under the control of the Centre through an temperatures meet. So, usually surface temperatures
administrator. determine where the Jet Stream will form. Hence,
There are three main group of islands: statement (2) is correct.
Â Amindivi Islands The greater the difference in temperature, the faster the
Â Laccadive Islands wind velocity inside the jet stream is. Jet Streams extend
Â Minicoy Island. from 20 degrees latitude to the poles in both hemispheres.
Amindivi Islands are the northernmost while Minicoy The genesis of the Jet-streams is provided by three
island is the southernmost. kinds of gradients:
All are tiny islands of coral origin (Atoll) and are Â Thermal gradient between pole and equator
surrounded by fringing reefs. Â Pressure gradient between pole and equator

The Capital is Kavaratti and it is also the principal Â Pressure gradient between surface and subsurface
town of the UT. air over the poles.
Pitti island, which is uninhabited, has a bird sanctuary.
Its genesis is associated with the thermal contrast of
Further, Lakshadweep is located around 400kms west
air cells, for example Hadley cell, Ferrel cell.
from the coast of Kerala. Hence, statement (3) is
The meandering or the whirl movement of the Jet
NOT correct.
Stream is called ‘Rossby Wave’.
In Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands, there are
Equatorial extension of the Jet Stream is more in winter
572 islands, majorly divided into five broad categories
because of the southern shift of the pressure belts.
- Great Andaman, Little Andaman, Ritchie’s Archipelago,
East Volcano Islands, and Sentinel Islands. Great 4. (c)
Andaman is known for Port Blair, the capital of
Explanation:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hence, statement (2)
They are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high
is NOT correct.
humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation.
2. (a) Thus, large quantity of dead organic matter accumulates
Explanation: in these areas, and this gives a rich humus and organic
The tributaries namely Subansiri, Ronganadi, content to the soil.
Dikrong, Buroi, Borgong, Jiabharali, Dhansiri (North) Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40-
Puthimari, Manas, Beki, Aie, Sonkosh are the main 50 per cent. These soils are normally heavy and black
tributaries on the North bank. in colour.
While the Noadehing, Buridehing, Desang, Dikhow, At many places, they are alkaline also. It occurs
Bhogdoi, Dhansiri (South), Kopilli, Kulsi, Krishnai, widely in the northern part of Bihar, southern part
Dhdhnoi, Jinjiran are the main tributaries on the south of Uttaranchal and the coastal areas of West
bank of the river Brahmaputra. Hence, option (a) is Bengal, Orissa and Tamil Nadu. Hence, option (c)
correct. is correct.
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Dr. Mukherjee Karol Bagh, New Civil Lines, Vidhan Sabha Marg, Tower-2, Main Tonk Road,
Nagar, Delhi Delhi Prayagraj Lucknow Vasundhara Colony, Jaipur

5. (b)
Explanation:
Spring tide, tide of maximal range, near the time of
new and full moon when the Sun and Moon are in
syzygy—i.e., aligned with the Earth.
Conjunction is the time during new moon when the Sun
and Moon lie on the same side of the Earth. The other
syzygy condition, opposition, occurs during full moon
when the Sun and Moon are positioned on opposite
sides of the Earth.
In either case of syzygy, the tide-producing forces of
the Sun and the Moon reinforce each other, and the
tidal amplitudes on Earth are at their greatest. See tide.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
7. (a)
6. (b)
Explantion:
Explanation:
Fazenda, large plantation in Brazil, comparable to
The Galápagos Islands are a chain of islands, or
the slave-based plantations of the Caribbean and the
archipelago, in the eastern Pacific Ocean. They are
United States.
part of the country of Ecuador, in South America.
Fazendas were found throughout Brazil; during the
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct.
colonial period they were concentrated primarily in the
The Equator passes through 3 countries in South
America and 13 countries in the world - Ecuador, northeastern region, where sugar was produced,
Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, shifting during the 19th century to coffee production in
Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the the southeastern region. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia
8. (a)
and Kiribati. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Colombia is a country in northwestern South Explanation:
America that has a coastline on both the Atlantic The Earth’s interior can be divided into three layers:
and the Pacific oceans. It is bordered by Brazil, the crust, mantle, and core. The crust is the outermost
Ecuador, Panama, Peru, and Venezuela. Hence, layer, and the core is the innermost layer, located at a
statement (3) is correct. depth of 2,900 km.

There are five discontinuities or transition zones inside The earth after being heated by insolation transmits
the earth: the heat to the atmospheric layers near to the earth in
Â Conrad Discontinuity: Between upper and lower long wave form. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Crust. Hence, pair (4) is NOT correctly matched.
10. (a)
Â Mohorovicic Discontinuity: Between the Crust
and Mantle. Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched. Explantion:
Â Repetti Discontinuity: Between Outer mantle and The winter solstice occurs in December, and in the
Inner mantle. Northern Hemisphere the date marks the 24-hour period
with the fewest daylight hours of the year. That is why
Â Gutenberg Discontinuity: Between Mantle and it is known as the shortest day of the year, or the longest
Core. Hence, pair (3) is NOT correctly matched. night of the year.
Â Lehman Discontinuity: Between Outer core and December 21-22 marks the longest day in the
Inner core. Hence, pair (2) is NOT correctly southern hemisphere. On this day the tropic of
matched. Capricorn receives direct rays of the sun as the South
Pole tilts towards it.
A larger portion of the Southern hemisphere gets light
as the sun rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Capricorn.
This position of the earth is called the Winter Solstice.
Hence, option (a) is correct
Direct rays of the sun fall on the equator on 21st March
and 23rd September. This position of the earth is called
equinox.
9. (b)
Explanation:
The insolation received at the surface of earth varies
from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70 Watt/
m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over
the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the
least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation
11. (b)
than the tropics. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more Explanation:
over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the The Tobacco Board was constituted as a statutory
middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than body on 1st January, 1976 under Section (4) of the
in summer. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. Tobacco Board Act, 1975. Hence, statement (1) is
correct.
The atmosphere is largely transparent to short wave
The Board is headed by a chairman with its
solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes
headquarters at Guntur, Andhra Pradesh and is
through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s responsible for the development of the tobacco industry.
surface. Earth receives sunlight in short wave form. Hence, statement (3) is correct.

The Tobacco Board is under the administrative Jordan river rises on the slopes of Mount Hermon,
control of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of on the border between Syria and Lebanon, and flows
Commerce and Industry, Government of India. Hence, southward through northern Israel to the Sea of Galilee
statement (2) is NOT correct. (Lake Tiberius). Exiting the sea, it continues south,
While the primary function of the Board is export dividing Israel and the Israeli-occupied West Bank to
promotion of all varieties of tobacco and its allied the west from Jordan to the east before emptying into
products, its functions extend to production, distribution
the Dead Sea. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
(for domestic consumption and exports) and regulation
of Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco. 14. (a)
India is the second largest tobacco producer behind
China. Gujrat is the largest producer state. The Explanation:
country has around 0.45 million hectares of area under The Murmansk Commercial Seaport is located on
tobacco cultivation. Hence, statement (4) is NOT the eastern shore of the Kola Bay of the Barents Sea.
correct. The port is in the city of Murmansk, which is part of
the Murmansk oblast (region) in northwestern Russia.
12. (c) Murmansk is one of the largest ice-free ports in Russia
Explanation: and the world’s largest port located north of the polar
The G4 countries - India, Brazil, Japan and circle.
Germany, have reiterated that expansion of UN Murmansk, popularly called the capital of the Arctic
Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent Region and the beginning point of the Northern Sea
categories is essential to make the body more Route (NSR), is witnessing the rising trend of Indian
representative, legitimate, effective and efficient. Hence, involvement in Cargo traffic.
option (c) is correct. In the first seven months of 2023, India got a share of
The G4 countries have seen an increase in their
35% of eight million tonnes of cargo handled by the
economic and political influence over the past 10 years,
Murmansk port, which is about 2,000 km northwest of
similar to the current permanent members. The G4
Moscow, Russia. Hence, option (a) is correct.
countries also cooperate on promoting UN Security
Council reform. 15. (d)
The five permanent members of the UNSC are the
United States, the Russian Federation, France, Explanation:
China, and the United Kingdom. Non-permanent Indo Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness Initiative
members of the Security Council are elected for a two- (IPMDA): The IPMDA initiative was announced at the
year term. Quad Leaders’ Summit in Tokyo, 2022 to track “dark
shipping” and to build a “faster, wider, and more
13. (c)
accurate maritime picture of near-real-time activities in
Explanation: partners’ waters” integrating three critical regions in the
The Sea of Galilee, also known as Lake Tiberias or Indo-Pacific — the Pacific Islands, Southeast Asia,
Kinneret, is Israel’s largest freshwater lake. It’s and the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
located in northern Israel and is about 21 kilometers Dark ships are vessels with their Automatic
long and 13 kilometers wide. The Sea of Galilee is the
Identification System (AIS) - a transponder system
lowest freshwater lake on Earth, with levels between
- switched off so as not to be detectable. Hence, option
215 and 209 meters below sea level. Hence, statement
(d) is correct.
(1) is correct.
The IPMDA will help QUAD countries as well as littoral
The Sea of Galilee is fed by the Jordan River, the
Hasbani River, the Dan River, and the Meshushim states in the backdrop of expanding Chinese naval
Stream. presence across the region.

