Constitution of India

The most simplified preparations for Civil Judge Examination
Preamble and Citizenship A. Republic 1. Head of State is not a hereditary

1. Who said that “Preamble to the Constitution of India is monarch
its spirit and back”? B. Secular 2. State does not recognize any
(a) Justice P. N. Bhagwati religion as a state religion
(b) Justice R. C. Lahoti C. Democracy 3. A form of government which
(c) Justice J.S. Verma gets its authority from the will of
(d) Justice Krishna lyer people
(U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] Code:
A B C
2. In the context of the Preamble of the Constitution, the (a) 1 2 3
following statement is not correct: (b) 1 3 2
(a) It can be used to remove ambiguities (c) 2 3 1
(b) It was duly passed by the Constituent Assembly (d) 3 2 1
(c) It can be amended [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(d) It is not a part of the Constitution
(U.P. P.C.S. 2001) 7. DT Indicate the correct answer:
Preamble of the Constitution
3. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as: (a) Is not a part of the Constitution
(a) A Socialist Democratic Republic (b) Is a part of the Constitution but it is not an
(b) A Sovereign Socialist Secular operative part of the Constitution
(c) Democratic Republic (c) Is an operative part of the Constitution
(d) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (d) Has no relationship with the Constitution
(e) None of the above [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
[M.P. (J) 2009]
8. In Re Berubari and Exchange of Enclaves the Supreme
4. Which of the following is correct about the preamble to Court held that—
the Constituent of India? (a) Rule of law is not a part of Constitution
(a) It was adopted after adoption of operative (b) Rule of law is a part of Constitution
Articles of Constitution (c) Preamble is not a part of Constitution
(b) It envisages that all citizens have fundamental (d) Preamble is a part of Constitution
rights [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
(c) I seeks to secure good livelihood to all
(d) It is not a part of the Constitution 9 Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance
[Delhi (J) 2014] and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in
the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the
5. The Preamble to the Constitution of India proclaims to Preamble."
establish a This observation was made by Chief Justice Sikri in case
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic of
(b) Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic (a) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(c) Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic (b) In re Berubari case
(d) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic (c) Keshwanand Bharati v. State of Kerala
Republic (d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
(U.P. Lower 2008) [U.P. Lower 2009]
10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

6. Match list 1 with list I] and select the correct answer (a) The Preamble is a key to the, understanding of the
using the codes given below the lists: mind of founding fathers
(b) The Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith
List I List II and aspirations of the people
Office – 3rd Floor Impetus Campus 18 MP Nagar Zone II Bhopal. Mo. 9717592432
(c) The Preamble embodies the intentions of the 16. By which amendment, the words Secular and Socialist
founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution were included in the preamble?
(d) The Preamble of the Constitution has no (a) 1st Amendment
importance. It is no more than an introduction (b) 6thAmendment |
to the Constitution (c) 42nd Amendment.
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (d) 44th Amendment.
[Bihar (j) 2009]
11. In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, it was
remarked that our Preamble contains in a nutshell in 17. The word “socialism” and “secular were inserted in the
ideals and aspirations’. Who was the Judge? Preamble of the Constitution by the:
(a) Mathew, J. (a) Fifteenth Amendment
(b) Krishna lyer, J. (b) Thirty-ninth Amendment
(c) Subba Raa, J. (c) Forty-second Amendment
(d) H.R. Khanna, J. (d) Forty-fourth Amendment
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
18. We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to
12. Preamble is the part of the Constitution. This constitute India into a sovereign "Socialist Secular
‘observation of Supreme Court was held in the case of: Democratic Republic" were substituted in the
(a) Keshvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Preamble of the Constitution by:
(b) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan (a) Forty-second Amendment
(c) D.K. Basu v. Union of India (b) Forty-fourth Amendment
(d) R.S. Nayak v. A.R. Antulay (c) Forty-fifth Amendment
[M.P. (J) 2019] (d) Eighteenth Amendment
[U.P. Lower 1998]
13. The words ‘Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
Republic’ was introduced in the Preamble by the: 19. The word, “secular” used in the Preamble of the
(a) Fifteenth Amendment Constitution of India means:
(b) Thirty ninth Amendment (a) The State has no religion of its own
(c) Forty-second Amendment (b) All religions are treated equally
(d) Forty-fourth Amendment (c) The State has no common religion
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
14. The Preamble of the Constitution of India was
amended by which of the following: 20. Preamble of the Constitution was amended and the
(a) 38th Constitution Amendment words “Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
(b) 39th Constitution Amendment Republic” were substituted for “Sovereign Democratic
(c) 21st Constitution Amendment Republic”
(d) 42nd Constitution Amendment Vide:
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] (a) 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20-11-2006
(b) 85th Amendment w.e.f. 17-06-1995
(c) 42nd Amendment w.e.f. 3-1-1977
15. Preamble was amended by: (d) 44th Amendment w.e,f. 20-06-1979
(a) 1st Amendment [M.P. (J) 2010]
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 24th Amendment 21. The Preamble to the Constitution of India:
(d) 89th Amendment
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) Contains the Resolution to constitute India into
inter alia a Socialist Republic, since the framing of
the Constitution
(b) The word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the (c) 26th November, 1949
Preamble by the 42nd Amendment With effect (d) 26th January, 1950
from 3rd January, 1977 [U.P. Lower 1998]
(c) Never contained the word ‘Socialist’ [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
(d) The word ‘Socialist’ was dropped by the 42 nd
Amendment (supra) 28. On which one of the following dates, the Constitution
[Delhi (J) 2011] of India was adopted and finalized by the Constituent
Assembly?
22. Indian Constitution was adopted and enacted by the (a) 26th January, 1950
Constituent Assembly of India on: (b) 26th November, 1949
(a) 9th December, 1946 (c) 26th November, 1950 ’
(b) 26th January, 1946 (d) 26th January, 1949
(c) 26th November, 1976 [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(d) 26th January, 1950
[M.P.A.P.P. 2008] 29. Who amongst the following is sovereign in India?
(a) President of India
23. The Constitution of India as framed by the Constituent (b) Prime Minister of India
Assembly was finally adopted and enacted on: (c) Council of Ministers Headed by the Prime
(a) 15th August, 1947 Minister
(b) 30th January, 1948 (d) We the People of India
(c) 26th November, 1949 [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
(d) 26th January, 1950 [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
30. The Preamble of our Constitution proclaims ourselves
24. When was the Constitution of India enacted? as a Sovereign Republic. In whom does the
(a) 15th August, 1947 Sovereignty vest?
(b) 26th January, 1950 (a) People of India
(c) 26th November, 1949 (b) The Constitution of India
(d) 2nd October, 1947 (c) The Parliament
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (d) The Supreme Court of India
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
25. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court
has declared Article 15 (5) as Constitutional? 31. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to
(a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (a) The Constituent Assembly
(b) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (b) The Parliament
(c) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (c) The whole society
(d) T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (d) The people of India
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
26. The Chairman of the Constitution Assembly was
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
32. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court
(b) Jaiprakash Narayan
observed that the Preamble of the Constitution
(c) C. Rajagopaiachari
contains the basic structure of our Constitution?
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(a) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Keshwanand Bharti v. State cf Kerala
(c) Minarva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
27. The Constitution of India as framed by the Constituent
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Assembly was finally adopted and enacted on:
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 30th January, 1948
33. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court (c) Prof. K.C. Wheare
hold that the Preamble to the Constitution is a part of (d) H.M. Seerval
its basic structure? [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
(a) Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India 39. Assertion (A) In federalism, there is a
(c) Indra Sahney V. Union of India division of power
(d) Lakshmi Kant Pandey v. Union of India between the Centre and
[M.P. H.J.S. 2011] the States.
Reasoning (R) The legislation is not
34. Preamble to the Constitution of India: invalid merely because
(a) is not a part of the Constitution it incidentally
(b) indicates the objectives to be achieved encroaches on the
(c) indicates the source from which the matters which have
Constitution derives its authority been assigned to
(d) is not related to the objectives of the Constitution another legislature.
(U.P. P.C.S. 2001)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
35. Which one of the following does not find place in the explanation of (A)
Preamble of the Constitution of India? (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
(a) Economic justice correct explanation of (A)
(b) Dignity of the individual (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Liberty of expression (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Education for all [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
40. ‘The Constitution establishes a System of Government
36. Which one of the following is not the way of which is almost quasi-federal.’ This was a statement
Termination of Citizenship? of
(a) By renunciation (a) Sir Ivor Jennings
(b) By acquisition (b) Prof. K.C. Wheare
(c) The tour journey of another State for few (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
months (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) By deprivation [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
[U.P. Lower 1998]
(2)
CHARACTERISTIC OF CONSTITUTION 41. Prof. K. C. Wheare said that our Constitution is at
most:
37. Which one of the following is considered as a Supreme (a) Federal Structure
Source of power? (b) Quasi-Federal
(a) Supreme Court of India (c) Weak Federation
(b) Parliament of India (d) Strong Federation
(c) President of India. [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(d) Constitution of India
[U.P.P.S.C. (J) 2015] 42. The Constitution of India is federal in character
38. Who amongst the following made the statement that because -
"The Indian Constitution establishes a system of (a) The Head of the State (the President) is elected
Government which is almost quasi-federal’. (b) The Governors of States are appointed a by the
(a) Sir lvor Jennings. President and they hold office during the pleasure
(b) Dr. D. D. Basu of the president.
(c) There is distribution of powers between the 47. Consider the following statements - The Indian
Union and the States Constitution is
(d) The amendment of the Constitution can be made 1. unwritten Constitution
only by following the procedure laid down in the 2. written Constitution
Constitution and in some cases the amendment 3. largely based on the Government of India Act,
requires ratification by legislatures of the States. 1935
[U.P. Lower 1998] (a) 2and 1 are correct
(b) 2and 3 are correct 5
43. After which one of the following Supreme Court (c) Only 2 is correct
decisions was the special provision for socially and (d) 1 and 3, are correct
educationally backward classes, introduced by an [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Amendment of the Constitution of India?
(a) D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat 48. Which one of the following is not the salient feature of
(b) MLR. Balaji v. State of Mysore the Constitution of India?
(c) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (a) The largest Constitution in the world
(d) T. Devadasan v. Union of India (b) Parliamentary Form of Government
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] (c) Dual citizenship
(d) Independence of judiciary
44. Which one of the following 1s not correct about [U.P. Lower 2009]
Parliamentary form of Government?
(a) The Head of the State can dissolve the Lower 49. The number of Articles and Schedules in original
House of the Legislature Indian Constitution was
(b) The executive is a part of the Legislature (a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
(c) The executive is responsible to the Legislature (b) 394 Articles and 9 Schedules
(d) All the Ministers are the Members of Lower (c) 396 Articles and 10 Schedules
House (d) 395 Articles and 7 Schedules
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
45. "The Indian Constitution provides a Unitary State with 50. Which one of the following is not an essential
subsidiary federal features, rather than federal state characteristic of a federal Constitution?
with subsidiary unitary features.” This statement has (a) Distribution of Powers
been made by? (b) Supremacy of the Constitution
(a) Sir Ivor Jennings (c) Presidential form of Government
(b) A. V. Dicey (d) A written Constitution
(c) K.C. Wheare [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(d) S.A. de-Smith 51. The Constitution of India is:
[U.P. Lower 2008] (a) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(b) Rigid
46. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of (c) Flexible
the Constitution of India? (d) None of the above
(a) Written Constitution and Supremacy of the [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Constitution
(b) Quasi Federal Structure 52. Who amongst the following has said that “Indian
(c) Committed Judiciary Constitution is a federation with strong centralizing
(d) Distribution of Powers tendency”?
[U.P. Lower 2008] (a) K.C. Wheare
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (b) A.V. Dicey
(c) Sir Ivor Jennines
(d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] 58. Which of the following is included in the concept of
‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?
(3) (a) Railway Board (b) Judiciary
(c) University (d) All of these
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT [M.P. (J) 2012]
53. Which one of the following is not ‘State’ under Article
59. Which one of the following is not ‘State’ for the
12 of the Constitution of India?
purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution:
(a) Delhi Stock Exchange
(a) National Council of Educational Research and
(b) UP. Co-operative Land Development Bank
Training
(c) U.P. Rajya Karmachari Kalyan Nigam
(b) A Nationalized Bank
(d) U.P. Ganna Kisan Sansthan
(c) Institute of Medical Education and Research,
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
Chandigarh
(a) Grih Kalyan Kendra
54. Which one of the following does not fall within the
[U.P. Lower 1998]
meaning of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Constitution?
(a) Barkatullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal
61. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of
(b) Government of India and the Parliament
Article 12?
(c) British Airways Corporation
1. National Council of Education Research and
(d) Bhopal Municipal Corporation
Training
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
2. Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary
Studies
55. Which of the following is not a state under Article 12
3. Indian Oil Corporation
of the Indian Constitution?
4. High Court of Delhi
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
[Delhi (J) 2014]
(b) State Bank of India
(c) National Council of Educational Research and
62. Which one among the following is not relevant factor
Training
to decide whether an agency or instrumentality should
(d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
be treated as ‘State’ under Article 12 of the
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
Constitution of India?
(a) Deep and pervasive State control
56. Indicate the correct answer: The definition of the term
(b) Monopoly status conferred or recognized by the
"State" given in Article 12 of the Constitution is
State
relevant for the following:
(c) Functions which are of public importance
(a) Only Part III of the Constitution
(d) Profit earning
(b) Only Part III & Part IV of the Constitution
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Only Part IV of the Constitution
(d) Whole of the Constitution
63. Which one of the following is not included within the
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
definition of ‘State’ for the purpose of Article 12 of the
Constitution?
57. Which out of the following is not covered under ‘State’
(a) A Co-operative Society
of Article 12 of the Constitution?
(b) U.P. Co-operative Land Development Bank
(a) Central Govt.
(c) National Council of Educational Research and
(b) State Govt.
Training
(c) University of Patna
(d) U.P. Rajya Karmchari Kalyan Nigam
(d) A Deity
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
[Bihar (J) 2009]
64. The term ‘state’ as defined in Article 12 of the

Constitution of India includes: 69. No person has fundamental right to:
(a) Life Insurance Corporation of India (a) basic education
(b) Indian Law Institute (b) practice a profession
(c) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary (c) form association
Studies (d) approach the High Courts for enforcement of
(d) All the above his fundamental rights
[U.P. P.C.S. 20[01] [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
65. Which one of the following is considered to be

included within the definition of ‘state as per Article 70. Which one of the following rights is available to an
12 of the Constitution for the purpose of enforcement Indian citizen as fundamental right
of fundamental rights? (a) right to freedom
(a) Life Insurance Corporation of India (b) right to property
(b) Partnership Firm (c) right to equality
(c) A government company registered under the (d) right to life
Companies Act, 1956 [U.P.P.C.S. 2000]
(d) A Co-operative society registered under the Co-
operative Societies Act, 1912 71. Which one of the following is not fundamental right
[U.P.P.C.S 2000] (a) Right to equality
(b) Right to form association or union
66. Which one of the following is State’ under Article 12 (c) Right to strike
of the Indian Constitution for the purpose of (d) Right against exploitation
enforcement of Fundamental Rights? [U.P. Lower 1998]
(a) A partnership firm
(b) A company established under the Companies Act 72. In the event of the infringement of a fundamental right
(c) A Co-operative Society the Supreme Court may refuse to give relief on the
(d) The Life Insurance Corporation of India following ground:
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) Laches
(b) Res-judicata
67. In the light of the definition of ‘State’ which of the (c) Both
following is not a State? (d) None of the above
(a) Indian Statistical Institute [U.P.P.C.S. 2001]
(b) Institute of Constitution and Parliamentary
Affairs 73. The doctrine of eclipse applies to:
(c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (a) only to pre-constitutional laws
(d) Prathama Bank (b) to post-constitutional law but only in respect of
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] non-citizens
68. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court (c) to post-constitutional laws but only in respect of
held that establishment and management of an citizens
educational institution is a part of the fundamental (d) to all laws-pre-constitutional as well as post-
rights? constitutional
(a) St. John Teachers Training Institute v. State of Tail [M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
Nadu
(b) T.M.A. Pai foundation v. State of Karnataka 74. In which one of the following cases it was held by the
(c) L.N.M. Institute of Economic Development and Supreme Court that fundamental rights cannot be
Social Change v. State of Bihar waived?
(d) S. P. Mittal v. Union of India (a) Behram Khursid Pesikaka v. State of Bombay
[U.P.P.C.S. 2010] (b) Basheshar Nath v. Income-tax Commissioner
(c) Oliga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation 1. It tends to elevate the judiciary to the rank of
(d) All the above super-legislature
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] 2. Its scope is limited as it emphasizes the procedure
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] establish, rather than ‘due process of law.
3. It includes judicial competence to review
75. Which one of the following cases relates to doctrine of executive enforcement legislative enactments.
severability? 4. It is indispensable to 4 federal system of
(a) Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab government.
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Romesh Thapur v. State of Madras (a) 1,2,3,4
(d) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (b) 1,2,3
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] (c) 1,2
(d) 1,3,4
76. One can waive: [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) any of the fundamental rights
(b) any of the fundamental rights except those which 81. Which one of the following is not included in the term
form part of the basic structure ‘law’ stated in Article 13 (2) of the Constitution?
(c) none of the fundamental rights (a) An Act of Parliament
(d) all those fundamental rights which are meant to (b) Custom
protect individual interests only 8 (c) Regulation
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (d) Amendment of Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
77. Which one of the following doctrine is not related to
Article 13 of the Constitution? 82. Which one of the following cases relates to doctrine of
(a) Doctrine of Severability eclipse?
(b) Doctrine of Waiver (a) Bhikaji v. State of M.P.
(c) Doctrine of Pith and Substance (b) Keshava Madhav Menon v. State of Bombay
(d) Doctrine of Eclipse (c) State of Bihar v. Syed Asad Raza
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999, 2001] (d) Harbans Singh v. State of U.P.
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
78. The doctrine of prospective over-rulings was first
evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in: 83. According to Constitution of India, pre-‘constitutional
(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab laws inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights are
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (a) Required to be examined by the Courts.
(c) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (b) Void
(d) Maneka Gandhi. v. Union of India (c) Voidable
[U.P.P.C.S. 2002] (d) None of the above
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
79. Under which of the following Articles laws
inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are 84. The leading case on Doctrine of Eclipse is:
declared void? (a) RM.D.C.v.U.0.1.
(a) Article 12 (b) Jagannath Prasad v. State of U.P.
(b) Article 13 (c) Bhikaji v. State of M. P.
(c) Article 11 (d) Kameshwar Prasad v. State of Bihar
(d) Article 21 [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
[M.P. A.P. P. 2002]
85. The objective of the Article 13 of the Constitution of
80. Regarding judicial review, it would be correct o say India is to:
that (a) Secure paramountcy to the fundamental rights
(b) limit the legislative power of the State is consumed by the public is unconstitutional.” It was
(c) define the word ‘law' held in:
(d) expand the powers of the Courts (a) Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (b) C. B. Bharucha v. Excise Commissioner
(c) K. Rajendran v. State of Tamil Nadu
86. Which of the following Articles of the Indian (d) Payal Sharma v. Nari Niketan
Constitution provides for power of judicial review of [U.P. Lower 2008]
legislative functions?
(a) Article 13 (b) Article 17 92. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme
(c) Article 18 (d) Article 245 Court uphold the law which had prohibited a person
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] from contesting panchayat elections if he/she had more
than two living children?
87. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by (a) Javed v. State of Haryana
(a) Supreme Court alone (b) Jat Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) By all Courts (c) Quareshi v. State of Bihar
(c) Supreme Court as well as High Courts (d) Air India v. Nargesh Mirza
(d) None of the Courts [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
88. “The guarantee of equality before the law is an aspect 93. A law which disqualifies a person with more than two
of the rule of law in England.” children from holding the post of Panch/Sarpanch IS
This is the opinion of: valid and not violative of Article 14 of the
(a) Dicey (b) Jennings Constitution. In which of the following recent case the
(c) Wheare (d) Salmond Supreme Court gave such decision?
[U.P. Lower 2008] (a) P.U.C.L. v. Union of India
(b) Javed v. State of Haryana
89. Article 14 does not encompass: (c) Indira Jaysingh v. Registrar General
(1) Equality before law (d) Mohd. Aslam v. Union of India
(2) Equal protection of laws [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
(3) Protection against arbitrary action
(4) Protection of life and liberty 94. In which case it was held that the function of the
[Delhi (J) 2011] Speaker while applying the anti-defection law is like
90. Article 14 permits classification but prohibits class that of a Tribunal and therefore is Open to judicial
legislation. But classification must not be not be review?
(a) Indira Nehry Gandhi v. Raj Narain
arbitrary, artificial or evasive as held by the Supreme
(b) Kihota Hollohon y. Zachilhu
Court in (c) Union of India v. State of Rajasthan
(a) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar, (d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
A.I.R. 1952 SC 75
(b) K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, A.I.R. 1950 SC 27 [U.P. Lower 2009]
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, A.I.R. 1978 SC 95. Which one of the following fundamental rights
597 available to all persons:
(d) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. A.I.R. 1963 SC (a) Right to form associations
1295 (b) Right to equality
[A.P.P (R.P.F.) 2010] (c) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(d) Right to move freely throughout the territory of
India
91. “prohibition of employment of any man under the age
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
of twenty-five years and any woman in any part of
such premises in which any liquor or intoxicating drug 96. Equality of opportunity in matters of public
employment:
1. Is guaranteed to all citizens of India (b) Both the statements are individually true but
2. Is guaranteed to all residents of India statement II is not the correct explanation of
3. Is a available to person of India origin irrespective statement |
of citizenship (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
4. Is not provided for in the Constitution (d) Statement | is false but statement Il is true
[Delhi (J) 2011]
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
97. The expression ‘equal protection of laws’ in Article 14 102. The right to equality prevents the State from
of the Indian Constitution has been taken from: (a) Making any provision for women arid children
(a) British Constitution (b) Making 3% reservation for physically handicapped
(b) American Constitution persons
(c) Australian Constitution (c) Making special provision for the advancement of
(d) None of these socially and | educationally backward classes of
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] citizens
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] (d) Giving reservations in public employment to
Scheduled Tribes irrespective of any
98. Discrimination by law in the marriageable of a boy (21 consideration to efficiency of administration
years) and a girl (18 years)
(a) Offends Article 14 of the Constitution [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Does not offend Article 14 of the Constitution
(c) Is against Rule of Law 103. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
(d) Violates Human Rights held that sexual harassment of working women
[U.P.P.C.S. (J) 2013] amounts to violation of rights of gender equality and
right to life and personal liberty:
99. In which one of the following cases it has been held (a) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
that prohibition on sale of eggs within Municipal are of (b) Hussainara vy. State of Bihar
Rishikesh is not violative or Article 19(1)(g)? (c) Vishaka and others v. State of Rajasthan and
(a) B.R. Enterprises v. State of U.P. others
(b) Om Prakash v. State of U.P. (d) Srimati Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab
(c) C.K. Jain v. State of U.P. [U.P. Lower 1998]
(d) Shreenivas General Traders v. State of U.P.
[U.P.P.C.S. 2004] 104, Right to equality are in Article:
(a) Articles 14-18
100. Indicate the incorrect answers: (b) Articles 18-19
The benefit of Article 14 of Constitution is: (c) Articles 20-2
(a) Available to 4 foreigner residing 10 India (d) Article 32
(b) Available to a private company [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(c) Available against a private company
(d) Available against the Union of India 105. Match List | with List II and select the correct answer
[U.P. P.C.S. 19.99] using the code given below the lists
List I List II
101. Consider the following statements and identify the A Golak Nath v. State Minority Educational
1.
answer using the code given below: . of Punjab Institutions
Statement I: The principle of equality before law and Olga Tellis v.
equal protection of laws means that B. Bombay Municipal 2. Prospective overruling
equals must be treated equally Corporation
T.M.A. Pai
Statement II: All persons are not equal by nature, C. Foundation v. State 3. Doctrine of eclipse
attainment OF circumstances of Karnataka
Keshavan
D
Code: Madhavan Menon 4. Right to Livelihood
.
(a) Both the statements are individually true and v. State of Bombay
statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2 111. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination
(c) 2 4 1 3 between citizens on the basis of
(d) 2 1 4 3 (a) Religion and caste only
(b) Religion, race and caste only
106. Assertion (A): Alien-enemies have been given (c) Religion, caste and sex only
the fundamental right of (d) Religion, race, caste, SEX, place of birth 1 or
equality before law. any of them
Reason (R): Protection of Article 14 is [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
available to non citizens also.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 112. After which one of the following Supreme Court
Codes: decisions was the special provision for socially and
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct educationally backward classes, introduced by an
explanation of (A) Amendment of the Constitution of India?
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) (a) D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false , (b) MLR. Balaji v. State of Mysore
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true (c) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] (d) T. Devadasan v. Union of India
107. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right? [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Right to equality 113. In which one of the following cases 27% reservations
(c) Right to free legal aid to all citizens for admission in Higher Educational Institutions
(d) Right to freedom of religion made by the Government in favor of the candidates
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] belonging to OBC categories has been held as valid
by the Supreme Court?
108. In which case has the Supreme Court held that no (a) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
reservation under “OBC” category can be made to (b) Indra Sawhney v- Union of India
creamy layer for admissions in educational (c) Union of India v. Tulsi Ram Patel
institutions? (d) Dr. Narayan Sharma v. Dr. Pankaj Kumar
(a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(b) M. Nagraj v. Union of India [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(c) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India 114. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favor
(d) State of Kerala v. N. M. Thomas of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] by
(a) Article 15 (4) of the Constitution
109. Give the correct response: (b) Article 16 (4) of the Constitution
Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall not (c) Article 29 (2) of the Constitution
discriminate against any citizen on ground only of: (d) Article 14 of the Constitution
(a) Religion, race, sex and place of birth [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2012]
(b) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and
descent 115. "Creamy Layer” rules excluding the well placed
(c) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth members of a caste from reservation was first laid
(d) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any down in the case of:
of them (a) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002] (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
110. Article 15 of the Constitution of India does not permit (d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
the State to make special provision for one of the [U.P. P.C.S. (j) 2006]
following which one is that?
(a) Socially and educationally backward classes 117. In which one of the following cases reservations in
(b) A class of specific religion appointment for posts in Women's College for women
(c) Only scheduled caste and scheduled tribes was held to be valid?
(d) None of the above (a) Vijay Lakshmi v. Punjab University
[M.P. (J) 2012] (b) Saurabh Chaudhari v. Union of India
(c) T. M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka 120. Which on of the following is not correctly in
(d) Islamic Academy of Education v. State of attached?
Karnataka
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] A Freedom of speech
: Includes freedom of press
. and expression
118. Assertion (A): In C.B. Muthamma v. Freedom of Include right to wear and
B. :
UOI, the Supreme Court conscience carry kirpans by Sikhs
struck down the C Right to Personal Includes right to carry
:
provision in service . Liberty or business
rules requiring a female D Includes principles of
Right to Equality :
employee to obtain the . natural justice
permission of the [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
government in writing
before her marriage is 121. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights
solemnized. mentioned in the Indian Constitution is available to
Indian citizen only:
Reasoning (R): Such provision is (a) Protection from discrimination on grounds of
discriminatory against religion, ace, caste, sex of place of birth
women and violates (b) Right against exploitation
Article 16 and hence (c) Equality before law
unconstitutional. (d) Freedom of religion
Code: [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct 122. Racial discrimination is abolished a the Indian
explanation of (A) Constitution through Articles"
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (a) Articles 15, 16 and 17
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (b) Articles 13, 14 and 19
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (c) Articles 12, 13 and 21
(d) Articles 3, 2 and 22
119. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
using the codes given below the lists:
123. Which of the following, is not a requirement to be
List I List II satisfied by the State to exercise their discretion while
Equality of providing for reservation in promotions in favour of
A
opportunity in 1. Article 23 scs & sts?
.
public employment (a) Backwardness of the class
No discrimination (b) Not crossing of 50% ceiling in particular year
on grounds of (c) Inadequacy of representation in Public
B. 2. Article 28
religion, race, caste, Employment
etc. (d) Efficiency in administration
Prohibition of [Delhi (J) 2014)
religious
C. 3. Article 16
instructions in state 124. “Carty forward rule is ultra-vires” was held in
aided institution (a) Devadasan Vv. Union of India
Prohibition of (b) B. N. Tiwari V- Union of India
D
traffic in human 4. Article 15 (c) Balaji v- State of Mysore
.
beings (d) State of Kerala v- N. M. Thomas
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
Codes:
A B C D 125. “Catch up” rule established by the Supreme Court of
(a) 3 4 2 1 India relates to which of the following Article of the
(b) 1 2 4 3 Constitution?
(c) 2 3 1 4 (a) Article 14
(d) 4 3 2 1 (b) Article 16(4)
[U.P. Lower 2009] (c) Article 15(4)
(d) Article 16(4A)
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (a) Article 17 (b) Article 15

