Mock 2

Warmup Mock 02 (CLAT) 2025
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the
questions that follow.
Passage – 1
He loved winter. The cold, the snow, the silence. They matched his lonely nature, his scorn
for the noisy world. He lived in a cabin in the woods, away from civilization. He had no one
but himself and his books. He did not miss the society he had left. He had seen its cruelty,
its hypocrisy, its emptiness. He was better alone, he thought. But sometimes, at night, when
the wind and snow raged, he felt lonely. He longed for something unknown, something he
never had. A warmth, a touch, a smile. A friend, a lover, a soulmate. He dismissed these
thoughts, these feelings. They were foolish, weak, dangerous. They would bring pain,
suffering, disappointment. He had chosen this life, for a reason. He was happy, free, safe.
He needed no one, wanted no one, loved no one. He repeated this to himself, like a
mantra, like a prayer, like a lie.
One day, he saw a figure in the forest. A woman in a red coat, with a basket. She looked
lost, scared, confused. He was curious, annoyed. What was she doing here, in this winter?
He approached her, to see what she wanted, to tell her to go. He walked silently. She did
not see him, until he was behind her. He said coldly, "Who are you?" She turned, gasped.
She saw a man, pale and dark, in black. He looked hostile, stern. She smiled and said
softly, "Hello, I'm Alice, a journalist. I'm writing a story about the forest, the wildlife, the
environment. I heard there was a cabin, I thought someone lived there, maybe they could
help me, tell me more." He frowned and said, "There is a cabin, and I live there. And I don't
want to help you, or tell you anything. I don't want you here, or anyone. This is my place,
my home, my refuge. You don't belong here, you should leave."
She felt hurt and said firmly, "I have a job, a story, a purpose. I'm not here to bother you. I'm
here to learn. You have a reason for being here. But maybe you could be more kind. Maybe
https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=0QVExEUB4fo%3D 29/01/24, 4 19 PM
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you could give me a chance, a word, a moment." He felt surprised. She was different and
had a spark. She challenged and fascinated him. He hesitated, softly and said, "Maybe I
could. But why? What do you want from me, really? What do you hope to find? What do
you have to offer?" She smiled and said, "I don't know. But maybe we could find out.
Together."
Q 1. 30642205 As per the passage, why did the author think he was better alone?
a) He loved winter and the cold.
b) He wants to spend time with his books and the cabin.

c) He believed he is done with the society.
d) He wants to give up the society and explore a different world
Q 2. 30642205 What do you get to know about the protagonist's state of mind during his
time in the woods?
a) He is content with his solitude and does not feel any emotions.
b) He is conflicted between his desire for isolation, his need for connection.
c) He is depressed and suicidal and wants to end his life.
d) He is angry and resentful and wants to take revenge on society.
Q 3. 30642205 What is the woman's motive to come into the woods?
a) To find the man and interview him. b)

To write a story about the forest and its
inhabitants.
c) d) To seek a friend, a lover, a soulmate.
To escape from the society and its problems.
Q 4. 30642205 The author's description of the protagonist as "hostile, stern" shows that:
a) b)
He is afraid of the woman and her intentions. He is indifferent to the woman and her story.
c) d)
He is rude to the woman and wants her to He is curious about the woman and her job.
leave.
Q 5. 30642205 Which of the following statements are true about the protagonist's mantra
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as he lived his life in the cabin?
Statement I: He repeated it to justify his choice of living in isolation.
Statement II: He repeated it to suppress his feelings of loneliness and longing.
Statement III: He repeated it to express his gratitude for his life in the cabin.
a) Statement I and II b) c) Only Statement II d) Only Statement I

Statement II and III
Q 6. 30642205 In the light of the above passage, which of the following best captures the
woman's role?
a) A guide who shows the way to the man b) A lover who ignites passion in the man
c) A stranger who sparks interest in the man d)

A friend who offers companionship to the
man
Passage – 2
One of the distinctive features of contemporary literature is its experimentation with form
and language. Many contemporary writers challenge the conventional norms and
expectations of literary genres, such as realism, fantasy, or science fiction. They employ
various techniques to create novel and complex narratives that blur the boundaries
between fiction and reality, author and reader, or past and present. For example, Salman
Rushdie's Midnight's Children is a postcolonial novel that combines historical events with
magical realism, while David Mitchell's Cloud Atlas is a hybrid novel that interweaves six
different stories across time and space.
Another characteristic of contemporary literature is its diversity and inclusivity.

Contemporary writers represent a wide range of voices, perspectives, and identities, often
marginalized or silenced in the mainstream literary canon. They explore issues such as
race, gender, sexuality, class, or disability, and challenge the stereotypes and prejudices
that shape the dominant discourse.
Contemporary literature is a rich and dynamic field that offers a multitude of possibilities and
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challenges for both writers and readers. It invites us to question our assumptions, expand
our horizons, and engage with the world around us. Contemporary literature is not only a
reflection of the present, but also a projection of the future.
Q 7. 30642205 What is one of the distinctive features of contemporary literature according
to the passage?
a) Its adherence to form and language. b)

Trying out new language modes and
expressions.
c) Its simplicity and clarity of expression. d)
Its rejection of different forms and
languages.
Q 8. 30642205 What does the example of "Salman Rushdie's Midnight's Children" primarily
signify in the context of the passage?
a) It illustrates how contemporary writers experiment with form and language.
b)
It shows how contemporary writers challenge the conventional norms and expectations of
literary genres.
c)
It demonstrates how contemporary writers employ various techniques to create novel and
complex narratives.
d)
It exemplifies how contemporary writers blur the boundaries between fiction and reality,
author and reader, or past and present.
Q 9. 30642205 According to the author, how contemporary literature helps the readers?
a) It reflects the present and projects the future.
b) It questions the assumptions and expands the horizons.

c) It offers possibilities and challenges for both writers and readers.
d) It engages with the world around us.
Q 10. 30642205 Which of the following words best describes "Mitchell's Cloud Atlas" as
per the details from the passage?
a) realistic b) composite c) postcolonial d) magical
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a) realistic b) composite c) postcolonial d) magical
Q 11. 30642205 What is the main theme discussed in the passage?
a) b)
The history and evolution of contemporary The features and characteristics of
literature. contemporary literature.
c) d)
The genres and styles of contemporary The influences and inspirations of
literature. contemporary literature.
Q 12. 30642205 Which of the following best captures the essence of the phrase "diversity
and inclusivity", as per the passage?
a) The variety and acceptance of different literary genres and styles.
b) The representation and inclusion of diverse voices and identities in literature.

c) The diversity and integration of different cultures and languages in literature.
d) The diversity and involvement of different readers and audiences in literature.
Passage – 3
English literature is the study of the written works produced in the English language by
writers from different parts of the world. It encompasses a variety of genres, such as poetry,
drama, fiction, and non-fiction, and spans from the ancient to the contemporary times.
English literature is rich and diverse, reflecting the complex and evolving history, culture,
and identity of the English-speaking people.
One of the main goals of studying English literature is to appreciate the beauty and artistry
of the language and the literary texts. By reading and analysing different works, we can
learn how writers use various techniques, such as imagery, symbolism, metaphor, irony,
and humour, to create meaning and evoke emotions. We can also enjoy the creativity and
imagination of the writers, who can transport us to different worlds, times, and perspectives,
and challenge us to think critically and creatively. Another goal of studying English literature
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is to understand the historical and cultural contexts of the works and the writers. By doing
so, we can gain insight into the social, political, and intellectual issues and movements that
shaped the literature and the society. We can also explore the diversity and complexity of
the human experience, as expressed by writers from different backgrounds, regions, and
periods. We can also appreciate the influence and interconnection of English literature with
other literatures and cultures, and how it has contributed to the global literary heritage.
Studying English literature can also help us develop our own skills and abilities as readers,
writers, and thinkers. By engaging with various texts, we can improve our vocabulary,
grammar, and comprehension, and expand our knowledge and curiosity. We can also
develop our critical thinking and analytical skills, as we learn to interpret, evaluate, and
compare different texts and arguments. We can also enhance our communication and
expression skills, as we learn to articulate our own opinions, ideas, and responses, and to
appreciate the views and feedback of others. English literature is a fascinating and
rewarding field of study, that offers us a wealth of knowledge, enjoyment, and inspiration.
By studying English literature, we can enrich our minds, hearts, and lives, and become
more informed, aware, and creative members of the global community.
Q 13. 30642205 What does the passage say about the genres of English literature?
a) They are limited to poetry, drama, fiction, and non-fiction.
b) They are varied and cover different types of writing.

