LE AILET 10 QUES @CL - Mock

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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024

MOCK AILET #10
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Duration : 120 Minutes
Max. Marks : 150
rs
Candidate Name : _____________
Batch : _____________.
Centre Name : __________ Contact No.
k e : _____________
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1.
2.
3.
To INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer
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(b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and no
marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces,
provided for.
9. After the test is over, the candidate should keep the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper and can carry it back with
themselves
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10. The use
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2U7O any
8Munfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
Directions (Q.1-Q.120): Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that
accurately and completely answer the question.
Passage (Q.1-Q.12): Three years ago, when armed terrorists attacked a dozen locations in Mumbai—including
two luxury hotels, a hospital, the railway station, a restaurant, and a Jewish center—they killed as many as 159
people, both Indians and foreigners, and gravely wounded more than 200. The assault, known as 26/11, scarred
the nation’s psyche by exposing the country’s vulnerability to terrorism, although India is no stranger to it. The
Taj Mumbai’s burning domes and spires, which stayed ablaze for two days and three nights, will forever
symbolize the tragic events of 26/11.
During the onslaught on the Taj Mumbai, 31 people died and 28 were hurt, but the hotel received only praise
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the day after. Its guests were overwhelmed by employees’ dedication to duty, their desire to protect guests
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without regard to personal safety, and their quick thinking. Restaurant and banquet staff rushed people to safe
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locations such as kitchens and basements. Telephone operators stayed at their posts, alerting guests to lock
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many as 11 Taj Mumbai employees—a third of the hotel’s casualties—laid down their lives while helping
between 1,200 and 1,500 guests escape.
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doors and not step out. Kitchen staff formed human shields to protect guests during evacuation attempts. As
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At some level, that isn’t surprising. One of the world’s top hotels, the Taj Mumbai is ranked number 20 by
Condé Nast Traveler in the overseas business hotel category. The hotel is known for the highest levels of
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quality, its ability to go many extra miles to delight customers, and its staff of highly trained employees, some
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of whom have worked there for decades. It is a well-oiled machine, where every employee knows his or her
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job, has encyclopedic knowledge about regular guests, and is comfortable taking orders.
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Even so, the Taj Mumbai’s employees gave customer service a whole new meaning during the terrorist strike.
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What created that extreme customer-centric culture of employee after employee staying back to rescue guests
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when they could have saved themselves? What can other organizations do to emulate that level of service, both
in times of crisis and in periods of normalcy? Can companies scale up and perpetuate extreme customer
centricity?
Our studies show that the Taj employees’ actions weren’t prescribed in manuals; no official policies or
procedures existed for an event such as 26/11. Some contextual factors could have had a bearing, such as
India’s ancient culture of hospitality; the values of the House of Tata, which owns the Taj Group; and the Taj
Mumbai’s historical roots in the patriotic movement for a free India. The story, probably apocryphal, goes that
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in the 1890s, when security men denied J.N. Tata entry into the Royal Navy Yacht Club, pointing to a board
that apparently said “No Entry for Indians and Dogs,” he vowed to set up a hotel the likes of which the British
had never seen. The Taj opened its doors in 1903.
https://hbr.org/2011/12/the-ordinary-heroes-of-the-taj
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. Select the appropriate option to fill the blank.

In the line, ‘The Taj Mumbai’s employees gave customer service a whole new meaning…’ in paragraph 4, the
writer means that the employees __________ during the terrorist strike.
(a) performed adequately
(b) transformed the concept of service
(c) met the standard
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(d) displayed minimal courtesy
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 32
2. What is the most likely tone indicated by the use of the word ‘apocryphal’ in the last paragraph?
(a) dubious (b) affirming (c) indifferent (d) validating
3. Select the option that is true for both (1) and (2) below, according to paragraph 2.
(1) The employees displayed a dedication to duty.
(2) The guests were generally unimpressed with the employees' actions.
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.
(b) Both (1) and (2) are true.
(c) (2) is true but (1) cannot be inferred from the text.
(d) (1) is true but (2) cannot be inferred from the text.
4. Select the option that substitutes the underlined word correctly in the given line.
‘The hotel is known for its ability to go many extra miles…’
5.
(a) journeys (b) efforts
Select the option that uses a ‘superlative’.

(c) distances (d) lengths
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(a) The Taj is a prestigious hotel in Mumbai.
(b) The Taj aims to provide excellent service.
(c) The Taj is the finest hotel the British had ever seen.
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(d) The Taj offers luxurious accommodations.
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
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6.
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If the hotel employees undergo a security training every 45 days starting from January 1, 2023, on which date
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would the starting of third training fall, considering February has 28 days?
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(a) February 15, 2023 (b) March 31, 2023 (c) Marchtr-30, (d) April 1, 2023
7.
8.
(a) May 10, 2023 o
If the security protocol dictates that a security drill must be held every 2 weeks on a Wednesday, and the first
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drill was on January 1, 2023, which was a Sunday, when will the 10th drill occur?
(b) May 15, 2023 (c) April 30, 2023 (d) June 01, 2023
If the hotel management holds a memorial every year on the anniversary of the attack, and the attack occurred
on November 26, 2023. On which day of the week will the second memorial be held?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
9. If an emergency protocol review is scheduled every 72 days, and the8M first

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review was on January 1, 2023, on
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which day of the week would the fourth review fall? (Consider January 1 2023 is Sunday)
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
10. Two hands of a clock form an angle of 900 at 3:00. If the time is between 3:00 and 6:00, at what time will the
two hands form an angle of 90∘ again?
(a) 3:30 (b) 3:33 (c) 4:00 (d) 4:15
11. If a clock shows 8:15, what will be the mirror image of the clock at that time?
(a) 3:45 (b) 4:45 (c) 3:15 (d) 4:15
12. Considering the minute hand of a clock travels at 60 per minute, how many degrees will the minute hand have
traveled from 3:00 to 3:20?
(a) 90°
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Passage (Q.13-Q.24): The Portuguese nobleman Vasco da Gama (1460-1524) sailed from Lisbon in 1497 on a
mission to reach India and open a sea route from Europe to the East. After sailing down the western coast of
Africa and rounding the Cape of Good Hope, his expedition made numerous stops in Africa before reaching
the trading post of Calicut, India, in May 1498. Da Gama received a hero’s welcome back in Portugal, and was
sent on a second expedition to India in 1502, during which he brutally clashed with Muslim traders in the
region. Two decades later, da Gama again returned to India, this time as Portuguese viceroy; he died there of an
illness in late 1524.
VASCO DA GAMA’S EARLY LIFE AND FIRST VOYAGE TO INDIA

Born circa 1460, Vasco da Gama was the son of a minor nobleman who commanded the fortress at Sines,
located on the coast of the Alentejo province in southwestern Portugal. Little else is known about his early life,
but in 1492 King John II sent da Gama to the port city of Setubal (south of Lisbon) and to the Algarve region
to seize French ships in retaliation for French attacks on Portuguese shipping interests.
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In 1497, John’s successor, King Manuel I (crowned in 1495), chose da Gama to lead a Portuguese fleet to India
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in search of a maritime route from Western Europe to the East. At the time, the Muslims held a monopoly of
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trade with India and other Eastern nations, thanks to their geographical position. Da Gama sailed from Lisbon
that July with four vessels, traveling south along the coast of Africa before veering far off into the southern
Atlantic in order to avoid unfavorable currents. The fleet was finally able to round the Cape of Good Hope at
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Africa’s southern tip in late November, and headed north along Africa’s eastern coast, making stops at what is
now Mozambique, Mombasa and Malindi (both now in Kenya). With the help of a local navigator, da Gama
was able to cross the Indian Ocean and reach the coast of India at Calicut (now Kozhikode) in May 1498.
RELATIONS WITH LOCAL POPULATION & RIVAL TRADERS
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Though the local Hindu population of Calicut initially welcomed the arrival of the Portuguese sailors (who
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mistook them for Christians), tensions quickly flared aftertr-da offered their ruler a collection of relatively
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cheap goods as an arrival gift. This conflict, along with hostility from Muslim traders, led Da Gama to leave
without concluding a treaty and return to Portugal. A much larger fleet, commanded by Pedro Alvares Cabral,
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was dispatched to capitalize on da Gama’s discoveries and secure a trading post at Calicut.
After Muslim traders killed 50 of his men, Cabral retaliated by burning 10 Muslim cargo vessels and killing
the nearly 600 sailors aboard. He then moved on to Cochin, where he established the first Portuguese trading
post in India. In 1502, King Manuel put da Gama in charge of another Indian expedition, which sailed that
February. On this voyage, da Gama attacked Arab shipping interests in the region and used force to reach an
agreement with Calicut’s ruler. For these brutal demonstrations of power, da Gama was vilified throughout
India and the region. Upon his return to Portugal, by contrast, he was richly
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rewarded for another successful
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voyage.
DA GAMA’S LATER LIFE AND LAST VOYAGE TO INDIA

