11th PYQ (Past 5 Years Question) - Compressed Biology

11th Class
Last 5 Year Questions

Telegram Link:-https://t.me/RITULIVE
1. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchial arrangement in ascending
order is correct in case of animals?
(1) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

(2) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species
(3) Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
(4) Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
(NEET 2022)
2. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first
described by Carolus Linnaeus.
a) Mangifera Indica
b) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
c) Mangifera indica Linn
d) Mangifera indica
(NEET 2019)
3. Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?
a) Hand written scientific names should be underlined

b) Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet
c) Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicized
d) Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Taxonomic Categories
4. Which one of the following belongs to the family muscidae?
a) house fly
b) Fire fly
c) Grasshopper
d) Cockroach
(NEET 2021)
Q. No Answer
1 1
2 c
3 d
4 a
1. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(NEET 2022)
2. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under

Kingdom Monera.
(2) Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.
(3) Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom
Monera.
(4) Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall
(NEET 2022)
3. Match the organisms in column-I with habitats in column-II
Column I Column II
A. Halophiles i) Hot springs
B. Thermoacidophiles ii) Aquatic environment
C. Methanogens iii) Guts of ruminants
D. Cyanobacteria iv) Salty area
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
a) A-(iv) , B-(i) , C-(iii) , D-(ii)

b) A-(i) , B-(ii) , C-(iii) , D-(iv)
c) A-(iii) , B-(iv) , C-(ii) , D-(i)
d) A-(ii) , B-(iv) , C-(iii) , D-(i)
(Odisha NEET 2019)
4. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called
sheath cells.
b) Fusion of two cells is called karyogamy.
c) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called
plasmogamy.
d) Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
(NEET 2021)
5. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread like hyphae.

b) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
c) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.
d) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.
(NEET 2019)
6. Match column-I with column II.
Column-I Column-II
A. Saprophyte i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots
B. Parasite ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials
C. Lichens iii) Living on living plants or animals
D. Mycorrhiza iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A B C D
a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(NEET 2019)
7. Which of the following is correct about viroids?
a) They have RNA with protein coat.

b) They have free RNA without protein coat.
c) They have DNA with protein coat.
d) They have free DNA without protein coat.
(NEET 2020)
8. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has
a) inert crystalline structure

b) abnormally folded protein
c) free RNA without protein coat
d) free DNA without protein coat.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
a) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.

b) Viroids lack a protein coat.
c) Viruses are obligate parasites.
d) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat.
(NEET 2019)
Q. No Answer
1 3
2 1
3 a
4 c
5 a
6 a
7 b
8 b
9 d
1. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following:
1) Selaginella and Salvinia

2) Psilotum and Salvinia
3) Equisetum and Salvinia
4) Lycopodium and Selaginella
(NEET 2023)
2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A):- The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason (R):- Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of the above statements , choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is true but (R) is false
3) (A) is false but (R) is true
4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(NEET 2023)
3. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:
1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
3) Rhodophyceae only
4) Phaeophyceae only
(NEET 2022)
4. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
1) Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin
2) Ulothrix – Mannitol
3) Porphyra – Floridian starch
4) Volvox – starch
(NEET 2022)
5. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits
List-I List-II
(a) Spirogyra (i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte
(b) Fern (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
(c) Funaria (iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus
(d) Cycas (iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular
sporophyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-((iii) (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(NEET 2022)
6. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
a) Blue – green algae

b) Green algae
c) Brown algae
d) Red algae
(NEET 2021)
7. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?
a) Ulothrix
b) Ectocarpus
c) Gracilaria
d) Volvox
(NEET 2021)
8. Floridean starch has structure similar to
a) starch and cellulose

b) amylopectin and glycogen
c) mannitol and algin
d) laminarin and cellulose.
(NEET 2020)
9. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
a) Laminaria and Sargassum

b) Gelidium and Gracilaria
c) Anabaena and volvox
d) Chlorella and spirulina
(NEET 2020)
10. Gemmae are present in
a) Some liverworts
b) Mosses
c) Pteridophytes
d) Some gymnosperms.
(NEET 2021)
11. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such
plants are known as
a) Heterosporous
b) Homosorous
c) Heterosorus
d) Homosporous
(NEET 2021)
12. Strobili cones are found in
a) Salvinia
b) Pteris
c) Marchantia
d) Equisetum
(NEET 2020)
13. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
a) Cycas circinalis
b) Carica papaya
c) Chara
d) Marchantia polymorpha
(NEET 2021)
Q. No Answer Q. No Answer
1 1 12 d
2 4 13 c
3 3
4 2
5 2
6 d
7 b
8 b
9 d
10 a
11 a
Animal Kingdom
1. Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ________.
1) Hemichordata
2) Coelenterata
3) Echinodermata
4) Ctenophora
(NEET 2023)
2. The unique mammalian characteristics are:
1) Hairs, pinna and mammary glands

2) Hairs, pinna and indirect development
3) Pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary glands
4) Hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary glands.
(NEET 2023)
3. Select the correct statements with reference to chordates.
A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord.

B. Presence of closed circulatory system
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gillslits
D. Presence of dorsal heart.
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals.
1) B and C only
2) B, D and E only
3) C, D and E only
4) A, C and D only
(NEET 2023)
4. Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:
1) Cutin
2) Cellulose
3) Chitin
4) Glucosamine
(NEET 2022)
5. In which of the following animals , digestive tract has additional chambers
like crop and gizzard?
1) Corvus , Columba , Chameleon

2) Bufo , Balaenoptera , Bangarus
3) Catla , Columba , Crocodilus
4) Pavo , Psittacula , Corvus
(NEET 2022)
6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(NEET 2022)
Basis of Classification
7. Consider following features.
A) Organ system level of organisation

