Cessna 680 Sovereign StudyGuide

CITATION SOVEREIGN STUDY GUIDE
Last update: November 12th, 2008

All references come from the FlightSafety Volume 2 manual, AFM revision 6 and 7, FSI Instructor
Email corrections/updates to webmaster@ce680.com
1) AIRCRAFT GENERAL
2) ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS
3) LIGHTING
4) MASTER WARNING SYSTEM
5) FUEL SYSTEM
6) AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
7) POWERPLANT
8) FIRE PROTECTION
9) PNEUMATICS
10) ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
11) AIR CONDITIONING
12) PRESSURIZATION
13) HYDRAULIC POWER SYSTEMS
14) LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES
15) FLIGHT CONTROLS
16) AVIONICS
17) MISCELLEANEOUS SYSTEMS
18) LIMITATIONS
19) PERFORMANCE
1
1. AIRCRAFT GENERAL:
Under which section of the FARs is the Sovereign certified? Pg 1-2

Part 25, day, night, VFR, IFR and flight into known ice and Category I operations
What kind of construction concept is it built under? Pg 1-9

Fail-safe and damage-tolerant construction
What kind of wing design does the Sovereign has? Pg 1-9

Moderately supercritical to achieve low aerodynamic drag, high internal volume fuel and structures, and favorable approach and landings
qualities
What components are mounted on the wings? Pg 1-9

Ailerons, Spoilers/speed-brakes, flaps, integral fuel tanks, support structure for landing gears.
Three spars provide structural integrity.
How is ice accumulation prevented on the wings? Pg 1-9 and section 10

Leading edges are anti-iced by engine bleed air.
What is the dimension of the cabin? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

Approx 30 feet in length (bulkhead–bulkhead), 5’7” wide and 5’8” height
What is the height of the tail? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

20.33 feet. Keep in mind for hangar.
What is the length of the wingspan? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

63.37 feet
What is the overall length of the aircraft? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

63.54 feet
What is the wing tip to wing tip turning radius? Pg 1-3

73.14 feet
What is the nose wheel turning radius for a 180 turn on taxiway? Pg 1-3
Approx 40 feet (plan for a minimum of 50 feet wide taxiway)
Describe the unpressurized nose section: Pg 1-2

-Two doors with two paddle latches each, a cam key lock, one safety “pin”. Paddle latch has an integral microswitch (“AMBER” NOSE
DOOR OPEN L-R CAS)
-Avionics modules (both sides)
-Power brakes and nose wheel steering (NWS) accumulators and Emergency brake pneumatic bottle (Left Side)
-Fire extinguisher bottle with Halon 1301 metered discharge rate (MDR) (Right side of nose)
-Emergency Battery Pack
How is the main door operated? Pg 1-4

Door is counterbalanced by two coiled springs connected to cable reels.
How is the cabin door secured? Pg 1-5

6 latches (3 on each side). Latches are mechanically driven by a series of pushrods and bell cranks. The inside handle is secured by a pin.
Visual indicators are also included to confirm position of latches.
2
How many proximity switches monitor the door position? Pg 1-8
5 total.
-One is in between upper and middle door latch rollers.
-Three proximity switches that monitor the locking system.
-The last one monitors the position of the securing pin in the inner handle. (80 KIAS switch)
Any one of these five switches will trigger the “Amber” CABIN DOOR OPEN CAS
Why should we have DC power and L-R avionics turned on while securing the door? Pg 1-8
To prevent having a “CABIN DOOR OPEN CAS” message. If this happens, open and re-close the door
What is the purpose of the vent door? Pg 1-6

It prevents pressurization until the latching system is engaged and locked. It moves automatically when opening
or closing door.
How many seals are “near” the cabin door?

2
What is the purpose of the cabin door seal? Pg 1-6

It serves as the pressurization seal. It is the one located towards the outside of the aircraft. The door closes tight to it. It does not inflate.
What is the purpose of the acoustic seal? Pg 1-6

Dampen noise around door. Inflated by service bleed air, if an engine or APU is running. Door must be closed, latched, locked and left
throttle out of cut-off for seal to inflate
Describe the emergency exit: Pg 1-8

Located on right side of fuselage. Plug-type door. Rotating the D-handle clockwise will release the ONE latching pin. Pulling on the D-
handle after rotating it, will disengage the TWO plug pins. Proximity switch by the handle pin will annunciate an “Amber” EMERGENCY
EXIT OPEN CAS”.
When does the “Amber” LAVATORY CAS illuminates? Pg 1-9

If door is not stowed and flap position is lower than 2 degrees or either the main landing gear is down and locked.
Brief pax WHY the door must be opened for takeoff and landing
Where is the tail cone access door located and what is located inside? Pg 1-9
Under the right engine nacelle
-Hydraulic system
-Pneumatic system
-Environmental system
-Electrical system
-Engine Fire extinguishing system
-APU
-APU Fire extinguishing system with Halon 1301 high discharge rate (HDR)
One plunger switch connected to lower forward latch will trigger, “Amber” TAIL CONE DOOR OPEN CAS
One key cam lock
Where is the Baggage compartment located? Pg 1-10

Under the left engine nacelle
How many pins secure the baggage door? Pg 1-10

-4 pins. Each one of them is connected to a proximity micro switch.
-One key cam lock. (microswitch)
Will trigger “Amber” BAGGAGE DOOR OPEN CAS
What is the maximum weight that we can load in the baggage compartment? Pg 1-10
1,000 lbs
3
What is the maximum floor loading distribution? Pg 18-15
150 lbs per square foot
How many smoke detectors in the baggage compartment? Pg 4-6

2 detectors. Baggage heat is automatically disabled upon smoke detection
If smoke detection system fails, can we carry baggage in the compartment? Pg 18-15
No. Smoke detection and extinguishing systems must be fully operational
Where are the batteries access doors? Pg 1-10

Each side of the fuselage.
No EICAS alert message system
Where is the Hydraulic service door? Pg1-11

Right side of aircraft aft of the battery door.
What is the purpose of the drain mast under the hydraulic door? Pg1-11
To vent excess hydraulic fluid overboard and prevent the fluid from spraying on the fuselage
Where is the lavatory service door? Pg1-11

Right side of fuselage, forward of hydraulic door, just under External Power Unit access door
How much fluid can the Lavatory be serviced with? Pg 17-12 and placard on service door
3 gallons or 11 liters. Maximum system capacity is 4.5 gallons
How many doors are monitored?

6 doors total
-2 nose access doors
-1 tail cone (hell hole)
-1 baggage door
-1 emergency exit
-1 cabin door
4
2. ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS:
Describe briefly the electrical system: Pg 2-1

Predominantly DC. Limited AC for windshield operation.
Split bus system.
What is the primary source of power for the Sovereign? Pg 1-12, 2-2, 6-1
-Two engine-driven starter-generators (DC) 30 volt, 300 amps each. Mounted on each engine accessory section
-APU generator. 28.5 volt 275 amp-hour, but regulated to not exceed 300 amps
-External power. 28 volts amps between 1,000-1,500 amps for engine starts
Can the generators be paralleled with each other? Pg 2-3

No
How are the generators controlled? Pg 2-2

GCU
Where are the GCUs? Pg 2-2

In the tail cone
What does the GCU do? Pg 2-2

-Regulates the generator at 28.5 volts
-Protects the generator
-Provide limited load sharing capability during certain conditions .
What are the maximum generator current limits for the engine? AFM REV 6
-Ground: 300A
-Air: 300A
- Above 35,000 feet is 275A
What are the maximum generator current limits for the APU? AFM REV 6
Ground and Air is 275A
What happens when the BUS TIE relay is CLOSED? Pg 2-2

Each generator provides approx. one half the total electrical load.
What is the secondary power source? Pg 2-2

Two 25 volt, 44-amp-hour Nickel Cadmium batteries (DC)
When do we use the batteries? Pg 2-2

On ground for engine start and as emergency power source during in-flight operations
It is the only source used for in-flight engine and APU starts.
How is the system normally operated? Pg 2-1

Left generator and battery operate the left sides buses and the right side generator and battery operate the right side buses.
Can you tie the left and right side buses together? Pg 2-1
Yes. By a bus tie relay controlled from the cockpit.
How is the electrical system monitored? Pg 2-2

By the EICAS
If both generators tripped offline, how much time do we have? Pg 2-3, 2-16
Load shedding will provide 60 minutes, otherwise 20 minutes with only batteries powering the ship
5
Where are the batteries voltages, amps and temps displayed? Pg 2-3
EICAS
What does the EXT PWR AVAIL white light on the Electrical Switch panel means? Pg 2-3
GPU is connected to aircraft and operating.
What happens when you depress the switch? Pg 2-3

Allows the GPU power to the distribution network. “Cyan” ON will be illuminated on the switch.
What happens if the GPU voltage is excessive? Pg 2-3

It will automatically trip off and the switch light will revert to AVAIL. Must be between 26.5 and 32.0 VDC to illuminate AVAIL
Can the APU provide power to the entire electrical system? Pg 2-3
Yes.
Where are the primary buses? Pg 2-4

Aft J-Boxes. (need to remove forward access panels in baggage compartment.)
How can we connect the left and right buses together if a generator fails? Pg 2-4
By depressing the BUS TIE switch to CLOSED.
What happens if an electrical short occurs? Pg 2-4

The split bus system will prevent the short from affecting the opposite side. Due to system Logic, various buses can be isolated and
different power sources can be selected to isolate “hot spots”.
What are the Modular Avionics 3 and 4? Pg 2-4

Located in the tail cone, they process control Logic for operation of various relays to connect power sources to buses.
What items are located on the LEFT battery bus? Pg 2-4

-Aft baggage lights
-Tail cone lights
-Left battery voltage (EICAS)
-CDMS (Cessna Diagnostic Maintenance System)
-APU service panel
What items are located on the RIGHT Battery bus? Pg 2-5

-Cabin Entry lights
-Under pylon work lights
-Right battery voltage (EICAS)
-Lavatory Service
-ELT
How do we isolate the battery from the main DC bus during emergency? Pg 2-6
By depressing the affected L or R ELEC NORM/EMER light switch. A white EMER will illuminate.
What happens when the BUS TIE switch light illuminates CLOSED? Pg 2-6
A closed BUS TIE relay connects the LH and RH EMER buses together.
What is the position of the BUS TIE switch light during APU/GPU operations? Pg 2-6
Closed until a primary source of power is online on each side. Relay will automatically OPEN.
BUS TIE is totally automatic on the ground.
When should a BUS TIE be selected closed in-flight? Pg 2-6

NEVER. Unless a checklist procedure requires it.
Will the BUS TIE automatically be selected “CLOSED” if a generator fails in-flight? Pg 2-6
NO. It will remain open until it is selected CLOSED.
6
During flight, if the BUS TIE is selected CLOSED, under which condition will it automatically OPEN? Pg 2-6
In-flight, it is always manually selected unless an Overcurrent occurs.
What precaution must we take when disconnecting the GPU? Pg 2-7

Ensure the EXT PWR switch light indicates AVAIL prior to disengaging.
How do we place the APU generator online? Pg 2-7

By depressing the GENERATOR switch on the APU panel
What happens when we turn on the APU GEN? Pg 2-7

It connects the APU GEN to the LH EMER bus.
If the APU GEN connects to the LH EMER bus, what do we need to do to power entire system? Pg 2-7
Nothing. BUS TIE automatically closes with APU Generator power only.
What happens when the APU GEN is on and the LH engine generator is selected ON? Pg 2-7
The APU GEN will automatically trip offline.
If the LH engine generator is online, will the APU GEN come online? Pg2-7
NO
How is the Avionics power distributed? Pg 2-7

From the left and right main DC buses through the left and right AVN relays.
How many Emergency batteries are installed? Pg 2-4

One emergency Lead-Acid battery pack in the left nose compartment
What does the Emergency battery do? Pg 2-4

Back-up source of power for essential Avionics
How is the Emergency battery charged? Pg 2-4

The pack is trickled charged from the main DC Power.
What instruments are powered by the Emergency battery (Standby instrument Battery)? Pg 2-4
The Standby Instruments in the center panel.
-Standby air data unit (airspeed, altitude, VS)
-Standby flight display EHSI
- Standby heading (magnetometer)
-Standby engine instrument Left and Right (two different channels)
How are the Standby Instruments normally powered? Pg 2-4

By MAIN DC power
How much time can the Emergency Power Pack power the Standby Instruments? Pg 2-4
Approx 180 minutes
What indication do we have that the standby instruments are powered by the Emergency Battery pack? Pg 2-4
Amber light next to the STBY PWR switch will illuminate.
What can you do if you suspect an electrical fire in the cabin? Pg 2-7
Depressing the INTERIOR NORM-OFF switch to OFF (open) should alleviate the problem. This action shuts off all electrical power to the
cabin, except emergency lighting. Go to checklist
How is the electrical system MONITORED? Pg 2-7

Modular Avionics Unit (MAU). They receive information, process it and send it to the EICAS for display.
What powers the EICAS bus? Pg 2-9

The RH Emergency bus via a DC-DC converter
7
What does the DC-DC converter do? Pg 2-9
Ensures stable DC Power to the EICAS and FADEC, especially during engine starts
What happens to the EICAS if it losses of main DC Power? Pg 2-9

EICAS display will go blank.
What happens to the Generator digital readout DC AMPS during and after engine start? Pg 2-10
It will remain green for five (5) minutes after start.
What happens to the BATT VOLTS display during and after engine start? Pg 2-10
It will remain green for two (2) minutes after start.
What happens to the battery temperature display if it is < -70 degrees or > 160 degrees? Pg 2-10
It is considered invalid data. Dashes will replace digits.
In between what temperature range will it be displayed in red? Pg 2-10