c) They are influenced by the history, culture, and identity of the English-speaking people.
d) They are ancient and contemporary, but not modern.
Q 14. 30642205 What are some of the techniques that writers use to create meaning and
evoke emotions, according to the passage?
a) b)
Imagery, symbolism, metaphor, irony, and Grammar, vocabulary, comprehension, and
humour. analysis.
c) History, culture, identity, and diversity. d)
Beauty, artistry, creativity, and imagination.
Q 15. 30642205 What can writers do with their creativity and imagination, according to the
passage?
a)
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They can lead us to different zones, ages, and perspectives, and encourage us to think in
unique and innovative ways.
b)
They can reflect their opinions, ideas, and responses, and appreciate the views and
feedback of others.
c)
They can contribute to the global literary heritage and become more informed of the global
community.
d)
They can appreciate the beauty, artistry, creativity, and imagination of the language and the
texts.
Q 16. 30642205 What can we gain insight into by understanding the historical and cultural
contexts of the works and the writers, according to the passage?
a)
The societal, political, and intellectual topics and developments that impacted the literature
and the society.
b) The beauty, artistry, creativity, and imagination of the language and the texts.
c)
The diversity and complexity of the human experience, as expressed by writers from
different backgrounds, regions, and periods.
d)
The influence and interconnection of English literature with other literatures and cultures,
and how it has contributed to the global literary heritage.
Q 17. 30642205 Which of the following words best describes the benefits of studying
English literature according to the passage?
a) Confining b) Acute c) Enriching d) Eternal
Q 18. 30642205 Which of the following best summarizes the key message the author is
trying to convey in the passage?
a)
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English literature is a diverse and complex field that reflects the history and culture of the
English-speaking people.
b)
English literature is a beautiful and artistic field that challenges us to think critically and
creatively.
c)
English literature is a fascinating and rewarding field that enriches our skills and abilities as
readers, writers, and thinkers.
d)
English literature is a comprehensive and influential field that connects us to the global
literary heritage and community.
Passage – 4
The judiciary in India is hailed as a shining beacon of freedom, fairness, and honesty. But a
closer look at the courts exposes a dark reality. It is beset by various maladies, such as
snail-paced trials, corruption, inefficiency, and lack of accountability. Among these, the most
severe and widespread one is the mountain of cases. This malady is a grave menace to the
rule of law and the dispensation of justice in the country, and that it necessitates prompt and
holistic reforms from all the stakeholders involved in the judicial process.
The judiciary is a hospital, and the cases are the patients. But this hospital is a sinking ship,
with not enough hands-on deck, not enough tools in the toolbox, and not enough money in
the bank. The patients are plagued by various diseases, some of them fatal. The hospital is
drowning in a sea of new patients, and the old ones are rotting in the corners. The patients
are losing their light and their trust in the hospital, and some of them are slipping away
without a cure. The hospital is on the brink of collapse, and it cries out for help and reform.
This is the grim picture of the judiciary in India, with respect to the cases.
The accumulation of cases is a double-edged sword that cuts both the litigants and the
judiciary. The judges are caught between a rock and a hard place, which compromises their
quality and efficiency of work. The lawyers are at their wit's end, which undermines their
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professionalism and ethics. The society is up in arms, which threatens its respect and
compliance with the law. This malady is a snowball effect that grows bigger and worse as it
rolls on.
The judiciary in India is drowning in a sea of cases, a sign of a deeper disease that infects
the system. It shows the inability of the system to evolve with the changing times and
expectations of the society. It lays bare the cracks and holes in the framework and
operation of the judiciary. It questions the credibility and power of the judiciary as the
custodian of the Constitution and the defender of the rights of the people. This ailment is a
symbol of the rot and downfall of the judiciary in India.
This malady is a ticking time bomb that needs to be defused without delay. It calls for
sweeping reforms that leave no stone unturned. It demands the cooperation and
collaboration of all the actors and agencies involved in the judicial process. It requires the
vision and courage of the judiciary to reinvent itself and reclaim its glory and dignity. This
malady can be solved, if there is a will and a way. The ball is in the court of the judiciary.
Q 19. 30642205 What is the central thesis of the above extract?
a)
Overwhelming backlog of cases is the challenge of the judiciary in India that requires
immediate changes.
b)
Harmful effects on both the parties and the adjudicators are the consequences of the
judiciary in India that result from its system.
c)
Worsening situation with the increase of cases is the phenomenon of the judiciary in India
that reflects its inability to evolve.
d)
Endangered legal order and rights of the citizens are the implications of the judiciary in
India that call for its reform.
Q 20. 30642205 What does the author mean by 'sinking ship' in the second paragraph?
a) A reference for the judiciary that it is failing and unlikely to recover.
b)
A literal description of the physical condition of the judiciary that is damaged and decayed.
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c)
A comparison of the judiciary to a ship that is carrying too many passengers and not
enough resources.
d) A reference to the historical event of the Titanic that sank in 1912.
Q 21. 30642205 Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree
with?
a) The judiciary in India is admired as a radiant source of freedom, fairness, and honesty.
b)
Lawyers of the judiciary are drained and desperate, which affects their competence and
morals.
c)
The judiciary in India is a victim of its own success and popularity that attracts too many
cases.
d)
Indian judiciary demands the insight and boldness to change itself and regain its glory and
dignity.
Q 22. 30642205 Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
a)
The judiciary in India is a complex system, which adjusts to the changing society's
demands.
b) The judiciary in India is a hospital which is under equipped with resources.
c) The accumulation of cases hurts both the litigants and the judiciary.
d) No improvement is needed for the Indian judiciary which is an effective institution.
Q 23. 30642205 Which of the following words best describes the author's perspective
towards the accumulation of cases in the last paragraph?
a) Indifferent b) Optimistic c) Critical d) Pessimistic
Q 24. 30642205 Which of the following words best describes the "drowning in a sea of
cases" metaphor used in the passage?
a) A sign of hopelessness and despair b) A sign of strength and resilience
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c) A sign of diversity and complexity d) A sign of stagnation and decay
Current Affairs Including General

Knowledge
Passage – 1
The traditional Lanjia Saura paintings, the exquisitely embroidered Dongaria Kondh shawl,
the delicious Khajuri Guda from Odisha and the Handmade Carpets and Wancho Wooden
Craft from Arunachal Pradesh were among the 17 products that bagged the Geographical
Indications (GI) tag.
The traditional knitted shawls of the hill tribe Dongaria Kondh are both unique and ancient.
Their culture, tradition, faith, and beliefs, as well as the biodiversity of their forests are
reflected in the shawls. Dharanipenu, the much adored goddess of the Dongaria, has a
home in every village. The art and drawings made in the Dharanipenu residence are
reflected in their shawls. Although the modern world has had significant impact on their
traditional apparel, the Dongaria shawl continues to be popular with the tribe.
Apart from this the Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai has also given tags to
three products from West Bengal - the Tangail Saree of Bengal, Garad Saree and Korial
saree. Odisha's Dhenkanal Magji, a milk product and Similipal Kai Chutney also got a GI
tag. The 'Kai' is indigenous to Mayurbhanj and Keonjhar which are found in abundance in
the jungles of every block areas of the districts. The Kai Chutney prepared from these Kai is
the main source of protection to the health and safety measures of the local tribes. The
tribes in the Mayurbhanj and Keonjhar District commonly use the chutney as a delicious
food and traditional medicine to treat different aliments in their daily life.
The Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal, a vegetable crop with lots of prickly thorns on the flesh
as well as the whole plant grown in whole of Nayagarh district of Odisha also received a
tag. The other products that were given a GI tag are West Bengal's Kalonunia Rice, West
Bengal's Sundarban Honey, Gujarat's Kachchhi Kharek; Jammu Kashmir's Ramban
Anardana; Koraput Kalajeera Rice and the Arunachal Pradesh Adi Kekir (Ginger).
Q 25. 30642205 Which of the following state's product is Kachchhi Kharek, a date palm
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Q 25. 30642205 Which of the following state's product is Kachchhi Kharek, a date palm
product known for being bold, crisp, and sweet that has received a Geographical Indication
tag?
a) b) West Bengal c) Gujarat d) Jammu & Kashmir

Arunachal Pradesh
Q 26. 30642205 Which of the following state's product is Wancho Wooden Craft that has
received a Geographical Indication tag?
a) Gujarat b) c) West Bengal d) Jammu & Kashmir

Arunachal Pradesh
Q 27. 30642205 What is the rice variety from West Bengal that has received a
Geographical Indication tag?
a) Tangail b) Garad c) Kalo Nunia d) Sundarban
Q 28. 30642205 Which of the following products from Jammu & Kashmir is locally referred
to as Dhruni and is an important fruit tree growing wild in hilly tracts and forests that has
received a Geographical Indication tag?
a) b) Adi Kekir c) Tangail d) Sundarban

Ramban Anardana
Q 29. 30642205 Which of the following is/are the products that has/have received a
Geographical Indication tag?
a) b) Dhenkanal Magji c) d) All of the above

Kapdaganda Shawl Nayagarh
Kanteimundi Brinjal
Q 30. 30642205 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Geographical
Indication (GI) tag?
a)
It is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical
location or origin (e.g., a town, region, or country).
b)
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India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical
Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with effect
from 15 September 2003.
c) Darjeeling tea became the first GI tagged product in India, in 2004-2005.
d) The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 20 years.
Passage – 2
India welcomes the expansion of the BRICS grouping through a consensus-based