Da Gama had married a well-born woman sometime after returning from his first voyage to India; the couple
would have six sons. For the next 20 years, da Gama continued to advise the Portuguese ruler on Indian affairs,
but he was not sent back to the region until 1524, when King John III appointed him as Portuguese viceroy in
India.
Da Gama arrived in Goa with the task of combating the growing corruption that had tainted the Portuguese
government in India. He soon fell ill, and in December 1524 he died in Cochin. His body was later taken back
to Portugal for burial there.
https://www.history.com/topics/exploration/vasco-da-gama
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13. In the context, 'After Muslim traders killed 50 of his men, Cabral retaliated by burning 10 Muslim cargo
vessels and killing the nearly 600 sailors aboard,' the phrase 'retaliated by' most closely means that Cabral
__________.
(a) sought reconciliation through
(b) responded violently with
(c) initiated negotiations after
(d) passively acknowledged
14. Identify the underlying motive of Vasco da Gama’s 1502 expedition, based on the narrative and the eventual
outcomes.
(a) Establishing Portuguese cultural dominance
(b) Creating a mutual trading partnership
(c) Retaliatory and assertive control over trade routes
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(d) Evangelizing and spreading Christianity
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What can be inferred about Vasco da Gama's strategic approach to navigating the African coast and reaching
India?
(a) It was mainly characterized by assertive and direct navigation.
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(b) He relied on a cautious and divergent approach to avoid unfavorable conditions.
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(c) The strategy was based on a direct eastward route from Portugal to India.
(d) He prioritized mapping uncharted territories over reaching the destination swiftly.
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16. Drawing upon the depiction of Vasco da Gama's various what underlying theme is illustrated
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regarding the interaction between different civilizations during the Age of Discovery?
(a) Mutual cooperation and intercultural exchange
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(b) The pursuit of knowledge and scientific discovery
(c) Expansionist competition and resultant conflicts
(d) The quest for religious conversion and spiritual enlightenment
Given the chronology and the character of Vasco da Gama's interactions in India, which of the following is an
implicit observation about the broader Portuguese endeavors in the East?
(a) They were driven by a predominantly explorative zeal.
(b) Their objectives were inclined towards sustainable diplomatic relations.
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(c) The endeavors were marked by aggressive pursuits and territorial dominance.
(d) The Portuguese were mainly motivated by religious propagations.
18. Vasco da Gama’s fleet starts at Lisbon and travels in sequence: south along the coast of Africa, then southeast
around the Cape of Good Hope, then northeast to Calicut, India in line with Cape of Good Hope. How much
degree should he turn to look his friend at Lisbon from his final destination?
(a) Exactly 135 degree clockwise
(b) Exactly 135 degree anticlockwise
(c) Exactly 90 degree clockwise
(d) Exactly 90 degree anticlockwise
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19. If Vasco da Gama’s compass, at Calicut, rotates 180 degrees clockwise calculated from North, indicating the
direction back to Portugal, which geographic direction should he turn from Calicut?
(a) Exactly 135 degree clockwise
(b) Exactly 135 degree anticlockwise
(c) Exactly 90 degree clockwise
(d) Exactly 90 degree anticlockwise
20. Vasco da Gama is holding a compass while facing the direction of the sunrise at Calicut, and the compass reads
“NW”. This implies that the compass has rotated:
(a) 135 degrees counter-clockwise or 225 degrees clockwise
(b) 135 degrees clockwise or 225 degrees counter-clockwise
(c) 45 degrees clockwise or 315 degrees counter-clockwise
21.
(d) 45 degrees counter-clockwise or 315 degrees clockwise
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Considering the scenario in question 8, what is the actual direction if it is showing “SE” on the compass?
22.
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
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Vasco da Gama begins his journey from Lisbon, and the compass is correctly aligned with the needle pointing
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towards the magnetic north. However, upon reaching Mombasa, the compass’s circular piece of paper rotates
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almost half-circle clockwise. Which geographic direction does the needle point towards now?
(a) Approximately North (b) Exactly North
23.
(c) Approximately South
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(d) Exactly South
Vasco da Gama, while in Calicut, India, faces the direction of the sunset and notices that his compass reads
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“NE”. This would imply that the compass has an error of:tr-5E2J7C5D8I
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(a) 45 degrees counter-clockwise or 315 degrees clockwise
(b) 135 degrees counter-clockwise or 225 degrees clockwise
24.
(a) North
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(c) 135 degrees clockwise or 225 degrees counter-clockwise
(d) 45 degrees clockwise or 315 degrees counter-clockwise
Considering the scenario in Question 23, what is the actual direction if it is showing “SE” on the compass?
(b) South (c) East (d) West
Passage (Q.25-Q.36): Information technology has become so much part of everyday life that it is affecting
human identity (understood as character). Two developments have been claimed to have a particularly great
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impact. The first of these is that information technologies are starting to become part of our bodies and
function as prosthetic technologies that take over or augment biological functions, turning humans into
cyborgs, and thereby altering human nature. A second development is the emergence of virtual identities,
which are identities that people assume online and in virtual worlds. This development has raised questions
about the nature of identity and the self, and their realization in the future.
Philosophical studies of cyborgs have considered three principal questions: the conceptual question of what a
cyborg is, the interpretive and empirical question of whether humans are or are becoming cyborgs, and the
normative questions of whether it would be good or desirable for humans to become cyborgs. The term
“cyborg” has been used in three increasingly broad senses. The traditional definition of a cyborg, is that of a
being composed of both organic and artificial systems, between which there is feedback-control, with the
artificial systems closely mimicking the behavior of organic systems. On a broader conception, a cyborg is any
individual with artificial parts, even if these parts are simple structures like artificial teeth and breast implants.
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On a still broader conception, a cyborg is any individual who relies extensively on technological devices and
artifacts to function. On this conception, everyone is a cyborg, since everyone relies extensively on technology.
Cyborgs have become a major research topic in cultural studies, which has brought forth the area of cyborg
theory, which is the multidisciplinary study of cyborgs and their representation in popular culture [Gray, 1996].
In this field the notion of the cyborg is often used as a metaphor to understand aspects of contemporary — late
modern or postmodern — society's relationship to technology, as well as to the human body and the self. The
advance of cyborg theory has been credited to Donna Haraway, in particular her essay “Manifesto for
Cyborgs” [Haraway, 1985]. Haraway claims that the binary ways of thinking of modernity (organism-
technology, man-woman, physical-nonphysical and fact-fiction) traps beings into supposedly fixed identities
and oppresses those beings (animals, women, blacks, etc.) who are on the wrong, inferior side of binary
oppositions. She believes that the hybridization of humans and human societies, through the notion of the
cyborg, can free those who are oppressed by blurring boundaries and constructing hybrid identities that are less
vulnerable to the trappings of modernistic thinking (see also [Mazlish, 1993].
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/psychology/cyborg
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25.
(a) Dependence on Technological Artifacts
(b) Relationship to Technology and Self
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Which aspect of the modern society does the notion of ‘cyborg’ metaphorically represent in cultural studies?
(c) Augmentation of Biological Functions

(d) Representation in Popular Media
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26.
context provided?
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What underlying theme is Donna Haraway likely addressing in her “Manifesto for Cyborgs” based on the
(a) The Scientific advancements leading to the birth of Cyborgs
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(c) The Binaries and supposed fixed identities in modernistic thinking
(d) The dependence of modern society on technology
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Question 3: The term “cyborg” in its broadest conception can be attributed to:
(a) Beings with artificial systems augmenting biological functions
(b) Individuals with simple structures like artificial teeth
(c) Individuals who are reliant on technology extensively
(d) Only beings with both organic and artificial systems with feedback-control
28. What could be inferred as the primary perspective offered by cyborg theory in cultural studies?
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(a) A multidisciplinary study of the evolution of cyborgs tr-5T2U
(b) A metaphorical understanding of contemporary society's interaction with technology and self
(c) A traditional study of beings composed of both organic and artificial systems
(d) An empirical study on the augmentation of biological functions by artificial systems
29. The idea of blurring boundaries and constructing hybrid identities, as proposed by Donna Haraway, is
primarily aimed at:
(a) Enhancing technological advancements
(b) Counteracting the oppression stemming from binary oppositions
(c) Promoting the augmentation of biological functions
(d) Offering a more traditional conceptual understanding of cyborgs
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30. If in a certain code language, "CYBORG" is coded as "DZCPSH", then how is "IDENTITY" coded in that
language?
(a) JEFOUJUZ (b) JEFUOJTY (c) JEEOUJUZ (d) JEFVOJUZ
31. Consider the words "CYBORG", "HUMAN", and "TECHNOLOGY" as different points in space. If
"CYBORG" is to the east of "HUMAN" and "TECHNOLOGY" is to the south of "CYBORG", then in which
direction is "TECHNOLOGY" with respect to "HUMAN"?
(a) South-East (b) South-West (c) North-East (d) North-West
32. If each vowel in the word "CYBORG" is assigned a value of 2 and each consonant a value of 3, what is the
total value of the word "CYBORG"?
(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20
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33.
.
If each letter in the word "CYBORG" is assigned a value corresponding to its position in the alphabet (i.e.,
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A=1, B=2, ..., Z=26), what is the sum of the values assigned to the letters in the word "CYBORG"?
(a) 70 (b) 75 (c) 80 (d) 85
34.
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If "CYBORG" represents a technological entity and "HUMAN" represents a biological entity, which of the
following statements is logically deduced from the passage?
(b) All biological entities are cyborgs.
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(a) All technological entities are superior to biological entities.
a
(c) All cyborgs are a combination of technological and biological entities.
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35.
36.
(a) 26 o
If each vowel in the word "TECHNOLOGY" is assigned a value of 2 and each consonant a value of 3, what is
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the total value of the word "TECHNOLOGY"?
(b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29
If each letter in the word "VIRTUAL" is assigned a value corresponding to its reverse position in the alphabet
(i.e., Z=1, Y=2, ..., A=26), what is the sum of the values assigned to the letters in the word "VIRTUAL"?
(a) 87 (b) 83 (c) 86 (d) 79
Passage (Q.37-Q.48): Mongol leader Genghis Khan (1162-1227) rose from