64 and 160 degrees
If the BATTERY O’TEMP L-R CAS comes on during ground ops and then clears, can we go? AFM REV 6
No. Dispatch is prohibited
If we lose both Generators, which annunciators will remain operational? Pg 2-11

FUEL LOW, STAB NO TAKEOFF, GEN OFF, OIL PRESS are powered by the emergency bus (60 minutes)
What would trigger the DC AMPS display to become red? Pg 2-10

If the generator load is greater than 550 amps
If the right engine is started first using the APU, what happens to the BUS TIE after start? Pg 2-13
If the generator is online, the BUS TIE will open.
If the left engine is started first using the APU, what happens to the APU GEN after start? Pg 2-13
If the generator is online, the APU GEN will trip offline.
Do the batteries assist the APU during engine start? Pg 2-12

Yes, both.
Does the operating engine generator assist the APU during 2nd engine start? Pg 2-13
No. “Amber” EMER switch light will illuminate. System logic isolates the operating side generator from start sequence to prevent
high amperage flow on the respective main BUS. A generator will never assist if APU or GPU are ON
When can you expect an “Amber” display next to the DC AMPS? Pg 2-10
When DC GEN O’CURRENT CAS message is active and the amps reach 330
What is the “Battery” Start Limitation? AFM REV 6

3 engine starts per hour
If the GPU has less than 1000 amps, does it count for 1 start on the battery? AFM REV 6
Yes. If GPU is more than 1000 amps, it counts only for 1/3 of a start
What is the procedure for generator cooling during ground operations? AFM REV 6
Engine must be at idle for 4 minutes with a load less than 75 Amps before shutdown.
If you forget to cool the generators before shutdown, what must you do then? AFM REV 6
35 minutes cooling period is required prior to restart
Which batteries are involved during start? FSI instructor

Both batteries are always involved during any kind of start
8
If we depress the EMER/NORM switch to EMER, how many minutes will the batteries power the emergency
systems during a dual generator failure? Pg 2-16
60 minutes. If we forget to press, only 20 minutes is available
What systems are on the emergency bus (60 minutes)? Pg 2-16

-LH MCDU
-NAV 1
-DME 1
-ADF 1
-Transponder 1
-COMM 1
-Audio panels 1 and 2
-AND MANY MORE. Refer to checklist for complete list
What are the engine “starter” limitations?

st
-1 attempt: 2 minutes rest
nd
rd
9
3. LIGHTING:
The Cabin Entry Lights come from where? Pg 3-5

Right battery bus.
What happens when you hit the Cabin Entry Lights? Pg 3-5
Illuminates a series of seats, door step lights, light in the fuselage just aft of door and threshold lights on both side of door
What happens when you press the PAX SAFETY switch ON? Pg 3-6
-Illuminates EXIT signs (4 in cabin and 1 in the lav)
-No SMOKING signs
-chime sounds
The rheostat labeled “EL PANEL” does what? Pg 3-3

Controls intensity for all electroluminescent (EL) panel lighting
How is the “EL PANEL” powered? Pg 3-3

By the main DC power via a small INVERTER circuit breaker on the right CB panel.
What powers the glareshield lights? Pg 3-3

Emergency DC Power via the AUX PNL LIGHT rheostat
What are Emergency Lights? Pg 3-6

They provide illumination for emergency situations during night or reduced visibility.
How are the Emergency Lights powered? Pg 3-6

From the Emergency DC Bus system. If loss of DC power, by four (4) dedicated emergency NiCad battery packs
How are the NiCad battery packs charged? Pg 3-6

Trickle charged by the Emergency DC Bus.
Where are the battery packs located? Pg 3-6

Split between the cabin walkway and lavatory.
Are the battery packs capable of sharing load? Pg 3-6

Yes. In case one or more battery packs fail.
How long can the Battery Packs power the Emergency Lighting? Pg 3-7
A minimum of 10 minutes with the switch in either ARM or ON
Where are the Interior Emergency Lights? Pg 3-7

-Five (5) selected reading lights (includes the lavatory light)
-Three (5) Exit lights 3 cabin + 2 lav
-Dropped aisle lights (partial)
-Main cabin door and emergency escape hatch for egress
Where are the Exterior Emergency Lights? Pg 3-7

-Two (2) Lights in RH side fuselage above wings (step light)
-One (1) small lamp in RH landing light enclosure
When will the Emergency Lights come on? Pg 3-7

-EMER LTS switch placed ON
-EMER LTS switch in ARM position and a loss of DC POWER
-EMER LTS switch in ARM position and aircraft experiences a “5G” impact
- EMER LTS switch in ARM position and the PAX SAFETY switch is selected ON.
10
The “Amber” light illuminated next to the EMER LTS switch indicates what? Pg 3-7
A reminder to the crew to ARM the system prior to flight
The baggage compartment lights are powered from what bus? Pg 3-10
Left battery bus
Will the taxi lights illuminate in FLIGHT with gear down? Pg 3-10
No. All three (3) squat switched must indicate on ground.
Are the LANDING lights and RECOG the same? Pg 3-10

Yes. Activating the RECOG switch engages two relays that supply power through resistors to lower voltage to each lamp.
How are the pylon lights operated? Pg 3-11

Right battery bus. With the baggage compartment switch
11
4. MASTER WARNING SYSTEM:
What does the crew alerting system (CAS) consist of? Pg 4-1
-Two RED Master Warning switchlights
-Two AMBER Master Caution switchlights
-One Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)
-MAU 1 and 4 generate the “CAS” message
What does the system provide? Pg 4-1

-Visual indications of conditions and /or functions of selected systems
-CAS messages indicate an individual system fault or advisory
Besides written indication, what other warning do we have with a Specific EICAS message? Pg 4-1
Aural tone. Chime
What powers the entire Warning System? Pg 4-1

Main DC Power is required
What are the seven functional areas of the EICAS? Pg 4-2

Engines, Trims, Fuel, Flaps, Speed-Break/Spoilers, Electrical, Hydraulics, CAS
The CAS messages are formatted in how many colors? Pg 4-3

-RED: requires immediate action
-AMBER: a need for a possible future corrective action
-CYAN: advisory/informative
How many conditions can the CAS accommodate? Pg 4-3

Over 100 conditions with only 17 lines of text of 27 characters
What do we call the last line of the CAS? Pg 4-3

Status Line
What does the Cursor Control Device (CCD) do? Pg 4-3

Scrolls the message on CAS
What color is the Status Line? Pg 4-3

It changes to the most severe color that has been scrolled off
When would the Status Line flash? Pg 4-3

If the message condition warrants an action
What are the steps taken for Message Processing? Pg 4-3

-First: Message is being calculated to determine if it should be added to the stack
-Second: If to be added, it is inserted at top of its respective color block with aural if installed
-Third: Message will flash UNACKNOWLEDGED until they are acknowledged. (inverse video= solid background with white letters)
How do we acknowledge a RED or AMBER message? Pg 4-3

By depressing respective MASTER WARNING RESET or MASTER CAUTION RESET switchlights
How do we acknowledge a CYAN message? Pg 4-3

They are automatically acknowledged after five (5) seconds.
Can a message change color? Pg 4-3

Yes, if the status change to a more or less severe. Message will be moved to new color block and flash until acknowledged
What is DEBOUNCE? Pg 4-4

It is the amount of time the condition must be true before the message is posted or an existing message status change
12
What is a standard “STD” debounce time? Pg 4-4
300 ms
Why does EICAS messages have INHIBITS? Pg 4-4

To reduce workload and nuisance messages
What are the seven (7) major inhibits status? Pg 4-4

-TOPI: Takeoff phase inhibit
-LOPI: Landing operations phase inhibit
-ESDI: Engine shutdown inhibit
-EFI: Engine fail inhibit
-BFI: Bus fail inhibit
-On Ground: On-Ground inhibit
-In Air: In-air inhibit
TOPI becomes active when? Pg 4-5

-transitioning from ground to air
-transitioning from less to more than 80 knots
TOPI becomes inactive when? Pg 4-5

-aircraft is airborne for 25 seconds
-Either LH or RH pressure altitude is above 400 feet field elevation
-Either LH or RH airspeed is less than 50 knots
-TOPI inhibit has been active for more than 90 seconds
LOPI becomes active when? Pg 4-5

-Transitioning from in air to on ground
-Radio altimeter transitions from more to less than 200 feet AGL
LOPI becomes inactive when? Pg 4-5

Pg 4-5-Aircraft on ground for 25 seconds
-Radio altimeter is greater than 400 feet AGL
-either LH or RH airspeed to less than 50 knots
-LOPI inhibit is active for more than 90 seconds
What determines that the aircraft is on on-ground or airborne in respect to in-air/on-ground inhibits? Pg 4-5
WOW. The aircraft is considered on the ground when both left and right WOW modules indicate airplane is not in the air
When can you expect to read a WOW MISCOMPARE on the CAS? Pg 4-5
After a 20 seconds debounce and left and right WOW modules disagree
Why do we have Bus Fail Inhibit? Pg 4-5

To prevent nuisance messages during engine start and during bus failure in flight.
How many conditions will activate the NO TAKEOFF? Pg 4-6

11
-CABIN DOOR open
-PARKING BRAKE on (cyan or amber)
-PARKING BRAKE LOW PRESSURE
-PITCH ROLL DISCONNECT is engaged
-FLAPS not in takeoff position 7 or 15
-ROLL SYSTEM CONTROL FAULT
-RUDDER BIAS actuator not in takeoff position
-SPEED BRAKE LEVER not stowed
-STAB, AILERON or RUDDER TRIM not in T/O range
-GUST LOCK on
-T/R EMER STOW switch is engaged
*you can find the reasons why on the MFD. Click “MAP” and then “no takeoff” on the drop down menu
13
What happens when you depress the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH? Pg 4-21
-Closes the fuel F/W Shutoff valve “CYAN” FUEL F/W SHUTOFF VALVE L-R *illuminates only if valve fully closes
-Closes the fuel solenoid on HMU
-Closes the Hydraulic F/W Shutoff valve. No CAS message
-Arms the white “BOTTLE 1 or 2 ARMED PUSH” switchlights
-Disarm the respective TR
-Deactivates the generator (opens the field relay)
*don’t forget to rotary test the light (FIRE WARN)
What happens when you depress the APU FIRE PUSH? Pg 4-21
-Discharge the Baggage/APU Fire bottle (HDR) located in the tailcone.
It will discharge automatically after 8 seconds if not depressed
-Baggage heat will deactivate after bottle is discharged.
* Light is tested with APU test button.
What happens when you depress the BAG FIRE PUSH? Pg 4-21
-Discharges the shared Baggage/APU fire bottle (HDR) and the dedicated Baggage Fire bottle (MDR located in the nose compartment)
-Arms the white “SEC BAG BOTTLE PUSH” switchlight
*light is tested with rotary switch. (SMOKE/DET)
Can we use the APU after the Baggage/APU fire bottle was used? Pg 4-21
No.
When will the SEC BAG BOTTLE PUSH light come on? Pg 4-21
-After the RED BAG FIRE PUSH is depressed
-Aircraft is below 25,000 feet
What happens when you depress the white SEC BAG BOTTLE PUSH? Pg 4-21
Discharge the secondary squib on the baggage fire bottle (nose compartment). It increases the metered discharge rate of Halon.
Describe each rotary test function: PG 4-24

-SMOKE/DET
-LDG GR
-FIRE WARN
-STAB TRIM
-FLAP
-W/S TEMP
-OVER SP
-AOA
-ANNUN
-BLD LK DET
-SPARE
What is a comparison monitor warning? Pg 4-27

They appear on the PFD and flash for 5 seconds when you have differences in Avionics displays such as
-Attitude: ATT +- 5 pitch, +-6 roll
-Heading: HDG 10 degrees
-Altitude: ALT +-200 feet
-Airspeed: IAS 20 knots
-Localizer: LOC dot
-Glideslope: GS dot
-Radio Altitude: RA Dual configuration only
-Azimuth: AZ dot
-Glidepath: GP 2/3 dot
-Engine Date: ENG Miscompare of engine data between what is displayed on the EICAS vs. what is sensed by the MAU
What powers the four (4) standby annunciators? Pg 4-22

Emergency bus
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5. FUEL SYSTEMS:
Where is the fuel stored? Pg 5-1

Two separate wet wing fuel tanks (one in each wing)
What is fuel capacity? Pg 5-2

Total capacity is 1,660 gallons or 11,223 lbs
Are the two tanks interconnected? Pg 5-2

Yes, by a crossfeed line. (That’s why you don’t crossfeed if suspicion of FUEL FILTER BYPASS)
How does the crossfeed work? Pg 5-2

Manually selected by the pilot, a DC electric motor valve located in the left wing tank inboard section opens (ball type valve)
What are flapper valves? Pg 5-2

Valves in the wing rib area to prevent a rapid shift of fuel to the outboard section, but allow fuel to flow inboard without restrictions
What is inside the engine feed hopper of the wing tank? Pg 5-2
The electric boost pump, primary ejector pumps and Float switch that activates the CAS “FUEL LOW L-R” (540 +-40 lbs)
How can we keep the hopper full of fuel? Pg 5-2

Gravity feed and the three (3) transfer ejector pumps
How many fuel pumps are installed and what do they do? Pg 5-1
6 per wing. 12 total.
-(1) Electric driven boost pump: Initiate fuel flow to FCU
-(1) Engine driven fuel pump: Sends fuel to the engine
-(1) Primary ejector pump: Sustain flow to FCU. They need electric boost pumps to get started. Then, Bernoulli’s principle takes over.
-(3) Transfer ejector pumps in each wing supply fuel: Support the boost pumps and primary ejector pumps
When will the electric boost pumps automatically come on? Pg 5-4
Engine starts, low fuel pressure (below 10 psi), crossfeed and APU (right side only, if engine not running)
Explain the fuel pumps operation in normal condition: pg 5-4

