Neuron orientation presents BMDC

Registration qualification exam model

test 10, set :B Mark: 100, time : 1hr 40

min, pass mark: 60

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1. Pheochromocytoma is known as 10% tumour as

a. 10% of tumour are inherited

b. 10% of tumour are adrenal

c. 10% tumour are benign

d. 10% tumour are incidentalomas

2. For CABG following vessels can be harvested as conduit

a. long saphonous vein

b. left brachiocephalic vein

c. left internal mammary artery

d. external carotid artery

3. Sentinel lymph node biopsy can be done in

a. carcinoma breast

b. malignant melanoma

c. testicular carcinoma

d. lymphoma

4. Charcot's billiary triad includes

a. pruritis
b. fluctuating jaundice

c. recurrent pain

d. dark urine

5. Following are autosomal disorder;

a. achondroplasia

b. huntington’s corea

c. wilson’s disease

d. albinism

6.Characterstics of GBS(Guillain barre syndrome) are:

a. ascending paralysis

b. remarkable sensory loss

c. symmetrical type paralysis

d. commonly involves the bladder

7. The common organism for childhood (>2month)meningitis are :

a.listeria monocytogenes

b. h. influenza

c. pneumococcus

d. e.cloi

8. True for typhoid :

a. rose spot on the end of 2nd wk

b. hepatomegaly
c. bronchitis

d. blood culture dx in 3rd wk

9. To observe for atropinisation in OPC poisoning :

a. blood pressure

b. respiratory rate

c. heart rate

d. papillary reaction

10. Classical radiological feature of scurvy in a child include :

a. widening of metaphysic

b. ground glass appearance of shaft of long bones

c. ringing of epiphysis

d. bowing of shaft of long bones

11. Anaphylactic shock :

a. can be triggered by bee sting

b. is a type II hypersensitivity

c. is characterized by vasodilatation

d. is due to neurogenic vasomotor disturbances

12. causes of paraplegia include:

