Time: 3 hrs NEET Date: 09.07.

2023
Total Marks: 720

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test paper is of 3 hours duration.

2. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
3. There are three parts in the question paper 1, 2 & 3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany &
Zoology having 50 questions in each subject.
4. Section A of each subject consists of 35 question, attempt all and Section B of each subject consists
of 15 question out of which attempt any 10

5. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer,-1 for incorrect answers and 0 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone
any electronic device etc,

__________________________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals):____________________________________________

Admission Number:

Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature:_____________________

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PHYSICS 6. What is the unit vector along î  ĵ ?
SECTION – A
î  ˆj
  (A) (B) 2 (î  ĵ)
1. If A is parallel to B , then 2

  
(A) A.(A  B)  A2  AB (C) î  ĵ (D) k̂
  
(B) A  (A  B)  AB 7. The maximum and minimum resultants of two
forces are in the ratio 7 : 3. The ratio of the forces
 
(C) A.B  0 is –
  
(D) A  (A  B)  9 (A) 4 : 1 (B) 5 : 2

2. Two forces, each numerically equal to 5 N, are (C) 7: 3 (D) 49 : 9

acting as shown in the Fig. Then the resultant  
is– 8. Given : A  î  2 ĵ  3k̂ . When a vector B is

added to A , we get a unit vector along X-axis.

Then, B is-
5N
(A)  2 ĵ  3k̂ (B)  î  2 ĵ
60º
5N (C)  î  3k̂ (D) 2 ĵ  3k̂
(A) 2. 5 N (B) 5 N  
9. Given: A  2î  3 ĵ and B  5î  6 ĵ . The
 
(C) 5 3 N (D)10N. magnitude of A  B is -

3. A force of 4î  5 ĵ Newton displaces a body (A) 4 units (B) 10 units

through 3î  6k̂ metre. The work done is– (C) 58 units (D) 61 units

(A) 12 J (B) 30 J
10. Angle between two vectors (î  ĵ) and (î  ĵ) is-
(C) 42 J (D) 0 J
(A) 30º (B) 60º
4. The vector 5î  2 ĵ  k̂ is perpendicular to (C) 45º (D) 90º
the vector 3î  ĵ  2k̂ for  =
11. Given : 0.3 iˆ  0.4 ˆj  n kˆ is a unit vector. The
(A) 1 (B) 4.7 value of n is -
(C) 6.3 (D) 8.5
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
5. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are
represented by co-initial vectors 2î  3 ĵ and (C) 0.75 (D) 0.80

î  4 ĵ . The area of the parallelogram is– 12. For the resultant of two vectors to be maximum,
what must be angle between them -
(A) 5 units along z-axis
(A) 0º (B) 60º
(B) 5 units in x-y plane
(C) 90º (D) 180°
(C) 3 units in x-z plane

(D) 3 units in y-z plane

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13. The velocity v of a particles is given in terms of (C) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
time t by the equation.
(D) If (A) is false but (R) is true.
b  
v = at + . The dimension of a, b and c are A  2î  3 ĵ  k̂ and B  î  3 ĵ  4k̂ , then
tc 18. If
 
(A) L2, T, L T2 (B) LT2, LT, L projection of A on B will be -

(C) LT–2, L, T (D) L, LT, T2 3 3

(A) (B)
13 26
14. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) be
considered fundamental units, then units of 3 3
(C) (D)
26 13
mass will be –
19. The value of the constant P such that the vectors
(A) [F L–1T–2] (B) [F2 L T–2]
2î  ĵ  k̂ , î  2 ĵ  3k̂ and 3î  pĵ  5k̂ are
–2 –2 –1
(C) [F L T ] (D) [F L T ] coplanar is -

15. For the given figure, which option is correct? (A) zero (B) 2

(C) – 4 (D) – 2

C  20. kg m/s2 stand for the unit of –
B
(A) Energy (B) acceleration

A (C) Force (D) Momentum
     
(A) A + B = C (B) B + C = A 21. In the SI system, the unit of temperature is
(A) Degree centigrade
     
(C) C + A = B (D) A + B + C
(B) Degree Celsius
16. The equation of state of a real gas can be (C) Kelvin
 a 
expressed as  P   (V– b) = cT, where P is (D)Degree Fahrenh
 V2 
22. What is the physical quantity whose dimensions
the pressure, V the volume, T the absolute are M L2 T–2 –
temperature and a, b, c are constants. What are
(A) Pressure (B) Kinetic energy
the dimensions of 'a'–
(C) Power (D) Momentum
0 3 –2 –2 5
(A) M L T (B) M L T     
23. If | A × B | = 3 A . B then the value of | A
(C) M L5 T–2 (D) M0 L3 T0 
+ B | is -
17. Assertion : Displacement of a body may be
zero, even when distance travelled by it is not (A) (A2 + B2 + 3 AB)1/2
zero.
(B) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
Reason : The displacement is the shortest 1/ 2
 AB 
distance. (C)  A 2  B2  
 3

(A) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the (D) A + B
correct explanation of (A).