-High-pressure fuel (motive flow) from the engine driven fuel pump operates the primary ejector pump, which in turn supplies low-
pressure, high-volume fuel to the engine driven pump for engine operation
-The primary ejector pump supplies low-pressure motive flow to the transfer (scavenge) pumps
What are the different wing tank vents? Pg 5-3

-Vent Float Valve: Normally opened, it is the primary vent during fueling and defueling. It is located inboard of the surge tank
-Climb Vent Line: From the inboard section on tank all the way to the surge tank, it provides venting to tank during climb or wing low
condition
What is the surge tank? Pg 5-3

It is located near the wingtip; it functions as a fuel collector and is vented to atmosphere through a NACA scoop.
What are pressure relief valves? Pg 5-3

Located underside of each wing, they protect the fuel tank from excessive pressure, either positive (+6.0 psig) or negative (-0.7 psig),
during fueling or defueling and as a backup in case of venting failure
What are drain valves? Pg 5-3

3 per wing poppet-type valves to drain sediment, moisture or residual fuel from the tanks.
How do we fuel the aircraft? Pg 5-4

-overwing: One filler cap per wing. Stop fueling at the bottom of the standpipe
-Single-point refueling system (SPR)
15
What are the advantages of Single-Point refueling? Pg 5-5
-Reduction of refueling time
-Reduces chances of fuel contamination
-Protects the airplane from skin damage
-Reduces static electricity hazards
-Eliminates fuel contact with personnel
Do we need DC power to use Single point refueling? Pg 5-5

No.
What are the major components of the Single point refueling system? Pg 5-5
-Refuel/Defuel compartment
-Pressure refuel adapter housing
-Refuel/Defuel shutoff valves
-Pre-check panel
What are the required pressures for fueling and defueling? AFM Section II
-Fueling: minimum 10 psi maximum 55 psi
-Defueling: -10 psi maximum
Will an open or un-latched refueling panel door initiate a CAS message? Pg 5-5
No.
Explain the Pre-Check operation: pg 5-7

-By pulling both pre-check levers, we are sending fuel to the High Level Pilot Valve to ensure the shutoff valves will close when tank is full
-If flow does not shutoff after 30 seconds, SPR should be terminated. Approximately 30 gallons
Can we defuel with the SPR? Pg 5-7

Yes. By pulling out both pre-check levers and application of negative pressure (fuel truck), this will cause the defuel shutoff valve to open
During crossfeed, which boost pump comes on? 5-12

The one with the tank selected
Describe the operation of the crossfeed? 5-12

-Select appropriate tank to engine
-Crossfeed valve opens (Ball-type valve)
-Respective fuel boost pump comes on (selected tank side)
-“cyan” FUEL CROSS FEED CAS message illuminates if valve fully opens
-3 seconds after crossfeed selector is positioned, the opposite motive flow shutoff valve is commanded closed.
When can you expect to read a CAS message FUEL CROSSFEED TRANSIT? Pg 5-13
When the crossfeed valve is neither opened or closed for more than 2 seconds
If power is at idle during flight, can we select crossfeed? Pg 18-8

No. Fuel crossfeed is prohibited with power at idle
What happens if the boost pump from the sending side fails? Pg 5-12
Crossfeed will continue to operate. Primary ejector pump will sustain crossfeed operation
Why is the Motive Flow Shutoff Valve a fail-safe valve? Pg 5-12

It is de-energized opened to ensure that all fuel will be available if we lose DC power
Can we use the APU if the RH Fuel F/W shutoff is closed? Pg 5-9 (figure 5-9)
Yes, the plumbing for the APU fuel supply line is ahead of the F/W shutoff valve
Can we transfer from tank to tank? Pg 5-11

No.
16
Describe the fuel indication system: pg 5-10
-Seven (7) compensated capacitance probes per wing with a dual channel fuel quantity signal conditioner (FQSC)
How does the Low fuel warning System work? Pg 5-11

Low fuel level float switch in each tank near the wing root. At 540 lbs +- 60 will illuminate the “amber” FUEL LOW L-R
When must we turn ON the boost pumps? Pg 18-8

At 600 lbs or less in each tank
What kind of fuel grade is required? Pg 18-8

Jet A, Jet A1, JP5, JP 8, Jet B, JP4
What is the minimum fuel temperature? Pg 18-9

Jet A is -35 C / Jet A1 is – 40 C
What is the maximum fuel temperature for start and takeoff? Pg 18-9
Jet A and A1 is +57 C
What is the maximum fuel temperature for normal operations? Pg 18-9

Jet A is +61 C / Jet A1 is N/A
What is the maximum fuel imbalance? AFM Section II

400 lbs and 800 lbs for emergency. Some older model is 200 lbs above FL350. Refer to your AFM for your configuration
If your aircraft is equipped with a Right aileron trim, it is 400 lbs above FL350
Has a lateral fuel imbalance of 800 lbs been demonstrated for emergency return? Pg 18-9
Yes.
Does the EICAS monitor the fuel temperature when it gets out of limits? AFM Section II
No.
What are the memory items for DUAL ENGINE FLAME OUT – LOW ALTITUDE? AFM REV 6
1. FUEL..............................................CHECK(tanks/quantity)
2. Fuel BOOST L and R Switches…………ON
3. Throttles…………………………………………CUTOFF
What are the memory items for DUAL ENGINE FLAME OUT – CRUISE? AFM REV 6
1. Crew Oxygen Masks………………………DON
When will the float switch activates the “cas” FUEL LEVEL LOW L-R? Pg 5-11
Below 540 +- 60 lbs usable
When will the fuel quantity readout on EICAS become in “amber” inverse video? Pg 5-11
Below 500 lbs
Do we have to turn the boost pumps ON when “amber” FUEL LOW LEVEL cas or at <600 lbs?
Yes.
17
6. APU:
Who makes the APU? Pg 6-1

Honeywell Model RE100
Describe the APU: Pg 6-2

-Fully automatic, single-shaft, constant-speed gas turbine engine.
-Single-stage centrifugal compressor, reverse flow annular combustor and a single stage radial inflow turbine
-Gearbox driven by the power section, reduces the power rpm to lower rpm to drive DC starter generator, oil pump and fuel control unit
What does the APU do? Pg 6-1

-Supply high-pressure bleed air for environmental system and Service air systems (Pneumatic power)
-Supplemental electrical power (Shaft horsepower)
Which power has priority over the other? Pg 6-4

Shaft horsepower (The generator wins)
What electrical output comes from the APU starter-generator? Pg 6-1

-28 volt
-275 amps-hr, but regulated not to exceed 300 amps
What is the maximum altitude for starting the APU? Pg 18-9

FL200
What is the maximum altitude for operating the APU? Pg 18-9

FL300
What is the maximum airspeed to start the APU? 18-9

250 KIAS
What is the maximum operating airspeed for APU operations? 18-9

305 KIAS or 0.8 Mach
Which tank provides fuel to the APU? Pg 6-2, 6-5

Right. However, the left can supply during crossfeed operations if the left tank is selected
What monitors the APU during start and operation? Pg 6-2

Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
What does the ECU do? Pg 6-2

It monitors selected parameters of operations, if any are exceeded the ECU will shutdown the APU
Which components are attached to the ECU? Pg 6-5

-Prestart built-in test equipment (BITE)
-Automatic start control
-Protective shutdown capability
-Start inhibit capability
-Fault storage
-Fault reporting to the field service monitor (FSM)
Where is the intake for the APU? Pg 6-3 figure 6-5

On the right side of the dorsal fin
How is the APU generator cooled? Pg 6-3 figure 6-6

By the two (2) NACA scoops (also for oil cooling) located on each side of tail stinger (hell hole cooling) and a third gen cooler inlet located
at 5 o’clock position on tail stinger
18
What is the RPM of the high speed compressor when the APU is running at 100%? Pg 6-4
70,200 rpm
Why do we have a much higher EGT when selecting Bleed Air load over Generator load? Pg 6-4
-All air being moved by the compressor is available to mix with and cool the combustion gases when Generator is loaded (low EGT)
-Air is diverted into the aircraft duct system and is no longer available to help drive and cool the turbine wheel when Bleed Air is loaded
(high EGT)
Where are the access doors for APU servicing? Pg 6-2

Left and right access doors on the tail stinger
What happens if a failure is detected during the APU TEST prior to start? Pg 6-5
The ECU will inhibit starting and the failure is stored in the ECU
At what rpm will the APU automatically shut down? Pg 6-5

108% rpm. The speed sensor will tell the ECU to shut down
What is the fuel burn of the APU? Pg 6-6

110 pph unloaded and 125 pph loaded
What is the oil quantity of the APU? Pg 6-7

1.5 US quarts
What kind of oil can we use in the APU? Pg 18-11

-BP Turbo oil 2380 (most common)
-Mobil Jet II, Mobil Jet oil 254
-Castro 5000
-Royco Turbine oil 500
-Aeroshell Turbine Oil 500/550
When should the APU oil level be checked? Pg 6-14

10 minutes or longer after shutdown. FSI says 5 minutes
After the APU has shut down, how long must you wait before restarting? Pg 18-9
30 seconds after the RPM reads 0%
Can we deice with the APU running? Pg 18-9

No .
Can we start the APU after a DUAL Generator failure? Pg 18-9

No.
What is the APU starter limitation? Pg 18-7

3 APU start cycles per 30 minutes with 90 seconds rest in between cycles
What can we do with the APU Maintenance Panel? Pg 6-8

-oil level check
-APU Emergency shutoff (independent from control panel in cockpit)
What powers the APU maintenance panel? Pg 6-14

Left battery
How do know if the magnetic chip detector has collected metal? Pg 6-8
There is no visual annunciation of metal detection in cockpit nor does it have a CHIP test like in the CE560XL
What happens when the EGT reaches 690 C? Pg 6-9

The ECU will automatically shut down the APU
19
Where does the APU take its electrical power from? Pg 6-9
From the left Emergency bus system.
What happens if we lose all DC power and the APU is running? Pg 6-9
It will automatically shutdown
Is the APU generator same as the engines’ generators? Pg 6-9

Yes.
What happens when the fire warning system activate? Pg 6-10

-ECU shuts down APU
-Trips the starter-generator field to prevent re-ignition
-De-energizes the APU fuel shutoff valve
-De-energizes the right Boost Pump (if on)
-Logs APU protective shutdown into ECU memory
-Causes an 8 seconds delay before the APU fire extinguishing bottle is deployed automatically
Will the APU operate if the baggage fire bottles have been fired? “Cyan” BAG/APU FIRE BOTTLE LOW Pg 6-11
No.
What happens when you depress the red APU FIRE PUSH switchlight? Pg 6-3
It will activate the fire bottle located in the tailcone
What should you read when you press the APU TEST button? Pg 6-12
-RPM%: 45-55
-EGT: 480-520
-DC Voltage: 000
It checks the integrity of fire warning system and the digits readout
What does it mean when the “amber” light comes on during APU preflight? FSI Instructor
It can only be used for 20 more hours
Can we use the cabin temp in MANUAL while using MAX COOl? AFM rev 6
No.
20
7. POWERPLANT:
What kind of engines does it have? Pg 7-1

Pratt & Whitney PW306C model
Describe the engine: pg 7-2

Twin spool turbofan that incorporates a full length annular bypass duct
What are they rated at? Pg 7-3

-Takeoff rated at 5,770 lbs of thrust at sea level to 87 F (30.5 C)
-Max continuous at 5,686 lbs of thrust at sea level to 80 F (26.7 C)
What is limitation for continuous ground static operation at takeoff thrust? Pg 18-10
2 minutes
What is the total time that the engine can be at takeoff thrust? Pg 18-11
5 minutes, but 10 minutes if one engine is inoperative
What is the bypass ratio? Pg 7-3

4.43:1 at sea level. Creates 75% of engine thrust
What is the purpose of the High Bypass turbofan? Pg 1-2

To contribute to overall operating efficiency and performance
What are the maintenance intervals for the engines? Pg 7-1

-6,000 TBO
-3,000 HSI
What is the fan section made of? Pg 7-2

22 chord titanium blades that are high FOD resistant and easily replaceable
What makes the fan turn? Pg 7-2

The fan is attached to a low pressure (LP) shaft (inner shaft) that is driven by a three stage turbine at the rear of the engine
What makes the three stage turbine turn? Pg 7-2

Result of combustion/exhaust. The outer shaft supports four axial stages and one centrifugal stage (compresses air for combustion) is
driven by a two stage turbine at the end (after combustion)
How many fuel nozzles? Pg 7-15

24. 2 are primary hybrid nozzles
What are hybrid nozzles? 7-15

They are the primary nozzles used for engine start. Help for a better temperature profile at start when the secondary fuel kicks in at 50%
N2. They are located adjacent to the spark igniters for rapid ignition
What kind of oil is used? Pg 18-11

Same as APU
What is the maximum oil consumption? Pg 18-14

1 quart per 8 hours
What is the oil quantity for the whole system? Pg 7-3

2.11 US Gal
Why is intentional uncoordinated flight of greater than one slip/skid bar for longer than 20 seconds prohibited?
Pg 18-13
To preclude low oil pressure
21
If we start the engine during cold temperature, what can we do to expedite the oil to reach 16 C? Pg 18-12
Run the engine in CRU detent
What is the normal oil temperature? Pg 7-9