a. cerebellar tumor

b. pott’s disease

c. sub acute combined degeneration of spinal cord

d. GBS

13. Common radiological feature of acute bronchiolitis :

a. cardiomegaly

b. shifting of trachea

c. hypertranslucency of lung

d. overcrowding of ribs

14. Feature of schizophrenia include:

a. paranoid delusion

b. feeling of guilt

c. panic attack

d. irrelevant talk

15. The criteria for the Dx of SAM in a 10 month old boy :

a. MUAC <115 MM

b. bipedal edema

c. weight for length Z score <-3

d. length for age z score <-3

16. Purulent discharge per urethra occurs in :

a. syphilis

b. gonorrhoeaa

c. non – urethritis

d. UTI

17. Following vaccine are included in the EPI schedule of Bangladesh:

a. MMR

b. pentavalent vaccine

c. hepatitis A

d. typhoid
18. Contents of femoral triangle are as follows

a. Femoral artery

b. Femoralvein

c. Saphenous nerve

d. Lymph node

19. Root value:

a. Median nerve: C 5 – T1

b. Radial nerve: C5 – T1

c. Ulnar Nerve: C5 –T1

d. Musculocutaneous nerve: C5-C7

20. Carpal tunnel syndrome

a. is a self-limiting disease

b. It may occur during pregnancy

c. More pain during night sleep

d. Sensory impaired over thenar area of hand

21. Feature of cervical cord compression are:

a. Extensor planter response

b. Absent abdominal reflex

c. Muscle fasciculation at lower limb

d. Ankle clonus

22. Feature of hypersplenism are:

a. Hepatomegaly

b. Pancytopenia
c. Hypercellular marrow

d. Leukamoid blood picture

23. Following are feature of 3rd nerve plasy:

a. paralysis of abduction

b. absence of facial sweating

c. ptosis

d. absence of accommodation reflex

24. Following diasease can be transmitted through blood transfusion

a. Syphilis

b. Kala-azar

c. Hepatitis C virus

d. Anthrax

25. Finger clubbing is a typical feature of;

a. Chronic bronchitis

b.Bronchiectasis

c. Primary biliary cirrhosis

d. Cryptic fibrosing alveolitis

26. Causes of recurrent monoarthritis:

a. Septic arthritis

b. Gout

c. Rhumatoid arthritis

d. Pseudo gout

27. Causes of atrial fibrillation includes:

a. Mitral regurgitation

b. Myxoedema

c. B blocker therapy

d. Pneumonia

28. Weight loss is found in :

a. type I dm

b. hypogonadism

c. thyrotoxicosis

d. cushing’s syndrome

29. Red or dark urine associated with:

a. haematuria

b. myoglobinuria

c. porphyria

d. haemoglobinuria

30. Examples of congenital cyanotic heart diseases:

a. VSD

b. TOF

c. ASD

d. transposition of great vessels

31. Feature of SLE;

a.onset in 5th decade

b. raynaud phenomenon present

c. C- rective protein rises

d. proteinuria indicate nephritis

32. Causes of genital ulcer :

a. syphilis

b. gonorrhea

c. herpes infection

d. kala azar

33. Communicating hydrocephalus causes :

a. Meningitis

b. Achondroplasia

c. Chiari malformation

d. Choroid plexus papilloma

34. Complication of MI includes:

a. arrhythmia

b. pericarditis

c.aortic regurgitation

d.ventricular aneurysm

35. Risk factor of CA colon :

a. acromegaly

b. pelvic radiotherapy

c. crohn’s disease

d. smoking

36. Extra pyramidal lesion is manifested by

a. fine tremor

b. choreoathetosiis
c. pendular jerk

d. bradykinesia

37. Metabolic acidosis is caused by:

a. severe vomiting

b. severe diarrhea

c. renal failure

d. respiratory failure

38. Feature of septic shock are:

a. pulmonary oedema

b. warm peripheries

c. multi organ failure

d. tachycardia

39. Treatment of hyperkalemia are:

a. IV calcium gluconate

b. salbutamol inhalation

c. ACEI

d. dialysis

40. HIV virus spreeds through:

a. sexual exposure

b. IV drug abuse

c. skin to skin contact

d. using cloth of HIVinfected patient

41. Feature of niacin deficiency are:

a. dermatitis

b. angular stomatitis

c. peripheral neuropathy

d. dementia

42. Measure of dispersion include

a. Range

b. median

c. mode

d. mean deviation

43. The healthy carriers occur in the following disease

a. salmonellosis

b. cholera

c. pertussis

d. measles

44. Physical parameters for acceptability of drinking water are

a. turbidity

b. colour

c. hardness

d. presence of E. Coli

45. Complication of salt water drowning are

a. swelling of RBC & rupturing

b. haemoconcentration

c. hyperkalemia

d. haemodilution
46. Rigor mortis may be confused with

a. cadaveric spasm

b. heat stiffening

c. gas stiffening

d. livor mortis

47. Following are the abortificient agent

a. ergot

b. datura

c. root of yellow olender

d. OPC

48. Staphylococcus aureus

a. produce free coagulase

b. cause toxic shock syndrome by exfoliative exotoxin

c. produces beta hemolysin

d. produces DNAase

49. Dimorphic fungus include

a. histoplasma capsulatum

b. malassezia furfur

c. aspergillus fumigates

d. cryptococcus neoformans
50. Parasites which infect predominantly large gut

a. E.histolytica

b. G.lamblia

c. A.lumbricoides

d. E.vermicularis

51. Absolute indication of insulin are

a. type 1 DM

b. GDM

c. first line therapy in type 2 DM

d. DKA

52. The following drugs easily penetrate the BBB

a. physostigmine

b. atenolol

c. propranolol

d. heparin

53. The adverse effect of thiazide diuretics

a. ototoxicity

b. hyperglycemia

c. hyperurecemia

d. hypomagnesemia

54. Pulmonary embolism is associated with

a. thrombosis in pulmonary vein

b. thrombosis in calf vein

c. thrombosis in calf vein

d. thrombosis in left heart

55. Growth factor related to healing process include

a. TGF-beta

b. VEGF

c. LDH

d. ADH

56. local oedema occurs in

a. inflammation

b. lymphatic obstruction

c. surgical wound

d. hydronephrosis

57. HELLP syndrome is an acronym of

a. elevated lipoprotein

b. elevated liver ENZYME

C. haemolysis

d. low serum protein

58. Common causes of maternal death are

a. PPH

b. twin pregnancy

c. eclampsia

d. preterm birth

59. Complications of multiple pregnancy are

a. anaemia

b. GDM

c. preterm labour
d. oligohydramnios

60. Danger signs of pregnancy are

a. excessive vomiting

b. convulsion

c. labour pain for 18 hours

d. P/V bleeding during pregnancy

61. Labour pain is characterised by

a. Painful uterine contractions

b. Progressive effacement damp; dilatation of cervix

c. Formation of bag of for water

d. Rupture of membrane

62. Involution of uterus is assessed clinically by