16. (b) and progression of Indian monsoon. This convectional
cycle is known as the Mascarene high. Hence,
Explanation: statement (1) is correct.
The Indian Ocean Commission (IOC) is an The higher is the heating of the Tibetan plateau,
intergovernmental organization with five member states: higher is the extent of Mascarene high, therefore the
Union of Comoros, Reunion (France), Madagascar, temperatures over Tibetan Plateau has a positive
Mauritius, Seychelles. correlation with Indian monsoon. Hence, statement
The IOC also has seven observers, including: (2) in NOT correct.
Â India Tibetan Plateau, along with Himalayas act as obstruction
Â China to Siberian cold winds from entering the Great Indian
Â Japan Plains. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Â European Union The Tropical Easterly Jet (TEJ) Stream is found near
between 5° and 20°N.
Â Sovereign Order of Malta
TEJ comes into existence quickly after the Southwestern
Â International Organization of La Francophonie Tropical Jetstream has shifted to the north of the
Â United Nations Himalayas (Early June).
The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an The formation of TEJ results in the reversal of upper
inter-governmental organisation formed in 1997 to air circulation patterns [High pressure switches to
foster regional economic cooperation. IORA has low pressure] and leads to the quick onset of monsoons.
evolved into the peak regional group spanning the Indian When the summer temperature of air over Tibet remains
Ocean. high for a sufficiently long time, it helps in strengthening
From its inception with 14 member states, the the easterly jet and results in heavy rainfall in India.
membership has expanded to 23 countries: Australia, Hence, statement (4) is correct.
Bangladesh, the Comoros, France, India, Indonesia, 18. (b)
Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Maldives,
Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Explanation:
Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, Western Disturbances reach India during the months
the United Arab Emirates and Yemen. Hence, option of December to February, they are considered
(b) is correct. important for the growth of Rabi crops that is the
Winter crops. Kharif crops are the crops which are
17. (c) grown in summer months. Hence, statement (1) is NOT
correct.
Explanation:
They emerge in the Mediterranean region and travel
The Tibetan plateau influences the climate over the
with the Sub-tropical Westerly Jet Stream, to reach the
Indian subcontinent, in various ways, with its role in
Indian plains. During its journey, a Western Disturbance
impacting the onset and progression of the Indian
collects moisture from the Mediterranean Sea, Black
monsoon is well studied and documented.
Sea and Caspian Sea and traverses over Iran and
The Tibetan Plateau being a higher landmass gets heated
Afghanistan before hitting the western Himalayas.
at a much faster pace and magnitude than the Indian Hence, statement (2) is correct.
plains, acting as a continuous source of heat during the A migrating Western Disturbance is preceded by warm,
subsequent months, this leads to convectional currents moist air, and is followed by cold, dry air. This keeps
which on reaching the upper troposphere spread out, the temperatures warm in the peak winter months of
ultimately descending after travelling in the South-West December and January and stops the temperature from
direction near to the Mascarene Island of Western Indian rising in February and March. Clouds formed by the
Ocean. Western Disturbances have a moderating effect on the
From there these are carried by the monsoonal winds maximum temperatures during the winter season.
towards the Indian subcontinent leading to the onset Hence, statement (3) is correct.

‘La nina’ phase of the El-nino Southern Oscillation
reduces the temperature of the hot tropical air that is
crucial for the temperature gradient for the formation
of Western Disturbances. While, the reverse happens
during the El-nino years. Hence, statement (4) is NOT
correct.
19. (a)
Explanation:
Ozone layer is thickest during the hemispherical
summer months that is from February to July in
Northern Hemisphere, and from October to January in
the Southern Hemisphere.
The Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs), which
concentrate in them the Chloro-fluoro Carbons, which
22. (c)
are the main cause for the depletion of the ozone layer
are formed majorly during the hemispherical winter Explanation:
because of the strengthening of the polar vortex. Omkareshwar temple, which is located on a riverine
Ozone depletion and UV irradiance have increased island of River Narmada, is one of the twelve
much more in the Southern Hemisphere. This is because Jyotirlingas in the country.
ozone depletion is also impacted by temperature and The Narmada river originates from the Amarkantak
sunlight. Temperatures are colder at high latitudes in plateau in Madhya Pradesh, and flows through a rift
the Southern Hemisphere, so polar stratospheric clouds valley between Vindhyas and Satpura mountain ranges
can form. These clouds can accelerate the reactions to reach the Gulf of Khambat in Gujarat, where it drains
into the Arabian sea. It also briefly passes through the
that break ozone down. Hence, both statement I and
state of Maharashtra.
II are correct and statement II is the correct
Hence, Mr. X would have travelled through three states
explanation of statement I.
only. Hence, option (c) is correct.
20. (d)
23. (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Ramsar Sites in North East India: Formation of tropical cyclones, require relatively
Pala wetland – Mizoram. Hence, pair (1) is NOT stable vertical distribution of atmosphere, if there is
correctly matched. variation between wind speeds and atmospheric
Rudrasagar lake – Tripura. Hence, pair (2) is NOT conditions among the vertical layers of atmosphere, the
correctly matched. developing cyclones will disrupt. Therefore, in
Loktak lake – Manipur. Hence, pair (3) is NOT conditions of high vertical wind shear cyclones are not
correctly matched. formed. Hence, Statement (1) is NOT correct.
Deepor Beel – Assam. Hence, pair (4) is NOT correctly Tropical cyclones are not formed in the region of equator
matched. because of the lack of Coriolis force. Hence, statement
(2) is NOT correct.
21. (a) Anticyclones are centers of high pressure. They are
North to south direction: Paradip of Orissa - Jawaharlal surrounded by closed isobars having decreasing pressure
Nehru Port of Maharashtra - Marmagoa of Goa - Ennore outward. The circulation is from central high pressure
of Tamilnadu - Kochi of Kerala. Hence, option (a) is towards the periphery in such a way that air blows
correct. outwards in a clockwise direction in the Northern

hemisphere and anticlockwise direction in the southern Sand content decreases from west to east of the country.
hemisphere. While in lower reaches it hampers the New alluvium is termed as Khadar and old alluvium
growth of cyclone, in upper reaches of atmosphere it is termed as Bhangar, hence cannot be said to be
influences the formation of cyclones in the troposphere. homogenous in texture. Hence, statement (3) is NOT
Hence, statement (3) is correct. correct.
An optimum sea surface temperature of 270 celsius is These are rich in nitrogen and potash but are poor in
required for the development of tropical cyclones. phosphorous. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
27. (b)
24. (a)
Explanation:
Explanation: Lapies: Also known as karren or limestone pavement,
Hills of Eastern Ghats in North to South Direction: refers to a distinctive type of terrain that is characterized
Northern Circars Shevaroy hills by flat, bare, and often grooved limestone surfaces.
Nallamala hills Panchamalai hills These formations are commonly associated with regions
Palkonda hills Sirumali hills
where groundwater, containing dissolved calcium
Nagari hills Palani hills
carbonate, reaches the surface and undergoes processes
Javadi hills
like evaporation. Over time, the precipitation of calcium
Varshunad hills. Hence, option (a) is correct.
carbonate leads to the formation of lapies. Hence, pair
25. (b) (1) is correctly matched.
Fjords: Fjords are U-shaped or V-shaped glacially
Explanation:
carved valleys filled with seawater. They are typically
The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna
found in areas where there has been significant glacial
River in central and northern India. The Chambal is the
activity. While rainfall can contribute to the overall
main tributary of the Yamuna and is part of the Ganges
hydrological system of a fjord, fjords are primarily
drainage system. Hence, option (b) is correct.
formed by the erosion caused by glaciers during
periods of glaciation. Hence, pair (2) is NOT correctly
matched.
Drumlins: Drumlins are elongated, tear-shaped hills
often found in areas covered by glaciers during the
last Ice Age. They are formed by the deposition of
glacial till and are typically aligned in the direction of
the glacier’s movement. Hence, pair (3) is NOT
correctly matched .
Cirques-Cirques are bowl-shaped, steep-sided hollows
found on the sides of mountains. They are formed by
the erosive action of glaciers. As glaciers move
downslope, they carve out these bowl-shaped depressions
through a combination of abrasion and plucking. Cirques
are a characteristic landform associated with glacial
26. (a)
activity. Hence, pair (4) is correctly matched.
Explanation:
Alluvial soils: 28. (d)
They are Widespread in northern plains and river Explanation:
valleys. Also, found in peninsular India, they are The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the
primarily found in deltas and estuaries. Hence, mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity
statement (1) is NOT correct. to a depth of 2,900 km.