16 C to 135 C
What is the maximum transient temperature? Pg 7-9

143 C
What is the minimum oil temperature? Pg 7-9

-40 C
How does the N2 sensor works? Pg 7-3

Speed sensor probes on the accessory gearbox are energized by the alternator gearshaft that creates an impulse type and transmits
signals to the FADEC
How does the N1 speed sensor works? Pg 7-3

Sensors are in the #1 bearing area behind the fan. Works like the N2 sensors
What is the purpose of compressor bleed valves? Pg 7-3

To prevent compressor stall during start, during low rpm (N2) and during transient conditions
How does the compressor bleed valves work? Pg 7-3

By bleeding compressor interstage air to atmosphere
How many bleed valves? Pg 7-8

4
-2 P2.5 valves at 3 and 9 o’clock
-2 P2.8 valves at 5 and 12 o’clock
How are the valves controlled? Pg 7-8

By solenoids (electrical) via FADEC, using P3 air (to close valves)
What happen to the valves if we lose DC power? Pg 7-8

Solenoids are energized closed, so they will remain opened
What happen to the valve if we lose P3 air? Pg 7-8

Bleed valves are fail-safe open, so the valves will remain opened
What happen to the engine if we lose electrical and P3 air to the bleed valves? Pg 7-8
Fail-safe provisions permit safe operations, however, engine performance will be reduced
What is bleed air for? Pg 7-13

P2.5 and P3.0 ports are for air conditioning, pressurization, airframe anti-ice and service air
What is on the accessory gearbox? Pg 7-8

- Permanent magnet alternator and fuel pump
- Oil pumps (one pressure and three scavenge)
- DC starter-generator
- Alternator
- Impeller breather (air/oil separator)
- N2 speed sensor (2)
- Chip detector
-Hydraulic pump
22
What systems are connected to the engine? Pg 7-8
-Fuel system
-Power control
-Lubricating system (oil)
-Secondary air system
-Ignition system
-Indicating system
-Thrust reversing
What is the purpose of the oil system? Pg 7-8

Lubricate, cool and clean the bearings. Oil will carry foreign matter to filter and chip detector
What are the main components of the oil system? Pg 7-8

-Oil tank (2.11 us gal)
-Pressure pump and scavenge pumps
-Oil filter
-Fuel/Oil heat exchanger (FOHE)
-Chip detector
What are the oil pressure limits? Pg 7-10

36 to 110 psid
What kind of oil filter is installed? Pg 7-10

10 micron filter element
What is the bypass valve? Pg 7-10

Allows oil to flow to then engine of filter is blocked
When do we get a CAS message about OIL FLT BYPASS? Pg 7-10

If differential oil pressure reaches 28 psid
What makes the oil pressure display? Pg 7-10

A pressure transducer and a differential pressure switch are on top of the fuel filter housing. Data is processed and transmitted to the
EICAS via MAUs and FADECs
How is the oil cooled? Pg 7-10

Through the FOHE (radiator) by using LP fuel to cool engine oil. It also warms the fuel to prevent ice crystal
What visual indication will tell us if the oil tank over pressurized? Pg 7-11
A red “pop-up” indicator button on the oil tank will pop out. Located near filler cap
What can create a situation of over pressure in the oil tank? Pg 7-11
Blocked breather, flooded AGB, or damaged carbon seals
What is the normal oil consumption? AFM rev 6

1 quart per 8 hours
Describe the ignition system: Pg 7-12

-Controlled by FADEC
-Two (2) exciter boxes
-Two (2) high tension leads
-Two (2) spark igniter plugs at 4 and 5 o’clock position
When will FADEC start ignition automatically? Pg 7-12

-Engine start
-Anytime the engine RPM rolls back
23
What cools the hot section? Pg 7-13
-P3 air cools the HP section
-P2.8 air cools the LP section
How is the nose cone heated for anti-ice? Pg 7-13

Cone is continuously heated by P2.8 air
What is Tt0 aka RAT? Pg 7-13

Total temperature probe at station 0 and is electrically heated
How many Tt0, also known as T1 probes are installed? Pg 7-18

2 in each nacelle
What do the T1 probes do? Pg 7-18, Fig 7-6

-The one at 1 o’clock position is for the channel A of the FADEC
-The one at 2 o’clock position is for the channel B of the FADEC and also is the Total Pressure Sensing Port (PT)
What are the primary components of the fuel system on the engine? Pg 7-13
-Fuel pump
-Fuel filter
-Hydromechanical metering unit (HMU)
-Start dump valve
-Fuel drain tank
-Mechanical fuel shutoff
-Fuel manifold
Describe the route that the fuel travels from wings to combustion: Pg 7-15
-Fuel goes thru boost pumps in wings (enters low pressure stage)
-The pump low pressure outlet supplies fuel to FOHE, fuel filter, waste fuel ejector and the HIGH PRESSURE pump (second stage)
-HP pump supplies fuel to HMU and the motive flow supply
-HMU sends fuel to nozzles, fuel tank jet pump, and variable guide vanes actuator (VGV)
What is the emergency fuel shutoff? Pg 7-16

A mechanical shutoff on the start dump valve assembly will shutdown the engine if decoupling of the fan from the LP turbine to prevent
uncontrolled overspeed.
Decoupling will cause the N1 shaft to move aft and contact the plunger in the #4 bearing housing. This will cause the shutoff valve to trip
and shutoff fuel to the secondary manifold
What does the HMU do? Pg 7-16

-Provides fuel at the REQUIRED pressure and flow
-Enables engine start
-Idle speed
-Acceleration and deceleration control
-N1 control,
-Shutdown
-VGV positioning
What controls the HMU? Pg 7-16

FADEC has full authority over the HMU and position of the VGV actuators as a function of pilot demand and ambient conditions
What is FADEC? Pg 7-16, pg 7-18

Full Authority Digital Engine Control
-Built for redundancy
-Two independent channels (1 per EEC)
-Dual overspeed protection independent of the FADEC control logic
-Redundant LP and HP rotor speed sensors
-Dual channel Permanent Magnet Alternators
24
What does the FADEC do? Pg 7-16, 7-17
-Regulates N2 and N1 speed in response to pilot input on the thrust levers, ambient conditions and operating limits
-At idle, FADEC supervises and controls compressor speed N2
-Above idle, FADEC supervises and controls N1 speed
Where is the HMU? Pg 7-15, Fig 7-10

On the rear of the Permanent magnet alternator
What are the advantages of the FADEC? Pg 7-16

-Reduce pilot workload
-Optimized engine performance
-Improved specific fuel consumption
-Precise engine control
What does a permanent magnet alternator do? Pg 7-17

Supplies power to FADEC during normal operations (creates its own energy)
What powers the FADEC during start? Pg 7-17

Normal DC power until 25% N2 then PMA takes over
Do we need both channels in order for the FADEC to work? Pg 7-17

No. Both are independent, meaning either one can fully control the engine
What does the channel do? Pg 7-17

It adjusts the HMU metering valve position to achieve the appropriate fan speed to produce the required thrust
Can we dispatch with an inoperative channel? AFM rev 6

No. it is prohibited
What will happen if both channels are impaired? Pg 7-18

Engine control is still achieved, but at a reduced capacity
Why do the channels can receive input from the opposite channel? Pg 7-18
In the event of sensors failure, the channel will continue control using the opposite sensors
Where does the Air Data Module take its information from? Pg 7-18
-Two probes send temperature and pressure inputs to the same side FADEC
-FADEC sends the temperature input to its respective MAU
-MAU sends the PROCESSED temperature signals to the respective FADEC via the air data module ADM
What happens if the ADM fails? Pg 7-18

FADEC will process temperature and pressure directly from its RAT probes to maintain engine control
What are the features of the FADEC? Pg 7-18

-Starting and shutdown control -Speed sync N1
-Power management -Over temp control (ITT)
-Rating display (bug N1) -Fault management
-Compressor bleed valve control -Motive flow fuel control
-Start bleed valve control -EICAS and engine diagnostic display
-Variable guide vanes control (VGV) -Start valve control
-ITT, N1, N2 display -Independent N1 and N2 overspeed protection
What are the four starting modes of the FADEC? Pg 7-19

-Ground starts
-Air start, starter assisted
-Air start, windmill assisted
-Relight from a flameout
25
In the FADEC logic, what is considered low and high idle? 7-20
-Low is 57 % N2 and is achieved within 6-8 seconds after landing or after engine start
-High idle is 65%. To ensure adequate response in case of a go-around
What is the max ITT limit? Pg 7-20

950 C. Limiters prevent higher temp
What is the max speed of the engine? 7-20

105 % for N1 and N2. Limiters will reduce fuel flow to prevent higher rpm
What gives the engine overspeed protection? Pg 7-21

HMU overspeed solenoid valve will shut off fuel if rotor speed attains 110% N1 or N2
What is the EDU? Pg 7-22

Engine diagnostic unit is an on-board computer that permits data transfer to a ground base computer
What is the purpose of the EDU? Pg 7-22

-Assist in engine fault isolation by displaying real time engine parameters and status
-Assist in engine condition trend monitoring with snap shot recording
-Assist in cycle and total time counts
What powers the EDU? Pg 7-22

FADEC
What does the CAS message ENGINE CONTROL FAULT L-R means? Pg 7-30
Either an A or B FADEC malfunctioned.
What does the event marker button do?

By depressing it, it records 4 minutes back to 1 minute after an event that you want recorded
Can we start the engine with a tailwind more than 10 knots?

No. It is limited to 10 knots to prevent high ITT during start
When is the only time that FADEC will try an “auto re-light”?
-With thrust levers on TAKEOFF detent, because it is not “sync”.
-If FADEC has 3 unsuccessful re-lights, it will shutdown the engine
26
8. FIRE PROTECTION:
How many fire extinguishers does the Sovereign have? Pg 8-1

6
-2 for engines
-1 for APU/Baggage (FSI may consider this one “2”)
-1 for Baggage
-1 for cabin
-1 for cockpit
How does the engine fire warning system work? Pg 8-2

A stainless steel tube filled with inert gas loops around the engine. When gas expands due to heat, it activates a pressure switch that is
connected to a red warning push light in the cockpit
At what temperature does the pressure switch activates? Pg 8-2

500 F
What happens when you depress the red LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH? Pg 8-2
-Closes the respective fuel firewall shutoff valve. If valve doesn’t work, shutoff valve on HMU will close (backup)
-Hydraulic firewall shutoff valve closes
-Respective engine generator automatically trips off line
-Disable the respective thrust reverser isolation valve
-Both engine fire extinguishers will arm. Illumination of both BOTTLE 1 and 2 ARMED PUSH switchlights
What should be the pilot initial reaction when a fire warning is announced? Pg 8-2
Retard the affected throttle to IDLE and wait for 15 seconds. If still on, do memory items and emergency checklist
What happens if fire or smoke is detected in baggage compartment? Pg 8-3

Compartment is sealed automatically to minimize air flow into the baggage compartment that could support combustion
What prevents a baggage fire to spread into the tail cone area? Pg 8-3
A flame arrester is provided to prevent fire penetration into the tail cone area
How many smoke detectors are installed in the baggage compartment? Pg 8-3
2 and both are on the ceiling and rotary tested
What happens when smoke is detected in baggage? Pg 8-3

-Red master warning
-Red BAG FIRE PUSH
-Red BAGGABE FIRE “cas”
-automatically removes power from the normally closed baggage heat compartment shutoff valve (crew must also manually shut it off)
If the Baggage heat SOV fails to close, what else can we do? Pg 8-4
Turn the pressure source selector to R. Baggage heat comes from the LH
What happens when we depress the BAG FIRE PUSH? Pg 8-4

-the HDR bottle fires (tail)
-the MDR bottle fires at a rate to last 180 minutes
-White SECONDARY BAGG FIRE PUSH illuminates descending thru FL250
What happens when we descend thru 25,000 ft? pg 8-4

The white SECONDARY BAGG FIRE PUSH switch light illuminates to remind crew to press it 15 minutes prior to landing
What happens when we press the white SECONDARY BAGG FIRE PUSH? 8-5
Allows a higher discharge rate from the nose bottle
Can we use the APU after the baggage fire extinguisher has discharged? Pg 8-5
No. Because they share the same fire extinguisher
27
When can we use the APU fire bottle? Pg 8-5
When the APU FIRE PUSH light is on
What happens if we forget to depress the red APU FIRE PUSH switchlight? Pg 8-5
Bottle will automatically discharge 8 seconds after illumination of the red APU FIRE PUSH switchlight
What kind of cabin fire extinguisher do we have? Pg 8-6

Both are 2 lbs Halon 1211 charged at 125 psi
What happen when the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight comes on? Pg 8-5
-ECU shutdowns APU
-Trips generator field
-Deenergizes the APU fuel shutoff valve closed
-Deenergizes the right electric fuel boost pump
-Logs APU protective shutdown
-APU fire system reset when fire is no longer present
Why will the baggage heat automatically close if we have an APU fire? Pg 8-5
Because the HDR bottle has low pressure (HDR automatically discharge for fire in APU=low pressure)
When should we fire the 2nd fire extinguisher in respect to engine fire? Emer/Abnormal checklist A-2
30 seconds after the first bottle is fired, if fire is still present
28
9. PNEUMATICS:
Where is the bleed air from? Pg 9-2

-Engine P2.5 is LP
-Engine P3.0 is HP
-APU
What is the PRSOV? Pg 9-2

Pressure regulating/shutoff valve controls and regulates the HP air
How is the HP air controlled? Pg 9-2

Automatically controlled based on electrical inputs of throttle position, squat switch, altitude, anti-ice and emer pressurization
How does the precooler work? Pg 9-2