(B) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).

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24. The maximum error in the measurement of 29. If A  4î – 3ˆj and B  6î  8 ĵ then magnitude and
mass and length of the side of a cube are 2%
direction of A  B will be -
and 1% respectively. The maximum error in its
density is- (A) 5, tan–1(3/4) (B) 5 5 , tan–1(1/2)

(C) 10, tan–1(5) (D) 25, tan–1(3/4)

(A) 2% (B) 1% (C) 3% (D) 5%
30. In the S.I. system the unit of energy is-
25. If A = 2î  4 ĵ – 5k̂ the direction of cosines of
the vector A are - (A) erg (B) calorie

2 4 –5 (C) joule (D) electron volt

(A) , and
45 45 45
31. Unit of pressure in S.I. system is-
1 2 3
(B) , and (A) atmosphere
45 45 45

4 4 (B) dynes per square cm

(C) ,0 and
45 45
(C) pascal
3 2 5
(D) , and (D) bar
45 45 45

26. If x = ab, the maximum percentage error in the 32. The force, each of magnitude F have a resultant
measurement of x will be- of the same magnitude F. The angle between

 a   b  the two forces is -

(A)   100 %     100 % 
 a   b 
(A) 45° (B) 120° (C) 150° (D) 60°
 a   b 
(B)   100 %     100 %  33. A body is at rest under the action of three forces,
 a   b   
two of which are F1  4î , F2  6 ĵ , the third force is
 a b 
(C)     100 %
 a b  (A) 4î  6 ĵ (B) 4î – 6 ĵ

 a b  (C) – 4î  6 ĵ (D) – 4î – 6 ĵ

(D)     100 %
 a b 
34. There are two different quantities A and B
27. The percentage errors in measurement of mass
having different dimensions. Then which of the
and speed are 3 % and 2% respectively. The
following operation is dimensionally correct ?
error in kinetic energy will be-
(A) A + B (B) A – B
(A) 6% (B) 7 %
(C) A/B (D) None of these
(C) 10% (D) 12%
35. (8x3 + 4x – 3) dx is
28. If ƒ = x2, then the relative error in ƒ is -
(A) 24x2 + 4 + C (B) – 8x3 + 4x2 + 3 + C
2x (x ) 2
(A) (B) (C) 24x + 4 + C (D) 2x4 + 2x2 – 3x + C
x x

x
(C) (D) (x)2
x

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 SECTION – B (A) 0º (B) 180º

36. Work is - 4

(C) tan–1 (C) (D) tan–1  
       
3
(A) F S (B) – S F (C) F . S (D) – F . S 45. A rectangular plate has length (2 ± 0.02) cm and
width (1 ± 0.01) cm. The maximum percentage
  AB   error in the measurement of its area is -
37. If A . B  then angle between A and B is
2 (A) 1 % (B) 2 %

(A) 60° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 90° (C) 3 % (D) 5 %

  AB   46. A dimensionless quantity -

38. If | A B |  then angle between A and B is
2 (A) never has a unit (B) always has a unit
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 45° (C) may have a unit (D) does not exist

39. Which of the following is not the name of a 47. The resultant of two forces, one double the
physical quantity? other in magnitude, is perpendicular to the

(A) Kilogram (B) Impulse smaller of the two forces. The angle between
the two forces is -
(C) Time (D) Mass
(A) 120° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 150°
40. If x = at + bt2, where x is in metres and t in
hours (hr), then unit of b will be -  
48. If a1 and a 2 are two non collinear unit vectors

(A) m2/hr (B) m and if | a1  a 2 | = 3 , then the value of (a1  a 2 )

. (2a1  a 2 ) is –
(C) m/hr (D) m/hr2
3 1
41. The heat dissipated in a resistance can be (A) 2 (B) (C) (D) 1
2 2
obtained by the measurement of resistance,
current and time. If the maximum error in the 49. In a clockwise system -
measurement of these quantities is 1%, 2%, and
1% respectively. The maximum error in the (A) ĵ × k̂ = î (B) î . î = 0
determination of the dissipated heat is – (C) ĵ + ĵ = 1 (D) k̂ . î = 1
(H=I^2RT)
50. If the magnitude of sum of two vector is equal
(A) 4% (B) 6% to the magnitude of difference of the two
(C) 4/3% (D) 2% vectors, the angle between these vectors is

42. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, (A) 00 (B) 900 (C) 450 1800
then magnitude of difference is-
CHEMISTRY
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 / 2 (D) 5 SECTION – A

43. If A  3î  ˆj  2k̂ and B  2î  2 ĵ  4k̂ then value 51. Isoelectronic means same number of electrons.

of | A  B | will be- X+, Y2+ and Z– are isoelectronic with CO2.

