2324-Level N Biology Course Revision Questions

Level N Biology Course Questions
Term 1 Week 1
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry

Section 2.2 Molecules and Compounds
1. Explain polar covalent bonding using an example.
Section 2.3 Chemistry of Water

2. Describe the bond within a molecule of water.
3. Describe the bond found between separate water molecules.
4. Identify the bonds responsible for giving water its unique properties.
5. Why is it unlikely to find two neighboring water molecules arranged as shown

below?
6. G What are the properties of water that make it vital for living organisms?
7. State the property of water that allows for each of the following, and specify its
importance:
i. the cooling of skin during sweating
ii. the survival of fish in lakes covered with ice
iii. the transport of ammonia and ions in a mammal
iv. the ability of insects to walk on water
Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules

Section 3.1 Organic Molecules
1. Describe the importance of carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus in living organisms.
2. Identify the major biomolecules and their subunits.

3.
a. Differentiate, using an example, between a monomer and a polymer.
Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 1

b. Name the structural units for each of the following organic compounds:
polysaccharides-proteins- nucleic acids- lipids
4. G Describe dehydration and condensation reactions.
Section 3.2 Carbohydrates

5. G What are the properties of monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides?
6. Explain the difference between synthesis and degradation of the disaccharide

maltose.
Synthesis:
7. Describe the short-term energy storage molecule in plants.
8. Describe the molecular structure of starch.
9. Describe the structural polysaccharide found in plant cells.
10. Describe the molecular structure of cellulose.
11. Describe the short term energy storage molecule found in animals.
12. Describe the structural polysaccharide found in the cell wall of bacteria.
13. Identify the name of each of the following structures and its relative location
within the cell.
Structure Name Location
a linear polymer of 1,4 linked β-
glucose molecules
a bipolar, phosphate containing
molecule
a highly branched polymer of 1,4
and 1,6 linked α-glucose
molecules
Section 3.3 Lipids

14. State two reasons why lipids are considered long-term energy storage molecules.
15. Which type of molecule is represented by the following diagram?
A. polysaccharide

B. triglyceride
C. saturated fatty acid
D. unsaturated fatty acid
E. polypeptide
16. [G] What are some properties and functions of lipids?
17. Why are steroid hormones classified as lipids?
18. Describe the basic structure of triglycerides.
19. Describe the structure of fatty acids.
20. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
21. Differentiate between fats and oils.
22.
a. Describe the structure of phospholipid molecules.
b. Draw a simple, labeled diagram to show the structure of phospholipids. On the

diagram, label the parts of phospholipids that are hydrophobic and
hydrophilic.
c. State one function of phospholipids, and then explain how phospholipids can
form a bilayer in the presence of water.
23. What is the main component of the plasma membrane?
Term 1 Week 2
Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules

Section 3.4 Proteins
24.
a. Draw the general structure of an amino acid.
b. Draw a labeled diagram showing how a peptide bond is formed between two
amino acids.
c. [G] What are some structural characteristics of the monomers of proteins?
d. Identify the elements found in protein.
25. Describe the significance of the R-group.
26. Describe the dehydration reaction involved in the formation of a peptide bond.
27. Describe polypeptides are degraded.

28. Describe the primary structure of proteins.
29. Explain the significance of the primary structure of proteins.
30. Describe the secondary structure of proteins and identify the bond responsible.
31. Describe the alpha helix (secondary structure).
32. Describe the beta pleated sheet (secondary structure).
33. Describe the tertiary structure of proteins.
34. Describe globular proteins.
35. Define the quaternary structure of proteins.
36. Identify the bonds responsible for maintaining the tertiary and quaternary
structure of proteins.
37. [G] How are proteins built, and what are their functions?
Section 3.5 Nucleic Acids

38. The following structures represent the three molecules that make up a nucleotide.
a. Name A, B, and C.
b. Draw a diagram to show how these molecules arrange to form a nucleotide.
c. In a table form, compare DNA and RNA in terms of function.
39. [G] Compare the structure of DNA and RNA.
40. Discuss the structure and function of ATP.
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function:

Section 4.1 Cellular Level of Organization
1. Explain why multicellular organisms are composed of millions of tiny, specialized

cells rather than one huge all-purpose cell. Refer to the surface area to volume
ratio.
2. Explain the effect of a small surface area-to-volume ratios on the exchange of

materials between cells or organisms and the environment.
3. Cell A has a surface area of 32 μm𝟐 and a volume of 8 μm𝟑. Cell B has a surface
area of 60μm𝟐 and a volume of 10 μm𝟑.
a. Calculate the surface area to volume ratio of cell A.
b. Calculate the surface area to volume ratio of cell B
c. Which cell is expected to exchange material with the surrounding environment

at a faster rate by diffusion?
4. [T] Students used rectangular prisms of different sized to model cells. They used
the formulas for volume and surface area. They obtained the results showing in
the table below.
Rectangular Length Width Surface Area Volume
Height (cm) SA:V Ratio
Prism (cm) (cm) (cm2) (cm3)
A 3.00 2.00 2.00 22.0 12.0 1.80
B 2.75 0.75 3.00 25.1 6.19 4.00
C 4.80 0.40 3.50 40.2 6.72 5.90
D 6.00 0.25 3.50 46.7 5.25 8.90
E 11.0 0.12 4.00 91.6 5.28 17.3
a) Name the rectangular prism that resembles the cell with the lowest amount of
plasma membrane per volume of cytoplasm.
b) Describe the correlation between the dimensions of the rectangular prisms and
their surface area-to-volume ratios.
c) Using the results shown above, evaluate the hypothesis that cells shaped like
rectangular prisms A and B are better adapted for slow metabolism and the
storage of energy‐containing molecules than are cells shaped like rectangular
prisms D and E.
d) Based on the results shown in the data, explain why cells include protrusions or
projections in their plasma membranes.
Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells

5. State the two major types of prokaryotes.
6. Compare the structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
7. Draw a labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.

8. Describe structures found suspended in the cytoplasm of a prokaryotic cell.
9. Where do respiration and photosynthesis take place in a photosynthetic

bacterium?
10. What structure would be found in a photosynthetic prokaryote?
Section 4.3 Introduction to Eukaryotic Cells

11. Explain how the endosymbiotic theory explains the origin of the following
organelles: nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplast.
12. State the evidences supporting the endosymbiotic theory.
13. Define cell compartmentalization and identify which types of cells possess this key
feature.
14. Describe similarities and/or differences in compartmentalization between

prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
15. Give example of how the membrane-bound organelles and internal membranes in
eukaryotic cells enhance cell compartmentalization and efficiency of the cell.
16. Name and describe the five main compartments of the eukaryotic cell.
Section 4.4 The Nucleus and Ribosomes

17. Describe the structure of the nucleus.
18. Which cell structure is responsible for the synthesis of ribosomal RNA?
19. Describe the nucleolus.
20. Describe the structure and role of ribosomes.
21. How do ribosomes reflect the common ancestry of life?
22. Where can ribosomes be found within a cell?

Section 4.5 The Endomembrane System
23. Describe the endoplasmic reticulum.
24. Describe the structure and role of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
25. Describe the structure and role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
26. In which type of cells can endoplasmic reticulum be found?
27. Describe the structure and role of the Golgi apparatus.
28. In which type of cells can the Golgi body be found?
29. It is possible for a bacterium to synthesis a eukaryotic protein. A bacterial cell

cannot produce a eukaryotic glycoprotein. Why?
30. Describe the production and secretion of mucus, a glycoprotein, in the cell.
31. Describe the structure and role of lysosomes.
32. Describe the role of each of the structures that form the endomembrane system.
Section 4.6 Microbodies and Vacuoles

33. Describe the structure and role of vacuoles
34. Which of the following is false about vacuoles?

a. They are double membrane-bounded vesicles.
b. They act as a storage site for the dissolved food substances.
c. They occupy a central position in plant cells.
d. They regulate the amount of water inside cells of some aquatic organisms.
e. They accumulate toxic substances to protect plants from herbivores.
Section 4.7 The Energy-Related Organelles

35. a. Describe the structure and role of mitochondria.
b. In which type of cells can mitochondria be found?
c. Identify the structures found in mitochondria that gives them the capacity to
produce proteins.
36. a. Describe the structure and role of the chloroplasts.
b. In which type of cells can chloroplasts be found?

c. Identify the structures found in chloroplasts that gives them the capacity to
produce proteins.
37. Compare and contrast the structure and function of the chloroplast and
mitochondrion.
Section 4.8 The Cytoskeleton

38. Describe the structure and function of the following parts of the cytoskeleton:
a. actin filaments
b. intermediate filaments
c. microtubules (centrosome, cilia, and flagella)
39. [G]
a. Which cell organelle functions in protein synthesis and is present in both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
b. In what organelle is most of the ATP produced during cellular respiration in a

eukaryotic cell?
c. What organelle contains most of the cell’s genetic material?
d. What are the main functions of the SER and RER?
40. Describe the structure and role of the centrosome = pair of centrioles.
Term 1 Week 3
Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function

1. Describe phospholipids.
2. What does the plasma membrane consist of?
3. Describe the fluid-mosaic model of cell membranes.
4. Why can’t charged ions and polar molecules such as glucose cross the cell
membrane by simple diffusion?
5. The diagram shows part of a membrane containing a channel protein.