The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of horizontally past each other. Most transform faults
2,900 km. The outer core is in liquid state while the are found on the ocean floor. They commonly
inner core is in solid state. The density of material at offset the active spreading ridges, producing zig-zag
the mantle core boundary is around 5 g/cm3 and at the plate margins, and are generally defined by shallow
centre of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is earthquakes. Hence, statement (3) is NOT
around 13g/cm3. The core is made up of very heavy correct.
material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is Â Example: The San Andreas Fault in California is a
sometimes referred to as the nife layer. Hence, transform boundary connecting the East Pacific Rise
statement (1) is NOT correct. and the South Gorda-Juan de Fuca-Explorer Ridge.
The lithosphere is the rigid outermost layer of the Earth It produces a zig-zag pattern and is associated with
and includes the crust and the uppermost part of the shallow earthquakes.
mantle. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. Â Transform faults are common on the ocean floor,
29. (b) offsetting spreading ridges.
Explanation: 30. (b)

Divergent Boundaries:
Explanation:
Â Divergent boundaries occur where tectonic plates
The mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic
move apart, and new crust is formed by magma

studies of rocks from oceanic regions revealed the following
rising from the mantle. It is associated with shallow
earthquakes. Hence, statement (1) is correct. facts:
It was realised that all along the mid-oceanic ridges,
Â Example: The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a well-known
volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge
divergent boundary where the North American and
amounts of lava to the surface in this area.
Eurasian Plates are moving away from each other,
The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of
creating new oceanic crust.
mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in
Â Iceland is located on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge,
terms of period of formation, chemical compositions
experiencing splitting along the spreading center as
and magnetic properties.
North America moves westward relative to Eurasia.
Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal
Convergent Boundaries:
polarity and are the youngest. The age of the rocks
Â Convergent boundaries involve plates moving
increases as one moves away from the crest. Hence,
toward each other, leading to the destruction or
statement (1) is correct.
recycling of crust. Subduction zones occur when
The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the
one plate sinks beneath another.
continental rocks. Hence, statement (2) is NOT
Â Examples:
correct.
Oceanic and continental plate convergence. The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very
Oceanic and oceanic plate convergence. thin. Scientists were expecting, if the ocean floors were
Continental and continental plate as old as the continent, to have a complete sequence of
convergence.
sediments for a longer duration. However, nowhere was
Â The Pacific Ring of Fire is a region where several
the sediment column found to be older than 200 million
convergent boundaries result in volcanic eruptions
years.
and deep earthquake zones. Hence, statement (2)
The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake
is correct.
occurrences while in the mid-ocean ridge areas, the
Transform Boundaries:
quake foci have shallow depths. Hence, statement (3)
Â Transform boundaries occur where two plates slide
is correct.

31. (a) The crust of the earth is made up of more than 2,000
minerals, but out of these, only six are the most abundant
Explanation:
and contribute the maximum. These six most abundant
Continental Shelf:
minerals are feldspar, quartz, pyroxenes, amphiboles,
Â This is the shallow, gently sloping portion of the
continental margin that extends from the shoreline mica and olivine. Half of earth’s crust is composed of
to the continental slope. mineral feldspar. Hence statement (2) is correct.
Â It is rich in marine life and often includes the
submerged part of the continent. 33. (d)
Continental Slope: Explanation:
Â The continental slope is a steeper descent from the Geomorphic agents are natural forces or processes that
continental shelf to the abyssal plain. shape and modify the Earth’s surface:
Â It marks the transition between the continental crust
Rainwater: Rainwater, through processes like erosion
and the oceanic crust.
and weathering, is indeed a geomorphic agent.
Continental Rise:
Rainwater can cause physical and chemical weathering
Â The continental rise is a gentle incline at the base
of the continental slope. of rocks, transporting sediment and shaping landscapes
Â It is formed by the accumulation of sediments
over time.
transported down the continental slope. Waves: Waves, especially in coastal areas, are powerful
Abyssal Plain: geomorphic agents. They contribute to processes such
Â The abyssal plain is a vast, flat area of the ocean as erosion, transportation, and deposition, shaping
floor that lies between the continental rise and the shorelines and coastal landforms.
mid-ocean ridges. Glaciers: Glaciers are significant geomorphic agents.
Â It is covered with fine sediment and is relatively They can erode and transport large amounts of sediment
smooth compared to the rugged terrain of the as they move, carving out valleys and creating distinctive
continental slope.
landforms such as cirques, moraines, and fjords.
Groundwater: Groundwater, while not as visibly
dynamic as some other agents, is indeed a geomorphic
agent. It can participate in chemical weathering and
contribute to the formation of underground features like
caves through dissolution processes.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
34. (a)
Explanation:
Indus is one of the largest basins of the world. It
originates from glacier near Bokhar Chu in Tibetan
region in Kailash mountain range. Hence, statement
(1) is correct.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
In Tibet it is known as Singi khamban or Lion mouth.
32. (c) After flowing in northwest direction between Ladakh
Explanation: and Zaskar range it passes through Ladakh and
Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth’s Baltistan.
crust, constituting about 46.6% by weight. Silicon is It cuts across Ladakh range, forms spectacular gorge
the second most abundant, making up about 27.7%. near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement
Hence, statement (1) is correct. (2) is correct.

The other important tributaries joining right bank of These forests are found in dry areas of the country.
Indus are Khurram,Tochi,Gomal,viboa and sangar. Their leaves are in the form of spines to reduce loss of
They all originate in Sulaiman ranges. Hence, water.
statement (3) is NOT correct. Cactus, Khair, Babool, and Keekar are a few of their
Jhelum, Chenab and Beas join left bank of Indus. important trees.Hence,statement(2) is NOT correct.
The river flows southward and receives Panjnad a little
37. (b)
above Mithankot.
Explanation:
35. (b) The western coastal plains are an example of
Explanation: submerged coastal plains. Kandla, Mazagaon,JLN port
Out of the 11 rivers in the state, the Mandovi is said to Nhava Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore cochin are
be Goa’s lifeline. It is also known as Mahadayi or important natural ports located along west coast. Hence,
Mhadei. statement (1) is NOT correct.
From Goa’s 11 rivers, this particular one originates from Extending from Gujarat coast in north to Kerala coast
a cluster of 30 springs at Bhimgad in the Western Ghats in south, western coast may be divided into following
in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. The Mandovi divisions –The Kachchh, Kathiawar coast in Gujarat,
enters Goa from the north covering approximately 52 Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goan coast, and Malabar
km within the state. coast in Karnataka and Kerala.
The Cumbarjuem Canal links Mandovi and the Zuari The western coastal plains are narrow in middle and
River giving easy passage to the barges transporting the get broader towards north and south. Hence,
mined ore. statement (2) is correct.
The two Mandovi bridges connect Panjim with the The river flowing through western coastal plains do not
rest of North Goa from one part of the state. A third form any delta. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
bridge said to be the largest bridge in Goa is in the As compared to western coastal plain, eastern coastal
process of being built. It will rise high above the river’s plain is broader and an example of emergent coast.
surface and is 15 meters higher than the two existing There are well developed deltas here, formed by rivers
flowing eastward into Bay of Bengal. Hence, statement
bridges.
(4) is NOT correct.
Kerala has narrow coastline.The longest rivers of
These include deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna
Kerala, Bharathpuzha rises near Annamalai hills.It is
and Kaveri.
also known as ponnani.
Because of its emergent nature it has a smaller number
Periyar is the second largest river of Kerala. Hence,
of ports and harbors.
option (b) is correct.
38. (b)
36. (b)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The Brahmaputra one of the largest river systems of
Tropical Thorn Forests are found in Rajasthan, Punjab,
the world has its origin in chemyangdung glacier of
Haryana, and sections of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
Kailash range near Manasarovar Lake.
Plants remain leafless for most of the year. Hence,
From here it traverses eastward longitudinally for
distance of nearly 1200 km in dry and flat region of
These occur in areas which recieve rainfall less than
southern Tibet where it is known as Tsangpo which
50 cm. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
means the purifier. The Rango Tsangpo is the major
Outside India, this forest can be found in much of
right bank tributary of this river in Tibet.
southwestern North America and southwestern Africa, It emerges as turbulent and dynamic river after carving
as well as in lesser regions of Africa, South America, out deep gorge in central Himalayas near Namcha
and Australia. Barwa.

The river emerges from foothills under name of Siang the northeast monsoon from October to December. The
or Dihang. It enters India west of Sadiya town in monsoons bring rainfall to different parts of the country,
Arunachal Pradesh. Flowing southwest it receives its affecting the local climate.
main left bank tributaries Dibang or sikang and Lohit Ocean currents: The Indian Ocean and the Bay of
thereafter it is known as Brahmaputra. Bengal have a significant impact on the climate,
The major left bank tributaries are burhi Dihing and especially along the coastal regions.
Dhansari (south) whereas important right bank Wind patterns: Prevailing winds can bring moisture
tributaries are Subansiri, kameng, manas and and affect temperature and rainfall patterns in different
sankosh. The subansiri which has its origin in Tibet is parts of the country.
an antecedent river. Topography: The varied terrain of India, including
Hence, option (b) is correct. mountains, plains, and coastal areas, can also impact

the local climate.
39. (b) Distribution of land and water: India is flanked by
Explanation: Indian Ocean on three sides in south and girdled by high
and continuous mountain wall in north.Difference in air
Serial Aspect Himalayan Peninsular river
number river pressure causes reversal in direction of monsoon winds.
Distance from sea: With long coastline, large coastal
1 Place of Himalayan Peninsular
areas have an equable climate.
origin mountain plateau and
Distribution of air pressure and winds on the earth’s
covered with central highland
surface.
glacier Upper air circulation affects global weather due to
2 Nature of Perennial Seasonal various factors.
flow The inflow of western cyclones (disturbances in winter)
3 Type of Antecedent Superimposed, and tropical depressions (during the monsoon) that bring
drainage and rejuvenated rainfall to India.
consequent resulting in Hence, option (d) is correct.

trellis, radial and
41. (a)
rectangular
patterns. Explanation:
4 Nature of Long course Smaller fixed The month of October and November are known for
river course retreating monsoons. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
By the end of September, the southwest monsoons
5 Age of river Young and Old river with
becomes weak as low pressure trough of ganga plain
youthful graded profile.
start moving southward in response to southward march
Hence, option (b) is correct. of sun.