Increasing order of number of protons in given
(A) 8 2 (B) 8 3 (C) 8 5 (D) 5 8
species is -
44. What is the angle made by 3 î + 4 ĵ with x-axis? (A) X+ = Y2+ = Z–

(B) X+ < Y2+ < Z–

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 (C) Z– < X+ < Y2+   - particles are represented by

(D) Y2+ < X+ < Z– (A) lithium atoms (B) helium nuclei

52. What is true regarding Dalton's atomic theory - (C) hydrogen nucleus (D) none of the above
58. Wavelength of radio waves is
(A) All atom of same element possess same
(A) < microwaves (B) > microwaves
mass & same size
(C)  infrared waves (D) u.v. rays
(B) It can be destructible
59. A certain radio station broadcasts on a
(C) Atoms combine in definite ratio frequency of 980 kHz (kilohertz). What is the
wavelength of electromagnetic radiation
(D) It is the smallest particle which can take
broadcast by the radio station?
part in chemical reaction
(A) 306 m (B) 3.06 m
53. The maximum value of specific charge (e/m)
(C) 30.6 m (D) 3060 m
of canal rays is for which gas -
60. Energy of third orbit of Bohr’s atom is
(A) Helium (B) N2 (A) – 13.6 eV (B) – 3.4 eV

(C) CO2 (D) H2 (C) – 1.5 eV (D) None of the these

54. Rutherford -particle scattering experiment 61. If the radius of first Bohr orbit be a0, then the
led to conclusion that - radius of the third orbit would be
(A) 3 × a0 (B) 6 × a0
(A) mass and energy are related
(C) 9 × a0 (D) 1/9 × a0
(B) The mass and the positive charge of an
62. Which of the following is not correct
atom are concentrated in nucleus.
according to Planck’s quantum theory?
(C) Neutrons are present in nucleus. (A) Energy is emitted or absorbed
discontinuously
(D) atoms are electrically neutral
(B) Energy of a quantum is directly
55. The energy of an electron in the first orbit of
proportional to its frequency
H- atom is – 13.6 eV. The possible energy
values of the excited state for electron in Bohr (C) A photon is also a quantum of light

orbits of Li2+ ions is/are - (D) Energy less than a quantum can also be

(A) –3.4 eV (B) –30.6 eV emitted or absorbed.

(C) –13.6 eV (D) All of the above 63. The kinetic energy of the electron emitted
when light of frequency 3.5 × 1015 Hz falls on
56. Calculate the number of quanta of radiations of
a metal surface having threshold frequency
frequency 4.67 × 1013 s–1 that must be absorbed
1.5 × 1015 Hz is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
in order to melt 5 g of ice (The energy required
(A) 1.32 × 10–18 J (B) 3.3 × 10–18 J
to melt 1 g of ice is 333 J)
(C) 6.6 × 10–19 J (D) 1.98 × 10–19 J
(A) 3.36 × 1018 (B) 17 40 41
64. The nuclides 18 Ar and 19 K are -
(C) 5.38 × 1022 (D) 30.91 × 10–21 (A) isotopes (B) isobars

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 (C) isotones (D) isoelectronic 72. Photon of which light has maximum energy:

65. Which of the following nuclides are isobars ? (A) red (B) blue

40 42 40 40 (C) violet (D) green

(A) 21 Sc and 21 Sc (B) 18 Ar and 21 Sc
73. Electromagnetic radiations of wavelength 242
40 41
(C) 18 Ar and 19 K (D) None of these nm is just sufficient to ionise Sodium atom.
Then the ionisation energy of Sodium in kJ
66. For which of the following species, Bohr's
mole-1 is.
theory is not applicable ?
(A) 494.65 (B) 400
(A) H (B) He2+
(C) 247 (D) 600
(C) Li2+ (D) Be3+
74. A bulb of 40 W is producing a light of
67. The element having no neutron in the nucleus
wavelength 620 nm with 80% of efficiency
of its atom is
then the number of photons emitted by the
(A) Hydrogen (B) Nitrogen bulb in 20 seconds are (1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J,

(C) Helium (D) Boron hc = 12400 eV Å)

68. The mass of cathode ray particle is : (A) 2 × 1018 (B) 1018
(A) Same for different gases (C) 1021 (D) 2 × 1021
(B) Different for different gases
75. Light of wavelength  falls on metal having
(C) Minimum for H2 gas work function hc. Photoelectric effect will
take place only if :
(D) Different for same gases
(A)  (B) 
69. The ratio of the "e/m" (specific charge)
values of a electron and an -particle is - (C)  (D) 
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 1
76. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free
(C) 1 : 2 (D) None of these
electron of a metal having work function w <
64
70. The approximate size of the nucleus of 28 Ni is h. Then :