approach, Prime Minister Narendra Modi declared in Johannesburg. Addressing the plenary
session of the 15th BRICS summit in the historic South African city, the PM urged member
States to take advantage of India's digital solutions and to work for the welfare of the Global
South.
Current BRICS members include Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, whose
names make up the group's acronym. "125 countries participated in the Global South
summit that we organised this January. We have proposed that the African Union should be
made a member of the G-20. I am confident that all BRICS partners will support these
ideas. India fully supports the idea of expansion of the membership of the BRICS and
welcomes a consensus-based process," Mr. Modi said.
The plenary session was also attended by Brazilian President Luiz Inacio Lula Da Silva,
Chinese President Xi Jinping, and the host, South African President Cyril Ramaphosa,
alongside other delegates. Russian President Vladimir Putin participated in the summit
virtually, with the physical leadership for the Russian delegation being provided by Foreign
Minister Sergey Lavrov. When the leaders posed together for a "family photograph", Mr.
Ramaphosa held hands with Mr. Modi and Mr. Lavrov on his left and Mr. Xi and Mr. Lula Da
Silva to his right.
Continuing with India's priorities in its G-20 presidency year, Mr. Modi kept the focus of his
speech on the prospects of the Global South and the African Union, which is being
represented at the BRICS summit by the east African nation of Comoros.
Q 31. 30642205 The 15th BRICS summit was held in____________.
a) Johannesburg b) New Delhi c) Moscow d) Beijing
Q 32. 30642205 Which of the following is Not a current member of BRICS grouping?
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Q 32. 30642205 Which of the following is Not a current member of BRICS grouping?
a) Brazil b) Russia c) India d) Pakistan
Q 33. 30642205 Which of the following countries President participated in the 15th BRICS
summit virtually?
a) India b) China c) Russia d) Brazil
Q 34. 30642205 The term "BRIC" is believed to be coined in 2001 by__________.
a) Vladimir Putin b) Jim O'Neill c) Xi Jinping d) Manmohan Singh
Q 35. 30642205 The first BRIC summit was held in
a) Yekaterinburg b) New Delhi c) Beijing d) Rio de Janeiro
Q 36. 30642205 Which of the following countries President has withdrawn the country from
its planned entry into the expanding BRICS club of nations?
a) Argentina b) Egypt c) Iran d) Ethiopia
Passage – 3
On 25 November, 1949, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar introduced a motion that "the Constitution as
settled by the Assembly be passed". "In making comparisons on the basis of time
consumed, two things must be remembered. One is that the Constitutions of America,
Canada, South Africa and Australia are much smaller than ours. Our Constitution as I said
contains 395 articles while the American has just seven articles, the first four of which are
divided into sections which total up to 21, the Canadian has 147, Australian 128 and South
African 153 sections. The second thing to be remembered is that the makers of the
Constitutions of America, Canada, Australia and South Africa did not have to face the
problem of amendments. They were passed as moved. On the other hand, this Constituent
Assembly had to deal with as many as 2,473 amendments."
He remarked that the functioning of the Constitution depends on its functionaries i.e., the
people who implement and deal with the Constitution, which includes the people and the
political parties which represents them and carries out their wishes. In his words, it is futile
to pass a judgment on the Constitution without referring to the role played by the people
and the political parties.
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Thereafter, he rebutted the allegation that the Constitution provides for excessive
centralization. It was argued by some members that there is too much centralization in the
Constitution and as a result the states have been left dependent on the Centre. Ambedkar
argued that on legislative and executive authority, the centre and states are co-equal and
have respective fields on which they can function. He further argued that even though in
some cases, the centre has been given the power to override the states, such situations are
confined to emergencies only. He justified these overriding powers on the ground that in a
moment of crisis, needs of the country as a whole must be focused upon and only the
centre can work towards those interests.
He remarked, "There can be no doubt that in the opinion of the vast majority of the people,
the residual loyalty of the citizen in an emergency must be to the Centre and not to the
Constituent States. For it is only the Centre which can work for a common end and for the
general interests of the country as a whole. Herein lies the justification for giving to all
Centre certain overriding powers to be used in an emergency."
Overall, Ambedkar conceded that if certain principles of the Constitution are not agreeable
to some, the future generation may depart from it. He cited Thomas Jefferson (one of the
founding fathers of America) to argue that the present Constitution binds the present
generation and not the future generations who may validly amend or change it.
Q 37. 30642205 According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which Constitutions did not face the
problem of amendments like the Indian Constitution?
a) American, Canadian, Australian b) South African, Pakistan, Canadian
c) Canadian, Nepal, Australian d) Australian, Singapore, American
Q 38. 30642205 What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar emphasize as the crucial factor for the
effective functioning of the Constitution?
a) Judicial System b) Bureaucracy
c) d) Military Forces
Functionaries - People and Political Parties
Q 39. 30642205 What was the main rebuttal made by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar against the
allegation of excessive centralization in the Constitution?
a) b)
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a) b)
States have equal powers with the Centre Centre's overriding powers are confined to
emergencies
c) Centre has no powers over states d) States can override the Centre
Q 40. 30642205 What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar state about the residual loyalty of citizens in
an emergency situation?
a) It must be to the Constituent States b) It is irrelevant
c) It must be to the Centre d) It depends on the political parties
Q 41. 30642205 According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, what might future generations validly do
with the Constitution?
a) Ignore it b) Change it c) Preserve it d) Criticize it
Q 42. 30642205 What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consider as the justification for giving
overriding powers to the Centre in emergencies?
a) Ensuring dominance over states b)

Focusing on general interests of the country
as a whole
c) Centralizing powers permanently d) Weakening the political parties
Passage – 4
Russian President Vladimir Putin on September 30 insisted that the residents of four
Ukrainian regions that Moscow illegally annexed a year ago "made their choice - to be with
their Fatherland."
In an address released in the early hours to mark the first anniversary of the annexation,
Mr. Putin insisted that it was carried out "in full accordance with international norms." He
also claimed that residents of the Donetsk, Luhansk, Zaporizhzhia and Kherson regions
had again expressed their desire to be part of Russia in local elections earlier this month, in
which Russia's Central Election Commission said that the country's ruling party won the
most votes.
The West has denounced both the referendum votes carried out last year and the recent
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ballots as a sham. The votes were held as Russian authorities attempted to tighten their
grip on territories Moscow illegally annexed a year ago and still does not fully control. A
concert was held in Red Square on September 29 to mark the anniversary, but Mr. Putin did
not participate.
The address came after Russia's Defense Ministry said September 29 it would enlist
130,000 men for compulsory military service this fall, beginning Oct. 1 in most regions of
the country. It announced it would for the first time begin enlisting residents of the annexed
territories as part of its twice-yearly military conscription campaign. Russia says conscripts
are not deployed to what it calls its "special military operation" in Ukraine, or to serve in the
annexed territories. However, after their service, conscripts automatically become
reservists, and Russia has previously deployed reservists to Ukraine.
Q 43. 30642205 In which regions did Russia claim victory for the United Russia party in
local ballots?
a) Kharkiv, Luhansk, Odesa, Donetsk b)

Donetsk, Lugansk, Kherson, Zaporizhzhia
c) Kyiv, Lviv, Dnipropetrovsk, Chernihiv d) Zaporizhzhia, Kharkiv, Kyiv, Crimea
Q 44. 30642205 What is the main demand of Russia concerning NATO's relationship with
Ukraine?
a) Russia wants Ukraine to join NATO
b) Russia demands NATO abandon military activity in Eastern Europe

c) Russia supports NATO expansion
d) Russia wants NATO to intervene in the conflict
Q 45. 30642205 How did Ukraine and its allies characterize the elections in the occupied
territories conducted by Russia?
a) Free and fair b) Legitimate c) Sham d) Transparent
Q 46. 30642205 What triggered the Euromaidan protests in Ukraine in 2013?
a) Suspension of an association agreement with the European Union
b) Economic recession
c) Political corruption
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d) Military aggression from Russia
Q 47. 30642205 What was the reason for Russia's annexation of the Crimean Peninsula in
2014?
a) b) To establish military bases

To protect its port access on the Black Sea c) To counter NATO expansion
d) To gain control of natural resources
Q 48. 30642205 What role has India played in the context of the Ukraine conflict?
a) b) Supporting Russia c) d)
Actively supporting Adopting a neutral Leading peace
Ukraine stance negotiations
Passage – 5
India demonstrated the capability of the Akash missile system to engage four aerial targets
simultaneously at a range of 25 kilometres, the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) said. It said India became the first country to have such a capability
using a single firing unit. It is learnt that the capability of the home-grown missile system
was displayed at the 'Astrashakti' military exercise on December 12.
The exercise was held by the Indian Air Force. The Akash, with a range of up to 25 km, is a
short-range surface to air missile primarily used for protecting vulnerable areas and points
from air attacks. The missile system is among the key platforms that India is exporting to
friendly foreign countries. The other key platforms that India has been exporting are
Dornier-228 aircraft, 155 mm Advanced Towed Artillery Guns (ATAGs), Brahmos missiles,
mine protected vehicles, armoured vehicles, ammunition, thermal imagers and various
components of avionics and small arms.
Q 49. 30642205 India demonstrated the capability of the Akash missile system to engage
four aerial targets simultaneously at a range of 25 kilometres. India became the
__________country to have such a capability using a single firing unit.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth
Q 50. 30642205 Name one institution that played a major role in bringing India to the
forefront.
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a) DRDO b) c) ISRO d) HAL
Indian Oil Corporation
Q 51. 30642205 What is the former name of Dr. Abdul Kalam Island?
a) Azad Island b) c) Wheeler Island d) Kalamabad Island

Independence Island
Q 52. 30642205 What is the primary function of the Integrated Test Range missile testing
facility on Dr. Abdul Kalam Island?
a) b) Satellite launching c) Missile testing d) Marine research

