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April Current Affairs: Economy News

(MCQs & Descriptive Questions)

Important for Regulatory Bodies and Banking Exams: RBI Grade B, SEBI
Grade A, IFSCA Grade A, NABARD Grade A/B, PFRDA Grade A, SBI PO etc.

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Economy News
India’s First Small-Scale LNG Unit in Madhya Pradesh
The Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas recently inaugurated India’s first
small-scale liquefied natural gas (SSLNG) unit at GAIL (India) Ltd’s Vijaipur complex
in Madhya Pradesh.
This development is part of the government's broader initiative to promote the use of
natural gas in various sectors and increase its share in the country's primary energy
mix to 15% by 2030.
About Small-Scale LNG:
SSLNG involves liquefying and transporting natural gas on a smaller scale, catering
to areas without pipeline connections using specialised trucks and vessels.
Starting from large-scale LNG import terminals, SSLNG can supply LNG directly to
consumers via cryogenic road tankers or small vessels, either as a liquid or regasified
for traditional uses.
It will lead to reduced dependency on costly gas imports, especially if it replaces a
significant portion of diesel consumption, leading to substantial foreign exchange
savings.
It also promotes cleaner energy and supports India's transition towards sustainable
fuel sources.
MCQs
1. India’s First Small-Scale LNG Unit has been set-up in which of the following
state?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Gujarat
Answer: C) Madhya Pradesh
Descriptive Question
1. Energy security is significant for socio-economic development. Discuss the
challenges in achieving energy security and suggest measures to ensure it.

Atal Tunnel
The Manali-Leh highway was blocked due to fresh snowfall near the Atal Tunnel in
Lahaul and Spiti districts recently.
About Atal Tunnel

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Atal Tunnel, formerly known as Rohtang Tunnel, is the world's longest
high-altitude tunnel, situated at an elevation of approximately 3,100 meters (10,171
feet) above sea level.
It is located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas, in Himachal Pradesh.
It passes through Rohtang pass.
It stretches 9.02 km, connecting Manali to Lahaul and Spiti Valley throughout the
year, previously cut off for about six months each year due to heavy snowfall.
The south portal (SP) of Atal Tunnel is located at a distance of 25 km from Manali at
an altitude of 3,060 metres, while the north portal (NP) of the tunnel is located near
village Teling, Sissu, in Lahaul Valley at an altitude of 3,071 metres.
The tunnel is a horseshoe-shaped, single tube, double lane tunnel with a roadway of
8 meters, has an overhead clearance of 5.525 meters.
The tunnel features a semi-transverse ventilation system, emergency exits every 500
meters, evacuation lighting, broadcasting systems, and fire hydrants for safety.
MCQs
2. What was the Atal Tunnel formerly known as?
A) Spiti Tunnel
B) Manali Tunnel
C) Rohtang Tunnel
D) Pir Panjal Tunnel
Answer: C) Rohtang Tunnel

Energy Inefficiency in Residential Buildings

Addressing energy inefficiency in residential buildings is crucial, with initiatives like
Eco-Niwas Samhita (ENS) introducing the Residential Envelope Transmittance
Value (RETV) to measure heat transfer.
Need for Energy Efficiency?
India’s housing construction sector is booming, erecting over 3,00,000 housing units
annually.
The housing sector is a significant energy consumer, responsible for over 33% of
India’s electricity usage
India Cooling Action Plan foresees an eight-fold surge in cooling demand from 2017
to 2037.
What is RETV?
The Residential Envelope Transmittance Value (RETV) is a metric used to measure
heat transfer through a building’s envelope. It indicates the thermal efficiency of a

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building, with lower RETV values corresponding to cooler indoor
environments and decreased energy usage.
MCQs
3. What percentage of India's electricity usage is accounted for by the housing
sector?
A) 10%
B) 23%
C) 33%
D) 40%
Answer: C) 33%

Jobs for Resilience Report

The World Bank (WB) has warned in its ‘South Asia Regional Update: Jobs for
Resilience report’ that the South Asia region including India was not making use of
its demographic dividend.
This is because the pace of job creation in the region fell well short of the growth in
the working-age population, even as it projected a strong 6.0-6.1% growth for 2024-25
for the region.
Key Highlights of the Jobs for Resilience Report:
Deceptive strength:
Output growth in South Asia, projected at 6.0-6.1% in 2024–25, continues to exceed
that in other emerging markets and developing economies (EMDE).
But this is largely due to strong growth in India and in the rest of the region it is
expected to remain mostly well below pre pandemic averages.
More than in other EMDE, growth is being driven by the public sector, whereas private
investment continues to be weak.
Many of the underlying vulnerabilities that had previously caused balance-of-
payments pressures remain, and point to downside risks to growth.
Private investment:
Private investment growth has slowed sharply from pre pandemic averages in all
South Asian countries, hampering the region’s efforts to meet development and climate
objectives.
Climate adaptation:
South Asia is highly vulnerable to climate change. However, severely limited fiscal
positions will limit the scope for public policies to facilitate climate change
adaptation.

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This means that the burden of adaptation will fall disproportionately on
firms, farmers, and households (especially poor), which typically suffer greater damage
from climate shocks.
Jobless development:
South Asia’s labour markets stand out among EMDEs for having suffered for decades
from declining employment ratios and exceptionally low shares of women in
employment.
Employment ratio is the employment relative to the total working-age
population.
While agriculture has shed labour, the non-agriculture sector has been unusually
slow in creating jobs.
This partly stems from challenging institutional and economic environments that have
held back firms’ growth.
As a result, the region has relied on labour productivity and population growth as
engines of output growth.
However, working-age population growth is likely to decelerate, and labour productivity
growth has already slowed significantly since the COVID-19 pandemic.
MCQs
4. Which of the following organizations publishes the 'Jobs for Resilience' report?
A) World Economic Forum
B) World Bank
C) International Labour Organization
D) IMF
Answer: B) World Bank
Descriptive Question
2. Examine the phenomenon of “jobless growth” in the context of India’s economic
landscape, particularly in relation to reported GDP growth rates. Analyse the
disconnect between GDP growth figures and the inadequate generation of employment
opportunities.