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largest land empire in history. After uniting the nomadic tribes of the Mongolian plateau, he conquered huge
chunks of central Asia and China. His descendants expanded the empire even further, advancing to such far-off
places as Poland, Vietnam, Syria and Korea. At their peak, the Mongols controlled between 11 and 12 million
contiguous square miles, an area about the size of Africa. Many people were slaughtered in the course of
Genghis Khan’s invasions, but he also granted religious freedom to his subjects, abolished torture, encouraged
trade and created the first international postal system. Genghis Khan died in 1227 during a military campaign
against the Chinese kingdom of Xi Xia. His final resting place remains unknown.
Temujin, later Genghis Khan, was born around 1162 near the border between modern Mongolia and Siberia.
Legend holds that he came into the world clutching a blood clot in his right hand. His mother had been
kidnapped by his father and forced into marriage. At that time, dozens of nomadic tribes on the central Asian
steppe were constantly fighting and stealing from each other, and life for Temujin was violent and
unpredictable.
tr-5T2U7O5N8M
6MBefore
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then deserted him, his mother and his six siblings in order to avoid having to feed them.
Shortly thereafter, Temujin killed his older half-brother and took over as head of the poverty-stricken
household. At one point, he was captured and enslaved by the clan that had abandoned him, but he was
eventually able to escape. In 1178 Temujin married Borte, with whom he would have four sons and an
unknown number of daughters. He launched a daring rescue of Borte after she too was kidnapped, and he soon
began making alliances, building a reputation as a warrior and attracting a growing number of followers. Most
of what we know about Genghis Khan’s childhood comes from “The Secret History of the Mongols,” the
oldest known work of Mongolian history and literature, which was written soon after his death.
Going against custom, Temujin put competent allies rather than relatives in key positions and executed the
leaders of enemy tribes while incorporating the remaining members into his clan. He ordered that all looting
wait until after a complete victory had been won, and he organized his warriors into units of 10 without regard
to kin. Though Temujin was an animist, his followers included Christians, Muslims and Buddhists. By 1205 he
had vanquished all rivals, including his former best friend Jamuka. The following year, he called a meeting of
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representatives from every part of the territory and established a nation similar in size to modern Mongolia. He
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was also proclaimed Chinggis Khan, which roughly translates to “Universal Ruler,” a name that became
known in the West as Genghis Khan.
c
https://www.history.com/topics/asian-history/genghis-khan
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37.
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Based on the information provided, select the correct option to complete the sentence. Genghis Khan,
originally Temujin, rose to power and unified the nomadic tribes of Mongolia due to ________.
(a) His inherited royalty and riches
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(b) His strategic alliances and reputation as a warrior
(c) His superior education and knowledge
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(d) His peaceful negotiations and diplomacy with rival tribes
38.
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Which of the following options correctly portrays Genghis Khan’s religious policy?
(a) Strictly enforced Animism
(b) Promoted Buddhism exclusively
(c) Granted religious freedom to his subjects
(d) Suppressed all forms of religion
39. Select the option that reflects what aspect of Genghis Khan’s life the text DOES NOT present.
i. His childhood
ii. His religious beliefs 6M0R
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iii. His marital life
iv. His educational background
v. His military campaigns
(a) i, ii and iv (b) ii and v (c) Only iv (d) i and iii
40. What is the most likely reason Genghis Khan included followers of various religions and backgrounds in his
ranks?
(a) To create a diverse and inclusive society
(b) To gain a variety of perspectives and expertise
(c) To use them as scapegoats for his conquests
(d) To show supremacy of his own belief system
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41. Select the option that displays words similar in meaning to ‘vanquished’, as mentioned in relation to Genghis
Khan’s rivals.
(a) Defeated, conquered, overwhelmed
(b) Befriended, united, amalgamated
(c) Supported, encouraged, fostered
(d) Avoided, evaded, dodged
42. If Temujin’s father is considered as person X, and Temujin’s older half-brother’s biological father is considered
as person Y, which of the following is true?
(a) X and Y are the same individuals.
(b) X and Y are brothers.
(c) X and Y are not related.
(d) X is the son of Y.
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43.
rs .
If Temujin is considered as X, and his allies are considered as Y, which of the following is true regarding their
relationship?
(a) X is the biological relative of Y.
(b) Y are the descendants of X.
(c) X and Y have no biological relation but share a common goal.
k e
44.
(d) Y is the sibling of X.
r an
If Temujin’s mother is considered as X, and the clan that abandoned her and her children is considered as Y,
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which of the following is true regarding their relationship?tr-5E2J7C5D
o
(a) X is a member of Y.
(b) X was never a part of Y.
45.
(c) X is the leader of Y.
(d) X is the enemy of Y.
T
If Borte is considered as X, and her kidnappers are considered as Y, which of the following is true regarding
their relationship?
(a) X is a member of Y.
(b) X is the leader of Y.
(c) X is the enemy of Y. 6M0R
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(d) X is the ally of Y.
46. Based on the passage, if a statement were made about the familial relationships of Temujin (Genghis Khan),
which of the following options would be most accurate?
(a) Borte was Temujin's sister.
(b) Temujin was the son of his mother's kidnapper.
(c) Temujin's father was killed by his half-brother.
(d) Temujin killed his younger brother to head the household.
47. If the nomadic tribes constantly fighting and stealing from each other are considered as X, and the clan that
deserted Temujin and his family is considered as Y, which of the following is true regarding their relationship?
(a) Y is a subset of X.
(b) X is a subset
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6M0Rof Y.
(c) X and Y are mutually exclusive groups.
(d) X and Y have a symbiotic relationship.
48. A and B are sisters. A is mother of D. B has a daughter C, who is married to F. G is the husband of A. How is A
related to C?
(a) Cousin (b) Niece (c) Aunt (d) Sister-in-law
Passage (Q.49-Q.60): In central and eastern Europe, history weighs heavily on personal relationships. When
Russia first attacked Ukraine in 2014, the bonds of family and friendship strained. In 2022, when Russia
launched its full-scale war, these tensions became unbearable, shattering social connections. This was not
solely a matter of politics, but rather deeply rooted moral convictions. The act of breaking social ties has
occurred during revolutionary events and significant transformations, bringing fundamental changes to the
social fabric of central and eastern European society.
Marci Shore, in her book The Taste of Ashes (2013), guides us through the entanglements of history and
m
interpersonal relationships in central and eastern Europe after the fall of communism. Shore portrays a world
o
where each adult individual was involved in the system by which the communist parties wielded power and
c
control. By the 1980s, the system had become structured around a corrupt manifestation of political loyalty,
sway over interpersonal relationships.
rs .
characterized by complicity, spineless nepotism, and backdoor dealings. This historical legacy holds great
e
After 1989, questions arose: who is responsible? Who can be trusted? People faced choices, determining their
associations based on moral clarity and the pursuit of truth. Shore’s account is a captivating everyday
k
phenomenology of politics, laying bare how political pasts and futures can create divisions among people.
deservingness.
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However, there is more to it. Another subtle process can also alienate former friends: the issue of economic
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During the 1990s, profound economic changes characterizedtr-5E2J7Cthe transformation period, giving rise to great
o
political and economic accomplishments, but also to innumerable socioeconomic tragedies. Social upward-
mobility expectations did not materialize for many. In disadvantaged regions, poverty surged, and many lives
inequalities surged.
T
were lost due to health-related complications. As the state retreated from the economy, public resources like
healthcare were marketized and defunded. Welfare systems weakened. Life chances diverged and social
This is where ideas about economic deservingness come into play. Economic deservingness involves the
distribution of material resources, raising questions about fairness and redistributive justice, and is evaluated at
a personal level, entailing judgments about individuals and their moral qualities. This uneasy connection
between the economic and the moral deeply impacts social relationships. For better or for worse, it is within
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their social networks that individuals develop a deep understanding of economic inequalities and express their
nuanced beliefs about justice.
The moral significance involved in these situations lies in the essence of the social relationship as a grown
connection. The breach of trust is a breach of a mutual understanding of the history of the relationship. The
philosopher Avishai Margalit has eloquently articulated this idea. According to Margalit, betrayal is
fundamentally characterized by the disregard of the shared values that previously united two individuals.
https://aeon.co/essays/in-post-communist-europe-economics-is-laden-with-morality
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49. "Social relationships in central and eastern Europe remained unaffected during the economic transformations
post-1989." Select the option that negates the given opinion, based on the textual information.
(a) No, economic shifts post-1989 bolstered communal ties and solidarity, overshadowing any socioeconomic
disparities.
(b) No, the post-1989 economic upheavals deepened social inequalities and altered perceptions of economic
deservingness, impacting interpersonal relationships.
(c) No, the central and eastern European communities post-1989 solely focused on political restructuring,
leaving social dynamics largely stable.
(d) No, after 1989, the societal focus was on rebuilding economic structures, which unified individuals and
strengthened social bonds.
50.
o
Select the idiomatic expression that most appropriately addresses the impact of history on personal
relationships in the given text.
c m
51.
(a) A tangled web (b) A walk in the park (c) A piece of cake
Which category best describes the nature of the given text?