Identify the parts labelled A, B and C.
For each of the following state whether the component is hydrophilic or

hydrophobic.
6. Describe the intrinsic/integral proteins.
7. Describe the structure of various intrinsic/integral proteins found in plasma

membranes? State the function of each.
8. [G] Answer the following questions:

a) Which components of the plasma membrane give the membrane its fluidity?
b) Which components of the plasma membrane give the membrane its mosaic
structure?
c) How is the plasma membrane selectively permeable?
9. [G] Compare the methods of transport used for the entrance of simple sugars and
gases into the cell
Section 5.2 Passive Transport Across a Membrane

10. Define passive transport.
11. Define diffusion.
12. Describe simple diffusion.
13. Describe facilitated diffusion.
14. Name the molecules/ions that cannot cross the membrane by simple diffusion and
identify how their transport across the membrane is achieved.
15. Define osmosis.
16. State the role of aquaporins in the cell membrane.
17. Describe the components of water potential.

𝒘𝒂𝒕𝒆𝒓 𝒑𝒐𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒊𝒂𝒍 = 𝒔𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒆 𝒑𝒐𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒊𝒂𝒍 + 𝒑𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒔𝒖𝒓𝒆 𝒑𝒐𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒊𝒂𝒍
𝛙𝒄𝒆𝒍𝒍 = 𝛙𝒔 + 𝛙𝒑

18. External environments cab ne hypotonic, hypertonic or isotonic to internal
environments of cells. How do plant cells and animal cells act if placed in the
following environments.
19. Should the intravenous solutions administered to patients be distilled water or an

isotonic solution? Explain your answer.
20. [T] The following figure shows three animal cells (A, B, and C) and three plant
cells (D, E, and F), in different solutions.
Cell lysis, plasmolysis, and turgor pressure are terms related to osmosis.
a) Which figure shows cell lysis? Explain.
b) Which figure shows plasmolysis? Explain.
c) Which figure shows turgor pressure? Explain.
d) What is the importance of turgor pressure in plants?
Section 5.3 Active Transport Across a Membrane

21. Describe active transport.

22. Define exocytosis.
23. Define endocytosis.
24. Give an example of a carrier protein used for active transport.
25. The diagram below shows the movement of ions across the cell membrane of nerve
cells. Outline what each of the following arrows represents.
26. Describe the structure and role of plasmodesmata (found only in plant cells).
27. Describe the role of a faulty channel protein in the development of cystic fibrosis.
28. Describe how the cuboidal cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule are adapted
for their role of reabsorption.
29. Describe the selective reabsorption of glucose and other molecules in the proximal
convoluted tubules of the kidneys.
30. [T] Based on the model below describe the transport of glucose from the intestinal
lumen across the epithelial layer of the intestine into the blood.
Section 5.4 Modification of Cell Surfaces

31. [G] How can cells communicate with one another over short distances?

32. Calculate the solute potential of a 0.25 M solution of calcium chloride at 20 degrees
Celsius.
33. [T] Four bags made from dialysis tubing were filled with a sucrose solution. Each
bag was immersed in four beakers containing sucrose solutions of 0.2M, 0.4M,
0.6M, and 0.8M. After 30 minutes, each bag was weighed and its change in weight
was calculated. All solutions were at 25C. The results are shown in the following
graph.
a. Which solution/s were relatively hypotonic to the sucrose solution filling the
dialysis tubing?
b. Which solution/s were relatively hypertonic to the sucrose solution filling the
dialysis tubing?
c. Which solution would be relatively isotonic to the sucrose solution filling the
dialysis tubing?
d. Which formula can be used to calculate the solute potential of the sucrose
solution filling the dialysis tubing?
𝛙𝐬 𝐢𝐧 𝐛𝐚𝐫𝐬 = −𝐢𝐜𝐫𝐭, where
e. Calculate the solute potential of the sucrose solution filling the dialysis tubing.
Term 1 Week 4
Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes

Section 6.1 Cells and the Flow of Energy
1. Distinguish between the first and the second law of thermodynamics. Support your
answer with an example.
2. Relate the first and the second laws of thermodynamics to energy flow in
ecosystems.
Section 6.2 Metabolic Reactions and Energy Transformations

3. Describe the structure of ATP.
4. ATP hydrolysis releases energy which is used to drive many reactions. Give
examples.
5. What is the difference between exergonic & endergonic reactions? Why can
exergonic reactions occur spontaneously while endergonic reactions cannot?
6. Discuss coupled reactions.

a. Define coupled reactions.
b. Give examples of coupled reactions.
Section 6.3 Metabolic Pathways and Enzymes

7. Define metabolic pathway.
8. Why are enzymes considered to be biological catalysts?
9. What is the active site of the enzyme?
10. Describe the induced fit model.
11. Describe the effect of enzymes on the energy of activation.
12. G How do different factors affect enzyme activity?
13. Describe the effect of substrate concentration on the enzyme activity.
14. Describe the effect of enzyme concentration on the enzyme activity.
15. Describe the effect of pH on enzyme activity.
16. Describe the effect of temperature on enzyme activity.
17. Describe enzyme activation.
18. Define denaturation.
19. Describe competitive inhibition.
20. Describe non-competitive inhibition.
21. Describe feedback inhibition.
Section 6.4 Oxidation-Reduction Reactions and Metabolism

22. Describe how the oxidation-reduction reactions occur in cells. Discuss the overall
equations of photosynthesis and cellular respiration in terms of oxidation and
reduction.
Term 1 Week 5
Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
Section 7.1 Photosynthetic Organisms
1. In which types of cells did photosynthesis first evolve?
2. Label a schematic drawing of the chloroplast to show the internal structures.
3. Outline the structure and adaptations of the thylakoid membrane and stroma
within the chloroplasts.
Section 7.2 The Process of Photosynthesis

4. Summarize the process of photosynthesis.
5. What molecules are passed from the light dependent reaction to the light
independent reactions of photosynthesis?
6. Describe photolysis.
7. Define photophosphorylation.
8. Where do the light dependent reactions take place and what structures are found
here?
9. Describe the structures organized in the thylakoid membrane. (Site of light

dependent reactions)
10. Outline the role of ATP synthase.
11. Describe the formation of ATP by chemiosmosis.
12. Describe non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
13. The thylakoid space within the chloroplasts has a high concentration of hydrogen
ions. Explain why.
14. [G] What does chemiosmosis in chloroplasts involve?
15. Describe cyclic photophosphorylation.
Section 7.3 Plants Convert Solar Energy

16.
a. Discuss the absorption spectrum of chlorophylls a, b, and carotenoids.
b. How does the absorption spectrum relate to the action spectrum of

photosynthesis?
c. Explain why chlorophyll a is a green pigment and carotenoids are yellow

orange pigments.
17. [T] The absorption spectrums of two different pigments are depicted below. One
of the pigments is found in green plants (chlorophyll) and the other is found in
purple photosynthetic bacteria (bacteriorhodopsin).
Color Wavelength
(nm)
Violet 380 – 450
Blue 450 – 475
Cyan 475 – 495
Green 495 – 570
Yellow 570 – 590
Orange 590 – 620
Red 620 – 750
a. Identify the pigment used to generate the absorption spectrum in each of the
graphs above. Explain and justify your answer.
b. In an experiment, identical organisms containing the pigment from graph 1

as the predominant light capturing pigment are separated into three groups.
Each group was exposed to light of different wavelengths (Group A: 450 nm.
Group B: 575 nm, Group C: 700 nm) but same light intensity for the same
duration of time. Predict the relative rate of photosynthesis in each of the
three groups. Justify your predictions.
Section 7.4 Plants Fix Carbon Dioxide

18. Identify the three main events during the Calvin’s cycle.
19. [G] Describe the Calvin’s cycle/light independent reactions of photosynthesis.

20. [G] What two products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are used
for the light-independent reactions?
21. [G] What is carbon dioxide fixation and how does it relate to photosynthesis
22. Identify the components of chloroplast and describe the role of each component.
23. What is standard error?
24. What is the formula for standard error?
25. The mean petal length of a sample of petals taken from a garden was 3.12mm. The
standard error for the data was 0.04. What does the standard error value tell us?
26. State how error bars can be used.
27. What is standard error and how can error bars be drawn?
28. [T] Researchers set an experiment to study the effect of the CO2 concentration on
soybean plants. The plants were grown in controlled chambers with CO2
concentration of 700 μmol CO2 / mol of air which is double the normal
concentration in the environment.The rate of photosynthesis was measured by the
amount of CO2 exchanged in an area of leaf surface over time. This rate is totally
controlled by the plant enzyme rubisco which fixes atmospheric carbon into an
organic molecule as an initial key step prior to the Calvin cycle. Researchers
measured the amount of carbon fixation that occurred at different temperatures,
ands produced the following data:
Temperature (°C) Carbon fixation ±𝟐𝑺𝑬𝒙̅ (μmol/m2/s)
25 91±9
30 96±5
35 93±8
40 104±7
45 71±7
50 59±4
(a) Describe the effect of an increase in temperature above the optimum
temperature of the enzyme.
(b) Plot a labeled graph to represent the data in the table above.