Hurun Global Rich List, 2024

Recently, the Hurun Global Rich List, 2024 is released by the Hurun Research
Institute. This is the 13th year of the ranking.
Key findings of Hurun Global Rich List, 2024
According to the List, Mumbai became the fastest-growing billionaire capital in the
world with 92 billionaires, adding 26 since the previous year, taking it third in the
world.

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Mumbai has now surpassed Beijing as Asia's billionaire capital.
India witnessed the addition of 94 new billionaires in 2023, second only to the US,
bringing the total to 271 individuals with a net worth of at least USD 1 billion.
The report indicates India's growing economic prominence in the recent past.
Collectively, these Indian billionaires possess wealth amounting to USD 1 trillion,
constituting 7% of the total global billionaire wealth, underscoring India's significant
economic impact.
The prominent industries among India's billionaires are pharmaceuticals with 39
individuals, followed by automobile & auto components with 27, and chemicals with
24 individuals.
MCQs
5. According to Hurun Global Rich List 2004, which of the following cities is
Asia's billionaire capital?
A. Beijing
B. Mumbai
C. Seoul
D. Delhi
Answer: B. Mumbai

Marine Products Export Development Authority

Recently, officials asserted that the entire value chain for India’s shrimp exports is
certified by the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) and there
is no scope for abusive conditions at shrimp farms.
About Marine Products Export Development Authority
It is a statutory body entrusted with the primary task of promotion of export of
marine products.
It was set up by an act of Parliament during 1972. The erstwhile Marine Products
Export Promotion Council established by the Government of India in September, 1961
was converged into MPEDA on 24th August, 1972.
Functions:
Developing and regulating off-shore and deep-sea fishing and undertaking measures
for the conservation and management of off-shore and deep-sea fisheries;
Registering fishing vessels, processing plants or storage premises for marine products
and conveyances used for the transport of marine products; fixing of standards and
specifications for marine products for purposes of export;
Regulating the export of marine products; registering of exporters of marine
products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed;

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It has set up five full-fledged Quality Control Laboratories, at Kochi, Nellore &
Bhimavaram, Bhubaneshwar and Porbandar. In addition, fifteen ELISA Screening
Laboratories set up by MPEDA in the maritime states.
In order to reach out to the exporters in different parts of the Country, it has set up 18
– Regional / Sub Regional Divisions / Desk offices.
Headquarter: Kochi, Kerala
It has Trade Promotion offices at New Delhi, Tokyo and New York.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry
MCQs
6. Where is the headquarter of Marine Products Export Development Authority?
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kochi
D. Chennai
Answer: C. Kochi

India’s coal and lignite production

India’s coal and lignite production reached an unprecedented milestone, surpassing 1
billion tonnes in the fiscal year 2023-24, compared to 937 million tonnes in the
previous fiscal.
India aims to eliminate coal imports by 2025-26, with coal imports for blending
purposes notably decreasing in FY24 compared to the previous fiscal.
The current status of the coal sector in India is as follows:
Geological reserves: India possesses the 5th largest geological reserves of coal
globally and ranks as the 2nd largest consumer of coal in the world.
Production: Coal India Limited (CIL) stands as the largest producer, contributing to
over 70% of coal production in India.
Import: In the fiscal year 2023-24 (until January 2024), India imported 217.75
million tonnes of coal. Non-coking coal dominates the imports, accounting for
approximately 77% of the total imported coal.
MCQs
7. Consider the following statements about India's coal sector:
1. India surpassed 1 billion tonnes in coal and lignite production in the fiscal year
2023-24.

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2. Coal India Limited (CIL) is responsible for about 50% of India's total coal
production.
3. India aims to completely eliminate coal imports by the year 2025-26.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) All of the above
Answer: B) 1 and 3

Green Steel Policy

The Steel Ministry is developing a comprehensive green steel policy, encompassing
the manufacturing process, required skill set, and funding support, as part of a
complete decarbonization strategy.
What is Green Steel?
Green steel is the eco-friendly production of steel with lower greenhouse gas
emissions, possibly reducing costs and enhancing quality compared to traditional
methods.
High Coal Consumption in Blast Furnace: The steel manufacturing process,
involving blast furnaces, basic oxygen furnaces, and electric arc furnaces, is a major
global source of carbon emissions, primarily due to the high coal and coke
consumption in blast furnace operations.
A study suggests that with steel demand projected to rise through the 21st century,
there is a strong incentive to seek low greenhouse gas (GHG) emission alternatives
for steel production.
India's domestic steel sector contributes 12% of the country's greenhouse gas
emissions, with an emission intensity of 2.55 tonnes of CO2 per tonne of crude steel,
higher than the global average of 1.9 tonnes of CO2.
As a Low-Grade Carbon Production Method: It Includes carbon capture and storage
(CCS), using Green/Blue hydrogen, high biomass utilization, and artificial iron units
(AIUs) for reducing carbon emissions and producing high-grade steel.

FSSAI Directives to E-commerce Food Business Operators

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has directed e-commerce
food business operators (FBOs) to correctly categorise food products on their
websites.
The Authority observed cases where licensed "proprietary foods," such as dairy-based,
cereal-based, and malt-based beverage mixes, were incorrectly labelled and sold on
e-commerce platforms as health or energy drinks.

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The food products are considered proprietary food if there are no existence
of standards for them in FSSAI regulations.
FSSAI clarified that "Health Drink" is not defined or standardised anywhere under
the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and advised FBOs to rectify this
misclassification by placing such products in the appropriate category as per the law.
Also, FSSAI further said that the term ‘energy drinks’ is permitted to be used only for
products which have been licensed under that specific food category system.