(A) 3 fm (B) 4 fm (A) The electron is sure to come out

(C) 5 fm (D) 2 fm (B) The electron is sure to come out with a

kinetic energy (h – w)
71. The MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) body
scanners used in hospitals operate with 400 (C) Either the electron does not come out or it
MHz radio frequency. The wavelength comes with a kinetic energy (h – w)
corresponding to this radio frequency is:
(D) It may come out with a kinetic energy less
(A) 0.75 m (B) 0.75 cm than (h – w)

(C) 1.5 m (D) 2 cm

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77. What is likely to be orbit number for a circular 83. Which of the following statement is true in the
orbit of diameter 20 nm of the hydrogen atom : context of photoelectric effect?

(A) 10 (B) 14 (A) The kinetic energy of ejected electron is

independent of the intensity of a radiation.
(C) 12 (D) 16
(B) The number of photoelectrons ejected
78. If velocity of an electron in  orbit of H atom is
depends upon the intensity of the incident
V, what will be the velocity of electron in 3rd
radiation.
orbit of Li+2
(C) The kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(A) V (B) V/3
depends on the frequency of the incident
(C) 3 V (D) 9 V radiation.

79. In a certain electronic transition in the (D) All of these

hydrogen atoms from an initial state (A) to a
84. A light source of wavelength  illuminates a
final state (B), the difference in the orbital
metal and ejects photo-electrons with (K.E.)max
radius (r1 – r2) is 24 times the first Bohr radius.

Identify the transition. = 1 eV. Another light source of wavelength ,
3

(A) 5  1 (B) 25  1 ejects photo-electrons from same metal with

(K.E.)max = 4eV
(C) 8  3 (D) 6  5
Find the value of work function ?
80. Which is not true with respect to cathode rays?
(A) 1 eV (B) 2 eV
(A) A stream of electrons
(C) 0.5 eV (D) None of these
(B) Charged particles
85. In Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom the ratio
(C) Move with same speed as that of light
between the period of revolution of an electron
(D) Can be deflected by electric field in the orbit of n = 1 to the period of the
revolution of the electron in the orbit n = 2 is -
81. The mass to charge ratio (m/e) for a cation is
1.5 × 10–8 kg/C. What is the mass of this (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
atom?
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 8
(A) 2.4 × 10–19 g (B) 2.4 × 10–27 g

(C) 2.4 × 10–24 g (D) None of these

SECTION - B
82. An oil drop has 6.39 × 10–19 C charge. Find
86. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for
out the number of electrons in this oil drop.
hydrogen atom is :
(A) 2 (B) 4
(Planck's Const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js; mass of
(C) 6 (D) 8 electron = 9.1091 × 10–31 kg; charge of
electron

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 e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C; permittivity of vacuum 89. What is the work function of the metal if the
8.854185 × 10–12 kg–1m–3A2) light of wavelength 4000Å generates
photoelectrons of velocity 6×105 ms–1 from it?
(A) 4.76 Å (B) 0.529 Å
(Mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg, Velocity of
(C) 2.12 Å (D) 1.65 Å light = 3×108 ms–1, Plank's constant = 6.626
×10–34 Js, Charge of electron = 1.6 ×10–19 JeV–1)
87. The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of
H-atom is –13.6 eV. The energy value of (A) 3.1 eV (B) 0.9 eV
electron in the excited state of Li2+ is:
(C) 4.0 eV (D) 2.1 eV
(A) – 27.2 eV (B)30.6 eV
90. Mole fraction of A in H2O is 0.2. The molality
(C) – 30.6 eV (D) 27.2 eV of A in H2O is:

88. Which of the graphs shown below does not (A) 13.9 (B) 15.5
represent the relationship between incident
(C) 14.5 (D) 16.8
light and the electron ejected from metal
surface? 91. The molarity of the solution containing 2.8 %(
mass/volume) solution of KOH is: (Given
atomic mass of K = 39 ) is :
K.E. of
Electron (A) 0.1 M (B) 0.5 M
(A)
(C) 0.2 M (D) 1 M
0
Energy of Light
M
92. A solution of FeCl3 is its molarity for Cl–
30
ion will be :
No. of Electrons
(B)
M M
(A) (B)
90 30
0 Frequency
of Light
M M
(C) (D)
10 5

93. The volume of water that must be added to a

K.E. of
Electron mixture of 250 ml of 0.6 M HCl and 750 ml of
(C)
0.2 M HCl to obtain 0.25 M solution of HCl is:
0
Frequency of Light (A) 750 ml (B) 100 ml