Nuclear power
generation
Legal Aptitude
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.
Passage – 1
Sections 96 to 106 of the IPC outline the legal provisions regarding the right of private
defense. While it is the state's duty to safeguard the life and property of its citizens, it is
practically impossible for the state to oversee every citizen's actions. Therefore, the IPC
grants the right of private defense to individuals. The law of private defense is based on two
fundamental principles: firstly, individuals have the right to defend their own body and
property, as well as the body and property of others; and secondly, this right does not apply
if the accused is the aggressor.
Section 96 of the IPC states that any act performed in the exercise of the right of private
defense is not considered an offense. Section 97 establishes the right of private defense for
both the body and property. It permits individuals to defend their own body or the body of
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:
another person against offenses that endanger human life. Additionally, it allows for the
defense of movable or immovable property against acts falling under the definitions of theft,
robbery, mischief, criminal trespass, or attempts thereof. Section 98 states that the right of
private defense is applicable even when the person committing an act would not be
considered guilty due to factors such as immaturity, unsoundness of mind, intoxication, or
misconception. However, this defense is limited to situations where the act would be
considered an offense. Section 99 lists situations in which the right of private defense is not
applicable. These include acts committed by public servants acting in good faith, acts
carried out under the authority or direction of a public servant, cases where there is
sufficient time to seek recourse from public authority, and instances where the harm caused
exceeds what is necessary for defense. Section 100 specifies the conditions under which
the right of private defense of the body extends to causing death. It requires that the person
exercising the right must not be at fault in initiating the encounter, there must be an
impending harm such as rape, kidnapping, or wrongful confinement, there must be no
reasonable mode of escape or retreat, and there must be a necessity to take the assailant's
life. Sections 101 to 106 provide further details on the extent and duration of the right of
private defense for both the body and property. They outline circumstances when this right
extends to causing harm or death, and the commencement and continuance of the right of
private defense in various situations.
(Edited passage from https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/readersblog/indiastatistics/save-

lakshadweep-33051/)
Q 53. 30642205 Sam and Vani were playing hide and seek at Vani's house. Sam was
getting caught again and again so out of frustration of losing he started an argument with
Vani saying she is winning because it is her house and she is aware of all the good places
to hide. Such an allegation made Vani furious. She shouted "I will kill you, Sam liar" and
saying so she started running towards him while raising her fist. Sam in order to protect
himself took a knife from dining table and cut Vani's throat. Decide-
a)
The act done by Sam was in self-defence as Vani shouted at him saying "I will kill you, Sam
liar" and there is an immediate danger.
b)
The act done by Sam was in self-defence as Vani after saying she is going to kill him,
started running towards him with a raised fist. Thus, there was a reasonable apprehension
of death.
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:
c) The act done by Sam was not in self-defence as he exceeded his right to self-defence.
d)
Sam shouldn't have in first place made such comments and allegations and being the one
the ignite the fight he cannot take defence of self-defence.
Q 54. 30642205 Deepak was walking on roads of Shor Bazar when he noticed a person
with a gun walking towards a man who had hefty amount of cash in his hand. It was very
clear that the gunman was going to shoot the other person. So, in order to protect him he
picked a rock from floor and hit on gunman's head as a result of which he died. Decide-
a)
Deepak can claim the right of private defense under Section 100 of the IPC due to absence
of any fault on his part, the presence of imminent harm, and no reasonable mode of
escape.
b)
Deepak can argue that he acted in the defense of another person's body and property
under Section 97 of the IPC.
c)
Deepak can potentially claim the right of private defense of property under Section 103 of
the IPC.
d)
If Deepak's actions were deemed necessary to protect the life of the person being targeted
by the gunman, he may be able to establish a valid defense under the principles.
Q 55. 30642205 Piku was beating Ziku severely. So in order to protect himself Ziku wakes
up and attacks Piku and kills him to death though he heard the siren of police and knew that
police had reached the location to help him. Just before Ziku was about to kill Piku police
entered but he didn't stop and killed Piku. Decide.
a)
No, the Ziku is not liable because he acted in the exercise of his right of private defense
under Section 100 of the IPC.
b)
Yes, the Ziku is liable because he did not exhaust all reasonable means to escape or seek
help before resorting to lethal force, which exceeds the limits of private defense.
c)
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:
c)
No, the Ziku is not liable as he was defending himself against an imminent threat to his life
and used necessary force.
d)
Yes, the Ziku is liable because causing the death of the Piku was not proportionate to the
threat faced and went beyond the scope of reasonable self-defence.
Q 56. 30642205 Raju and Gundabhai have been enemies to each other since a long time.
They hate each other and always argue with each other on petty issues. One day
Gundhabhai calls Raju on phone and says that he was missing his dog and he feels that
Raju's face resembles the face of his dog, therefore he wants to see him. This makes Raju
furious and on call threatens Gundabhai saying that "One day he will kill him." Gundabhai in
self-defence goes to Raju's house and shot him. Decide-
a)
Yes, Gundabhai's actions can be considered as private defense as he believed there was
an imminent threat to his life based on Raju's statement.
b)
No, Gundabhai's actions cannot be considered as private defense as Raju's threatening
statement was made over a phone call and did not pose an immediate danger to
Gundabhai's life.
c)
Yes, Gundabhai's actions can be considered as private defense as he reasonably believed
that Raju posed a threat to his life based on their long-standing enmity and history of
arguments.
d)
No, Gundabhai's actions cannot be considered as private defense as there was no
immediate threat to Gundabhai's life at the time he went to Raju's house to confront him.
Q 57. 30642205 Dev was walking in Peace Park one evening. Usually, the park remained
filled with dozens of people but due to rain there was no one in the park. While walking, Dev
saw a dog running towards him, so to protect himself he took the revolver out, which he
used to carry for emergency situations. But as soon as he pointed revolver towards the dog,
it changed its way and ran but Dev nevertheless still shot him. Decide-
a)
Yes, Dev's actions can be considered as private defense as he reasonably believed that the
dog posed an imminent threat to his life or safety.
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:
dog posed an imminent threat to his life or safety.
b)
No, Dev's actions cannot be considered as private defense as the dog did not pose an
immediate danger to his life or safety at the time, he shot it.
c)
Yes, Dev's actions can be considered as private defense as he acted in response to a
perceived threat and used necessary force to protect himself.
d)
No, Dev's actions cannot be considered as private defense as he had the opportunity to
retreat or seek alternative means to ensure his safety without resorting to shooting the dog.
Q 58. 30642205 Under Section 100 of the IPC, in which of the following situations does the
right of private defense of the body extend to causing death?
a) When there is an act of aggression by the person exercising the right.
b) When there is a threat of petty theft.

c) When there is an assault with the intent to kidnap or wrongfully confine.
d) When there is ample time to seek help from public authorities.
Q 59. 30642205 According to the passage on the right of private defense under the IPC,
what are the limitations to this right as specified in Section 99?
a) When the act is committed by a person of unsound mind or a child.
b)
When the act is committed against a public servant acting in good faith within the limits of
their authority.
c)
When there is a necessity to cause any harm to protect one's property from theft during the
night.
d)
When the person exercising the right has initiated the encounter with the intention to cause
harm.
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:
applied.
Passage – 2
Consideration is the price paid for a promise. As per Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act
1872, an agreement without consideration is void, subject to certain exceptions under
Section 25, as consideration is one of the essentials of a valid contract. A contract
supported by consideration makes it legally enforceable and makes the obligations of the
parties binding upon them. In the absence of consideration, such an agreement would be
merely a gratuitous one and not legally enforceable. Consideration can be to the benefit of
one party and to the detriment of the other. In the words of Pollock and Mulla,
"Consideration is the act, forbearance, or promise done or given at the request of the
promisor to any other person." The detriment of one party is sufficient even if the promisor
is not benefited from the promise. It is the price for which the promise of the other is bought.
Consideration, in order to be valid, must be real, substantial, and adequate. This article
shall try to deal with the concept of consideration and its types as incorporated under the
Indian Contract Act of 1872. Consideration, as given under Section 2(d) of the Indian
Contract Act, 1872, defines it as "when at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any
other person has done or abstained from doing something, does or abstains from doing or
promises to do or to abstain from doing something. Such an act, abstinence or promise is
called a consideration for the promise". In order to understand the definition of
consideration, one must try to study its essentials which are embedded in the above-
mentioned definition. The nature of consideration can be of two types. They are:
Unilateral consideration- The contracts under which the promisor offers to pay only after
the occurrence of a specified event. In other words, the promisor is willing to pay for the
promise. Under unilateral consideration, it moves only in a single direction. Under such a
contract, only the promisor is legally bound to fulfil his promise within the prescribed time
duration.
Bilateral consideration- The contract where both parties are under an obligation to fulfil
their respective promises is known as bilateral consideration. Here, the parties involved
must be at least two, unlike that of a unilateral consideration where only the promisor is
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:
bound to fulfil his promise. Under such contracts, consideration moves in either direction.
https://www.taxmann.com/post/blog/consideration-under-the-indian-contract-act-1872
Q 60. 30642205 B has just shifted to Cars colony. This area is very famous for rich car
owners who usually sell their cars for very nominal price. B meets A here and befriends
him. He comes to know that A is looking for a buyer for his car. A enters into contract with B
for sale of car. A is going to provide B his Mercedes car and B is going to pay Rs. 1000 for
it. Decide-
a) b)
There is a valid consideration from side of A There is a valid consideration from side of B
but not B. but not A.
c) d) None of the above.
There is a valid consideration from side of
both A and B.
Q 61. 30642205 Y owns a massage lounge which works for free. It remains open between
9 am to 9 pm. One-day X visit Y at 10 pm and ask for massage which Y refuses. X
promises to pay Y rupees 20 if Y gives him a shoulder massage. Y agrees and a contract is
formed between both the parties. Decide
a) There is a valid consideration from side of both X and Y.
b)
There is a valid consideration from side of X but not Y because a consideration should must
be tangible.
c)
There is a valid consideration from side of Y but not X because 20 rupees is very less
amount.
d) None of the above.
Q 62. 30642205 Mr Raj owns a dog Pappu whom he loves very much and takes it on
walks very often. One day while walking he gets a call; he picks up the call and forgets
about Pappu and Pappu is lost. He then makes an offer to Mr Rahul to find his lost dog for
which he would pay him Rs. 100. Decide-
a) There is a valid consideration from side of both Mr. Raj and Mr. Rahul.
b) There is no consideration from side of Mr Rahul, thus it is not a valid offer.
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b) There is no consideration from side of Mr Rahul, thus it is not a valid offer.
c) Mr. Raj should have been more careful towards his dog.
d)
It is a unilateral consideration and Mr Rahul is under no obligation to accept the offer and it
is up to him to accept it or not.
Q 63. 30642205 Rao and Tim are long known friends. Rao owns a car which Tim likes a
lot. One-day Rao enters into a sale agreement with Tim to transfer the title of the car to him
upon receiving consideration for the same of Rs. 2 lacks within the prescribed time
duration. Decide-
a) It is a valid agreement where consideration is bilateral.
b) It is valid agreement where consideration is unilateral.

c) It is not a valid agreement since consideration is not sufficient.
d) It is not a valid agreement since consideration is illegal.
Q 64. 30642205 Sita is best friend of Geeta. Sita owns an old doll which costed around 20
rupees but she sells her doll to Geeta for 10,000 rupees. Geeta agrees as she really likes
the doll and is really happy. Decide-
a) It is a valid consideration because as the amount has value in the eyes of law.
b) It is a valid unilateral consideration.

c) It is not a valid consideration since a hug doesn't counts something under consideration.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 65. 30642205 What is the nature of consideration in a unilateral contract as per the
Indian Contract Act of 1872?
a) Consideration is provided by both parties after the fulfilment of the contract.
b) Consideration is paid by the promisor only before a specified event occurs.

c) Consideration moves only in a single direction, from the promisee to the promisor.
d)
Consideration moves only in a single direction, and only the promisor is legally bound to
fulfil his promise.
Q 66. 30642205 According to the provided passage on the Indian Contract Act of 1872,
what must consideration be in order to be considered valid?
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what must consideration be in order to be considered valid?
a) Real, substantial, and adequate. b) Large, detailed, and written.
c) d) Nominal, symbolic, and formal.