B) Bilateral symmetry
C) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above
characteristics.
a) Annelida , Mollusca and Chordata

b) Annelida , Arthropoda and Chordata
c) Annelida , Arthropoda and Mollusca
d) Arthropoda , Mollusca and Chordata
(NEET 2019)
8. Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral
symmetry?
a) Adult Echinoderms
b) Aschelminthes
c) Platyhelminthes
d) Annelids
(Odisha NEET 2019)
9. Match the following
List-I List-II
p) Physalia i) Pearl oyster
q) Limulus ii) Portuguese
r) Ancylostoma iii) Living fossil
s) Pinctada iv) Hookworm
p q r s
a) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (NEET 2021)
10. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long
bones?
a) Ornithorhynchus
b) Neophron
c) Hemidactylus
d) Macropus
(NEET 2021)
11. Read the following statements.
A) Metagenesis is observed in helminths

B) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals
C) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization
D) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
E) Water vascular system is characteristic of echinoderms
a) (B) , (C) and (E) are correct

b) (C) , (D) and (E) are correct
c) (A) , (B) and (C) are correct
d) (A) , (D) and (E) are correct
(NEET 2021)
12. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(p) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
(q) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
(r) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(s) Cnidoblasts (iv) porifera
p q r s
a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(NEET 2021)
13. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by
a) Ctenophora
b) Platyhelminthes
c) Aschelminthes
d) Annelida
(NEET 2020)
14. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column – I Column – II
A) 6-15 pairs of gill slits i) Trygon
B) Heterocercal caudal fin ii) Cyclostomes
C) Air bladder iii) Chondrichthyes
D) Poison sting iv) Osteichthyes
(A) (B) (C) (D)

b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(NEET 2020)
15. Which of the following statements are true for the Phylum Chordata?
A) In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail and it is present

throughout their life.
B) In Vertebrata, notochord is present during the embryonic period only
C) Central nervous system is dorsal and hallow
D) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and
cephalochordate.
a) (D) and (C)

b) (C) and (A)
c) (A) and (B)
d) (B) and (C)
(NEET 2020)
A) Gregarious, polyphagous pest i) Asterias
B) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry ii) Scorpion
C) Book lungs iii) Ctenoplana
D) Bioluminescence iv) locusta
(A) (B) (C) (D)

a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(NEET 2020)
17. Match the following organisms with respective characteristics.
A) Pila i) Flame cells
B) Bombyx ii) Comb plates
C) Pleurobrachia iii) Radula
D) Taenia iv) Malpighian tubules
Select the correct option from the following.

A) B) C) D)
a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(NEET 2019)
d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
18. Match the following genera with their respective phylum.
1) Ophiura i) Mollusca
2) Physalia ii) Platyhelminthes
3) Pinctada iii) Echinodermata
4) Planaria iv) Coelenterata
Select the correct option.
a) (1) – (iv) (2) – (i) (3) – (iii) (4) – (ii)

b) (1) – (iii) (2) – (iv) (3) – (i) (4) – (ii)
c) (1) – (i) (2) – (iii) (3) – (iv) (4) – (ii)
d) (1) – (iii) (2) – (iv) (3) – (ii) (4) – (i) (Odisha NEET 2019)
1 1 12 d
2 1 13 b
3 1 14 a
4 3 15 d
5 4 16 b
6 1 17 c
7 b 18 b
8 d
9 d
10 b
11 a
1. Axile placentation is observed in
1) China rose, Beans and Lupin

2) Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
3) China rose, Petunia and Lemon
4) Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
(NEET 2023)
2. Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick
out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
1) Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens

2) Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers
3) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
4) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
(NEET 2023)
3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):- A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem
changes to floral meristem.
Reason (R):- Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral
appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements , choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(NEET 2023)
4. Identify the correct set of statement :
a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea
b) Axillary buds from slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves
d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration
e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation

1. (b) and (c) only
2. (a) and (d) only
3. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e) only
4. (a) , (b) , (d) and (e) only
(NEET 2022)
5. Which one of the following plants show vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
1. Colchicum autumnale
2. Pisum sativum
3. Allium cepa
4. Solanum nigrum
(NEET 2022)
6. The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(a) Mustard
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Cassia
(d) Datura
(e) Chilly
(1) (a), (b), (c) Only
(2) (b), (c) Only
(3) (d), (e) Only
(4) (c), (d), (e) Only
(NEET 2022)
The Root
7. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are
a) Fibrous roots
b) Primary roots
c) Prop roots
d) Lateral roots.
(NEET 2020)
8. Diadelphous stamens are found in
a) Chin rose and citrus

b) China rose
c) Citrus
d) Pea.
(NEET 2021)
9. Ray florets have
a) Inferior ovary
b) Superior ovary
c) Hypogynous ovary
d) Half inferior ovary
(NEET 2020)
10. The ovary is half inferior in
a) Brinjal
b) Mustard
c) Sunflower
d) Plum
(NEET 2020)
11. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
a) Free central
b) Basal
c) Axile
d) Parietal.
(NEET 2019)
12. Match the placental types (column –l ) with their examples (column-ll).
Column-I Column-II
(A) Basal (i) Mustard
(B) Axile (ii) China rose
(C) Parietal (iii) Dianthus
(D) Free central (iv) Sunflower
Choose the correct answer the correct answer from the following options.
(a) (A)-(ii),(B)-(iii),(C)-(iv),(D)-(i)
(b) (A)-(i),(B)-(ii),(C)-(iii),(D)-(iv)
(c) (A)-(iv),(B)-(ii),(C)-(i),(D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iii),(B)-(iv),(C)-(i),(D)-(ii)
( Odisha NEET 2019 )
The Seed
13. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at
a) Hilum
b) Micropyle
c) Nucellus
d) Chalaza.
(NEET 2020)
Description of Some
Important Families
14. Match the column-I with column-II
p q r s
a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (NEET 2021)
1 3 12 c
2 4 13 a
3 4 14 b
4 3
5 2
6 2
7 a
8 d
9 a
10 d
11 d
Reason (R).
Assertion (A):- Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.
Reason (R):- Cambium is less active in winters.
In the light of the above statements , choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(NEET 2023)
2. Given below are two statements
Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of
secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(NEET 2023)
3. Identify the correct statements:
A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases.