(c) Identify the temperature at which the carbohydrates production is at its lowest
rate.
(d) Global surface temperatures increase as the amounts of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere increase. Using the data above, foretell the effect of the rise of
temperature on the amounts of energy available in any ecosystem’s primary
consumers. Justify your answer.
(e) There is a prediction that there will be 2°C increase in surface temperature on
Earth due to greenhouse gases. Based on the data from above and the
prediction, identify how plant species locations might change.
Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration

Section 8.1 Overview of Cellular Respiration
1. State the equation of aerobic cellular respiration, showing how it is considered to be
an oxidation-reduction process. State the value of ΔG for the reaction.
2.
a. Describe NAD+ and FAD+ and state their functions.
b. Compare the roles of NADH and FADH2 in the electron transport chain.
3. Enumerate the phases of cellular respiration and identify the locations and necessity
for oxygen of each phase.
4.
a. State the three pathways involved in the complete breakdown of glucose to
CO2 and H2O.
b. State the reactions needed to join two of these pathways.
c. Draw a labeled diagram of the mitochondrion. Indicate on the diagram the

sites for the three pathways
Section 8.2 Outside the Mitochondria: Glycolysis

5. Identify the two ways ATP can be generated during respiration.
6. Define substrate level phosphorylation.
7. Outline glycolysis.
8. Outline an important example of how a cell regulates ATP production through

allosteric inhibition.
Section 8.3 Outside the Mitochondria: Fermentation

9. Describe anaerobic respiration/ fermentation.

10. Describe respiration in yeast cells in anaerobic conditions.
11. Describe lactic fermentation in muscle cells.
12. Distinguish between lactate fermentation and alcoholic fermentation.
13. Name the stage of respiration that supports the theory that all life on earth evolved
from one common ancestor.
14. [T] Oxidation of glucose by glycolysis and the Krebs cycle produces electrons which
are added to NAD+ to form NADH. Cells are continuously in need for NAD+.
NADH is reduced back to NAD+ in the absence (−) of oxygen through fermentation,
or in the presence (+) of oxygen by the electron transport chain. The figure below is
a simplified illustration of the recycling and metabolism of NAD+.
Located in the ETC, is NADH dehydrogenase, the enzyme that catalyzes the initial
oxidation of its substrate NADH to NAD+ and H+. It contains a subunit that is encoded by
a mitochondrial gene called MT -ND5.
A rare genetic disorder caused by a mutated MT -ND5 gene causes lactic acid to build up in
the body.
A hypothesis by a group of scientists states that the NADH dehydrogenase encoded by the
mutated MT -ND5 gene is not completely nonfunctional, but only with a decreased activity,
and suggested that the activity of NADH dehydrogenase will increase by making the pool of
NADH in cells higher.
To test this hypothesis, the group of scientists treated individuals with this disorder with a
vitamin that acts like NADH and measured lactic acid and the NAD+ concentration in the
blood. The duration of the experiment is 20 weeks. The result of the experiment are plotted
below.

(a) Describe how the mutated MT -ND5 is inherited. Suggest why mitochondrial
genes are not heterozygous.
(b) Identify a dependent variable for this experiment. Identify one control to
improve the experiment. Justify why blood samples were taken at many points
instead of at only the beginning and the end of the experiment duration.
(c) Explain the relationship between the concentration of NAD+ in the blood and
the concentration of lactic acid in the blood during the first 5 weeks of the
experiment. Calculate the rate of change from week 5 to week 17 in blood NAD+
concentrations.
(d) A follow-up experiment was performed to identify the rate at which oxygen is
consumed by brain and muscle cells on individuals with MT -ND5 mutation.
What would be the oxygen consumption rate in brain and muscle cells? Justify
your answer. Explain how the vitamin which had a similar shape to NADH most
likely increased the activity of the enzyme.
Term 1 Week 6
Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration

Section 8.4 Inside the Mitochondria
15. Describe the link/preparatory reaction.
16. Outline the stages of the Krebs cycle.
17. Name three major protein complexes involved in the electron transport chain of the
mitochondrion.
18. Describe oxidative phosphorylation at the electron transport chain.
19. Compare the electron transport chain reactions in the different organelles and
structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells during respiration and
photosynthesis.
20. Complete the table by placing a tick if the statement is true about the particular
stage of respiration and a cross if it is false.

21. [G] How are ATP molecules formed in the mitochondria according to the
chemiosmosis theory?
22. Label the key parts of the mitochondrion below and describe the structure and
function of each.
23. Isolated mitochondria were suspended in two different solutions. One solution was
maintained at a pH of 4 and the other at a pH of 9. The mitochondria maintained at
a pH of 4 were able to produce ATP whereas those maintained at a pH of 9 did not
produce ATP. Explain why.
24. The initial dry mass of two groups of 20 bean seedlings each was determined, as
shown in the table above. The plants in group A were exposed to light for one week.
The plants in group B were maintained in the dark for one week. All conditions
other than light were maintained for groups A and B. At the end of the week, the
dry mass of the plants in group A and B was determined.
Group Treatment Initial dry mass Dry mass of the Change in dry
of the plants (g) plants after one mass of plants
week (g) over one week (g)
A Light 15.0 30.1 +15.1
B Dark 15.0 10.8 -4.2
a. Explain the increase in mass of the plants in group A.
b. Explain the decrease in mass of the plants in group B.
Section 8.5 Metabolism

25. [G] Compare the role of oxygen for aerobic respiration and photosynthesis.
26. Discuss the similarities and differences between the mitochondria and the
chloroplasts in terms of their structure and functions.
27.
a. Show using a diagram what happens when fat is used as an energy source.
b. Show using a diagram what happens when a protein is used as an energy

source.
28. [T] A pond ecosystem encompasses all parts of a living environment, including
animals, plants, and microorganisms, and non-living components such as water and
air. There are many natural processes that occur in a pond ecosystem. The following
table describes events happening in a pond ecosystem. Complete the table below
with the missing information.
29. [T] Cellular respiration is the process by which cells break down organic molecules
in order to acquire energy.
a.Write the overall chemical equation of cellular respiration.
b. Explain how cellular respiration represents an oxidation-reduction reaction.
c. Enzymes are involved in cellular respiration. Name one enzyme involved in

cellular respiration.
d. To understand the effect of temperature on cellular respiration, a group of

students performed the following experiment. They placed yeast cells in a sugar
solution in a special apparatus that can detect gas bubbles released by the yeast
cells. Students found out that at a very low temperature (about 0°C) and at a
very high temperature (about 70°C) no bubbles were released, whereas the
amount of bubbles released reached its peak at about 30°C. Explain the results
obtained in this experiment.
30. [T] Yogurt, sour cream, and cheese are produced through the action of various
lactic acid bacteria that cause milk to become sour.
a.Name the main biochemical pathway responsible for the production of the food
types mentioned above.
b. State briefly how the biochemical pathway you named in part (a) occurs in milk.

c. Alkaliphiles are a class of microbes capable of survival in alkaline environments.
Predict what would happen to the population size of alkaliphiles if they are
added to yogurt? Justify your answer
Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction

Section 9.1 The Cell Cycle
1. What is the cell cycle?
2. Name the stages of the cell cycle in the correct sequence.
3. What events occur in a cell while in interphase?
4. State the events occurring during the G1 stage of cell cycle.
5. Describe the main event occurring during the S stage of the cell cycle.
6. Describe the events occurring during the G2 stage of the cell cycle.
7. What event occurs during the M (mitotic) stage of the cell cycle?
8. The diagram shows the cell cycle.
Checkpoints in the cell cycle of mammals prevent the cycle from continuing when
DNA is damaged.
1. Mitosis is blocked if DNA replication is incomplete
2. Anaphase is blocked if the assembly of chromatids on the spindle is
unsuccessful
3. DNA replication is blocked if DNA is damaged
4. DNA replication stops if damage to DNA has not been repaired
In which phases of the cell cycle do these checkpoints occur?
9. Label the figure below.
10. What happens to specialized cells that no longer need to divide?

11. What is apoptosis? Using examples, state how it affects the development and
functioning of multicellular organisms.
12. Explain each of the three checkpoints of the cell cycle; stating conditions
permitting the cell cycle to either stop or continue.
a. G1 Checkpoint
b. G2 checkpoint
c. M (anaphase) checkpoint
13. Discuss how the cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases regulate the cell cycle.
14. Describe the role of mitosis promoting factor (MPF) in in triggering the cell’s
passage from G2 to M Phase.
15. Describe the changes in levels of MPF and cyclins throughout the cell cycle.
16. [G]
a. What are some events that occur during G1 stage of the cell cycle?
b. What is are some main events that occur during the S stage of the cell cycle?
c. What are some main events that occur during the G2 stage of the cell cycle?
Section 9.2 Structure of the Eukaryotic Chromosome
17. What are the various levels of the chromosomal structure?
Term 1 Week 7
Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction

Section 9.3 Mitosis and Cytokinesis
18. Define the following words: chromosome, chromatin, chromatid, centriole,
cytokinesis, centromere, histone, and kinetochore.
19. Describe mitosis.
20. Enumerate the roles of mitosis in organisms.
21. Draw a diagram of the various stages of mitosis.
22. [G]
a. What are the major events that occur during prophase?
b. What are the major events that occur during metaphase?

c. What are the major events that occur during anaphase?
d. What are the major events that occur during telophase?
23. [T] During spring, a student collected samples of cells from a woody plant.
Sample A was collected from the root tip of the plant.
Sample B was collected from the woody stem of the plant.
Cells were showing different steps of mitosis in the two samples. However, sample A
was showing more dividing cells compared to sample B
(a) Describe the importance of mitosis in the growth of a plant.
(b) Explain why there are more cells observed in mitosis in sample A than in sample
B.
(c) The diagrams below represent various stages of mitosis. Number them in
sequential order.
(d) Explain how the arrangement of cellular components during metaphase step of
mitosis assists the correct distribution of chromosomes to the two daughter cells.
Section 9.4 The Cell Cycle and Cancer
24. Identify the causes of cancer.
25. Describe the role of signal transduction pathways in producing a cellular response.
26. Identify the three main types of receptors involved in cell signaling.
27. Describe the protein kinase receptors.
28. Describe the transduction pathway involved when a person cuts themselves.
29. Describe the role of proto-oncogenes in the cell cycle.
30. Describe the consequence of mutations occurring in the proto-oncogenes.
31. Describe the role of tumor-suppressor genes in the cell cycle and development of
cancer.
32. Outline the role of a named example of a tumour suppressor gene.