Paira cropping system

Odisha is promoting climate-resilient agriculture through its rice fallow initiative,
capitalizing on residual moisture after rice harvest to cultivate short-duration pulses
and oilseed crops.
This initiative aims to boost land productivity, increase farmers’ income, and ensure
food security.
The scheme focuses on optimal resource utilization, increasing cropping intensity,
and restoring soil health.
Eight crops are being cultivated under the scheme, including green gram, black
gram, Bengal gram, and mustard.
Eco-friendly inputs such as bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides, and integrated pest
management techniques are being incorporated to promote natural pest control and
reduce reliance on chemical pesticides.
About Paira cropping system:
The utera/paira is a type of cropping which is commonly practiced in Bihar, Eastern
Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil/ lathyrus/ urdbean/ mungbean
seeds are broadcast in the standing crop of rice about 2 weeks before its harvest.
This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding,
irrigation and fertilizer However, rice variety decides the productivity of pulses in this
system.
Advantages:
This practice enables us to use better soil moisture available at the time of harvesting
of rice crops, which could otherwise be lost quickly.
Experimental evidence showed that paira cropping produced more yield of lentil than
planting with tillage after harvesting of the rice crop.
This is an efficient way of utilising resources for sustainable crop intensification and
boosting land productivity.
MCQs
8. What is the main goal of Odisha's rice fallow initiative (Paira cropping system)?

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A) To promote the use of chemical fertilizers
B) To increase the cultivation of rice
C) To utilize residual moisture after rice harvest for cultivating short-duration crops
D) To increase the income of farmers
Answer: C) To utilize residual moisture after rice harvest for cultivating short-
duration crops

Green Credit Programme

Recently, the Union Environment Ministry announced the rules for its Green Credit
Programme (GCP) and within a short span of time ten States have identified parcels
of degraded forest land, amounting to about 3,853 hectares.
About Green Credit Programme
It aims to incentivise environmentally conscious practices and promote a
sustainable lifestyle through a market-based mechanism.
Green credits generated through such actions can be traded on a domestic market
platform.
This program is part of the broader 'LiFE' campaign (Lifestyle for Environment), and
it encourages and rewards voluntary environmentally-positive actions.
According to rules, environment-friendly actions include
It encompasses eight key types of activities aimed at enhancing environmental
sustainability: Tree plantation, water management, sustainable agriculture, waste
management, air pollution reduction, mangrove conservation and restoration,
ecomark label development, and sustainable building and infrastructure.
As per the scheme, individuals, industries, farmers producer’s organisations (FPOs),
urban local bodies (ULB), gram panchayats, and the private sector, among a host of
other entities, will be able to earn green credit for undertaking environment-friendly
actions.
Under the scheme, registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation
projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland. The actual afforestation
will be carried out by State Forest departments.
In its initial phase, the GCP focuses on two key activities: Water conservation and
Afforestation
Implementing Agency: Two years after planting — and following an evaluation by the
International Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an
autonomous body of the Environment Ministry — each planted tree could be worth
one ‘green credit’.
The Green Credit Registry and trading platform, being developed by ICFRE along
with experts, would facilitate the registration and thereafter, the buying and selling of
Green Credits.

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It is important to note that the Green Credit program operates
independently of the carbon credits provided under the Carbon Credit Trading
Scheme, 2023, which is governed by the Energy Conservation Act of 2001.
MCQs
9. Which of the following agencies has designed a Green Credit Registry and
trading platform?
A. Bombay Stock Exchange
B. National Stock Exchange of India
C. International Council of Forestry Research and Education
D. World Environment Council
Answer: International Council of Forestry Research and Education
Descriptive Question
3. Discuss the potential environmental and socio-economic impacts of implementing a
Green Credit Program. How can we ensure that such programs strike a balance
between environmental conservation and socio-economic development effectively?

Directorate General of Trade Remedies

Recently, the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) has now recommended
imposition of anti-dumping duty on sodium cyanide (NaCN) imported from China, the
European Union, Japan and Korea.
About Directorate General of Trade Remedies
It was earlier known as Directorate General of Anti-dumping and Allied Duties
(DGAD) was formed on 17th May 2018.
It works as a single national entity dealing with all kinds of Trade Remedial measures
(anti-dumping, countervailing, safeguard).
It provides a level playing field to the domestic industry against the unfair trade
practices like dumping, subsidization and surge in imports.
Functions:
▪ Conducting anti-dumping investigations and recommendation to Government of
India (GoI).
▪ Conducting anti-subsidy/CVD investigations and recommendation to GoI.
▪ Conducting safeguard investigations and recommendation to GoI
▪ Handling Litigation matters before CESTAT, High Courts and Supreme Court of
India.
▪ Conducting Outreach programmes to create and spread conceptual awareness
and explain the working of DGTR
▪ Exchange of information with the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
Nodal Ministry: It functions as an attached office of the Department of Commerce,
Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

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What is the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF)?
The NIIF has invested $200 million in iBUS Network and Infrastructure Pvt Ltd.,
a connectivity technology firm, to support the growth of India’s digital infrastructure
About National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF)
NIIF is a fund manager that invests in infrastructure and related sectors in India.
It is India’s first-ever sovereign wealth fund (SWF), which was set up in 2015.
An institution anchored by the Government of India, NIIF is a collaborative
investment platform for international and Indian investors with a mandate to invest
equity capital in domestic infrastructure.
NIIF invests across asset classes such as infrastructure, private equity, and other
diversified sectors in India, with the objective of generating attractive risk-adjusted
returns for its investors.
It invests in greenfield (new), brownfield (existing), and stalled projects.
NIIF is 49% owned by the Indian government and has more than $4.9 billion in
assets under management, making it the country’s biggest infrastructure fund.
NIIF benefits from its association with the Government yet is independent in its
investment decisions.
It is majority-owned by institutional investors and managed professionally by a
team with experience in investments and infrastructure.
The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and are currently raising capital from domestic and
international institutional investors.
NIIF manages capital invested currently through four funds:
NIIF Master Fund: This fund primarily invests in infra-related projects such as
roads, ports, airports, and power. It is the largest infrastructure fund in India.
NIIF Private Markets Fund: Invests in funds managed by third-party managers in
infrastructure and associated sectors.
NIIF Strategic Opportunities Fund: It invests and develops large-scale businesses
and greenfield projects that are of strategic importance to the country.
India-Japan Fund: NIIF’s first bilateral fund invests in environment preservation in
India. It also seeks to enable opportunities for collaboration between Indian and
Japanese companies in India. The Fund has a target corpus of US$600 million, with
the Government of India contributing 49% and the remaining 51% contributed by
the Japan Bank for International Cooperation, a policy-based financial institution
wholly owned by the Government of Japan.
MCQs
10. What percentage of the NIIF is owned by the Government of India?