(d) A breath of fresh air
rs .
52.
(a) Analytical (b) Persuasive (c) Descriptive
From the given passage, select the statement which is NOT mentioned or implied.
k e (d) Narrative
n
(a) Economic deservingness raises questions about fairness and redistributive justice.
a
(b) The fall of communism led to a surge in poverty and weakened welfare systems.
r
(c) The historical legacy of communism still influences interpersonal relationships in eastern Europe.
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(d) Marci Shore's book exclusively discusses the economictr-5E
aftermath the fall of communism.
53.
o
Select the most appropriate concluding remark for the given text.
T
(a) The moral significance of economic deservingness lies in its impact on social relationships and individual
judgments.
(b) The fall of communism brought significant economic and societal changes, but its historical legacy
continues to influence interpersonal relationships.
(c) Marci Shore provides an in-depth analysis of the political and interpersonal dynamics post the fall of
communism in central and eastern Europe.
(d) The shared values and mutual understanding of history play a crucial role in the sustenance of social
relationships. 8M6M0R tr-5T2U7O5N
54. Assume that:

(A) A majority of people who break social ties do so because of political differences.
(B) Some people break social ties due to moral convictions.
(C) Everyone who experiences a break in social ties feels a strain in interpersonal relationships.
Which of the following is true?
(a) All breaks in social ties are due to political differences.
(b) Some breaks in social ties are due to moral convictions.
(c) All breaks in social ties are due to moral convictions.
(d) Cannot be determined.
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55. Assume that a minority of people with strained relationships are due to economic inequalities. A majority of
strained relationships are due to moral convictions. Which of the following could be true?
(a) No strained relationships due to economic inequalities are due to moral convictions.
(b) All strained relationships due to economic inequalities are due to moral convictions.
(c) Both a) and b).
(d) Neither a) nor b).
56. If a society in central and eastern Europe has experienced profound economic changes, and all societies that
have experienced profound economic changes have weakened welfare systems, which of the following is true?
(a) All societies in central and eastern Europe have weakened welfare systems.
(b) Some societies in central and eastern Europe have weakened welfare systems.
(c) No society in central and eastern Europe has a weakened welfare system.
57.
(d) Most societies in central and eastern Europe have strengthened welfare systems.
c o m
If all who distrust are those who have experienced betrayal, and all who have experienced betrayal had their
trust breached, which of the following could be true?
(a) Some who distrust had their trust breached.
(b) No one who distrusts had their trust breached.
rs .
(c) All who have had their trust breached distrust.
(d) Trust breach is unrelated to distrust.
k e
58.
of the following is true based on the passage?
r an
If an individual has nuanced beliefs about justice, which is the consequence of economic deservingness, which
(a) The individual necessarily has strained relationships.
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(b) The individual necessarily has shattered social connections.
o
(c) The individual necessarily distrusts the economic system.
(d) The individual necessarily lives in central and eastern Europe.
59.
T
If a society has experienced innumerable socioeconomic tragedies, and all societies that have experienced
innumerable socioeconomic tragedies have faced profound economic changes, which of the following is true?
(a) All societies that have experienced profound economic changes have experienced innumerable
socioeconomic tragedies.
(b) Some societies that have experienced profound economic changes have experienced innumerable
socioeconomic tragedies.
(c) No society that has experienced profound economic changes has experienced
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innumerable socioeconomic
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tragedies.
(d) Profound economic changes are unrelated to socioeconomic tragedies.
60. If betrayal is fundamentally characterized by the disregard of the shared values, and all who disregard shared
values breach trust, which of the following is true based on the passage?
(a) All who breach trust betray.
(b) Some who breach trust betray.
(c) No one who breaches trust betrays.
(d) Breaching trust is unrelated to betrayal.
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Passage (Q.61-Q.72): Non-communicable diseases (NCDs), once considered afflictions of the affluent, are
now the leading cause of death in developing nations, accounting for nearly two-thirds of all deaths in India in
2019. Rapid urbanization, lifestyle changes, and increased substance abuse are significant contributors to this
epidemiological transition, with cardiovascular diseases being the most fatal among NCDs.
The revised guidelines for tackling NCDs overlook a crucial component: surgical care. Timely, safe, and
affordable surgical interventions can significantly reduce mortality and prevent adverse outcomes from various
NCDs, proving cost-effective even in low- and middle-income countries. For instance, cataract surgery is a
cost-effective treatment for blindness. However, the lack of surgical care leads to a disease burden and an
economic burden of up to $20.7 trillion across 128 countries.
The Lancet Commission on Global Surgery reported in 2015 that around 5 billion people globally lack access
m
to safe, affordable, and timely surgical care. In India, over 90% of the population lacks access to such care,
o
with only 6.81% of the need for major surgical procedures being met in rural areas. The integration of surgical
c
care into policies and programs is urgently needed, but policy attention to surgical care has been limited
ones, including the National Health Policy of 2017.
rs .
globally and in India. Older policy documents showed better prioritization of surgery compared to more recent
k e
An analysis of the revised NCD operational guidelines revealed under-prioritization of surgical care in
managing NCDs. While cancer received sufficient coverage, surgical management of other NCDs and essential
surgical procedures like incision and excision were largely ignored. The guidelines also overlooked the
r an
importance of pediatric surgery, the role of anesthesia, and the need for blood banking.
The revised guidelines focus primarily on the prevention and management of common NCDs but neglect
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surgical care. There is a pressing need for the integration of surgical
tr-5E care at all levels of healthcare delivery and
o
the development of a national surgical plan to improve policy prioritization of surgical care, especially in rural
areas where poor infrastructure and a lack of trained surgeons hinder the delivery of basic surgical services.
61.
T
Addressing the lack of surgical care can have a long-lasting, positive impact on society.
https://science.thewire.in/health/new-guidelines-non-communicable-diseases-surgical-care/
Select the option that correctly relates the proportionality in the following analogy:
Rapid Urbanization: Increased NCDs:: _______________
(a) Effective Policies: Decreased Mortality 6M0R
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(b) Lack of Awareness: Improved Healthcare
(c) Affordable Healthcare: Economic Burden
(d) Improved Infrastructure: Increased Surgical Care
62. Select the option that can be the most suitable introductory line to this text.
(a) The advancement in medical science has led to the development of various surgical procedures.
(b) Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) pose a significant threat to public health, especially in developing
countries.
(c) Healthcare policies are often subject to revisions and amendments to address the evolving needs of the
population.
(d) Surgical interventions are often overlooked in healthcare guidelines and policies.
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63. Select the option that correctly reflects the given part of the line. “The lack of surgical care leads to a disease
burden…”
(a) Inference (b) Hypothesis (c) Cause (d) Solution
64. Select the option that substitutes the underlined words in the given sentence without changing its meaning.
‘The revised guidelines overlook a crucial component: surgical care.’
(a) (1) updated; (2) essential
(b) (1) outdated; (2) insignificant
(c) (1) primitive; (2) unnecessary
(d) (1) modernized; (2) optional
65. Select the most suitable concluding statement for this text.
(a) Surgical care is paramount in managing NCDs and necessitates immediate policy intervention and
integration into healthcare delivery at all levels.
c o m
(b) The guidelines for managing NCDs are comprehensive and address all aspects of healthcare delivery
effectively.
rs .
(c) The revised guidelines for tackling NCDs are adequate in addressing the surgical needs of the population.
(d) The under-prioritization of surgical care in managing NCDs is justified due to the focus on common NCDs.
k e
66.
r an
In the question given below, a few statements are followed by a few conclusions. You have to assume that
everything in the statements is true, then consider the conclusions together and decide which of them logically
follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statements.
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Statements tr-5E2J7C5D8I
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All trains are ships.
All cars are ships.
No ship is a truck.
Conclusions
T
I. All cars being train is a possibility.
II. No truck is a train.
III. Some ships are trains.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and IIII follow
(c) Only III follows (d) All follows 8M6M0R tr-5T2U7O5N
67. In the question given below, a few statements are followed by a few conclusions. You have to assume that
Statements:
Some staid are sycophant.
No arrant is beautify.
Mostly sycophant are beautify.
Conclusions:
I. Some staid being beautify is a possibility.
II. No arrant is sycophant.
(a) Conclusion
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I does not follow.
6M0R (b) Conclusion II does not follow.
(c) Either conclusion I or II does not follow. (d) Conclusions I and II both do not follow.
Statements:
Some pins are needles.
All needles are swords.
Some swords are knives.
Conclusions:
I. All swords being pins is a possibility.
II. No needle being knife is a possibility.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows
(d) Both follow
c o m
69.
rs .
Statements:
Some actors are singer.
Some singers are dancer.
k e
No dancer is man.
Conclusions:
I. All dancers are singer.
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II. Some actors are definitely not man. tr-5E2J7C5D8I
o
(a) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
70.
T
(b) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
(d) Only conclusion I follows.
Given: 6M0R
Statements: tr-5T2U7O5N8M
All boys are students.