(c) Article 16 (d) Article 18
126. In the determination of backward classes: [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(a) Caste is totally irrelevant
(b) Caste is relevant but it can be ignored 133. Match List I with List Il and select the correct answer
(c) Caste is relevant but it cannot be the dominant using the code given below the Lists:
factor” List I
List II
(d) Caste is relevant and it can be the dominant (Article in
(Subject)
consideration Constitution)
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] A
Article 17 1. Maternity relief
.
127. The provision to fill ‘backlog vacancy’ was inserted Abolition of
B. Article 42 2.
in the Article 16 by which of the following untouchability
Amendment Acts? C. Article 21 3. Freedom of Press
(a) 77th Amendment Act, 1995 D Protection of life and
Article 19 4.
(b) 81st Amendment Act, 2000 . personal liberty
(c) 85th Amendment Act, 2001
(d) It was never inserted in the Article 16 Code:
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
128. Reservation in promotion to the scheduled castes and (b) 3 1 4 2
the scheduled tribes is now permissible on account of: (c) 2 4 1 3
(a) Article 16 (4-A) (d) 2 1 4 3
(b) Article 16 (4) [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(c) Article 15 (4)
(d) The Supreme Court decision in Indira Sahawny v. 134. In which of the following cases, was it observed that
Union of India Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and
[U.P. Lower 1998] they jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness?
(a) Ram Swarup Vv. Delhi Administration
129. It has been said in many cases, viz. Devdasan v. UOI (b) Jagan Nath v. UO!
that Article 16 should be read with (c) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(a) Articles 45 and 332 (d) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI
(b) Articles 46 and 335 [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Articles 15 and 332
(d) Articles 46 and 332 135. A law of Uttar Pradesh Government which prohibits
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] private coaching by teachers of universities and
130. Indicate the correct answer: degree college is
Article 16(4-A) of the Constitution permits (a) Violative of the right to profession
reservation at the promotion stage for: (b) A reasonable restriction on the right to
(a) Scheduled Caste only profession
(b) Scheduled Tribes only (c) Not a reasonable restriction on the right to
(c) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes only profession
(d) Backward classes generally (d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
131. Which one of the following Articles of the 136. Which of the following is Fundamental Right?
Constitution provides for ‘abolition of untouchability (a) To assemble with arms
in any form’ (b) To form co-operative societies
(a) Article 14 (c) Right to employment
(b) Article 17 (d) Right of religious denominations to own
(c) Article 19 immovable property only for charitable purpose
(d) Article 16 [Delhi (J) 2014]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
137. The freedom of Press in India is-
132. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to (a) Available to the people under the laws of the
abolition of untouchability? Parliament
(b) Specifically provided in the Constitution of India 144. Freedom of movement to all citizens of India
(c) Implied in the right of freedom of expression throughout the territory of India is guaranteed subject
(d) Available to the people under executive orders. to
[U.P. H.J.S. 2012] (a) The protection of the interest of scheduled
Tribes
138. Right to form association includes: (b) The public order
(a) Right not to be a member of an association (c) The morality
(b) Right to get recognition of an association (d) The health
(c) Both [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
145. A legislation imposes ceiling on the number of pages
139. “Proper respect is shown to National Anthem by which a newspaper may have along with limit to
standing up when the National Anthem is sung. It will advertisement and price of the newspaper. Which
not be right to say that dis-respect is shown by not answer is correct?
joining in the singing”. It has been held in (a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the
(a) Bijoi Emmanuel v. State of Kerala freedom under Article 19 (1) (a)
(b) Surya Narain v. U.O.I. (b) The Legislation is valid because the company
(c) Ram Jawaya Kapur v. U.O.I. publishing the newspaper is not a citizen of India
(d) Keshvanand Bharati v. U.O.I. (c) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] under Article 19 (1) (g)
140. Rights under Article 19 are: [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(a) Available to all person in India
(b) Available only to citizens of India 146. Which of the following articles of the Indian
(c) Are available to persons of foreign origin Constitution guarantees Freedom of Press?
(d) Both (2) and (3) above (a) Article 16
[Delhi (J) 2011] (b) Article 19
(c) Article 22
141. A law violating Article 19(1) (g) of the Constitution (d) Article 31
can be enforced against: [U.P. A.P.O. (Special) 2007]
(a) Any person
(b) None 147. Being a juristic person, a company is not a citizen.
(c) A non-citizen But in which one of the following cases the Supreme
(d) A citizen Court held that if the state action impairs the rights of
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] the company thereby affecting the rights of the
shareholder, the protection of Article 19 will be
142. Every citizen of India has the right to reside and settle available to him?
in any part of the territory of India subject to (a) State Trading Corporation of India v. Commercial
(a) The interest of the General Public Tax Officer
(b) The Law and Order (b) Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. V. State of
(c) The Security of State Bihar
(d) The Sovereignty and integrity of India (c) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] (d) Barium Chemicals Ltd. V. Company Law Board
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
143. What is imperative to show the requisite respect to
the National Anthem? 148. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Sing and stand respectfully (a) State of West-Bengal — Article 14 v. Anwar Ali
(b) Stand respectfully Sarkar
(c) Sing the same (b) R.C.Cooperv. Union — Article 22 of India
(d) To bow (c) Veena Sethi v. State -—— Article 21 of Bihar
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] (d) Jaya Bachchan v. — Article 105 Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] [U.P. Lower 2009]
149. Which of the following is prohibited without the (4) None of these
consent of the President of India according to Article [Delhi (J) 2014]
18?
(a) Conferment of title 153. Which right is a constitutional right but not a
(b) Accepting any title from foreign State fundamental right?
(c) Accepting any gift or office of any kind from or 1. Right to life and liberty
under any foreign State 2. Right to move freely throughout the territory of
(d) All of the above India
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] 3. Right to form an association
4. Right to hold property
150. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer [Delhi (J) 2011]
List I List II 154. In which of the following case it was ruled that the
India, that is Government servant has no right to go on strike?
A
Baharat is a Union 1. Preamble (a) T.K. Rangrajan v. State of Tamil Nadu
.
of States (b) Javed v. State of Haryana
Liberty of Thought, (c) Shyam Narain Chouksey v. Union of India
B. Expression and 2. Right to Freedom (d) Chehat v. Union of India
Worship [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
Freedom of Speech
C. 3. Union and its Territory
and Expression 155. The following is a part of the guaranteed fundamental
Keshavan rights:
D
Madhavan Menon 4. Right to Livelihood (a) Right to organize a bandh
.
v. State of Bombay (b) Right to demonstration
Codes: (c) Right to resort to strike
A B C D (d) All the above
(a) 1 2 3 4 [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4 156. Which one of the undermentioned rights is
(d) 4 3 2 1 guaranteed to a citizen of India under Article 19 of
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] the Constitution as fundamental right:
(a) The right to vote
151. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (b) The right to citizenship
using the code given below the lists: (c) The right to contest an election
List I List II (d) The right to assemble peaceably and without
A Freedom of arms
1. Article 19 (2)
. assembly [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
Freedom of
B. profession, trade 2. Article 19 (4) 157. Which fundamental right is available to citizens only?
and occupation (a) Right to Equality
C. Freedom of speech 3. Article 19 (3) (b) Protection against arrest and detention
D Freedom of (c) Freedom of speech and expression
4. Article 19 (6)
. association (d) Protection of life and personal liberty
Code: [Rajasthan H.J.S 2010]
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 158. Advertisement is a "Commercial Speech" was laid
(b) 1 3 2 4 down in
(c) 3 2 1 4 (a) Humdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
(d) 2 4 1 3 (b) Express Newspapers (P) Ltd. V. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] (c) Bennet Coleman and Co. V. Union of India
(d) Tata Press Ltd. V. Mahanagar Telephone
152. Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Nigam Ltd.
Constitution includes [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
(1) Right to strike
(2) Right to collective bargaining 159. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the
(3) Right to lockout Constitution are available only to:
(a) Citizens of India (c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India

(b) Citizens of India and Foreigners (d) M.C. Mehta (2) v. Union of India
(c) Both (a) and (b) above [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(d) Foreigners living in India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002] 166. Article 20 of the Constitution provides the following
safeguards to the person accused of crime.
160. The number of categories of freedoms guaranteed by (a) Expost facto law
Article 19 is: (b) Double jeopardy
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) Prohibition against self-incrimination
(c) 8 (d) 9 (d) All the above
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
161. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that 167. Which one of the following is correct?
freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by (a) Article 20 is available only to citizen
Article 19 (1) (a) includes the right to information? (b) A suspect does not come within the ambit of an
(a) Secretary, Ministry of Information and ‘offence’ as used in Article 20(3)
Broadcasting v. Cricket Association of Bengal (c) Article 20(3) guarantees a right pertaining to a
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India person accused of an offence
(c) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (d) All of the above are correct
(d) Minerva Mills Ltd. V. Union of India
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
162. Freedom of press cannot be restricted in the interest 168. An accused person has been provided with the
of: following protection by the Constitution of India
(a) Public order 1. Ex-post-facto laws
(b) Security of State 2. S-feguards against arrest and detention
(c) Public 3. Double Jeopardy
(d) Sovereignty and integrity of India The correct order in which these protections appear in
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] the Constitution is:
(a) 1 3 2
163. Freedom of speech and expression cannot be (b) 1 2 3
restricted in the interest of the following: (c) 3 1 2
(a) Security of the state (d) 2 1 3
(b) Decency and morality [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
(c) General public
(d) Sovereignty and integrity of India 169. No person shall be twice punished for the same
offence is incorporated in
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (a) Article 19 1(F) (b) Article 20 (2)
164. Which one of the following is not a ground for [Bihar (J) 2009]
imposing reasonable restriction under Article 19(2):
(a) Security of State 170. “Autre Fois Acquit” principle is related to:
(b) Public Order (a) Retrospective - operators
(c) Public Interest (b) Double Jeopardy
(d) Contempt of Court (c) Ex-Post Facto Law
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] (d) Self - incrimination
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
165. The Supreme Court validated the Bombay Animal
Preservation (Gujarat Amendment) Act, 1994, by 171. Indicate the correct answer : ‘Double Jeopardy’
which the State had prohibited slaughter of cows and means:
its progeny under Article 19 (1) (g) read with Articles (a) Trying two persons jointly for the same offence
19(6), 48 and 51-A as reasonable restriction in which (b) Trying the same person for two offences at two
one of the following cases? different times
(a) State of Bombay v. F. N. Balsara (c) Putting the same person twice on trial and
(b) State of Gujarat v. Mirzapur Moti Kureshi punishment for the same offence
Kassab Jamat
(d) Trying a person for different offences committed (a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
by him in one incident (b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] (c) A. K. Gopalan v. Union of India
(d) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
172. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
India has held that Results obtained through the
involuntary administration of Polygraph examination 178. The case of Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
and Brain Electrical Activation Profile deals with which of the following rights?
(BEAP) test violates Article 20(3) of the Constitution? (a) Right to go Abroad
(a) Monorama Masurekar v. Dhanlaxmi G.Shah (b) Right to Education
(b) Selvi& Ors. V. State of Karnataka (c) Right to Privacy
(c) P. V. Mudaliar v. Dy. Collector (d) Right of an environment free from pollution
(d) State of Madras v. D. Namasivaya Mudaliar [Bihar (J) 2009]
[M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
179. The right to personal liberty guaranteed under Article
173. The Supreme Court of India in which case held that a 21 of the Constitution includes:
forceful Norco analysis test conducted on the accused (a) Right to go abroad
is violative of Article 20(3) and Article 21 (b) Right to privacy
(a) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaugh v. Union of India (c) Both
(b) Selvi & Othr. V. State of Karnataka (d) None of the above
(c) S. Arul Raja v. State of Tamil nadu [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(d) Omprakash v. State of Rajasthan
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] 180. In which of the following case compensation was first
time awarded for violation of Fundamental Rights?
174. In a divorce case, the wife pleads that 1 respondent is (a) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
impotent. On application of wife the Court gives (b) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
direction for medical examination of the respondent. (c) Dharam Singh v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
Such direction is- (d) None ofthe above
(a) Illegal being violative of Art. 20 (3) of [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
Constitution
(b) Illegal being violative of Art. 21 of Constitution 181. Article 21 of the Constitution of India incorporates
(c) Legally the right to “Doctor's assistance”. In which of the
(d) Not feasible following cases this was decided?
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] (a) Charles Sobhraj v. Supdt. Of Central Jail
(b) Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra
175. ‘Right to life and personal liberty’ is available under (c) Sunil Batra v. Deihi Administration
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to (d) Parmanand Katara v. Union of India
(a) Foreigners [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
(b) Citizens of India
(c) Natural persons and juristic persons 182. Which one of the following is not included in the
(d) All natural persons whether citizens or "Right to Life” given under Article 21 of the
foreigners Constitution:
[A.P P. (R.P.F.) 2010] (a) Right not to live
(b) Right to livelihood
176. In which one of the following cases, Supreme Court (c) Right to education
of India included the Right to Education in ‘Right to (d) Right to shelter
life’: [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(a) U.P. State v. Abdul Samad
(b) Frank Anthony Public School Employees 183. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is violated if
Association v. Union of India there is:
(c) Mohni Jain v. Karnataka State (a) Inordinate delay by the State in bringing an
(d) Ramana v. State of Tamil Nadu. accused to trial
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (b) Imprisonment of declared insane
(c) Impounding of a citizen's passport for an
177. Which of the following cases is related to indefinite period of time
Constitutionality of Right to death? (d) All the above
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001]