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A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 49%
D) 51%
Answer: C) 49%
11. Which of the following is NOT a focus area of the NIIF funds?
A) Roads and ports
B) Stocks and bonds trading
C) Environment preservation
D) Greenfield projects
Answer: B) Stocks and bonds trading
12. What type of investment vehicle is the NIIF registered as with the Securities
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
A) Mutual Fund
B) Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF)
C) Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)
D) Fixed Deposit
Answer: C) Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)

What are Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG)?

The Rs 5-trillion domestic fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) market still faces
hurdles on its path to complete recovery from the current slowdown.
About Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG)
FMCG, or Consumer Packaged Goods (CPG), are products sold quickly and at a
relatively low cost.
The FMCG industry is characterized by high-volume sales, quick inventory
turnover, and various products catering to consumer needs.
These goods include essential everyday items such as food and beverages,
toiletries, cleaning supplies, and other low-cost household items.
FMCGs have a short shelf life because of high consumer demand (e.g., soft drinks
and confections) or because they are perishable (e.g., meat, dairy products, and
baked goods).
FMCG Industry in India:
The FMCG sector is the fourth-largest sector in the Indian economy.

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In 2022, the urban sector accounted for 65% of the overall annual FMCG
sales, while rural India contributed over 35%.
Household and personal care products make up 50% of the industry’s sales,
healthcare claims 31-32%, and food and beverage products account for the
remaining 18-19%.
It provides employment to around 3 million people, accounting for approximately
5% of the total factory employment in India.
MCQs
13. What characterizes the FMCG (Fast-Moving Consumer Goods) industry?
A) High-cost products with low sales volume
B) Low-cost products with slow inventory turnover
C) High-cost products with quick inventory turnover
D) Low-cost products with high-volume sales and quick inventory turnover
Answer: D) Low-cost products with high-volume sales and quick inventory
turnover
14. Which product categories make up the largest share of FMCG sales in India?
A) Food and beverage products
B) Household and personal care products
C) Healthcare products
D) Electronics and appliances
Answer: B) Household and personal care products

Reform by RBI for Financial Inclusion and Digital Innovation

Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governor, in a press conference on monetary
policy decisions, announced several changes aimed at promoting greater economic
inclusivity and enhancing the utilisation of information technology for economic
activities.
Recent Developments Proposed by RBI
Cash Deposit Facility by Unified Payment Interface (UPI):
Customers will have the option to deposit cash at cash deposit machines (CDMs) in
banks and ATMs using the UPI app. Presently, cash deposits at CDM typically
necessitate the use of a debit card, whether at banks or ATMs.
UPI is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application
(of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing
& merchant payments into one hood.
UPI is currently the biggest among the National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI) operated systems including National Automated Clearing House (NACH),
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Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), Aadhaar enabled Payment System (AePS),
Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), RuPay etc.
Allowing Third Party App to access UPI for Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs):
▪ Currently, UPI payments from PPIs require using the web or mobile app provided
by the PPI issuer.
▪ RBI suggested allowing users to use third-party UPI apps to make UPI payments
from PPI wallets.
▪ PPIs are instruments that facilitate the purchase of goods and services,
conduct of financial services and enable Remittance facilities, among others,
against the money stored in them.
▪ PPIs can be loaded/reloaded by cash, debit to a bank account, or credit and
debit cards.
Permit FPIs to invest in Sovereign Green Bond:
To encourage broader participation of non-residents in Sovereign Green Bond, the
RBI has decided to authorise eligible foreign investors in the International Financial
Services Centre to invest in these bonds.
Currently, foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) registered with SEBI can invest in
Sovereign Green Bond through various investment routes available for FPIs in
government securities.
Sovereign Green bonds are issued by companies, countries and multilateral
organisations to exclusively fund projects that have positive environmental or climate
benefits and provide investors with fixed-income payments.
The projects can include renewable energy, clean transportation and green buildings,
among others.
Mobile App for Retail Direct Scheme:
The RBI also decided to introduce a mobile app for its Retail Direct scheme,
launched in November 2021.
This scheme allows individual investors to hold gilt accounts with the RBI and invest
in government securities.
A Gilt Account is an account opened and maintained for holding Government
securities.
Review of Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR):
The RBI is likely to review the framework on LCR for better management of liquidity
risk by banks.
The LCR is a ratio that measures the proportion of high-quality liquid assets
(HQLA) that financial institutions hold.
Banks covered under the LCR framework must maintain a stock of HQLA to cover 30
days' net outflow under stressed conditions, with a minimum LCR of 100% since
1st January 2019.