It uses engine fan (bypass) air for cooling bleed air
Which systems associated with the bleed air are not precooled? Pg 9-2, 9-5
-Engine anti-icing
-rudder bias
-APU bleed air (also bypasses the ozone converters)
What happens to the air once it goes thru the precooler? Pg 9-2
Majority of it is directed to the ACM where it is conditioned, then thru the ozone converters and sent to cabin and cockpit
What will happen to the engine anti-ice if we turn the ENG BLD AIR knobs to HP, LP or OFF? Pg 9-3
No affect on engine anti-ice
Where is the bleed air overheat sensor? Pg 9-5

Right after the precooler
What happens if the overheat sensor senses the temperature too high? Pg 9-5
-Amber BLEED AIR O’TEMP L-R and it will provide a signal to close the respective pylon bleed air SOV
-This happens at 560 F after a few seconds
What is the FCSOV? Pg 9-7

Flow control shutoff valve. Located after ozone converters
How do we control the FCSOV? Pg 9-7

Electrically with the PRESS SOURCE knob. EMER-L-NORM-R-OFF. Fail-Safe valve in case of DC power loss
What happens when you select EMER? Pg 9-7

Both mass flow valves will shutoff and simultaneously the EMER valve will open (air comes from the LH engine precooler)
What does the TCMV do? Pg 9-7

Temperature control modulating valve is programmed to send warm air that bypasses the ACM to the discharge duct and prevents the
water separator from freezing
What kind of air comes out of the WEMAC? Pg 9-7

Cold air from the ACM mixed with cabin recirculated air
What can we use with service (utility) air? Pg 9-8

-Rudder bias heat (actuator)
-cabin door acoustic seals (left engine must be out of cutoff)
-pressurization (vacuum to operate the outflow valves)
ACM air-water aspirator (removes excess water from separator and dumps into the ACM ram air duct, then blown overboard)
How do we heat up the baggage compartment? Pg 9-10

The left FCSOV is used. The valve is normally closed. Pilot controlled
29
What can the APU bleed do? Pg 9-10
Will do anything that the engine bleed air does except anti-icing systems
If the APU bleed air switch is off, can we still have service air available? Pg 9-10
Yes. APU supplies bleed air to service air regardless of the position of the APU BLEED AIR switch
What happens if we have a bleed air leak in the tail cone, pylons, wings and tail anti-icing systems? Pg 9-10
Bleed air detection system will automatically close the zone supply bleed air valve. CAS message will appear
What are the zones of the leak detection systems? Pg 9-10

-BLEED SUPPLY LEFT
-BLEED SUPPLY RIGHT
-WING-ANTI-ICE LEFT
-WING ANTI-ICE RIGHT
-TAIL ANTI-ICE
-ACM
What bleed air is not monitored by the leak detection system? Pg 9-10
-Service air
-Rudder bias bleed air
What happens when the system detects a leak? Pg 9-10

The respective zone supply bleed air valve will automatically close
Will the system restore itself if a bleed leak occurs?

No. it will stay shutoff
Which PRSOV will shutoff if we have a bleed leak in either Wing anti-ice zone? Pg 9-12
The respective wing A/I PRSOV and XFLOW PRSOV
Which PRSOV will shutoff if we have a bleed leak in the Tail anti-ice zone? Pg 9-13
Both PRSOV
What happens when we have an ACM bleed leak? Pg 9-13

-Both mass flow PRSOV will shut
-APU BCV is also commanded closed
-ACM will shutdown
-EMER PRESS will automatically activate
When will EMER PRESS come on automatically? Pg 9-15

-Manual placed
-ACM O’TEMP
-14,500 cabin altitude
-ACM bleed leak
Where must the PRESS SOURCE knob must be selected for flight above FL410? AFM rev 6
NORM
Where must the ENG BLD AIR knobs must be selected for flight above FL410? AFM rev 6
NORM or HP
30
10. ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION:
When should you turn on the engine and stabilizer anti-ice systems? Pg 10-1
In visible moisture and the RAT is +10 C to -35 C
How do we turn on the windshield ice detection lights? Pg 10-2

By positioning the DAY/NIGHT switch to NIGHT
How are the primary and standby pitot-static systems anti-iced? Pg 10-3
Heating element in the pitot tube and around the static port
How do we power the standby pitot-static system? Pg 10-3

By depressing either PITOT/STATIC L or R switches
What is the limitation with the pitot-static heat turned on while on the ground? Pg 10-4
2 minutes to prevent damage to the tubes and AOA vanes
What is the windshield made of? Pg 10-4

Laminated all glass construction with bonded fiberglass edge attachments
How is heat provided to the windshield? Pg 10-4

Through electrically conductive film applied to the inner surface of the outer glass ply
How is the electrical power sent to the windshield conductive film? Pg 10-4
By two engines driven DC controlled 3.0 KVA AC alternators supplying 115/200 volt/3 phase. 200 to 400 HZ
How do we turn ON the windshield heat? Pg 10-4

Heat comes ON automatically when the engines are running
Why is the LH and RH windshield divided in three heated zones? Pg 10-4

In case of a controller or alternator failure. Sections of both windshields will still be protected
How are the rear cockpit windows defogged? Pg 10-4

By under flow cockpit air
What does the “cas” message AC BEARING L-R mean? Pg 10-6

Alternator may experience bearing failure within approximately 20 hours of operation
What temperature are the windshields regulated at? Pg 10-5

110 F
What repels the rain from the windshield during flight? Pg 10-6
Windshield is treated with permanent coated and sealed rain repellent agent
What repels the rain from the windshield during ground operation? Pg 10-6
A two-speed blower fan mounted in the nose compartment. It is the same fan for compartment avionics cooling
When will the two-speed blower fan come on automatically?

When avionics bay reaches 95F and it will go off when it reaches 80F
How is the engine nose cone anti-iced? Pg 10-6

Continuously by P2.8 air
31
What happens when we depress the ENGINE/STAB L-R switchlights? Pg 10-7
-Engine nacelle is heated by P3.0 or P2.8 air
-Stator vanes are heated by P2.8 air
-Cold sensors are enabled (engine nacelle, inboard wing, and stabilizer)
-FADEC temp probes are electrically heated (T1 and Tt0)
-De-energizes the inboard wings PRSOV’s (First 1/3 starting from the inboard)
-De-energizes the STAB PRSOV’s
What happens if we get a WING ANTI-ICE O’TEMP “cas” message? Pg 10-9

-The PRSOV will automatically close. Once cooled, it will re-open
-The WHOLE wing will be cold. Even the first 1/3 inboard, because xflow PRSOV will warm whole wing
Why are the PRSOVs Fail-Safe ON? Pg 10-10

In case of DC power loss, engines and wings will be protected
What happens to the crossflow valves if we lose DC power? Pg 10-11

Crossflow shutoff valves fail-safe closed. No crossflow available
What happens if the crossflow doesn’t fully close? Pg 10-15

“amber” WING/STAB XFLOW on EICAS
When can we expect to see a “cas” STAB ANTI-ICE COLD or WING ANTI-ICE COLD? Pg 10-12, 10-13
2.5 minutes after turning ON the systems and temperature is below a set point
What power setting should we use to preflight the anti-ice? Pg 10-13

70-75% N2
How much time should it take for the “cyan” COLD to extinguish? Pg 10-13
2 minutes. If still cold, you can advance one throttle to a maximum de 81% N2
Which engine bleed air source should we use for flight above FL250 or single bleed supply for ENG/STAB anti-ice
ops? Pg 10-14
Engine HP bleed air is used exclusively
Above which altitude is the wing anti-ice prohibited? AFM rev 6

Above FL410
Can we chip or scrape snow from the engine air inlet? AFM section VII
No.
32
11. AIR CONDITIONING:
How many air distribution networks do we have? Pg 11-1

Two. Overhead cold air ducts, lower cabin air ducts /the cockpit air ducts
How is the temperature controlled? Pg 11-1

Automatically or manually by mixing hot bleed air with a portion of the cold air processed by the ACM
What happens to the PRESS SOURCE if we lose DC power? Pg 11-2

Both engine bleed air sources failing OPEN (norm) so environmental needs can be maintained
How can the EMER PRESS be automatically activated? Pg 11-3

-ACM overheat
-ACM bleed leak condition
-Cabin altitude reaching 14,250 +-250 feet
Can we control temperature with EMER PRESS? Pg 11-3

Yes, by retarding left throttle. Air is going in the cabin from the LH precooler and bypasses the ACM
Can the L or R bleed air source maintain environmental needs? Pg 11-2

Yes. The pressurization controller closes the outflow valves enough to compensate for the reduction of incoming air
If we select OFF on PRESS SOURCE, will the cabin “dump”? pg 11-2

No. cabin will depressurize at a rate of 300-600fpm
What is the purpose of the NACA ACM air inlet on the dorsal fin? Pg 11-4
To provide cooling to the heat exchangers (2)
What temperature is the air exiting the last stage of the ACM (turbine)? Pg 11-5
32 F
What prevents the water separator form freezing? Pg 11-5

The temp controller monitors air exiting the turbine and adds precooled bleed air via a TCV in order to maintain 35 F
How the ACM is overheat monitored? Pg 11-6

By a temperature switch on the compressor discharge pipe
What happens if the ACM overheats? Pg 11-6

If overheat occurs, the LH, RH and APU BCV’s FCSOV will close. Emer valve opens. When temps cools to 380 F, system resets to normal
Where is the air from the overhead ducts coming from? Pg 11-6
From the water separator via WEMACs. It is recirculated air mixed with cold air
Where is the air conditioned air (warm) under floor coming from? Pg 11-6
Air exiting the water separator is mixed with hot precooled bleed air and routed into the cabin
How can you control the temperature entering the cabin/cockpit? Pg 11-6
Temperature controller will mix hot precooled bleed air as needed in order to maintain selected temperature
What prevents cold and air conditioned air flowing back into the ACM? Pg 11-6
3 check valves. They permit air flow to cabin and prevent loss of cabin pressure in the event of duct failure
-One for overhead passenger service unit (PSU)
-One for under floor heating
-One is for cockpit air conditioned air
Why is it that at FL370, the engine bleed air is automatically selected to HP? Pg 11-6
To maintain cabin temperature at a comfortable level
33
Where is the cabin temperature sensor located? Pg 11-11
In the aft recirculation duct just behind the most rear left seat
Where is the cockpit temperature sensor located? Pg 11-10

Mounted in the side panel just behind the left CB panel
If in MANUAL mode, how long does it take for the TCV to go from full open to full close? Pg 11-11
10 seconds
Where is the power for the MANUAL control of the TCV come from? Pg 11-11
Emergency DC bus
When can we expect to have a “cas” DUCT O’TEMP CABIN/COCKPIT? Pg 11-12

If the respective duct has exceeded 300 F/149 C
Where is the bleed air o’temp sensor? Pg 11-12

Downstream of the precoolers
When can we expect a “cas” BLEED AIR O’TEMP L-R? pg 11-12

When precoolers air exceed 560 F/293 C for 20 seconds or 600 F/316 C for any duration
Can we use the temp manual control above FL310? AFM rev 6
Not recommended
34
12. PRESSURIZATION:
What is the maximum altitude that the sovereign can fly? Pg 12-1
47,000 ft
What is the purpose of the pressurization system? Pg 12-1

To control the outflow of air from the aircraft pressure vessel electronically or by manual control
How many outflow valves and which one is primary? Pg 12-2

2 and the one on the pilot side is primary
Where is the excess cabin vented?

In the tail cone via outflow valves on the aft pressure bulkhead
What are the two (2) automatic functions of the electronic control? Pg 12-2
NORMAL and ALTITUDE SELECT
What powers the cabin rate-of-climb and cabin altitude/differential pressure indicators? Pg 12-3
Self powered. They do not need electrical input
In relation to the differential indicator, what provides outside ambient pressure? Pg 12-3
Co-pilot’s static port
What are the cabin pressure limits? Pg 12-3, 18-15, AFM rev 6
-Normal: 0.0 to 9.3 (+0.1) PSID. Green arc is 0.0 to 9.5 (FSI book)
-Pressure relief: 9.6 (+0.1) PSID 9.5 (FSI book)
-Pressure relief red line: 9.7 (+0.2) PSID
What is the cabin altitude at 47,000 ft? pg 12-3

Approximately 7,500 ft
Describe the NORM (auto schedule) mode of the cabin pressurization: pg 12-3
-The controller follows a fixed, programmed schedule of cabin altitude vs. aircraft altitude
-The rate of cabin altitude change can be affected with the “R” knob
What are the system requirements to use the NORM/ALT SEL mode? Pg 12-4
-ambient cabin pressure -Squat switch WOW
-Outside true static pressure -Throttle position TLA
-LDNG or departing field elev. -System switch position (AUTO and NORM or ALT SEL)
-Rate limit or on PIP mark -Pressure Altitude (from air data computers)
-28 Volts main DC power
Describe the ALT SEL mode of the pressurization: pg 12-4

-Acts as an “altitude hold” mode
-Controller will automatically modulate the outflow valves to maintain cabin altitude at the selected rate
If operating in ALT SEL, what are the possible rates of climb/descent of the cabin? Pg 12-5
150 to 2,500 ft/min
Operating in ALT SEL, the PIP mark position provides what kind of limits? Pg 12-5
500 fpm for climb and 300 fpm for descent
What happens if the “amber” FAULT light stays on after power up? Pg 12-5
Controller has internal failure and system will default to manual mode
What is the cherry picker? Pg 12-5

Controls cabin altitude in case of loss of main DC power
35
What happens if you hold the cherry picker up? Pg 12-5
It opens a static line from both outflow valves to the nose compartment.
It creates a vacuum to open both outflow valves to let cabin air escape and have a lower cabin altitude
What happens if you hold the cherry picker down? Pg 12-5

It directs cabin air to the secondary outflow valve causing both outflow valves to close and increase cabin pressure
In manual mode, which one is the primary valve? Pg 12-5

