GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER

01 STUDY WITH FUN

1. One of the following is also known as Indian

gooseberry
(a) Bahera (b) Harde (c) Amla (d) Neem
2. An isoelectric point for type A gelatin capsule is
at pH
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12
3. Tropane alkaloid can have synthesized by
(a)Acetate mevalonate pathway
(b) Shikimic acid pathway
(c) Ornithine pathway
(d) None
4. The unequal distribution of color on tablet is
(a)Capping (b) Mottling
(c) Double impression (d) Chipping
5. Which of following is selective MAO-B inhibitor
(a) Selegiline (b) Moclobemide
(c) Isocarboxazid (d) Iproniazid
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01 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (c) Amla

2. (c) 9

3. (c) Ornithine pathway

4. (b) Mottling

5. (a) Selegiline

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02 STUDY WITH FUN

1. In posology which rule use weight in pound to calculate

child dose
(a) Young’s rule (b) Clark’s rule
(c) Dilling’s rule (d) Fried’s rule
2. DOP (dioctyl phthalate test) used for
(a) HEPA filter (b) Filter leaking
(c) Filter validation (d) Filter compatibility testing
3. The biopharmaceutics classification system is a scientific
schematic proposed by
(a) Amidon et. al (b) Brodie et. al
(c) Nernst and brunner (d) Hixson and Crowell
4. Which one of the following test is not official in
pharmacopoeia
(a) Hardness (b) Friability
(c) Disintegration (d) Content uniformity test
5. “Splanchnic circulation” term used for which body fluid
system
(a) Lymph (b) Blood
(c) Interstitial fluid (d) Intracellular fluid

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02 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (b) Clark’s rule

2. (a) HEPA filter

3. (a) Amidon et. al

4. (a) Hardness

5. (b) Blood

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03 STUDY WITH FUN

1. The R-W coefficient test is used to evaluate

(a) Antibiotic activity (b) Sterility of packaging material
(c) Nature of organism (d) Bactericidal activity

2. Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid

(a) Lysine (b) Threonine
(c) Serine (d) Histidine

3. The plant drug which is oxytocic

(a)Ergot (b) Kurchi
(c) Vinca (d) Cocaine

4. DNA gyrase inhibitor is

(a)Tetracycline (b) Quinolones
(c) Monobactum (d) Erythromycin

5. Evaluation of color in tablets is done by

(a) Reflectance spectrophotometer
(b) Tristimulus colorimeter
(c) Micro Reflectance photometer
(d) All of the above

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03 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (d) Bactericidal activity

2. (c) Serine

3. (a) Ergot

4. (b) Quinolones

5. (d) All of the above

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04 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Cranium of human contains

(a) 12 bones (b) 8 bones
(c) 14 bones (d) 20 bones
2. Which one of the following is a sesamoid bone
(a) Pelvis (b) Patella
(c) Pterygoid (d) Pectoral girdle

3. The number of floating ribs in the human body is

(a) 3 pairs (b) 2 pairs
(c) 6 pairs (d) 5 pairs
4. Which of the following joints would allow no
movements
(a) Synovial joint (b) Ball and socket joint
(c) Fibrous joint (d) Cartilaginous joint

5. What is the name of joint between ribs and sternum

(a) Cartilaginous joint (b) Angular joint
(c) Gliding joint (d) Fibrous joint

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04 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (b) 8 bones

2. (b) Patella

3. (b) 2 pairs

4. (c) Fibrous joint

5. (a) Cartilaginous joint

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05 STUDY WITH FUN

1. The downward creaming means rate of sedimentation

(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Same (d) No change
2. Electrolytes are added to Zeta potential
(a)Decreases (b) Increase
(c) Maintain (d) Neutralize
3. Which one of the equation is used to identify the
drug release from a dosage form
(a) Henderson - Hassel batch (b) Higuchi
(c) Noyes - Whitney (d) Hixson - Cromwell
4. In ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should
be
(a) Zero (b) Less than one
(c) Equal to One (d) More than one
5. Which one of these is not a rheological property
(a) Viscosity (b) Spreadability
(c) Surface Tension (d) Yield value

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05 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (a) Positive