(C) 200 mℓ (D) 300 mℓ

K.E. of 94. Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000

Electron
(D) g of water gave a solution of density 1.15
g/mL. The molarity of the solution is:
0
Intensity of Light
(A) 1.78 M (B) 2.00 M

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 (C) 2.05 M (D) 2.22 M BIOLOGY

95. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric SECTION - A

acid solution that is 29% (H2SO4 molar mass = 101. The characteristics of growth include
98 g mol–1) by mass will be : (A) increase in mass

(A) 1.22 (B)1.45 (B) increase in number of individuals

(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 1.64 (D) 1.88
(D) ability to reproduce
96. The amount of oxygen in 3.6 moles of water
102. Plants grow throughout life by which method?
is:
(A) Cell dedifferentiation
(A) 115.2 g (B) 57.6 g (B) Cell differentiation

(C) 28.8 g (D) 18.4 g (C) Cell division

(D) None of the above
97. Excess of NaOH (aq) was added to 100 mL of
FeCl3(aq) resulting into 2.14 g of Fe(OH)3. 103. Growth in unicellular organisms can be
observed by
The molarity of FeCl3(aq) is :(Given molar
(A) counting the mass of cultured cells
mass of Fe = 56 g mol–1 and molar mass of Cl
= 35.5 g mol–1) (B) analysing the amount of nutrients absorbed
by living organism
(A) 1.8 M (B) 0.2 M (C) growth cannot be observed

(C) 0.6 M (D) 0.3 M (D) simply counting the number of cells under
microscope during in vitro culture
98. The amount of sugar (C12H22O11) required to
104. Biodiversity can be best defined as
prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solutions is:
(A) occurrence of the number and types of
(A) 68.4 g (B) 34.2 g organisms
(B) species and ecosystem of a region
(C) 17.1 g (D) 136.8 g
(C) variety of life in an ecosystem
99. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in 18 g of H2O. Mole
(D) totality of genes, species and ecosystem of
fraction of NaOH in solution and molality (in a given region
mol kg–1) of the solution respectively are: 105. The number of species that known and
described ranges between
(A) 0.2, 11.11 (B) 0.167, 11.11
(A) 1.7-1.8 million (B) 1 million
(C) 0.167, 22.20 (D) 0.2, 22.20
(C) 50 million (D) 2 million
100. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has 106. Standardising the name of living organism is
a density of 1.84 g/cc and contains 98% by mass known as
of H2SO4? (Given atomic mass of S = 32)
(A) classification (B) identification
(A) 4.18 M (B) 8.14 M
(C) nomenclature (D) Both (A) and (C)
(C) 18.4 M (D) 18 M
107. Ascending or descending arrangement of
taxonomic categories is known as

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 (A) classification (B) key III. Response to stimuli' is a defining property
(C) taxonomy (D) hierarchy of living organisms.

108. A taxon is a (A) I and II (B) II and III

(A) group of related species (C) I and III (D) I, II and III
(B) group of related families 114. Identify the correct statement given below.
(C) type of living organisms (A) Cellular organisation of the body is the
(D) taxonomic group of any ranking defining feature of non-living forms
109. A 'taxa' differs from 'taxon' due to (B) Consciousness is the property shared by
(A) being a higher taxonomic category than non-living organisms
taxon
(C) A patient with dead brain has no self-
(B) being a lower taxonomic category than
taxon consciousness yet it is alive

(C) being plural of taxon (D) Human beings are the only organisms,
(D) being singular of taxon who is aware of himself, i.e. self-conscious
110. What is the prime source of taxonomic
115. Select the correct statement from the
studies?
following.
(A) Collection of actual specimen of organism
(A) Mules can reproduce
(B) Identification of actual specimen of
(B) Worker bee undergoes reproduction to
organism
generate new progeny
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Mule and worker bees are both sterile
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
111. The taxonomical aids in which dried pressed
116. As we go from species to kingdom in a
plant specimens are preserved is
taxonomic hierarchy, the number of
(A) botanical garden (B) herbarium characteristics

(C) sheets (D) specimen sheets (A) will decrease

112. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry (B) will increase
information on
(C) remain same
(A) date of collection (B) name of collector
(D) may increase or decrease
(C) local names (D) height of plant
117. The term 'Systematics' refers to
113. Select the correct statement from the
(A) identification and study of organ systems
following.
(B) identification and preservation of plants
I. Increase in mass and increase in number of
and animals
individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
(C) diversity of kinds of organisms and their
II. Metabolic reactions can also be relationship
demonstrated outside the body in isolated cell- (D) study of habitats of organisms and their
free systems. classification