40. (d) The monsoon retreat from western Rajasthan by first
week of september. Hence, statement (2) is NOT
Explanation: correct.
Latitude: India ‘s location near the equator results in By beginning of October ,the low pressure covers
tropical climate with warm temperature throughout the northern part of Bay of Bengal and by early November
year. it moves over Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Altitude: India ‘s diverse topography including high By the middle of December, the center of low pressure
altitude regions in the north can result in varying is completely removed from the peninsula.
climates. The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by
Monsoon: India experiences two monsoons each year, clear skies and rise in temperature. Hence, statement
the southwest monsoon from June to September, and (3) is NOT correct.

The land is still moist. The weather in retreating 43. (c)
monsoon is dry in north India but associated with rain
Explanation:
in eastern part of peninsula.
The himalayan ranges show succession of vegetation
Hence October and November are rainiest months of
from tropical to tundra which change in with altitude.
the year.
Deciduous forests are found in foothills of Himalayas.
42. (a) It is succeeded by wet temperate type of forests between
altitude of 1000-2000m.
Explanation: In the higher hill range of northeastern India, hilly areas
El Nino and La Nina are complex weather patterns
of west Bengal and uttaranchal ,evergreen broad leaf
resulting from variations in ocean temperatures in the trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant.
Equatorial Pacific Region. They are opposite phases of Between 1500 and 1750m pine forests are also well
what is known as the El Nino-Southern Oscillation developed in this zone with chir pine as very useful
(ENSO) cycle. commercial tree.
The ENSO cycle describes the fluctuations in temperature Deodar a highly valued endemic species grows mainly
between the ocean and atmosphere in the east-central in western part of Himalayan range. Hence, statement
Equatorial Pacific. (1) is correct.
El Nino and La Nina episodes typically last nine to 12 Chinar and walnut sustain famous Kashmir handicrafts
months, but some prolonged events may last for years. belong to this zone.
El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual Blue pine and spruce appear at altitudes of 2225-3048
warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical m.
Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. In higher reaches there is transition to alpine forest and
Â It is the “warm phase” of a larger phenomenon called pastures.
the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO). The southern slopes of himalayas carry thicker
Â It occurs more frequently than La Nina. vegetation cover because of relatively higher
precipitation than drier north facing slopes. Hence,
La Nina, the “cool phase” of ENSO, is a pattern that
describes the unusual cooling of the tropical eastern
At higher altitudes mosses and lichens form part of the
Pacific. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
tundra vegetation. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
La Nina events may last between one and three years,
unlike El Nino, which usually lasts no more than a year. 44. (c)
Both phenomena tend to peak during the Northern
Explanation:
Hemisphere winter.
Monsoon Winds of the Arabian Sea:
The El Niño Modoki phenomenon is characterized by
The monsoon winds originating over the Arabian Sea
the anomalously warm central equatorial Pacific further split into three branches:
flanked by anomalously cool regions in both west and One of its branches is obstructed by the Western Ghats.
east. Hence, statement (3) is correct. These winds climb the slopes of the Western Ghats from
Such zonal gradients result in anomalous two-cell 900-1200 m.
Walker Circulation over the tropical Pacific, with a Soon, they become cool, and as a result, the windward
wet region in the central Pacific side of the Sahyadris and Western Coastal Plain receive
El Nino soon came to describe irregular and intense very heavy rainfall ranging between 250 cm and 400
climate changes rather than just the warming of coastal cm. After crossing the Western Ghats, these winds
surface waters. descend and get heated up.
The El Nino event is not a regular cycle, they are not As a result, these winds cause little rainfall east of the
predictable and occur irregularly at two- to seven-year Western Ghats. This region of low rainfall is known as
intervals. the rain-shadow area.

Another branch of the Arabian Sea monsoon strikes The laterite soil develop in areas with high temperature
the coast north of Mumbai. Moving along the Narmada and high rainfall.
and Tapi River valleys, these winds cause rainfall in These are result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.
extensive areas of central India. With rain, lime and silica are leached away and soil rich
The Chottanagpur plateau gets 15 cm rainfall from in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind.
this part of the branch. Thereafter, they enter the Ganga The content of humus soil is removed fast by bacteria
plains and mingle with the Bay of Bengal branch. that thrive well in high temperature.
These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen,
Hence, statement (2) is correct.
phosphate and calcium while iron oxide and potash
Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief or
are in excess. Hence, laterite soil are not suitable for
topography. Hence, statement (3) is correct. cultivation, however application of manures and
The third branch of this monsoon wind strikes the fertilizer are required for making soil fertile for
Saurashtra Peninsula and the Kachchh. It then passes cultivation.
over west Rajasthan and parallel to the Aravalis, causing Hence, both statement-I and statement-II are correct,
only a scanty rainfall. and statement-II is the correct explanation for
In Punjab and Haryana, it joins the Bay of Bengal statement-I.
branch. These two branches, reinforced by each other,
cause rains in the western Himalayas. 46. (c)
Monsoon Winds of the Bay of Bengal: Explanation:

Social forestry can be described as “Forestry of the
The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the coast of Myanmar
people, by the people and for the people”.
and part of southeast Bangladesh. But the Arakan
Social forestry means management and protection of
Hills along the coast of Myanmar deflect a big portion
the forests as well as afforestation of barren lands aimed
of this branch towards the Indian subcontinent. at helping in environmental, social and rural development
The monsoon, therefore, enters West Bengal and as against the traditional objective of securing revenue.
Bangladesh from south and southeast instead of from Hence, statement (1) is correct.
the south-westerly direction. The term, social forestry, was first used in India in 1976
From here, this branch splits into two under the influence by The National Commission on Agriculture.
of the Himalayas and the thermal low is northwest India. It was embarked with the objective of taking the pressure
Its one branch moves westward along the Ganga plains off the traditional forests by the plantation of fuelwood,
reaching as far as the Punjab plains. fodder, timber and grasses on unused and fallow land
The other branch moves up the Brahmaputra valley to the rural population.
in the north and the northeast, causing widespread rains. Agroforestry, cultivation and use of trees and shrubs
Its sub-branch strikes the Garo and Khasi hills of with crops and livestock in sustainable agricultural
Meghalaya. Mawsynram, located on the crest of Khasi systems.
Agroforestry seeks positive interactions between its
hills, receives the highest average annual rainfall in the
components, aiming to achieve a more ecologically
world.
diverse and socially productive output from the land
Tamil Nadu does not receive rainfall during south-west
than is possible through conventional agriculture.
monsoon as Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to
Agroforestry is raising trees and agricultural crops
the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon and on the same land inclusive of waste patches. Hence,
it lies in the rain-shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch statement (2) is correct.
of the south-west monsoon. Hence, statement (1) is
correct. 47. (c)
Explanation:
45. (a)
Moist Deciduous Forests:
Explanation: Region: These forests are found in the north-eastern
Laterite soil has been derived from latin word which states along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes
means brick. of the Western Ghats and Odisha.

Rainfall: Found in the regions which record rainfall in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally
between 100-200 cm. they are known as mango showers since they help in
Trees: Tall trees with broad, branched trunks. early ripening of mangoes. Hence, statement (1) is
Â Some of the taller trees shed their leaves in the dry correct.
season Blossom shower: With this shower coffee flowers
Â Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, blossom in kerala and adjoining areas. Hence,
kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species statement (2) is NOT correct.
of these forests. N o r w e s t e r s : T h e s e a r e d re a d e d e v e n i n g
thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious
Moist Evergreen Forests:
nature can be understood from local nomenclature of
Â Region: Found in southern India along the Western
Kal Baisakhi a calamity in month of baisakh. These
Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and north-
showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In
eastern region.
assam these storms are known as bardoli cheerha.
Â Climatic Conditions: Found in warm and humid
areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm 50. (c)
and mean annual temperature above 22°C. Explanation:
Â Trees: In these forests, trees reach great heights up The Shetruniji river rises near Dalkahwa in Amreli
to 60 m or above. district.
There is no definite time for trees to shed their The Bhadra originates near Aniali village in Rajkot
leaves, flowering and fruition; these forests district. The Dhadhar rises near Ghantar village in
appear green all the year round. Panchmahal district. Sabarmati and Mahi are the two
Species found in these forests include famous rivers of Gujarat.
Rosewood, Mahogany, Aini, Ebony, etc. The Vaitarna originates from the Trimbak hills in
The more common trees that are found here Nasik district at an elevation of 670 m. The Kalinadi
are the jackfruit, betel nut palm, jamun, rises from Belgaum district and falls in Karwar Bay.
mango, and hollock. The source of Bedti River lies in Hubli Dharwar and
Hence, option (c) is correct. traverses a course of 161 km. Hence, statement (1) is
correct.