190. The right to life under Article 21 includes :
184. The Supreme Court has traced the right to privacy in (a) Right to education
(a) Article 21 (b) Right not to live
(b) Article 19 (c) Both
(c) Article 14 (d) None of the above
(d) Article 22 [U.P. P.C.S. 2001}
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] 191. In which of the following cases it was held that
‘Right to Life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution
185. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that does not include ‘Right to Die’
the “Non-smokers cannot be compelled to be victim (a) Gian Singh v. High Court of Punjab and
of air pollution"? Haryana
(a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(b) Murlis. Deora v. Union of india (c) Gulam Sarwar v. Union of India
(c) Satpal Dang v. State of Punjab (d) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh
(d) Sardarilal v. State of Rajasthan [U.P. Lower 2008]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
192. ‘Right to Life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution
186. The word ‘law’ in the expression ‘procedure does not include ‘right to die’ has been held by
established by law’ in Article 21 has been interpreted Supreme Court in
to mean that the law must be reasonable, just and (a) Ratiram v. Union of India
fair, in the case of (b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(a) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (c) State of Maharashtra v. Maruti Sripati Dubal
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (d) All of the above
(c) Kharak Singh v. State of U. P. [U.P. P.C.S.(J) 2015]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] 193. Which one of the following is not included in Article
21 of the Constitution of India?
187. Which provision of the Constitution spells out “right (a) Right to Die
to clean environment" as a fundamental right? (b) Right to Life
(a) Article 14 (c) Right to Livelihood
(b) Article 19 (b) Right to Dignity
(c) Article 21 [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
(d) Article 22
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] 194. In which of the following cases the Five Judges
Constitutional Bench observed that the ‘doctrine of
188. The principle that the term ‘procedure established by postponement’ was aimed at balancing the right of
law’ in Article 21, of the Constitution means just and an accused to be presumed innocent till completion
fair procedure, was laid down by the Supreme Court of trial with the media's Right to Freedom of
in: Expression?
(a) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (a) Ajai Kumar Parmar V- State of Rajasthan
(b) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. (b) Sahara India Reali State Corporation A Ltd.
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India and others V. Securities and Exchange Board
(d) Govind v. State of M.P. of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (b) RB. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu 1
(a) Ajay Goswami v- Union of india
189. The words, ‘procedure established by law’ in Article [U.P. P.C.S. () 2013]
21 means
(a) That due process of law must be followed 195. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court has held that
(b) A procedure laid down or enacted by a euthanasia is not legal in India.
competent authority Reason (R): Right to life does not include right to
(c) The same things as ‘due process of law’ die.
(d) A law which is reasonably fair and just Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
[Bihar A.C.P. 2010] correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the (d) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh
correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A)is true, but (R) is false [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(d) (A)is false, but (R) is true [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
199. Assertion (A): Article 21 expressly incorporates
196. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct the concept of due process of law.
answer by using the codes given below the list: Reason (R): Due process of law is an attribute
List I List II of liberty.
A Kishor Singh v. State of Code:
Right to Education 1.
. Rajasthan (a) Both ‘A’ and 'R' are true and 'R' is correct
Hussaianara Khatoon explanation of ‘A’
Right to Free legal
B. 2. (No.1) v. Home (b) Both 'A' and 'R’ are true, but 'R’ is the correct
Aid
Secretary, Bihar explanation of “A'
Right to Speedy Mohini Jain v. State of (c) ‘A’ is true, but 'R' is false
C. 3.
trial Karnataka (d) ‘A’is false, but ‘Ris true
D Right against M. H. Hoskat v. State of [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
4.
. inhuman treatment Maharashtra
Codes: 200. Which out of the following is not a right covered by
A B C D Art. 21 of the Constitution?
(a) 3 4 2 1 (a) Right to Health
(b) 2 1 3 4 (b) Right to education
(c) 1 3 2 4 (c) Right to safe drinking water
(d) 4 2 3 1 (d) Right to strike
[Bihar (J) 2009]
197. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject of case) 201. In which of the following cases the right to
and select the correct answer using the codes given education was held to be concomitant to
below the lists: fundamental rights enshrined under Part III of the
List I List II Constitution?
A I. R. Coelho v. State Right to minority (a) Attorney-General of India v. Lachma Devi
1.
. of T.N. Educational Institutions (b) Paramanand Katara v. Union of India
Murali S. Deora v. Right to religious (c) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Admn
B. 2.
UOI education (d) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
T.M.A. Pai [M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
C. Foundation v. State 3. Judicial review
of Kerala 202. Miurli S. Deora v. Union of India case is related to
D Prohibition smoking (a) Sexual harassment
Aruna Roy v. UOI 4.
. public places (b) Student ragging
(c) Right to die
Codes: (d) Smoking in public places
A B C D [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 1 2 4 203. Which of the following is a leading case on the point
(c) 3 4 1 2 that passive euthanasia should be permitted in our
(d) 3 2 1 4 country-
(a) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] India
(b) Smt. Glan Kaur, Appellant v. State of Punjab.
198. In which one of the following cases, expression, (c) Charan Lal Sahu, Petitioner v. State of Bihar.
"procedure established by law” used in Article 21, (d) Vikram Deo Singh Tomar, Petitioner v. State of
has been interpreted the Supreme Court in terms of Bihar.
“right, just fair procedure"?
(a) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Prad [M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) AK. Gopalan v. State of Madras
204. In which of the following case the Supreme Court (b) Article 51(A) (g)
ruled that the word ‘life’ in Article 21 includes the (c) Article 21
'right to livelihood’? (d) Article 32
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Chameli Singh v. State of U.P.
(c) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation 210. Assertion (A): Right to education is a
(d) (a) and (b) both Fundamental Right.
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] Reason (R): Our Constitution has no
Provision for education before
205. In which one of the following cases the Supreme making right to education as
Court held that right to carry on trade or business on Fundamental Right.
the pavements of the toad is a Fundamental Right Codes:
under Article 19(1) (g)? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(a) Khoday Distilleries Ltd. v. State of Karnataka explanation of (A).
(b) Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct
Committee explanation of (A).
(c) M/s. B. R. Enterprises v. State of U.P. (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Lakhan Lal v. State of Orissa (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
206. The Supreme Court of India has held that sexual 211. “Article 21-A—Right to education to all children of
harassment of working women amounts to violation the age of six to fourteen years" has been inserted in
of their right of gender equality and right to life and the Constitution by
personal liberty. In which one of the following cases (a) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1977
the Apex Court has held as such? (b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
(a) Hussainara v. State of Bihar (c) The Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992
(b) Vishaka and others v. State of Rajasthan and (d) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992
others [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
(c) Srimati Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab
(d) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa 212. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] Education Act was enacted to 5 give effect to which
article of the Constitution?
207. Under which one of the following Articles of our (a) Article 14 (b) Article 21A
Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed (c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
the right to be informed of the nature and cause of [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2070]
accusation?
(a) Article 22 (1) 213. Right to free and compulsory education to children
(b) Article 22 (3) between six and fourteen years of age is provided by
(c) Article 21 which Article of the Constitution?
(d) Article 22 (4) (a) Article 21A (b) Article 14
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] (c) Article 21 (d) Article 45
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
208. In which of the following case the Supreme Court
called Article 22 of the Constitution as “Ugly 214. ‘Right to education’ is a fundamental right under
provision of the Constitution”? (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (c) Article 22 (d) Article 21-A
(b) Keshavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(c) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
(d) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras 215. The citizens of India have a fundamental right to
education. This right flows from:
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19
209. The right to clean environment has been elevated to [U.P. Lower 1998]
the status of a Fundamental Right through the
interpretation of which of the following Articles of 216. The Right against Exploitation prohibits
the Indian Constitution? (a) Traffic in human beings
(a) Article 48(A) (b) Begging
(c) Employment of children below 14 years in

factories, mines, etc. 222. Under Article 22(4) of the Indian Constitution, with
(d) All of the above the exception of certain provisions stated therein,
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] what is the maximum period of detention of a person
under preventive detention law?
217. The right to education for all children of the age of 6 (a) Three months
to 14 is a Fundamental Right under: (b) Two months
(a) Article 19 (1) (b) Article 21 (c) Four months
(c) Article 21-A (d) None of these (d) Six months
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [U.P, (U.D.A.) 2006]
218. Match List-I & List-II and select the correct answer 223. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
by using the code given below the lists: observed that labor taken from prisoners without
List I List II paying proper remunerations comes within forced
A labor?
S.R. Bommai v. UOI 1. Art. 21
. (a) Deena v. Union of India
B. P.V. Narsimha Rao v. State 2. Art. 356 (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
A.D.M. Jbalpur v. Shiva Kant (c) Sanjit Roy v. State of Rajasthan
C. 3. Art. 105
Shukla (d) All of the above
D
Lily Thomas v. UOI 4. Art. 44
. [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
Codes: 224. Which Article of the following is violated by the
A B C D non-payment of adequate wages to laborers:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) Article 14
(b) 1 3 2 4 (b) Article 16
(c) 1 4 3 2 (c) Article 18
(d) 2 3 1 4 (d) Article 23
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
225. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
219. Safeguards against the arrest and detention are has elaborately issued the guidelines on child labor
provided under which Article of the Constitution of under Article 23 of the Constitution of India?
India? (a) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu
(a) Article 25 (b) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
(b) Article 22 (c) Madan Gopal v. State of Orissa
(c) Article 14 (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Article 19 [M.P. (J) 2012]
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
226. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
220. The prohibition against prosecution and d labor has been provided under :
punishment for the same offence more than once: (a) Article 14
1. Is a principle of natural justice (b) Article 19
2. Is contained in the India Penal Code (c) Article 21
3. Is contained in the Constitution of India (d) Article 23
4. Is a principle evolved by the Courts [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[Delhi (J) 2011]
227. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the
221. Under Article 22(4} of the Constitution, with the following is not a specific ground on which the State
exception of certain provisions stated therein, what can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
is the maximum period for detention of a person (a) Public order
under preventive detention? (b) Social justice
(a) Two months (c) Health
(b) Three months (d) Morality
(c) Six months [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
(d) Three years [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
228. The right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted 233. 233. Which one of the following is not included in the
on the following ground : ‘Right to freedom of Religion’
(a) Public order (a) Freedom to make conversion
(b) Morality (b) Freedom of conscience
(b) Social justice (c) Freedom to profess religion
(c) Health (d) Freedom to practice religion
[U.P. Lower 1998] [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
229. The right to freedom of Religion guaranteed in
Article 25 of the Constitution of India is subject to 234. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
which of the following? held that secularism is the basic feature of the
(a)Public order, morality and health and to other constitution?
Provisions of Part III of the Constitution (a) S.P. Mittal v. Union of India
(b)Reasonable restrictions in the interest of State (b) Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management
(b)Both (a) and (b) Committee v. Chintamani Khuntia
(c) None of the above (c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
[U.P. Lower 2008] [U.P. Lower 2009]
230. A State bans for two months the holding of any 235. Which is not leading case on the freedom of
religious congregation in public places on the ground religion?
that there is high risk of spread of infectious disease (a) S.P. Mittal v. U.O.1.
swine flu. Is the ban valid? (b) John Valamattam v. U. O.1.
(a) The restriction is valid under Article 25(1) of (c) A.S. Narayan v. State of A. P. |
the Constitution of India (b) Bobby Art International v. O. P. S. Hoon
(b) The restriction is valid under Article 25(2) of the [Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
Constitution of India
(b) The restriction is invalid as it violates the 236. 336. Under the Constitution of India, which one of
freedom of religion the following is not a specific ground on which the
(c) The restriction is invalid as it aims at banning State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
the religious congregations of only one religion (a) Public order
whose festivals were falling during the two (b) Social justice
months period when the ban was to remain in (c) Health
force (b) Morality
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] [U.P. Lower 2009]
231. Order of the Election Commission to cover statutes of 237. In which of the following, religious instructions are
elephants being election symbol of a political party, prohibited:
during election period (a) Private educational institutions
(a) does not violate Article 25 of the Constitution (b) Educational institutions wholly maintained by
(b) violates Article 25 of the Constitution State funds
(c) offends Preamble of the Constitution (c) Educational institutions recognized by the State
(d) infringes Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution (b) Educational institutions getting aid out of State
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] Funds
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
232. In Aruna Roy v. Union of India, the Supreme Court
has held that the word “secular” used in the Preamble 238. Religious instructions are prohibited in:
of the Constitution is reflected in the provisions (a) All educational institutions getting aid out of
contained in State funds.
(a) Articles 14 and 15 (b) Educational institutions wholly maintained
(b) Articles 19 to 22 out of State funds
(c) Articles 25 to 30 and 51A (c) All educational institutions recognized by the
(b) Articles 39, 39A and 51A State
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] (b) All educational institutions
[U.P. Lower 1998]
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]

239. A minority educational institution, in the exercise of
its right under Article 30 of the Constitution, does not 245. In which of the following cases, a Constitution bench
have the following right: of the Supreme Court of India has held that
(a) Right to determine the medium of instruction “whenever a person complains and claims that there
(b) Right to appoint teachers is a violation of any provision of law or a
(c) Right to frame the syllabi Constitutional provision, it does not automatically
(b) Right to constitute the managing committee involve breach of fundamental right for the
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] enforcement of which alone Article 32 of the
Constitution is attracted”.
240. By which of the following Constitutional (a) Ramdas Athawale v. Union of India
Amendment, Article 31-C was added to the (b) Mulamchand v. State of M. P.
Constitution? (c) K.P. Choundary v. State of M. P.
(a) 22nd Constitution Amendment (d) State of Kerala v. K. M. Cheria Abdulla
(b) 24th Constitution Amendment
(c) 25th Constitution Amendment [M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
(d) 26th Constitution Amendment
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] 246. On which of the following grounds may the writ of
certiorari be issued?
(a) When the inferior tribunal has the jurisdiction to
241. Right to Property in India is decide the matter but the finding is erroneous not
(a) Fundamental Right being an error apparent on the face of the record
(b) Legal Right (b) When the inferior tribunal acts in
(c) Constitutional Right contravention of the rules of natural justice
(d) None of the above (c) When the cause of action arises out of a contract
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] not involving the violation of any statutory or
constitutional provision
242. "Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights (d) If the act done by the inferior : body/authority is
and Directive, Principles is an essential feature of the an executive or ministerial act
basic structure of the Constitution”. This observation
was made by the Supreme Court in case of [M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
(a) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
(b) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala 247. In which one of the following cases it was held that
(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. V. Union of India no mandamus can be issued to enforce and Act
(d) Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh passed by the Legislature?
[U.P. Lower 2009] (a) Supreme Court Welfare Association v. Union
of India.
243. By a parliamentary legislation, the district courts were (b) A.K. Rey v. Union of India |
empowered to enforce the fundamental rights of (c) Suresh Seth v. Commissioner, Indore Municipal
citizens in service matters. The legislation is: Corporation
(a) Invalid (b) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Shivshankar Lal
(b) Invalid if the decisions of the district courts are Srivastava
subject to appeal before the supreme court [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(c) Valid
(d) Valid even if the powers of other courts are 248. In which one of the following cases the Writ of ‘Quo-
ousted Warranto’ asking the holder of Public Office to
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] vacate the office in question was issued
(a) R.S. Chowdhary v. State of Punjab
244. An order or decision which suffers from an error of (b) B. K. Mehta v. Union of India
law apparent on the face of record can be quashed by (c) Mahendra Lal Das v. State of Bihar
a writ of: (d) U.N. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
(a) Certiorari [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition 249. Which article provides Right to Constitutional
(d) Quo-warranto Remedies?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20 [M.P. (J) 2009]

(c) Article 32
(b) Article 31 257. Which among the following writs literally means
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] what is your authority?
(a) Certiorari
250. The Supreme Court can be moved under Article 32 of (b) Habeas Corpus
the Constitution of India for The enforcement of: (c) Quo Warranto
(a) Directive principles of State policy (d) Prohibition
(b) Fundamental rights [M.P. (J) 2010]
(c) Civil rights
(d) Fundamental duties 258. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
[Raj H.J.S. 2012] issued the writ of ‘Quo-warranto’ asking the holder of
a public office to vacate the office in question?
251. How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue (a) B.R. Kapoor v. State of TN
for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights? (b) Sital Prasad Saxena v. UOI
(a) Six (b) Four (c) H.S. Verma v. T.N. Singh
(c) Five (d) Three (d) B. K. Mehta v. UOI
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
252. Which one of the following was said by Dr. B. R. 259. The writ of certiorari can be issue against.
Ambedkar as the “heart and soul” of The Constitution (a) A person exercising purely administrative
of India? powers
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Against a Minister
(b) Right to Constitutional remedies (c) Against any Quasi Judicial or Judicial
(c) Right to Property authority
(b) Right to equality (d) None of the above
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] [Bihar (J) 2009]
253. What writ can be issued for an illegal Detention? 260. The writ of Habeas corpus means:
(a) Writ of Prohibition (a) To produce the Body of a person illegally
(b) Writ of Mandamus detained before a Court
(c) Writ of Habeas Corpus (b) Respect the Human Rights of a person
(b) Writ of Quo Warranto (c) Stop the violation of a right of a man
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002] (d) None of the above
[Bihar (J) 2009]
254. Which of the following writ is not amenable to the
principle of ‘res judicata’? 261. The doctrine of res judicata is not applicable in the
(a) Mandamus case of the following writ:
(b) Certiorari (a) Habeas Corpus
(c) Quo Warranto. (b) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus (c) Mandamus
[Delhi (J) 2014]
(d) Quo warranto
255. The case in which the Supreme Court has Issued a [U.P. Lower 1998]
writ of continuing mandamus is:
(a) State of Punjab v. Sukhpal Singh 262. “…….Article 32 is very soul of the Constitution and
(b) Subhash v. State of Bihar the very heart of it.” Who made this statement?
(c) Vineet Narain v. U.O.I. (a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) Gracy v. Kerala (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] (c) Mr. M.C. Chagala
(d) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
256. Which of the following protects personal Freedom? [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(a) Quo-warranto
(b) Mandamus 263. Which right is the ‘soul of constitution’ according to
(c) Habeas Corpus Dr. Ambedkar?
(b) Certiorari (a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Life (d) State of U. P. Y. Shiv Shankar Lal Srivastava

(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
269. Writ of Quo warranto is related with
[U.P.P.C.S. 2011]
(a) Illegal detention of a person
(b) Want of Jurisdiction of a Court
264. The District Judge can be given power to issue (c) Legal holder of a Public Office
prerogative writs by- (b) None of the above
(a) Order of Supreme Court under Article 141 of the [Bihar (J) 2009]
Constitution of India
(b) Executive Orders issued by the Governor in 270. One of the remedies for false imprisonment Is:
consultation with the High Court under Article (a) Mandamus
162 of the Constitution of India (b) Habeas Corpus
(c) The Parliament by law under Article 32 of the (c) Quo warranto
Constitution of India (b) Certiorari
(d) The High Court by a decision of Full Court. [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[U.P.H.J.S. 2012]
271. Which one of the following correctly Describes the
265. Which one of the following writs can be issued only provision of Article 32 of the Constitution of India?
against judicial or quasi judicial authorities? (a) The technicalities of the principle of res Judicata
(a) Mandamus are irrelevant while dealing with fundamental
(b) Habeas Corpus rights under Article 32
(c) Certiorari (b) A person aggrieved by the decision of High
(d) Quo warranto Court in a writ petition under Article 226 may
[M.P.A.P.P. 2008] approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 on
the same Facts
266. The writ of Certiorari cannot be issued to a judicial or (c) The right to approach the Supreme Court
quasi judicial body if: under Article 32 is a Fundamental right
(a) It has acted in excess of jurisdiction (d) A writ petition under Article 32 is a Curative
(b) It has acted in violation of principles of natural petition
justice [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
(c) It has acted without jurisdiction
(d) No failure of justice has occasioned 272. The principle of res judicata does not apply In case of
[M.P.H.J.S. 2010] writ of:
(a) Habeas corpus
267. A writ of …………………. Is issued to an inferior (b) Mandamus
court or tribunal on the ground of exceeding (c) Quo warranto
jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of nature (d) Prohibition
justice- [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Mandamus
273. Match List I with List II and select the Correct answer
(b) Habeas corpus
(c) Certiorari List I List II
(d) Quo warranto Violation of natural
[M.P.H.J.S. 2012] I. Habeas corpus A.
justice
Unlawful arrest and
II. Mandamus B.
268. In which one of the following cases the Supreme detention
Court held that Government has sovereign power to Exercise of power
III. Quo warranto C.
abolish any post and the court cannot issue mandamus without jurisdiction
to direct the employer to continue employing such IV Non-performance of
Certiorari D.
employees as have been dislodged? . public duty
(a) Avas Vikas Sansthan v. Avas Vikas Sansthan Codes:
Engineers Association 1) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
(b) Standard Chartered Bank v. Directorate of 2) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
Enforcement 3) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
(c) State of Haryana v. Ranbir 4) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
[Delhi (J) 2011] 280. Writ of certiorari shall be issued by the Supreme
274. A writ of mandamus can be issued: Court and High Courts against Bodies.
(a) Only against subordinate courts (a) Having judicial and quasi-judicial Functions
(b) Against any person or authority
(b) Having quasi-judicial functions
(c) Only against tribunals
(b) Only against the executive bodies (c) Having judicial functions
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (d) Having executive and judicial functions
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
275. Which one of the following writ can be Issued only
against judicial and quasi- Judicial authorities: 281. The Writ of Mandamus is issued to enforce
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (a) Arbitrary actions
(c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto
(b) Mandatory duties
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
(c) Discretionary powers
276. The writ of “quo-warranto" is issued Against - (d) None of the above
(a) The usurper of a public office [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
(b) The appointing authority 282. The provision for imposing restriction on
(c) The appropriate government Fundamental Rights while martial law is in Force in
(d) None of the above any area is contained in:
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] (a) Article 13
(b) Article 23
277. Which of the following writs can be sought To be (c) Article 33
issued to quash unconstitutional Appointment to a (b) Article 34
public office: [U.P. Lower 1998]
(a) Quo Warranto (b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari 283. Under which Article of the Constitution of India
[Delhi (J) 2014] restrictions on fundamental rights can Be imposed,
while Martial law is in force:
278. The remedy of “curative petition” was used By the (a) Article 33
Supreme Court in: (b) Article 358
(a) M. Ismail v. Union of India (c) Article 359
(b) Babu Singh v. Union of India (d) Articl2 34
(c) Roopa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
(b) Lily Thomas v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] 284. The binding force behind the Directive Principles of
State Policy is
279. ‘Curative Petition’ may be entertained by The (a) Public Opinion
Supreme Court in the following Situation /situations (b) Government
(a) When a Judge on the Bench having Heard the (c) Constitution
matter did not disclose his Connection with the (b) Administration
subject matter [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
(b) The petitioner filing the petition was Not a party
before the Court but has Suffered a grave prejudice 285. According to the Constitution of India, Which of the
by the Decision following are fundamental for the governance of the
(c) The grounds mentioned in the Curative Petition country?
had been agitated in the Review Petition which (a) Fundamental Rights
was dismissed In circulation (b) Fundamental Duties
(d) All these : (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
[Delhi (J) 2014] (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
[Haryana (J) 2015]
286. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of 291. The Directive Principles of State Policy in The
State Policy? Constitution of India have been taken From which of
(a) To organize Village Panchayats the following:
(b) Right to education (a) The Constitution of Ireland
(c) Right to property (b) The Canadian Constitution
(b) Right to move Supreme Court (c) The Australian Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] (d) The U.S. Constitution
287. Directive Principles of State Policy are the [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
[U.P. Lower 2008]
Conscience of the Constitution, which embody the
social philosophy of the Constitution?
Who of the following made this statement? 292. Match List-I and List-II] and select the Correct
(a) B.R. Ambedkar answer using the codes given below The lists :
(b) K.C. Wheare
(c) Granville Austin
List I List II
(d) H.M. Seervai A. Article 39A 1. Living wages for workers
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] B. Article 43 2. Uniform Civil Code
Separation of Judiciary
C. Article 44 3.
from Executive
288. “Directive principles of state policy are the
D. Article 50 4. Free Legal Aid
Conscience of the Constitution which embodies the
social philosophy of the Constitution.” This was Codes:
described by A B C D
(a) Granville Austin (a) 1 4 2 3
(b) A.V. Dicey (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 4 3 2
(d) K.L. Wheare
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
289. “Directive principle of state policy” is