Speculative, future-oriented, and potential.
applied.
Passage – 3
The term "homicide" originates from Latin, signifying the killing of a human being by another
human being. In the context of Indian law, culpable homicide is defined by Section 299 of
the Indian Penal Code (IPC). According to this section, culpable homicide occurs when an
individual causes the death of another person by engaging in an act with the intention of
causing death, or by performing an act with the intention of causing severe bodily injury
likely to lead to death, or by committing an act with the knowledge that it is likely to cause
death.
Culpable homicide is broadly classified into two categories: culpable homicide amounting to
murder and culpable homicide not amounting to murder. It is essential to understand that
murder is a specific type of culpable homicide. Section 300 of the IPC defines murder,
which falls within the ambit of culpable homicide.
Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is not specifically defined as a distinct offense
in the IPC; rather, it is encompassed within the definition of murder provided in Section 300.
However, the IPC outlines several exceptions (Exceptions 1 to 5 of Section 300) where
culpable homicide may not amount to murder. These exceptions include situations involving
provocation, the exercise of the right to private defense, instances where a public servant
exceeds their lawful powers, sudden fights, and cases with the consent of the victim.
It is crucial to note that while all murder falls under the category of culpable homicide, not all
culpable homicide amounts to murder. Murder is a species of culpable homicide, and it
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requires specific intent and circumstances as outlined in Section 300 of the IPC.
The legal framework clarifies the elements necessary for culpable homicide, emphasizing
intention, knowledge, and the potential for causing death. The exceptions provide situations
where culpable homicide may be mitigated and not classified as murder.
( Edited from https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/salman-khans-hit-and-run-case-what-

is-culpable-homicide/ articleshow/47173696.cms )
Q 67. 30642205 Radha and Mohan goes to park to play hide and seek. Mohan goes and
hides behind a bush and Radha starts finding him. Meanwhile, Rohan with a gun enters the
park and asks Radha would he like to play with his gun and Radha agrees. Rohan saw
Mohan going and hiding behind bush when he was entering the park but still Rohan
persuades Radha to shoot at bush with intent of causing death of Mohan. Radha shoots
and Mohan dies as a result of this act. Decide-
a) Radha is liable for culpable homicide but Rohan is innocent as Radha shot the bullet.
b) Both are liable for death of Mohan as Rohan instructed Radha and she shot the bullet.
c)
Rohan is liable for culpable homicide as he intended to kill Mohan and Radha being totally
unaware of this is innocent.
d)
Rohan is liable for murder as he intended to kill Mohan and Radha being totally unaware of
this is innocent.
Q 68. 30642205 Billie is suffering from diabetes and is on a proper diet in which sugar is
completely excluded. Jade is very much aware for her condition. One day Jade brings a
box of sugar free candies and force Billie to take them saying its safe and very tasty. Jade
did this to cause death of Billie by raising her sugar level and as intended happened.
Decide-
a) Jade is liable for murder has he had intention to kill Billie and acted in furtherance.
b)
Jade is liable for Culpable homicide has he had intention to kill Billie and acted in
furtherance.
c)
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Jade is not liable as the candies were sugar free and Jade couldn't have expected the
consequences.
d) Jade is not liable as raising sugar level of someone is not a criminally dangerous act.
Q 69. 30642205 Rathi is in labour at YC hospital but is yet to deliver baby. The nurse goes
out of the room to talk to her husband on phone in duty hours. When she's outside head of
the child emerges out of the womb as a result of which he dies. Decide-
a)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are liable for culpable homicide not amounting to
murder as child died due to their lack of care.
b)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are liable for culpable homicide amounting to murder as
child died due to their lack of care.
c)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are not liable for culpable homicide as they had no
intention to kill the child.
d)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are not liable for culpable homicide but are liable to tort
of negligence.
Q 70. 30642205 Chamiya was a local goon gang of the city. The head of the gang Pintu is
in love with Mr. Tiwari's daughter Lila but this relation is not acceptable to Mr. Tiwari. So in
order to escape from Pintu, he made his daughter forcefully marry to a person Raj is
America. Few days after the marriage Pintu out of anguish goes to grocery store of Mr.
Tiwari and starts firing at him. A girl who came to buy some grocery at the store also gets hit
by the bullet and both dies. Decide-
a) The whole Chamiya gang is liable for spreading lawlessness in city.
b) Pintu is liable for culpable homicide of both Mr Tiwari and the girl.
c) Pintu is liable for culpable homicide of only the girl.
Q 71. 30642205 Sara hated Tara as she was very pretty and even Sara's crush Tam liked
Tara. One day in order to take revenge Sara pushed Tara from stairs so she may die but
Tam saw Tara falling down and immediately called ambulance however, on reaching
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hospital urgent medical aid could not be provided to her as a result of which she died.
Decide Sara's Liability.
a) Sara is criminally liable for culpable homicide of Tara.
b) Sara is not liable as she was jealous of Tara and the act she done was out of emotions.
c) Hospital authorities are liable for not providing urgent medical aid.
d) Sara is not liable for death of Tara as it was not direct consequence of her actions.
Q 72. 30642205 In the context of Indian law, under what circumstances can culpable
homicide not amount to murder, according to Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code?
a)
When the act causing death is done with the intention to cause bodily injury that is likely to
cause death.
b) When the act is done with the consent of the person who dies.
c)
When the act causing death is done with the intention of causing death or severe bodily
injury.
d) When the act is committed with premeditation and malice.
applied.
Passage – 4
The Kerala High Court set aside the order of the Thiruvananthapuram Additional Sessions
Court, which had discharged IAS officer Sriram Venkitaraman from the charge of culpable
homicide not amounting to murder in a road accident case that resulted in the death of
journalist K. M. Basheer. The State government had filed a revision petition challenging the
discharge.
According to the Indian Penal Code, culpable homicide amounts to murder if the act
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causing death is done with the intention of causing death, or if it is done with the intention of
causing such bodily injury that the offender knows is likely to cause death, or if it is done
with the aim of inflicting physical damage on another person resulting in death in the regular
course of nature, or if the act is conducted with the knowledge that it is likely to result in
death or bodily harm without any justification for risking death or injury.
Murder is punishable under Section 302 of the IPC, with a penalty of death or life
imprisonment, along with a fine. Life imprisonment is now the rule, and death sentence the
exception, as per the Code of Criminal Procedure. The court must establish specific
reasons for imposing a death sentence.
In this case, the Kerala High Court found that the act causing the death of journalist K. M.
Basheer was not within the scope of culpable homicide not amounting to murder under
Section 304, but rather it fell under Section 302, making it a case of murder. The High
Court's decision implies that Sriram Venkitaraman will now face trial for the charge of
murder.
(Added and edited from https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/hc-sets-aside-