Some students are girls.
All students are teacher.
Conclusions:
I. All teachers being student is a possibility.
II. At least some teachers are girls.
(a) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(b) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
(d) Only conclusion I follows.
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71. In the question consisting of four statements and four choices, consider the statements to be true, even though
they may seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and find out which of the following does not
follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
All teachers are principals.
Some principals are not directors.
No principal is a attender.
All chairmans are principals.
(a) Some directors are chairmans.
(b) No attender is a chairman.
(c) Some directors can be teachers.
(d) All directors being attenders is a possibility.
Statements:
c m
o
All roses are flowers.
Some flowers are toys.
No toy is a doll.
rs .
Conclusions:
I. Some flowers are definitely not dolls.
II. All dolls being flowers is a possibility.
k e
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
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(d) Both conclusion I and II follow
T
Passage (Q.73-Q.84): The Indian government has warned its citizens in Canada to exercise “extreme caution”
due to a “deteriorating security environment.” This warning followed the announcement by Canadian Prime
Minister Justin Trudeau that Canadian police were investigating “credible allegations” of the Indian
government’s involvement in the killing of Hardeep Singh Nijjar, who was shot dead by two masked gunmen
in Surrey, B.C. The Indian government has denied any involvement, and both countries have expelled
diplomats from the other.
The Sikh population in India, primarily residing in the northern state of8MPunjab,
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has had long-standing demands
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for a separate independent homeland — Khalistan, tracing back to the 1940s. The movement gained
tr-
momentum in the 1970s and 1980s due to the Indian government's policies and the need to protect Sikh
identity and religion. The violence peaked in June 1984 when the Indian army stormed the Golden Temple in
Amritsar, leading to the death of more than 400 people and injuring hundreds. The Sikh community was deeply
shocked, and the suffering has remained etched in their memories.
Nijjar’s murder is the third targeted killing of Khalistan leaders outside India. He was head of the Khalistan
Tiger Force (KTF) and an active member of the United States-based group Sikhs for Justice (SFJ); both
organizations are pursuing an independent Sikh homeland. Since 2022, SFJ has been conducting referendums
in Canada and elsewhere in support of Khalistan. The Indian government claims that Canada’s failure to ban
groups like KTF and SFJ compromises India’s sovereignty, territorial integrity, and security.
Canada has 6M
so0Rfar refused to stop the referendums, and India’s current Hindu populist regime remains
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intolerant of any dissenting voices, especially from minority communities. The Nijjar episode is the latest in
the ongoing saga between India and Canada over the Khalistan movement. The Indian state has taken little
action to convict those behind the violence against the Sikh community or to enter into a truth and
reconciliation process with the community.
The fraught history between India and the Khalistan movement continues to impact international relations,
especially with countries housing Sikh diaspora like Canada. The demands for a separate Sikh homeland and
the subsequent violent and non-violent movements have left deep scars in the Sikh community, both within and
outside India. The recent events and allegations have only added to the tension, highlighting the need for
dialogue, understanding, and reconciliation between the involved parties.
https://theconversation.com/the-fraught-history-of-india-and-the-khalistan-movement-213956
73. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
(a) strained international relations

(b) third targeted killing of Khalistan leaders
c m
The ‘deteriorating security environment’ mentioned in the passage primarily alludes to the ___________.
o
(c) Indian government's denial of involvement
(d) Canada's refusal to stop the referendums
rs .
74.
(a) demand for justice and reconciliation
(b) pursuit for a separate Sikh homeland
k e
Which of the given options best helps us understand the meaning of ‘Khalistan movement’?
(c) ongoing saga between India and Canada

(d) violent protests and upheavals
r an
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75. Select the appropriate option to fill the blank.
The ‘credible allegations’ in the passage emphasize the role of ___________ in the killing of Hardeep Singh
Nijjar.
(a) masked gunmen
(b) Canadian police
(c) the Indian government
(d) Khalistan Tiger Force
To
76. Select the option that best reflects the literary device used in the line, ‘The suffering has remained etched in
their memories.’
(a) hyperbole (b) imagery (c) metaphor (d) alliteration
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77. Select the option that could be a suitable title reflecting the essence of the passage.
(a) The Pursuit of Khalistan: A Journey of Hope and Struggle
(b) India-Canada Relations: A Dance of Diplomacy and Discord
(c) The Echoes of 1984: Sikhs and Their Enduring Pain
(d) Sikh Diaspora: A Tale of Integration and Identity
78. To maintain harmony between India and Canada regarding the Sikh diaspora, it can be assumed that:
(a) Canada should prevent referendums by Sikh groups.
(b) India should be open to dialogues regarding Khalistan.
(c) Both a) and
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b)
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(d) Neither a) nor b)
79. Which assumption is/are needed to conclude that Sikh groups conducting referendums in Canada significantly
compromise India's territorial integrity?
(a) India perceives the advocacy for Khalistan as a threat to its unity.
(b) Sikh groups in Canada have substantial influence over Sikhs in India.
(c) Both a) and b)
80. If India’s government accepts the Sikh community’s demands for an independent Khalistan, it is logically
equivalent to:
(a) India compromising its sovereignty.
(b) Resolution of long-standing demands of the Sikh community.
(c) Both a) and b)
81.
o m
To resolve the tensions between Sikh groups and the Indian government over Khalistan, a necessary condition
would be:
c
(a) Condemnation of violence by Sikh groups.
(b) Initiation of truth and reconciliation processes by the Indian government.
(c) Both a) and b)
rs .
82.
k e
If Canada decides to support India's stance and stops the Sikh referendums on Khalistan, which analogy can
n
best illustrate the potential resolution of tensions between India and Canada?
a
(a) Plugging a leak in a boat to prevent it from sinking.
r
(b) Reducing the flow of water to a partially filled bucket with an outlet at its bottom.
p
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(c) Closing the inlet of a filled bucket to stop the increasetr-of water
o
(d) Both a) and c)
83.
T
If the Indian government chooses to enter into a truth and reconciliation process with the Sikh community,
which inference can be made from such a decision?
(a) The Sikh community’s grievances are acknowledged as valid by the Indian government.
(b) The Indian government is opening paths for discussions over an independent Khalistan.
(c) The decision will lead to an immediate resolution of all existing conflicts between the Sikh community and
the Indian government.
(d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn.
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84. Given that India views the support for Khalistan as compromising its territorial integrity, which of the
following statements is correct in the event that Canada continues to allow Sikh referendums?
(a) Canada respects the territorial integrity of India.
(b) Canada is indifferent to India's territorial integrity.
(c) The relation between India and Canada will improve.
(d) India will appreciate Canada’s stance on supporting freedom of expression.
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Passage (Q.85-Q.96): The ketogenic, or keto, diet has gained significant attention as a potential weight loss
strategy, characterized by a low-carb, high-protein, and high-fat intake, placing the body in a state called
ketosis. In ketosis, the body breaks down fat stores and produces ketones to be used as fuel, correlating with
the diet's ability to induce rapid weight loss. However, the safety and efficacy of the keto diet, especially in the
long term, are subjects of fierce debate due to potential risks and benefits.
The keto diet works by depleting carbohydrates, reducing carbohydrate levels to 10 percent or less of the total
daily caloric intake, limiting protein to 20 percent, with fat making up the rest. This depletion places the body
in ketosis, a metabolic state characterized by a lack of glucose in the body. When carbohydrates are scarce, the
body first pulls stored glucose from the liver and temporarily breaks down muscle to release glucose. If this
continues for 3-4 days and stored glucose is fully depleted, the body begins to use fat as its primary fuel,
producing ketone bodies from stored fat, which can be used in the absence of glucose.
o m
Despite the diet's popularity and its proven ability to induce rapid weight loss, there are concerns about its
c
safety and the long-term effects. The dietary habits and restrictions associated with the diet have been proven
rs .
to be detrimental to health, leading to chronic diseases such as heart disease and some cancers, and can lead to
nutrient deficiencies and prove difficult to sustain long-term. The diet may increase the risk of diabetes and
heart attack due to intense fat consumption needed to get the body into ketosis. Additionally, the diet's
saturated fats.
k e
emphasis on high-fat foods can lead to unhealthy eating habits, such as over-indulging in processed meats and
n
A common misconception associated with the keto diet is that carbs are bad and contribute to weight gain.
a
However, weight gain is caused by imbalances between calorie intake and expenditure. Not all carbohydrates
r
are created equal; there are unhealthy, processed carbohydrates, and there are also unrefined carbohydrates
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to7Cone’s
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such as rice, oats, and fruits that provide essential nutrients diet. To adopt the keto diet would mean
almost entirely excluding a food group from one’s diet, giving up essential nutrients and most importantly,
fiber.
To
While the keto diet can lead to rapid weight loss, it is not a safe or necessary option for weight loss long-term;
other diets are just as effective while being more sustainable, and safer without promoting restrictive dieting.
The lack of sustainability of the diet is also attributed to the restrictive fashion of the diet in which people are
consuming an extremely low amount of carbohydrates in their diet. The opportunity costs of eliminating this
food group also include a loss of key nutrients and fiber which offer important health benefits.
http://www.inquiriesjournal.com/articles/1807/the-keto-diet-and-long-term-weight-loss-is-it-a-safe-option
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85. Select the option that correctly completes the following.