Directly related to- 293. From which source the Directive Principles Have
(a) Only social justice been adopted?
(b) Only economic justice (a) Russian Constitution
(c) Both of the above (b) British Constitution
(d) None of the above (c) Irish Constitution
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] (b) Swedish Constitution
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
290. What are the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) The main objectives of the framers of The 294. Which one of the following is not mentioned In
Constitution Directive Principles of State Policy under The
(b) The principles that are expected to Guide the Constitution of India?
State in the good governance Of the country (a) Free and compulsory education for Children
(c) The ideals of a welfare state that Should be up to fourteen years of age
acceptable to all right Thinking persons (b) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(d) Social rights as approved to personal Rights (c) Right to equal pay for equal work
enumerated in Part III (d) Promotion of international peace and Security
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
295. Which of the following is a Directive Principles of

State Policy?
(a) To provide paternity leave (c) Are mere moral precepts and have no
(b) To organize Gram Sabhas constitutional significance
(c) To provide for participation of Workers in (d) None of the above is correct
management of industries [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(d) To take steps for separation of Judiciary from
legislature
301. Mm. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy
[Delhi (J) 2014] contained in the Constitution are not Enforceable by
any Court, yet they are
296. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of (a) Superior to Fundamental Rights
State Policy? (b) Enforceable at the instance of President Of India
(a) Living wages for workers (c) Binding on the States
(b) Separation of Judiciary from Executive (b) Fundamental in the Governance of the Country
(c) Abolition of untouchability [U.P. Lower 2008]
(d) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens 302. Right to work in India is a:
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] (a) Fundamental Right
(b) Directive Principle
297. The Directive Principles of State Policy Have been (c) Statutory Right
borrowed from the Constitution Of: (d) Constitutional Right
(a) U.S.A. (b) Canada [U.P. Lower 1998]
(c) Ireland (d) Russia
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002] 303. In India right to work is a-
(a) Directive principle
298. 238. Which of the following amendments of the (b) Constitutional duties
Constitution gave priority to the Directive Principles (c) Fundamental right
of State Policy over Fundamental Rights? (d) None of the above
(a) 40th Amendment [M.P. H.J.S. 2912]
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 45th Amendment 304. “Right to work” in the Constitution can be Traced in
(b) 38th Amendment (a) Fundamental Rights
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (b) Directive Principles of Sate Policy
(c) Preamble of the Constitution
299. Consider the following statements regarding (d) None of the above
Directive Principles of State Policy: [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
1. They are not enforceable in a Court of Law.
2. Their enforcement may override Fundamental 305. In which case it was held that the principle Of equal
rights. pay for equal work is also Applicable to casual
3. They are fundamental in the Governance of the workers employed on Daily wage basis?
State. (a) Charanlal Sahu v. Union of India
(b) Dr. K.R. Lakshman v. State of Tamil Nadu
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) Deepak Sibal v. Punjab University
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 1and 2 only (d) Dhirendra Chamoli v. State of U.P.
(c) 2and 3 only (d) land3 only [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
306. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
300. Directive Principles of State Policy: using the codes given below the list.
(a) Can be enforced by a court of law in Appropriate
cases List I List II
A. Article 39A 1. Living wages for workers
(b) Can be taken into account in Interpreting the
B. Article 43 2. Uniform Civil Code
Constitution and the Law C. Article 44 3. Separation of Judiciary
from Executive (a) Article 43rd

D. Article 50 4. Free Legal Aid (b) Article 44th
(c) Article 46th
Codes:
(d) Article 47th
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3 [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 312. Indicate the correct Article of the Constitution which
(d) 1 4 3 2 mandates the State to Secure a Uniform Civil Code
for the Citizens Throughout the territory of India:
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] (a) Article 43
(b) Article 43-A
307. Which one of the following is Directive Principle of
(c) Article 44
State Policy?
(d) Article 45
(a) Right to Education
[U.P. P.C.S, 1999]
(b) Right to Property
313. Article 45 of the Indian Constitution refers To:
(c) Right to move Supreme Court
(a) Free and compulsory education for Children
(d) To organize Village Panchayats
(b) Free and compulsory education to all children of
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
the age six to fourteen years
308. Which one of the following Directive Principles of (c) Education to children up to six years of Age
State Policy is not a Gandhian Principle? (d) None of the above
(a) The State shall take Steps to organize Village [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
Panchayats
(b) The state shall Endeavour to promote Cottage 314. Which one of the following Articles is related to
industries organization of animal Husbandry?
(c) The state shall take steps for Preservation and
(a) Article 47
improving the breeds and prohibiting the Slaughter
of cows and other milch cattle (b) Article 43-A
(d) The state shall Endeavour to secure a Uniform (c) Article 48
civil code throughout the Territory of India (d) Article 46
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
309. Article 43A which deals with the Participation of 315. In which Article of the Constitution stated Below,
workers in management of Industries was added in
the Principle of protection and Improvement of
Constitution by:
(a) 44th Amendment environment and to Safeguard the forest and wildlife
(b) 45th Amendment of the 7 Country has been included :
(c) 42nd Amendment (a) Article 21
(d) 7th Amendment (b) Article 38
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] (c) Article 39
(d) Article 48-A
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
310. The provision of uniform civil code for Citizens has
been Provided in the Indian Constitution in:
316. Who shall take step to separate the Judiciary from
(a) Article 39 (b) Article 41
the Executive in the Public Services under Article 50
(c) Article 43-4 (d) Article 44
of the Constitution of India?
(a) President
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Prime Minister
(c) State
311. In which of the following Articles of the
(d) Governor
Constitution Provision regarding unified Civil code
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
has been given?
317. Which Article of the Constitution postulates

separation of judiciary from the Executive: 322. Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution dealing With
(a) Article 39 ‘Fundamental Duties” was added in The
(b) Article 43-A Constitution by
(c) Article 48-A (a) 24th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1971
(d) Article 50 (b) 25th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1971
[U.P. Lower 1998] (c) 42nd Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1976
(d) 44th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1978
318. Separation of judiciary from the executive has been [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
provided in which of the Following?
(a) The Preamble of the Constitution of India. 323. Fundamental Duties were introduced in the
(b) The fundamental rights of the. Constitution of Constitution by:
India (a) 43rd amendment
(c) The Directive Principles of the State Z Policy of (b) 44thamendment
the Constitution of India (c) 42nd amendment
(b) The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India (d) 41st amendment
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
324. Part IV-A of the Constitution containing

(5) Fundamental duties was inserted by the Following
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES Constitution Amendment Act:
(a) 25th (b) 42nd
319. Which of the following is not a "Fundamental duty (c) 44th (d) 52nd
under Article "51-A? [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(a) To abide by the Constitution and Respect its ideals
and institutions 325. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution
(b) To value and preserve the rich heritage Of our by the following amendment:
composite culture (a) 42nd
(c) To provide Opportunity of education to | the (b) 43rd
child below the age of six by his Parent or (c) 44th
guardian (d) 52nd
(d) To have compassion for living creatures [U.P. Lower 1998]
[Delhi (J) 2014]
326. Part IV-A was added to the Constitution of India by
320. Fundamental duties lie in part : the:
(a) I (a) Twenty-fifth Amendment Act
(b) II (b) Forty-second Amendment Act
(c) IV (c) Forty-fourth Amendment Act
(d) IV-A (d) Fifty-second Amendment Act
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
321. The concept of Fundamental Duties is Derived from 327. Fundamental duties have been added in the
the Constitution of Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 In
(a) U.S.S.R. accordance with the recommendation of:
(b) Pakistan (a) Santhanam Committee
(c) USA. (b) Sarkaria Committee
(d) Australia (c) Swarn Singh Committee
[U.P. P.C.S, 2009] (d) Indira Gandhi Nehru Committee
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
333. Which one of the following is not a ‘Fundamental

328. Which one of the following is the correct Statement? Duty’ of a citizen of India?
"Full faith and credit" clause of The Constitution (a) To renounce practices derogatory to The dignity of
does not apply to: women
(a) Public acts (b) To take care of the aged and infirm parents
(b) Public records (c) To protect and improve the natural Environment
(c) Acts of corporation (d) Duty of a parent to provide, opportunities for
(d) Judicial proceedings education to his child
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
334. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental

329. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem Duty?
is: (a) To protect unity and integrity of India
(a) A fundamental right of every citizen (b) To promote international peace and Security
(b) A fundamental duty of every citizen (c) To safeguard public property
(c) A directive principle of state policy (d) To provide with opportunities for Education of
(d) None of the above one's child-between the Age of six and fourteen
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] years
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
330. Respect for the National Flag and the National
Anthem is: 335. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental
(a) A Fundamental Right of every citizen Duty:
(b) A Fundamental Duty of every citizen (a) To safeguard public property
(c) A Directive Principle of State Policy (b) To promote international peace
(d) An ordinary duty of every citizen (c) To defend the country
[U.P. Lower 1998] (d) To protect natural environment
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
331. To project and improve the natural Environment
including forests, lakes, rivers And wild life, and to 336. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India, Who is
have compassion for Living creatures is, for every a parent or guardian to provide Opportunities for
citizen of India: education to his children Or as the case may be:
(a) A fundamental right ward between the age Of six and fourteen years." By
(b) A legal right which Constitutional Amendment Act, this duty
(c) A fundamental duty Included?
(d) None of the above (a) By 42nd Amendment
[Raj H.J.S. 2012] (b) By 44th Amendment
(c) By 86th Amendment
332. Consider the following statements: (d) By 92nd Amendment
The fundamental duties provided in the Constitution [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
are:
(a) To protect the sovereignty, unity and Integrity of 337. Which one of the following duties has been added in
India the list of Fundamental Duties by 86th Constitution
(b) To abide by the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2000?
(c) To defend the country and render National service (a) To safeguard public property and to abjure
when called upon to do so violence
(d) All of the above (b) Who is parent or guardian to provide
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] Opportunities for education to his child Of the
age of 6 to 14 years
(c) To defend the country and render National service (a) The President
when called upon to do so (b) The Prime Minister
(d) To respect the National Flag and National Anthem (c) The Council of Ministers
[U.P. Lower 2008] (d) All of the above three
[Delhi (J) 2011]
338. By the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, the Newly added
Fundamental Duty is 343. The executive power of the Union is vested In the
(a) To develop scientific temper (a) Union Cabinet
(b) To protect and improve natural environment (b) President of India
(c) To provide opportunities to educate child (c) Prime Minister
(d) To safeguard public property (d) Union Council of Ministers
[Bihar A.P.P, 2010] [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
339. Which of the following are included in the List of [U.P. Lower 1998]
fundamental duties in the Constitution?
(a) To abide by the Constitution and Respect its ideals 344. Parliament of India shall consist of
and institutions 344 (a) Two Houses
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure (b) Two Houses and Ministers
violence (c) Two Houses, Ministers and Attorney General
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, Unity and (d) Two Houses and the President.
integrity of India [Delhi (J) 2014]
(d) To uphold and protect secularism
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 345. The President of India is elected by an Electoral
Code: college consisting of
(a) (1), (3), (4) (b) (1), (2), (4) (a) all members of both Houses of Parliament
(c) (2), (3), (4) (d) (1), (2), (3) (b) all members of both Houses of Parliament and all
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] members of State Legislature Assemblies
(c) all elected-members of both Houses of
340. How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Parliament and all elected members of State
Indian Constitution? Legislative Assemblies
(a) 10 (b) 11 (d) all elected members of Parliament, State
(c) 12 (d) 09 Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006} [U.P. Lower 2008]
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
341. National flag can be flied by every citizen With
respect and dignity, was held by the Supreme Court 346. Who does not have the right to vote in the Election
in: of President of India?
(a) P.U.C.L. v. Union of India (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Union of India v. Naveen Jindal (b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(c) Union of India Vv. Association for Democratic (c) President's nominee in Rajya Sabha.
Reforms (d) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
347. By which one of the following, the President of
(6) India is elected?
EXECUTIVE (a) All the members of the Parliament
(b) All the elected members of the Parliament
(c) All the elected members of the Parliament
342. The Constitution has vested the executive Power of
and State Legislative Assemblies
the Union Government in-
(d) All the people of India.
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] 353. In the case of resignation, to whom the| President will
address the letter?
348. The President of India shall be elected by (a) To the Vice-President
(a) Members of Electoral College. (b) To the Prime Minister x
(b) The elected members of both Houses of (c) To the Chief Justice of India
Parliament. (d) To the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The elected Members of Legislative Assemblies [M.P. A.P.P. 2014]
of States.
(d) None of the above. 354. In the event of occurrence of vacancies in the offices
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] of both the President and the Vice President of India,
who among the following shall discharge the
349. The President of India is elected by functions of the President till a new President is
1. All the members of Parliament elected?
2. Elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
3. Elected members of the State Legislative (b) The Leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
Assemblies including National Capital Territory of (c) The Chief Justice of India
Delhi and Union Territory Of Pondicherry (d) The Senior most Governors
4. All members of State Legislative Assemblies [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Code:
(a) l and 4 355. The President may under Article 56 (1) be Remove
(b) 2 and from his office by a process of Impeachment on the
(c) 2 and 4 ground of
(d) l and 3 (a) proved misbehavior
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] (b) in capacity
350. The President of India is elected by: (c) violation of the Constitution
(a) the people of India (d) All of the above
(b) all the members of Parliament [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
(c) all the elected members of Parliament
(d) all the elected members of the Parliament and 356. For the post of President of India the minimum age of
of State Legislative Assemblies the person should be:
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
351. Which of the following is not included in Electoral (d) 35 years
College for electing President? [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
(a) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Elected Members of the Legislative Assembly of 357. Where can impeachment proceedings against The
the State BA President be initiated?
(c) Elected Members of the Legislative Council (a) In Lok Sabha
(d) Elected members of the Lok Sabha. (b) At a joint sitting of the two Houses Specially
[U.P. H.J.S. 2012] called for the purpose
(c) In either House of Parliament
352. President addresses his resignation to: be. - (d) In the Supreme Court
(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha ray [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) Vice-President 358. In which Article of the Constitution, the Eligibility
(d) Prime Minister for re-election of the President is given?
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) Article-57
(b) Article-58
(c) Article-59 (a) 3 months

(d) Article-60 (b) 6 months
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] (c) 60 days
(d) 1 yeara
359. The President of India can be impeached on The [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
ground of
(a) Incapacity 365. The Vice-President of India also holds one Office
(b) proved misbehavior from the followings:
(c) embezzlement of funds (a) Chairman of Finance Commission
(d) violation of the Constitution (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] (c) Chairman of Planning Commission
(d) Chairman of Privileges Committee
360. In which Article of the Constitution, the Procedure [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
for Impeachment of the President is given?
(a) Article 59 366. Who amongst the following elect the Vice-President
(b) Article 60 of India:
(c) Article 62 (a) Members of the Rajya Sabha only
(d) Article 61 (b) Members of the Lok Sabha only
[U. P. (U.D.A.) 2006] (c) Members of the both Houses of Parliament
(d) Members of all the State Legislative Assemblies
361. The President of India can be removed from His [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
office by a process of impeachment on The ground
of: 367. The term of the office of the Vice President is
(a) Proved misbehavior (a) five years from the date on which He/she enters
(b) Incapacity upon his/her office
(c) Violation of the Constitution (b) five years from the date on which He/she takes
(d) All of the above oath of the office
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (c) five years from the date of his/her Election is
announced
362. Any charge for the impeachment of the President may (d) None of the above
be preferred: [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Only in the House of People
(b) Only in the Council of States 368. What is the electoral college of the Vice- President?
(c) Ina joint session of both the Houses of Parliament (a) P.M. and all Governors
(d) In either House of Parliament (b) Members of Parliament
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (c) Only Council of Ministers
(d) Ministers of Union Government and all Chief
363. The President of India can be removed from his office Ministers
only on the ground of: [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(a) disobedience of the Parliament
(b) incapacity 369. Vice-President of India makes and subscribes oath or
(c) proven misbehavior affirmation before:
(d) violation of the Constitution (a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President of India
[U.P. A.P.P. (Special) 2007] (c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
364. The maximum time period to fill up vacancy In the [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
office of President occurred due To death, resignation
or removal of President is:
370. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in

‘connection with the election of President or Vice- 375. The President shall have the power under Article 72
President shall be inquired into and Decided by the of the Constitution of India Where:
(a) High Court of Delhi (a) punishment or sentence is by a Court Marshal
(b) Supreme Court (b) punishment or sentence is for an offence Against
(c) any High Court law relating to a matter to Which the executive
(d) Election Commission of India power of the Union extends
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] (c) sentence is a sentence of death
(d) All these
371. The President has no power to grant pardon Under [Delhi (J) 2014]
Article 72 of the Constitution of India Where the
sentence: 376. In which of the following decisions, the Supreme
(a) is given by a Court martial Court observed that “mercy Petitions filed under
(b) of death has been awarded Articles 72 and 161 should be disposed of within a
(c) is for an offence relating to matter to Which the period of three months from the date when it is
executive power of the Union extends received, as unwanted delays tend to shake The
(d) is for an offence relating to a matter to Which confidence in the system of justice”?
the executive power of the State Extends (a) Kuljeet Singh v. Lt. Governor of Delhi
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (b) Maru Ram v. Union of India
(c) Sher Singh v. State of Punjab
372. Assertion (A) The President of India Has the (d) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
power to grant Pardon, reprieve, [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
Respite of remission of
Punishment or to Suspend, remit 377. In which of the following cases the President shall not
or Commute sentence. have pardoning power?
Reason (R) The President exercises Not only (a) All cases of punishment by Court Martial
Executive Functions but also (b) All offences within the territory of India
Judicial and legislative Functions. (c) All offences against laws under the Union and
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct concurrent lists
explanation of (A) (d) Pardoning a sentence of death
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not Correct [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. 378. A person was convicted for murder and Sentenced to
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. death. His appeal to the Supreme Court was rejected.
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] He filed mercy Petition with the President of India
373. Pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial who rejected the same. Against this he again went To
review. The Supreme Court Observed in the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court would
(a) K.M.Nanavati v. State of Bombay interfere on the ground that the President:
(b) Epuru Sudhakar v. State of Andhra Pradesh (a) acted on the advice of council of Ministers
(c) Sher Singh v. State of Punjab (b) did not allow the convict to produce Witnesses to
(d) Maru Ram v. Union of India prove his innocence
[U.P. Lower 2009] (c) rejected the petition on the ground that He did
not have the jurisdiction to differ From the
374. Power of the President to grant pardons etc. and to Supreme Court on issues of Fact or law
suspend, remit or commute sentences In certain cases (d) did not give reasons for his order
is provided by which Article of the Constitution? [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(c) Article 72 (d) Article 65 379. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] 7 has held that the mercy petitions filed Under Articles
72 and 161 of the Constitution be decided quickly

within three months? 383. The Union Council of Ministers is Appointed by:
(a) Jagdish v. State of M.-P. (a) Prime Minister
(b) Kuljit Singh v. Lt. Governor of Delhi (b) President
(c) K.M. Nanawati v. State of Bombay (c) Parliament
(d) None of the above (d) Vice-President
[U.P. Lower 2008] [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
380. In which one among the following cases, the 384. The basis of Responsible Government under The
President of India is not bound by the Advice of the Constitution of India is
Union Council of Ministers? (a) Article 53
(a) Exercise of power under Article 72 (b) Article 75 (3)
(b) Exercise of power to appoint Attorney General of (c) Article 74 (1)
India (d) Article 75 (1)
(c) Exercise of power under Article 217 (3) [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(d) Exercise of power under Article 309
385. In which provision of the Constitution of India is
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] incorporated the “principle of Collective
responsibility” of the Council' of Minister?
381. Assertion (A) Courts cannot review The (a) Article 75(3)
question as to what “aid and (b) Article 75(1)
advice” is Given by the Council of (c) Article 171(4)
Ministers to the President. (d) Article 118(4)
Reason (R) The question of ‘aid and [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
Advice’ by the Council
Of Ministers is a “non 386. In the Constitution of India the foundation Of the
Justifiable issue.” Parliamentary Form of Government Lies in:
Select the answer given below : (a) Article 74 (1)
Code: (b) Article 75 (1)
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the (c) Article 75 (2)
correct explanation of A. (d) Article 75 (3)
(b) Both A and R is individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true. 387. The Constitution of India embodies the Parliamentary
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] form of government because:
(a) The President, the Head of the Executive, 1s
382. Assertion (A): The Parliamentary Form of answerable to the Parliament
Government is a responsible Government. (b) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is
Reason (R): The Council of Ministers shall Be accountable to the Parliament
collectively responsible to the House of The People. (c) The Council of Ministers is responsible both to
Mark the correct answer from the codes given below: Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (d) The Council of Ministers is collectively
explanation of (A). responsible to the Lok Sabha
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct [U.P. Lower 1998]
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. 388. Attorney-General holds office during the Pleasure of :
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. (a) The President
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] (b) The P.M.
(c) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court (c) must be laid before Parliament when it
(d) The Law Minister Reassembles
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) is a parallel power of legislation Available to the
389. Who among the following holds his office at the President even when Parliament is in Session
pleasure of the President? [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Attorney-General of India 394. The quorum for meetings of the House of People
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India constitutes
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service (a) 1/ 10th of the total members
Commission (b) 1/10th of the total members or 100 Members
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] whichever is less
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001, 2002] (c) 1/ 3rd of the total number
(d) 100 numbers
390. Which one among the following is not a Duty of the [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
Prime Minister of India?
(a) To communicate to the President all Decisions of 395. By which of the following provisions of the
the Council of Ministers Relating to the Constitution of India, power to promulgate
administration of the affairs of the Union Ordinances is vested in the President?
(b) To communicate to the President the Proposals for (a) Article 123
legislation (b) Article 124
(c) To advise the President about Disqualification (c) Article 125
of a Member of Parliament (d) Article 122
(d) To furnish information as the President May call [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
for regarding administration Of the affairs of the
Union 396. In which of the following cases it was held That the
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] Court cannot enquire into the Reasons of the
satisfaction or the sufficiency Of reasons of his
391. Under which Article of the Constitution of India the satisfaction in the exercise Of Ordinance making
Speaker is being elected and by whom? power of the President
(a) Under Article 75 by the President of India (a) T. Venkata Reddy v. State of AP
(b) Under Article 93 by the members of the House (b) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
of People (c) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar
(c) Under Article 178 by the members of Legislative (d) Nagraj v. State of A. P. |
Assemblies [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
(d) Under Article 124 by the President of India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] 397. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is
appointed by:
392. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will address His letter (a) Chairman of the Planning Commission
of resignation to- (b) Finance Minister
(a) The Prime Minister (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha (d) President
(c) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs [U.P. A.P.P. (Special) 2007]
(d) The President
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] 398. Consider the following statements:\
The Governor of a State
393. An ordinance promulgated by the Preside: 1. Is the Constitutional Head of the State
(a) Has an indefinite life 2. Always acts as an agent of the Centre
(b) is workable only if the Lok Sabha is Dissolved 3. Is an integral part of the State Legislature which of
the statements given above is Correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (d) None of the above