2. (a) Decreases

3. (c) Noyes - Whitney

4. (c) Equal to one

5. (c) Surface tension

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06 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Cholinomimetic drugs can be used for the treatment of

all the following conditions except
(a) Closed angle Glaucoma (b) Bradycardia
(c) Cobra bite (d) Myasthenia gravis
2. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is done by using
(a)Edrophonium (b) Neostigmine
(c) Succinylcholine (d) Atropine
3. Atropine can cause
(a) Decreased cardiac output (b) Heart block
(c) Hypertension (d) Mydriasis
4. Which of the following is an adverse effect of β2 agonists
(a) Hypoglycemia (b) Hypomagnesemia
(c) Hypophosphatemia (d) Hypokalemia
5. Treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock is
(a) Intravenous hydrocortisone
(b) Subcutaneous adrenaline
(c) Intravenous aminophylline
(d)Subcutaneous antihistaminic

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06 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (b) Bradycardia

2. (a) Edrophonium

3. (d) Mydriasis

4. (d) Hypokalemia

5. (b) Subcutaneous adrenaline

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07 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Nitric oxide synthase is responsible for generation of Nitric

oxide, an important signaling molecule. The substrate for
this enzyme is
(a) Glycine (b) Lysine
(c) Histidine (d) Arginine
2. Catalase is found exclusively in
(a) Lysosomes (b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Peroxisomes (d) Mitochondria

3. Which one of the following conformations of glucose is

most stable
(a) Boat (b) Half Chair
(c) Chair (d) Planar
4. The type-II hypersensitivity reaction is mainly mediated by
(a) IgE (b) IgM
(c) IgA (d) T cells
5. Slow intravenous infusion of ethanol is a therapy to treat
methanol poisoning. The underlying chemical reaction is an
example of
(a) Competitive inhibition (b) Non-competitive inhibition
(c) Mixed inhibition (d) Enzyme activation

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07 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (d) Arginine

2. (c) Peroxisomes

3. (c) Chair

4. (b) IgM

5. (a) Competitive inhibition

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08 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Highest capacity vector is

(a) Cosmid (b) YAC
(c) Yeast integrative vector (d) Bacteriophage
2. Enhanced axillary branching for multiple shoot
production is promoted by
(a) 2,4-D (b) Abscisic acid
(c) BA (Benzyl adenine) (d) Gibberellic acid
3. Deoxy position of deoxyribose in DNA is a
(a) 1st Carbon (b) 3rd Carbon
(c) 2nd Carbon (d) 5th Carbon
4. Most predominant antibody in serum is
(a) IgG (b) IgD
(c) IgE (d) IgA
5. Which one of the following organisms is used in Ames
test
(a) E. coli
(b) Streptococcus aureus
(c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(d) Salmonella typhimurium

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08 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (b) YAC

2. (a) 2,4-D

3. (c) 2nd Carbon

4. (a) IgG

5. (d) Salmonella typhimurium

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09 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Prolonged testosterone treatment to a man results in

(a) Increased spermatogenesis (b) Increased sperm motility
(c) Azoospermia (d) Increased gonadotropins

2. Finasteride acts by blocking

(a) α-receptors (b) 5-α reductase enzyme
(c) Androgen receptors (d) β-receptors

3. The estrogen that is used in most combined hormonal

contraceptives is
(a)Clomiphene (b) Ethinyl estradiol
(c) Estrone (d) Norgestrel

4. Which one of the following agents inhibits

spermatogenesis
(a) Gelusil (b) Gemcadiol
(c) Gestodene (d) Gossypol

5. Clomiphene citrate is used for

(a)Mania (b) Induction of ovulation
(c) Depression (d) Psychosis

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09 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (c) Azoospermia

2. (b) 5-α reductase enzyme

3. (b) Ethinyl estradiol

4. (d) Gossypol

5. (b) Induction of ovulation

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10 STUDY WITH FUN

1. The highly contagious viral disease measles is caused by

(a) Double-stranded DNA virus
(b)Single-stranded DNA virus
(c) Single-stranded RNA virus
(d)Double-stranded RNA virus
2. Dick test is used to assess the susceptibility to
(a) Diphtheria (b) Scarlet fever
(c) Typhoid fever (d) Tuberculosis
3. Binomial nomenclature has NOT yet been adopted for
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
(c) Viruses (d) Protozoa
4. In humans, the key stages in the life cycle of malarial
parasites occur in
(a) Red blood cells and the liver
(b) Red blood cells and platelets
(c) Red blood cells and the pancreas
(d) Red blood cells and the gut
5. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) consists of
(a) Live attenuated virus (b) Killed virus
(c) Viral toxin (d) Viral capsid subunit

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10 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (c) Single-stranded RNA virus