48. (c) Kalinadi river rises from Belgaum district and falls
in Karwar bay. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Explanation:
The Sharavati is another important river in Karnataka
Favourable conditions for the formation of the Deltas: flowing towards the west. The Sharavati originates in
Active vertical and lateral erosion in the river’s upper Shimoga district of Karnataka and drains a catchment
course to provide extensive sediments to be deposited area of 2,209 sq. km.
as deltas. The Mandovi and the Juari is two important rivers of
The coast should be preferably tideless. Goa.
The sea adjoining the delta should be shallow or else The source of Bedti river lies in Hubli Dharwar.
the load will disappear in the deep waters. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
There should be no large lakes in the river course to
filter-off the sediments and there should be no strong 51. (a)
current running at right angle to the river mouth, Explanation:
washing away the sediments. Hence, option(c) is The asteroid Bennu is a B-type asteroid, implying that
correct. it contains significant amounts of carbon and various
other minerals. Because of its high carbon content, the
49. (a)
asteroid reflects about four per cent of the light that
Explanation: hits it, which is very low when compared with a planet
Mango shower: Towards the end of summer, there are like Venus, which reflects about 65 per cent of the
pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon light that hits it. Earth reflects about 30 per cent.

There is a slight possibility that Bennu, which is 53. (c)
classified as a Near Earth Object (NEO), might strike
Explanation:
the Earth in the next century, between the years 2175
Best Tourism Villages by United Nations World
and 2199. NEOs are comets and asteroids nudged by
Tourism Organisation (UNWTO) recognizes
the gravitational attraction of nearby planets into orbits
outstanding rural tourism destinations with accredited
which allows them to enter the Earth’s neighbourhood. cultural and natural assets, a commitment to preserving
NASA’s OSIRIS-REx — “Origins, Spectral community-based values, and a clear commitment to
Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security, innovation and sustainability across economic, social,
Regolith Explorer” — spacecraft briefly touched and environmental dimensions
asteroid Bennu, from where it collected samples of dust Dhordo, a village located in the Kutch district of
and pebbles and delivered them back to Earth in Gujarat, known for its annual Rann Utsav has been
September, 2023.OSIRIS-REx is continuing its tour of bestowed with the title ‘Best Tourism Village’ by the
the solar system — the spacecraft has already set off to United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).
capture a detailed look at a different asteroid named A total of 26 villages around the globe have earned the
Apophis. accolades this year for “nurturing rural areas and
The mission now has a new name: OSIRIS-APEX, for preserving landscapes, cultural diversity, local values,
Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, and culinary traditions.”
The list includes villages in Austria, Portugal, Turkiye,
Security-Apophis EXplorer. Hence, option (a) is
Hungary, Indonesia, Egypt and China. Dhordo is the
correct.
only village selected from India. Hence, option (c) is
52. (b) correct.
Explanation: 54. (a)

The World Health Organization (WHO) has
Explanation:
recommended a new vaccine, R21/Matrix-M, for the The Norwegian novelist, poet and playwright Jon
prevention of malaria in children. Fosse — who has found a growing audience in the
The recommendation follows advice from the WHO: English-speaking world for novels that grapple with
Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on Immunization themes of aging, mortality, love and art — was awarded
(SAGE) and the Malaria Policy Advisory Group the Nobel Prize in Literature 2023, “for his innovative
(MPAG) and was endorsed by the WHO Director- plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable.”
General . A prolific writer who has published some 40 plays, as
The R21 vaccine is the second malaria vaccine well as novels, poetry, essays, children’s books and
recommended by WHO, following the RTS,S/AS01 works of translation, Fosse has long been revered for
vaccine, which received a WHO recommendation in his spare, transcendent language and formal
2021. experimentation.
The language in which Fosse writes, ‘Nynorsk’, is
Both vaccines are shown to be safe and effective in
one of the two written forms of Norwegian. The other
preventing malaria in children and, when implemented
is Bokmål. While Nynorsk has a strong standing in
broadly, are expected to have high public health impact.
Norwegian literature, and is used by many authors,
Malaria, a mosquito-borne disease, places a particularly
Fosse is probably the most prominent.
high burden on children in the African Region, where Nynorsk, or “New Norwegian,” was constructed in
nearly half a million children die from the disease each the 19th century by the philologist and poet Ivar Aasen,
year. after studying Norwegian dialects around the country.
The vaccine R21 has high efficacy when given just Bokmål evolved from Danish. (Norway was in a union
before high transmission season. Hence, option (b) is with Denmark from 1380 to 1814.) Hence, option (a)
correct. is correct.

55. (b) The motto of the IAF ¶uHk% li`'ka nhire~¸ is inscribed
below Himalayan eagle in golden Devanagari. The IAF
Explanation: motto has been taken from verse 24, Chapter 11 of
The Toto is a primitive and isolated tribal group the Bhagavad Gita and means “Radiant Thou Touchest
residing only in a small enclave called Totopara in the Heaven” or in other words “Touching the sky with
Jalpaiguri of West Bengal, India. Glory”. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
The total population of Totos is less than 2000 according Before Independence, Royal Indian Air Force (RIAF)
to the 2001 census, all living in Totopara. Hence, Ensign comprised of the Union Jack in the upper left
statement (1) is NOT correct. canton and the RIAF roundel (Red, White & Blue) on
The Totos are considered Mongoloid people. Hence, the fly side.
statement (2) is correct. Post-Independence, the Indian Air Force (IAF) ensign
They are generally endogamous and marry within their was created by replacing the Union Jack with the Indian
own tribe. tri colour and the RAF roundels with the IAF tri colour
The Toto family is patrilocal (social system in which roundel in the lower right canton.
a married couple resides with the husband’s parents) in 57. (b)
nature and dominated by nuclear type. However, joint
families are not rare. Explanation:
Monogamy is a common form of marriage among the Global Innovation Index (GII) is a leading reference
Toto but polygamy is not prohibited. There is no custom for measuring an economy’s innovation ecosystem
performance.
of divorce among the Totos.
It is published annually by the World Intellectual
The Toto language is a Sino-Tibetan language spoken
Property Organization (WIPO). It is also a valuable
by the Toto tribal people in parts of West Bengal
benchmarking tool used by policymakers, business
bordering Bhutan.
leaders, and other stakeholders to assess progress in
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and innovation over time.
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) lists it as a India retains 40th rank out of 132 economies in the
critically endangered language. Global Innovation Index 2023 rankings.
The Toto language is primarily spoken orally and even Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023
though prominent community member Padma Shri- followed by Sweden, the United States, the United
decorated ‘Dhaniram Toto’ developed a script as Kingdom and Singapore.
recently as in 2015, most people either write it in Singapore has entered the top five, and has taken the
Bengali script or write in Bengali language. Hence, leading position among South East Asia, East Asia and
statement (3) is correct. Oceania (SEAO) region economies.
WIPO is the global forum for Intellectual Property (IP)
56. (a) services, policy, information and cooperation. It is a
Explanation: self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193
On 08 October 2023 the Chief of Air Staff unveiled the
member states. Hence, option (b) is correct.
new Indian Air Force (IAF) ensign. 58. (a)
The IAF Crest has the national symbol, the Ashoka lion
Explanation:
on the top with the words ¶lR;eso t;rs¸ in Devanagari Recently India had sought ‘parity’ with Canada, asking
below it. it to downsize its diplomatic staff here. India has about
Below the Ashoka lion is a Himalayan eagle with its 20 diplomats in Canada and said there should be a
wings spread, denoting the fighting qualities of the IAF. similar number of Canadian diplomats in India as well.
A ring in light blue colour encircles the Himalayan eagle India has justified its action as being in accordance with
with the words ¶Hkkjrh; ok;q lsuk¸A Hence, statement Article 11.1 or the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic
(1) is correct. Relations.

The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations Seats are equitably distributed among the five UN
(1961) is a United Nations treaty that set some common regional groups, with one-third of the members being
principles and terms on how countries must treat each renewed each year. Each member serves a three-year
other’s diplomatic representatives, in order to ensure term. Membership is limited to two consecutive terms.
friendly relations and maintain proper communication As of December 2022, 123 of the 193 Member States
channels between countries. of the United Nations have served as Council members.
One prominent example of such principles is that of The UN General Assembly in October 2023 elected 15
diplomatic immunity. It’s the privilege of exemption new countries to serve on the Human Rights Council,
from certain laws and taxes granted to diplomats by the with Peru and Russia failing to secure a seat.
country in which they are posted. Diplomatic immunity
flows from two conventions, popularly called the 60. (d)
Vienna Conventions — the 1961 Convention and the Explanation:
Convention on Consular Relations, 1963. Hence, In the ongoing Israel-Hamas conflict, attacks by the
statement (1) is correct. terrorist group Hamas that started October 7 drew Israel
Article 11, cited by the Ministry of External Affairs to war in the Gaza strip. The current war started one day
in its press release, says, “In the absence of specific after the 50th anniversary of the start of the Yom Kippur
agreement as to the size of the mission, the receiving war, and Medzini has been having flashbacks.
State may require that the size of a mission be kept Yom Kippur War, fourth of the Arab-Israeli wars,
within limits considered by it to be reasonable and
which was initiated by Egypt and Syria on October 6,
normal, having regard to circumstances and conditions
1973, on the Jewish holy day of Yom Kippur. It also
in the receiving State and to the needs of the particular
occurred during Ramadan, the sacred month of fasting
mission.”
in Islam, and it lasted until October 26, 1973.
Today, 193 countries have ratified the convention,
Egypt’s goal in crossing the Suez Canal was to force
meaning they agree it should be legally binding on them.
Israel to the negotiation table to make a peace deal and
Ratification means that a country should seek approval
get back control of the Sinai peninsula. Hence, option
for the treaty on the domestic level and enact a law in
(d) is correct.
their country to give effect to it. India ratified it
through the Diplomatic Relations (Vienna 61. (d)
Convention) Act of 1972. Hence, statement (2) is
NOT correct. Explanation :
A23a is a tabular iceberg that broke away from the
59. (a) Filchner–Ronne Ice Shelf (Antarctica) in 1986. It is
the largest remaining piece of a larger iceberg that
Explanation:
became grounded on the ocean floor for nearly three
The Human Rights Council is the main
intergovernmental body within the United Nations decades. In 2020, A23a began moving and is currently
responsible for human rights. Established in 2006 by the world’s largest iceberg.
the General Assembly, it is responsible for strengthening Iceberg A76a is one of the world’s largest icebergs,
the promotion and protection of human rights around measuring 135 kilometers long and 25 kilometres wide.
the globe. It’s described as being shaped like a giant ironing board.
The Human Rights Council replaced the former Hence, option (d) is correct.
United Nations Commission on Human Rights. 62. (b)
The Human Rights Council consists of 47 Member Explanation:
States elected directly and individually by a majority Under the Nutrient Based subsidy scheme – fertilizers
of the 193 states of the UN General Assembly. Elections are provided to the farmers at the subsidized rates based
take place every year. Hence, statement (2) is NOT on the nutrients (N, P, K & S) contained in these
correct. fertilizers.