The secondary outflow becomes the “primary” and the primary is slaved to the secondary
What is the range of the MANUAL rate knob? Pg 12-5

-MIN: 300 fpm
-MAX: 800 fpm
What happens when you depress CABIN DUMP? Pg 12-6

-28 DCV to the controller (needs main DC power)
-Fully opens the primary outflow valve (secondary will also open because it is slaved)
-Cabin climbs rapidly to 14,250 + 250 feet (maximum altitude limiters prevent a higher cabin)
If we lose DC power, how can we dump the cabin? Pg 12-12

By positioning the manual rate knob to MAX and holding the cherry picker to full up
What are the two components of the primary outflow valve? Pg 12-6
-Torque motor metering valve
-Air filter
What is the purpose of the torque motor metering valve? Pg 12-6

To regulate vacuum from the service air vacuum ejector that is being applied to the outflow valve
What is the difference between the primary and secondary outflow valve? Pg 12-6
They are essentially the same. They are interconnected and the secondary “lags” slightly
What are the maximum altitude limit valves? Pg 12-7

Pneumatic device (bellows) which prevents cabin altitude from increasing above 14,250 +- 250 feet
If cabin is about to exceed, the bellows expand and press on a poppet valve that releases vacuum allowing spring pressure to close the
valves
What are the maximum Delta P valves? Pg 12-7

It is a relief mechanism in case of multiple failure of the controller. If differential pressure is to exceed 9.6 PSIG,
a valve will open to allow ambient static pressure to invade the outflow valves to open until 9.6 PSIG
When will the passenger masks drop? Pg 12-8

If the solid state transducers in the cockpit sensed that the cabin approaches 14,500 +- 490 ft
On the ground, what happens when the throttles are advanced above 82.5% N2 (24.5 degree TLA)? Pg 12-9
Controller signals the outflow valves to close to pre-pressurize the cabin to about 180 ft below elevation during takeoff roll
When can we expect to see the “amber” CABIN ALTITUDE cas come on? Pg 12-8
At 8,500 feet cabin altitude
What are the High Altitude Airfield Modes?

From 8,000 ft to 14,000 feet
In High Altitude Airfield mode, when can we expect to have an amber light come on and EICAS message? Pg 12-
11
Discreet signal inhibits the amber 8,500 ft and the Red EICAS message has shifted from 10,000 to 14,500 feet
36
Which mode should we use if we depart an airport above 8,000 and flight is below FL250 for a short time? Pg
12-11
ALT SEL
Explain the scenario when depart a low altitude airport to a High altitude airport: Pg 12-11
-System set to NORM
-When aircraft starts a descent, Cabin altitude will climb to 8,000 feet
-When aircraft goes thru FL245, the cabin will climb to landing field altitude
Explain the scenario when we depart a High altitude airport to a low altitude airport: Pg 12-11
-System set to NORM
-Cabin altitude descends to 8,000 feet prior to reaching FL245
-Passing FL245, the controller will adjust the cabin altitude based on the aircraft level off altitude
What are the memory items for LOSS OF CABIN PRESSURE? AFM rev 6
1.Oxygen Masks…………………………………………………..DON & 100%
2. L & R MIC SEL Switches……………………………………………….MASK
3.Emergency Descent……………………………………….AS REQUIRED
What are the conditions for the “AUTO” emergency descend to engage? Pg 4-6
-Autopilot has to be engaged
-Aircraft leveled above FL310
-Cabin altitude above 14,500 feet
What will the “auto” emergency descend do once it is engaged? Pg 4-6

-Make a left 90 degrees turn
-Pitch down to achieve Mmo/Vmo -10 KIAS
-15,000 feet will be set in the altitude alerter
What are the memory items for EMERGENCY DESCENT? AFM rev 6
1.Initiate maximum rate of descent to a safe altitude
AP/TRIM/NWS DISC Button……………………………………..PRESS
Throttles……………………………………………………………………..IDLE
SPEEDBRAKE Lever…………………………………………………….100%
Initial Pitch Attitude…………………………………………..15 DOWN
After landing, when will the outflow valves open? Pg 12-10

-WOW
-Left throttle less than 82.5% N2 (24.5 TLA)
-After 60 seconds has elapsed
37
13. HYDRAULIC POWER SYSTEMS:
What drives the hydraulic system? Pg 13-1

Two (2) engine driven pumps
What kind of fluid is in the system? Pg 13-1

MIL-PRF-87257. FIRE RESISTANT
What temperature was the system designed for? Pg 13-2

-65 F to 130 F
How much hydraulic pressure is supplied by the pumps? Pg 13-1

3,000 psi
What is the pressure in the return lines to the reservoir? Pg 13-1

50 psi
What is the capacity of the reservoir? Pg 13-2

700 cubic inches, but normally filled to 340 cubic inches
What kind of system do we have? Pg 13-2

-Closed center system
-Designed to keep constant pressure
How are the hydraulic pumps controlled? Pg 13-4

By depressing the LOAD/UNLOAD switchlights
How is the auxiliary pump powered? Pg 13-4

It is DC powered and has its own ON-OFF switch
What is the auxiliary pump normally used for? Pg 13-4

To set the parking brake when the engine are down
Can we use the auxiliary pump during flight? Pg 13-4

Prohibited
What is the minimum temperature to use the aux pump on the ground? AFM rev 6
-40 C
When can we use the UNLOAD mode? Pg 13-5

Engine starts in the air, using both windmill and start assist
What happens when we depress the UNLOAD switchlight? Pg 13-5

Opens the respective engine hydraulic pump unload valve and relieves the pump pressure via the return lines to the reservoir
What happens if the pressure drops below 2,200 psi? pg 13-5

“Amber” HYDRAULIC PRESSURE LOW L-R
What happens if the volume drops below 120 cubic inches in the reservoir? Pg 13-6
“amber” HYDRAULIC VOLUME LOW
What are the systems associated with the hydraulic system? Pg 13-6
-Landing gear
-Spoilers/speedbrakes
-Thrust reversers
-Brakes/anti-skid
-Parking brake
-Nosewheel steering
38
Who makes the thrust reversers? Pg 13-7
Nordham
How are the TR’s operated? Pg 13-7

Hydraulically operated and electronically controlled
How do the TR’s stay stowed? Pg 13-7

By mechanical overcenter locks
What are isolation valves? Pg 13-8

They protect the TR’s from an inadvertent deployment.
They block hydraulic pressure from reaching the unlock mechanism until the squat switch (+ nose) are on ground WOW
How long does it take for the TRs to deploy? Pg 13-8

1 second
How far back can you pull on the TRs levers? Pg 13-8
The levers stop automatically at 70% N1
When should the TRs be returned to idle? Pg 13-8

65 KIAS
What happens to the rudder bias during TR’s deployment? Pg 13-9

The rudder bias actuator will be driven to its minimum position
What will the FADEC do if the TR’s deploy in flight? Pg 13-9

Reduce the respective engine to IDLE
What happens when you press EMER STOW? Pg 13-9

The respective isolation valve will remain open and provide pressure to the actuators to keep the doors stowed
If using the APU, how long can we use the TRs? AFM rev 6
30 seconds
Can we use the TR’s during static ground operations? AFM rev 6
Yes. Limited to IDLE power
Can Takeoff performance be predicated on the use of the TR’s if the temperature is less than -15 C? pg 18-15
No.
Is the hydraulic fluid used for the spoilers cooled? Normal checklist pg 25
Yes. There are hydraulic cooling lines that go through the fuel tanks
What is the flow rate of the MAIN and AUX pumps? FSI-MCO Sovereign team
-Main: 6 gal per minute
-AUX: 2 gal per minute
How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?

Hydraulic lines from the spoiler system are merged in the fuel tanks
39
14. LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES:
What type of struts do we have in the gears? Pg 14-2

Conventional oil-over-air struts
How is the gear operated normally? Pg 14-2

Extends and retracts hydraulically
How long does it take to operate? Pg 14-2

Approximately 8 seconds
What are the electrical components of the landing gear? Pg 14-3

-Gear control handle
-Two control modules
-One control valve
-Uplock and downlock switches
-Indicator lights
What prevents the gear from being retracted on the ground? Pg 14-3
A normally closed solenoid. Must be powered to unlock
When can you expect to see a RED UNLOCK light? Pg 14-3

When any of the gears are not down and locked
Describe the different situations that you may hear the gear horn: Pg 14-3
-Gear not down and locked with FLAPS beyond 24 degrees
-Gear not down and locked with TLA below 30 degrees + below 500 radar altimeter
-Gear not down and locked with TLA below 30 degrees + Both AOA above 0.4 with RA not valid with FLAPS above 24 degrees
-Rotary test at LDG GR with FLAPS beyond 24 degrees
-Rotary test at LDG GR with TLA below 30 degrees + below 500 radar altimeter
Describe the route that the hydraulic fluid takes when the gear handle has been selected down: pg 14-4
-3000 psi is sent to the AUX manifold and routed to the extend ports as electrically commanded by the control valve
-Pressure flows to the uplocks actuators and pull the uplocks clear
-Pressure then flows to the gear actuators
-Downlocks engage. Pressure is released to return lines
Describe gear retraction: pg 14-4

-3000 psi is routed to the retract lines and main gear actuators
-Retract pressure is also used to center the nose wheel
-Actuates the brake metering valve to provide antispin brake pressure
-Pressure flows to the uplocks
Why does the Nosewheel gear, retract fluid flow thru the NWS unit? Pg 14-4
To center the nose strut prior to unlocking the nose wheel
How are the gear doors operated? Pg 14-4

Mechanically as the landing gear is raised and locked
If the gear can’t be extended, what are the different methods we can use to extend? Pg 14-4
-Emergency gear blowdown
-Manual gear release
Describe the Emergency gear blowdown: pg 14-8, Fig 14-7

-A pneumatic bottle (left nose compartment) filled with compressed nitrogen (2050 psi) releases its content in the hydraulic lines to drive
the uplocks and actuators
-Knob is located under the landing gear lever
40
Describe the manual gear release: pg 14-8
-The main gear are released by pulling the lever in the kick panel below the aft bulkhead closet
-Nose gear is released by pulling the D-ring handle located next to the blowdown knob
-Free fall will do the rest
-Use if the blowdown failed
Which bus power the landing gear system? Pg 14-3

Emergency bus
What kind of brakes does the Sovereign have? Pg 14-5

-Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated
-Four carbon brake assemblies, one to each main gear wheel
What is the brake metering valve? Pg 14-9

-The metering valve regulates pilot inputs to the main hydraulic system to a maximum of 3000 psi + 5
-It also provides antispin braking during gear retraction
How does the antiskid system work? Pg 14-9

-Needs DC power (Emergency bus)
-Each wheel has a transducer that sends wheel speed signal (electrical) to the antiskid controller (tail cone)
-If the controller senses a skid, it will send a signal to the anti skid valve and will decrease commanded brake pressure
The antiskid controller does what? Pg 14-9

-Independent wheel control
-locked wheel crossover protection
-Touchdown protection
-Antispin braking during gear retraction
-Built-in test (BITE)
Which bus powers the antiskid controller? Pg 14-10

Emergency DC bus in the left emergency J-box in the tail cone
How does the antispin braking for gear retraction work? Pg 14-11
-300 psi is applied to the wheel brakes for 12 seconds before entering the wells.
-Uses touchdown protection system (briefly inhibited)
-When completed, all pressure is remove for touchdown protection mode
What is touchdown protection? Pg 14-11

-It prevents hydraulic braking until the controller recognizes the wheels are rotating
-Once rotation is established, the antiskid is operational
What is wheel crossover protection? Pg 14-11

-Outboard wheels are mated
-Inboard wheels are mated
-If the controller recognizes a locked wheel, the pressure is released and allowed to spin up to match its mate on the opposite side
What will happen if we have a brake line failure? Pg 14-11

Brake fuses will close after a certain volume of fluid passes through to prevent loss of all hydraulic fluid
Can we still brake if the hydraulic brake fails? Pg 14-11

Yes. Pneumatic braking is available from a nitrogen filled bottle (190 cu in) located in the nose compartment
How do we use the pneumatic brake system? Pg 14-12

-Pulling the handle out (pilot’s side) allows a CONTROLLED release directly into all 4 brakes shuttle valves
-Constant gradual pressure should be applied until aircraft is stopped
-Do not cycle the handle in and out continuously as it will deplete the bottle rapidly
What must be taken into consideration when using the pneumatic braking system? Pg 14-12, AFM rev 6
Normal landing distance may be increased. Refer to emergency checklist
41
When can you expect to read “amber” PARKING BRAKE ON? Pg 14-12
-In flight: handle not stowed
-On ground: Handle not stowed and throttles are advanced for T/O (“amber” NO TAKEOFF)
When can you expect to read a PARKING BRAKE LOW PRESSURE cas? Pg 14-16
When brake handle is not stowed (up) and pressure switch (brake line) indicates less than 1,850 psi. It needs 2,400 psi to initially set it.
How do we steer the aircraft on the ground? Pg 14-12

-Nose wheel steering (main DC power)
-Rudder pedals
What happens to the NWS if we lose hydraulic? Pg 14-12

-Backup NWS is available from an accumulator in the nose compartment
-It operates automatically if hydraulic pressure is lost
What is the normal position of the NWS shutoff valve? Pg 14-13

Normally open. It is powered closed in AIR mode and by pressing and holding down AP/TRIM/NWSDISC
What happens to the nose wheel if the shutoff valve is powered CLOSED? Pg 14-13
Nosewheel will caster freely with shimmy dampening
Are the rudder pedals and tiller interconnected? Pg 14-13