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118. Genus represents (B) Some protiests have cell walls
(A) an individual plant or animal (C) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and
heterotrophic
(B) a collection of plants or animals
(D) Body organisation is cellular
(C) group of closely related species of plants
or animals 124. Which of the following kingdoms have no
well- defined boundaries?
(D) None of the above
(A) Plantae (B) Protista
119. Aristotle classified the plants on the basis of
their morphological characters and categorised (C) Monera (D) Algae
them into
125. Members of Protista are primarily
(A) trees, shrubs and herbs
(A) terrestrial (B)aquatic
(B) algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes,
(C) pathogenic (D) photosynthetic
gymnosperms and angiosperms
126. Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and
(C) embryophytes and tracheophytes
slime moulds are included in the kingdom
(D) algae and embryophytes
(A) Protista (B) Fungi
120. Who proposed two kingdom system of
(C) Animalia (D) Monera
classification named kingdoms as Plantae and
127. The body of a fungus is made up of a number
Animalia?
of elongated, tubular filaments called
(A) Carolus Linnaeus (A) hyphae (B) Woronin bodies
(B) RH Whittaker (C) mycelium (D) thallus
(C) Carl Woese 128. Cell wall of fungi is composed of
(D) Herbert Copeland (A) chitin (B) pectin
121. Which of the following characters served as (C) cellulose (D) mannans
the criteria for five kingdom system of 129. Which one of the following is wrong for
classification proposed by Whittaker? fungi?
(A) They are eukaryotic
(A) Cell structure
(B) All possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
(B) Body organisation and mode of nutrition
(C) They are heterotrophic
(C) Reproduction and phylogenetic
relationships (D) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(D) All of the above 130. Which of the following is a non-hyphal
unicellular fungus?
122. In five kingdom system of classification of RH
Whittaker, how many kingdoms contain (A) Yeast (B) Puccinia

eukaryotes? (C) Ustilago (D) Alternaria

131. Insectivorous plants are
(A) Four kingdoms (B) One kingdom
(A) autotrophic (D) pathogenic
(C)Two kingdoms (D) Three kingdoms
(C) parasitic (D) pathogenic
123. Which of the following is not a feature of
987Protista? 132. Which of the following are the examples of
insectivorous plant?
(A) Protiests are prokaryotic

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 (A) Bladderwort (B) Venus flytrap (A) Biological classification is the scientific
(C) Nepenthes (D) All of these ordering of organisms in a hierarchial series of

133. Cuscuta is a/an groups on the basis of their relationships, i.e.

morphological, evolutionary and others
(A) parasite (B) pathogen
(C) saprophyte (D) autotroph (B) Whittaker classified organisms on the

134. Plants show ……… in their life cycle. basis of autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of
nutrition
(A) only sexual phase
(B) only asexual phase (C) In five kingdom system of classification,

(C) alternation of generations living organisms can be divided into

prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells on the basis
(D) None of these
of cell structure
135. Viruses and viroids are the non-cellular
organisms, which are not characterised in the (D) All of the above
classification of
140. Consider the following statements. Which of
(A) Whittaker (B) Aristotle
the statements given below is incorrect?
(C) Linnaeus (D) Watson
(A) All prokaryotic organisms were grouped
together under kingdom-Monera
SECTION - B
(B) The unicellular eukaryotic organisms were
136. Viruses did not find a place in classification
since placed in kingdom-Protista

(A) they are not truely living (C) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas, both lack
(B) they are non-cellular cell walls
(C) they are obligate parasite
(D) Paramecium and Amoeba lack cell walls
(D) they are pathogenic
141. Choose the incorrect statement about members
137. Viruses are non-cellular organisms but kingdom-Monera. of
replicate themselves once they infect the host
cell.To which of the following kindgom (A) Many of them live in or on other
viruses belong to?
organisms as parasites
(A) Monera (B) Protista
(B) Some synthesise their own food from
(C) Fungi (D) None of these
inorganic solutes
138. Which of the following phenomenon proves
that viruses are living? (C) Bacterial structure is very complex though
(A) They carry metabolic activity they have very simple behaviour
(B) They carry anaerobic respiration
(D) Hundreds of bacteria are present in
(C) They multiply in host cells handful of soil
(D) They cause infection
142. Read the following statements about bacteria
139. Which of the statements given below is
and select correct option.
correct?