Also, the fertilizers which are fortified with secondary Licensing Policy (NELP) was approved in March 2016
and micronutrients such as molybdenum (Mo) and and the Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) along
zinc are given additional subsidy. Hence, statement (1) with the National Data Repository (NDR) were launched
is correct. in June 2017 as the key drivers to accelerate the
The subsidy on P&K fertilizers is announced by the
Exploration and Production (E&P) activities in India.
Government on an annual basis for each nutrient on Uniform Licensing: HELP provides for a uniform
a per kg basis – which are determined taking into licensing system that will cover all hydrocarbons such
account the international and domestic prices of P&K as oil, gas, and coal bed methane. Hence, statement
fertilizers, exchange rate, inventory level in the country, (1) is correct.
etc. Hence, statement (3) is correct. Under NELP, separate licenses were issued for exploring
It is being implemented from April 2010 by the different types of hydrocarbons.
Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Under the new system, a graded system of royalty
Fertilizers. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. rates was introduced. Under this system the royalty
rates will decrease from shallow water (where cost of
exploration and risks are lower) to deep water (where
cost and risks are higher) to ultra-deep water areas.
64. (c)
Explanation:
Recently, the Government of India has established
the National Turmeric Board. As India is the world’s
largest producer (75% of global turmeric production),
consumer, and exporter of turmeric, this move aims
to enhance the development and expansion of the
turmeric industry within the country. Hence, statement
(1) is correct.
The Board will consist of a Chairperson appointed
by the Central Government, members from key
government departments including the Ministry of
AYUSH, Departments of Pharmaceuticals, Agriculture
& Farmers Welfare, Commerce & Industry of the Union
Government, along with rotating senior State
Government representatives from three states.
The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra,
Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Turmeric is a perennial herbaceous plant belongs to
the ginger family (Zingiberaceae). A friable well drained
red loamy soil in wet or garden lands under tropical
conditions is ideal. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
65. (a)
Explanation:
Recently, International Migration Outlook 2023, a
63. (a)
report on international migration patterns was released
Explanation: by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy Development (OECD) to analyse the migration trends
(HELP) replacing the erstwhile New Exploration worldwide. Hence, option (a) is correct.

In 2021 and 2022, India became the primary source of Mount K2, world’s second-highest mountain, is not
migration to OECD countries, surpassing China. situated in the Great Himalayas. K2, also known as
India consistently topped the list with 0.41 million new Mount Godwin-Austen, is part of the Karakoram
migrants in both years, while China had 0.23 million Range, which is separate from the Great Himalayas.
new migrants, followed by Romania with approximately Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
200,000 new migrants.
69. (a)
66. (d)
Explanation:
Explanation: The Orinoco River is not a tributary of the Amazon
Kimberley Plateau is located in Western Australia.
River. Both rivers are distinct and have different
However, Kimberley is known for its diamond mining
drainage basins. The Orinoco River has its own
activities. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct.
independent basin in northern South America, while the
Katanga Plateau is located in the Democratic
Amazon River has its basin further to the south. Hence,
Republic of the Congo. Katanga is known for its rich
deposits of copper and other minerals. However, it is statement (1) is NOT correct.
not in Australia. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. The Orinoco River does not start from Lake Titicaca in
Patagonia is a region located in South America, Peru. The Orinoco originates in Venezuela, primarily
primarily in Argentina and Chile. It is not known for from the Delgado Chalbaud Mountain in the Guiana
tropical evergreen forests; rather, it is characterized by Highlands. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
diverse ecosystems including grasslands, deserts, and The Orinoco River Delta is located in northeastern
temperate forests. Hence, statement (3) is NOT Venezuela, near the Atlantic Ocean. Hence, statement
correct. (3) is correct.
67. (b) 70. (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
Proto- Austaloids: A group of people settled in central Chile is the largest copper-producing country in the
India from the Rajmahal hills to the Aravalis, including world, with 5,600 thousand Metric tons (5.6 million
tribes like Santhal, Bhil, Gond, Munda, Oraon, etc. Metric tons) of copper mined in 2021. Copper
Characteristics such as coarse and straight hair are production of Chile accounts for 27% of the total global
attributed to them. Additionally, it suggests a historical output in 2021.
connection, indicating that they may have played a role Peru is the second-largest copper producer, with
in developing the Indus Valley Civilization in 2,200 thousand metric tons (2.2 million tons) of copper.
collaboration with the Mediterranean race.
China is the third-largest copper-producing country,
Skeletons of this group have been found in the
with 1,800 thousand tons (1.8 million tons) of copper
excavations of Mohenjodaro and Harappa. Hence,
mined in 2021.
option (b) is correct.
Congo is a significant copper-producing nation just
68. (a) behind China, with 1,800 thousand tons (1.8 million
tons) of copper output in 2021. The top three copper-
Explanation:
producing countries account for about 46% of the total
Mount Aconcagua is indeed the highest peak of the
Andes. Mount Aconcagua is located in the Andes world output in 2021. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Mountain range in South America, specifically in 71. (c)
Argentina. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
The Great Dividing Range is actually located in Explanation:
Australia. The Great Dividing Range is a series of The mistral wind blows offshore along the
mountain ranges that run parallel to the eastern coast of Mediterranean coast from northwestern Italy across
Australia. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. the French coast to northeastern Spain and is

particularly strong and frequent in the lower Rhône 74. (c)
Valley in south-eastern France. It blows a long way out
Explanation:
into the Gulf of Lion in the northern Mediterranean Sea
Corals live with algae in a type of relationship called
and can be felt to the east of the Balearic Islands, in
symbiosis. This means the organisms cooperate with
Sardinia, and sometimes as far as the coast of Africa –
each other. The algae, called zooxanthellae, live inside
and thus affecting the conditions on the busy shipping
lane north of Algeria. Hence, statement (1) is correct. the corals, which provide a tough outer shell made from
Foehn, warm and dry, gusty wind that periodically calcium carbonate. In return for that protection, the
descends the leeward slopes of nearly all mountains algae provide their host with food produced through
and mountain ranges. The name was first applied to a photosynthesis. Zooxanthellae also provide corals with
wind of this kind that occurs in the Alps, where the their striking colours.
phenomenon was first studied. Hence, statement (2) is This symbiotic relationship is strongly dependent on the
correct. temperature of the surrounding water. As the water
warms, zooxanthellae are expelled from a coral’s tissue,
72. (b) causing it to lose its color and a major source of food.
Explanation: This process is known as “coral bleaching.”
The Taiga biome is a biome characterized by coniferous Coral bleaching does not always mean the death of
forests and is located just south of the Arctic Circle, a coral reef. Corals can recover their zooxanthellae in
primarily between 50 and 70-degrees north latitude. time, but the process requires cooler temperatures.
It extends across North America, Europe, and Asia. Ocean acidification also occurs because of rising carbon
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. dioxide (CO2) levels. The ocean absorbs carbon dioxide
It is primarily composed of coniferous trees, such as released into the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide alters the
pine, spruce, and fir. These trees are adapted to the cold chemistry of seawater by reducing pH, a measure of
and harsh conditions of the Taiga, with needle-like acidity. Water that has a lower pH is more acidic.
leaves that reduce water loss and help them survive in When the pH of seawater is lowered as a result of CO2,
the cold climate. Hence, statement (2) is correct. the availability of carbonate ions—one of the main
73. (a) building blocks in their calcium-carbonate skeletons—
is reduced, and corals have a tougher time building up,
Explanation: or even maintaining, their skeleton. Hence, statement
The salinity of surface seawater is controlled primarily I is correct, but statement II is NOT correct.
by the balance between evaporation and precipitation.
As a result, the highest salinities are found in the so- 75. (d)
called sub-tropical central gyre regions centered at about
Explanation:
20° to 30° North and South, where evaporation is
Namdapha National Park was established as a national
extensive but rainfall is minimal.
park in 1983, and it was declared as a Tiger Reserve in
The temperature of seawater is fixed at the sea surface
the same year of 1983 in the same year.
by heat exchange with the atmosphere. The average
Namdapha is in fact the name of a river originating in
incoming energy from the sun at the earth’s surface is
about four times higher at the equator than at the poles. the park and it meets Noa-Dehing river. The Noa-
The average infrared radiation heat loss to space is more Dehing river, is a tributary of the Brahmaputra and
constant with latitude. As a result there is a net input of flows in a North-South direction in the middle of the
heat to the earth’s surface into the tropical regions, and National Park.
this is where we find the warmest surface seawater. It is located in the State of Arunachal Pradesh and
Hence, both statement-I and statement-II are covers 1,985 sq km.
correct, and statement-II is the correct explanation It lies in close proximity to India-Myanmar-China
for statement-I. trijunction.