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HQLAs include cash, short-term bonds, and other cash equivalents, as
well as excess Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) assets
and the Facility to Avail Liquidity for Liquidity Coverage Ratio (FALLCR) (set at 15% of
the bank's deposits since 1st April 2020).
MCQs
15. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to review the framework on Liquidity
Coverage Ratio for better management of liquidity risk by banks. Which assets
are considered High-Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA) for Liquidity Coverage Ratio
(LCR) purposes?
A) Long-term bonds
B) Cash and short-term bonds
C) Equity shares
D) Fixed Assets
Answer: B) Cash and short-term bonds
Descriptive Question
4. “Financial inclusion is an essential tool in pursuit of social justice”. In light of the
given statement, examine the role of digital technology in furthering the cause of
financial inclusion.
CDP-SURAKSHA
The CDP-SURAKSHA is a digital platform was launched recently to disburse
subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme
(CDP).
It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant
subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts using e-RUPI vouchers.
The platform integrates various features such as database integration, cloud-based
server space, UIDAI validation, and e-RUPI integration.
Farmers can access the platform to order planting material, contribute their share
of the cost, and receive government subsidies upfront.
The system ensures transparency and accountability by requiring farmers to verify
the delivery of planting material through geo-tagged photos and videos.
Unlike the old system, where farmers had to purchase materials themselves and then
seek subsidy release, CDP-SURAKSHA provides subsidies upfront at the time of
purchase.
The Cluster Development Program (CDP) aims to develop horticulture clusters and
attract private investment, covering 55 clusters and an estimated 10 lakh farmers
across India.
MCQs
16. What is the primary goal of the CDP-SURAKSHA digital platform?
A) To provide agricultural loans to farmers
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B) To facilitate instant subsidy disbursal to horticulture farmers
C) To sell farming equipment directly to farmers
D) To collect data on farming activities across India
Answer: B) To facilitate instant subsidy disbursal to horticulture farmers
17. What is the aim of the Cluster Development Program (CDP) in horticulture?
A) To decrease the number of horticulture clusters in India
B) To increase the use of biopesticide in farming
C) To develop horticulture clusters and attract private investment
D) To eliminate subsidies for horticulture farmers
Answer: C) To develop horticulture clusters and attract private investment

Government Reviews RERA Functioning

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is in the process of reviewing the
functioning of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.
What is RERA?
The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA), is a significant legislation
enacted by the Government of India in 2016.
Its primary objective is to regulate the real estate sector and promote transparency,
accountability, and efficiency in real estate transactions.
RERA aims to protect the interests of homebuyers and promote fair practices in the
real estate industry.
Need:
Securing the Largest Investment Sector: Regulation of the real estate sector has
been under discussion since 2013, and the RERA Act eventually came into being in
2016. Data show that more than 77% of the total assets of an average Indian
household are held in real estate, and it’s the single largest investment of an
individual in his lifetime.
Creating Accountability: Before the law, the real estate and housing sector was
largely unregulated, with the consequence that consumers were unable to hold
builders and developers accountable.
The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 was inadequate to address the needs of
homebuyers. RERA was introduced to ensure greater accountability towards
consumers, to reduce frauds and delays, and to set up a fast -track dispute resolution
mechanism.
Major Provisions:

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Establishment of State-Level Regulatory Authorities, i.e. Real Estate Regulatory
Authority (RERA): The Act provides for State governments to establish more than one
regulatory authority with the following mandate:
▪ Register and maintain a database of real estate projects; publish it on its website
for public viewing,
▪ Protection of interest of promoters, buyers and real estate agents
▪ Development of sustainable and affordable housing,
▪ Render advice to the government and ensure compliance with its Regulations and
the Act.
▪ Establishment of Real Estate Appellate Tribunal: Decisions of RERAs can be
appealed in these tribunals.
Mandatory Registration: All projects with a plot size of a minimum of 500 sq. mt or
eight apartments need to be registered with Regulatory Authorities.
Deposits: Depositing 70% of the funds collected from buyers in a separate escrow
bank account for construction of that project only.
Liability: Developer’s liability to repair structural defects for five years.
Penal interest in case of default: Both promoter and buyer are liable to pay an equal
rate of interest in case of any default from either side.
Cap on Advance Payments: A promoter cannot accept more than 10% of the cost
of the plot, apartment or building as an advance payment or an application fee from a
person without first entering into an agreement for sale.
Carpet Area: Defines Carpet Area as net usable floor area of flat. Buyers will be
charged for the carpet area and not the super built-up area.
The built-up area refers to the total floor area of a building, including all interior and
exterior spaces such as walls, balconies, common areas, and amenities.
Punishment: Imprisonment of up to three years for developers and up to one year
in case of agents and buyers for violation of orders of Appellate Tribunals and
Regulatory Authorities.
MCQs
18. Consider the following statements regarding the Real Estate (Regulation and
Development) Act, 2016 (RERA):
1. RERA mandates that all real estate projects with a minimum plot size of 500 square
meters or eight apartments must be registered with the Regulatory Authorities.
2. The act allows developers to accept up to 20% of the cost of the unit as an advance
payment without an agreement for sale.
3. RERA was enacted to promote transparency, accountability, and efficiency in real
estate transactions and to protect the interests of homebuyers.
4. Under RERA, developers are required to deposit 50% of the funds collected from
buyers in a separate escrow account to cover construction costs.
Which of the above statements are correct?

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A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1, 2, and 4
D) All of the above
Answer: A) 1 and 3
Descriptive Question
5. Analyse the major provisions of RERA and assess its effectiveness in achieving
transparency, accountability, and consumer protection in the real estate industry.

What is Shrinkflation?
As input prices, which were benign for a few quarters, turn inflationary, the spectre of
shrinkflation looms large within the fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) segment.
About Shrinkflation
It occurs when goods shrink in size but consumers pay the same price. It occurs
when manufacturers downsize products to offset higher production costs but keep
retail prices the same.
It is basically a form of hidden inflation.
Instead of increasing the price of a product, producers reduce the size of the product
while maintaining the same price.
The absolute price of the product doesn’t go up, but the price per unit of weight or
volume has increased.
The reasons for shrinkflation are rising production costs and market competition.
These are products sold quickly and at a relatively low cost. The FMCG industry is
characterized by high-volume sales, quick inventory turnover, and various products
catering to consumer needs.
These goods include essential everyday items such as food and beverages, toiletries,
cleaning supplies, and other low-cost household items.
MCQs
19. What is shrinkflation?
A) An increase in product prices during inflationary periods.
B) A reduction in product size while maintaining the same price.
C) A decrease in product quality to reduce production costs.
D) An increase in the volume of products sold to increase revenue.
Answer: B) A reduction in product size while maintaining the same price.
20. Which of the following best describes the effect of shrinkflation on product
pricing?
A) The absolute price of the product decreases.
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B) The price per unit of the product remains the same.
C) The price per unit of weight or volume increases.
D) There is no change in the product’s pricing or sizing.
Answer: C) The price per unit of weight or volume increases.