B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark.
C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.
D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem.
E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness.
1) A and D only
2) A, B and D only
3) B and C only
4) B, C and E only
(NEET 2023)
4. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles:
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
(1) (a), (b) and (d) Only

(2) (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Only
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(NEET 2022)
5. In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to:
(a) Secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(b) Deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.
(c) Deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
(d) Deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.
(e) presence of parenchyma cells functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.
Choose the correct answer from options given below:
(1) (a) and (b) Only

(2) (c) and (d) Only
(3) (d) and (e) Only
(4) (b) and (d) Only
(NEET 2022)
6. The anatomy of spring wood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements
about springwood.
a) It is also called as the earlywood
b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
c) It is lighter in colour
d) The springwood along with autumn wood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings
(e) It has lower density
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
1. (a) , (b) ,(d) and (e) only
2. (a) , (c) ,(d) and (e) only
3. (a) , (b) and (d) only
4. (c) , (d) and (e) only
(NEET 2022)
7. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks
(a) both sieve tubes and companion cells

(b) albuminous cells and sieve cells
(c) sieve tubes only
(d) companion cells only.
(NEET 2019)
8. Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to
(a) lateral meristem

(b) apical meristem
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) secondary meristem.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
List-I List-II
p) Cells with active cell division capacity i) Vascular tissues
q) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function ii) Meristematic tissue
r) Tissue having different types of cells iii) Sclereids
s) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen iv) Simple tissue
p q r s
a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (NEET 2021)
10. The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features:
(i) Large number of scattered vascular surrounded by bundle sheath bundles

(ii) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue
(iii) vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(iv) phloem parenchyma absent
Identify the category of plant and its part.
(a) Monocotyledonous stem.

(b) Monocotyledonous root
(c) Dicotyledonous stem
(d) Dicotyledonous root
(NEET 2020)
11. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason
from the following.
(a) Tyloses in vessels

(b) Closure of stomata
(c) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(d) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(NEET 2019)
12. In the dicot root the vascular cambium originates. from
(a) tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above
protoxylem
(b) cortical region
(c) parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle
(d) intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Secondary
Growth
List-I List-II
p) Lenticels i) Phellogen
q) Cork cambium ii) Suberin deposition
r) Secondary cortex iii) Exchange of gases
s) Cork iv) Phelloderm
p q r s
a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(NEET 2021)
14. Select the correct pair.
(a) Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis – Spongy parenchyma

and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark
(b) Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of – Subsidiary cells
grass leaves
(c) In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded – Conjunctive tissue
by large thick-walled cells
(d) Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring – Interfascicular cambium
(NEET 2021)
15. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) Heartwood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
(b) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
(c) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
(d) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils, etc., heartwood is dark in colour.
(NEET 2020)
16. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of annual rings in trees?
(a) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.

(b) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year.
(c) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue-early and late wood
respectively.
(d) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
(NEET 2019)
1 4 12 a
2 3 13 c
3 1 14 d
4 2 15 c
5 1 16 a
6 2
7 a
8 c
9 c
10 a
11 c
Statement I : Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II : Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
below:
(NEET 2023)
2. Match List I with List II.
List-I List-II
A. Mast cells I. Ciliated epithelium
B. Inner surface of bronchiole II. Areolar connective tissue
C. Blood III. Cuboidal epithelium
D. Tubular parts of nephron IV. Specialised connective tissue
1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(NEET 2023)
List-I List-II
A. Taenia I. Nephridia
B. Paramoecium II. Contractile vacuole
C. Periplaneta III. Flame cells
D. Pheretima IV. Urecose gland

2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(NEET 2023)
4. In cockroach, excretion is brought about by-
A. Phallic gland
B. Urecose gland
C. Nephrocytes
D. Fat body
E. Collaterial glands
1) A, B and E only
2) B, C and D only
3) B and D only
4) A and E only
(NEET 2023)
5. Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual
dimorphism?
1) Presence of anal styles

2) Presence of sclerites
3) Presence of anal cerci
4) Dark brown body colour and anal cerci
(NEET 2023)
6. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
(1) Blood
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Cartilage
(4) Neuroglia
(NEET 2022)
List-I List-II
(a) Bronchioles (i) Dense Regular connective tissue
(b) Goblet cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue
(c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue
(d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(NEET 2022)
8. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from:
(1) Prothorax
(2) Mesothorax
(3) Metathorax
(4) Prothorax and Mesothorax
(NEET 2022)
9. Which of following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
(a) These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels.

(b) These muscle have no striations.
(c) They are involuntary muscles.
(d) Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs.
(NEET 2021)
10. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue
and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(a) Adhering junctions and respectively gap junctions, respectively.

(b) Gap junctions and adhering junctions, respectively.
(c) Tight junctions and gap junctions, respectively.
(d) Adhering junctions and tight junctions, respectively.
(NEET 2021)
11. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in
(a) lining of intestine

(b) ducts of salivary glands
(c) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(d) Eustachian tube
(NEET 2020)
12. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from
(a) Squamous epithelial cells

(b) Columnar epithelial cells
(c) Chondrocytes
(d) Compound epithelial cells.
(NEET 2020)
13. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in
(a) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

(b) bile duct and bronchioles
(c) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct
(d) Eustachian tube and salivary duct.
(NEET 2019)
14. Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature.
(A) Tight (i) Cement neighbouring cells together to form sheet

(B) Adhering junction (ii) Transmit information through chemical to another cells
(C) Gap junctions (iii) Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across
epithelial cells
(D) Synaptic Junctions (iv) Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication
between adjacent cells
Select correct option from the following
(A) (B) (C) (D)

a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Cockroach
15. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
(a) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
(b) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
(c) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
(d) In females, 7th -9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
(NEET 2021)
16. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because
a) the supra – oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen
b) the cockroach does not have nervous system
c) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along
the ventral part of its body
d) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal
part of its body.
(NEET 2020)
17. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
mouth.
(a) Pharynx à Oesophagus à Ileum à Crop à Gizzard à Colon à Rectum