33. [T] When DNA is damaged due to external factors like UV radiation, a transcription
factor made of protein called p53 regulates the cell cycle progression. The p53
pathway of action is explained in the figure below.
(a) What are the products of the cell cycle of a skin cell?
(b) Based on the Figure above, explain how p53 regulates the cell cycle if the DNA is
damaged.
(c) On the template provided, determine where the replication of damaged DNA
would occur.
M
G2 G1
S G0
d) Why would a mutation to p53 lead to an increased risk of cancer.
Section 9.5 Prokaryotic Cell Division

34.
a. Compare prokaryotic chromosomes to eukaryotic chromosomes.
b. Compare the process of cell division and its function in prokaryotes to that in
eukaryotes.
Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction

Section 10.1 Overview of Meiosis
1. Describe meiosis.
2. Identify the purpose of each of the nuclear divisions occurring during meiosis.
Section 10.2 Genetic Variation

3. Explain why sister chromatids are genetically identical before crossing over, while
homologous chromosomes in a pair are not identical.
4. Identify sources of genetic variation among sexually reproducing eukaryotic

organisms.
5. What is the primary source of genetic variation?
6. [G] How does meiosis result in genetic diversity?

crossing over →Source of genetic variation
independent assortment→ Source of genetic variation
Section 10.3 The Phases of Meiosis

7. Illustrate the stages of meiosis I and meiosis II using a series of simple, annotated
diagrams.
8. Describe the events occurring during prophase I.
9. Describe the events occurring during metaphase I.
10. Describe the events occurring during anaphase I.
11. Describe the events occurring during telophase I.
12. Describe the events occurring during prophase II.
13. Describe the events occurring during metaphase II.
14. Describe the events occurring during anaphase II.
15. Describe the events occurring during telophase II.
16. [G] What happens during the different stages of meiosis I and meiosis II?
Section 10.4 Meiosis Compared to Mitosis
17. State three ways by which daughter cells produced as a result of meiosis differ
from daughter cells produced by mitosis.
18. Compare meiosis I to mitosis.
19. What accounts for:

the genetic similarity between the parental cell and the daughter cells produced by
mitosis?
the genetic differences between the parental cell and the daughter cells produced by
meiosis?
20. G Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis.
Section 10.6 Changes in Chromosome Number and Structure

21. Distinguish between sex chromosome aneuploidy and autosomal aneuploidy, giving
an example of a human syndrome in each case.
22. What is non-disjunction and when does it occur?
23. Differentiate between the terms monosomy and trisomy.
24. What is Klinfelter’s syndrome?
25. Down’s syndrome is also known as trisomy 21. From the alternative name of
Down’s syndrome describe the likely events leading to this syndrome.
26. Use the karyotype below to answer the following three questions.
a. Which is correct about the person with such karyotype?

A. This person has Klinefelter syndrome.
B. This person has a sex-linked condition.
C. This person has Down syndrome.
D. This person has hemophilia.
E. This person has Turner’s syndrome.
b. The karyotype given above represents the chromosomes of a person who is a

A. female.
B. male.
C. female missing a chromosome.

D. male with an extra X chromosome.
E. female with an extra sex chromosome.
c. The karyotype given above shows a condition that happened as a result of

A. non-disjunction.
B. one deleted chromosome.
C. one translocated chromosome.
D. polyploidy.
E. pleiotropy.
27. [T] In a certain species the diploid number is 4. Height is controlled by a single gene
in which the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. Petal color is controlled by a
single gene in which the purple color is dominant to the short color. The two
mentioned genes are found on separate chromosomes. Draw the daughter cells
formed from meiosis of the cell depicted below showing the chromosome and the
alleles they carry, knowing the cell is taken from a plant that is heterozygote for
both traits.
28. [T] Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of a male and a female gamete, which
gives rise to a zygote that later develops into an organism. The following table
describes a cellular division type that occurs during sexual reproduction in humans.
a. Complete the table below with the missing information.
b. Answer the following questions concerning sexual reproduction and asexual

reproduction (specifically, binary fission).
i. List two differences between sexual and asexual reproduction.
ii. Explain one of the differences listed in b (i).

Term 1 Week 8
Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance

Section 11.2 Mendel’s Laws
1. [G] State Mendel’s law of segregation.
2. [G] Explain Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
3. [G] A homozygous parent with black fur is crossed with a homozygous parent with
white fur as seen below.
a. Knowing that the resulting offspring all have black fur, identify the
dominant and recessive alleles in this cross.
b. The F1 individuals were crossed. What is the expected percentage of F2

offspring having black fur?
4. [G] What are the probabilities of specific phenotypes and genotypes in the following
crosses?
a. monohybrid cross, true-breeding pea plants: Tall x Short (Tall is dominant
over short)
b. dihybrid cross, true-breeding pea plants: Tall, Green pod x Short, Yellow
pod (Tall is dominant over short, and green is dominant over yellow.)
5. When does Mendel’s law of independent assortment apply?
6. In pea plants, the allele for purple flowers, (P) is dominant to that for white
flowers (p), the allele for tall stems (T) is dominant to that for short stems (t) and
these genes are located at different loci. Plants from true-breeding variety with
purple flowers and tall stems are crossed with plants from a true-breeding variety
with white flowers and short stems. These individuals constitute the Parental
generation (P). The F1 generation was then allowed to self-pollinate. Answer the
following questions:
a. Which are the genotypes of the P generation?
b. What are the expected genotypes of the F1 generation? Draw a genetic diagram
to support your answer.
c. Write the possible combinations of alleles in the gametes that F1 generation can
produce during meiosis in the gametes.

d. If the F1 generation were self-pollinated, what is the expected phenotypic
ration in the F2 generation? What do we call such a cross?
Section 11.3 Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance and Human Disease

7. G Outline the features of autosomal recessive disorders.
8. G Outline features of autosomal dominant disorders.
9. G Outline the features of X-linked recessive disorders.
10. Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. The allele for non-affected is

dominant to that for haemophilia.
a. Why is haemophilia said to be X-linked?
b. Why is haemophilia said to be a recessive disorder?
c. If a heterozygous non-affected woman mates with a haemophilic man, what

are the expected phenotypes of the children?
d. If a heterozygous woman mates with a normal man, what are the expected
phenotypes of the children?
11. The pedigree chart below represents the family history of a disease. What pattern of
inheritance is depicted? Support your answer.
12. Study the following pedigrees and identify which patterns of inheritance they
represent. Explain your answer.
13. The following pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder.

a. What pattern of inheritance is depicted?
b. One of the affected males in the third generation marries a woman who is a
carrier for the genetic disorder. What are the chances their first son will
have the disorder?
14. What is non-nuclear inheritance?
15. Describe the inheritance of mitochondrial DNA in animals.
16. Describe the inheritance of mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA in plants.
17. Explain the reason behind leaf colour variation.
18. Explain why mitochondrial diseases are maternally inherited.
19. If the mother has a defective gene in her mitochondria, where are the chances that
the child will suffer from the related condition?
20.
The pedigree chart shows the inheritance of an allele of a gene in a family over three
generations. Shaded symbols indicate the individual carrying the allele. Based on
the pedigree chart explain the inheritance of the allele studied. State whether it is
autosomal or sex-linked, dominant or recessive, nuclear or mitochondrial.
21. Two tall pea plants with green pods were crossed. They were both heterozygotes for
stem length and pod color. 248 offspring were produced.
Tall with green pods 147
Tall with yellow pods 40
Short with green pods 43
Short with yellow pods. 16
a. What is the frequency of tall pea plants with green pods?

b. What is the frequency of tall pants with yellow pods?
c. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
d. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
e. What is the approximate phenotypic ratio in the offspring of the above di-
hybrid cross?
f. Does the phenotypic ratio fit with Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
g. What can we conclude about the inheritance of the genes for stem length and
pod color?
22. One tall plant with green pods (TtGg) was cross with one short plant with yellow
pods (ttgg). 200 offspring were produced.
Tall with green pods 48
Tall with yellow pods 52
Short with green pods 47
Short with yellow pods. 53
a. What is the frequency of tall pea plants with green pods?
b. What is the frequency of tall pants with yellow pods?
c. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
d. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
e. What is the approximate phenotypic ratio in the offspring of the above test-
cross?
f. Does the phenotypic ratio fit with Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
g. What can we conclude about the inheritance of the genes for stem length and
pod color?
23. Gray flies with longs (GgLl) were allowed to reproduce with black flies with short
wings (ggll). 100 offspring were formed with the following phenotypes.
Grey bodies with long wings 40
Grey bodies with short wings 9
Black bodies with long wings 9
Grey bodies with short wings 42
a. According to Mendel’s law of independent assortment, what is the expected
phenotypic ratio in the offspring?
b. Do the actual phenotypes of the offspring match with the expected

phenotypic ratio?