India Gains Sittwe Port Access

Recently, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) has approved a proposal for India
Ports Global Ltd (IPGL) to take over the operations of the entire Sittwe port located
on the Kaladan River, Myanmar. It will be India’s 2nd overseas port after Chabahar
Port.
IPGL is a company 100% owned by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
The Sittwe Port, located in the Rakhine State of Myanmar, is a crucial component of
the Kaladan multi-modal transit transport project.
The deep-water port offers a significant connectivity advantage for cargo to reach from
Vizag and Kolkata to the Northeastern states, bypassing Bangladesh.
It will also reduce dependency on the Siliguri Corridor (or the chicken’s neck)
squeezed between Bhutan and Bangladesh.
India’s operational control over these 2 overseas ports, Chabahar and Sittwe, will
strengthen India’s maritime influence to counter China’s String of Pearls policy with
ports like Hambantota in Sri Lanka, Djibouti in Africa, etc.
MCQs
21. Which Indian company has taken over the operations of Sittwe Port?
A) Reliance Industries Ltd.
B) India Ports Global Ltd (IPGL).
C) Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone.
D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited.
Answer: B) India Ports Global Ltd (IPGL)
22. Sittwe Port is a part of which larger project?
A) The Bharatmala Project
B) The Kaladan multi-modal transit transport project
C) The Sagarmala Project
D) The Setu Bharatam Project
Answer: B) The Kaladan multi-modal transit transport project

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India-Mauritius Tax Treaty
India and Mauritius amended their double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA) to
include a principal purpose test (PPT) aimed at curbing tax avoidance.
However, the amended protocol has not been ratified or notified by the Income Tax
Department.
There were concerns that investments through Mauritius might face increased
scrutiny by tax authorities, potentially affecting past investments as well.
Double taxation occurs when the same income is taxed twice in two different
jurisdictions before it becomes net income. To address this issue and encourage
international economic activities, countries sign Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreements (DTAAs).
These agreements establish agreed-upon tax rates and jurisdictions for specific types
of income received by tax residents of one country from another country.
DTAA aims to prevent international double taxation and promote capital
investment, trade, and economic activities between the signatory nations.
The agreements may cover various categories of income, depending on the types of
businesses and holdings citizens have in each other’s countries.
MCQs
23. What is the purpose of including a principal purpose test (PPT) in the DTAA
between India and Mauritius?
A) To increase tax rates on foreign investments.
B) To curb tax avoidance by scrutinizing the main purpose of transactions.
C) To simplify tax laws for multinational companies.
D) To reduce the tax liabilities of domestic companies.
Answer: B) To curb tax avoidance by scrutinizing the main purpose of
transactions.
24. What is the main goal of Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs)?
A) To impose additional taxes on foreign entities.
B) To prevent international double taxation and promote economic cooperation.
C) To exclusively tax the residents of one country.
D) To collect taxes from non-residents regardless of their income sources.
Answer: B) To prevent international double taxation and promote economic
cooperation.

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Khavda Solar Park (Gujarat’s Kutch)
Khavda Solar Park in Gujarat’s Kutch, is the world’s largest renewable energy park
(5 times the size of Paris City). It boasts of 2 GW of commissioned capacity with plans
to add 4 GW in the current fiscal year and 5 GW annually thereafter.
The Khavda Solar Park is near Vighakot village in Gujarat’s Kutch district. Situated
near the Pakistan border, it aims to generate 30 gigawatts of electricity from solar
panels and wind turbines across 72,600 hectares of land when fully operational.
Khavda was chosen for its ideal conditions for renewable energy generation,
including abundant sunlight and strong wind speeds. Additionally, its remote location
and barren land minimize land use conflicts and maximize the potential for large-scale
energy production
MCQs
25. Khavda Solar Park is the world’s largest renewable energy park (5 times the
size of Paris City). Where is it located?
A) Near Vighakot village in Gujarat’s Kutch district.
B) In the center of Gujarat’s capital city.
C) Near the coastline of Gujarat.
D) On the border of Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Answer: A) Near Vighakot village in Gujarat’s Kutch district

What is Imported Inflation?

The Asian Development Bank recently warned that India could face imported
inflation as the rupee could depreciate amid the rise in interest rates in the West.
About Imported Inflation
Imported inflation is a general and sustainable price increase due to an increase in
the costs of imported products.
This price increase concerns the price of raw materials and all imported products or
services used by companies in a country.
Imported inflation is also referred to as cost inflation.
Several factors cause imported inflation:
▪ Exchange Rates: The most significant driver of imported inflation is fluctuations
in exchange rates. The more the currency depreciates on the foreign exchange
market, the higher the price of imports. Effectively, more money is needed to buy
goods and services outside the country.
▪ Commodity Prices: Many countries, particularly smaller countries, are highly
dependent on imported commodities like oil, metals, and agricultural products.
When commodity prices rise globally, it directly impacts the cost of imports and can
lead to higher inflation in the importing country.
▪

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▪ Trade Policies and Global Supply-Chains: Changes in trade policies, such as
tariffs and quotas, can influence the cost of imported goods.
▪ Transportation Costs: Fluctuations in transportation costs, influenced by factors
like fuel prices and logistical challenges, can affect the final cost of imported goods.
Effect:
With imported inflation, production costs are higher for companies. These companies
most often reflect this increase in the selling price of the goods and services sold. As
a result, prices within the country rise.
MCQs
26. What is imported inflation?
A) A decrease in the general price level due to lower costs of imported goods.
B) A temporary rise in prices due to domestic factors.
C) A sustainable increase in prices resulting from higher costs of imported products.
D) An increase in export prices due to domestic inflation.
Answer: C) A sustainable increase in prices resulting from higher costs of
imported products.