The park is located between the Dapha bum range of Therefore, annual insolation recieved by earth on 3rd
the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range. Jan is slightly more than amount recieved on 4th July.
It is the only park in the World to have the four Feline However, the effect of this variation in solar output is
species of big cat namely the Tiger (Panthera Tigris), masked by other factors like distribution of land and
Leopard (Panthera Pardus), Snow Leopard (Panthera sea and atmospheric circulation.
Uncia) and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis Nebulosa). Hence, this variation in solar output does not have a
Hence, option (d) is correct. great effect on daily weather changes on the surface of

earth.
76. (d)
78. (a)
Explanation:
When moisture is deposited as water droplets on Explanation:
cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in The earth after being heated by insolation transmits heat
air above the surface) like stones, grass blades and plant to atmospheric layers near earth in long wave form.
leaves, it is known as dew. The air in contact with land gets heated slowly and
The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, the upper layer in contact with lower layer also gets
calm air, high relative humidity and long cold nights. heated. This process is known as conduction. Hence,
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. option (a) is correct.
For formation of dew, it is necessary that dew point is When two bodies of unequal temperature come in
above freezing point. contact with one another, there is flow of energy from
Frost forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes warmer to cooler body.
place below freezing point i.e dew point is at or below The transfer of heat continues until both the bodies attain
freezing point. The excess moisture is deposited in the the same temperature or contact is broken.
form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets. Conduction is important in heating lower layers of
The ideal conditions for formation of white frost are atmosphere.
same as those for formation of dew, except that air The air in contact with earth rises vertically on heating
temperature must be at or below freezing point. in form of currents and further transmits heat of the
Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of
atmosphere is known as convection.
77. (d) The convective transfer of energy is confined only to
Explanation: the troposphere.
The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of
short wavelengths. The energy received by earth is air is called advection.
known as incoming solar radiation also known as The horizontal movement of air is relatively more
insolation. important than vertical movement.
As earth is a geoid resembling a sphere the sun’s rays In middle latitudes most diurnal variations in daily
fall obliquely at top of atmosphere and earth intercept weather are caused by advection alone.
very small portion of sun’s energy. During summer season local winds called loo is an
The solar output received at top of atmosphere varies outcome of advection process.
slightly in a year due to variation in distance between
79. (c)
earth and sun.
During its revolution around sun, earth is farthest from Explanation:
sun on 4th July. The position of earth is called aphelion The temperature of air at any place is influenced by:
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. Latitude: The temperature of a place depends on the
On 3rd January earth is nearest to sun. This position insolation received.
is called perihelion. Hence, statement (2) is NOT Altitude: The atmosphere is indirectly heated by
correct. terrestrial radiation from below. Places near sea level

receive higher temperature than places situated at higher The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to
elevations. Temperature generally decreases with air drainage.
increasing height. Cold air at hills and mountains, produced during night,
Distance from sea: Compared to land, sea gets heated flows under the influence of gravity.
more slowly and loses heat slowly. Land heats up and Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like
cools down quickly. Therefore, the variation in water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in
temperature over sea is less than compared to land. The pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This
places situated near the sea come under moderating is called air drainage. It protects plants from frost
influence of sea and land breeze which moderates the damage.
temperature.
81. (b)
Airmass and Ocean currents: Like the land and sea
breeze, the passage of airmass also affects the Explanation:
temperature. The places which come under influence of When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone
warm airmass experience higher temperature and places between them is called as front. The process of
that come under influence of cold airmass receive lower formation of front is known as frontogenesis. There are
temperature. four types of fronts - Cold, warm, stationary and
Similarly places located on the coast where warm ocean occluded.
currents flow record higher temperature than places When front remains stationary, it is called stationary
located on coast where cold currents flow. Hence, front. When the cold air moves towards warm airmass,
option(c) is correct. its contact zone is called the cold front. Whereas if warm
airmass moves towards cold airmass, its contact zone
80. (c) is called a warm front.
If airmass is fully lifted above the land surface it is called
Explanation:
occluded front. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Normally temperature decreases with increase in
These fronts occur in middle latitudes. Hence,
elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times the
statement (1) is NOT correct.
situation is reversed, and normal lapse rate is inverted.
They are characterized by steep gradients in
It is called inversion of temperature. Inversion is
temperature and pressure.
usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless.
They bring abrupt changes in temperature and cause air
A long winter night with clear skies and still air is
to rise to form clouds and cause precipitation. Hence,
ideal situation for inversion. Hence, option (c) is
correct.
The heat of the day is radiated off during the night and 82. (a)
by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than air
Explanation:
above.
Thunderstorms are caused by intense convection on
Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal
moist hot days.
throughout the year. A thunderstorm is well grown cumulonimbus clouds
Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layer producing thunder and lightening. When the clouds
of the atmosphere. extend to heights where subzero temperature prevails
Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the hails are formed, and they come down as hailstorm. If
inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower there is insufficient moisture a thunderstorm can
strata of atmosphere. generate duststorm.
Dense fog in the morning are a common occurrence A thunderstorm is characterized by intense updraft of
especially during winter season. rising warm air which causes clouds to grow bigger and
This inversion commonly lasts for a few hours until the rise to greater height. This causes precipitation. Later
sun comes up and begins to warm the earth. downdraft brings down to earth the cool air and rain.

From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiraling wind The long wave radiation is absorbed by atmospheric
descends like trunk of an elephant with great force, with gases particularly by carbon dioxide and other
very low pressure at center causing massive destruction greenhouse gases.
on its way. Such a phenomenon is known as a tornado. Thus, atmosphere is indirectly heated by earth
Tornadoes generally occur in middle latitudes. radiation.
Tornadoes over sea is called water sprouts. The atmosphere in turn radiates and transmits heat to
These violent storms are manifestation of atmosphere space.
Finally amount of heat recieved from sun is returned to
adjustments to varying energy distribution. The potential
space thereby maintaining constant temperature at earth
and heat energy are converted into kinetic energy in
surface and in atmosphere. Hence, option (b) is correct.
these storms and restless atmosphere again returns to
its stable state. Hence, option (a) is correct. 85. (b)
83. (a) Explanation:

Guyot, isolated submarine volcanic mountain with a
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of atmosphere.
flat summit more than 200 metres (660 feet) below sea
Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to height level. Such flat tops may have diameters greater than
of 8km near poles and 18 km at equator. 10 km (6 miles). (The term derives from the Swiss
The thickness of troposphere is greatest at the American geologist Arnold Henry Guyot.)
equator because heat is transported to great heights by In the Pacific Ocean, where guyots are most
strong convectional currents. abundant, most summits lie 1,000 to 2,000 metres
This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. (3,300 to 6,600 feet) below sea level. Their sides, like
All changes in climate and weather take place in this those of other submarine volcanoes and volcanic islands,
layer. are slightly concave, rising gently from the surrounding
The temperature in this layer decreases at rate of 1 deep-sea floor and steepening to about 20° at their
degree Celsius for every 165 m of height. summits.
This is the most important layer of all biological activity. Guyot is a flat-topped seamount. They show evidence
The zone separating troposphere from stratosphere is of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat
known as tropopause. topped submerged mountains. Hence, option (b) is
The air temperature at tropopause is about minus 80 correct.
degrees Celsius over the equator and about minus 45
86. (a)
degrees Celsius over the poles.
The temperature here is nearly constant hence it is called Explanation:
tropopause. Hence, both statement-I and statement- Cold currents: It brings cold water into warm water
areas. These currents are usually found on the west coast
II are correct and statement-II is the correct
of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true
explanation for statement-I.
in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher
84. (b) latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere. Benguela,
Humboldt and Labrador current are cold currents.
Explanation:
Warm currents: It brings warm water into cold water
The insolation recieved by earth is in short wave form
areas and is usually observed on the east coast of
and heats up its surface. continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both
The earth after being heated itself become a radiating hemispheres). Agulhas current a warm, fast-moving
body and it radiates energy in long wave form. high-saline current that moves southward down the east
This energy heats up atmosphere from below. This coast, its flow directed by topography. Hence, option(a)
process is known as terrestrial radiation. is correct.