Ketosis: fat:: _____________
(a) keto diet: carbohydrates (b) body: proteins
(c) keto diet: proteins (d) carbohydrates: glucose

This text is most likely to be published as a __________.
(a) nutrition guide (b) scholarly article
(c) public awareness brochure (d) opinion piece
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The keto diet’s restriction on carbohydrates can lead to __________.
(a) rapid weight loss
(b) a balance in calorie intake and expenditure
(c) a loss of key nutrients and fiber
(d) sustainable eating habits
88. What characteristic of the keto diet raises concerns regarding its long-term adoption?
(a) Its ability to induce rapid weight loss
(b) Its emphasis on high-protein intake
(c) Its restrictive and unsustainable nature
(d) Its encouragement of balanced eating
89. Replace the underlined word with its correct meaning from the given options.
‘The keto diet can deplete carbohydrates.’
c o m
(a) exhaust (b) replenish (c) reduce (d) increase
rs .
90.
k e
If an individual consistently follows the keto diet as described, their body would reach a metabolic state where
the primary fuel is derived from fat. In this state, which of the following would likely be true?
n
(a) The body will primarily break down muscle for fuel.
a
(b) The body will primarily produce glucose from the liver for fuel.
r
(c) The body will primarily use ketones for fuel.
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(d) The body will primarily depend on carbohydrates for tr- 5E2J7C5D8I6D
fuel.
91.
o
If one adheres to a keto diet, which involves consuming high fat and limiting carb intake, what implication can
T
be made regarding their nutrient intake?
(a) They will likely have an excessive intake of essential nutrients.
(b) They will likely maintain a balanced intake of all food groups.
(c) They will likely face a deficiency in essential nutrients.
(d) They will likely have an optimal intake of fiber.
92. If the keto diet leads to rapid weight loss primarily due to the body using fat as its main fuel source, what could
be inferred about energy balance in this diet? 6M0R
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(a) The body is in a state of energy surplus.
(b) The body primarily utilizes carbohydrates for energy.
(c) The body is in a state of energy deficit.
(d) The body has a balanced energy intake and expenditure
93. If an individual's diet consists primarily of high-fat foods, such as those emphasized in the keto diet, which of
the following is a probable health outcome?
(a) The individual will have a lowered risk of heart disease.
(b) The individual will be at a higher risk of developing certain chronic diseases.
(c) The individual will have a balanced intake of all essential nutrients.
(d) The individual will have a lowered risk of developing nutrient deficiencies.
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94. If the ketogenic diet limits carbohydrate intake to 10 percent or less of the total daily caloric intake and
emphasizes high fat intake, it can be inferred that ___
(a) Individuals following the diet consume more carbohydrates than fats.
(b) Individuals on this diet consume a balanced amount of all nutrients.
(c) Individuals on this diet primarily rely on fats for energy.
(d) Individuals following this diet are likely to have high glucose levels.
95. If the ketogenic diet can lead to nutrient deficiencies and is difficult to sustain long-term, it implies that ___
(a) The diet is ideal for long-term adherence.
(b) The diet provides all essential nutrients in adequate amounts.
(c) The diet is balanced and easy to follow.
(d) The diet may not be the safest or most sustainable option long-term.
96.
o m
If the keto diet emphasizes high-fat foods and can lead to unhealthy eating habits, it implies that ___
(a) The diet promotes the consumption of high-quality, nutritious fats.
c
(b) The diet primarily promotes the intake of low-fat foods.
(c) The diet encourages over-indulgence in processed meats and saturated fats.
(d) The diet avoids the risks associated with high fat intake.
rs .
k e
Passage (Q.97-Q.108): The term “global warming” was first known to have appeared in print on Aug. 8,
1975, in a paper by geochemist Wallace Broecker in the journal Science, marking the beginning of public
n
discourse on the subject. However, the term and the concept received little attention in the immediate years
a
following its publication. Today, the discourse has evolved, and terms like “climate change,” “climate crisis,”
r
and “climate breakdown” are commonly used to describe the ongoing environmental changes and their
p
6D0A
impacts. tr-5E2J7C5D8I
o
The term “global warming” initially had a slow start in media citations but gained traction in the late ‘80s,
T
especially after NASA physicist and astronomer James E. Hansen’s emphatic testimony before the Senate
about its dangers in 1988. This period also marked the beginning of noticeable global temperature increases,
making the term and the concept more relevant to the public. The term “climate change” was introduced to
encompass a broader range of environmental problems, including droughts, floods, superstorms, and wildfires,
and has since gained widespread usage, with over 10,000 mentions in the media.
United Nations Secretary General António Guterres has recently used the term “climate breakdown,”
emphasizing the severity and urgency of the environmental crisis. This term, along with “climate crisis,” has
6M0R
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gained popularity as the environmental situation has become increasingly dire. However, the term “global
tr-
weirding,” coined by environmentalist Hunter Lovins in 2007, has not gained much traction due to its playful
nature and lack of specificity.
The evolution of climate-related terminology reflects the growing understanding and acknowledgment of
environmental issues. The choice of words can influence public perception and response to the climate crisis,
with terms like “climate breakdown” and “climate crisis” conveying a sense of urgency and severity. However,
addressing climate change requires more than just words; it necessitates collective action to mitigate its
impacts and adapt to a changing environment.
The evolution of climate vocabulary from “global warming” to terms like “climate breakdown” signifies the
deepening understanding and growing concern regarding environmental changes. The choice of words can
shape public 6M
discourse
0R and response to the crisis, emphasizing the need for immediate and substantial action to
tr-5T2U7O5N8M
address the ongoing environmental challenges. Regardless of the terminology used, the reality of climate
change and its impacts necessitates concerted efforts to mitigate its effects and adapt to a new environmental
reality.
https://time.com/6315949/climate-change-vocabulary-adapting-to-a-hotter-planet/
97. In the context of the text, why is the term “climate breakdown” used by António Guterres seen as significant in
current discourse?
(a) It draws attention to the various environmental problems associated with climate change.
(b) It signifies the urgency and severity of the environmental crisis we face today.
(c) It serves to mark the evolution in terminology from “global warming.”
(d) It emphasizes the role of the United Nations in addressing climate issues.
98. Which of the following options correctly identifies the impact of the evolving terminology on public
perception of environmental issues?
(a) It clarifies the scientific basis of environmental changes.
(b) It increases public apathy towards climate issues by causing confusion.
c o m
(c) It shapes the discourse and response, emphasizing the need for immediate action.
(d) It highlights the political disputes surrounding climate change policies.
rs .
99. What is implied by the lack of popularity of the term “global weirding”?
(a) The term did not accurately represent the environmental crisis.
(b) The environmental crisis was not severe when the term was coined.
k e
an
(c) The term was introduced by a less credible environmentalist.
(d) The coinage of the term was not well-publicized in media outlets.
r
p
100. Why is the term “climate change” considered more encompassingtr-5E2J7C5Dthan “global warming”?
8I6D0A
(a) It reflects the broader range of environmental problems we are facing today, including extreme weather
events.
To
(b) It is more scientifically accurate in representing the gradual increase in global temperatures.
(c) It has been used more frequently in media citations, making it more recognizable.
(d) It is a more modern term, reflecting the latest developments in climate science.
101. What is implied about the term “global warming” gaining traction in the late ‘80s?
(a) It was well-understood and accepted by the public since its introduction.
(b) It became more relevant to the public due to noticeable global temperature increases and impactful
testimony.
(c) It overshadowed other terms due to its frequent use by reputable 8M6M0R
scientists.
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(d) It was the only term available to describe the environmental crisis at the time.
102. Statement: The term “global warming” was first known to have appeared in print on Aug. 8, 1975, in a paper
by geochemist Wallace Broecker in the journal Science, but received little attention in the immediate years
following its publication.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?
(a) The term “global warming” was not coined by Wallace Broecker but was merely used by him in print.
(b) The term “global warming” would have gained more attention had it been published in a more popular
journal.
(c) There was 0Ra lack of evidence to support the concept of global warming during the time of its first
2U7O5N8M6M
tr-5Tpublication.
(d) The term “global warming” was neglected due to a lack of public interest in environmental issues during
the 1970s.
103. Statement: United Nations Secretary General António Guterres has recently used the term “climate
breakdown” to emphasize the severity and urgency of the environmental crisis.
The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?
(a) The United Nations has the authority to officially change climate-related terminology.
(b) The term “climate breakdown” accurately represents the current environmental situation.
(c) The term “climate breakdown” will be universally accepted and replace all other climate-related terms.
(d) António Guterres’ use of the term “climate breakdown” will have no impact on public perception of
climate-related issues.
104. Statement: The term “climate change” was introduced to encompass a broader range of environmental
problems, including droughts, floods, superstorms, and wildfires, and has since gained widespread usage.
Assumptions:
II. The term “climate change” has led to increased awareness about various environmental issues.
III. The introduction of the term “climate change” was universally accepted.
c m
I. The term “global warming” was not sufficient to describe all the environmental changes occurring.
o
(a) Only I and II are implicit.
(b) Only II is implicit.
rs .
(c) Only I is implicit.
(d) Both I and III are implicit.
k e
n
105. Statement: Carmakers are taking the middle path in their electrification journey, introducing powerful hybrids
a
which could eventually lead to higher localization of parts for electric vehicles.
The passage assumes which one of the following?
r
p
2J7C5D8I6D 0A
(a) Carmakers believe that introducing hybrids is the mosttr-5E
efficient way to transition to electric vehicles.
o
(b) Consumers are more likely to buy hybrids before fully electric vehicles.
(c) The introduction of powerful hybrids is the only way to achieve higher localization of parts for electric
vehicles.
T
(d) The electrification journey is mandatory for all carmakers to follow.
106. Statement: James E. Hansen’s testimony in 1988 about the dangers of “global warming” marked a period of
increased media citations of the term.
Which of the following can be concluded from the above statement?
(a) James E. Hansen invented the term “global warming”.
(b) The media was uninterested in “global warming” before 1988. 6M0R
tr-5T2U7O5N8M problems.
(c) The term “global warming” represents a broad range of environmental
(d) The Senate was uninformed about “global warming” until James E. Hansen’s testimony.
107. Statement: António Guterres used the term “climate breakdown” to emphasize the urgency and severity of the
environmental crisis.
Which of the following is suggested by the above statement?
(a) “Climate breakdown” is the most accurate term to describe the environmental situation.
(b) António Guterres believes the environmental situation is severe and urgent.
(c) “Climate breakdown” will replace all other environmental terms.
(d) The environmental situation is not severe and urgent.
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108. Statement: The evolution of climate-related terminology reflects the growing understanding and
acknowledgment of environmental issues.
What does the above statement imply?
(a) Terminology evolution is the main factor for understanding environmental issues.
(b) A growing acknowledgment of environmental issues has led to the evolution of climate-related
terminology.
(c) Understanding of environmental issues is not growing.
(d) New terminology causes environmental issues.
Passage (Q.109-Q.120): The Asian Games, which were opened on September 23 by Chinese President Xi
Jinping in Hangzhou following a spectacular opening ceremony on a scale that has now come to be expected
from China, are meant to showcase a broader message of Asian solidarity. The days leading up to the opening
m
ceremony of the 19th edition were, however, marked by anything but. The day before the opening, Union
o
Sports Minister Anurag Thakur cancelled his visit to China as a mark of protest to the last-minute denial of
c
entry to three Indian Wushu players from Arunachal Pradesh. The three athletes — Nyeman Wangsu, Onilu
rs .
Tega and Mepung Lamgu — were given the accreditation needed to travel along with the rest of the Indian
team for the Games. However, in what appears to be a directive issued to the airline by China, the athletes were
told they could not board their flight. China has in the past issued stapled visas to Indians from Arunachal
k e
Pradesh. Only in July, three wushu players from Arunachal Pradesh, due to take part in the World University
Games in Chengdu, were issued stapled visas. In this instance, the decision to bar the athletes appears
particularly vindictive as visas were not needed to travel for athletes issued digital accreditations. Indian
an
officials believe Beijing thus went out of its way to bar their travel by instructing the airline to not allow them
to board. The Ministry of External Affairs in a statement described the action as “targeted and pre-meditated”.
r
p
5D8I
5E2J7Csporting 6D0A
This is, unfortunately, not the first instance of Beijing tr-using events that should have no place for
politics to score geopolitical points. In February last year, Beijing ill-advisedly selected the People’s Liberation
o
Army’s commander involved in the Galwan Valley clash as one of the torchbearers for the Winter Olympics.
T
Both then and now, the organisers have appeared more than happy to look the other way given China’s status
as both a willing host and strong financial backer of such events. The acting President of the Olympic Council
of Asia, Randhir Singh, who met with President Xi in Hangzhou, in remarks to journalists chose not to call out
the denial of entry to athletes, instead only saying the matter was being discussed. Beyond the Asian Games,
the latest Chinese action serves as a reminder of the current distrust in bilateral relations, as well as of the
absence of adequate channels of communication to deal with long-persisting thorny issues, including visas.
New Delhi has correctly made clear that restoring normalcy in relations will not be possible without
completing the disengagement process along the Line of Actual Control and restoring peace in border areas.
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Until Beijing reviews its stance on the border, the current state of affairs, which suits neither India nor China, is
likely to endure.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/politicising-exchanges-on-china-using-sporting-events-to-score-
geopolitical-points/article67341372.ece