c. Do the genes for body color and wing length in fruit flies follow Mendel’s law
of independent assortment?
d. Explain why the above mentioned genes do not follow Mendel’s law of
independent assortment.
e. Why do the grey bodied flies with short wings and black bodied flies with
longs wings appear?
24. What would we notice in the offspring when studying genes that are linked?
25. [G]
a. What are X-linked genes?
b. What are genetically linked genes?
26. In fruit flies the allele for vestigial wings (l) is recessive to the alleles for wild-type
wings (L). Wing length is an autosomal trait. The allele for white eyes (𝑿𝒓 ) is
recessive to the allele for red eyes (𝑿𝑹 ). Eye color is determined by a sex linked gene
found on the X chromosome.
A true breeding female with wild-type wings and white eyes reproduces with a male
with vestigial wings and red eyes.
a. What are the genotypes of the parents?
b. Draw up a genetic diagram to depict the expected genotypes and phenotypes

in the F1 generation.
c. What proportion of offspring are expected to be males with wild-type wings

and white eyes?
27. In the fruit fly, Drosophila, the gene for body color and the gene for antennal shape
are linked.
Body color gene:
E= allele for striped body
e = allele for ebony body
Antennal shape gene:
A= allele for normal antennae
a = allele for aristopedia antennae
A female fruit fly with a striped body and normal antennae (EeAa) was crossed
with a male fruit fly with ebony body and aristopedia antennae (eeaa).
a. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the above if the mentioned genes are
found on separate chromosomes?
b. The following offspring were obtained from the above mentioned cross.
Striped body, normal antennae→44%
Ebony body, aristopedia antennae→44%
Striped body, aristopedia antennae→6%
Ebony body, normal antennae→6%
Identify the offspring that show recombined traits.

c. What is the cross over value?
d. What information does the cross over value give us?
e. What is the cross over value of the above mentioned cross?
28. What is a map unit?
29.
a. Recombination frequency between genes A and B is 18%. What is the map
distance between gene A and B?
b. When studying the inheritance of two traits coded for by genes A and B, the
crossover value was calculated to be 18%? What is the map distance between
gene A and B?
30. A tall pea plant self-pollinated. The seeds germinated and grew into pea pants. Of
these plants, 46 are tall and 14 are short. Which of the following best explains the
appearance of the short offspring?
31. Two different gene loci (A/a and B/b) determine inheritance of flower color in
Salvia. The dominant allele B gives purple flowers and the recessive flower b gives
pink flowers. Neither the dominant allele B nor the recessive allele b may be
expressed in the absence of the dominant allele A.
a. A pure breeding pink flowered variety was crossed with a pure breeding
white flowered variety. The offspring had purple flowers.
Draw a genetic diagram to depict the cross and show why all offspring ended
up having purple flowers.
b. The F1 generation was interbred. Show the genotypes and phenotypes in the
F2 generation by drawing up a genetic diagram.
32. [T] The following cross was performed between two flies: Fly with long wings and
gray body × Fly with vestigial wings and black body All the offspring have long
wings and gray body in the F1. Assuming the genes for the studied traits are located
on different chromosomes, answer the following questions.
a. Are the parents in the cross studied above homozygous or heterozygous?
Justify your answer.
b. Specify the dominant allele for each trait. Justify your answer.
c. Write the symbols of the corresponding alleles.
d. What are the four possible gametes that could be produced by a member of
the F1 generation during meiosis? Specify the alleles they contain and their
percentages.

e. To identify whether a fly with the dominant phenotypes is homozygous or
heterozygous, a test-cross can be performed.
i. Predict the phenotypes and the phenotypic percentages of the offspring
resulting from a test-cross involving a member of the F1 generation.
ii. Predict the phenotype percentages of the offspring resulting from the
test-cross if the two genes were genetically linked and crossing-over
occurs?
33.
a. When is  test used?
2
b. What is the criterion for using the  test?

2
c. A breeder wants to know if the number of offspring of different phenotypes

obtained in a genetic cross is significantly different from the expected
number. What statistical test should be used?
d. How is the value for 𝑿𝟐 interpreted?
e. How can the number of degrees of freedom be calculated when using 𝑿𝟐 test?
34. [T] The production of chlorophyll in tobacco plants is controlled by a single

dominant allele. Homozygous recessive seedlings are unable to synthesise
chlorophyll and appear white. These seedlings die soon after germination.
A student carried out an experiment in which a sample of tobacco seeds, obtained
by self-pollinating a heterozygous plant, was germinated and the number of green
and white seedlings counted. The results are shown in the table below.
Colour of seedlings Number counted (observed)
Green 203
White 64
A 2 test was then applied to determine whether these results differed significantly
from an expected 3 : 1 ratio.
a) Fill in the values of E (expected numbers), (O – E) and (O – E)2 in the table

below.
(O = observed numbers).
b) Use the formula given below to calculate the value of 2 . Show your working
c) How many degrees of freedom are shown in this investigation?
d) For this number of degrees of freedom, 2 values corresponding to

important values of P are as follows.
Value of P 0.99 0.95 0.90 0.50 0.10 0.05 0.01 0.001
Value of  0.00016 0.0039 0.016
2
0.46 2.71 3.84 6.63 10.83

What conclusions can be drawn from this 2 test concerning the inheritance
of the ability to synthesis chlorophyll?
35. [T] A research team has genetically engineered a strain of flies to eliminate errors
during DNA replication. The team claims that this will eliminate genetic variation in
the engineered flies. A second research team claims that eliminating errors during
DNA replication will not entirely eliminate genetic variation in the flies.
A. Provide one piece of evidence that would indicate new genetic variation in the
engineered strain of flies.
B. Describe one mechanism that could lead to genetic variation in the

engineered fruit flies.
36. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) transport cholesterol in the blood. LDL receptors in
liver cells take up the LDLs and associated cholesterol molecules, thereby reducing
levels of cholesterol in the blood. Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by a
mutation in the gene coding for the LDL receptors. These individuals suffer from
high levels of cholesterol levels in the blood and this leads to cardiovascular disease.
a. The dominant allele codes for functional LDL receptors. The mutated allele
is recessive and codes for non-functional LDL-receptors. Accordingly, predict
the expected phenotype of individuals who are homozygous dominant,
heterozygous and homozygous recessive for the gene.
b. A new drug has been released that can treat familial hypercholesterolemia
(FH) by increasing the production of LDL receptors in liver cells. Why is this
drug effective in treating heterozygotes, but ineffective in treating individuals
who are homozygous for the mutant allele?
37. A. Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease caused by an autosomal recessive allele.

Two parents who are carries for the genetic disorder have two children.
What are the chances both children are not affected by the disorder?
B. A woman’s genotype for three different gene loci is XxYyZz. What are the
chances she passes on the following genotype through her gamete? XyZ
38. [T] True breeding purple flowers with inflated pods were crossed with true breeding
white flowers with constricted pods. The results are shown below.
Parent phenotype Purple and inflated White and constricted
(PPII) (ppii)
F1 phenotype All were purple and inflated (PpIi)
a. Why aren’t there individuals in the F1 generation with white flowers or
constricted pods?
b. The F1 generation was then test-crossed with a homozygous recessive

individual. The results are shown below.
F1 phenotype Purple and inflated White and constricted
(PpIi) (ppii)
F2 phenotype Purple, Purple, White, White,
inflated Constricted Inflated constricted

315 312 320 317
What phenotypic ratio was observed in the F1 generation?
c. Does this fit with Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
d. What can we conclude about the genes for flower color and pod shape?
.
e. Pure breeding broad leaved plants with white flowers were crossed with pure
breeding narrow leaved plants with purple flowers. The results of the cross
are shown below.
Parent phenotype Broad and white Narrow and purple
(BBpp) (bbPP)
F1 phenotype All broad and purple (BbPp)
What can be concluded from the above cross?
f. The F1 generation was then test-crossed with a homozygous recessive

individual. The results are shown below.
F1 phenotype Broad and purple Narrow and white
(BbPp) (bbpp)
F2 phenotype Broad and Broad and Narrow Narrow
white purple and white and purple
672 75 61 664
Explain the results of the test-cross.
39. [T] The fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, feeds on sugars found in damaged fruits.
A fly with normal features is called a wild type. It has a grey striped body and its
wings are longer than its abdomen. There are mutant variations such as an ebony-
coloured body or vestigial wings.
Wild-type features are coded for by dominant alleles: A for wild-type body and B
for wild-type wings.
Two wild-type fruit flies were crossed. Each had alleles A and B and carried alleles
for ebony body and vestigial wings.
a. Draw a genetic diagram to show the possible offspring of this cross.
b. When the two heterozygous flies in b were crossed, 384 eggs hatched and
developed into adult flies. A Chi-squared

( 2 )
test was carried out to test the
significance of the differences between observed and expected results:
( O − E )2
2 =  E
Where:
 = Sum of , O = observed values, E = expected value

Calculate the value of 2
Phenotypes of Drosophila melanogaster

Grey body Grey body Ebony body Ebony body
Long wing Vestigial wing Long wing Vestigial wing
Observed number (O)
Expected ratio
Expected number (E)
O–E
(O – E)2
(O – E)2/E
c. How many classes of data are there?
d. Find the number of degrees of freedom.
2 2
e. Draw a conclusion from your calculated  using the table of  values
below. Explain whether or not the observed results were significantly
different from the expected results.
Degrees of Probability greater than

freedom
0.1 0.05 0.01 0.001
1 2.71 3.84 6.64 10.83
2 4.60 5.99 9.21 13.82
3 6.25 7.82 11.34 16.27
4 7.78 9.49 13.28 18.46
f. Using your value of 2 and the table above.