India’s Goods Exports Touches New Height

India's merchandise exports reached a peak of USD 41.68 billion in March 2024
compared to the FY 2022-23.
What does the Current Export Data Reveal?
India’s goods exports reached USD 41.68 billion in March 2024 compared to the FY
2022-23, despite a 0.67% decline from last year’s tally,
Imports, on the other hand, dropped by 6% to USD 57.3 billion during the same
period.
The goods trade deficit contracted to USD 15.6 billion, the lowest in 11 months.
Key Factors:
Gold Imports Decline: Gold imports fell sharply by 53.6% in March to USD 1.53
billion.
Non-Oil, Non-Gold Imports: The drop in non-petroleum, non-gold imports
contributed to the overall decline.
Silver Imports Surge: Interestingly, silver imports jumped to USD 816.6 million.
Impact on Full-Year Figures (2023-24):
While goods exports averaged USD 35.4 billion in the first ten months, the last two
months’ spike lifted the full-year export figure to USD 437.1 billion.

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This performance is 3.1% below the record USD 451.1 billion achieved in the previous
year.
Trade Deficit Improvement:
The overall trade deficit is estimated to significantly improve by 35.77% to USD 78.12
billion in FY 2023-24.
Merchandise trade deficit improved by 9.33% to USD 240.17 billion compared to FY
2022-23.
Descriptive Question
6. Discuss the reasons and the impacts of the current trend of trade deficit in India.
Pink bollworm
Cotton farmers in North India are considering shifting to crops like paddy, maize,
and guar for the upcoming 2024-25 kharif season due to various challenges.
These challenges include weak prices for cotton, severe infestation of pink bollworm
(PBW) during the previous season, and increasing labour costs.
In Punjab, the cotton area for the 2023-24 kharif season decreased by 32% compared
to the previous year.
Pink Bollworm:
The pink bollworm (PBW), or Pectinophora gossypiella, is a moth that is a major pest
to cotton in many regions of the world.
It is known as “Pinky” because the larvae develop pink bands as they mature.
The larvae are small white caterpillars with eight pairs of legs and pink bands along
their backs.
The PBW lays eggs on cotton bolls, which hatch into larvae that burrow into the bolls
and squares, destroying the seeds and staining the lint. The larvae take on pinkish
bands as they mature.
MCQs
27. What is the pink bollworm, and why is it a concern for cotton farmers?
A) A beneficial insect that increases cotton yields.
B) A pest that lays eggs in cotton bolls, damaging seeds and lint.
C) A type of fungus that affects cotton plants.
D) A weed that competes with cotton for nutrients.
Answer: B) A pest that lays eggs in cotton bolls, damaging seeds and lint

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Spices Board India
With certain spices of Indian brands facing ban in Singapore and Hong Kong due to
quality concerns, the Spices Board said it will start mandatory testing of such
consignments destined to these two countries.
About Spices Board India:
It is the statutory organization constituted on 26th February 1987, under the Spices
Board Act 1986.
It was formed with the merger of the erstwhile Cardamom Board and Spices Export
Promotion Council.
The Board functions as an international link between the Indian exporters and the
importers abroad and it has been involved in various activities which touch upon
every segment of the spices sector.
Main functions
▪ The Spices Board is responsible for the overall development of cardamom (small
and large) in terms of improving production, productivity and quality.
▪ The Board is also implementing post-harvest improvement programmes for
improving quality of the 52 scheduled spices for export.
▪ The various development programmes and post-harvest quality improvement
programmes of the Board are included under the head ‘Export Oriented
Production’.
▪ Promotion of organic production, processing and certification of spices
▪ Development of spices in the North East
▪ Provision of quality evaluation services
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India.
MCQs
28. Which ministry oversees the Spices Board of India?
A) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
B) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
C) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
D) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
Answer: C) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
29. What is the primary function of the Spices Board of India?
A) To regulate the import of all agricultural products into India.
B) To promote the export of Indian spices and improve their production and quality.
C) To enforce health and safety regulations in Indian restaurants.
D) To manage the pricing of spices within the domestic markets of India.
Answer: B) To promote the export of Indian spices and improve their production
and quality.

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Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL)
It is a Joint Venture Company formed with the participation of National Aluminium
Company Ltd.(NALCO), Hindustan Copper Ltd.(HCL) and Mineral Exploration
Company Ltd. (MECL) in August, 2019.
Mandate: Target of this company is to identify, acquire, develop, process and make
commercial use of strategic minerals in overseas locations for supply in India.
It is focusing on identifying and sourcing battery minerals like Lithium and Cobalt.
The equity participation between NALCO, HCL and MECL is in the ratio of 40:30:30.
Functions
▪ It helps in building partnerships with other mineral rich countries like Australia
and those in Africa and South America, where Indian expertise in exploration and
mineral processing will be mutually beneficial bringing about new economic
opportunities.
▪ The KABIL would carry out identification, acquisition, exploration,
development, mining and processing of strategic minerals overseas for commercial
use and meeting country’s requirement of these minerals.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Mines
MCQs
30. What is the equity participation ratio among NALCO, HCL, and MECL in
Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL)?
A) 50:25:25
B) 40:30:30
C) 33:33:34
D) 45:25:30
Answer: B) 40:30:30

World Intellectual Property Day

NASSCOM recently released Patenting Trends in India report on World Intellectual
Property Day.
About World Intellectual Property Day
It is celebrated every year on April 26.
The day aims to raise awareness about intellectual property (IP) rights and its role
in encouraging innovation and creativity to make the world a better place.
This day is an opportunity to raise awareness about the need for a balanced approach
to intellectual property protection that takes into account the rights of creators and
copyright holders, as well as the public interest.