In the line, ‘The Asian Games…are meant to showcase a broader message of Asian solidarity…’ in the context,
it means that the Games are intended to __________.
(a) expose the internal conflicts among Asian countries
(b) emphasize a united and harmonious representation of Asian countries
(c) critically6M
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evaluate
0R the participation of different Asian countries
(d) underline the competitive spirit among the Asian countries
110. Based on the passage, the tone perceived in relation to Beijing's actions during sporting events can best be
described as __________.
(a) appreciative (b) critical (c) indifferent (d) supportive
111. According to the passage, why did the Union Sports Minister Anurag Thakur cancel his visit to China?
(a) He was denied entry by the Chinese government.
(b) He was protesting the denial of entry to three Indian Wushu players.
(c) He was not given the necessary accreditation to travel.
(d) He had disagreements with the Olympic Council of Asia.
112. Which of the following best describes the consequences of China’s actions on its relations with India, as per
the passage?
(a) It has improved bilateral relations between the two countries.
(b) It has no significant impact on their relationship.
(c) It has created distrust and strained bilateral relations.
(d) It has facilitated better communication between the two nations.
c o m
rs .
113. How does the acting President of the Olympic Council of Asia, Randhir Singh, react to the denial of entry to
the athletes?
(a) He openly criticizes China for its actions.
(b) He supports China’s decision to bar the athletes.
(c) He chooses not to condemn China publicly for the denial of entry to athletes.
k e
(d) He assures that the matter will be resolved soon.
r an
p
0A 6D
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o
114. Statement: The denial of entry to three Indian Wushu players from Arunachal Pradesh in the Asian Games
showcases the ongoing geopolitical tension and distrust between India and China, leading to sports being used
T
as a medium for making geopolitical statements.
Which of the following, if true, strengthens the explanation above?
(a) China has a history of using international events to make political statements against countries with which
it has disputes.
(b) The denied athletes were previously allowed entry into other international events held in China.
(c) There is no record of any such denial of entry to athletes from other participating countries in the Asian
Games.
(d) None of the above. 8M6M0R tr-5T2U7O5N
115. Statement: The instance of Beijing using sports events to score geopolitical points indicates a potential
harmful integration of politics into sports, undermining the principles of international competitions.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?
(a) Sports events are perceived as neutral grounds where political differences should be set aside.
(b) Political interferences have not impacted the organizational decisions of international sports events.
(c) The denial of entry was not based on any violation of sports regulations but was purely a political decision.
(d) The geopolitical intentions behind such actions are transparent and universally understood.
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116. Statement: The ongoing distrust and unresolved border issues between India and China are reflected in the
denial of entry to Indian athletes, highlighting the lack of adequate communication channels between the two
nations to resolve such disputes.
Which one of the following explanations, if valid, most helps to justify the above reasoning?
(a) The establishment of effective communication channels has previously resolved similar disputes between
other countries.
(b) China has not denied entry to athletes from nations with which it has clear and active communication
channels and resolved disputes.
(c) The dispute resolution between India and China is primarily hindered by internal political pressures and
not by a lack of communication channels.
(d) India and China have historical cultural ties which can be leveraged to resolve current disputes.
m
117. Statement: The consistent discrimination against athletes from Arunachal Pradesh hints at the lack of
o
normalization in relations between India and China, and without resolving the underlying issues, this strained
relationship is likely to continue.
c
The Statement’s reasoning does which of the following?
rs .
(a) Makes a prediction about future events based on the consistent patterns observed in the past events.
(b) Assumes that normalization in relations solely depends on the treatment of athletes from Arunachal
Pradesh.
k e
(c) Infers that the geopolitical situation between India and China is the only reason behind the denial of entry
to the athletes.
r an
(d) Concludes that lack of normalization in relations is a unilateral issue, stemming only from India’s stance.
118. Statement: The denial of entry to three Indian Wushu players from Arunachal Pradesh in the Asian Games by
p
7C5D8I6D0A tension between India and China.
tr-5E2Jgeopolitical
China is perceived as a political move, reflecting the ongoing
o
Person 1: Sports events should be exempt from political influences as they are meant to encourage
camaraderie and mutual respect among nations.
T
Person 2: I disagree. Sometimes, such events are the only platform where countries can express their
displeasure and assert their stance on various issues.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that sports events are an ideal platform for political expression.
(b) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that politics should not influence sports events.
(c) According to Person 2, the assertion of political displeasure is unnecessary in sports events.
(d) None of the above
tr-5T2U 7O5N8M6M0R
119. Statement: The use of sports events by Beijing to score geopolitical points is not conducive to the spirit of
international competitions, highlighting a harmful integration of politics into sports.
Person 1: International competitions should be neutral grounds where athletes showcase their skills, not the
political disagreements of their countries.
Person 2: While political neutrality is ideal, the reality is that such platforms often reflect existing geopolitical
tensions.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that political neutrality is unattainable in international competitions.
(b) Person 2 believes that international competitions should fully embrace political disagreements.
(c) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that international competitions should ideally be free from political influence.
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120. Statement:
The consistent discrimination against athletes from Arunachal Pradesh implies an ongoing lack of
normalization in relations between India and China due to unresolved underlying issues.
Which one of the following statements is most aligned with the passage’s sentiment?
(a) Unresolved issues are solely related to sports events discrimination.
(b) The consistent discrimination is solely based on athletes’ origin from Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) The ongoing lack of normalization in relations is indicative of broader geopolitical tensions.
(d) Resolution of sports event discrimination will lead to normalized relations between India and China.
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
p
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SECTION B: CURRENT AFFAIRS & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
121. Noor 3 Military satellite belongs to which of the following country?