discharge-of-ias-officersriram- venkitaraman-from-the-culpable-homicide-
charge/article66732360.ece )
Q 73. 30642205 Tittu is doctor of Bittu. He knows that Bittu is suffering from severe illness
in which a blow is likely to kill him. Tittu hits Bittu knowing the fact that even a 'not so severe
blow' can also cause death to Bittu. Is Tittu liable for murder?
a)
No, Tittu is not liable for murder because the blow was not sufficient to cause death to a
normal person.
b) No, he is not liable for murder because Bittu inflicted some danger upon Tittu.
c) Yes he is liable for culpable homicide and should be punished.
d)
Yes, he is liable for murder because Tittu knew that Bittu is suffering from the illness in
which a blow is likely to cause him death.
Q 74. 30642205 Baazigar and Sholay are enemies and often keep fighting. One day
Baazigar was in market looking for a good sword. He saw Sholay coming to a shop nearby
so in order to try whether the sword he has selected is good or not he gives a club-wound
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so in order to try whether the sword he has selected is good or not he gives a club-wound
to Sholay. As a result of the wound inflicted upon him, Sholay dies. Decide whether
Baazigar is liable for murder?
a)
Baazigar is liable for murder as he and Sholay were long known enemies and he must have
intended to kill him.
b) Baazigar is liable for murder as he gave a club-wound to Sholay purposefully.
c)
Baazigar is not liable for murder as he was just testing the sword and did not intend to kill
Sholay.
d) Sholay was a threat to Baazigar's life, thus, deserved to die.
Q 75. 30642205 In a bustling and crowded market, a person identified as A arrived with a
gun firmly grasped in his hands, exuding an aura of danger. With no specific target in mind,
A callously unleashed a barrage of bullets into the chaotic surroundings, oblivious to the
potential harm his reckless actions could cause. Tragically, amidst the chaos, an innocent
individual named B fell victim to the hail of gunfire, succumbing to the fatal injuries inflicted
upon them.
a)
A is not liable for murder as he had no intention to kill B which is an important element of
murder.
b) A is liable for murder as his act caused death of B.
c) A is not liable for murder as he was firing in air and B came in between.
d) A is not liable for murder as it was a mere accident.
Q 76. 30642205 T and S are friends and they keep on pranking each other. One day T
decided that when S will enter room T will through sunflowers on him but little did, he knew
S was allergic to sunflowers. So, due to prank done by T, S faced severe illness and died in
the end. Decide-
a)
T is liable for murder has was friend of S from a very long time and he must be aware of
allergy and did this intentionally.
b) T is not liable for murder as pranks between friends are very normal today.
c)
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c)
T is liable for murder as sunflower contains harmful chemical likely to cause death of
anyone.
d) T is not liable for murder as Sunflowers in regular course aren't likely to kill anyone.
Q 77. 30642205 Ansar was riding bike at 120 km/h on Magsa road. Magsa road usually
remains empty as people consider this road to be house of ghost and no one has visited it
since past 2 years. While driving a child comes in between the road and Ansar's bike hits
him. As a result, he dies. Decide-
a)
Ansar is liable for murder as driving bike at 120 km/h is dangerous act likely to kill
someone.
b)
Ansar is liable for murder as driving bike at 120 km/h is dangerous act likely to kill
someone.
c)
Ansar is liable for murder as he should have been ready for such an instance while driving.
Q 78. 30642205 What was the significant implication of the Kerala High Court's decision in
the case where IAS officer Sriram Venkitaraman was involved in a road accident resulting in
the death of journalist K. M. Basheer?
a) Sriram Venkitaraman was discharged of all charges and the case was closed.
b)
The charge against Sriram Venkitaraman was changed from culpable homicide not
amounting to murder to murder under Section 302 of the IPC.
c)
Sriram Venkitaraman was charged under Section 304 for culpable homicide not amounting
to murder.
d) The court imposed a fine on Sriram Venkitaraman without any imprisonment.
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applied.
Passage – 5
The Pakistan Cricket Board (PCB) has included "wagering deal support" in the bid
document for media rights consulting services, which means they are looking for a
consultant with experience in dealing with media rights, sponsorship, and wagering deals.
However, wagering agreements are not enforceable in any court of law, according to
Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as they have been expressly declared void.
A wagering agreement is an agreement where two parties agree to pay a fixed sum of
money on the happening or non-happening of an uncertain future event. The parties have
no material interest in the event other than the mutual chances of winning or losing, and
both parties have an equal chance of winning or losing the wager. Wagering agreements
are void, and no suit can be filed in court to recover anything claimed to be won in any
wager or non-compliance of any party to abide by the results of the wager.
However, there are some exceptions to the rule. Insurance contracts, skill competitions,
horse racing competitions authorized by state governments, and share market transactions,
except if the only intention is to settle the price difference, are not considered wagers.
Insurance contracts are contracts of indemnity that safeguard the interest of one party
against damage and have an insurable interest, while wagering contracts have no interest
in the happening or non-happening of an event. Skill competitions require a substantial
amount of skill to win, and horse racing competitions authorized by state governments are
not considered unlawful as long as the contribution for the reward is not more than Rs 500.
Purchase and sale of stocks with the intention to give and take delivery of shares do not
amount to a wager, except if the only intention is to settle the price difference, which would
make it a wager.
https://www.outlookindia.com/website/story/sports-news-pakistan-cricket-board-set-to-hire-
firm-to-ensure-mediabroadcasting- rights/352022
Q 79. 30642205 The owner of a truck transferred it in a benami manner i.e illegally to
another party. Later the truck met with a major accident which injured a young army officer
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who claimed heavy damages from the owner, the benamidar and the insurance company. A
plea was raised that a benamidar had no insurable interest which is why it was a wager.
Decide-
a)
The plea should be accepted by the court and benamidar should not be held liable to pay.
b) The plea should be accepted by the court and benamidar should be made liable to pay.
c) Insurance company is liable pay and not the benamidar.
d) It was merely an act of god, thus, no one should be made liable.
Q 80. 30642205 Ram and Sham went to a chess club where all the people come and play
chess for free. It is a government regulated club established for increasing interest in chess
of younger generation. They decided to play Chess and the losing party was liable to pay
100 rupees to winning party. Ram won and claimed money but Sham denied it saying it is
wager. Decide?
a) Sham is not liable to pay as games are based on Chance and not skill.
b) Sham is not liable to pay as it was a mere bet and betting is illegal.
c) Sham is liable to pay as chess is a game of skill and not chance.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 81. 30642205 Sitaramn is a common man who lives near baji colony. One day in baji
colony a man comes for selling lottery ticket. He also bought a lottery ticket along with other
neighbours for rupees 1 lac and luckily he won the lottery. But the lottery company refused
to pay money. Decide-
a) Lottery company is liable to pay as it is breach of contract.
b) Lottery company is not liable to pay as contract was void ab initio.
c)
Lottery company is liable to pay since Sitaramn spent 1 lac rupees in purchasing the lottery
ticket.
d) Lottery company is not liable to pay but the person who sold the lottery ticket is liable.
Q 82. 30642205 A horse racing competition was organised in state of Rajgir by Amarchand
sports organisation which is a government organisation. Thousands of participant took part
in it. Top 100 people were to be selected out as winner of the competition and rupees 500
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:
in it. Top 100 people were to be selected out as winner of the competition and rupees 500
was price money for all the 100 participant. Decide whether it is a lawful competition?
a) It is unlawful since price money is not more than 500.
b) It is unlawful since horse racing is a game of Chance and not skill.

c)
It is lawful as 500 rupees price money was for hundreds of people making it a good amount.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 83. 30642205 A horse racing competition was organised in state of Rajgir organised by a
private organisation. Thousands of participants took part in it. Top 100 people were to be
selected out as winner of the competition and rupees 500 was price money for all the 100
participants. Decide whether it is a lawful competition?
a) It is unlawful since price money is not more than 500.
b) It is unlawful since horse racing is a game of Chance and not skill.

c)
It is lawful as 500 rupees price money was for hundreds of people making it a good amount.
d) It is unlawful since nowhere it is stated that state of Rajgir has allowed horse racing.
Q 84. 30642205 Why are wagering agreements considered void under the Indian Contract
Act, 1872?
a) Because they involve a mutual interest in the occurrence of an event.
b)
Because they are agreements where parties agree to pay money based on the outcome of
an uncertain event, without any other material interest.
c) Because they are always enforceable in a court of law.
d) Because they involve a high degree of skill and are therefore not based on chance.
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages and answer the questions that
follow.
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:
Passage – 1
Imagine you've just been appointed as a consultant for a renowned hospitality business
facing a decline in service quality. The company operates a chain of upscale hotels and
resorts, and the management is worried about negative customer feedback and decreasing
customer satisfaction. Your mission is to unearth the root causes of this decline and
propose solutions.
As you embark on your investigation, you collect information and observe the following:
• The company recently implemented a new customer service system aimed at improving
efficiency. However, this system requires staff with specialized training.
• The introduction of the new customer service system highlighted significant gaps in staff
training programs.
• Communication breakdowns between different departments, exacerbated by the new
system, have led to delays in resolving guest issues.
• Customer complaints about service quality have surged in recent months. The diminishing
service quality is directly affecting the overall guest experience.
• The existing feedback mechanisms lack clarity and accessibility for guests. This has
resulted in missed opportunities to collect valuable insights and promptly address customer
concerns.
• The hospitality industry is currently facing increased competition for skilled and
experienced staff.
The company is finding it challenging to attract and retain top talent, further impacting
service quality.
Q 85. 30642205 Based on the information provided, which of the following is a potential
root cause of the decline in service quality?
a) b)
The communication breakdowns between The lack of effective feedback mechanisms.
departments. c) The gaps in staff training programs.
d)
The implementation of a new customer
service system.
Q 86. 30642205 What makes the communication breakdowns between different

departments a potential contributing factor to the decline in service quality?
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:
a) b)
They are caused by the new customer They lead to delays in resolving guest
service system. issues.
c) d) They affect the overall guest experience.
They highlight gaps in staff training
programs.
Q 87. 30642205 What is the most critical challenge that can be understood in the
hospitality business's situation?
a) b)
Operating in an upscale segment with high Staff and culture not being aligned with the
expectations. new system.
c) d)
Surge in customer complaints damaging Competition for skilled staff reducing talent
reputation. pool.
Q 88. 30642205 What is the key weakness of the company's feedback mechanisms?
a) They are not aligned with the company's goals and values.
b) They are hard to locate and confusing to navigate.

c) They are not integrated with the new customer service system.
d) They are not responsive and proactive to customer concerns.
Q 89. 30642205 What could be the best possible solution to attract and retain top talent?
a) Invest in a comprehensive staff training program.
b) Enhance the existing customer feedback mechanisms.