(b) Pharynx à Oesophagus à Crop à Gizzard à Ileum à Colon à Rectum
(c) Pharynx à Oesophagus à Gizzard à Crop à Ileum à Colon à Rectum
(d) Pharynx à Oesophagus à Gizzard à Ileum à Crop à Colon à Rectum
(NEET 2019)
1 1 12 b
2 2 13 a
3 2 14 c
4 2 15 b
5 1 16 c
6 4 17 b
7 1
8 2
9 d
10 c
11 c
1. Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system?
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Chloroplasts
D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) A, C and E only
2) A and D only
3) A, D and E only
4) B and D only
(NEET 2023)
2. Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
1) Protein synthesis
2) Motility
3) Transportation
4) Nuclear division
(NEET 2023)
3. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
a) Metacentric chromosome (i) Centromere situated close to the end forming
one extremely short and one very long arms
b) Acrocentric chromosome (ii) Centromere at the terminal end
c) Sub metacentric (iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal
arms of chromosomes
d) Telocentric chromosome (iv) Centromere slightly away from the middle
forming one shorter arm and one longer arm
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
1. (a)- (iii) ,(b)-(i),(c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(i) ,(b)-(iii),(c)- (ii),(d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii) , (b)- (iii),(c)- (iv),(d)-(i)
4. (a)-(i) ,(b)- (ii),(c)- (iii),(d)-(iv)
(NEET 2022)
4. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum
is incorrect?
(1) RER has ribosomes attached to ER

(2) SER is devoid of ribosomes
(3) In prokaryotes only RER are present
(4) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
(NEET 2022)
Cell Theory
5. The concept of “Omnis cellula – e – cellula” regarding cell division was first
proposed by
a) Aristotle
b) Rudolf Virchow
c) Theodore Schwann
d) Schleiden.
(NEET 2019)
6. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a) They are not bound by any membrane

b) These are involved in ingestion of food particles.
c) They lie free in the cytoplasm
d) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
(NEET 2020)
7. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
a) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions
between nucleus and cytoplasm.
b) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
organelles.
c) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
d) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus
and that of the cytoplasm.
(NEET 2021)
8. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
p) Cristae i) Primary constriction in chromosome
q) Thylakoids ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
r) Centromere iii) Infoldings in mitochondria
s) Cisternae iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
p q r s
b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(NEET 2021)
9. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of
chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as
a) Acrocentric
b) Metacentric
c) Telocentric
d) Sub-metacentric.
(NEET 2021)
10. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are
a) Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria and lysosomes.

b) Endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, ribosomes and lysosomes
c) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles
d) Golgi complex, mitochondria, ribosomes and lysosomes.
(NEET 2021)
11. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
in eukaryotic cells?
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Peroxisomes
c) Golgi bodies
d) Polysomes
(NEET 2020)
12. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic

reticulum.
b) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.
c) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH.
d) Lysosomes are membrane-bound structures.
(NEET 2019)
13. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?
a) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and

ribosomes.
b) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
c) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.
d) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.
(NEET 2019)
14. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are
referred to as
a) m-arm and n-arm respectively

b) s-arm and l-arm respectively
c) p-arm and q-arm respectively
d) q-arm and p-arm respectively.
(NEET 2019)
15. Which of the following pairs of organelles does not contain DNA?
a) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria

b) Mitochondria and Lysosome
c) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
d) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(NEET 2019)
16. Match the column I with column II.
List-I List-II
A) Golgi apparatus i) Synthesis of protein
B) Lysosomes ii) Trap waste and excretory products
C) Vacuoles iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
D) Ribosomes iv) Digesting biomolecules
Choose the right match from option given below.
a) A-(iii) , B-(iv) , C-(ii) , D-(i)

b) A-(iv) , B-(iii) , C-(i) , D-(ii)
c) A-(iii) , B-(ii) , C-(iv) , D-(i)
d) A-(i) , B-(ii) , C-(iv) , D-(iii) (Odisha NEET 2019)
1 1 12 a
2 2 13 c
3 1 14 c
4 3 15 d
5 b 16 a
6 b
7 b
8 d
9 b
10 c
11 c
1. Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because
1) It is a helical molecule.
2) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
3) It breakes down when iodine reacts with it.
4) It is a disaccharide.
(NEET 2023)
2. Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of
1) Amylase
2) Lipase
3) Dinitrogenase
4) Succinic dehydrogenase
(NEET 2023)
Statement I : A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid
(C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal)
Statement II : Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of 𝜶 type
and two subunits of β type)
below:
(NEET 2023)
Statement I : Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state
whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured
by heat.
Statement II : When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular
structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
below:
(NEET 2023)
5. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid

(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or mor c=c bonds
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (a), (d) and (e) only
(3) (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
(NEET 2022)
6. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula
for glucose is C6H20O10 then what is the formula for maltose?
(1) C12H20O10
(2) C12H24O12
(3) C12H22O11
(4) C12H24O11.
(NEET 2022)
7. Match List – I with List –II
List – I List – II
(Biological molecules) (Biological functions)
a) Glycogen (i) Hormones

b) Globulin (ii) Biocatalyst
c) Steroids (iii) Antibody
d) Thrombin (iv) Storage product
choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. (a) –(iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

2. (a) –(iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
3. (a) –(ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
4. (a) –(iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i) , (d) – (ii)
(NEET 2022)
How to Analyse Chemical
Composition?
8. Following are the statements with reference to lipids.
A) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
B) Lecithin is a phospholipid
C) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
D) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
E) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
a) (B) and (E) only

b) (A) and (B) only
c) (C) and (D) only
d) (B) and (C) only
(NEET 2021)
9. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(a) Tyrosine
(b) Glutamic Acid
(c) Lysine
(d) Valine
(NEET 2020)
10. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
(a) Rubber, gums

(b) Morphine, codeine
(c) Amino acids, glucose
(d) vinblastine, curcumin
(NEET 2021)
11. Identify the incorrect pair.
(a) Drugs – Ricin

