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Psych Assessment Exam Notes
Psych Assessment Exam Notes
2) Imagine that the “past you” took a 100-item college admission test and got a result of 98 percentile. Since the “past
you” does not have enough knowledge in psychometrics, he/she travelled in time to find the “present you” to clarify
the score. How will you explain this score to your past self?
a. Your score is high because you only got 2 items wrong.
b. Your score is average because percentiles have a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. Therefore your score
is 1 standard deviation unit below the mean.
c. Your score is high because your score is higher than 98% of all the test takers.
d. Your score is average because the test was easy, some of your classmates even got a perfect score.
RELIABILITY
- consistency, accuracy, dependability of the test results, for stable traits
Test-retest Reliability
Administering a test at two different times
Time sampling
Pearson r
Test-retest (pre-test/post-test)
Internal Consistency (homogenous) (the more the items, the higher reliability)
Divided into halves than scored separately
Split-half reliability (Tool(s): Spearman Brown)
Odd-even or randomly divided
Spearman-Brown formula
Kuder-Richardson 20 (Used when the item(s) is dichotomous and if there is only one correct answer)
Difference of KR20 (dichotomous, various degrees of level of difficulty) and KR21 (dichotomous,
same levels of difficulty) is the uniform of level of difficulty
KR21 Type of Test(s): Speed Test (because of the time limit, has same level of difficulty)
Cronbach’s Coefficient Alpha: used when the items are polytomous or polychotomous (has various
possible answers), tool: Likert-Scale
4) The following are reliability coefficients of different tests. Which of the following is the most reliable?
a. .75
b. .35
c. 1.02
d. .68
Note: If the test is used in clinical setting, the reliability coefficient must be 0.95 and above to almost perfect
because it defines the person’s faith.
VALIDITY
- meaning and usefulness of the results; if the test is appropriate
Construct Validity
The degree to which a test measures what it purports to measure (true definition of construct validity)
Note: Sometimes this definition is borrowed by “validity”
Abstract variables (ex. Love)
Based on theoretical perspectives
Convergent Validity – measures well with other related constructs (to prove (2) dimensions/constructs
that they are related according to the theory/literature)
Divergent Validity (to prove that dimensions/constructs do not have a correlation or are not related
because the theory/literature says they are not related)
Discriminant Validity
low correlations with unrelated constructs
Face Validity – the test subjectively viewed that it measures what it purports to measure
relies on the physical appearance of the test
6) This refers to the reservoir or well which items will or will not be drawn for the final version of the test.
a. Item pool
b. Item well
c. Item reservoir
d. Item bank
7) Which of the following tests is an intelligence test that can also be used for the evaluation of learning disabilities?
a. Apgar test – gives to new born babies
b. Woodcock-Johnson III – Intelligence Test dyslexia
c. Bayley Scale
d. Kaufman Assessment Battery – gives to young children; does not evaluate learning abilities
8) You developed a test of creativity, but upon item-analysis, you discovered that your test fell short of your target
reliability coefficient. What is the most practical way to resolve this?
a. Change the statistical tool to a more appropriate one for the target variable to measure
b. Conduct proper item analysis to determine which item should be retained, in this way the items of the test would
yield high accuracy.
c. Find a test that measures the same dimension, correlate them, and then based on the results, edit the items.
d. Increase the number of items
9) If you are given a test with dichotomous items, what method will you use to calculate reliability?
a. Split half method
b. KR-21
c. KR-20
d. Cronbach’s alpha
10) Marimar took a test on Psychological Assessment and was curious about his true score. However, his true score
could only be obtained by subtracting the error from his raw score. This assumption is similar to that of what theory?
a. Item Response Theory
b. Domain Sampling Model
c. Classical Test Score Theory -
d. Theory of Constant Reduction
DOMAIN SAMPLING MODEL – considers the problem created by using a limited number of items
the more the items, the higher the reliability because of the representative items
11) Birdie went to her doctor, Wolfie, to have his monthly consultation. She had a cold when the doctor examined
her. When the results came out, she was diagnosed with pneumonia. Shocked, Birdie sought a second opinion from
another doctor, who then declared that she is actually negative of the said illness. In this scenario, Dr. Wolfie has
committed what type of error?