Yes. Rudder pedal inputs are transmitted to the NWS unit through a cable and pulley mixer assembly
How many degrees of turn is a full rudder deflection? Pg 14-13

8 degrees (FSI instructor says 7 degrees)
When should we use the rudder for steering? Pg 14-13

Primarily during takeoff and landing
How much deflection from center will the tiller provide? Pg 14-14
80 degrees on either side (FSI instructor says 78 degrees)
When should we use the tiller? Pg 14-14

During low speed taxi
What is the turning angle if we use the tiller and rudder pedal concurrently? Pg 14-14
90 degrees
What is the capacity of the NWS accumulator? Pg 14-14

25 cu in of hydraulic fluid at 3,000 psi
How long will the accumulator last? Pg 14-14

A minimum of two 90 degrees sweeps. One sweep is center to full left or right and back. Enough to clear runway
What prevents the accumulator fluid flowing back into the main system during flight? Pg 14-14
-Accumulator blocking valve located between the accumulator and the NWS unit.
-The valve is powered opened when nose gear squat switch is on ground
What are the NWS CAS messages? Pg 14-14

There are none
What will be inoperative if we have a WOW or MAU MISCOMPARE? Pg 14-16

-Antiskid protection not available
-Baggage heat valve will remain open with BAGGAGE HEAT FAIL cas
-IDLE speed is set to ground idle
-Landing gear retraction is not available
-NWS is not available
-Thrust reversers are not available
42
What are the tires pressures? AFM rev 6
-Nose: 120 +-5 psig with aircraft weight Michelin 031-613-8
-Main: 160 +-5 psig with aircraft weight Michelin OM137-01
What are the memory items for HYDRAULIC WHEEL BRAKE FAILURE –GND OPS? AFM rev 6
1.Brake Pedals…………………………………..RELEASE BRAKE PEDALS PRESSURE
2.EMERGENCY BRAKE Handle…………………………………………….PULL & HOLD
What is the memory item for NOSEWHEEL STEERING MALFUNCTION? AFM rev 6
1.AP/TRIM/NWS DISC Button………………………………………….PRESS & HOLD
43
15. FLIGHT CONTROLS:
How is lateral control (roll) achieved on the sovereign? Pg 15-2

By manual ailerons and roll spoilers that are hydraulically powered
Which control column is connected to the spoiler mixer box? Pg 15-2

Co-pilot, but both yokes are interconnected
If a jammed roll occurs, what can we do? Pg 15-2

Disconnect the yokes from each other
Which yoke primarily controls the ailerons? Pg 15-2

Pilot via the aileron ratio changer, then to the aileron assembly on the rear wing spar; but yokes are interconnected
Where is the aileron autopilot servo connected? Pg 15-2

On the aileron cable system (pilot side)
What is the aileron ratio changer? Pg 15-2

-Electrical/mechanical device that provides a different output for a given input.
-It depends on airspeed signals from the air data system (ADS) modules to electrically power a jackscrew
How many ADS are associated with the aileron ratio changer? Pg 15-2
Two.
-One in use
-One in standby
They rotate at start up
What does the AFCS-ADC MISCOMPARE “cyan” cas means? Pg 15-3

The non controlling ADS is in standby an swaps to control mode if the original ADS fails
At what speed does the ratio changer change mode? Pg 15-3

270 KIAS
What is the ratio at speed above 270 KIAS? Pg 15-3

0.6:1
What is the ratio at speed below 270 KIAS? Pg 15-3

0.9:1
What happens to the ratio changer if we lose DC power and operate on emergency buses? Pg 15-3
It will fail at its present position.
Which trim tab does the LH WING DOWN-RH WING DOWN switch operates? Pg 15-4
Left aileron servo tab
If the aileron trim is not in the T/O region, do we get a cas message? Pg 15-4
Yes. NO TAKEOFF cas is displayed if outside green band.
What powers all trim systems except the primary trim? FSI Instructor
All trims systems are powered by the emergency bus
How do the roll spoilers operate? Pg 15-4

-From the copilot’s yoke to roll spoiler mix box, which moves 2-9 and 3-8. One cable in each wing connect to inboard 4-7
-Each spoiler has a power control unit (PCU) that operates hydraulically
Do all spoilers activate during turns? Pg 15-4

No. They deploy in a staggered pattern depending on the box mixer schedules (Control wheel position)
44
In flight, will the spoiler display on EICAS with aileron movement? Pg 15-5
No. just on the ground for preflight information
What can you do if you have a jammed roll? Pg 15-6

Pull the Disconnect handle. Make sure you turn handle to 12 o’clock position and the handle must remain UP to reconnect the elevator
What happens when you pull the Disconnect handle? Pg 15-6

-Pilot controls ailerons and left elevator
-Co-pilot controls spoilers and right elevator
-Autopilot is disengaged
Which wing panels are the speedbrakes? Pg 15-6

All wing panels are speedbrakes when the speed brake lever is pulled back
Which speedbrakes panels are nonmodulated? Pg 15-6

1, 5, 6, 10. The inboard and outboard of each wing. They are fully deployed or stowed
How do the remaining 6 speedbrakes panels operate? Pg 15-6

-Speedbrakes lever sends a signal to spoiler mixer control box.
-Once the 6 modulated panels are fully deployed, the non modulated ones will deploy
-The four modulated will assume full deployment when the handle is in the detent position
Are the speedbrakes/spoilers displayed in flight? Pg 15-8

Yes, if the lever is pulled aft in the detent, but not for spoilers associated with turns
How are the wings flaps operated? Pg 15-9

-Electrically activated via a mechanical drive. All functions are controlled and monitored by the flap controller
-Controller drives the power drive unit (PDU)
What is the soft-start/stop module? Pg 15-9

-A module that protects the mechanical components from a large startup and stop torque moments
What does FLAP FAIL cas message means? Pg 15-11

The controller detected a fault and flaps failed to respond or flaps handle in an intermediate position
What does the switchlight FLAPS RESET do? Pg 15-11

It should reset the system for normal operations if the system detected a FLAPS FAIL
What does the flap pointer on EICAS represent? Pg 15-11

Actual flap surface position
What does it mean if the flap pointer on EICAS becomes “Amber’? pg 15-11
The flap position is out of range or invalid
Can we select flaps between the preset detents? Pg 15-10

No. Handle cannot stop between positions without the occurrence of an INOP condition and “amber” FLAPS FAIL
What happens if we have asymmetrical flaps? Pg 15-9, 15-10

-Controller receives separate RH and LH flaps position from the resolvers (jackscrews)
-If faults are detected, the system shutdowns and appropriate warnings are displayed
How is the elevator controlled? Pg 15-11

By linkages and cables from the yokes to the elevator
What happens if we pull the control disconnect with an elevator jam? Pg 15-13
-The pilot controls of the left elevator and ailerons
-The copilot has control of the right elevator and spoilers
45
Can we use the TR’s if the elevator is jammed? Pg 15-13
TR’s use should be avoided
How many elevator trim motors are installed? Pg 15-13

2.
-Primary stabilizer trim actuator by an internal electric motor
-Secondary stabilizer trim motor (must use ON/OFF switchlight to activate)
What is the safe takeoff range of the horizontal stabilizer? Pg 15-14

-2 to -6 degrees
How is the secondary trim actuator connected to the horizontal stabilizer? Pg 15-14
It is actually connected to the primary trim actuator mechanical input shaft by a chain drive
Where does the secondary trim actuator get its power from? Pg 15-14
The emergency DC bus
Name the different ways to move the elevator trim: Pg 15-15

-Autopilot trim
-Primary trim: yoke’s switches
-Secondary: Center pedestal if other trims are unavailable
Are the flaps and stabilizer interconnected? Pg 15-15

Yes. When the flaps are on motion between 15 and 35 degrees, the stab interconnects system trims the stabilizer for 8 seconds
Does the Flap Stabilizer interconnect work only with the autopilot engaged? Pg 15-15
No. It operates with or without the autopilot engaged. Will not work with secondary trim (primary only)
When can you expect to hear the audio clacker? Pg 15-16

-Trim commanded by AP for more than 3 seconds
-Secondary trim is commanded for more than 3 seconds
-Runaway trim for more than 1 second
What is the speed of the secondary stabilizer trim? FSI Instructor

Half speed of the primary trim
Can the pilot manually adjust the stabilizer/elevator tab? Pg 15-17

No.
What is the MACH TRIM system? Pg 15-17

It is to increase the control forces at high MACH speed to compensate for an aerodynamic tendency of aircraft to push over
Where is the MACH trim system located? Pg 15-17

An electrical linear actuator that attaches to the stabilizer tab sector assembly
How does the MACH trim system work? Pg 15-17

-Controller receives airspeed and MACH data from the ADC
-At high MACH numbers, the linear actuator is commanded to extend along a schedule based on Mach speed
What is the limitation of the aircraft if MACH TRIM fails? Pg 15-17

FL410
If the autopilot has failed, what is the limitation on MACH TRIM? Pg 15-17
MACH TRIM has to be operational if flight is above MACH 0.77
What position should we set the horizontal elevator trim after landing? Pg 15-18
-6.9 degrees
46
Why do we need an accurate stab trim setting on takeoff? FSI Instructor
In case of engine failure after V1, the aircraft will pitch for V2
A full pedal travel of 21 degrees will move the rudder by how much? Pg 15-19
+-30.5 degrees
What is the rudder bias used for? Pg 15-19

To assist the pilot in the event an engine fails
How does the rudder bias actuator work? Pg 15-19

Driven by a dual pneumatic actuator that is equally supplied by P2.8 bleed air from each engine
How is the rudder bias anti-ice? Pg 15-19

From service air that is plumbed in the actuator shell. It is designed to vent this warm bleed air for anti-ice protection
What is the electric variable bias actuator? Pg 15-19

-It adjusts the moment arm of the pneumatic actuator and varies the effect of the bias system on rudder movement
-Meaning: At low speed, the actuator is fully extended, so less force is applied to the pedal for an increase of rudder movement
What determines the position of the electric variable bias actuator? Pg 15-19
It is determined automatically by the aircraft speed inputs from the air data computers modules
What are the speeds associated with the electric variable bias actuator? Pg 15-20
-Below 125 KIAS: allows full rudder travel
-Above 125 KIAS: rudder bias will begin restricting rudder travel as speed increases
-At 250 KIAS: rudder bias actuator is fully retracted (less rudder movement allowed)
What happens to the rudder bias when we deploy either TR? Pg 15-20
Full retraction of the variable bias actuator occurs automatically
What happens when you depress the RUDDER BIAS NORM/O’RIDE switchlight to O’RIDE? Pg 15-22
-It will command the variable bias actuator to its minimum length.
-Use if uncommanded rudder deflection occurs
When will the bias actuator move to its minimum length? Pg 15-22
-Above 250 KIAS
-TR deployment
-EMER STOW
-RUDER BIAS O’RIDE switch
What happens to the variable rudder bias actuator if we lose DC power? Pg 15-22
Will fail at its present position
Where does the RUDDER BIAS O’RIDE switch get its power from? Pg 15-22
Emergency bus
Where does the rudder trim take its power from? Pg 15-23
Emergency bus
How is the Sovereign stall protected? Pg 15-24

-Two independent (channel) digital stall warning computers (SWC)
-Two stall warning angle-of-attack transducers (SWAAT) on each side of fuselage
How is the AOA/Stall warning system anti-ice? Pg 15-24

By selecting ANTI-ICE/STATIC L-R switches ON
47
The AOA /Stall warning system takes inputs from what other systems? Pg 15-24
-Anti-ice system
-Flap controller
-WOW system
-Gear monitor system
-MAUs 1 and 2
-Stick shakers: one in each column
-Indexer
-Rotary test switch
A pointer reading 1.0 indicates what? Pg 15-24

Stall attitude with 100% lift
A pointer reading 0.6 indicates what? Pg 15-25

-1.3 Vref
-it shows correct approach speed regardless of the aircraft weight, center of gravity, flaps or gear position
When will the stick shakers activate? Pg 15-25

When the angle of attach approaches the RED arc
Can we average the SWC computations for AOA outputs? Pg 15-24

No. Each SWC will output its result independent of the other
#1 SWC: pilot stick shaker
#2 SWC: copilot stick shaker
If the AOA system fails, can we still be warned of a stall condition? Pg 15-25
Yes. The nine boundary layer energizers (BLEs) on the leading edge of each wing provide stall warning prior to a full stall condition
What is the low airspeed awareness thermometer indicator? Pg 15-25

It will display a red bar on the inside of the indicated airspeed tape and extends upward to 1.1 Vs (stall speed)
What should we look for when FLAPS FAIL “cas” (< 35 degrees) in respect to the AOA system? Pg 15-26
Causing stick shaker warning to activate at a higher than normal airspeed for the actual flap extension
Is the YD a nonessential item? Pg 15-26

Yes. It is a nonessential item
What does the gust lock do? Pg 15-26

Locks the primary flight control in neutral
Can we start the engine with the gust lock on? Pg 15-26
Yes, but the left engine is limited to travel half between IDLE and CRU
How many static wicks are installed? Pg 15-27

17 total. 2 may be missing or broken
-Right wing tip/aileron: 4 installed / 3 required
-Left wing tip/aileron: 4 installed / 3 required
-Rudder: 3 installed / 2 required
-Elevator: 6 installed / 5 required
How many BLEs are installed? Pg 15-27

9 per wing, all must be installed for dispatch
How many vortex generators installed? Pg 15-27

44
-Vertical stab: 8 installed / 6 required
-APU fairing: 8 installed / 6 required
-Rudder: 24 installed / 16 required
-Wiper fairing: 4 installed / 0 required
48
16. AVIONICS:
What kind of avionics is installed? Pg 16-2

Honeywell Primus Epic based on Modular avionics Unit (MAU’s) and active matrix liquid crystal display (AMLCD)
What are the MAU’s and how many are there? Pg 16-2
The MAU’s are the brains of the Primus Epic
-2 are in the nose compartment (1 and 2)
-2 are in the tail cone (3 and 4)
Describe each MAU briefly: pg 16-2

1.Mostly AFCS, ADC 1, EGPWS, Power supply for left avionics bus
2.Mostly AFCS, ADC 2, TCAS, Radar controller, FMS 2, Power supply of right avionics bus
3.Engine systems, hydraulic, fire detection, FMS 1, Power supply for emergency start bus
4.More engine systems, FDR, APU, Engine vibration, Power supply for start bus
What are the different functions of the MAUs?