2. (b) Scarlet fever

3. (c) Viruses

4. (a) Red blood cells and the liver

5. (a) Live attenuated virus

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11 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of all of the following

drugs EXCEPT
(a) Phenytoin (b) Warfarin
(c) Ketoconazole (d) Diazepam
2. Bisacodyl is
(a) Bulk forming (b) Stool softener
(c) Stimulant purgative (d) Osmotic purgative
3. Which is not an adverse effect of cimetidine
(a) Impotence (b) Gynaecomastia
(c) Atrophic gastritis (d) Galactorrhea
4. Which one of the drugs is useful in treating Crohn’s disease
(a) Infliximab (b) Azathioprine
(c) Tacrolimus (d) Cyclosporine
5. Which of the following statements is true about new
formula WHO-ORS
(a) It has Na+ ion concentration of 75 mmol/l
(b) Its glucose concentration is 75 mmol/l
(c) Its total osmolarity is 245 mmol/l
(d) All of the above

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11 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (c) Ketoconazole

2. (c) Stimulant purgative

3. (d) Galactorrhea

4. (a) Infliximab

5. (d) All of the above

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12 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Green hellebore is
(a) American veratrum (b) European veratrum
(c) Shankhpushpi (d) None of the above
2. Papaverine is
(a) 6, 7 dimethoxy-1-(3’, 4’ dimethoxy benzyl) isoquinoline
(b) 6, 7 dimethoxy-1-(3’, 4’ dimethyl benzyl) isoquinoline
(c) 6, 7 dimethoxy-1-(3’, 4’ dimethoxy benzyl) quinoline
(d) 6, 7dimethoxy-1-(3’, 4’ dimethyl benzyl) quinoline
3. Morphine undergoes microsomal oxidation by
(a) N-dealkylation (b) Aromatic hydroxylation
(c) Oxidative deamination (d) O-dealkylation
4. The shape of leaf in Tinnavelly Senna is
(a)Lanceolate (b) Linear
(c) Ovate (d) Elliptical

5. Shankhpushpi is commonly used as

(a)Analgesic (b) Ant inflammatory
(c) Brain tonic (d) Astringent

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12 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (a) American veratrum

2. (a) 6, 7 dimethoxy-1-(3’, 4’ dimethoxy

benzyl) isoquinoline

3. (a) N-dealkylation

4. (a) Lanceolate

5. (c) Brain tonic

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13 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of

(a) Tetani toxin (b) Cholera toxin
(c) Diphtheria toxin (d) Toxoid
2. Discontinuous heating is called
(a) Pasteurization (b) Sterilization
(c) Fermentation (d) Tyndallization

3. To transfer cultures from one place to another, the

device used is
(a) Slant (b) Needle
(c) Inoculation loop (d) Autoclave

4. Differential staining of bacteria spore is related to

(a) Albert’s staining (b) Lugol’ s staining
(c) Moller’s staining (d) Indian ink preparation

5. Which of the following are gas producing Salmonella

(a) S. typhi (b) S. enteritidis
(c) S. choleraesuis (d) S. typhimurium

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13 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (c) Diphtheria toxin

2. (d) Tyndallization

3. (b) Needle

4. (c) Moller’s staining

5. (b) S. enteritidis

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14 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Which of the following is most suitable light source

for UV - Visible spectroscopy
(a) Hydrogen lamp (b) Carbon arc lamp source
(c) Nernst glower (d) Radio frequency source
2. In π ⟶ π* transition in conjugated system which of
the following bands will occur
(a) K band (b) R band
(c) B band (d) E band
3. If the position of the atoms change with respect to
the original bond axis is called as
(a)Stretching (b) Rocking
(c) Scissoring (d) Bending
4. Which of the following peak has highest m/e value
(a)Metastable peak (b) Isotopic peak
(c) Base peak (d) Molecular ion peak
5. Shielding shifts the absorption towards
(a)Down field (b) High field
(c) Up field (d) Low field

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14 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (a) Hydrogen lamp

2. (a) K band

3. (d) Bending

4. (d) Molecular ion peak

5. (c) Up field

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15 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Super saturation theory was proposed by

(a) Meir's (b) Stock's
(c) Henry's (d) Mayer’s
2. Which method is used to separate miscible volatile
liquids
(a) Simple distillation (b) Steam distillation
(c) Fractional distillation (d) Azeotropic
3. Soft glass is also known as
(a)Potash glass (b) Potash lead glass
(c) Soda glass (d) None
4. Amount of radiation is emitted by black body is
expressed by
(a) Fourier's Law (b) Stefan-Boltzman law
(c) Thermal radiation law (d) None
5. Which of the following material act as base material
in a glass
(a)Soda ash (b) Sand
(c) Cullet (d) Lime stone