c) Revert to the previous customer service system.
d) Increase wages, benefits to stay competitive in the job market.
Q 90. 30642205 Based on the information provided, what is a potential cause of the
communication breakdowns between different departments?
a)
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:
The new customer service system is incompatible with the existing communication
channels.
b)
The staff lack the necessary skills and knowledge to use the new customer service system.
c) The new customer service system has increased the workload and stress of the staff.
d) The staff are dissatisfied with the new customer service system and resist using it.
follow.
Passage – 2
The concept of beauty has been a subject of philosophical inquiry since ancient times.
What makes something beautiful? Is beauty objective or subjective? How does beauty
relate to morality, art, and culture? These are some of the questions that have fascinated
thinkers and artists throughout history. One of the most influential theories of beauty was
proposed by Plato, who argued that beauty is a form of perfection that transcends the
physical world. According to Plato, beauty is an eternal and unchanging idea that exists in a
higher realm of reality, and can only be accessed by the intellect. He believed that the
physical objects and phenomena that we perceive as beautiful are merely imperfect
reflections of the ideal beauty, and that the true appreciation of beauty requires a rational
and philosophical mind. However, Plato's theory of beauty has been challenged by many
critics, who argue that beauty is not a fixed and universal concept, but a relative and
subjective one. They claim that beauty is not a property of things in themselves, but a
judgment of the observer, based on their personal preferences, emotions, and cultural
background. They point out that different people and societies have different standards and
criteria for beauty, and that what is considered beautiful in one context may be regarded as
ugly or indifferent in another.
Q 91. 30642205 What is the central theme of the passage?
a)
The history of philosophical inquiry on beauty as progressed from Plato's stance on beauty.
b) The comparison between Plato's and other critics' theories of beauty.
c) The definition and explanation of Plato's theory of beauty

d) Critiques of Plato's Theory
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:
Critiques of Plato's Theory
Q 92. 30642205 In the context of the passage, what does 'beauty' symbolize, as per Plato?
a) An ephemeral and an unchanging idea that transcends reality.
b) A reflection of the moral, artistic, and cultural values of a society.

c) A dynamic and multifaceted phenomenon that reflects human experience.
d) An excellence that is not limited to the material realm.
Q 93. 30642205 Which of the following best describe the critic's view of beauty in relation
to Plato's view?
a) Critics challenge Plato's idea, arguing that beauty is a fixed and universal concept.
b) Critics claim that the true appreciation of beauty may not require personal preferences.
c) Critics believe that beauty lies in the judgment of the observer.
d)
Critics argue that physical objects are not the direct manifestations of the higher realm of
reality.
Q 94. 30642205 "What is considered beautiful in one context may be regarded as ugly or
indifferent in another." Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above
statement?
a) Different contexts have a similar impact on the perception of beauty.
b) Beauty is an objective property inherent in things themselves.

c) The judgment of beauty is influenced by personal preferences and cultural backgrounds.
d) Plato's theory of beauty aligns with the idea that beauty is different in various contexts.
Q 95. 30642205 Which of the following strengthens the author's idea that "The concept of
beauty has been a subject of philosophical inquiry since ancient times"?
a)
The author mentions that different societies have different criteria for beauty, which shows
the diversity of opinions on beauty.
b)
The author states that beauty is a form of perfection that transcends the physical world,
which shows the complexity of this concept.
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:
c)
The author acknowledges that beauty is a subjective concept, which shows the openness
of the author to different perspectives on beauty.
d)
The author poses questions that have fascinated thinkers and artists throughout history,
which shows the enduring interest in this concept.
Q 96. 30642205 In the context of Plato's theory, what is the significance of the "rational and
philosophical mind"?
a) It is the only way to access the higher realm of reality where the ideal beauty exists.
b)
It is the form of perfection that transcends the physical world and reflects the eternal and
unchanging idea of beauty.
c)
It is the result of the true appreciation of beauty that requires a critical and analytical
approach.
d)
It is the standard and criterion for beauty that is fixed and universal for all people and
societies.
follow.
Passage – 3
In the ever-evolving landscape of education, the assessment systems employed to gauge

student performance have become a focal point of scrutiny. While ostensibly designed to
measure intellectual prowess, these systems often fall prey to inherent flaws that
compromise their efficacy and, more critically, hinder the holistic development of students. A
critical examination of contemporary educational assessment practices reveals a
disconcerting reality that demands immediate attention and reform.
One of the primary issues plaguing these systems is their overreliance on standardized
testing. The allure of quantifiable data has led educational institutions to place
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:
disproportionate emphasis on test scores, inadvertently promoting rote memorization over
genuine comprehension. The singular focus on standardized tests tends to stifle creativity
and critical thinking, reducing education to a mere exercise in regurgitation. This myopic
approach not only fails to capture the nuances of a student's intellectual capabilities but
also perpetuates a narrow definition of success that undermines the diverse talents and
aptitudes of learners.
Moreover, the undue pressure exerted by high-stakes testing creates an atmosphere of

anxiety and stress among students. The very essence of education, which should be an
enlightening journey of self-discovery and intellectual exploration, is overshadowed by the
relentless pursuit of high scores. This relentless pursuit often leaves students ill-prepared
for the complexities of real-world problem-solving, as the emphasis on memorization
overshadows the cultivation of critical skills essential for success in an increasingly dynamic
and interconnected global landscape.
Additionally, the rigid structure of assessment systems tends to overlook the multifaceted
nature of intelligence. By narrowly defining success through a limited set of criteria, these
systems neglect the development of crucial attributes such as emotional intelligence,
creativity, and adaptability-qualities that are indispensable in navigating the complexities of
modern life.
Q 97. 30642205 Which of the following statements is likely to be true as understood from
the passage?
a) The assessment systems are irrelevant and do not reflect student performance.
b) The assessment systems are biased and do not account for student diversity.
c) The assessment systems are flawed and do not foster student growth.
d) The assessment systems are outdated and do not match the educational landscape.
Q 98. 30642205 Which of the following is not true regarding the assessment systems as
per the opinion of the author?
a) Rigorous memorization is prioritised above true comprehension in standardised testing.
b)
Students experience anxiety and nervousness when they have extremely competitive
exams.
c)
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:
c)
As per present evaluation techniques, achieving high scores takes precedence over the
importance of education.
d)
Assessment methods with a fixed structure take into account the complex nature of
intelligence.
Q 99. 30642205 Which of the following statements best reflects the author's argument
regarding the narrow definition of success?
a) It is based on objective criteria that can be measured by standardized tests.
b)
It is detrimental to the holistic development of students and hinders their creativity and
critical thinking.
c) It is influenced by external factors that may not reflect one's true values or happiness.
d)
It is a result of social and cultural norms that impose unrealistic expectations on students
and teachers.
Q 100. 30642205 Which of the following is correct regarding the "real-world problem-
solving" mentioned by the author?
a) It is a skill that is neglected by the emphasis on memorization.
b) It is a talent that is not necessary for success in the contemporary world.
c) It is a gift that is synonymous with creativity and adaptability.
d) It is the ability that is dependent on emotional intelligence.
Q 101. 30642205 Which of the following statements reflects the very essence of education
as per the author?
a) It should be an insightful path of self-awareness and intellectual inquiry.
b) It should be a quantifiable measure of intellectual prowess and test scores.

c)
It should be aiding self-discovery, which comes from a rigid structure of standardized
testing.
d) It should be the definition of success, which offers intellectual exploration.
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:
Q 102. 30642205 Which of the following is not one of the aspects that facilitate the 'myopic
approach' as used in the passage?
a) Allure of quantifiable data b) Working hard for test scores
c) Emphasis on genuine comprehension d) Relentless focus on standardized tests
follow.
Passage – 4
Entrepreneurs have been excited over how blockchain solutions can secure their
transactions and investors over how these can increase their returns or disrupt their
markets. As much as digitalization has changed the country in recent years, there is a
common perception that at some point in the near future, blockchain shall revolutionize
everything in even more radical, amazing, and alarming ways. This is why determining how
the emerging innovations should be regulated is very crucial. SEBI has made a strong case
for an independent legal body to ensure the ethical development and use of blockchain in
the country, a global organization along similar lines shall probably be proposed at the G20
leaders' summit, and surprisingly even Swiss MNC Novartis has floated a framework for
blockchain governance in India. The huge scale and variety of its "data nodes" make India
of great interest to all developers of blockchain solutions.
But India is only at their consuming end, far behind the US and China's progress. Although
recently, it is becoming evident how much state interference is hindering China's large
distributed ledger, the country is still very much in the game with PhDs in fields related to
blockchain, investments in blockchain network infrastructure, and domestic platforms like
Ant Chain. The scientific achievements of India's Mangalyaan mission have seen it being
sought for various international space partnerships. This promises spinoff technological
advantages across Indian industry and is also geo-strategically beneficial. Similarly, it is
only with enough blockchain expertise that India shall really get to play at the top table of
global rulemaking for blockchain.
Knowing how much Indians' future shall be influenced by distributed blockchain requires
corresponding efforts to create indigenous platforms. In this and at this stage, a proactive
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:
government role is essential, rather than just waiting on some big corporation to do the
necessary. Missing this opportunity will after all be even more expensive than missing the
chip design one. Plus, GOI alone can push academia-industry collaborations with the
required force and urgency. This does not let other institutions off the hook. A US judge has
denied the patent for a blockchainbased invention. Indian courts should start engaging with
the wider issue of non-human agency rather than wait for precedence to be set elsewhere.
Indian schools need to think beyond the ban-Crypto mindset. Let us lead instead of only
being led.
Q 103. 30642205 With which of the following approaches is the author most likely to
advocate regarding the development and regulation of blockchain technology in India?
a) Advocating for a hands-off approach, leaving it to corporations to drive innovation.
b)
Urging the government to solely regulate blockchain development without involving other
institutions.
c)
Aiding the government in taking the initiative to develop domestic blockchain systems by
working with companies and researchers.
d)
Emphasizing complete reliance on international partnerships for blockchain advancement.
Q 104. 30642205 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the main argument
of the passage?
a)
Blockchain technology can provide a secure and transparent way of conducting
transactions and verifying identities across borders.
b)
Blockchain technology can enable new forms of decentralized governance and social
movements that challenge the existing power structures.
c)
Blockchain technology can foster innovation and collaboration among various stakeholders
in different sectors and industries.
d)
Blockchain technology can reduce the costs and risks associated with intermediaries and
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:
Blockchain technology can reduce the costs and risks associated with intermediaries and
third parties in financial services.
Q 105. 30642205 Based on the author's statement regarding Indian courts engaging with
the issue of non-human agency in blockchain technology, what is the author most likely to
agree with?
a)
Indian courts should avoid involvement in blockchain-related matters until international
precedence is established.
b)
Indian courts should prioritize setting precedents for non-human agency issues in
blockchain technology without external influence.
c)
Indian courts should wait for global organizations to address non-human agency concerns
in blockchain technology.
d)
Indian courts should collaborate with other international legal bodies to address non-human
agency issues in blockchain technology.
Q 106. 30642205 If the information in the passage above is correct, which of the following
must necessarily be true?
a)
The Indian government's active involvement is deemed crucial for the development of
indigenous blockchain platforms.
b)
The Mangalyaan mission's achievements have not impacted India's technological
advancements.
c)
SEBI's proposal for an independent legal body received unanimous support at the G20
leaders' summit
d)
The global rulemaking for blockchain primarily relies on Indian institutions and their
decisions.
Q 107. 30642205 Based on the author's arguments, which of the following would result in
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:
Q 107. 30642205 Based on the author's arguments, which of the following would result in
weakening, rather than strengthening India's position at the forefront of Blockchain?
a) Relying on foreign frameworks and standards for blockchain governance.
b) Developing indigenous blockchain platforms and applications.