40.[T] The sweet pea is a flowering plant that grows in many parts of Europe. The
inheritance of flower color and shape of pollen grains in sweet peas is controlled by
genes that are located on autosomal chromosomes. The allele for round flowers is
dominant over the allele for elongated flowers and the allele for yellow pollen grains
is dominant over the allele for white pollen grains.
a. State what is meant by autosomal chromosomes.
b. Draw a diagram illustrating the possible normal products of meiosis that would
be produced by the F1 progeny for these two traits. Include the chromosomes
and the allele(s) they carry.
c. A sweet pea plant that is heterozygous for both round flowers and yellow
pollen grains is crossed with a sweet pea plant with elongated flowers and white
pollen grains. Construct a genetic diagram and a Punnett square illustrating
this cross and predict the expected phenotypes and ratios of the offspring
produced by this cross.
d. The experimental results of the cross performed in part c are listed in the table
below.
Explain the results shown in the table and why they differ from the expected
results obtained in part c.
Term 1 Week 9
Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene

Section 12.1 The Genetic Material
1. [G] What is the DNA model proposed by Watson and Crick?
2. What does it mean for the two strands of DNA to be antiparallel?
3. In a table form outline key features of the nitrogenous bases.

Nitrogenous- Ring structure Component Complementary
base of which base bares with
nucleic acid
Adenine Purine (double-ring structure)
Guanine Purine (double-ring structure)
Cytosine Pyrimidine (single-ring structure)
Thymine Pyrimidine (single-ring structure)
Uracil Pyrimidine (single-ring structure)
4. Describe complementary base pairing in DNA and RNA.

5. What kind of bond is formed between the paired bases of the DNA double helix?
6. Explain the contributions of Rosalind Franklin proving that DNA is the carrier of
genetic information.
7. Explain the contributions of Hershey and Chase proving that DNA is the carrier of
genetic information.
8. What are the monomers of nucleic acids?
9. Describe the components of a nucleotide.
10. Describe the phosphodiester bond linking together the nucleotides in DNA and
RNA.
11. Correctly label the following diagram regarding the structure of a DNA molecule.
12. Name the purine and pyrimidine bases found in DNA.
13. Compare and contrast the chromosomal nature of Eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
Section 12.2 Replication of DNA

14. [G] Why DNA replication is termed semi-conservative?
15. [G] Describe the main stages of DNA replication.
16. What are Okazaki fragments?
17. Name the enzyme that binds the Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand together.
18. What is the role of DNA polymerase?
19. State Chargaff’s rules.

20. 23% of the bases in a molecule of DNA are thymine. State the percentage
composition of the other three bases.
Section 12.3 Gene Expression: RNA and the Genetic Code

21. Describe the flow of genetic information in a cell.
22. [G]
a. What are the main structural features of RNA?
b. What are the main roles of the different types of RNA?
23. Compare the DNA nucleotides to the RNA nucleotides.

DNA nucleotide RNA nucleotide
Nitrogen containing base
Pentose sugar
Phosphate group
24. Compare the DNA molecules to the RNA molecules.
DNA RNA
25. Define transcription.
26. [G]
a. List the three major steps of transcription.
b. In which step of transcription does RNA polymerase bind to the promoter of

the template DNA strand?
27. Explain the process of transcription.
28. What is the promoter?
29. What is the outcome of the transcription process?
30. Explain the major modification experienced by the mRNA transcript during the
processing of an mRNA molecule.
Section 12.5 Gene Expression: Translation

31. Explain the characteristics of the genetic code:
32. What is a codon?
33. Define transfer RNA.
34. What is an anti-codon?

35. What structure does an anticodon of tRNA pair with during protein synthesis?
36. Describe the structure of a ribosome.
37. Define translation.
38. Where does translation take place in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
39. Describe one significant difference between translation in prokaryotic and

eukaryotic cells.
40. [G] What are the main steps of translation?
41. Define the template strand.
42. If the following is the template strand of DNA, what would the sequence of bases in
the mRNA transcribed?
TAA TAC TCT CGG AGG CGA CTC GAC ATT “template/non-coding strand”
43. Define non-template strand.
44. If the following is the coding or non-template strand of DNA, what would the
sequence of bases in the mRNA transcribed?
ATT ATG AGA GCC TCC GCT GAG CTG TAA GCC “non-template/coding
strand”
45. Write the sequence of the corresponding mRNA and tRNA for the DNA strand
below. NB. The template strand is transcribed.
TAA TAC TCT CGG AGG CGA CTC GAC ATT CGG “template/non-coding strand”
ATT ATG AGA GCC TCC GCT GAG CTG TAA GCC “non-template/coding strand”
46. [T] Loeys-Dietz syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an autosomal dominant

allele. The normal LDS2B gene produces a growth factor receptor proteins that
regulates cell signaling pathways. The gene product is a protein consisting of 565
amino acids. It consists of three regions, a transmembrane region, a protein
kinase region and a signaling molecule-binding region. Protein kinases are
enzymes that transfer phosphate groups to target proteins. A representation of the
LDS2B gene is shown below.

a) Loeys-Dietz syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition. Describe the
pedigree of a family in which one parent in the first generation has Loeys-Dietz
syndrome.
b) Calculate the minimum number of nucleotides required in the LDS2B mRNA

molecule that would be translated into the 565-amino acid polypeptide. Take
into consideration the initiation and termination of translation.
47. State the amino acids sequence for the polypeptide encoded for by the mRNA
segment below. Begin with the first available start codon.
48. [T] The model below represents a two-step enzymatic synthesis of the plant
hormone indole acetic acid (IAA) form the amino acid tryptophan. Indole acetic
acid is a plant hormone. Gene Trp-T encodes an enzyme that converts tryptophan
to indole-3-pyruvic acid (I3PA), which is then converted to IAA by an enzyme
encoded by the gene YUC.

A. Which arrow represents transcription?
B. Name the molecule that would be absent if enzyme YUC is nonfunctional.
C. Explain one feedback mechanism by which a cell could prevent production of

too much IAA without limiting I3PA production.
49. [T] Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition associated with defects in the CFTR
protein is a gated ion channel that requires ATP binding in order to allow chloride
ions to exit the membrane by facilitated diffusion.
A. Trace the pathway for the production of a normal CFTR protein from gene
expression to final cellular location.
Starting with transcription, list the different organelles involved in the
production of the CFTR protein to reach its final cellular location.
B. Identify the location of the ribosome that synthesizes CFTR protein.
C. Identify the most likely cellular location of the mutant CFTR protein that has
an amino acid subsituation in the ATP binding site.
Term 1 Week 10
Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Activity

Section 13.1 Prokaryotic Regulation
1. Label the following diagram of an operon and state the function of each of its
elements.

2. a. Explain how gene expression differs in an inducible operon versus a
repressible operon and give an example of each.
b. What is a repressible operon?
c. Explain how the trp operon works.
3.
a. What is an inducible operon?
b. Explain how the lac operon works.
4. The diagram below represents a segment of the E. Coli chromosome that contains
the lac operon.
Lac Operon Structure
Locus Function
𝑷𝒍 Attachment site for RNA polymerase
lacl Encodes a repressor protein that prevents transcription of the
structural genes for the lac operon.
𝑷𝒍𝒂𝒄 Attachment site for RNA polymerase.
operator Binding site for the repressor protein.
lacZ Encodes beta-galactosidase, the enzyme that digests lactose to
glucose and galactose.
lacY Encodes lactose permease, the channel through which lactose
moves into the cell.
lacA Encodes galactosidase transacetylase
a. What is the most likely consequence if the operator is mutated?
b. Explain how the lac operon increases the efficiency of a bacterial cell.
c. Bacterial cells that contain green fluorescent protein (GFP) will fluoresce
under ultraviolet light. What would occur if the lac Y gene in the lac operon
were replaced with the GFP gene?
5. a. Describe the role of cAMP in further control of the lac operon.
b. Why is CAP protein’s regulation of the lac operon considered to be an example

of positive control?
c. Why is the use of repressors an example of negative control?

Section 13.2 Eukaryotic Regulation
6. Explain how the same genotype can result in multiple phenotypes under
different environmental conditions.
7. Give examples of how the environment can influence gene expression in animals.
8.
a. Explain each of the 5 levels of gene expression regulation in eukaryotic cells.
b. Explain how different levels of chromatin organization can affect gene

expression.
c. Explain, using an example, inactive heterochromatin.
9. Histone methyl transferases are enzymes that methylate certain amino acid
sequences in histone proteins. It was found that transcription of gene decreases
when histone methyl transferase activity is inhibited. Make a scientific claim
consistent with these findings?
10. a. What is a transcription factor?
b. What are promoters?
c. What is a transcription activator?
d. Explain how transcription factors and transcription activators regulate gene

expression in transcriptional control.
11. What are negative regulatory molecules?
12.
a. What is a repressor?
b. Explain how the repressors control gene expression in transcriptional control.
13. [G] Describe transcriptional control in eukaryotes, including the roles of

transcription factors (activators and repressors) and enhancers.
14. a. Which are the two mechanisms used in posttranscriptional control to regulate
gene expression.
b. Explain how alternative mRNA splicing helps to regulate gene expression in

posttranscriptional control.
c. Explain how controlling the speed in which the mRNA exits the nucleus helps
to regulate gene expression in posttranscriptional control.
15. a. What is RNA interference?

b. How does RNA interference help to regulate gene expression?
16. Explain why the persistence of the 5’ cap and the length of the poly-A tail in mRNA
are important to translational control.
17. a. What are the SRY genes?
a. Explain how the SRY gene regulates the activation of male development.
18. a. What are morphogens?
b. Explain how cell differentiation and development is regulated by morphogens.
Section 13.3 Gene Mutations

19. What causes mutations?
20. G What is a point mutation?
21. Describe the mutation causing the genetic disorder sickle cell anaemia.
22. G What is a frame shift mutation?
23. Describe the pathology behind Huntington’s disease.
24. The table below describes the action of two genes involved in the regulation of
nervous system development in an organism.
Gene 1 Gene 2 Observation
Pattern 1 Inactive Inactive No neurons develop
Pattern 2 Inactive Active No neurons develop
Pattern 3 Active Inactive Greater than normal number of
neurons develop.
Pattern 4 Active Active Normal number of neurons develop
Make a claim that supports the data.
25. The figure below shows the first seven amino acids of the β chain of haemoglobin
and the 21 base pairs in the sequence of DNA that code for these seven amino acids.
Table 3.1 shows the triplets of bases that code for seven amino acids.