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15 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (a) Meir's

2. (c) Fractional distillation

3. (c) Soda glass

4. (b) Stefan-Boltzman

5. (b) Sand

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16 STUDY WITH FUN

1. No surgical operation should be performed during

the following stage of anesthesia
(a) Stage I (b) Stage II
(c) Stage III, plane 1 (d) Stage III, plane 3
2. The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant:
sedative activity ratio is
(a) Pentobarbitone (b) Phenobarbitone
(c) Butobarbitone (d) Thiopentone
3. The drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is
(a) Aspirin (b) Imipramine
(c) Carbamazepine (d) Valproic acid
4. Loss or alteration of taste sensation can occur a
side effect of
(a) Levodopa (b) Captopril
(c) Penicillamine (d) All of the above
5. The following drug of abuse is a hallucinogen
(a) Cocaine (b) Cannabis
(c) Heroin (d) Methaqualone

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16 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (b) Stage II

2. (b) Phenobarbitone

3. (c) Carbamazepine

4. (d) All of the above

5. (b) Cannabis

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17 STUDY WITH FUN

1. The reaction catalyzed by α-ketoglutarate

dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle requires
(a) NAD (b) NADP
(c) ADP (d) ATPase
2. The rate of citric acid cycle is controlled by the
allosteric enzyme
(a) Aconitase (b) Fumarase
(c) Fumarase (d) Malate dehydrogenase
3. The affected organ in Mc Ardle’s syndrome is
(a) Liver (b) Kidney
(c) Liver and Heart (d) Skeletal muscle
4. Renin converts casein to Para casein in presence of
(a) Ca++ (b) Mg++
(c) Na+ (d) K+
5. An organ which is extremely sensitive to ammonia
toxicity is
(a) Liver (b) Brain
(c) Kidney (d) Heart

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17 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (a) NAD

2. (c) Fumarase

3. (d) Skeletal muscle

4. (a) Ca++

5. (b) Brain

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18 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Carr - Price reaction is used to detect

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Vitamin E
2. Dicoumarol is antagonist to
(a) Riboflavin (b) Retinol
(c) Menadione (d) Tocopherol
3. Vitamin B1 coenzyme (TPP) is involved in
(a) Oxidative decarboxylation (b) Hydroxylation
(c) Transamination (d) Carboxylation
4. Riboflavin deficiency causes
(a) Cheilosis (b) Loss of weight
(c) Mental deterioration (d) Dermatitis
5. NAD is required as a coenzyme for
(a) Malate dehydrogenase
(b) Succinate dehydrogenase
(c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(d) HMG CoA reductase

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1. (a) Vitamin A

2. (c) Menadione

3. (a) Oxidative decarboxylation

4. (a) Cheilosis

5. (a) Malate dehydrogenase

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19 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Example for precipitation inhibitor is

(a) PVP (b) HPMC
(c) PEG (d) All the above

2. α2-globulin is also called as

(a) Transcortin (b) Ceruloplasmin
(c) Transferrin (d) Antigen
3. The beginning of pharmacological response is called
(a) Onset of action (b) Intensity of action
(c) Therapeutic index (d) Duration of action

4. Identify the BCS class II drug

(a) Nifedipine (b) Diltiazem
(c) Insulin (d) Furosemide

5. Nonlinearities in pharmacokinetics can be

observed in
(a)Naproxen (b) Vitamin C
(c) Riboflavin (d) All

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19 STUDY WITH FUN

1. (d) All the above

2. (b) Ceruloplasmin

3. (a) Onset of action

4. (a) Nifedipine

5. (d) All

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20 STUDY WITH FUN

1. Medicinal and toilet preparation (Excise duty) Act

was passed in
(a) 1955 (b) 1975
(c) 1965 (d) 1976
2. DTAB has __________ ex officio members
(a)Five (b) Six
(c) Four (d) Eight

3. Pharmacy Act is established in

(a) 1948 (b) 1940
(c) 1995 (d) 1919

4. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was constituted on

(a) 9th March, 1949 (b) 9th May, 1949
(c) 9th April, 1949 (d) 9th June, 1949

5. Standard for ophthalmic preparation comes under

(a) Schedule F (b) Schedule FF
(c) Schedule F-I (d) Schedule F-II

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1. (a) 1955

2. (d) Eight

3. (a) 1948

4. (a) 9th March, 1949

5. (b) Schedule FF

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