The presence of these clouds usually means a chilly,
overcast day.
If precipitation falls from these clouds, it is usually in
the form of drizzle or light snow. Hence, option (c) is
correct.
89. (c)
Explanation:
Saline environment: They can survive under extreme
hostile environments such as high salt and low oxygen
conditions. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Low oxygen: Underground tissue of any plant needs
oxygen for respiration. But in a mangrove environment,
the oxygen in soil is limited. Hence the mangrove root
system absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere.
Mangroves have special roots for this purpose called
87. (a) breathing roots or pneumatophores. Hence, statement
(3) is correct.
Explanation : These roots have numerous pores through which oxygen
Halocline, vertical zone in the oceanic water column enters the underground tissues.
in which salinity changes rapidly with depth, located Survival in Extreme Conditions: With their roots
below the well-mixed, uniformly saline surface water submerged in water, mangrove trees thrive in hot,
layer. muddy, salty conditions that would quickly kill most
Especially well-developed haloclines occur in the plants.
Atlantic Ocean, in which salinities may decrease by Succulent leaves: Mangroves, like desert plants, store
several parts per thousand from the base of the surface fresh water in thick succulent leaves. Hence, statement
layer to depths of about one kilometre (3,300 feet). In (2) is correct.
higher latitudinal areas of the North Pacific in which Viviparous: Their seeds germinate while still attached
solar heating of the surface waters is low and rainfall is to the parent tree. Once germinated, the seedling grows
abundant, salinities increase markedly with depth into a propagule.
through the halocline layer.
90. (b)
Pycnoclines, or layers through which water density
increases rapidly with depth, accompany such haloclines Explanation:
since density varies directly with total salt content. Rocks of earth surface are are exposed to denudational
Hence, option (a) is correct. agents and are broken up into various size fragments.
Such fragments are transported by different exogeneous
88. (c) agencies and deposited. These deposits through
Explanation: compaction turn into rocks. This process is called
Stratus clouds are layered clouds covering large lithification.
portions of sky. In many sedimentary rocks the layers of rocks retain
These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of their characteristics even after lithification. Depending
heat or mixing of airmass with different temperatures. upon mode of formation sedimentary rocks are classified
into 3 major groups :
These clouds often form at the boundary of a warm
front, where warm, moist air is forced up over cold air. Mechanically formed:
This movement produces clouds as the moist air is Sandstone
cooled across the entire front. Conglomerate

Limestone (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an
Shale. Hence, option (b) is correct. independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure
Loess availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable
Organically formed: prices.
Geyserite It was made to fix/revise prices of controlled bulk drugs
Chalk and formulations and to enforce price and availability
Limestone of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices
Control) Order, 1995-2013 (DPCO). Hence, option
Chemically formed: (a) is correct.
Chert Halite
Limestone Potash 93. (a)
91. (b) Explanation:

The World Health Organization’s (WHO) Global Air
Explanation: Quality Guidelines (AQGs) provide recommendations
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 for six major air pollutants:
(MTP Act) was passed due to the progress made in the Â Particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10)
field of medical science with respect to safer abortions. Â Ozone (O₃)
In a historic move to provide universal access
Â Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
reproductive health services, India amended the MTP
Â Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)
Act 1971 to further empower women by providing
comprehensive abortion care to all. Â Carbon monoxide (CO). Hence, option (a) is
Following are the key Provisions of the MTP correct.
Amendment Act, 2021: These pollutants have significant impacts on human
Â Under the Act, a pregnancy may be terminated health and are widely monitored.
up to 20 weeks by a married woman in the case of The 2021 WHO AQGs recommend aiming for annual
failure of contraceptive method or device. It allows mean concentrations of PM2.5 not exceeding 5 µg/m3
unmarried women to also terminate a pregnancy and NO2 not exceeding 10 µg/m3. They also recommend
for this reason. Hence, statement (1) is NOT that the peak season mean 8-hr ozone concentration
correct. not exceed 60 µg/m3.
Â Opinion Needed for Termination of Pregnancy: 94. (d)
Opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner
Explanation:
(RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20
Recently, surgical oncologist Padma Shri Dr R. Ravi
weeks of gestation. Kannan, Director of the Cachar Cancer Hospital and
Opinion of two RMPs for termination of Research Centre (CCHRC) in Assam, received the
pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of gestation. prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award for 2023.
Opinion of the State-level medical board is He won the award for revolutionising the treatment of
essential for a pregnancy to be terminated cancer in Assam through his people-cantered and pro-
after 24 weeks in case of substantial foetal poor programmes (offering free treatment, food,
abnormalities. Hence, statement (2) is correct. lodging, and employment for caregivers).
Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957
92. (a)
as Asia’s highest honour and premier prize. Hence,
Explanation: statement (2) is NOT correct.
National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) It celebrates individuals who demonstrate exceptional
was constituted by the Government of India in 1997 as spirit in serving the people of Asia, regardless of their
an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals background.

The award is presented annually on August 31st, which Japanese Encephalitis Virus (JEV) is also a major cause
coincides with the birthday of Ramon Magsaysay, the of Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) in India.
third president of the Republic of the Philippines, who The disease is transmitted to humans through bites from
inspired its creation. Hence, statement (1) is NOT infected mosquitoes of the Culex species. Hence,
correct. statement (1) is NOT correct.
These mosquitoes breed mainly in rice fields and large
95. (b) water bodies rich in aquatic vegetation.
There is no antiviral treatment for patients with JE.
Explanation:
Treatment available is supportive to relieve symptoms
Pulikkali (Puli means Leopard/Tiger and Kali means
and stabilise the patient.
Play in Malayalam) is a recreational street folk art
Safe and effective JE vaccines are available to prevent
performed on the fourth day of Onam celebrations. the disease. JE vaccination is also included under the
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. Universal Immunisation Programme of the
Onam (August–September) is a Hindu rice harvest Government of India. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
festival of Kerala celebrated to commemorate King
Mahabali. 97. (a)
The folk art is mainly practiced in Thrissur district of Explanation:
Kerala. The recently disclosed Chinese hack of senior officials
The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting with at the U.S. State and Commerce departments stemmed
participants playing the role of tiger and hunter. from the compromise of a Microsoft engineer’s
UNESCO’S Intangible Cultural Heritage of India corporate account, Microsoft Corp said in a blog post
include the following: on Wednesday.
Microsoft said the engineer’s account had been
penetrated by a hacking group it dubs ‘Storm-0558’,
which is alleged to have stolen hundreds of thousands
of emails from top American officials. Hence, option
(a) is correct.
Modified Elephant and Scattered Spider are some
other notorious hacking groups seen in the news.
98. (a)
Explanation:
Anti-dumping duties are taxes imposed on imported
goods to compensate for the difference between their
Â Garba of Gujarat and Durga Puja in Kolkata export price and their normal value. The purpose of
have also been added to the list. anti-dumping duties is to rectify the trade-distorting
Â Mudiyettu (ritual theatre dance drama of Kerala). effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
Countervailing duties (CVD) are tariffs levied on
imported goods to offset subsidies made to producers
96. (a) of these goods in the exporting country. Hence,
Explanation: The Department of Commerce recommends the Anti-
Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is a viral infection that dumping duty. It is the Ministry of Finance, which
can cause inflammation in the brain. Hence, statement levies such duty. Safeguard measures, on the other hand,
(3) is NOT correct. are administered by Director General (Safeguard),
It is caused by a flavivirus that belongs to the same which functions under the Dept. of Revenue, Ministry
genus as dengue, yellow fever and West Nile viruses. of Finance. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

Further, the World Trade Organization (WTO) allows 100. (c)
anti-dumping measures as an exception to the general
disciplines. The WTO is an international organization Explanation:
Recently, India has become the 13th country that can
that manages the rules of trade between nations. Hence,
statement (3) is NOT correct. issue OIML (International Organization of Legal
Metrology) Certificates.
99. (d) The Legal Metrology Division, Department of
Consumer Affairs, is now authorised to issue OIML
Explanation:
certificates.
India has climbed six places on the World Bank’s
The OIML was established in 1955 and headquartered
Logistic Performance Index (LPI) 2023, now ranking
in Paris. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
38th in the 139 countries index.
It is an international standard-setting body that
This is a significant improvement from its previous
develops model regulations, standards and related
ranking of 44th in 2018 and 54th in 2014.
documents for use by legal metrology authorities and
It measures the ease of establishing reliable supply chain
industry.
connections and the structural factors that make it
India became a member of the OIML in 1956. In the
possible. The LPI considers 6 parameters to evaluate
same year, India signed the Metric Convention. Hence,
logistics performance, namely:
Â Customs performance
The OIML-CS is a system for issuing, registering and
Â Infrastructure quality using OIML certificates, and their associated OIML type
Â Ease of arranging shipments evaluation/test reports, for instruments like digital
Â Logistics services quality balance, clinical thermometers, etc.
Â Consignment tracking and tracing To sell a weight or measure in the international
Â Timeliness of shipments. Hence, option (d) is market an OIML Pattern Approval certificate is
correct. mandatory. It is a single certificate accepted worldwide.
Earlier, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
released the Logistics Ease Across Different States
(LEADS) Report 2022.

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14 (a) 39 (b) 64 (c) 89 (c)

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surrounded by fringing reefs. Â Pressure gradient between pole and equator

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Explanation: 30. (b)

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Monsoon Winds of the Bay of Bengal: Explanation:

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Explanation: 54. (a)

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67. (b) 70. (a)

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83. (a) Explanation:

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91. (b) Explanation:

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