(b) 1 and 2 only [M.P. (J) 2009]
(c) 2 and 3 only
405. Which provision of the Constitution of India confers
(d) 1 and 3 only
pardoning power on the ‘Governor of a State?
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (a) Article 171
(b) Article 151
399. State Executive power is vested with (c) Article 161
(a) Chief Minister (d) Article 163
(b) Council of Ministers [M.P. H.J.S. 2011, 2012]
(c) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
406. The theory of separation of power does not Prevent
(d) Governor
the State executive from exercising power with
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] respect to which the legislature of State has power to
make law as provided under:
400. In death of the Governor who takes over till Next (a) Article 72 (b) Article 74
Governor is appointed? (c) Article 162 (d) Article 256
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court
407. A person can be a member of the State Council of
(c) Any Judge of the High Court
Ministers without being a Member of State
(d) None of the above Legislature:
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) For no time
(b) For an indefinite period
401. Who, among the following holds office during the (c) For a maximum period of one year
pleasure of the President of India? (d) For a maximum period of six months
(a) Election Commissioner [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Governor of a State
(c) Judge of the Supreme Court 408. Who of the following has the right to participate in
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha the proceedings of State Legislature?
[U.P. A.P.P. (Special) 2007] (a) Chairman, State Public Service Commission
(b) Chief Justice of High Court
402. Which one of the following does not apply to the term (c) Advocate-General
of office of governor? (d) Chief of Police Force in the State
(a) The Governor shall hold the office during the [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
pleasure of the President.
(b) Minimum age for the post of Governor shall be 409. The final decision on questions of Disqualifications
thirty-two year. of members of state Assembly shall be made by:
(c) The Governor may resign by Handwritten signed (a) Speaker of Assembly
addressed to the President (b) Governor
(d) The term of Governor shall be five years (c) Election Commissioner
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (d) Chief Justice of High Court
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
403. Governor can resign from his post, his Resignation
will be addressed to the: 410. Under which of the following Articles the Governor
(a) President of a State has power to issue an Ordinance?
(b) Chief Minister (a) Article 123
(c) Vice-President (b) Article 213
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Article 131
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) None of these
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
404. 404. Who administers oath to the Governor of a
State? 411. Who can issue ordinance in State?
(a) President of India (a) Minister
(b) Chief Justice of the State High Court (b) Government Advocate
(c) Advocate-General of the State (c) Governor
(d) Chief Minister (7)

[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
LEGISLATION
412. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State 418. The Council of Ministers is collectively Responsible
lapses: to
(a) after six months of its promulgation (a) The Parliament
(b) after s:x months of its publication in The official (b) The Lok Sabha
gazette (c) The Rajya Sabha
(c) after six weeks from the date of Assembly of the (d) The Prime Minister
Houses of the State Legislature [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
(d) whenever the Council of States takes a Decision
419. Indian Parliament consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] and:
413. The power of Governor of a State to Promulgate (b) Prime Minister
ordinance is given in Constitution of India (c) Council of Ministers
(a) Article 123 (d) None of these
(b) Article 212 [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(c) Article 213
(d) Article 356 420. Which one of the following is not a Constituent of the
Parliament of India?
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] (a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India
414. To review the financial position of which One among (c) House of People
the following, the Governor of a State has power to (d) Council of States
constitute a Finance Commission? [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(a) Panchayats only
(b) Municipal bodies only 421. Total number of persons President can Nominate in
(c) State Parliament:
(d) Both Panchayats and Municipal bodies (a) 10
[Delhi A.P.O. 2010] (b) 12
(c) 14
415. How many members are nominated in Lok Sabha by (d) 2
the President? [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 10 (d) 12 422. How many representative of the Anglo- Indian
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] Community can be nominated to the State Legislative
Assembly by the Governor Of the State
416. Which Article provides for personal immunity to the (a) Three
President and Governor for Official acts? (b) Two
(a) Article 362 (c) One
(b) Article 363 (d) Nil
(c) Article 368 [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
(d) Article 361
[M.P. (J) 2010] 423. What is the maximum number of members of The
House of the People representing the Union
417. P.A. Sangma V. Pranab Mukherjee (2013), Case was Territories?
deiced by the Supreme Court (a) Ten (b) Fifteen
(a) Unanimously (c) Twenty (d) Twenty five
(b) By a majority of 3:2 [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
(c) By a majority of 6:1
(d) By a majority of 4:1 424. The Prime Minister is said to hold the office During
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] the pleasure of the President but in Reality he stays in
office as long as he enjoys The confidence of :
(a) The electorate
(b) The Lok Sabha
(c) The party to which he belongs [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]

(d) Parliament
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] 432. Which one of the following is not correct about a
Parliamentary Form of Government?
425. “Prime Minister” itself is a separate class.” This was (a) The head of the State can dissolve the Lower
laid down in House of the Legislature
(a) Ram Prasad v. State of Bihar (b) All the Ministers are the Members of Lower
(b) R.K.Garg v. Union of India House
(c) State of MP. V. G.C. Mandavar (c) The Executive is a part of the Legislature
(d) P. V. Shastri v. Union of India (d) The Executive is responsible to the Legislature
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] [U.P. Lower 2009]
426. According to our Constitution the Rajya Sabha is : 433. The time gap between two successive Sessions of
(a) Dissolved once in 2 years Parliament is not to exceed
(b) Dissolved every 5 years (a) Four months
(c) Dissolved every 6 years (b) Six months
(d) Not a subject to dissolution (c) Three months
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) What is specified by the president
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
427. Who can dissolve Rajya Sabha?
(a) President 434. Who among the following presides over the first
(b) Vice-President meeting of newly formed House of the People?
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (a) President of India
(d) It cannot be dissolved (b) Vice-President of India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
428. Which of the following statements is correct [U.PP.C.S 2014]
Regarding Rajya Sabha?
(a) One-third of its members retire every Two 435. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker
years (a) is removed from the office immediately
(b) One-third of its members retire every Year (b) remains as Speaker until the final Meeting of
(c) One-third of its members retire every Three years the House of the People after the dissolution
(d) One-half of its members retire every Three years | (c) has to submit his resignation to the President of
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] India within 24 hours 441
[U.P. Lower 1998] (d) can continue as Speaker for the period Of 30 days
only
429. The gap between two sessions of the Lok Sabha is [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
termed as :
(a) Adjournment period 436. In which House is the Presiding Officer not A
(b) Suspension period member of that House?
(c) Dissolution period (a) Lok Sabha
(d) Prorogation period (b) Rajya Sabha
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad
430. ‘Prorogation’ means [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(a) Inviting the Members of Parliament
(b) Asking Speaker to hold Session of Lok Sabha 437. The question of disqualification of the Speaker of Lok
(c) Dissolution of Lok Sabha Sabha on the ground of 4 Defection is determined by :
(d) Termination of Session (a) The Deputy Speaker
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (b) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) A member elected by Lok Sabha
431. Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President (d) The President of India
(a) On advice of the Council of Ministers [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
(b) On advice of the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) On his own wish
(d) On recommendation of the Vice-President
438. The question of disqualification of Speaker Of the (b) According to the opinion of the Supreme Court
House of the People on the ground of Defection is (c) With the aid and advice of the Council Of
decided by: Ministers
(d) In his own discretion
(a) The Union Council of Ministers
(b) Such Member of the House of the People [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
Elected by the House for the purpose
(c) The House of the People 444. The nature of power of Parliament to Punish any
(d) The Supreme Court of India person for breach of its Privilege is
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (a) Judicial
(b) Administrative
439. To whom amongst the following, the Ie Speaker of (c) Quasi-Judicial
the Lok Sabha should address as letter of resignation : (d) None of the above
(a) President of India |
(b) Prime Minister of India [Bihar (J) 2009]
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 445. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy Privilege of
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] exemption from arrest or Detention in prison
(a) Only under Civil process and during the
440. Who amongst the following is not required to take the continuance of a joint sitting/Meeting
oath of office and of secrecy? /conference of joint committee Of Houses of
(a) Speaker of the House of the People Parliament or Houses of State Legislature as
(b) Chairman of the Council of States the case may be And during 40 days before and
(c) Finance Minister after Such sitting /meeting /conference
(d) Governor of a State (b) Under Civil as well as Criminal Process and as all
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] times save with the Permission of the Speaker or
the Chairperson as the case may be.
441. Which of the following is not a correct Answer? A (c) Under Civil as well as Criminal Process but only
member of Parliament shall be liable to a Penalty of when the house is in Session
Rs. 500 each day for sitting and I Voting in either (d) Do not enjoy any such exemption.
Houses of Parliament if [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
(a) He has not taken the prescribed oath or
Affirmation 446. Parliamentary privileges are not available To
(b) A warrant of arrest has been issued Against (a) Attorney-General who participates in The
him proceeding of the House of the People
(c) He knows that he is not qualified for I (b) The Minister giving speech in a House of which he
Membership is not a member
(d) He is disqualified from membership (c) An individual who is called upon to Testify before
[U.P. Lower 2009] the House
(d) The citizen who distributes pamphlet in The
442. The President will not act on the advice of 1 The House
Council of Ministers in the following A Matter: [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Exercise of the power of pardon at
(b) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha 447. The President of India has no power to call for a joint
(c) Dismissal of a state government under article 356 session of Parliament:
of the constitution (a) If a bill passed by one House has been Rejected by
(d) Deciding the question of disqualification which the other House
a member of the Parliament is alleged to have (b) If a bill regarding salary of Members of Parliament
incurred passed by one House is kept Pending in the other
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] House
(c) If a bill imposing a tax passed by Lok Sabha
443. Which one of the following is correct Statement? In has been rejected by Rajya Sabha
deciding the question as to the Disqualification of a (d) In case of disagreement of the House in Passing
Member of Parliament, The President shall act 4 any bill regarding Constitutional amendment of
(a) According to the opinion of the Election Schedule I
Commission [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
448. Joint-session of the Parliament was Summoned by the (d) Special Committee
President of India to pass: [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2006]
(a) Dowry Prohibition Act
(b) Banking Service Commission Act
454. Who among the following presides over a joint
(c) POTA
(d) All the above Acts session of Parliament?
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] (a) The President of India
(b) The Vice-President of India
449. Who presides over Joint Sitting of Lok Sabha and (c) The Speaker of the House of the People
Rajya Sabha? (d) The Chief Justice of India
(a) President [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Vice-President 455. Joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament is
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] presided by
450. Which of the following is correct? (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(a) The State Legislatures can initiate any Bill or (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
proposal for Amendment of Constitution (d) None of the above 4
(b) If there is a disagreement between the Two
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
Houses of Parliament regarding the Passage
of an Amendment Bill, the Deadlock may be
resolved by a joint Session of two Houses 456. Money Bill can be initiated only in:
(c) The previous sanction of the President Is not (a) Finance Commission
required for introducing in Parliament any Bill (b) Rajya Sabha
for Amendment of Constitution (c) Lok Sabha
(d) It is not obligatory for the President to give his (d) None of these
assent to a Bill for amendment Of the
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
457. Assertion (A): A Bill which contains a taxation
451. A joint session of the two Houses of Parliament may clause besides clauses dealing with other matters
be called to resolve the conflict between the two may also be a Money Bill.
Houses in the following case: Reason (R): All Bills dealing with takes are Money
(a) To pass an Ordinary bill Bills.
(b) To pass a money bill (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(c) To pass a Constitution Amendment bill explanation of (A)
(d) In all the above cases (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
452. Joint Session of Parliament shall be convened by the (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
President of India under Article 108 for passing [Bihar A.P.P, 2010]
(a) Money Bill
(b) Ordinary Bill 458. Money Bill can be introduced:
(c) Financial Bill (a) In either House of Parliament
(d) Vote on Account (b) Only in Lok Sabha
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] (c) Only in Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above :
453. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
a Bill, then the deadlock is resolved by
(a) A joint sitting of two Houses
(b) The President of India 459. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bill for a period of
(c) The Prime Minister of India (a) 14 days
(b) 3 months Reason (R): When the Vice- President of India

(c) 6 months officiates as President of India, he performs
(d) None of the above simultaneously the function of Chairperson of Rajya
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] Sabha.
[Bihar APP 2010] Codes:
(a) (A) and (R), both are false.
460. Rajya Sabha does not have co-equal powers with the (b) (A) and (R), both are true.
Lok Sabha in: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(a) Passing of a Constitutional Amendment Bill (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(b) Passing of a Money Bill [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
(c) Removal of a Supreme Court Judge
(d) The impeachment of the President | 465. Legislative Council is presided by the:
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
461. On assuming Office, President. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul (c) Vice-President
Kalam returned the very first ordinance without his (d) None of these
signature. It was related to [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(a) Dissolution of Gujarat Legislative Assembly
(b) Imposition of President's rule in Jammu and 466. In which one of the following cases it was held that
Kashmir taking of oath of office by an elected Member of
(c) Election reforms as suggested by the Supreme Legislative Assembly in the name of ‘Allah’ is
Court Constitutional?
(d) Disinvestment of Life Insurance Corporation of (a) Ramavtar Swarnkar v. State of Bihar
India (b) Madhu Parumala v. State of Kerala
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] (c) State of Haryana v. Ranbir
(d) State of Karnataka v. Uma Devi
462. The prohibition regarding discussion in Parliament [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
with regard to conduct of any Judge of the Supreme
Court or of the High Court in discharge of his duties 467. In which of the following articles of the Constitution
is contained in Article - of India, the members of State Legislative Assembly
(a) 121 are required to take oath of their office?
(b) 211 (a) Article 188
(c) 124 (b) Article 164(3)
(d) None of the above. (c) Article 124(6)
[U.P. H.J.S. 2012] (d) Article 99
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
463. By which of the following Article, the power to
promulgate ordinances is vested in the President of 468. Consider the following statements:
India: Under Article 243D, not less than one-third seats of
(a) Article 121 the total number of seats in the panchayat to be filled
(b) Article 122 directly by election shall be reserved for women.
(c) Article 123 This one third reservation for women
(d) Article 124 1. Shall include women from SC and ST
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] 2. Is in addition to the separate reservation of one third
seats for women belonging to SC and ST.
464. Assertion (A): The President of India can Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
promulgate ordinances at any time except when both (a) 1 only
Houses of Parliament are in session. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the State legislation. With respect to the above,
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] which one of the following is correct?
(a) The action is invalid as the legislation passed
469. The case of State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh is by Parliament delegating the power to the
related with which of the following doctrines? Central Government is, unconstitutional in its
(a) Doctrine of Basic Structure totality
(b) Doctrine of Eclipse (b) The action is invalid as the legislation passed by
(c) Doctrine of pith and substance Parliament delegating the power to the Central
(d) Doctrine of colorable legislation Government is unconstitutional only partially in
[Bihar (J) 2009] so far as it confers power to repeal as existing
legislation
470. The statement "what cannot be done directly cannot (c) It is not possible to clearly state whether the
be done indirectly” relates to the doctrine of: action is valid or not as it is not clear whether the
(a) Doctrine of pith and substance constitution Central Government had exercised the power by
(b) Doctrine of implied power repealing any existing legislation on the subject
(c) Doctrine of severability or not and whether successive exercise of power
(d) Doctrine of colorable legislation was in the Same manner as was done in Brij
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] Sunder Kapoor's case
(d) The action of the Central Government is invalid
471. Which one of the following is the correct statement as it had exercised the power repeatedly which is
of the decision in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar? not permissible
(a) President is entitled io promulgate ordinances [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
during the recess of the Parliament
(b) Colorable repromulgation of ordinances is 474. The doctrine of Territorial Nexus means that
unconstitutional (a) Laws made by the State Legislatures may
(c) Article 123 empowers the President to issue have their application to the people of other
successive ordinances States when there is direct relation between
(d) Governor’s power of reissuance of ordinance such laws and people of other States
cannot be questioned in the Court of Law (b) The territory of every State is open to all citizens
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] of India for the purpose of trade and commerce
(c) The State Legislature is sovereign within its
472. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done territory
indirectly". This statement relates to the doctrine of : (d) The laws made by the sovereign legislatures
(a) Anciliary power cannot be questioned on the ground of extra-
(b) Pith and substance territorial operation
(c) Colorable legislation [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(d) Implied power
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] 475. A law made by Parliament having extra- territorial
[Bihar A.P.O. 2010] operation shall:
(a) Not be deemed invalid
473. The Parliament enacts a legislation conferring power (b) Be deemed invalid
on the Central Government to adopt an existing (c) Be deemed ultra-vires
legislation from any State and apply the same to a (d) Be deemed unconstitutional
Union Territory with such modifications and
restrictions as it deems fit and while doing so, it may [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
repeal any existing law on the subject. The Central
Government exercised that power repeatedly for one 476. Match List I. With List II and select the correct
Union Territory by amending some of the Provisions answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II (c) The question of repugnancy has to be, decided

(Doctrine) (Meaning) with reference to Article 251 of the Constitution
You cannot do indirectly of India.
A Doctrine of Pith and
1. what you cannot do
. Substance (d) The legislation passed by Parliament shall cease
directly
The part of the Statute to have effect after two years from the date of its
Doctrine Incidental enactment
B. 2. which is bad can be
Encroachment [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
severed from the rest
A law is not invalid even
Doctrine of
C. 3. though trenched 479. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a
Severability
incidentally to another list matter in the State list provided it is in the:
D Doctrine Colorable True nature and character
4. (a) National interest
. Legislation of the legislation
(b) Interest of the State concerned
Code: (c) Interest of the public
A B C D (d) Interest of minority
(a) 1 2 3 4 [U.P. P.C.S. 2001, 2002]
(b) 1 3 2 4 [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 2 1 480. The Centre can legislate on the subjects of State List
(a) If the Parliament passes a resolution declaring it
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] essential to do so in national interest
(b) If the President issues an order to this effect in the
477. Consider the following statements: plea of national interest
Parliament's power to legislate State subjects in State (c) If the Supreme Court grants necessary authority to
List means Parliament has the power the Parliament
1. To legislate on State List with the consent of the (d) If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd
State majority declaring to legislate on the subject of
2. To legislate on State List for implementing treaties State List in national interest
and international agreements. [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) L only 481. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only Parliament can legislate on a subject of State List
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. If the Council of States passes a resolution by two-
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 thirds majority of members present and voting that
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] it is expedient in the national interest to do so.
2. If two or more State Legislatures pass a resolution
478. The Parliament passes legislation with respect to a to that effect. Which of the statements given above
subject in the State list in the national interest. The is/are correct?
legislation contains certain provisions which are (a) L only
inconsistent with the provisions of a State legislation (b) 2 only
enacted on the same subject. With regard to the (c) Both 1 and 2
above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is correct? [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(a) The question of repugnancy has to be decided 482. On those subjects which are not covered by any of
with reference to Article 254(1) of the the three Lists, the power to legislate belongs to
Constitution of India (a) The Union Parliament
(b) The question of repugnancy has to be decided (b) The State Legislatures
with reference to Article 254(2) of the (c) Both on the Union Parliament and State
Constitution of India Legislatures
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (d) All authorities including armed forces in the
territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme
483. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy the privilege Court
of exemption from arrest or detention in prison: [Delhi (J) 2014]
(a) Only under civil process and during the
continuance of a Joint 487. Judicial Review means:
Sitting/Meeting/Conference or Joint Committee (a) Supreme Court can declare any law made or
of Houses of Parliament or Houses of State amended by the legislature as ultra-vires to the
Legislature as the case may be and during 40 Constitution
days before and after such Sitting / Meeting (b) Reviewing judgments of High Court
/Conference (c) Reviewing judgments of Supreme Court
(b) Under civil as well as criminal process and at all (d) All of the above
times save with the permission of the Speaker or [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
the Chairperson as the case may be
(c) Under civil as well as criminal process but only 488. The decision o the Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta v.
when the House is in Session Union of India, (1988) 1 SCC 471, concerned with
(d) Do not enjoy any such exemption Ganga water pollution, was described as ‘ultra-
[Delhi (J) 2011] activist’ by
(a) D.D. Basu
(8) (b) T.K. Tope
(c) Subhash Kashyap
JUDICIARY (d) None of them
484. In which of the following decisions of the Supreme [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Court of India, a Seven Judges Bench explained the
concept of Public Interest Litigation? 489. While deciding cases of terrorists, which procedure
(a) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdullah is to be followed?
(b) Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh v. (a) Procedure established by law
Union of India (b) Procedure established by the Constitution
(c) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Neeraj Chaudhry v. State of ULP. (d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
485. The person associated with PIL is 490. Which one of the following statements is not
(a) Justice Bhagawati correct?
(b) Justice R.N. Mishra (a) Supreme Court may issue writs for
(c) Justice Venkatachelliah enforcement of any legal right
(d) None of the above (b) Supreme Court has the power to punish any person
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] for its contempt
(c) Salary of judges of the Supreme Court is 495. Not
486. Which of the following is true about Supreme Court subject to vote of the legislature
of India? (d) A retired judge of the Supreme Court is prohibited
(a) Supreme Court shall sit in such places, as are from appearing and pleading in any Court within
approved by the Chief Justice of India under the territory of India
intimation to the President of India [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(b) No judgment shall be delivered by the Supreme
Court save in open Court 491. National Judicial Appointments Commission Act,
(c) President of India can enlarge the jurisdiction and 2014 came into force
powers of Supreme Court (a) On April 13, 2015
(b) On December 31, 2014
(c) Is not in force, yet (c) The Debt Recovery Tribunal