c) Increased collaborations between Indian universities and international blockchain firms.
d) Leveraging the spinoff technological advantages from the Mangalyaan mission.
Q 108. 30642205 The author states that, "Missing this opportunity will after all be even
more expensive than missing the chip design one." For this statement to be true, with which
of the following statements about chip research must the author most likely agree?
a)
Chip research is a costly and risky venture that requires huge investments and expertise.
b)
Chip research is a mature and saturated field that offers little scope for innovation and
differentiation.
c) Chip design opportunities have been missed due to proactive government involvement.
d)
Missing opportunities in chip design has resulted in considerable economic consequences.
Mathematics
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
The information regarding the sales of HP brand laptops by three dealers - Faiz, Jashan
and Hero - during the period 2020 to 2023 has been given below.
The sales of Faiz was highest in 2020 at 4800 laptops and lowest in 2021 at 3200 laptops
whereas in 2022 the sales was the average of 2020 and 2021. In 2023 the sales of Faiz
was 10% less than the sales in 2022.
The average laptop sales by the three dealers in 2021 is 3600 such that Faiz, Jashan and
Hero respectively form an increasing Arithmetic Progression. In 2021 dealer Hero saw a
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:
20% drop in sales from the previous year whereas in 2022 and 2023 its sales saw an
increase of 10% and 20% respectively compared to 2021. The sales of dealer Jashan in
2020 was 10% more than its sales in 2021 whereas in 2022 it was 10% less than 2021. The
average sales of dealer Jashan in the 4 years was 4000.
Q 109. 30642205 Which dealer sold the highest number of laptops during the period 2020
to 2023?
a) Faiz b) Hero c) Jashan d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 110. 30642205 What is the average number of laptops sold by the three dealers during
2022?
a) 4200 b) 3480 c) 3880 d) 2860
Q 111. 30642205 The sales of Jashan in 2020 was approximately what percent of the
sales of Hero during the same year?
a) 79.2% b) 80.8% c) 92.2% d) 73.4%
Q 112. 30642205 During which of the above mentioned years was the total sales of all
three dealers the second highest?
a) 2021 b) 2020 c) 2022 d) 2023
Q 113. 30642205 The total sales of the dealer that sold the lowest number of laptops
during 2020 to 2023 is what percent of the total sales of laptops of all the three dealers in
the given period?
a) 45.475% b) 43.275% c) 31.325% d) 27.225%
Q 114. 30642205 What is the ratio of the total sales of all dealers in 2021 and 2022
respectively?
a) 90 : 97 b) 91 : 87 c) 97 : 99 d) 11 : 17
Directions for questions 115 to 120 : Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
During the year 2023 the number of out-patients visiting Portis Hospital was 7200 and
among these the number of males was 3500. All the patients came to the hospital for
consultation regarding one of the following five ailments - Orthopedic, Cardiac, Digestive,
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:
Reproductive and Pulmonary. None of them had more than one ailment.
The number of males that visited for Pulmonary problems was 10% of the total number of
patients and that was equal to double the number of males visiting regarding Cardiac
issues. The number of females that visited for Reproductive consultation was one-sixth of
the total number of patients whereas the number of males visiting the department was 40%
of the females visiting the same. The ratio of males and females that visited for Digestive
disorders was 5 : 4.
A total of 990 people visited the hospital for Orthopedic consultation and the ratio of males
to females was 6 : 5 respectively whereas the total number of persons visiting for Cardiac
problems was 300 less than Orthopedic department.
Q 115. 30642205 How many females visited the hospital for Pulmonary ailments?
a) 840 b) 600 c) 560 d) 480
Q 116. 30642205 What is the ratio of the total number of patients visiting the hospital for
Digestive and Reproductive ailments respectively?
a) 8 : 9 b) 6 : 11 c) 5 : 4 d) 3 : 2
Q 117. 30642205 Among the women that went to the hospital for Reproductive ailments,
25% went forth and underwent the surgeries as per advice and on an average the cost of a
surgery was Rs.50,000. What was the total revenue earned by the hospital from the
surgeries?
a) Rs.1.5 crore b) Rs.1.2 crore c) Rs.2.0 crore d) Rs.2.4 crore
Q 118. 30642205 What is the difference between the number of males and females that
visited the hospital for Cardiac problems?
a) 30 b) 60 c) 45 d) 90
Q 119. 30642205 The number of males visiting the hospital for Orthopedic ailments is what
percentage more or less than the number of females visiting the hospital for Pulmonary
ailments?
a) 10% more b) 20% more c) 10% less d) 15% more
Q 120. 30642205 What is the average number of patients visiting the hospital for Digestive,
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:
Reproductive and Pulmonary ailments?
a) 1230 b) 1460 c) 1450 d) 1840
Page 50 of 50
:

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Warmup Mock 02 (CLAT) 2025

a) He loved winter and the cold.

b) He wants to spend time with his books and the cabin.

d) He wants to give up the society and explore a different world

c) He is depressed and suicidal and wants to end his life.

d) He is angry and resentful and wants to take revenge on society.

Q 3. 30642205 What is the woman's motive to come into the woods?

a) To find the man and interview him. b)

a) Statement I and II b) c) Only Statement II d) Only Statement I

c) A stranger who sparks interest in the man d)

Another characteristic of contemporary literature is its diversity and inclusivity.

a) Its adherence to form and language. b)

a) It illustrates how contemporary writers experiment with form and language.

a) It reflects the present and projects the future.

b) It questions the assumptions and expands the horizons.

d) It engages with the world around us.

a) realistic b) composite c) postcolonial d) magical

Q 11. 30642205 What is the main theme discussed in the passage?

a) The variety and acceptance of different literary genres and styles.

b) The representation and inclusion of diverse voices and identities in literature.

d) The diversity and involvement of different readers and audiences in literature.

a) They are limited to poetry, drama, fiction, and non-fiction.

b) They are varied and cover different types of writing.

d) They are ancient and contemporary, but not modern.

a) Confining b) Acute c) Enriching d) Eternal

a) A reference for the judiciary that it is failing and unlikely to recover.

a) Indifferent b) Optimistic c) Critical d) Pessimistic

a) A sign of hopelessness and despair b) A sign of strength and resilience

Current Affairs Including General

a) b) West Bengal c) Gujarat d) Jammu & Kashmir

a) Gujarat b) c) West Bengal d) Jammu & Kashmir

a) Tangail b) Garad c) Kalo Nunia d) Sundarban

a) b) Adi Kekir c) Tangail d) Sundarban

a) b) Dhenkanal Magji c) d) All of the above

d) The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 20 years.

India welcomes the expansion of the BRICS grouping through a consensus-based

a) Johannesburg b) New Delhi c) Moscow d) Beijing

a) Brazil b) Russia c) India d) Pakistan

a) India b) China c) Russia d) Brazil

Q 34. 30642205 The term "BRIC" is believed to be coined in 2001 by__________.

a) Vladimir Putin b) Jim O'Neill c) Xi Jinping d) Manmohan Singh

Q 35. 30642205 The first BRIC summit was held in

a) Yekaterinburg b) New Delhi c) Beijing d) Rio de Janeiro

a) Argentina b) Egypt c) Iran d) Ethiopia

a) American, Canadian, Australian b) South African, Pakistan, Canadian

c) Canadian, Nepal, Australian d) Australian, Singapore, American

a) Judicial System b) Bureaucracy

a) It must be to the Constituent States b) It is irrelevant

c) It must be to the Centre d) It depends on the political parties

a) Ignore it b) Change it c) Preserve it d) Criticize it

a) Ensuring dominance over states b)

a) Kharkiv, Luhansk, Odesa, Donetsk b)

a) Russia wants Ukraine to join NATO

b) Russia demands NATO abandon military activity in Eastern Europe

d) Russia wants NATO to intervene in the conflict

a) Free and fair b) Legitimate c) Sham d) Transparent

Q 46. 30642205 What triggered the Euromaidan protests in Ukraine in 2013?

a) Suspension of an association agreement with the European Union

a) b) To establish military bases

a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth

a) Azad Island b) c) Wheeler Island d) Kalamabad Island

a) b) Satellite launching c) Missile testing d) Marine research

(Edited passage from https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/readersblog/indiastatistics/save-