a. Type I
b. Type IIs
c. Human error
d. Instrumentation
12) Donut wanted to develop a new test of intelligence. He gave this test to his sample for the first time, and then
after three weeks, he presented the same test again to the same sample. In order to further establish the
psychometric property he intends, the results should be correlated using what statistical tool?
a. Spearman rho – rank-order; data can be ranked in variables
b. ANOVA
c. Point-biserial
d. Pearson r – correlation
15) Croco was taking the 16PF as part of the hiring process in a company. However, while answering the test, Croco
found himself unsure of his choices. Ultimately, he decided to play it safe and answered most of the questions in the
middle of the three choices. There is a high chance that the his 16PF results would yield _______
a. High in impression management (IM) score – social desirability
b. High in infrequency score – playing safe (95th percentile and above = playing safe)
c. High in acquiescence score –Yes ng yes, No to no; agrees to most items/questions
d. Not enough data
Note: If the IM score is 95th percentile and above, the client is faking good to appear socially desirable
If the IM score 5th percentile and below, the client is faking bad to appear not socially desirable.
If the IM score is in between, it is okay.
16) During an interview for his case study, Henry recorded the whole interview with his subject using his phone, but
forgot to acquire informed consent. What should Henry do best?
a. Delete the file, then redo the interview from the very beginning.
b. Use the interview in the case study, but make a note that no proper informed consent was acquired for the
interview.
c. Use the interview in the case study still, as it is common knowledge that interviews conducted for any reason by
anyone are bound to be recorded.
d. Ask for his consent during debriefing. If the subject gave his permission, then the interview would be used. If not,
then delete the file. - in this case, it is allowed because it is conducted digitally/online
18) The intelligence test which is the first to include a nonverbal scale as a measure of intelligence, is developed in
order to fill the gap left by what well-known intelligence test?
a. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
b. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale – first intelligence test intended for adults and first used to be the nonverbal
test
c. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale – for children
d. Culture-Fair Intelligence Test
19) If a person’s IQ is said to be two standard deviations below the mean, then his IQ is
a. 115
b. 130
c. 70
d. 85
Note: For the latest Standord-Binet, the standard deviations below the mean is 16.
21) This projective test is a kind of play therapy that is used for speedy assessment of emotional problems in children
a. EPPS
b. Matching Pairs therapy
c. TAT
d. Scenotest
22) During World War 1, what test was given for literate army recruits?
a. Army Alpha – verbal; by Robert Yerkes
b. Stanford-Binet
c. Army Beta – nonverbal; by Robert Yerkes
d. Wechsler-Bellevue
23) Why does the item analysis of tests taken under speed conditions yield misleading or uninterpretable results?
a. Test takers may rush through the items to answer all the questions, and thus the results might not be an accurate
image of the test takers’ ability.
b. Test takers simply may not get to the later items before the time runs out, thus it may appear that the closer the
items are to the end of the test, the harder they seem to be.
c. Speed tests (limited time amount; relatively easy) are commonly constructed to be progressively difficult as they are
answered, and so a greater number of test takers would answer the early-appearing questions correctly compared to
the late-appearing questions.
d. Test takers might not take the test seriously as most people hate doing things under pressure
25) If there are outliers, which of the following should you use best?
a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Median
d. None of the above
26) Which of the following tests is developed based on the item-response theory?
a. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
b. MMPI
c. HSPQ
d. CFIT
ITEM RESPONSE THEORY – focuses on the range of item difficulty that helps assess an individual’s ability
Note: IRT focuses on heavy item difficulty.
27) Computerized Adaptive Testing or CAT allows the test taker to jump from an item with lower level of difficulty to
an item with a higher level of difficulty if the desirable response was obtained. This method is called ______.
a. Item banking
b. Item catching
c. Item branching
d. Item picking
28) The phenomenon called the Flynn effect has been observed since the beginning of the 1930’s. Which of the
following is affected by this phenomenon?
a. Spatial intelligence
b. Fluid and crystallized intelligence
c. General potential
d. Logical and verbal intelligence
Note: Flynn effect states that after every decade, intelligence is added by 3 points.