Table 3.1
Using Fig. 3.2 and Table 3.1, state what will happen to the sequence of amino acids in
the first part of the β chain of haemoglobin:
a. if the base pair at position 2 is deleted.
b. if the three base pairs at positions 10, 11 and 12 are deleted.
c. if the base pair at position 6 is deleted.
d. If the base pair at position 5 is substituted by T.
26. a. What is cystic fibrosis?
b. Outline the clinical features of cystic fibrosis.
c. Outline the role of the CFTR protein.
d. What is the cause of cystic fibrosis?
e. Describe the commonest mutation occurring in the CFTR gene.
f. Describe the heterozygotes for the CFTR gene.
27. [G] Describe how environmental influences can affect gene expression and cause
mutations.
28. [T] Cystinuria is a human genetic condition occurs when genes SLC3A1 and
SLC7A9 mutate. Normally SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 encode, independently, one part
of a transporter protein complex responsible for the movement of certain amino
acids across the plasma membrane of the human kidney cells. Individuals suffering
from Cystinuria have an increased level of cysteine (a polar amino acid) in their
urine. A scientist collected data from seven individuals with a recorded family
history of cystinuria. Urine samples were collected, and the concentration of cysteine
was measured. The scientist sequenced their SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 genes to identify
who carries the functional (+) or the mutant (−) alleles of genes (“+” indicates the

presence of the function allele, and “-“indicates the presence of a mutant allele). The
results are shown in the table below.
Concentration SLC3A1 SLC7A9
Person
of Cysteine Alleles Alleles
A 7.90 -/- +/+
B 30.8 +/- -/-
C 0.70 +/- +/+
D 33.5 -/- +/-
E 9.10 +/+ -/-
F 2.80 +/+ +/-
G 11.5 -/- +/+
a. Name the individual who exhibits symptoms of cystinuria.
b. Correlate the relationship between the total number of mutant alleles in an

individual and the concentration of cysteine.
c. Mutations in SLC7A9 have a greater effect on the transport of cysteine across

the plasma membrane of kidney cells than do mutations in SLC3A1. Is the
hypothesis supported or not in line with the given results?
d. Cysteine is a large polar molecule. How does the results support that claim?
29. [T] An experimental population was created that produced a modified RNA
polymerase containing a single amino acid substitution. This strain was used by
researchers studying transcription in yeast. The maximum elongation rate during
transcription was determined in presence and absence of the modified RNA
polymerase enzyme. A chart below represents the results.

A specific RNA polymerase inhibitor; Amanitin, attaches to the active site of the
RNA polymerase and stops transcription. Scientists conducted another experiment
by treating the normal population and the experimental population of yeast with a
48 μg / mL solution of amanitin and recorded the maximum elongation rate of the
mRNA. A chart below represents the results.
a. Explain the structural components of an RNA nucleotide monomer. Describe

the role of RNA polymerase during transcription.
b. Name the dependent variable in the experiments. What is the control group
missing from the second experiment? Explain why a control group is needed
in the second experiment.
c. Describe the effect of amanitin on the elongation rate for the normal-type and
modified RNA polymerases. Determine the ratio of the average elongation rate
for the modified RNA polymerase compared to the normal strain RNA
polymerase in the first graph.
d. Write a null hypothesis for the experiment in the first graph. Justify the claim
that the shape of the active site on the enzyme is affected by the change in the
amino acid sequence in the modified RNA polymerase.
30. [T] A disease known as therosclerosis occurs due to the adherence of certain cells
and proteins to blood vessels causing their damage, the most affected ones are
usually those around the heart. A scientist who is trying to treat individuals with
the disease performed an experiment based on results obtained from previous
investigation.
The previous investigation suggests that the usage of RNA-binding protein found
in the muscle cells found in the blood vessels’ outer surface known as FXR1 can
reduce the damage to the blood vessels.
Another investigation suggested that a protein secreted by certain white blood
cells known as IL-19, can regulate the FXR1 gene expression.
To be able to corelate these experiments to his treatments, the scientist grew
vessel-lining muscle cells in the lab and added IL-19 to it. During the
experimental duration of 48 hours, the scientist measured the production of
FXR1 protein by the cells in the presence of IL-19. The scientist calculated the

amount of FXR1 presentcompared with the amount of FXR1 when IL-19 was
first added to the cells. Results of the experiment is shown in the table below.
Time in the Presence of Relative Amount of

IL-19 (h) FXR1 Protein
0 0.95
4 1.67
8 1.57
16 3.07
24 2.13
48 1.57
(a) Explain how amino acids are showing different chemical properties. Explain
how amino acid sequence change as in case of FXR1 protein could lower its
binding ability to RNA.
(b) Plot a labeled graph to represent the data in the table above.
(c) Describe the effect of IL-19 on FXR1 gene expression based on the data in the
table above.
(d) The scientist hypothesized that Individuals with a specific mutation of the
FXR1 gene tend to have high levels of a protein that binds to mRNAs that
encode arteries damaging proteins, how can FXR1 protein interacts with the
mRNAs.

31. [T] The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) catalyzes the conversion of
pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, a substrate for the Krebs (citric acid) cycle. The rate of
pyruvate conversion is greatly reduced in individuals with PDC deficiency, a
rare disorder.
a. Where is PDC most active?
b. Make a claim about how PDC deficiency affects the amount of NADH
produced by glycolysis AND the amount of NADH produced by the Krebs
(citric acid) cycle in a cell. Provide reasoning to support your claims based
on the position of the PDC- catalyzed reaction in the sequence of the cellular
respiration pathway.
c. PDC deficiency is caused by mutations in the PDHA1 gene, which is located

on the X chromosome. A male with PDC deficiency and a homozygous female
with no family history of PDC deficiency start a family.
Draw a genetic diagram to show the expected genotypes and phenotypes in
their offspring.
32. Gibberellin is a plant hormone that promotes stem elongation. GA3H is the
enzyme that catalyzes the reaction that converts a precursor of gibberellin to the
active form. A mutation in the gene coding for the GA3H enzyme results in
plants that are short. If a pure breeding tall plant is crossed with a pure breeding
short plant all offspring in the next generation are tall. When the offspring are
crossed with each other ¾ of their offspring are tall and ¼ are short.
The original allele for the GA3H enzyme codes for a protein that has at position
229 the non-polar amino acid alanine (Ala). The mutant allele for the GA3H
enzyme codes for a protein that has at position 229 the non-polar amino acid
threonine (Thr).
a. Explain the effect in changing one amino acid on the function of the enzyme.

b. Explain how the mutation results in short plant phenotypes in plants that are
homozygous recessive for this gene.
c. If the mutation was a result of a substitution mutation, state the expected

change in the codon sequence that resulted in the amino acid alanine being
replaced by amino acid threonine.
d. Explain how plants with one (heterozygous) or two (homozygous) copies of

the original GA3H enzyme gene have the same phenotype.
33. [T] It is believed that the effect of one mutagen, mutagen A is amplified by the
presence of another mutagen B. To test the claim cultured eukaryotic cells were
exposed to mutagen A alone, mutagen B alone, a combination of mutagen A & B
and no mutagen. The mean presence of double stranded breaks was determined
as an indication of the effect of the mutagen on the DNA.
Treatment Mean percent of DNA
with Double-Strand
Breaks
Untreated control 5.0 2.0
Mutagen A only 6.0 3.0
Mutagen B only 5.5 2.5
Mutagen A and B 16.0 3 .5
a. Construct a graph using the data in the table to represent the effect of mutagen
A and B on DNA.
b. Describe the effect of mutagen A alone and mutagen B alone compared to the
effect of the combined treatment of mutagen A and mutagen B.
c. What is the likely effect of double stranded DNA breaks on the cell cycle?
Justify your answer.
34. [T] The DNA sequence of part of the human ß-globin gene is illustrated below.
a. Identify the length, in nucleotides, of the primary RNA transcript

(premRNA).

b. Determine the length, in nucleotides, of the mature RNA transcript and
justify your answer.
c. Calculate the number of amino acids present in the ß-globin protein

produced from the mRNA in this case and explain your answer.
Term 1 Week 11
Chapter 14 Biotechnology and Genomics