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The day was established in 2000 by the World Intellectual Property
Organisation (WIPO).
Official theme for World Intellectual Property Day 2024: ‘IP and the SDGs: Building
Our Common Future with Innovation and Creativity’
History:

In 1883, the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property was signed,
which further established protection for intellectual properties.
This was aimed at protecting inventions, trademarks, and industrial designs.
In 1970, the Convention establishing the World Intellectual Property Organisation
entered into force, creating WIPO.
In 1974, WIPO became a specialised agency of the United Nations.
WIPO is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193 member states that
works to promote the protection and advancement of intellectual property worldwide.
Patenting Trends in India Report
It was released by Nasscom on World Intellectual Property Day.
Mirroring global trends, in FY2023, India witnessed 83,000 patents being filed,
marking an annual growth rate of 24.6%, the highest in the last two decades.
The number of patents granted also witnessed significant growth, rising over
2Xbetween FY2019 and FY2023.
The share of patents filed by residents of India has doubled over the last decade,
from 33.6 percent of the total filings in the fiscal year 2019 to over 50 percent by the
fiscal year 2023.
Maximum patent applications were in the field of healthcare, essentially around
medical imaging, diagnosing, report generation, and testing.
Other areas that are important for filing a patent are Automation/Software
Development and Retail/e-commerce.
MCQs
31. What was the official theme for World Intellectual Property Day in 2024?
A) ‘IP and Global Health: Innovating for a Healthier Future’
B) ‘IP and the SDGs: Building Our Common Future with Innovation and Creativity’
C) ‘Protecting IP: Ensuring a Sustainable Future’
D) ‘Creativity and the Arts: Protecting IP Across Borders’
Correct Answer: B) ‘IP and the SDGs: Building Our Common Future with
Innovation and Creativity’

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32. Which field saw the maximum patent applications in India
according to the Patenting Trends in India report released by Nasscom?
A) Automotive technology
B) Healthcare, specifically medical imaging and diagnostics
C) Information Technology and Software Development
D) Green energy solutions
Answer: B) Healthcare, specifically medical imaging and diagnostics

Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme

The Centre has extended Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) status to the gem
and jewellery sector.
About Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme
An AEO is a business entity involved in the international movement of goods
requiring compliance with provisions of the national customs law.
It is approved by or on behalf of the national administration in compliance with the
World Customs Organization (WCO).
The WCO in June, 2005, with a view to secure the international supply chain, adopted
the SAFE Framework of Standards (WCO SAFE FoS).
AEO is one of the three pillars on which the SAFE FoS is formed.
AEO helps to build a closer partnership between the customs department and the
trade industry.
WCO SAFE FoS is the basis of the Indian AEO programme.
What is the AEO programme?
It was introduced in India by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
(CBIC) in 2011.
It is a voluntary programme administered by the CBIC.
It seeks to provide benefits in the form of simplified customs procedures and faster
customs clearances to those business entities that offer a high degree of security
guarantees regarding their role in the supply chain.
Thus, an entity with an AEO status can be considered a reliable trading partner and
a secure trader.
This segmentation approach enables customs resources to focus on less-non-
compliant or risky businesses for control.
Benefits:
Direct port delivery in the case of import and direct port entry in case of export;

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Small and medium scale entities would be given special focus. It must be
noted that any entity handling up to 25 import and export documents annually can
become part of the AEO programme;
▪ Easy and fast disbursal of the drawback amount;
▪ Easy and fast disbursal of refunds and adjudications;
▪ Paperless declaration with no supporting documents;
▪ Site inspection or examination possible on request;
▪ Recognition by partner Government agencies and other stake holders.
MCQs
33. What is the primary purpose of the Authorized Economic Operator (AEO)
status?
A) To provide a marketing advantage over competitors
B) To facilitate faster and simplified customs procedures for secure traders
C) To increase the tax liabilities of international businesses
D) To restrict international trade to specific entities
Answer: B) To facilitate faster and simplified customs procedures for secure
traders
34. When was the Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) programme introduced
in India?
A) 2005
B) 2011
C) 1997
D) 2000
Answer: B) 2011
35. In April, 2024, which of the following sector has been granted Authorised
Economic Operator (AEO) status?
A. Gem and Jewellery
B. Textile
C. Solar Sector
D. FinTech
Answer: A. Gem and Jewellery

What is Green Taxonomy?

The RBI and the Finance Ministry could take inspiration from the developing world,
especially the ASEAN region, where a layered green taxonomy as a living document
keeps getting updated with sectoral views of possible sustainable trajectories.

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About Green Taxonomy:
A green taxonomy is a framework for defining what can be called environmentally
sustainable investments.
It is a classification system that defines which economic activities and assets are
“green” or environmentally sustainable.
Green taxonomies are useful instruments, and they have several complementary
purposes:
▪ Taxonomies help prevent greenwashing;
▪ Taxonomies help investors make informed investment decisions; and
▪ Taxonomies channel investment toward sustainable or green economic activities
and assets.
Structurally, all taxonomies are similar. So far, they all include the goals of climate
mitigation and adaptation, and some also include other environmental objectives such
as biodiversity conservation, for example.
To be considered green, an activity must substantially contribute to at least one
of the environmental objectives.
Often, taxonomies also include “do no significant harm” criteria (i.e., an activity that
substantially contributes to one environmental objective should not harm another
environmental objective) and social safeguards (i.e., compliance with human rights).
Some taxonomies only define what is green, and others, such as the recently
launched Indonesian taxonomy or the proposed Singaporean taxonomy, use a “traffic
light” approach, where the economic activities are split into different categories (i.e.
green, amber, or red) to classify their environmental sustainability.
What is Greenwashing?
It is the process of conveying a false impression or misleading information about
how a company’s products are environmentally sound.
Greenwashing involves making an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into
believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly or have a greater
positive environmental impact than they actually do.
In addition, greenwashing may occur when a company attempts to emphasize
sustainable aspects of a product to overshadow its involvement in
environmentally damaging practices.
MCQs
36. How do green taxonomies help investors?
A) By ensuring the highest returns on investment.
B) By identifying sustainable or green economic activities to invest in.
C) By providing tax exemptions on all green products.
D) By guaranteeing government subsidies for green projects.
Answer: B) By identifying sustainable or green economic activities to invest in.
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37. What does the term "greenwashing" refer to?
A) A technique for recycling industrial waste.
B) The use of green technology in manufacturing.
C) Misleading consumers about the environmental benefits of a product or service.
D) The process of planting trees to offset carbon emissions.
Answer: C) Misleading consumers about the environmental benefits of a product
or service.

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