29) You are now a licensed psychometrician working in an industrial setting. You are handling the screening test for
new applicants. One day, the HR manager asked you to administer a Bender Gestalt Visual Motor Test to a set of
applicants. Knowing the ethical standards, which of the following is the most appropriate response?
a. You would tell the HR manager that you cannot administer such a test because of the ethical standards.
b. You would administer the test then inform the HR manager about the ethical standards afterwards.
c. You would report the HR manager for ethical violation.
d. Ignore the HR manager and proceed to your daily routine.
Note: Bender Gestalt is for clients who have brain damage(s) and is a projective test (Level C).
30) Which of the following personality tests does not score ambiguous responses?
a. Sack’s Sentence Completion Test
b. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank
c. Purpose in Life test – measures the goals in life; ex. 10 years from now….
d. None of the above
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and IV
d. II only
34) Which of the following tests is developed based on the item-response theory?
a. TAT
b. 16PF
c. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
d. MMPI
35) In cases where the psychological evaluation is requested by the court, we should divulge _______.
a. Information limited only to those pertinent to the legitimate request.
b. All findings of the psychological evaluation.
c. All notes and results of the evaluation
d. Nothing
36) Of the following tests, which has the worst utility in the industrial setting?
a. BPI
b. Wonderlic Personnel Inventory – has good utility in the industrial setting
c. MBTI – not advisable for the clinical diagnoses
d. Interest test
38) This is the consequence of one’s belief that a vague, general personality description truly describes them.
a. Halo effect
b. Aunt Fanny effect
c. Spearman effect
d. Placebo effect
39) The study of the measurement of the human skull and its relation to personality is proposed by
a. James McKeen Cattell
b. Louis Thurstone
c. Franz Joseph Gall; phrenology
d. Hippocrates
40) Registered Psychometricians are allowed to administer class A and B tests, but not class C tests. Which of the
following tests is included in class C?
a. Achievement tests
b. Objective personality tests
c. Individualized intelligence tests; projective test
d. Group intelligence tests
41) The floor effect is the diminished utility of the tool at the left side of the distribution. This is noticeable in
________
a. Tests that is very difficult and yield low scores
b. Tests that is very easy and yield high scores
c. Tests that is very difficult and yield high score
d. None of the above
42) Which of the following is not true about Integrity tests (measure of honesty and trust-worthiness) ?
a. It came into special prominence after the prohibition of using polygraph test to screen applicants
b. These are paper-and-pencil measures of loyalty
c. These tests could be valuable in the prediction of disruptive behavior on the job
d. The test is susceptible to coaching and faking
43) In his study, Alex seeks to determine the level of aggression between jeepney drivers and tricycle drivers. The
statistical treatment to use would be
a. ANOVA – used to know the significant difference of two or more groups; reality (three or more groups)
b. Spearman rho
c. One-tailed test
d. Two-tailed test – if direction is not specified
44) Tukey’s HSD and Fisher’s LSD are post-hoc tests of what statistical treatment?
a. ANOVA
b. T-test for independent sample
c. MANOVA
d. Cronbach’s coefficient alpha
45) The student had a fight with his girlfriend prior to taking your test. This issue preoccupied him the whole day,
affecting his test performance. What kind of threat to internal validity is present in this situation?
a. Testing – pre-test affects post-test
b. Instrumentation – ex: made a mistake in the testing material
c. History threat – occurrence of events happened before
d. Selection – there is no random assignment and/or control group: quasi experiment
46) This is a specific form of Hawthorne effect, in which the control group competes with the experimental group.
a. Reactivity
b. Rosenthal effect
c. Pygmalion effect
d. John Henry effect
47) Informed consent could be dispensed only when the study involves:
a. Survey questionnaires
b. Young children, but only if a guardian is present
c. The researcher’s students as the participants of the study
d. Informed consent should never be dispensed
48) The personality test that can distinguish 49) In reliability, what range estimate is good
abnormal from normal behaviors. enough for basic research?
a. Woodcock-Johnson III a. .95
b. NEO-PI-R b. .70
c. MMPI II c. .65
d. MBTI d. .80
50) Coined the term “mental tests” and launched the beginning of mental testing.
a. James McKeen Cattell
b. Robert Yerkes
c. Franz Joseph Gall
d. Christiana Morgan