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 (A) Bacteria are simple in structure, but 147. Phylogenetic system of classification was
complex in behaviour given by
(A) Engler and Prantl
(B) Bacteria are complex in structure, but
(B) Aristotle
simple in behaviour
(C) Linnaeus
(C)Bacteria are simple in both structure and
(D) Bentham and Hooker
behaviour
148. Algae are
(D) are complex in both structure and
(A) chlorophyll bearing autotrophs
behaviour
(B) simple and thalloid
143. Kingdom Plantae includes (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes (D) heterotroph
(B) algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, 149. Algae occur in/on
gymnosperms and angiosperms
(A) fresh and marine water
(C) algae, fungi, pteridophytes, gymnosperms (B) moist stones
and angiosperms (C) moist soil and wood

(D) algae, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and (D) All of these

angiosperms 150. An example of colonial alga is

144. The earliest system of classification given by (A) Chlorella (B) Volvox

........based on gross superficial morphological (C) Ulothrix (D) Spirogyra

traits was called...B.... Here, A and B

(A) Linnaeus, natural classification SECTION - A

(B) Whittaker, natural classification 151. Algae include unicellular forms like ...A...,
filamentous forms like ...B... and colonial
(C) Linnaeus, artificial classification
forms like ...C.... Here, A, B and C refer to
(D) Whittaker, artificial classification
145. Natural system of classification was based (A) A – chlamydomonas, B – volvox, C –
upon Uotherix

(A) structural embryology (B) A – Uotherix , B – volvox, C-

chlamydomonas,
(B) phytochemistry
(C) A- volvox, B- Uotherix , C-
(C) anatomy chlamydomonas,
(D) All of these (D) A – chlamydomonas B- Uotherix , C-
volvox,
146. Phylogenetic system of classification is based
upon 152. In algae, vegetative reproduction mainly takes
place by
(A) evolutionary relationship of organisms
(A) budding (B) akinetes
(B) cytological information
(C)fragmentation (D) heterocyst
(C) structural embryology
(D) All of the above

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153. Bryophytes are the oldest (most primitive) 159. Pteridophytes mostly occur in
plant in terms of evolution, these include
(A) cool, damp and shady places
(A) liverworts and mosses
(B) hot and sunny places
(B) lycopods and mosses
(C) dry and humid areas
(C) lycopods and liverworts
(D) water
(D) liverworts and Volvox
160. Which of the following plant group is
154. Bryophytes mostly occur in considered as first terrestrial plant to possess
vascular tissues xylem and phloem?
(A) dry area
(A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes
(B) terrestrial area
(C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms
(C) humid, damp and shaded localities
161. Pteridophytes are also known as
(D) in water
(A) cryptogams
155. Bryophytes are also called 'amphibians of the
plant kingdom' because (B) vascular cryptogams
(C) amphibious plants
(A) water is essential for reproduction
(D) phanerogams
(B) they occur only in water
162. Sporophytic generation is dominant phase in
the life cycle of
(C) these plants can live in soil, but are
dependent on water for sexual reproduction (A) Marchantia (B) ferns
(C) mosses (D) liverworts
(D) water is essential for spore formation
163. Gymnosperms are characterised by
156. Mosses (Bryophytes) occur in moist places
(A) multiflagellate sperms
because
(B) naked seeds
(A) they cannot grow on land
(C) winged seeds
(B) their gametes fuse in water
(D) seeds inside fruits
(C) they lack vascular tissue
164. Identify the correct statement for artificial
(D) they lack root and stomata
system of classification.
157. The plant body of bryophytes is thallus-like,
(A) Artificial system was based on natural
prostrate or erect and attached to substratum affinities present

with the help of among the organisms

(B) It was proposed by Engler and Prantl
(A) unicellular or multicellular root
(C) The artificial system gave equal weightage
(B) unicellular or multicellular rhizoids to the vegetative and sexual characteristics
(C) multicellular roots (D) It considers both the external features and
(D) unicellular roots internal features like anatomy, embryology,
etc.
158. Horsetails and ferns belong to
165. Read carefully the given statements about
(A) gymnosperms (B) bryophytes algae and identify the incorrect option.
(C) mosses (D) pteridophytes (A) The plant body is simple and thalloid

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 (B) Mainly aquatic, i.e. both freshwater and (B) Connection
marine
(C) Secretion or Excretion
(C) Reproduction may be vegetative, asexual
(D) Absorption
and sexual
172. The cells of squamous epithelium are
(D) Volvox and Ulothrix are the colonial form
of algae (A) multilayered and thick
166. Tissue is (B) flat and thick
(A) a group of similar cells together with their (C) thin with rigid boundaries
intercellular substances, which perform a
specific function (D) flat with irregular boundaries

(B) a single specialised cell with specified 173. The endothelium of blood vessels is made up
functions of simple