(b) Alkaloids – Codeine
(c) Toxin – Abrin
(d) Lectins – Concanavalin A
(NEET 2021)
12. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants
for their
(a) nutritive value

(b) growth response
(c) defence action
(d) effect on reproduction.
(NEET 2020)
13. Concanavalin A is
(a) a pigment
(b) an alkaloid
(c) an essential oil
(d) a lectin.
(NEET 2019)
14. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Collagen
(c) Lectin
(d) Insulin
(NEET 2020)
15. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?
(a) GLUT IV
(b) GLUTI
(c) GLUT II
(d) GLUT III
(NEET 2019)
16."Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the structure of
(a) RNA
(b) Proteins
(c) triacylglycerides
(d) DNA.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Nature Of
Bond Linking
Monomers In
A Polymer
17. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
p) Protein i) C=C double bonds
q) Unsaturated fatty acid ii) phosphodiester bonds
r) Nucleic acid iii) Glycosidic bonds
s) Polysaccharide iv) peptide bonds
(p) (q) (r) (s)

a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(NEET 2021)
18. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their
structure.
(a) Chitin , cholesterol

(b) Glycerol , trypsin
(c) Cellulose , lecithin
(d) Inulin , insulin
(NEET 2020)
Enzymes
19. Match the following.
(A) Inhibitor of catalytic activity i) Ricin

(B) Possess peptide bonds ii) Malonate
(C) Cell wall material in fungi iii) Chitin
(D) Secondary metabolite iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following.
A B C D
a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(NEET 2020)
20. Consider the following statements.
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.

(a) (A) is false but (B) is true.
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(c) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(NEET 2019)
21. Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that
(a) they require metal ions for their activity

(b) they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes
(c) their association with apoenzymes is transient
(d) they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme - catalyzed reactions.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
1 2 12 c
2 4 13 d
3 3 14 b
4 4 15 a
5 3 16 b
6 3 17 b
7 4 18 d
8 d 19 a
9 a 20 d
10 c 21 b
11 a
1. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -
1) S phase
2) G₁ phase
3) G2 phase
4) M phase
(NEET 2023)
2. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
1) Metaphase II
2) Anaphase II
3) Telophase
4) Metaphase I
(NEET 2023)
3. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of
prophase I in meiosis?
1) Pachytene
2) Diplotene
3) Diakinesis
4) Zygotene
(NEET 2023)
4. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
A. M phase I. Proteins are synthesized
B. G2 Phase II. Inactive phase
C. Quiescent stage III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
D. G1 Phase IV. Equational division
1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(NEET 2023)
Statement I : During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
Statement II : The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.
below:
(NEET 2023)
6. Select the correct statements.
A. Tetrad formation is seen during leptotene.

B. During anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.
1) B and D only
2) A, C and E only
3) B and E only
4) A and C only
(NEET 2023)
7. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic division?
1) Spindle fiber attach to kinetochores of chromosomes

2) Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
4) Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
(NEET 2022)
8. The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes
during meiosis characterizes:
1) Synaptonemal complex
2) Bivalent
3) Sites at which crossing over occurs
4) Terminalization.
(NEET 2022)
9. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
1) There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II

2) DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II
3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
(NEET 2022)
10. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis :
1) All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase

2) Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes.
3) Chromosomes decondense at telophase.
4) Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase.
(NEET 2022)
11. Match list – I with list-II
List – I List - II
(p) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesised
(q) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
(r) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(s) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
(p) (q) (r) (s)

a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (NEET 2021)
d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
12. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of
mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
number of chromosomes after S phase?
a) 32
b) 8
c) 16
d) 4
(NEET 2021)
13. The centriole undergoes duplication during
a) G2 phase
b) S-phase
c) Prophase
d) Metaphase
(NEET 2021)
14. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of
interphase.
a) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
b) Reorganisation of all cell components takes place
c) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA
d) Nuclear division takes place.
(NEET 2020)
15. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage.
This is called quiescent stage(G0). This process occurs at the end of
a) M phase
b) G1 phase
c) S phase
d) G2 phase
(NEET 2020)
16. Cells in G0 phase
a) Terminate the cell cycle

b) Exit the cell cycle
c) Enter the cell cycle
d) Suspend the cell cycle.
(NEET 2019)
17. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
a) G1 à S à G2 à M
b) M à G1 à G2 à S
c) G1 à G2 à S à M
d) S à G1 à G2 à M
(NEET 2019)
18. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
a) Telophase II
b) Metaphase I
c) Metaphase II
d) Anaphase II
(NEET 2021)
19. Which stage of the meiotic prophase shows terminalization of chiasmata
as its distinctive feature?
a) Pachytene
b) Leptotene
c) Zygotene
d) Diakinesis
(NEET 2021)
20. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during
a) Pachytene
b) Zygotene
c) Diplotene
d) Leptotene
(NEET 2020)
21. Match the following with respect to meiosis.
A) Zygotene i) Terminalization
B) Pachytene ii) Chiasmata
C) Diplotene iii) Crossing over
D) Diakinesis iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option from the following
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(NEET 2020)
22. Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell
cycle?
a) Non – sister chromatids of non – homologous chromosomes at zygotene stage of

prophase I.
b) Non – sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.
c) Non – sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.
d) Non – sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of
prophase I.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
1 1 12 b
2 2 13 b
3 1 14 c
4 2 15 b
5 3 16 b
6 1 17 a
7 3 18 d
8 3 19 d
9 2 20 c
10 2 21 b
11 d 22 b
1. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at
1) 700nm
2) 660nm
3) 780nm
4) 680nm
(NEET 2023)
2. Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
1) Molybdenum
2) Magnesium
3) Copper
4) Manganese
(NEET 2023)
3. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose
during Calvin cycle?
1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2

(NEET 2023)
4. Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?
1) Membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase

2) Proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase
3) Proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase
4) Membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase
(NEET 2023)
Statement I: The primary Co2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the
mesophyll cells.
Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack rubisco enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2) Both Statement I and Statement II is in correct
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement is incorrect bur Statement II is correct
(NEET 2022)
6. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy
during ATP synthesis through Chemiosmosis? It involves:
1) Breakdown of proton gradient

2) Breakdown of electron gradient
3) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
4) Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane
(NEET 2022)
7. What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular
bundles in C4 plants?
1. To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway

2. To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle
3. To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature
4 .To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity
(NEET 2022)
EARLY EXPERIMENTS
8. One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and
illuminated the culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that
bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of
a) violet and green light

b) indigo and green light
c) Orange and yellow light
d) blue and red light.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
9. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from
a) PS-II to Cytb6f complex

b) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
c) PS-I to NADP+
d) PS-I to ATP synthase.
(NEET 2020)
a) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PSI and PS II.

b) Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are synthesised during non-cyclic
photophosphorylation.
c) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
d) Grana lamellae have both PSI and PS II.
(NEET 2021)
11. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is
a) phosphoglyceric acid
b) pyruvic acid
c) oxaloacetic acid
d) succinic acid.
(NEET 2021)
12. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCO enzyme in photorespiration leads to
the formation of
a) 2 molecules of 3-C compound

b) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
c) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
d) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
(NEET 2020)
1 4 12 b
2 4
3 1
4 4
5 1
6 2
7 2
8 d
9 a
10 a
11 c
Reason (R).
Assertion (A):- ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason (R):- First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second
ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate.
(NEET 2023)
2. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
A. Oxidative I. Citrate synthase
B. Glycolysis II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Oxidative phosphorylation III. Electron transport system
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle IV. EMP pathway

2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(NEET 2023)
3. What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid
fermentation?
(1) Approximately 15%

(2) More than 18%
(3) About 10%
(4) Less than 7%
(NEET 2022)
4. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to
Two molecules of Pyruvic acid?
1) Four
2) Six
3) Two
4) Eight
(NEET 2022)
5. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible
reaction of glycolysis, is catalysed by
a) phosphofructokinase
b) Aldolase
c) Hexokinase
d) enolase.
(NEET 2019)
6. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid
cycle is
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
(NEET 2020)
7. Where is respiratory electron transport system (ETS) located in plants?
a) Mitochondrial matrix
b) Outer mitochondrial membrane
c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
d) Intermembrane space
(Odisha NEET 2019)
The Respiration Balance Sheet
a) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.

b) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise
to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
d) ATP is synthesised through complex V.
(NEET 2021)
9. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is
a) 0.09
b) 0.9
c) 0.7
d) 0.07.
(NEET 2019)
Q. No Answer
1 4
2 3
3 4
4 3
5 c
6 b
7 c
8 c
9 c
1. Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening
the maturity period, that leads to early seed production?
1) Gibberellic Acid
2) Zeatin
3) Abscisic acid
4) Indole-3-butyric acid
(NEET 2023)
2. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form
callus. This phenomenon may be called as:
1) Dedifferentiation
2) Development
3) Senescence
4) Differentiation
(NEET 2023)
3. Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
1) Kinetin
2) Ethylene
3) 2, 4-D
4) GA3
(NEET 2023)
4. Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
1) Cotton
2) Coriander
3) Buttercup
4) Maize
(NEET 2022)
5. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :
1. Speed up the malting process
2. Promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption
surface
3. Help overcome apical dominance
4. Kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
(NEET 2022)
6. Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years.
Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this
increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in
the plants:
(1) ABA
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin
(NEET 2022)
7. The process of growth is maximum during
a) Log phase
b) Lag phase
c) Senescence
d) Dormancy
(NEET 2020)
development
8. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phase of
life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called
a) Maturity
b) Elasticity
c) Flexibility
d) Plasticity
(NEET 2021)
9. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is
a) IBA
b) IAA
c) NAA
d) 2,4-D
(NEET2021)
10. Name the plant growth regulator a which upon spraying on sugarcane
crop, increase the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
crop
a) Cytokinin
b) Gibberellin
c) Ethylene
d) Abscisic acid
(NEET 2020)
11. Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed
dormancy?
a) Gibberellic acid
b) Abscisic acid
c) Phenolic acid
d) Pare-ascorbic acid
(NEET 2020)
12. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which
combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in
Pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?
a) Cytokinin and abscisic acid

b) Auxin and ethylene
c) Gibberellin and cytokinin
d) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(NEET 2019)
13. The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
a) Leaf
b) Shoot apex
c) Stem
d) Axillary bud.
(NEET 2021)
14. What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction
of flowering in plants?
a) Leaves
b) Lateral buds
c) Pulvinus
d) Shoot apex
(NEET 2019)
1 1 12 b
2 1 13 a
3 2 14 a
4 4
5 2
6 3
7 a
8 d
9 d
10 b
11 a
Breathing and
Exchange of Gases
1. Vital capacity of lung is________.
1) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
2) IRV + ERV + TV – RV
3) IRV + ERV + TV
4) IRV + ERV
(NEET 2023)
2. Which of the following is not the function of Conducting part of
respiratory system?
(1) It clears inhaled air from foreign particles

(2) Inhaled air is humidified
(3) Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature
(4) Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO₂
(NEET 2022)
Mechanism
of Breathing
3. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration?
1) Contraction of diaphragm
2) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
3) Pulmonary volume decreases
4) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
a) (1) and (2)

b) (3) and (4)
c) (1), (2) and (4)
d) Only (4)
(NEET 2020)
4. Tidal volume and expiration reserve volume of an athlete is 500 mL and
1000 mL respectively. What will be his expiratory capacity if the residual
volume is 1200 mL?
a) 2700 mL
b) 1500 mL
c) 1700 mL
d) 2200 mL
(NEET 2019)
5. Select the correct statement.
a) Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.

b) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during
inspiration.
c) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary
pressure.
d) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Exchange
of Gases
6. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2)
at alveoli (the site or diffusion) are
a) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3

b) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
c) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
d) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(NEET 2021)
Transport of Gases
7. Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
a) Low pO2 low pCO2 more H+ , higher temperature

b) High pO2 low pCO2 less H+ , lower temperature
c) Low pO2 high pCO2 more H+ , higher temperature
d) High pO2 high pCO2 less H+ , higher temperature
(NEET 2021)
8. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen?
a) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure

of O2
b) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin.
c) Higher H+ conc . in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
d) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(NEET 2020)
Disorders of Respiratory
System
9. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban
areas are suffering from respiratory disorder that cause wheezing due to?
a) reduction in the secretion of surfactant by pneumocytes

b) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity
c) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
d) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls.
(NEET 2019)
Q. No Answer
1 3
2 4
3 a
4 b
5 b
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 c
List-I List-II
A. P – wave I. Beginning of systole
B. Q – wave II. Repolarisation of ventricles
C. QRS complex III. Depolarisation of atria
D. T – wave IV. Depolarisation of ventricles
1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(NEET 2023)
2. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs

B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
E. Basophils are agranulocytes
1) C and E only
2) B and C only
3) A and B only
4) D and E only
(NEET 2023)
3. Given below are two statement :
Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels
and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements , choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1. Both statement I and statement II are correct
2. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(NEET 2022)
4. Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can
deliver………………… ml of O2 to the tissues.
1. 2ml
2. 5ml
3. 4ml
4. 10ml
(NEET 2022)
Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(NEET 2022)
6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
2. The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous
contraction of the atria
3. Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
4. Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves
(NEET 2022)
Blood
7. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to
a) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma

b) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
c) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
d) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B on RBCs
(NEET 2021)
8. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?
a) Thrombokinase
b) Thrombin
c) Renin
d) Epinephrine
(NEET 2021)
9. Match the following columns and select the correct option?
Column-I Column-II
A) Eosinophils i) Immune response
B) Basophils ii) Phagocytosis
C) Neutrophils iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes
D) Lymphocytes iv) Release granules containing histamine
A B C D
a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(NEET 2020)
10. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents?
a) repolarization of auricles
b) depolarization of auricles
c) depolarization of ventricles
d) repolarization of ventricles
(NEET 2020)
11. Match the column - I with column - II.
Column-I Column-II
A) P-wave i) Depolarization of ventricles
B) QRS complex ii) Repolarization of ventricles
C) T-wave iii) Coronary ischaemia
D) Reduction in the size of T-wave iv) Depolarization of atria
v) Repolarization of atria
A B C D
A B C D
a) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
a) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
c) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
c) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
d) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
d) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
(NEET 2019)
12. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles
at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
a) 125 beats per minute

b) 50 beats per minute
c) 75 beats per minute
d) 100 beats per minute
(NEET 2019)
1 4 12 d
2 2
3 1
4 2
5 4
6 3
7 a
8 b
9 a
10 c
11 b
1. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):- Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their
relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason (R):- Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical
nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
(NEET 2023)
List-I List-II
A. Taenia I. Nephridia
B. Paramoecium II. Contractile vacuole
C. Periplaneta III. Flame cells
D. Pheretima IV. Urecose gland

(NEET 2023)
3. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR
1) B, C and D only
2) A, B and E only
3) C, D and E only
4) A and B only
(NEET 2023)
4. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:
(1) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Salamandra
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Pavo
(NEET 2022)
Mechanism of
Concentration
of the Filtrate
5. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of
concentrated urine?
a) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration.
b) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone.
c) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards the medullary interstitium in the
kidneys.
d) Secretion of erythropoietin by juxtaglomerular complex.
(NEET 2019)
Regulation of
Kidney Function
6. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
a) More water reabsorption due to under secretion of ADH.
b) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone.
c) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
d) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells.
(NEET 2020)
Disorders of the Excretory System
7. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in?
A) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
B) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
C) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
D) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
a) (A) and (D) are correct
b) (A) and (B) are correct
c) (B) and (C) are correct
d) (C) and (D) are correct
(NEET 2019)
Q. No Answer
1 2
2 2
3 1
4 4
5 c
6 b
7 d
Locomotion
and
Movement
1. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
(Type of Joint) (Found between)
A. Cartilaginous Joint I. Between flat skull bones
B. Ball and Socket Joint II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
C. Fibrous Joint III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
D. Saddle Joint IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle

2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(NEET 2023)
2. Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due distribution pattern of actin and myosin
proteins.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) B and C only
2) A, C and D only
3) C and D only
4) A, B and C only
(NEET 2023)
3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen
In the light of the above statements , choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(NEET 2022)
4. Which of the following is correct a match for disease and its symptoms?
(1) Arthritis - Inflammed joints

(2) Tetany - high Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms.
(3) Myasthenia gravis - Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal
muscle
(4) Muscular dystrophy An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of
skeletal muscle
(NEET 2022)
5. Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral
column?
(1) Intercalated discs

(2) Cartilage
(3) Areolar tissue
(4) Smooth muscle
(NEET 2022)
Muscle
6. During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?
a) ’H’ zone disappears.

b) ‘A’ band widens.
c) ‘T’ band reduces in width.
d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and P.
e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) (B) , (D) , (E) , (A) only
b) (A) , (C) , (D) , (E) only
c) (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) only
d) (B) , (C) , (D) , (E) only
(NEET 2021)
Skeletal
system
Column-I Column-II
A) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs
B) Acromion (ii) Head of the humerus
C) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
D) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (NEET 2020)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
8. Select the correct option.
a) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs
of vertebral ribs.
b) 8th , 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum
c) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline
cartilage
d) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum
(NEET 2019)
Joints
List-I List-II
p) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
q) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
r) Sternum (iii) fibrous joints
s) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone

p q r s
a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(NEET 2021)
10. Match the following joints with the bones involved:
Between carpal and metacarpal of