a. Palpating height of the uterus

b. doing P/V examination

c. doing USG of uterus

d. examining the lochial discharge

63. Factors responsible for breech presentation are

a. prematurity

b. premature rupture of membrane

c. placenta praevia

d. abruption placenta

64. Complications of abruptio placenta are

a. premature rupture of membrane

b. shock
c. DIC

d. renal failure

65. Breast feeding is contraindicated in:

a.phenylketoneuria

b. Galactosemia

c. Anti HCV positive mother

d. Hbs ag positive mother

66. Main supports of uterus

a. Machendrots ligament

b. Broad ligament

c. Uterosacral ligament

d. Ovarian ligament

67. A 35 years old married lady came with amenorrhoea for six months. The possible causes are

a. pregnancy

b. PCOD

c. dysgerminoma

d. sheehan's syndrome

68. Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are

a. previ ous ectopic pregnancy

b. oral pill

c. previous induced abortion

d. PID

69. VVF occurs due to

a. hysterectomy

b. pelvic radiotherapy

c. endonictriosis

d. cervical cancer

70. Time of insertion of IUCD is

a. immediately after C/S

b. 6weeks after NVD

c. following MR

d. during menstruation

71. Natural defense mechanism of general tract are

a. remarkable inherent resistance to infection

b. vaginal alkalinity

c. vaginal flora

d. functional closure of vagina

72. Risk factors for PID are

a. IUCD users

b. multiple sexual partners

c. OCP users

d. pregnancy

73. In osteomyelitis :

a. Antibiotics may abort infections

b. Bone Bone infarct is called sequestrum

c. Ensheathing new bone is called cloaca

d. Holes in the new bone are called involucrum

74. With respect to gallstones

a. CT scan is the choice of investigation

b. It may cause intestinal obstruction

c. Most people are asymptomatic

d. Mirizzi syndrome is caused by stone in CBD

75. Normal range of routine liver function tests are :

a. Alkaline phosphatase: 35-130 IU/L

b. Aspartate transaminase (AST): 40-200 lU/L.

c. Alanine transaminase (ALT): 5-40 IU/L

d. Albumin: 35-50 g/L

76. The indications of splenectomy are:

a. Any trauma to spleen

b. Part of en bloc resection in gastric malignancy

c. Spherocytosis

d. ITP

77. Regarding subdural haemorrhage:

a. Occurs in relatively trivial trauma

b. No lucid interval

c. Diffuse concave lesion on computed tomography

d. Require immediate transfer to a neurosurgical unit for intervention

78. Indications of surgery in limb fracture :

a. Open fractures

b. Failed non-operative management

c. Non pathological fractures

d. Infra-articular fractures
79. Clinical features of pheochromocytoma are :

a. Hypertension

b. Headache

c. Sweating

d. Weight gain

80. Following are the features of chronic lower limb ischemia

a. Rest pain

b. Rapid capillary filling

c. Paraesthesia

d. Gangrene

81. Most common presentation of endemic goiter is/are

a. Multinodular goiter

b. Diffuse goiter

c. Thyrotoxicosis

d. Solitary thyroid nodule

82. Features of amoebic liver abscess include —

a. Diarrhea at presentation

b. Common in right lobe

c. Can rupture into the pleural cavity

d. Earthy complexion of the patient

83. Functions of cornea are:

a. transmission of light

b. refraction

c. maintain structural integrity of eye

d. colour vision

84. Middle ear tympanic cavity develops from the :

a.pharyngeal pouch

b. anterior wall contains the canal for tensor tympani muscle

c. lateral semicircular canal is related to it's medial wall

d.pyramid is related to its anterior

85. Otitis extern:

a malignant otitis externa can cause by pseudomonas

b. bullous myringitis is caused by virus

c. otomycosis is caused by actinomyces

d. furunculosis is caused by staphyococcus aureus

86. Recognized adverse effect of enlarged adenoids include:

a. mouth breathing

b. sinusitis

c. recurrent acute otitis media

d. chronic suppurative otitis media

87. The following are on or related to the medial wall of the tympanic cavity :

a. chorda tympani

b. eustacahian tube orifice

c. facial (VII) nerve

d. footplate of the stapes

88. Recognized causes of Earache include :

a. acute otitis externa

b. impacted molar tooth

c. tonsillitis

d. post-tonsillectomy

89. Epistaxis

a. may be traumatic

b. may be neoplastic

c. is not caused by environmental changes

d. frequently occurs from the kiesselbach's plexus

90. Ethmoidal nasal polyp

a. are usually infective in origin.

b. usually unilateral

c. may cause nasal obstruction

d. steroid therapy may regress them

91. Deafness

a. is only due to middle ear dine

b. may be congenital

c. may be due to drugs

d. do not impair speech developmenti in children

92. Undesirable sequel of TURP include

a. contracture of bladder neck

b. water intoxication

c. osteitis pubis

d. infertility

93. Torsion of testis

a. is associated with abnormalities of scrotal Development

b. often associated with vomiting and lower abdominal pain

c. often produces gangrene of the testis

d. may initially effectively treated by non-surgical Means

94. Diagnostic features of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis are-

a. bile stained vomitus

b. frequent diarrhoea

c. visible peristalsis

d. first born female child

95. Squamous cell carcinoma

a. is associated with chronic inflammation

b. is invariably a ulcerated lesion

c. Marjolin's ulcer is an example

d. is slow growing & locally invasive

96. Hormone sensitive malignancies are

a. breast carcinoma

b. renal cell carcinoma

c. prostatic carcinoma

d. thyroid carcinoma

97. Brown sequards syndrome is characterised by loss of:

a. Voluntary movement on the same side

b. Pain sensation on the oposite side

c. Thermal sensation on the same side

d. Position sensation on the opposite side

98.Generalized pigmentation is a feature of :

a. kala azar

b. addison’s disease

c. hypopituitarism

d. chronic arsenicosis

99.Following are feature of anxiety disorder:

a. panic attack

b. feeling of guilt

c. delusion

d. same repetitive thoughts coming in mind

100. Following are the feature of depressive illness:

a. suicidal tendency

b. feeling of guilt

c. thought broadcasting

d. same repetitive thoughts coming in mind