(C) composed of a single layer of cuboidal (A) cuboidal epithelium

cells (B) squamous epithelium
(D) Both (A) and (C) (C) columnar epithelium
167. In a tissue, the structure of cells varies (D) non-ciliated columnar epithelium
according to their
174. The cavities of alveoli of human lungs are
(A) origin. (B) function lined by
(C) gene content- (D) None of these (A) cuboidal epithelium
168. Which of the following tissues provide a (B) columnar epithelium
covering layer for some of the body parts?
(C) stratified cuboidal epithelium
(A) Connective tissue (B) Muscular tissue
(D) squamous epithelium
(C) Epithelial tissue (D) Neural tissue
175. Choose the correctly matched pair.
169. Which one of the following options is
associated with epithelium? (A) Inner lining of salivary ducts-Ciliated
epithelium
(A) Cells are compactly packed with little
intercellular matrix (B) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular
epithelium
(B) Cells are loosely packed with large
intercellular matrix (C) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal
epithelium
(C) It is highly vascularised
(D) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous
(D) It is a supporting tissue epithelium
170. Lining of body cavities, ducts and tubes are 176. The columnar epithelium in human body is
made up of found in
(A) compound epithelium (A) stomach (B) lungs
(B) simple epithelium (C) kidney (D) Fallopian tube
(C) cuboidal epithelium 177. Which of the following epithelium types helps
(D) keratinised epithelium in the secretion and absorption of nutrients?
171. Which of the following is not a function of
(A) Cuboidal
epithelium?
(B) Stratified squamous
(A) Protection

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 (C) Squamous (A) stomach (B) intestine
(D) Columnar (C) trachea (D) pharynx
178. The type of tissue lining in the nasal passage 185. Compound epithelium
and the bronchioles is
(A) plays major role in secretion and
(A) columnar ciliated epithelium absorption
(B) cuboidal epithelium (B) provides protection against chemical and
mechanical stresses
(C) neurosensory epithelium
(C) covers only dry surface of skin
(D) germinal epithelium
(D) All of the above
179. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to
move particles or mucus in a specific SECTION - B
direction. In humans, these cells are mainly
186. Cell junctions are formed by
present in
(A) epithelial tissue
(A) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct
(B) connective tissue
(B) eustachian tube and salivary duct
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(D) muscular tissue
(D) bile duct and bronchioles
187. The function of adhering junction is to
180. The tissue, which forms the glands in humans
is (A) prevent leakage of substances across
tissues
(A) muscular tissue (B) nervous tissue
(B) connect the cytoplasm of adjacent cells
(C) epithelial tissue (D) connective tissue
(C) diffuse small ions across tissues
181. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are a type of
(D) cement the neighbouring cells together
(A) intercellular gland (B) multicellular
gland 188. The function of the gap junction is to
(C) unicellular gland (D) None of these (A) perform cementing to keep neighbouring
cells together
182. Categorisation of secretory glands can be done
on the basis of (B) facilitate communication between
adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm
(A) mode of pouring of their secretion
for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and
(B) mode of breaking down of molecules some large molecules
(C) mode of segregation of products (C) separate two cells from each other
(D) None of the above (D) stop substance from leaking across a tissue
183. Which of the following secretions are released 189. Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in
through ducts in human body? animal body is
(A) Oil and milk (A) epithelium tissue
(B) Mucus and ear wax (B) connective tissue
(C) Digestive enzymes (C) skeletal muscle tissue
(D) All of these (D) smooth muscle tissue
184. In humans, compound squamous epithelium is 190. Examples of specialised connective tissue
found in is/are

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 (A) bone (B) cartilage (A) weight-bearing function
(C) blood (D) All of these (B) destruction of worn-out blood cells
191. Which of the following cells is/are contained (C) provide site for the attachment of skeletal
in areolar connective tissue? muscles
(A) Mast cells (B) Fibroblasts (D) protect soft tissues and organs
(C) Macrophages (D) All of these 199. Skeletal muscles are found in
192. Cells of areolar tissues that produce or secrete (A) heart (B) blood vessels
fibres are called
(C) biceps (D) intestine
(A) fibroblasts (B) mast cells
200. Smooth muscles are
(C) macrophages (D) adipocytes
(A) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
193. Adipose tissue is a type of
(B) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(A) loose connective tissue
(C) involuntary, cylindrical, striated
(B) dense connective tissue
(D) voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
(C) specialised connective tissue
(D) None of the above
194. Adipose tissue performs which of the
following functions?
(A) Producing fat (B) Dissolving fat
(C) Storing fat (D) All of these
195. Tendon is an example of which of the
following connective tissue?
(A) Loose connective tissue
(B) Dense connective tissue
(C) Specialised connective tissue
(D) All of the above
196. Tendons help in connecting
(A) muscles to bones
(B) bone to bone
(C) bone to cartilage
(D) cartilage to muscle
197. Bone marrow of long bones is the sites of
(A) production of WBCs
(B) production of RBCs
(C) production of blood cells
(D) breakdown of RBCs
198. Bones in human body perform all the listed
functions except

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