1) Gliding joint i) thumb
2) Hinge joint ii) Between atlas and axis
3) Pivot joint iii) Between the carpals
4) Saddle joint iv) Between humerus and ulna
Select the correct option from the following:
a) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)

b) (1)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iii)
c) (1)-(iv), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(i)
d) (1)-(i), (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv)
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Disorders of muscular
and
skeletal system
11. Chronic autoimmune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as
a) gout
b) arthritis
c) muscular dystrophy
d) myasthenia gravis
(NEET 2021)
12. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?
a) Botulism
b) Tetany
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Myasthenia gravis
(NEET 2019)
1 1 12 c
2 1
3 3
4 1
5 2
6 b
7 d
8 a
9 a
10 a
11 d
Neural Control and
Coordination
1. Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.
List-I List-II
A. Fovea I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil.
B. Iris II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue.
C. Blind spot III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.
D. Sclera IV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent.
1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(NEET 2023)
2. The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of
excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are:
1) Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus

2) Brain stem & epithalamus
3) Corpus callosum and thalamus
4) Limbic system & hypothalamus
(NEET 2023)
3. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:
1) The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity

in an electrical synapse.
2) Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the
electrical synapse.
3) Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
4) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that
across an electrical synapse.
(NEET 2022)
Central
Neural
System
4. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?
a) Medulla oblongata
b) Cerebrum
c) Hypothalamus
d) Corpus callosum
(NEET 2019)
Sensory
Reception
and
Processin
g
Column-I Column-II
A) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx
B) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth
C) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval window
D) Stapes (iv) Located on the basilar membrane
A B C D
a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(NEET 2020)
6. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive

portion of the eye.
b) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinaceous covering
of the eye-ball.
c) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
d) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularized
(NEET 2019)
7. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) An action potential in an axon does not move backward because the

segment behind is in a refractory phase.
b) Depolarization of hair cells of cochlea results in the opening of the
mechanically gated potassium-ion channels.
c) Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight vision.
d) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of muscle and response is
its contraction.
(Odisha NEET 2019)
8. Which of the following receptors are specifically responsible for
maintenance of balance of body and posture?
a) Basilar membrane and otoliths

b) Hair cells and organ of corti
c) Tectorial membrane and macula
d) Crista ampullaris and macula
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Q. No Answer
1 4
2 4
3 4
4 c
5 b
6 a
7 c
8 d
Chemical Coordination
and Integration
1. Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance

B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of R.B.Cs formation
1) B and C only
2) C and D only
3) D and E only
4) A and D only
(NEET 2023)
2. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
b) Decrease Ca2+ level in blood
c) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
d) Decrease the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food
e) Increase metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1. (a) and (c) only
2. (b) , (d) and (e) only
3. (a) and (e) only
4. (b) and (c) only
(NEET 2022)
Human Endocrine
System
3. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of
diabetes mellitus?
a) Uremia and Ketonuria

b) Uremia and Renal Calculi
c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
d) Renal calculi and hyperglycemia
(NEET 2020)
A) Pituitary gland i) Grave’s disease
B) Thyroid gland ii) Diabetes mellitus
C) Adrenal gland iii) Diabetes insipidus
D) Pancreas iv) Addison’s disease
A B C D
a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(NEET 2020)
5. Select the correct statement.
a) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis

b) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia
c) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes
d) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(NEET 2020)
6. Match the following hormones with their respective disease.
Insulin i) Addison’s disease

A)
Thyroxin ii) Diabetes insipidus
B)
C) Corticoids iii) Acromegaly
D) Growth hormones iv) Goitre
v) Diabetes mellitus
A B C D
a) (ii) (iv) (i( iii)
b) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
c) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
d) (v) (iv) (i) (iii) (NEET 2019)
Hormones of Heart,
Kidney and
Gastrointestinal Tract
7. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C formation is produced by
a) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

b) Alpha cells of pancreas
c) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
d) The cells of bone marrow.
(NEET 2021)
Mechanism of
Hormone Action
8. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?
a) Using aquaporin channels ‘as second messenger’

b) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane
c) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex
d) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane
(NEET 2019)
9. Identify A,B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of
hormone action.
Select the correct option from the following.
a) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Hormone-receptor Complex; C-Protein

b) A-Protein Hormone; B-Receptor; C-Cyclic AMP
c) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Receptor; C-second messenger
d) A-Protein Hormone; B-Cyclic AMP; C-Hormone-receptor Complex
(Odisha NEET 2019)
Q. No Answer
1 2
2 2
3 c
4 c
5 a
6 d
7 a
8 c
9 b

11th PYQ (Past 5 Years Question) - Compressed Biology

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11th PYQ (Past 5 Years Question) - Compressed Biology

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11th Class

Last 5 Year Questions

(1) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

a) Hand written scientific names should be underlined

(Odisha NEET 2019)

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(1) Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

a) A-(iv) , B-(i) , C-(iii) , D-(ii)

a) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread like hyphae.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) They have RNA with protein coat.

a) inert crystalline structure

(Odisha NEET 2019)

a) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.

1) Selaginella and Salvinia

1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

a) Blue – green algae

a) starch and cellulose

a) Laminaria and Sargassum

1) Hairs, pinna and mammary glands

A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Corvus , Columba , Chameleon

A) Organ system level of organisation

a) Annelida , Mollusca and Chordata

(Odisha NEET 2019)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A) Metagenesis is observed in helminths

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) (B) , (C) and (E) are correct

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A) In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail and it is present

a) (D) and (C)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Select the correct option from the following.

Select the correct option.

a) (1) – (iv) (2) – (i) (3) – (iii) (4) – (ii)

1) China rose, Beans and Lupin

1) Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Chin rose and citrus

( Odisha NEET 2019 )

A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) Only

Choose the correct answer from options given below:

(1) (a) and (b) Only

(a) both sieve tubes and companion cells

(a) lateral meristem

(Odisha NEET 2019)

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(i) Large number of scattered vascular surrounded by bundle sheath bundles

Identify the category of plant and its part.

(a) Monocotyledonous stem.

(a) Tyloses in vessels

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis – Spongy parenchyma

(a) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.