-MAU 1: Master warning
-MAU 2: Master caution and warning, chime and voice
-MAU 3: same as MAU 2
-MAU 4: Comparison monitor message (CAS)
What will happen if you lose MAU 1 and 4?

A red “X” will be in the CAS section of the EICAS
What would you do if the EICAS DU went blank?

Press EICAS L/R reversion switch
How many displays? Pg 15-5

4 displays 10 x 8
Where are the symbol generators? Pg 16-5

Built within the display unit (DU)
Can we dispatch if “cas” DU or MAU 1-2-3-4 O’TEMP? AFM rev 6

No. It is prohibited
Can we dispatch with DU in reversionary mode? AFM rev 6

Can we use the autopilot if we have a comparison monitor? AFM rev 6

No.
Can we use the autopilot if either AHRS failed? AFM rev 6

What are the minimum heights to use the autopilot? AFM rev 6
-Takeoff, climb and descent: 1,000 feet AGL
-Precision approach (Cat 1): 80 feet AGL
-Non-precision: 200 feet AGL
Can we use the autopilot when engine starter assist is in use in flight? AFM rev 6
Can we use the HF radio while navigating with ADF? AFM rev 6
No.
What is the air data system?

Systems that use the AMD in order to function such as:
49
-Mach trim
-Variable rudder bias actuator
-Aileron ratio changer
-Lock in main cabin door
In respect to audio panel, what happens when depress EMER?

-You bypass the audio panel if it fails.
-Must use overhead speaker and hand microphone
Where is the #1 MCDU powered?

Emer bus
What are the different modes of the FMS?

-Dual: (ties the keyboard together)
-Initiate transfer: What we do on one keyboard, won’t be display on the other unless we transfer data
-Single/independent: Use only if the other FMS fail
When we power up the aircraft, what mode is the FMS in?

Independent. Must change mode to dual
What happens to the transponder after landing?

Mode S mode is disabled, but squawk code is still transmitting
What happens when you click TCAS on either CCD?

Brings up TCAS page on DU3
Where does the “CYAN” pilot cursor default to?

Communication box of DU2
Where does the “GREEN” co-pilot cursor default to?

Communication box of DU3
What is the green caret on the airspeed tape?

1.23 Vref. Not 1.3 Vref. Has to do with FAR part 25
Do we have ADC on the Sovereign?

No. We have ADM (2). Cessna just likes to name them ADC
When will the PFD controller point to both pilot and co-pilot sides?
-During ILS approach, both sides are on LOC and GS
-Under 1,200 feet RA
-If we lose a NAV signal, AP/FD will take information from the remaining NAV
What determines RNP?

FMS automatically
What is the scale of the HSI on RNP 2?

Full scale deflection is 2 nm
When will the FMS change the RNP to terminal?

Within 30 nm from airport. The full scale deflection is 1.0 nm
When will the FMS change the RNP during a GPS approach?
Within 2.0 nm from final approach fix. Must have APPR on both PFDs
What mode of FD must we use for VOR approach?

APPR. It will change the sensitivity of the CDI
50
Give the different situations you would use APPR mode on FD:
-VOR approach
-ILS , SDF, LDA with GS approach
-VGP on a GPS approach (prohibited at Netjets)
Can we use VOR navigation with FD/AP engaged without DME?

No. Must have a co-located DME signal
What mode of FD must we use for a LOC approach?

NAV. The system will recognize that this is a LOC approach and will give the same tolerances as APPR for the CDI
When doing a BC approach, which course must we set?

FRONT course
Do we have to select BC on FD if we do a LOC BC?

Yes
Where is the FD position when we press Go-Around (TOGA)?

-Ground: 10 degrees
-In-flight: 7.5 degrees
How do you know if the FMS has changed the RNP for any kind of LOC approach?
On the FMS PROG page. If you can’t read the identifier, type it in yourself
How many autopilots and yaw damper installed?

2
-Pilot’s AP/YD is A channel
-Co-pilot’s AP/YD is B channel
Can we use the AP while doing an in-flight restart?

Yes. Only a start without starter-assist
Can you make altitude selector changes during AP emergency descent mode?
Yes and it will level off at that new altitude unlike the citation XLS
Why can’t we use the single cue mode of the FD with the AP engaged?
th
Because it is rate based and has been de-certified. A new version should be available 4 quarter of 2008
What happens when you hit BANK in HDG mode?

It will change the rate of turn from 30 degrees to 17 degrees
Can we use AP while ATT or HDG are in reversionary mode or either AHRS failed?
No. Prohibited
Why wouldn’t we use a GPS overlay during a VOR approach?

Because the RNP will be based on GPS information instead of VOR
Why is it important to be in the green box during a RA?

To prevent a premature “clear of conflict” and getting yourself into another RA
What happens when you have one ball deflection during a slip/skid?
A white arrow will appear. Remember the 20 seconds limitations for low engine oil pressure
Why aren’t we allowed to display the map information on the PFD while in arc mode?
It may freeze the PFD completely
51
How would you get out of the arc mode without getting into the map page?
Press NAV on the PFD controller
In AUTO TOLD mode, what are the situations where the V speed won’t show up?
-Wrong altimeter settings
-Wrong anti-ice settings
-Wrong flap settings
What is the limitation for the Goodrich Standby flight display in respect to starting main engines or APU?
Must be fully erected or you will mess up the magnetometer and you MAY not get heading information
52
17. MISCELLANEOUS SYSTEMS
What kind of masks are installed in the cockpit? Pg 17-1

Quick-donning EROS
What altitude are the oxygen components designed for? Pg 17-2

40,000 feet
What is the size of the O2 bottle? Pg 17-3

76 cu/ft
At what pressure is the bottle regulated to flow in the masks? Pg 17-3

36-70 psi
When will the passengers’ masks drop automatically? Pg 17-4

When cabin altitude reaches 14,500 feet
If we lose DC power, can you drop the masks? Pg 17-4

Yes, if you turn the knob to ON, a manual valve opens and O2 is available immediately to the passengers
What will the gauge read if the regulator was manually selected off? Pg 17-4
Still read bottle pressure, therefore a system check must be performed during preflight
How many masks are available to the pax? Pg 17-5

14 masks in 7 drop boxes
How big is the portable O2 bottle? Pg 17-6

11 cu/ft
How do we test the EROS masks? Pg 17-6

-Push PRESS-TO-TEST. If black shutter remains open after releasing, there is a leak
-Push PRESS-TO-TEST and EMER together. Blinker should remain yellow and a blast of O2 should be heard
What are the three different modes to operate the EROS masks? Pg 17-7
-Quick-donning with diluter demand: cabin air is mixed with O2 based on altitude
-100% demand: Push the rocker and 100% is available. Cabin air shuts off
-Pressure breathing: Rotate the EMER knob and pressure breathing commences +ensures no smoke in goggles
In AUTO mode, when will the pax masks drop? Pg 17-8

When either PCB (printed circuit board) senses a cabin pressure altitude greater than 14,500 +-490 feet
When do we get an EICAS message CABIN ALTITUDE? Pg 17-8

“amber cas”: 8,500 +-350 feet
“red cas”: 9,650 +- 350 feet
When the masks drop, is flow immediately available? Pg 17-8

No. By pulling on the lanyard, it will remove the pintle pin and O2 flow is available.
What altitude are the crew and pax masks not approved for use? AFM rev 6, Pg 18-16
Above 40,000 feet
At what cabin altitude are the pax masks approved for continuous operation? Pg 17-9
25,000 feet
Can we dispatch if the O2 level is not on the green arc? AFM sec III pg 3-203
Yes. Refer to table in AFM
What powers the toilet? Pg 17-11

Battery bus
53
How much fluid should we refill in the toilet? Pg 17-12
3 gallons for normal use and 4 gallons maximum
-Green Light (pre-charge): 1.0 gal
-Red Light (overfill): 4.0 gal
Should be refilled with 1 gal chemical solution, 2 gal of water for a total of 3 gallons of solution
54
18. LIMITATIONS:
What is the maximum design ramp weight?

30,550 lbs
What is the maximum takeoff weight?

30,300 lbs
What is the maximum landing weight?

27,100 lbs
What is the max zero fuel weight?

20,800
What is the minimum flight weight?

17,345 lbs
What is the MMO above 29,833 ft?

Mach 0.80
What is the max speed below 29,833 ft?

305 KIAS
What is the max speed below 10,000 ft?

270 KIAS
What is the max altitude to extend flaps?

18,000 ft
What is the max speed to extend flap 7? 250 KIAS Flaps 15? 200KIAS Flaps 35? 175 KIAS
What is the max speed to operate/extend the landing gear?

210 KIAS
What is the max turbulence penetration speed?

Mach 0.8 or 225 KIAS
What is the max speed to deploy speed brakes?

No limit to deploy
What is the minimum speed brakes extension speed?

Vref+15 KIAS min
What is the minimum SE enroute climb (Venr)?

180 KIAS
What is the max tire ground speed?

165 KIAS
What is the minimum speed for sustained flight in icing (flaps 0)?
180 KIAS
What is the max altitude for takeoff and landing?

14,000 feet
What is the max tailwind component?

10 knots
55
What is the max demonstrated crosswind?
25 knots
19. PERFORMANCE
For 2nd segment climb and enroute calculations, what must be taken in considerations if turns/bank are planned
on the Departure? AFM sect IV pg 4-39
-If takeoff weight is less than 29,275 lbs, you must multiply the actual takeoff weight by 1.035
-If takeoff weight is more than 29,275, you must reduce the NET climb gradient by 1.0 *** Refer to AFM
Is the “Contaminated runways” section of the AFM FAA approved? AFM sec IV pg 4-565
No. It is for advisory information only
What is the climb profile?

250 KIAS / 0.64 MACH
What is the rate on a HIGH SPEED DESCENT? AFM Sec VII pg 7-115
3,000 feet per minute
What is the NORMAL rate of descent? AFM Sec VII pg 7-112

2,000 feet per minute
56

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Cessna 680 Sovereign StudyGuide

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CITATION SOVEREIGN STUDY GUIDE

Last update: November 12th, 2008

Email corrections/updates to webmaster@ce680.com

2) ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

4) MASTER WARNING SYSTEM

6) AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

10) ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

11) AIR CONDITIONING

13) HYDRAULIC POWER SYSTEMS

14) LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

15) FLIGHT CONTROLS

17) MISCELLEANEOUS SYSTEMS

Under which section of the FARs is the Sovereign certified? Pg 1-2

What kind of construction concept is it built under? Pg 1-9

What kind of wing design does the Sovereign has? Pg 1-9

What components are mounted on the wings? Pg 1-9

How is ice accumulation prevented on the wings? Pg 1-9 and section 10

What is the dimension of the cabin? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

What is the height of the tail? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

What is the length of the wingspan? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

What is the overall length of the aircraft? Pg 1-3, AFM pg 1-10

What is the wing tip to wing tip turning radius? Pg 1-3

Describe the unpressurized nose section: Pg 1-2

How is the main door operated? Pg 1-4

How is the cabin door secured? Pg 1-5

What is the purpose of the vent door? Pg 1-6

How many seals are “near” the cabin door?

What is the purpose of the cabin door seal? Pg 1-6

What is the purpose of the acoustic seal? Pg 1-6

Describe the emergency exit: Pg 1-8

When does the “Amber” LAVATORY CAS illuminates? Pg 1-9

Where is the Baggage compartment located? Pg 1-10

How many pins secure the baggage door? Pg 1-10

How many smoke detectors in the baggage compartment? Pg 4-6

Where are the batteries access doors? Pg 1-10

Where is the Hydraulic service door? Pg1-11

Where is the lavatory service door? Pg1-11

How many doors are monitored?

Describe briefly the electrical system: Pg 2-1

Can the generators be paralleled with each other? Pg 2-3

How are the generators controlled? Pg 2-2

Where are the GCUs? Pg 2-2

What does the GCU do? Pg 2-2

What happens when the BUS TIE relay is CLOSED? Pg 2-2

What is the secondary power source? Pg 2-2

When do we use the batteries? Pg 2-2

How is the system normally operated? Pg 2-1

How is the electrical system monitored? Pg 2-2

What happens when you depress the switch? Pg 2-3

What happens if the GPU voltage is excessive? Pg 2-3

Where are the primary buses? Pg 2-4

What happens if an electrical short occurs? Pg 2-4

What are the Modular Avionics 3 and 4? Pg 2-4

What items are located on the LEFT battery bus? Pg 2-4

What items are located on the RIGHT Battery bus? Pg 2-5

When should a BUS TIE be selected closed in-flight? Pg 2-6

What precaution must we take when disconnecting the GPU? Pg 2-7

How do we place the APU generator online? Pg 2-7

What happens when we turn on the APU GEN? Pg 2-7

How is the Avionics power distributed? Pg 2-7

How many Emergency batteries are installed? Pg 2-4

What does the Emergency battery do? Pg 2-4

How is the Emergency battery charged? Pg 2-4