(d) On January 31, 2015 | (d) The Supreme Court
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] [M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
492. Which one of the following statement is not correct? 497. A judge of Supreme Court may be removed from his
(a) No mandamus can be issued to enforce an Act office by an order of the President following
which has been passed by the Legislature procedures given under the Indian Constitution in
(b) Court cannot issue any direction to the Legislature (a) Article 124 (b) Article 127
to make any particular kind of enactment (c) Article 129 (d) Article 130
(c) Supreme Court may give a direction for [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
amending an Act
(d) Under the Constitutional Scheme, Parliament and 498. 498, The Supreme Court of India is bound by the
the States Legislatures exercise sovereign powers decision of the following:
to enact law (a) The Privy Council
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (b) The Federal Court of India
(c) The Supreme Court of India
493. In the appointment of a Supreme Court Judge, (d) By a decision of none of the above
primacy is given to the opinion of [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) Union Law Minister 499. A distinguished jurist can be appointed a
(c) Chief Justice of India and other three senior Judges judge/member of:
of the Supreme Court (a) The High Court
(d) The Prime Minister (b) The Administrative Tribunal
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] (c) The Administrative Tribunal and the Supreme
Court
494. 494. A professor of the university who is an eminent (d) The Supreme Court
jurist is eligible to be appointed a judge of the [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
following Court:
(a) High Court 500. Under which article of the Constitution a
(b) Both High Court and Supreme Court distinguished jurist can be appointed a Judge of
(c) Neither in the Supreme Court nor in the High Supreme Court?
Court (a) Article 124 (2) (b) Article 127
(d) Supreme Court (c) Article 128 (d) Article 130
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999, 2001] [Bihar (J) 2009]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] 501. Judges of Supreme Court can hold office till the age
of:
495. A citizen of India who, in the opinion of the (a) 62 years
President, is a “distinguished jurist" can be (b) 72 years
appointed as a judge of the (c) 65 years
(a) High Courts (d) 75 years
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Both (a) and (b) above [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[U.P. Lower 2008] 502. Who gives oath of the office an secrecy to the Chief
Justice of Supreme Court?
496. An eminent Jurist can be appointed as a (a) Senior Judge of Supreme Court
Judge/member of (b) President of India
(a) A High Court (c) Assumes office as his own
(b) The Administrative Tribunal (d) Law Minister
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [U.P. Lower 2008]

[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
503. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
vacant or when the Chief Justice is by reason of
absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties of 508. Disputes among the States in India come to the
his office, the duties of his office shall be performed Supreme Court under
by: (a) Appellate jurisdiction
(a) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the (b) Advisory jurisdiction
Chief Justice of India (c) Original jurisdiction
(b) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by (d) None of the above
the President of India [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Any senior most judge of the Supreme Court after
the Chief Justice 509. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
(d) Any one of the above disputes between the Centre and the States falls
[M.P. A.P.P 2002] under its
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
504. The Indian Constitution provides for the (b) Appellate jurisdiction
appointment of ad hoc judges in the: (c) Original jurisdiction
(a) High Courts (d) Writ jurisdiction
(b) District and Session Courts [Haryana (J) 2015]
(c) Supreme Court
(d) All of these 510. In case of constitutional disputes between the
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] Government of India and the State Governments, the
Supreme Court of India has
505. Ad-hoc judges are appointed in the Supreme Court (a) Appellate Jurisdiction
of India when: (b) Original Jurisdiction
(a) There is no quorum of judges available to hold, (c) No Jurisdiction
to continue any session of Court (d) Advisory Jurisdiction
(b) Some judges go on long leave [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(c) There is abnormal increase in the number of cases
pending in the Court 511. Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in
(d) No one is available for permanent appointment appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters,
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] pertains only to a:
(a) Substantial question of law
506. Which of the following Article of the Constitution (b) Question of law
declares the Supreme Court shall be a Court of (c) Question of fact
Record? (d) Mixed question of fact and law
(a) Article 127 [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
(b) Article 129 [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Article 128
(d) Article 130
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] 512. Which Articles of the Constitution invest
extraordinary power in the Supreme Court?
507. Disputes between states in India come to the (a) Articles 32, 137 and 142
Supreme Court under: (b) Articles 32, 136 and 142
(a) Appellate jurisdiction (c) Articles 136, 137 and 226
(b) Original jurisdiction (d) Articles 133, 137 and 142
(c) Advisory jurisdiction [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(d) Review jurisdiction [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
to who may invoke it." It was held by Supreme

513. Which of the following combination is correctly Court in
matched? (a) K.P.M. Basheer v. State of Karnataka
1. Advisory jurisdiction of the Art. 136 Supreme (b) Suga Ram v. State of Rajasthan
Court (c) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India
2. Special leave to appeal by the Art. 133 Supreme (d) Raj Krishna v. Binod
Court [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
3. Right to enforce Fundamental Art. 32 Rights only
4. Ordinance making power of Art. 123 the Governor 518. In which one of the following cases the Supreme
Select the correct Answer using the code given below: Court held that the scope of Judicial review is
(a) 1 limited to the deficiency in decision making process
(b) 2 and not in the decision?
(c) 3 (a) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
(d) 4 (b) Lt. Governor, National Capital Territory v. Ved
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] Prakash
(c) South Bengal State Transport Corporation v.
514. As a guardian of the Govt. Of India Act, 1935 a Sapan Kumar Mitra
court was constituted which was called (d) State of U. P. V. Siya Ram
(a) Privy Council [U.P.P.C.S. 2009]
(b) Supreme Court
(c) High Court 519. Mention the chronology of the following judgments
(d) Federal Court of the Supreme Court of India, starting from the
[Bihar (J) 2009] earliest up to the latest case. Use the code given
below:
515. The Supreme Court cannot hear appeal under Article 1. Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh v.
136 of the Constitution against the following : Union of India
(a) An interim order passed by a Civil Judge 2. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(b) A decision of a single judge of the High Court 3. MLR. Balaji v. State of Mysore
(c) An order of an election tribunal 4. A.1.M.S. Students’ Union v. A.LI.M.S.
(d) A sentence passed by a court martial
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] Codes:
(a) 3,1,2,4
516. Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136 of the (b) 1,2,3,4
Constitution of India may be granted by Supreme (c) 4,3,2,1
Court. (d) 2,1,4,3
(a) Only against the orders and judgments of the High [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
Courts
(b) From any judgment, decree, determination, 520. Under which one of the following Articles of the
sentence or order under any cause or matter Constitution the Supreme Court has powers to
passed or made by any Court or Tribunal in review its decisions?
territory of India. (a) Article 135
(c) Against any appellate order or judgment passed by (b) Article 136
the Courts or Tribunal in India. (c) Article 137
(d) Against the order or judgment of the High Court (d) Article 143
passed only in Public Interest Litigation. [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
[U.P. H.J.S, 2012]
521. Which one of the following statements is not
517. "The exercise of power of Supreme Court under correct?
Article 136 is not circumscribed by any limitation as
The Supreme Court of India may review its earlier [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
decision:
(a) If there is mistake or error apparent on the face of 526. Which of the following statements is not correct?
record (a) Judgment of a High Court is not binding on other
(b) If the circumstances of a substantial and High Courts.
compelling character make it necessary to do so (b) Judgment of a High Court is binding on all courts
(c) If it is satisfied of its error and its harmful within its jurisdiction.
effect on the general interest of public (c) Judgment of a same Bench is not binding on the
(d) If a new interpretation of a statutory provision is later Bench of the co-equal strength.
brought to its knowledge (d) Judgment of the Double Bench is binding on Singh
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] Bench.
522. Under which Article of the Constitution the Supreme 527. Which one of the following Articles provides that law
Court may transfer a case outside the State for re- declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts
trial? within the territory of India?
(a) Article 136 (a) Article 131
(b) Article 137 (b) Article 141
(c) Article 139-A (c) Article 151
(d) Article 140 (d) Article 137
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
528. Which of the following Articles provides that law
523. The first case of the Supreme Court in which it declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all
refused to accept its earlier decision and overruled its courts?
own precedent was (a) Article 131
(a) Keshav Mill Co. V. Income-tax Commissioner (b) Article 141
(b) Bengal Immunity Co. V. State of Bihar (c) Article 151
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (d) None of the above
(d) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh [U.P. Lower 2009]
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
529. Which one of the following is not a case relating to
524. The law declared by Supreme Court of India is doctrine of precedent?
binding on all courts within the territory of India, but (a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
the Supreme Court is not bound by its decision was (b) Prakash Chand Pathak v. State of U.P.
decided by the Supreme Court itself in (c) Liversidge v. Anderson
(a) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (d) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. V. State of Bihar
(b) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain [U.P. P.C.S. (7) 2012]
(c) Madhav Rao Scindia v. Union of India
(d) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. V. State of Bihar 530. The Supreme Court has given advisory opinion in
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] the following cases:
1. In re Berubari case
525. In which of the following cases, it was held that the 2. In re Special Courts Bill
law declared by the Supreme Court: is binding on all 3. In re Delhi Laws Act
Courts within the territory of India, but the Supreme The Chronological order in which the above cases
Court is not bound by its own decisions? appeared is:
(a) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (a) 1,3,2
(b) Madhav Rao Sindhia v. Union of India (b) 1,2,3
(c) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. V. State of Bihar (c) 3,1,2
(d) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (d) 2,1,3
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] (c) Article 142

(d) Article 145
531. Which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
dealt with in Article 143 of the Constitution of [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
India?
(a) Appellate 536. Article 142 of the Constitution
(b) Writ (a) Is supplementary in nature
(c) Original (b) Gives preference to equity over law
(d) None of the above. (c) Decisions under it do not constitute precedence
[U.P. H.J.S. 2012] under Article 141.
(d) All of the above
532. What is the correct chronological sequence of the [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
following advisory opinions given by the Supreme
Court under Article 143 of the Constitution of India? 537. The rules for regulating the practice and procedure of
1. In re Delhi Laws Act case the Supreme Court under Article 145 of the
2. In re Berubari case Constitution are made by the:
3. In re Sea Customs Act (a) President of India
4. The Special Court Reference case (b) Supreme Court with the approval of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: President of India
Code: (c) Supreme Court alone
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,1,3,4 (d) Supreme Court in consultation with the Bar
(c) 2,3,4,1 (d) 2,4,3,1. Council of India
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] [U.P. P.C.S. 2601]
533. The minimum number of judges to hear the matter 538. Supreme Court Rules, 1966 have been framed under
referred to the Supreme Court under Article 143 is: which of the following Articles of the Constitution?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) Article 146 (b) Article 143
(c) 5 (d) 9 (c) Article 144 (d) Article 145
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
539. How is the number of Judges of the Supreme Court of
534. Assertion (A): The President has a right to seek India increased?
advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any (a) By Presidential Notification
question of law of fact. (b) By Amendment of the Constitution
Reason (R): The Constitution makes it obligatory for (c) By the Supreme Court itself
the President to accept the advice rendered by the (d) By Parliamentary Act
Supreme Court. [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A) 540. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct Supreme Court of India are charged on
explanation of (A) (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (b) Ministry of Law
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (c) Contingency Fund of India
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (d) Consolidated Fund of India
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
535. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides
that all authorities civil. And judicial in the territory 541. The administrative expenses of the Supreme Court
of India shall act in the aid of the Supreme Court? including all salaries allowances and pensions
(a) Article 144 payable to or in respect of the officers and servants of
(b) Article 141 the Court, shall be charged upon:
(a) Contingency fund of India Singh

(b) Consolidated fund of India D. Rupa Ashok 4. Appointment and
(c) Taxes levied by Union of India | Hurra v. Ashok transfer of judges of
(d) Consolidated fund of States Hurra the Supreme Court
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] And High Courts
Code :
542. Which one of the following statements is not correct? A BCD
(a) Both Supreme Court and High Courts are courts of (a) 1 3 4 2
record (b) 4 2 1 3
(b) The question regarding the age of a High Court (c) 1 2 4 3
judge is decided as per the provisions of Article | (d) 4A 3 1 2
217(3) of the Constitution | [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
(c) An additional judge of a High Court cannot be Ans. (d)
confirmed as a permanent judge of the High
Court without consultation with the Chief 545. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Justice of India and a collegiums of four senior (a) Supreme Court's original exclusive jurisdiction
most judges of the Supreme Court of India extends to disputes between Government of India
(d) The original exclusive jurisdiction of Supreme and a State Government
Court includes disputes between the Central (b) An additional judge of a High Court cannot be
Government and one or more State Governments confirmed as a permanent judge of the High
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] Court without consultation with the Chief
Justice of India and a collegiums of four senior-
543. In the appointment of Judges of the Supreme Court, most judges of the Supreme Court
the recommendation of the Collegiums, consisting of (c) The question regarding age of a judge of the High
the Chief-Justice of India and four of the senior-most Court is decided as per the provisions contained in
Judges of the Supreme Court is binding on the Article 217 (3) of the Constitution of India
President of India, because (d) Both Supreme Court and High Court are courts of
(a) It is so provided in Article 124 of the Constitution record
of India [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(b) It has been consistent practice for a long time
(c) It has been laid down by the Supreme Court in S. 546. The President of India may appoint duly qualified
P. Gupta v. Union of India persons as additional judge of the
(d) It has been laid down by the Supreme Court In (a) Supreme Court only
Re-Presidential References,1999 (b) High Courts only
[U.P. Lower 2008] (c) High Courts and Supreme Court both
(d) Neither Supreme Court nor High Courts
544. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
547. Under which provision of the Constitution High
List I List IT | Courts have power to punish for contempt of itself?
(Decisions) (Judicial principle) (a) Article 214
A. Supreme Court 1. Parliamentary (b) Article 226
Advocates on privileges (c) Article 215
Record (d) Article 216
Association v. [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
Union of India
B. In Re Vinay 2. Curative petition 548. According to Article 227 of the Constitution, every
Chandra Mishra High court shall have over all courts and tribunals
Cc. In Re Keshav 3. Contempt power
throughout the territories in relation to which it (c) He has completed the age of 35 years
exercises jurisdiction. (d) He has, for at least ten years, held a judicial office
(a) Supervision in India
(b) Superintendence [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
(c) Overview
(d) None of the above 554. “The Judges of Family Court cannot be considered
[Haryana (J) 2015] for elevation as High Court Judges.” Supreme Court
held it in which of the following case?
549. The confirmation of an additional judge of a High (a) Sanjai Aggarwal v. Union of India
Court as a permanent judge of that Court without (b) T.G.N. Kumar v. State of Kerala
consultation with the ‘collegium’ of judges is (c) Vishwajeet Majhi v. State of Uttarakhand
(a) Invalid as held in S. P. Gupta case (d) S.D. Joshi v. High Court of Judicature at
(b) Valid as held in Shanti Bhushan case Bombay
(c) Invalid as held in Special Reference No. 1 of [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
1998 Ans. (d)
(d) Valid as held in Supreme Court Advocates-On
Record Association case . 555. By which one of the following, the Chief Justice of a
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] State High Court is appointed?
(a) Governor of the concerned State
550. Judges of the High Courts are appointed by the (b) Chief Justice of India
President in consultation with (c) President of India
(a) A collegium consisting of Chief Justice of India (d) Prime Minister of India
and two senior most judges of the Supreme Court : [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Chief Justice of India and Governor of the
concerned State 556. In order to transfer a judge from one High Court to
(c) Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of the another High Court the President of India:
concerned High Court (a) Has to act with the concurrence of the Chief
(d) A collegiums consisting of Chief Justice of India Justice of India
and four senior most judges of the Supreme Court (b) Has merely to inform the Chief Justice of India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (c) Is required to have meaningful consultation
with the Chief justice of India
551. Judges of High Court can hold office till the age of : | (d) Need not do any of the above things
(a) 62 years (b) 72 years [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(c) 65 years (d) 70 years
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] 557. Which one of the following writs can be issued only
against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities?
552. For how much period, the President can appoint (a) Mandamus (b) Quo-warranto
additional and acting judges in High Courts” (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Certiorari
(a) Not exceeding 2 years [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Not exceeding 3 years [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Not exceeding 1 year
(d) Not exceeding 5 years 558. Which of the writs can be issued by a High Court to
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] direct a public officer or the Government not to
enforce a law which is unconstitutional?
553. Which is not a qualification to become a High Court (a) Certiorari (b) Prohibition
Judge? (c) Quo warranto (d) Mandamus
(a) He should be citizen of India [M.P. (J) 2010]
(b) He has at least ten years of experience as an
advocate of High Court
559. Part VI, Chapter VI of the Indian Constitution dealing 564. When a State fails to implement the administrative
with subordinate Courts are: directions given by the Union under Article 256 of
(a) Articles 232-238 the Constitution of India?
(b) Articles 233-237 (a) The Parliament may compel the State to execute
(c) Articles 233-238 the said direction
(d) Articles 231-237 (b) The Governor may dissolve the State Legislature
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] (c) The President may presume that constitutional
machinery in the State has failed
560. The rule that no tax shall be levied except by (d) President may impose emergency under Article
authority of law is embodied in Article 352 of the Constitution
(a) 262 (b) 263 [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
(c) 264 (d) 265
[Haryana (J) 2015] 565. The proclamation of Emergency under Article 352,
when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved
561. According to Article 233 of the Constitution, a by:
District Judge is appointed by the: (a) Rajya Sabha and then it will continue till the
(a) Chief Justice of the State High Court reconstitution of New Lok Sabha which must
(b) Governor of the State approve it within thirty days of its first sitting
(c) Chief Minister of the State (b) Rajya Sabha only
(d) None of the above (c) Lok Sabha in the next session after six months
[Haryana (J) 2015] (d) New Lok Sabha within six months of its
Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
566. A resolution for disapproval of proclamation of

(9) emergency may be brought by
EMERGENCY (a) 10 members of the Lok Sabha
(b) 10 members of the Rajya Sabha
562. A law made by Parliament with respect to any matter (c) 1/10 of the members of the Parliament
in the State List while a proclamation of Emergency (d) 1/10 of the total number of members of the Lok
is in operation, to the extent of the incompetency, Sabha
ceases to have effect on the expiration of a period of
(a) One month after the proclamation has ceased to [U.P. Lower 2008]
operate
(b) Six months after the proclamation has ceased to 567. Under Article 352 Emergency cannot be proclaimed
operate on which of the following ground?
(c) Three months from the date of its enactment (a) Armed rebellion
(d) Six months from the date of its enactment (b) Internal disturbance
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] (c) War
(d) External aggression
563. The President can declare emergency- [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(a) By his own discretion
(b) By the advice of the Prime Minister 568. To justify a Proclamation of Emergency under Article
(c) By the written advice from the Council of 352 the actual occurrence of war or any armed
Ministers. rebellion
(d) By the recommendation of the Members of (a) Is necessary
Parliament (b) Is not necessary, but there must be an
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] ‘imminent danger of the same
(c) Must take place at least fifteen days prior to (d) Failure of Constitutional machinery in State
proclamation [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(d) None of the above is correct
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] 574. A proclamation of emergency under Article 356 must
be passed by both the Houses of Parliament within
569. Which one of the following is not the ground (a) 3 months (b) 1 month
empowering President of India to declare Emergency (c) 2 months (d) 6 months
under Article 352 of the Constitution [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(a) War
(b) Internal disturbance 575. In which case the Dissolution of Bihar Legislative
(c) External aggression Assembly by Governor before formation of
(d) Armed rebellion Government was declared unconstitutional?
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] (a) Rameshwar Prasad v. U. O. I. (W. P. 257 of
2005)
570. Which one of the following judges referred to (b) K. C. Vasant Kumar v. State of Karnataka, AIR
emergency as the ‘darkest chapter of the democratic 1985 S. C. 1495
history of India’? (c) Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra, (2005) SCC 3226
(a) Justice H. R. Khanna (d) Banarsi Das v. Teeku Dutta & Others, (2005) 4
(b) Justice V. N. Khare SCC 499
(c) Justice P. N. Bhagawati [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(d) Justice Krishna lyer
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] 576. In which one of the following cases the Dissolution
of Bihar Legislative Assembly by Governor before
571. Every proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 formation of Government was declared
shall be laid before each House of the Parliament: unconstitutional by the court?
(a) Within two months (a) Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of
(b) Within six months India
(c) Within six weeks (b) Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee v. Union of
(d) Within one month India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (c) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
572. Which of the following statements is/are correct in [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
the light of provisions of Article 356?
(a) President must proclaim emergency only on the 577. In which one of the following cases the Supreme
basis of a report from the Governor of the State Court held that Governor of a State cannot be
(b) Governor can recommend President to proclaim removed from his office by the President in an
emergency on the basis of personal information arbitrary manner without any compelling reason?
suggesting large scale defection of legislators (a) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
(c) President can proclaim emergency only on the (b) B. P. Singhal v. Union of India
advice of Council of Ministers\ (c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
(d) All these (d) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
[Delhi (J) 2014] [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
578. The fundamental right guaranteed under the
573. State emergency under Article 356 shall be following Article gets suspended automatically with
proclaimed by the President of India in a State on the the proclamation of emergency
ground of (a) 14 (b) 15
(a) Security of State (c) 16 (d) 19
(b) Public order [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(c) Corruption of Chief Minister
579. Once a proclamation of emergency is made, the right

of a citizen to move the Supreme Court for 584. Who can suspend the Fundamental Rights during
enforcement of his fundamental rights is suspended emergency?
by the: (a) President of India
(a) Prime Minister of India (b) Parliament
(b) President of India (c) Lower House of Parliament
(c) Chief Justice of India (d) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
585. When the proclamation of emergency is in
580. When Emergency under Article 352 of the operation, President can suspend the enforcement of
Constitution is proclaimed, the President has the the fundamental right guaranteed under the
power to suspend the Fundamental Rights but it is following Article:
not possible to suspend the Rights contained in the (a) Article 20
following Articles: (b) Article 21
(a) Articles 21 and 22 (c) Article 22
(b) Articles 19, 20 and 21 (d) All the above
(c) Articles 20 and 21 [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(d) Articles 19 and 20
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] 586. Financial emergency may be declared by the
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] President under:
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] (a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
581. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, (c) Article 359
the State Government (d) Article 360
(a) Cannot legislate [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Can legislate only on subjects in concurrent list
(c) Can legislate on the subjects in the state list 587. Which of the following is not the correct statement
(d) Is suspended regarding financial emergency?
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] (a) President can ask States to follow a certain cannot
of financial propriety
582. Under which of the following Articles the President (b) The States may be asked to reserve the Money
of India has a right to suspend the implementation of Bills for the consideration of the President
fundamental rights during proclamation of (c) President can suspend the normal allocation of
emergency? revenues
(a) Article 359 (d) President can reduce the salaries of civil
(b) Article 360 servants and not judges
(c) Article 354 [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(d) Article 353
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002] 588. If any proclamation is issued under Article 360 of
the Constitution, the President shall be competent to
583. Which Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended issue directions for the reduction of salaries and
even during an emergency under Article 352 of the allowances of-
Constitution? (a) Any class of persons serving in connection with
(a) Right to equality the affairs of Union
(b) Right to freedom of speech and expression (b) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court
(c) Right to life and personal liberty (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Right to constitutional remedies (d) None of the above
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
594. The amendment of the following requires ratification

589. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed by half of the state legislatures
under Article 360 of the Constitution in India? (a) Part Ill of the Constitution
(a) Never (b) 1962 (b) Part IV of the Constitution
(c) 1965 (d) 1975 (c) Articles 73 and 102 of the Constitution
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] (d) All the above
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
590. Within what period, the Parliament has to 'approve
financial emergency declared by the President? 595. Which of the following Articles empowers the
(a) Six months Indian Parliament to amend the Constitution?
(b) Two months (a) Article 268
(c) Three months (b) Article 368
(d) Four months (c) Article 369
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] (d) None of these
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
591. Under which of the following Articles of the
Constitution President can impose Financial 596. Minerva Mills v. UOI lays down that
Emergency? (a) Article 358 confers a limited power of amendment
(a) Article 352 of the Constitution and the Parliament cannot,
(b) Article 356 under the exercise of that limited power, enlarge
(c) Article 359 that limited power into an absolute power
(d) Article 360 (b) Parliament’s power of amendment which also
includes constitutional amendment cannot take
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] away the power of judicial review of all laws
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(10) (d) None of the above
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
592. The ratification by State legislatures is not required 597. The provision relating to the Federal Structure can
for a constitutional amendment bill passed by be amended by Parliament
Parliament in respect of an amendment of (a) By simple majority
(a) Union List in Seventh Schedule (b) By 2/3rd majority
(b) Article 241 with regard to High Courts for Union (c) By absolute majority
Territories (d) By 2/3rd majority of members present and
(c) Articles 1 to 3 with regard to Union and its voting and ratification by half of the State
territory [Bihar (J) 2009]
(d) Article 162 with regard to the extent of power of
state executive 598. Following provisions of the Constitution require
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] special majority and ratification of not less than one
half of the Legislatures of the States for amendment
593. Amendment to which of the following provisions of of
Constitution require ratification by the state? (a) Election of the President
(a) Article 242 (b) Articles 73 and 162
(b) List-I of Seventh Schedule (c) Distribution of legislative powers between the
(c) Chapter V of Part IV Centre and the States
(d) Chapter II of Part XI (d) All the above
[Delhi (J) 2014] [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
599. The basic structure doctrine with respect to the 604. Under Article 368 of the Constitution, Parliament
Constitution of India: has no power to repeal fundamental rights because
(a) Was propounded first in the judgment of the these are:
Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. (a) Human Rights
State of Kerala (b) Transcendental Rights
(b) Is contained in the Constitution itsel (c) Parts of basic structure or essential framework
(c) Was propounded first in the judgment of the of the Constitution
Supreme Court in AK Gopalan v. Government (d) Enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
of India (IC Golaknath and others v. State of [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
Punjab
(d) Was propounded first in the Privy Purse case 605. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to
[Delhi (J) 2011] the President for his assent?
(a) He may or may not give his assent
600. The Constitution (Ninety fourth Amendment) Act, (b) He may withhold his assent
2006 amended (c) He shall give his assent to the Bill
(a) Article 164 of the Constitution (d) He may return the Bill for reconsideration
(b) Article 170 of the Constitution [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(c) Article 232 of the Constitution [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(d) Article 361-B of the Constitution 606. Which one of the following statements is correct?
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill after
the passing by each house of the Parliament, the
601. The theory of basic structure of the Constitution was President
propounded in (a) Shall give his assent
(a) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (b) May give his assent
(b) 1.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (c) May withhold his assent
(c) Kesavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (d) May return the Bill for reconsideration
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [U.P. Lower 2009]
607. In which of the following cases did the Supreme
602. In which case it was laid down that the “amendment Court held that an Amendment of the Constitution
in the Constitution is exercise of legislative functions under Article 368 was “law” within the meaning of
of the Parliament”? Article 13:
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(c) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (c) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(d) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala (d) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
[U.P. Lower 1998]
603. Which one of the following cases decided by
Supreme Court led to first Amendment in the Indian 608. In which of the following, ratification by half of
Constitution? State Legislatures is required: —
(a) Chintamani Rao v. State of M.P. (a) Amendment of Part III of the Constitution
(b) Bihar Rajya v. Kameshwar Singh (b) Amendment of Articles 73 and 162 of the
(c) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India Constitution
(d) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (c) Amendment of Part IV of the Constitution
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] (d) Amendment of Article 146 of the | Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
609. Amendment in Article 368 of the Constitution can (c) Ramdas v. State of Maharashtra
be done by: (d) None of the above
(a) The President of India [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
(b) Simple majority of Parliament
(c) Special majority of Parliament ratified by not 613. By which of the following Constitutional
less than one-half of the State Legislatures Amendment Article 31-C was added to the
(d) None of the above Constitution?
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999, 2001] (a) 26th Amendment
(b) 22nd Amendment
610. Match List-I (Amendment) with List-II (Nature of (c) 24th Amendment
Amendment) and select the correct answer using the (d) 25th Amendment
codes given below the Lists : [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
List I List II
(Amendment) (Nature of Amendment) 614. Which of the following Amendments of the
A 42nd Amendment Disqualification of Constitution made it mandatory for the President to
1.
. Act, 1976 defection
accept the advice given by Council of Ministers?
52nd Amendment It included ‘Sindhi’
B. 2. (a) 39th Amendment
Act, 1985 language in Schedule VIII
This Amendment inserted (b) 42nd Amendment
three new words, (c) 49th Amendment
62nd Amendment
C. 3. ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and (d) 44th Amendment
Act, 1989
‘Integrity’ in the [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
Preamble
This Amendment has
615. The clause (3) to Article 352 of the Constitution
extended the reservation
D 21 st
Amendment of seats and sts in the requiring the President to issue a proclamation of
4. emergency only after the decision of the Union
. Act, 1966 House of the people and
the state legislative Cabinet has been communicated to him in writing
assembly was inserted by which constitutional amendment?
Codes: (a) 44th Amendment, 1978
A B C D (b) 73rd Amendment, 1992
(a) 3 1 2 4 (c) 70th Amendment, 1991
(b) 1 3 4 2 (d) 42nd Amendment, 1976
(c) 3 1 4 2 [M.P. H.].S. 2011]
(d) 1 3 2 4
[Bihar A.P.P. 2019] 616. Articles 19(1) (f) and 31 were deleted and Article
300-A was inserted by the following Constitution
611. Which one of the following amendments inserted Amendment Act:
the words “Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any (a) 44th Constitution Amendment Act
amendment made under this Article” in Article 368: (b) 38th Constitution Amendment Act
(a) Forty-second Amendment Act (c) 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
(b) Forty-fourth Amendment Act (d) 25th Constitution Amendment Act
(c) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(d) Twenty-second Amendment Act
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] 617. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978 was
(a) Amended Article 32
612. In which of the following cases Articles 368 and 31- (b) Deleted Article 31 and introduced Article 300A
B read with Schedule IX of Constitution of India has (c) Deleted Article 32 from Part III of the Constitution
been discussed? (d) Introduced a new Article 300 in the Constitution
(a) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
(b) Sanghmitra Ghosh v. Kajal Kumar Ghosh
618. The "Right to Property" as a fundamental right was

removed by which one of the following 624. “Right to Education” as Fundamental Right was
Constitutional Amendments? added in the Constitution by which of the following
(a) 25th Amendment Constitutional Amendment?
(b) 93rd Amendment (a) 42nd (b) 44th
(c) 44th Amendment (c) 84th (d) 86th
(d) 42nd Amendment [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
619. “No person shall be deprived of his | property save 625. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
by authority of law”. This right is given in the answer using the codes given below the Lists
Constitution of India in List I List II
(a) Article 300 A The Constitution (Eightieth
1. Article 243 M
(b) Article 30 . Amendment ) Act, 2000
The Constitution (Eighty first
(c) Article 300-A B. 2. Article 335
Amendment) Act, 2000
(d) Article 330 The Constitution (Eithty
[Raj H.J.S. 2012] C. second Amendment) Act 3. Article 16
620. The 79th Amendment to the Indian Constitution 2000
1999 is about: D The Constitution (Eighty
4. Article 270
(a) Center-State relations . third Amendment) Act 2000
(b) Establishment of political parties
(c) Fundamental rights Codes:
(d) Reservation for scheduled caste and tribes in A B C D
Lok Sabha and State Assemblies (a) 4 2 3 1
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
621. By which of the following Constitutional (d) 4 3 2 1
Amendment Clause (4-B) was added to Article 16 of [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
the Constitution?
(a) 80th (b) 82nd 626. By which Constitution Amendment the number of
(c) 81st (d) 85th Ministers is limited to 15% of the total number of
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] members of the House?
(a) Ninety-first Amendment
622. By which Constitutional Amendment, Article 51- (b) Ninety-second Amendment
A(K), which provides for the eleventh duty of a (c) Ninety-third Amendment
citizen was added? (d) None of the above
(a) The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(b) The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(c) The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act
(d) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act 627. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] anti-defection provision of the Constitution?
(a) 51st Amendment
623. Fundamental right relating to right to education was (b) 52nd Amendment
added in the Constitution by (c) 53rd Amendment
(a) Eighty-seventh Amendment Act, 2003 (d) 54th Amendment
(b) Eighty-fourth Amendment Act, 2001 [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
(c) Eighty-fifth Amendment Act, 2001
(d) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002 628. The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act, 2003 is
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] about:
(a) Inclusion of four additional languages as official (a) 74th Amendment

languages in the Eighth Schedule of the (b) 73rd Amendment
Constitution (c) 65th Amendment
(b) Imposition of “Service Tax" by the Centre (d) 44th Amendment
(c) Establishment of a separate National Commission [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
for Scheduled Tribes
(d) Total number of ministers including Prime- (11)
Minister in the Union Council of Ministers
MISCELLANEOUS
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
634. Which of. The following is not Constitutional body?
629. 93rd Amendment of the Constitution of India deals (a) Election Commission
with: (b) Planning Commission
(a) Right in respect of physically handicapped persons (c) Finance Commission
in the services under the State (d) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(b) Reservation in the matters of promotion in the [Delhi (J) 2014]
services in favor of Other Backward Classes
(c) Reservation for admission in Central 635. ‘A’ committed an offence on October 1, 2010. On
Educational Institutions the said date the prescribed punishment for the
(d) Right to education offence was 3 years imprisonment. By an
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] amendment on October 1, 2011 the punishment for
the offence was enhanced to 7 years imprisonment.
630. By which Constitution (Amendment) Act Clause (5) The trial was concluded on October 10, 2011 and
was inserted in Article 15 of the Constitution? ‘A’ was found guilty.
(a) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act (a) ‘A’ will be sentenced with 3 years
(b) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act imprisonment
(c) Constitution (Ninety-fourth Amendment) Act (b) (2) ‘A’ will be sentenced with 7 years
(d) Constitution (Eighty-ninth Amendment) Act imprisonment
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] (c) (3) ‘A’ will be sentenced for between 3 and 7
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] years imprisonment
(d) Any of the above
631. The Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, [Delhi (J) 2011]
2005, enables the State to make special provision for
their admission to educational institutions who 636. An Amendment of the Constitution of India for the
belong to purpose of creating a new State in India, must be
(a) Socially and Educationally Backward Classes passed by:
(b) Scheduled Castes (a) A simple majority in Parliament
(c) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (b) Two-thirds of the members of both the Houses of
(d) All the above Parliament present and voting
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] (c) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by
not less than half of the States
632. The new State of Chhattisgarh was created by which (d) A simple majority in the Parliament with the
Amendment Act of the Constitution? approval of the concerned State
(a) Ninety-third (Amendment) Act, 2005 [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Ninety-second (Amendment) Act, 2003
(c) Ninety-first (Amendment) Act, 2003 637. An amendment of the Constitution of India for the
(d) Ninety-fourth (Amendment) Act, 2006 purpose of creating a new State in India, must be
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] passed by
(a) A simple majority by the Parliament
633. Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution by
(b) A simple majority in the Parliament and the (b) The power of judicial review exercisable by the
ratification by not less than half of the States higher Courts can be taken away
(c) The 2/3rd majority in the Parliament and the (c) The power of judicial review can also be vested in
ratification by not less than 2/3rd majority of the the administrative tribunals with regard to matters
States for which they have been created
(d) The 2/3rd majority of the members of | both the (d) By exercising powers under Article 368, the courts
Houses of the Parliament present and voting can be deprived of their power of judicial review’
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
638. In which list is the subject ‘Pilgrimages Places 643. 643.Money Bills has been defined in:
outside India’ enumerated? (a) Articles 110, 199
(a) Union List (b) Articles 110, 198
(b) State List (c) Articles 111, 199
(c) Concurrent List (d) Articles 111, 198
(d) None of the above 7 [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
644. A person whose fundamental rights are violated can
639. Under which Article of the Constitution Parliament move the High Court under:
can create a new State? (a) Article 20
(b) Article 4 (c) Article 32
(c) Articlee5 (d) Article 22
(d) Article 368 [M.P. (J) 2009]
[Bihar (J) 2009] Ans. (b)
640. Within the meaning of under Article 3 of the Indian 645. Under the Indian Constitution, it was held in the
Constitution, the Parliament by law may/can: case of Pradeep v. Union of India that
(a) Form new States (a) There is only one domicite of the country
(b) Alter areas of states (b) There are two domiciles of the Union as well as of
(c) Alter boundaries or the names of existing states the State
(d) All of the above (c) In case of Jammu & Kashmir, there are two
[M.P. (J) 2012] domiciles one of the Union and the other of the
State
641. The expression ‘every person’ in Article 5 of the (d) Both (a) and (c)
Constitution of India includes: [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) A prisoner
(b) Member of Armed Forces 646. In which case it was held by the Supreme Court that
(c) Person born in the Territory of India ‘Delay in deciding mercy petition is a sufficient
(d) All of the above ground for committing the death sentence to life
[M.P. (J) 2012] imprisonment’?
(a) Shatrughan Chouhan v. Union of India
642. Which one of the following statements is correct? (b) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
The principle of judicial review is part of the basic (c) Rajat Prasad v. CBI
feature of the Constitution of India, but it has been (d) Uday Gupta v. Aysha
held by the Supreme Court that: [Delhi (J) 2014]
(a) The power of judicial review can be taken away
from the Court and vested “in the administrative 647. Which Schedule of the Constitution mentions the
tribunals Union List, State List and Concurrent List?
(a) Seventh Schedule
(b) Article 246

(c) Eighth Schedule 651. The doctrine of Territorial Nexus is related with:
(d) Article 245 (a) Article-13
[M.P. (J) 2010] (b) Article-211
(c) Article-245
648. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (d) Article-300
1. Exercises powers in relation to the accounts of [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
Union and States only
2. Besides (a) (supra) can also exercise powers in 652. Which one of the following statements is correct?
relation to the accounts of any other authority The ‘non-obstante clause’ under Article 246(1) is
or body as may be prescribed by or under any invoked to judge the validity of a State legislation
law made by Parliament when the:
3. Besides (a) and (b) above, can also exercise (a) Court is unable to decide the question by applying
powers in relation to accounts of Companies the theory of pith and substance
(Private Sector) to which Nationalized Banks and (b) Court is unable to decide the question by
Financial Institutions have advanced monies applying the theory of harmonious construction
4. Besides (a) and (b) above can exercise powers in (c) State law falls under any entry of List II
relation to accounts of only those Companies (d) State law is passed under any entry of List IT
(Private) Sector in which the investment of and Parliamentary legislation is passed under
Nationalized Banks and Financial Institutions is by any entry of List I
way of equity [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
[Delhi (J) 2011]
653. Entry 97 of Union list of the Constitution deals with
649. Which one of the following is not included in Union (a) Agriculture
List? (b) Education
(a) Postal service (c) Police
(b) Defense (d) Reserved Power
(c) Audit and Accounts [Bihar (J) 2009]
(d) Public Health
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] 654. Which of the following is contained in the
concurrent list?
650. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer (a) Agriculture
using the code given below the lists: (b) Education
List I List II (c) Fisheries
(Provision) (Source) (d) Police
A [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Concurrent List 1. Constitution of Japan
.
B. Rule of Law 2. Constitution of Ireland
Directive Principles 655. The Concurrent list of the Constitution has
C. 3. British Constitution (a) 52 Entries
of State Policy
D Procedure (b) 99 Entries
4. Australian Constitution
. established by law (c) 107 Entries
Code: [Bihar (J) 2009]
A B C D Ans. (d)
(a) 1 2 3 4 656. Article of the Constitution of India vests the
(b) 2 4 3 1 residuary power of legislation with the Parliament.
(c) 1 3 4 2 (a) 246 (b) 247
(d) 4 3 2 1 (c) 248 (d) 250
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] [Haryana (J) 2015]
relating to a subject in the concurrent list would be

657. Under which Article of the Constitution Parliament that:
has the power to create additional Courts? (a) the State law would be valid and the Union law
(a) Article 248 would not be operative in that State
(b) Article 249 (b) the Union law would override the State law
(c) Article 247 (c) both laws would remain operative in the State
(d) None of the above (d) the Parliament can amend the State law with
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] prior assent of the President
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
658. The concept of Panchayati Raj was introduced in the
Indian Constitution through: 663. Which of the following Articles was amended by the
(a) Article 123 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
(b) Article 300-A (a) Article 330
(c) Article 244 (b) Article 13
(d) None of these (c) Article 131
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) Article 354
[Delhi (J) 2014]
659. Municipalities have become constitutional
functionaries by insertion of Article: 664. Cauvery river water sharing dispute concerns the
(a) 243Y States of
(b) 243Q (a) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(c) 243 Z (b) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
(d) None of these (c) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Gujarat
[M.P. (J) 2010] (d) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and
Pondicherry
660. Which of the following statements is not true [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
regarding ‘Interstate Council’?
(a) It is established under the Article 263 of the 665. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order
Constitution (Amendment) Bill 2011 is related to which State?
(b) Decision on all questions is required to be taken in (a) Madhya Pradesh
consensus (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Decision of the Chairman is bound by the (c) Arunachal Pradesh
consensus (d) Assam
(d) It is required to meet at least three every years [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
666. The function of the Inter-State Council does 0not
661. In Bhanumati v. State of U.P., (2010), the Supreme include:
Court in interpreting Article 243-C of the (a) adjudication of disputes pertaining to inter-
Constitution applied the: state rivers
(a) Doctrine of Colorable legislation (b) making recommendations for better co-ordination
(b) Doctrine of Silence of policy and action pertaining to inter-state
(c) Doctrine of Pith and Substance 6 disputes
(d) Doctrine of Basic feature (c) inquiry into disputes arising between the states
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (d) investigating subjects common to states
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
662. Which one of the following is correct?
The result of obtaining the assent of the President to 667. Which one of the following has been set up under
a State law which is inconsistent with a Union law the Constitution of India?
(a) The Planning Commission
(b) The Law Commission [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]

(c) The National Commission to Review the
Constitution 674. Which of the following Articles contains right to
(d) The Finance Commission property?
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (a) Article 31(A)
(b) Article 19
668. The number of members in a Finance Commission (c) Article 300
including the Chairman is: (d) Article 300-A
(a) 3 (b) 4 [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(c) 5 (d) 7
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] 675. Article 301 of the Constitution is related to :
Ans. (c) (a) Right to property
(b) Rights of civil servants
669. The Finance Commission consists of (c) Money bill
(a) A Chairman and Four members (d) Freedom of Inter-State Trade
(b) Five members [Bihar (J) 2009]
(c) A Chairman and Three members
(d) A Chairman and Seven members 676. Assertion (A): Article 301 of the Constitution
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] declares trade, commerce and intercourse throughout
the territory of India free.
670. The Planning Commission is a. Reasoning (R): The State can impose taxes which do
(a) political body not directly affect the freedom of trade.
(b) statutory body (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(c) nonpolitical body explanation of (A)
(d) quuasi-political body (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
671. Article 300 of the Constitution deals with (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(a) Tortuous and contractual liability of State [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Right to Property
(c) Freedom of Trade and Commerce 677. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(d) Parliamentary privileges 1. No bill can be introduced in the legislature of a
[Bihar (J) 2009] state for imposing reasonable restrictions on the
freedom of trade without previous sanction of the
672. In which one of the following cases did the 6 President.
Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign 2. No bill can be introduced in either House of
immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of Parliament for altering the name of a. state without
compensation for violation of fundamental rights? the recommendation of the President and the
(a) G.K. Krishnan v. State of Tamilnadu concurrence of the state legislature concerned.
(b) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Kasturilal v. State of U.P. (a) l only
(d) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati (b) 2only
[U.P. P.C.S. () 2003] (c) Both 1 and 2
673. Which article of the Constitution of India lays down (d) Neither 1 nor 2
that the Union of India and the States can sue and be [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
sued?
(a) Article 301 (b) Article 300 678. Automobiles Ltd. v. State of Rajasthan is a case
(c) Article 304 (d) Article 365 related to
(a) Federalism 683. Which one among the following statements is