Section 14.1 DNA Technology
1. Explain the use of genetic engineering techniques in analysing or manipulating
DNA.
2.
a. Outline the method of recombinant DNA production in gene cloning.
Keywords: restriction enzymes, DNA ligase, plasmid, recombined plasmid,
gene cloning.
b. Outline the importance of the PCR technology.
c. Explain how STR profiling and fluorescent labelling are used in DNA
fingerprinting.
3. Use the diagram below to answer the following two questions.
a. Which of the following contains DNA that was not first cut by restriction
enzymes?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
b. Which of the following contains the lane with the smallest piece of DNA?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

E. 5
4. [G] What is recombinant DNA technology?
5. [G]
a. [G] What is gel electrophoresis?
b. Identify the factors determining the movement of the charged molecules within
the gel.
c. G Explain the process of gel electrophoresis.
6. a. What is a vector in genetic engineering?
b. State why a vector is needed to make rDNA.
c. What are plasmids?
d. Give an example of a vector commonly used in rDNA technology.
7. a. Identify and state the role of the two enzymes needed to introduce foreign DNA
into vector DNA.
b. Explain what restriction enzymes are.
c. What is the role of DNA ligase in the production of recombinant DNA?
d. Explain the use of restriction enzymes in the process of making recombinant

DNA.
8. a. Explain why bacteria are able to express human genes.
b. What are the requirements for bacteria to express a human gene?
9. a. What is complementary DNA?
b. Genetic engineers faced difficulties in isolating the insulin gene from human
chromosomes. Outline how they were able to synthesis the insulin gene from
mRNA.
10. Describe the process of gene cloning using recombinant DNA technology.
11. [T] A sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for
resistance to the antibiotic streptomycin. No plasmids were added to a second
sample of E. coli bacteria. Samples of each group of bacteria were grown on nutrient
agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic streptomycin and
some of which were not. The results are summarized below. Shaded areas represent
extensive growth. Dots represents individual colonies of bacteria.
No streptomycin Streptomycin

Wild type E. Coli 1 2
Ecoli mixed with 3 4

plasmid containing gene
for streptomycin
resisistance.
a. In a second experiment the plasmid containing the gene for human insulin as
well as resistance to streptomycin was used to transorm the bacteria. Which
nutrient agar plate would have the highest percentage of bacteria that are
expected to produce insulin?
Which plate/s have only streptomycin resistance bacteria growing.
b. Why are there fewer colonies on plate four than plate three?
12. An insulin gene was inserted into the plasmid. Cultures of bacteria were
transformed with the plasmid following insertion of the insulin gene. Transformed
bacteria were able to survive in the presence of tetracycline but were unable to grow
in the presence of kanamycin. Predict the most likely site of insertion of the insulin
gene by indicating on the diagram below. Explain your reasoning.
13. Other than the use of antibiotics, how can successfully transformed bacteria be
identified?
14. a. What is polymerase Chain Reaction?
b. Which are the requirements to run a PCR in a laboratory setting?
c. Explain the process followed by PCR for the production of millions of copies
of DNA in just a few hours.
15.
a. What is DNA fingerprinting/DNA profiling?

b. How can restriction enzymes be used in DNA profiling?
c. How can short tandem repeats be used in DNA profiling?
16. The following pedigree chart shows data collected while studying a family in which
some members have sickle cell disease. There are two alleles for the haemoglobin
gene. The HbA allele encode wild-type (normal) haemoglobin and the HbS allele
encodes the sickle cell form of haemoglobin. Shaded symbols represent individuals
with sickle cell disease.
The following is a portion of the DNA sequence taken from the allele (HbA) that
encodes for the wild-type haemoglobin.
5′ CTG ACT CCT GAG GAG AAG TCT 3′ Non-template Strand
3′ GAC TGA GGA CTC CTC TTC AGA 5′ Template Strand
The following is an image of a gel following electrophoretic separation of DNA
fragments of the haemoglobin gene from three individuals from the pedigree chart
above.
A. Identify the genotypes of the individual I-VII from the pedigree chart.
B. The HbS allele which causes the sickle cell disease results from a point
mutation in the DNA sequence of the HbA allele. The point mutation causes
the amino acid glutamic acid to be replaced by valine. State the mRNA
sequence derived from the HbS allele. Use the table below to answer.

C. The restriction enzyme Mst II recognizes a particular nucleotide sequence
and cuts DNA at that site. The heamoglobin genes of the different members
of the family in the pedigree chart were treated with the restriction enzyme
Mst II before being separated by gel electrophoresis. Explain the banding
pattern in the figure above.
Section 14.2 Biotechnology Products
17. How are genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals useful? Give an example
of each.
18. Use the following given to answer the two questions below.
A group of tobacco plants was given a jellyfish gene. These plants began to glow in
the dark.
a. These tobacco plants can be described as
A. infertile organisms.
B. pest resistant organisms.
C. genetically modified organisms.
D. ancestral organisms.
E. endangered organisms.
b. Which of the following proteins is coded by the jellyfish gene?

A. clotting factor VIII
B. insulin
C. green fluorescent protein
D. tissue plasminogen activator
E. hemoglobin
19. Which of the following is not a function of genetically modified bacteria?
A. eating oil
B. removing sulfur from coal
C. producing insulin
D. producing phenylalanine
E. curing patients from HIV

20. Which of the following is the most similar to the process of cloning?
A. transcription
B. pollination
C. meiosis
D. mitosis
E. gametogenesis
Section 14.3 Gene Therapy
21. Explain gene therapy and give examples of its different types.
Section 14.4 Genomics

22. i. Outline the human genome project and its goal.
ii. Describe the significance of the various types of intergenic DNA sequences.
23. Once a plasmid has incorporated the target gene, it can be cloned by
A. inserting it into a virus.
B. treating it with restriction enzymes.
C. inserting it into a suitable bacterium.
D. inserting it into a human nerve cell.
E. treating it with DNA ligase.
24. Which of the following constitutes that majority of protein coding regions in
humans?
A. repetitive elements
B. tandem repeats
C. interspersed repeats
D. exons
E. introns
25. Use the following to answer the four parts below.
A. transposon
B. transcription
C. translation
D. transformation
E. translocation
a. when DNA of one strain of bacteria is taken up by another strain of bacteria
b. when mRNA participates in the buildup of a polypeptide chain
c. when DNA is copied to mRNA
d. when a segment of DNA is able to jump from one place to another
26. [T] The following figure represents a plasmid used for recombinant DNA
technologies with cleavage sites for two restriction enzymes E and H.

a. Knowing that the size of the studied plasmid is 150 kb, calculate the size of
fragment X, shown in the figure above, which resulted from the cleavage of the
plasmid with both enzymes, E and H.
b. Name the two main type of enzymes involved in the production of recombinant
DNA and state the function of each.
c. State two uses of gene cloning.
d. Products produced by genetically modified organisms are called biotechnology

or bioengineered product. What are two main concerns associated with the use
of biotechnology products?

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Level N Biology Course Questions

Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry

Section 2.3 Chemistry of Water

3. Describe the bond found between separate water molecules.

5. Why is it unlikely to find two neighboring water molecules arranged as shown

ii. the survival of fish in lakes covered with ice

iii. the transport of ammonia and ions in a mammal

iv. the ability of insects to walk on water

Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules

2. Identify the major biomolecules and their subunits.

Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 1

4. G Describe dehydration and condensation reactions.

Section 3.2 Carbohydrates

6. Explain the difference between synthesis and degradation of the disaccharide

7. Describe the short-term energy storage molecule in plants.

8. Describe the molecular structure of starch.

9. Describe the structural polysaccharide found in plant cells.

10. Describe the molecular structure of cellulose.

Section 3.3 Lipids

15. Which type of molecule is represented by the following diagram?

Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 2

17. Why are steroid hormones classified as lipids?

18. Describe the basic structure of triglycerides.

19. Describe the structure of fatty acids.

20. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.

21. Differentiate between fats and oils.

b. Draw a simple, labeled diagram to show the structure of phospholipids. On the

23. What is the main component of the plasma membrane?

Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules

c. [G] What are some structural characteristics of the monomers of proteins?

d. Identify the elements found in protein.

25. Describe the significance of the R-group.

27. Describe polypeptides are degraded.

Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 3

29. Explain the significance of the primary structure of proteins.

31. Describe the alpha helix (secondary structure).

32. Describe the beta pleated sheet (secondary structure).

33. Describe the tertiary structure of proteins.

34. Describe globular proteins.

35. Define the quaternary structure of proteins.

Section 3.5 Nucleic Acids

b. Draw a diagram to show how these molecules arrange to form a nucleotide.

c. In a table form, compare DNA and RNA in terms of function.

39. [G] Compare the structure of DNA and RNA.

40. Discuss the structure and function of ATP.

Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function:

Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 4

1. Explain why multicellular organisms are composed of millions of tiny, specialized

2. Explain the effect of a small surface area-to-volume ratios on the exchange of

b. Calculate the surface area to volume ratio of cell B

c. Which cell is expected to exchange material with the surrounding environment

Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells

6. Compare the structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

7. Draw a labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.

Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 5

9. Where do respiration and photosynthesis take place in a photosynthetic

10. What structure would be found in a photosynthetic prokaryote?

Section 4.3 Introduction to Eukaryotic Cells

12. State the evidences supporting the endosymbiotic theory.

14. Describe similarities and/or differences in compartmentalization between

Section 4.4 The Nucleus and Ribosomes

19. Describe the nucleolus.

20. Describe the structure and role of ribosomes.

21. How do ribosomes reflect the common ancestry of life?