(a) Iran (b) Iraq (c) Afghanistan (d) Bangladesh
122. M S Swaminathan, which passed away recently, was associated with which of the following revolution?
(a) Yellow Revolution (b) White Revolution
(c) Blue Revolution (d) Green Revolution
123. ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award 2023’ was awarded to

(a) K. Vishwanath (b) Rajnikanth
(c) Amitabh Bachchan (d) Waheeda Rehman
124. India has signed a significant Social Security Agreement (SSA) with which country?
(a) Poland (b) Finland (c) Africa (d) Argentina
c o m
125. Which bank has launched a savings account variant 'Infinity Savings Account'?
(a) Yes Bank (b) Bank of Baroda (c) Axis Bank (d) Canara Bank
rs .
126. Miss World 2023 event will be organized in which of the following states of India?
(a) Kashmir (b) Jaipur (c) Ajmer (d) Ahmedabad
k e
127. The winner of the Miss Earth India 2023 title is
(a) Manusi Chillar (b) Priyan Sain
r an
(c) Priyanka Chopra (d) Queen Elizabeth
p
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o
128. The Maharashtra government honoured first-ever Udyog Ratna award to
(a) Mukesh Ambani (b) Vaibhav Oberoi
(c) Dhirubhai Ambani
(a) First
T
(b) Third
(d) Ratan Tata
129. What is India’s rank in the 16th International Olympiad of Astronomy and Astrophysics?
(c) Fourth (d) Second
130. Which of the following new variety of lotus flower has been developed by National Botanical Research
Institute, Lucknow recently?
(a) Om Parvat (b) Loto flower (c) Rosy Lotto (d) Namoh 108
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131. The FIFA Women's World Cup 2023 has been won by which country?
(a) Maldives (b) Bali (c) Spain (d) Bangladesh
132. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of South Indian Bank?
(a) RK Somnath (b) P R Seshadri
(c) Shashikant Tripathi (d) Shweta Singh
133. Which of the following is the first solar city of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Lucknow (b) Agra (c) Kanpur (d) Ayodhya
134. Which bank has opened its first currency chest in Deedargunj in Patna, Bihar?
(a)5TOriental Bank
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tr- 2U7O5N8M
(c) Axis Bank (d) State Bank of India
135. Under the Har Ghar Tiranga Abhiyan, the first Tiranga park has been set up in the
(a) Telangana (b) Allahabad (c) Gurugram (d) Delhi
136. World Elephant Day is observed on which date?

(a) 12 August (b) 15 July (c) 6 September (d) 5 December
137. Which article deals with the establishment of Panchayats in rural areas?
(a) Article 40 (b) Article 45 (c) Article 50 (d) Article 73
138. The World Health Organization (WHO) Director-General Mr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus has declared the
which outbreak a Public Health Emergency of International Concern?
(a) Chickenpox (b) Typhoid (c) Monkeypox (d) Malaria
139. Which airport has decided to be renamed after Bhagat Singh?

(a) Noida International Airport
(c) Gujrat Airport
(b) Cochin Airport
(d) Chandigarh Airport
c o m
rs .
140. Which country has become the first in the world to legally protect the right to access free period products with
a new law?
(a) Poland (b) Finland (c) Scotland (d) Malaysia
k e
141. Which is the India's leading full-stack Payments and Banking Platform for Businesses that have become the
(a) Razorpay (b) Google pay
an
first Indian company to be named in the 2022 Forbes Cloud 100 List?
(c) Ru pay
r
(d) Fin pay
p
7C5D8I 2023-24? 6D0A
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142. What is the key focus of the 'Saptarishi' priority in the Union Budget
o
(a) Infrastructure and Investment (b) Inclusive Development
(c) Unleashing the Potential (d) Green Growth
(c) Mr. Rajiv Deshpandey

T
143. Who has been appointed as New Indian High Commissioner to Bangladesh?
(a) Mr. Bhupinder Rao (b) Mr. Pranay Kumar Verma
(d) Mr. Keshav Leekha
144. Who is the current Central Vigilance Commissioner?

(a) Sh. M.K. Saraswat (b) Sh. Amit Rajagadiya
(c) Sh. S.K. Dhawan (d) Sh. P. K. Srivastava8M6M0R
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145. The theme for 2nd October Gandhi Jayanti 2023 is

(a) Make India Clean and Proud (b) Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan
(c) Ek Tareekh Ek Ghanta Ek Saath (d) Unity is Strength
146. Which state has introduced free In vitro fertilization (IVF) treatment?
(a) Haryana (b) Mizoram (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Goa
147. According to the data, released by the Controller General of Accounts, the fiscal deficit for the April-August
period in FY24 stood at
(a) Rs 6.42 trillion (b) Rs.64.2 trillion (c) Rs.2.64 trillion (d) Rs.26.4 trillion
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148. How is the Attorney General of India appointed?
(a) By the Parliament
(b) By the President
(c) By the President on the recommendation of the Parliament
(d) By the Chief Justice
149. NITI Ayog was established in India in January 2015 by:

(a) Ordinance issued by President
(b) The Act of Parliament
(c) Union Cabinet passing a special resolution
150. Where is the International Atomic Energy Commission (IAEA), a specialized agency of the U.N. located?
(a) Vienna (b) Paris (c) Geneva (d) Ottawa
c o m
rs .
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Notes:
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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

1. Select the appropriate option to fill the blank.

Select the option that uses a ‘superlative’.

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

9. If an emergency protocol review is scheduled every 72 days, and the8M first

VASCO DA GAMA’S EARLY LIFE AND FIRST VOYAGE TO INDIA

RELATIONS WITH LOCAL POPULATION & RIVAL TRADERS

DA GAMA’S LATER LIFE AND LAST VOYAGE TO INDIA

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(c) Augmentation of Biological Functions

(a) The Scientific advancements leading to the birth of Cyborgs

(b) All biological entities are cyborgs.

Passage (Q.37-Q.48): Mongol leader Genghis Khan (1162-1227) rose from

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

sway over interpersonal relationships.

Which category best describes the nature of the given text?

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

54. Assume that:

(a) The individual necessarily has strained relationships.

ones, including the National Health Policy of 2017.

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

All boys are students.

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

73. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

(a) strained international relations

(c) ongoing saga between India and Canada

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

85. Select the option that correctly completes the following.

86. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

109. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

121. Noor 3 Military satellite belongs to which of the following country?

123. ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award 2023’ was awarded to

136. World Elephant Day is observed on which date?

139. Which airport has decided to be renamed after Bhagat Singh?

(a) Razorpay (b) Google pay

(c) Mr. Rajiv Deshpandey

144. Who is the current Central Vigilance Commissioner?

145. The theme for 2nd October Gandhi Jayanti 2023 is

149. NITI Ayog was established in India in January 2015 by:

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