(b) Amenability of the Constitution correct?
(c) Judicial review (a) The Union executive has no power to issue
(d) Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse directions to the States under the Constitution of
[Bihar (J) 2009] India in any matter
(b) If the union executive issues directions to the state
679. Which one of the following does not come within executive and they are not given effect by the
the territorial jurisdiction of Punjab and Haryana State, no consequence have been prescribed under
High Court? the Constitution
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) The pleasure doctrine is subject to Article 311
(c) Chandigarh (d) Delhi (2)
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] (d) The residuary powers can be exercised by the
States
680. Under which Article of the Constitution, a State can [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
impose tax on Inter-State trade with the prior
approval of the President? 684. Article 312 of the Constitution is related to
(a) Article 302 (b) Article 303 (1) (a) Constitution of all India Services
(c) Article 303 (11) (d) Article 304 (b) (b) Powers of Chief Election Commissioner
[Bihar (J) 2009] (c) Breach of Parliamentary privileges
681. In which one of the following cases is a civil servant, [Bihar (J) 2009]
before dismissal, entitled to be heard?
(a) If the President is satisfied that in the interest of 685. In which one of the following cases it is not
security of the State it is not expedient to hold an mandatory for the President or any other authority to
enquiry into the misconduct of the civil servant consult the Union Public Service Commission?
(b) If the disciplinary authority records that it is not (a) In matters covered by Article 335 of the
reasonably practicable to hold the enquiry Constitution
(c) Where the civil servant been convicted on a (b) Principles to be followed in making appointments
criminal charge and the basis of dismissal is the (c) Award of pension in respect of injuries sustained
same conduct by a civil servant while in service
(d) When the disciplinary authority is satisfied that (d) Memorials and petitions pertaining to disciplinary
the civil servant has no defense matters
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
682. Which of the following is not a requirement under 686. Which one among the following statements is
Article 311 of the Constitution while dealing with correct?
disciplinary proceedings for dismissal, removal or (a) The powers of High Courts under Article 227 of
reduction in rank of a civil servant? the Constitution of India can be ousted
(a) A departmental inquiry is held against the (b) No one can be subjected to narco-analysis test
delinquent employee after serving him with the without his consent
charge-sheet (c) All India Services can be created under Articles
(b) A reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect 312 and 320 of the Constitution of India
of the charges (d) Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction
(c) A reasonable opportunity of maxing in civil matters
representation on the penalty proposed [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
(d) None of these
[Delhi (J) 2014]
687. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme (d) Article 324 of the Constitution of India deals with
Court invalidated clause (d) of the Article 323-A of elections
the Constitution of India? [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
(a) 5S. P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
(b) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India 691. Right to Vote is a:
(c) L.Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (a) Statutory Right
(d) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar (b) Fundamental Right
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (c) Constitutional Right
688. Match List I with List II and select the correct [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II 692. Article 329 of the Constitution deals with
A Chief Election (a) Amending power of Parliament
1. Elected by Rajya Sabha
. Commissioner (b) Taxing power of Parliament
Deputy Chairman Elected by Members of
B. 2. (c) Delimitation of Electoral constituencies
of Rajya Sabha Lok Sabha
Speaker of Lok Appointed by the (d) None of the above
C. 3. [Bihar (J) 2009]
Sabha President
Chairman of Public
D Appointed by the Speaker
Accounts 4. 693. Which of the following Articles was inserted by the
. of Lok Sabha
Committee Constitution (Ninety-Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012
Code: (1) 371-J (2) 19(1)(h)
A B C D (3) 243-P (4) 396
(a) 4 1 2 3 [Delhi (J) 2014]
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 694. The constitutional authority vested with the power of
(d) 3 2 1 4 declaring castes or tribes as the scheduled caste or
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] scheduled tribes is:
(a) Parliament
689. Which one of the following Articles of the (b) Home Minister
Constitution of India gives power to the Election (c) President of India
Commission of India to “superintendence, direction (d) Chairman of SC/ST Commission
and control" of elections? [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(a) Article 324 [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
(b) Article 325 [U.P. Lower 2008]
(c) Article 326
(d) Article 327 695. The Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352,
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be
approved by
690. Which one among the following statements is not (a) Rajya Sabha only
correct? (b) Lok Sabha in the next session after six months
(a) Article 317-D of the Constitution of India (c) Rajya Sabha and then it will continue till the
makes special provisions with respect to the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must
State of Andhra Pradesh approve it within 30 days of its first sitting
(b) Article 239-AA of the Constitution of India makes (d) New Lok Sabha within six months of its
special provisions with respect to Union Territory constitution
of Delhi [U.P. Lower 2009]
(c) A law monopolizing any trade or business in favor
of State cannot be presumed to be in public 696. For negating the mandate of which Constitutional
interest provision, the Supreme Court of India has held the
illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, (b) Andhra Pradesh

1983 as unconstitutional? (c) Goa
(a) Article 249 (d) Meghalaya
(b) Article 355 [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(c) Article 11
(d) Article 359 701. In which Article of the Constitution of India it is
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] provided that the Indian Constitution shall be called
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] Constitution of India?
697. During National Emergency on the ground of armed (a) Article 393
rebellion Article 19 of the Constitution of India (b) Article 394
(a) is suspended by made by the Parliament (c) Article 3
(b) is Suspended by the order of the President (d) Article 4
(c) cannot be suspended [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(d) is suspended automatically [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
[U.P. Lower 2009]
702. The short title of our Constitution is the
698. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct ‘Constitution of India’. Under which of the
answer using the codes given below the lists: following Articles of the Constitution it has been
List I List II mentioned?
A Procedure for amending (a) Article 394
Article 14 1.
. the Constitution (b) Article 394A
Council of Ministers to
B. Article 76 2. (c) Article 393
aid and advise President
C. Article 74 3. Right to Equality (d) Article 1
D [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
Article 368 4. Attorney-general of India
.
703. How many articles are there in the Indian
Code: Constitution?
A B C D (a) 365 (b) 379
(a) 2 1 4 3 (c) 394 (d) 395
(b) 4 1 3 2 [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 4 704. The salary and perks of the P.M. of India are decided
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] by the:
(a) Constitution
699. The doctrine of Prospective over-ruling in relation to (b) Cabinet
the powers of the Parliament to amend the (c) Parliament
Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution, (d) President
was applied in [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan 705. Portfolios are allocated to Ministers by :
(c) I. C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (a) The President
(d) Keshvanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (b) The Speaker
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (c) The Prime Minister
(d) None of these
700. The Constitution of India makes Special Provisions [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
for many States. The special Provisions have not
been made in the case of which one among the 706. Under the Govt. of India's Act 1935, how many
following States? Governors provinces and Chief Commissioners
(a) Assam Provinces constituted in British India?
(a) 14and7 (b) 11 and7 appointment of adhoc

(c) 15and9 (d) None of the above judges in the Supreme
[Bihar (J) 2009] Court
Procedure for the
D
Article 71 4. Impeachment of the
707. “Arresting authority, for reasons to be recorded, can .
President
arrest a female Person for lawful reasons at any time
of day or night, even in the absence of a lady police
constable." It was decided by the Supreme Court in Code:
the case of A B C D
(a) Santosh De v. Archana Gupta (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) State of Maharastra Vv. Christian Community (b) 2 1 3 4
Welfare Council of India (c) 4 3 2 1
(c) Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee v. Union of (d) 4 3 1 2
India [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
(d) Veena Sethi v. State of Bihar
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] 710. Who among the following was the President of
Constituent Assembly?
708. Match list I with list II and select the (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
correct answer using the codes given below (b) Sardar Patel
the lists : (c) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
List I List II (d) Pt.J. Nehru
Right to food is a [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
A
Murli deora’s Case 1. fundamental right under
.
Article 21
Electors have 711. Who amongst the following was the President of the
S.R. Chaudhari’s Fundamental Right to Constituent Assembly of India:
B. 2.
Case know antecedents of (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
contesting candidates. (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ban on smoking at public (c) B.N. Rao
C. P.U.C.L. Case 3.
places
(d) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
Non-member cannot be
Association for [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
D re-appointed as Minister
Democratic 4.
. if he fails to get elected
Reforms Case 712. An action taken by the Central Government without
after six months.
Code: consulting the Union Public Service Commission as
A B C D required by law:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) invalidates the action
(b) 2 1 3 4 (b) requires the approval of the Parliament
(c) 3 4 1 2 (c) does not make the action invalid
(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) requires the approval of the President of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
709. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 713. The properties of-a State Government acquired by
using the codes given below the lists: the Central Government accordance with the
List I List II provisions of an passed by Parliament. The State the
Matters relating to the Central Government's action. one of the following is
A
Article 61 1. election of President or the best position ?
.
vice-president.
(a) The State Government can challenge the action of
High Courts are Courts of
B. Article 127 2. the Central Government on the ground that in a
Record
C. Article 215 3. Provisions for country like India with federal structure, the State's
properties could not be acquired by the Central (a) The powers of the Union Government
Government (b) The Centre-State relations
(b) The State Government can file a petition before (c) The powers of the State Government
the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the (d) Allocation of taxes between Centre and States
Constitution of India [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(c) The action of the Central Government is valid
because States are not sovereign; the 719. Who can constitute the State Administrative
Constitution is not federal in nature and Tribunal under the Administrative Tribunal Act,
contains adequate provisions for acquisition of 1985?
State properties by the Centre under the law (a) President of India
(d) The State Government can file a suit for (b) Supreme Court
declaration under Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (c) Parliament
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (d) Concerned State Government
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
714. The Information Technology Act, 2000 has been
enacted by our Parliament 720. Which one of the following features, we have not
(a) on the basis of a Resolution of the U. N. General borrowed from the Constitution of United Kingdom?
Assembly (a) Parliamentary type of Government
(b) on the advice of the President of India (b) Supreme Court
(c) as directed by the Supreme Court (c) Privileges of Members of the Parliament
(d) on request from the State of Karnataka (d) Two Houses of the Parliament
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] [M.P. A.P.P. 2910]
715. The members of the Constituent Assembly were: 721. By misusing the powers given in the Constitution,
(a) elected directly by the people the Indian President can become a dictator? Who had
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress expressed this apprehension?
(c) representatives of Indian Princes (a) Dr. K.M. Munshi
(d) mainly elected by the Provincial Assemblies (b) Dr. A. Gledhill
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (c) Dr. Graham Williams
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
716. Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Finance Commission 722. Which one of the following can be termed as “non-
(c) Planning Commission obstante clause"?
(d) Election Commission (a) “Subject to the provisions of ....."
(b) “Notwithstanding anything contained in…….”
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] (c) “Nothing contained in....."
(d) “A law referred to in........"
717. It was held that Chief Minister or a Minister is in pay
of the Government and therefore is a public servant [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
within the meaning of Section 21 (2) of the IPC in
the case of 723. The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains
(a) Kaiunanidhi v. UOI (a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala (b) Directive Principles
(c) Kalyan Singh v. UOI (c) A list of 22 languages recognized by the
(d) Jayalalitha v. State of Tamil Nadu Constitution
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (d) None of these
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
718. The Sarkaria Commission was set up to define’
724. The VIII Schedule of the Constitution of India does

not include which one of the following languages? [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
(a) Nepali
(b) Bodo 730. The maxim ‘Salus Populi Suprema Lex’ means
(c) Bhojpuri (a) Public opinion is supreme
(d) Dogri (b) Individual is supreme
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (c) Welfare of the people is supreme
(d) Welfare of the family is supreme
725. In which one of the following case the Supreme [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
Court held that Constitution prevails over the "will
of the people" 731. In which one of the following cases the Supreme
(a) R.S. Chowdhary v. State of Punjab Court held Central Educational Institutions
(b) B.K. Mehta v. Union of India (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006 providing
(c) Mahendra Lal Das v. State of Bihar 27% reservation for O.B.C. as constitutional and
(d) B.R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu valid?
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] (a) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] (b) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
(c) Rameswar Prasad v. Union of India
726. Who delivered the majority judgment in ‘Indra (d) None of the above
Swahney v. Union of India: [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(a) Justice B. P. Jeevan Reddy
(b) Chief Justice Kania 732. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
(c) Justice Kuldip Singh has held that the 77th, 81st, 82nd and 85th
(d) Justice Venkatachaliah Constitution Amendment Acts, dealing with
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] reservation in Government services did not violate
727. How many members can Le nominated to the State any of the basic features or structure of the
Legislative Council by the Governor? Constitution?
(a) 1/6th (b) 1/12th (a) Indra Sawhni & others v. Union of India
(c) 1/3rd (d) 1/9th (b) E. V. Chinmaya v. State of Andhra Pradesh
[U.P. H.J.S. 2012] (c) Ajit Singh (IT) v. State of Punjab
(d) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
728. In a case of anti-defection law which judge of the [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
Supreme Court given below said that any
constitutional functionary is not above the law and 733. Tick the correct citation of Nagraj v. Union of India:
has no unfettered jurisdiction to pass unreasonable (a) AIR 2006 SC 71
order with immunity: (b) AIR 2008 SC 71
(a) Justice K. T. Thomas (c) AIR 2007 SC 71
(b) Justice M. Srinivasan (d) None of the above
(c) JusticeH.M.Punchi [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(d) Justice A. S. Anand
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] 734. In which of the following case the Supreme Court
held that Article 16(4-A) providing for reservation in
729. By the Presidents Employment and Pension Promotions is a enabling provision?
(Amendment) Act, 1998, the salary of the President (a) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
has been enhanced to (b) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
(a) from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 20,000 per month (c) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
(b) from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25,000 per month (d) T.M. Pai Foundation vy. State of Karnataka
(c) from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 50,000 per month [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(d) from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 45,000 per month
735. Introduction of Sanskrit Language as a subject is not 739. The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India/ is
against secularism was held by the Supreme Court of related to:
India in (a) Anti-defection law
(a) Santosh Kumar y. Secretary, Ministry of (b) Languages of India
Human Resources Development (c) Panchayat Raj
(b) Everson v. Board of Education (d) Election Commission
(c) M. Ismail Faruqui v. Union of India [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(d) Ramesh v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] 740. 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains
(a) Powers, authorities and responsibilities of the
736. Preference of Sanskrit in the academic syllabus as an municipalities endowed to it by State Legislature
elective subject, while not conceding this status to (b) Powers, authorities and responsibilities of
Arabic or Persian or the like Panchayat endowed to it by Parliament
(a) Would militate against the basic tenents of (c) Powers, authorities and responsibilities which any
secularism local Government can exercise
(b) Would not militate against the basic tenets of (d) Powers, authorities and responsibilities
secularism endowed to Panchayat by State Legislature.
(c) Would be ultra-vires [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
[U.P. P.C.S, 2009]
741. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is
737. “Harmony and balance between Fundamental! concerned with the
Rights and Directive Principles is an essential (a) Matters relating to the responsibilities of
feature of the basic structure of the Constitution." municipalities
This observation was made by the Supreme Court in (b) The Legislative Assemblies for Delhi and
(a) State of Madras y. Champakam Dorairajan Pondicherry
(b) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (c) Powers and functions of the Panchayati Raj
(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India Institutions
(d) Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh (d) The election of the Panchayati Raj in all States
[U.P. Lower 2008] [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
738. Match List I with List II and Select the correct 742. The idea of Fundamental Duties is derived from the:
answer using the codes given below the lists: (a) American Constitution
List I List II (b) British Constitution
(Subject Matter) (Case law) (c) Constitution of U.S.S.R.
A Indira Gandhi v. Raj (d) Swiss Constitution
Judicial review 1.
. Narain
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Free and fair Keshavananda Bharati v.
B. 2.
elections State of Kerala
Balance between S. R. Bommai v. Union of 743. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer
C. 3. using the codes given below the lists:
Part III and Part IV India
D Minerva Mills Ltd. v. List I List II
Secularism 4.
. Union of India A
Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh’s case
Code: .
A B C D B. Prisoner’s right 2. Maneka Ganhi’s case
(a) 3 1 4 2 C. Death penalty 3. Bachan Singh’s case
(b) 2 4 1 3 D Government’s
4. Sunil Batra’s cade
. liability
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Code: Banarjee v. Bank of

A B C D Commerce
(a) 2 4 1 3 D
A.K. Roy v. UOI 4. Bank Nationalisation
.
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 Code:
(d) 4 2 1 3 A B C D
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
744. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer (c) 4 2 1 3
using the codes given below the lists: (d) 4 1 2 3
List I List II [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
A Balaji v. State of Doctrine of waiver of
1.
. Mysore fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi v. 747. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court
B. 2. Religious freedom held that secularism is the basic structure of the
Union of India
Rev. Stainislaus v. Right to life and personal Constitution?
C. 3.
State of M.P. liberty (a) S.P. Mittal v. Union of India
D Basheshar Nath v. Reservation for backward (b) Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management
4.
. IT Commissioner classes of person
Committee v. Chintamani Khuntia
5. Doctrine of severability
Code: (c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
A B C D (d) None of the above
(a) 4 2 3 1 [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
(b) 5 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 748. In which of the following case Supreme Court held
(d) 5 3 2 1 that every under trial who was accused of a non-
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] bailable offence punishable with more than three
years jail-term would be handcuffed was violative of
745. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution?
Assertion (A) and other labeled as Reason (R): (a) Kishore Singh v. State of Rajasthan
Assertion (A): The Prime Minister of India has a (b) Triveni Ben v. State of Gujarat
pivotal position in the Cabinet. (c) Jagmohan Singh v. Uttar Pradesh
Reason (R): India is moving towards an era of (d) Prem Shankar v. Delhi Administration
coalition governments Mark the correct answer from [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
the code given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation 749. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct
of A answer using the codes given below the lists:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is correct List I List II
Supreme Court
explanation of A A
advocate on record 1. Parliamentary Privileges
(c) A is true but R is false .
association v. UOI
(d) A is false but R is true In re Vinay
B. 2. Curative Petition
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] Chandra Mishra
C. In re Keshav Singh 3. Contempt Power
746. Match List I with List II and select the correct Appointment and transfer
D Rupa Ashok Hurra
4. of Judges of Supreme
answer using the codes given below the lists: . v. Ashok Hurra
Court and the High Court
List I List II Code:
A
R.C. Cooper v. UOI 1. Privy Purses A B C D
.
Madhavrao Scindia (a) 1 3 4 2
B. 2. Pith and substance (b) 4 2 1 3
v. UOI
C. Prafull Kumar 3. National Security Act (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3 (b) Australia

[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] (c) England
(d) Canada
750. Who was the Chairman o: "National Commission to [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]:
review the working of the Constitution”?
(a) Hon'ble Justice J.S. Verma 755. The concept of Public Interest Litigation, which has
(b) Hon'ble Justice O. P. Chinappa Reddy become quite popular in India, originated in
(c) Hon'ble Justice R. S. Sarkaria (a) England
(d) Hon'ble Justice M. N. Venkatachaliah (b) America
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] (c) Australia
(d) Canada
751. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
Court decided that the judges and officials of the
High Courts are not Government servants in Union 756. The concept of Public Interest Litigation Originated
and State Governments? in which of the following countries?
(a) Union of India v. Pratibha Bannerjee, (1995) 5 (a) Australia (b) USA
SCC 457 (c) U.K. (d) India
(b) T. C. Basappa v. Nagappa, A.I.R. 1954 SC 440 [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(c) Murari Mohan Deb v. Secretary to Government of
India, (1985) 3 SCC 120 757. “Public Interest Litigation’ is filed in
(d) State of Rajasthan v. Vijay Kumar Agarwal, (a) Subordinate Courts
A.1.R. 2001 Raj 358 (b) High Courts or Supreme Court
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] (c) Only Supreme Court
(d) Central Administrative Tribunal
752. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
Court decided that Writ Jurisdiction of the High
Court shall not be taken away by Administrative 758. In which one of the following cases the Supreme
Tribunals? Court held that Acts placed under Protective
(a) All India Judges Association v. Union of India, Umbrella of 9th Schedule are not totally beyond
(1992) 1 SCC 119 judicial scrutiny?
(b) R. M. Gurjar v. High Court of Gujarat, (1992) 4 (a) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
SCC 10 (b) Rakesh Kumar Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) State of Gujarat v. Ramesh Chandra, A.I.R. 1977 (c) I.R. Coelho (dead) by L. R. V. State of Tamil
SC 1619 Nadu
(d) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India, A.LR. (d) Chairman U. P. Jai Nigam v. Jaswant Singh
1997 SC 1125 [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
759. Judicial Review of the 9th Schedule of the
753. The President of India is provided certain privileges Constitution has been made permissible by which of
under the Indian Constitution in the following case decided by the Supreme Court?
(a) Article 72 (a) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
(b) Article 74 (b) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
(c) Article 361 (c) Minerva Mills Ltd. V. Union of India
(d) Article 54 (d) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] [Uttarakhand (J) 20121
754. The provision of Union with strong Centre in the 760. In which of the decision, the Constitution Bench
Constitution was taken from comprising of the 9 Judges of the Supreme Court
(a) United States of America held that any law/amendments placed under Ninth
Schedule after 23rd April;.1973 are subject to the (c) Justice S.R, Das
scrutiny of the Courts if they violated the (d) Justice A.N. Ray
fundamental rights [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(a) I.R. Coelho (Dead) by Lrs v. State of Tamil
Nadu & Ors 765. The Constitution of J & K came into force on:
(b) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (a) 26th Jan., 1954
(c) Bank of Maharashtra v. Manoj Deharia& Ors (b) 26th Jan., 1957
(d) T.M.A. Pai Foundation & Ors. V. State Of (c) 26th Jan., 1958
Karnataka & Ors. (d) 26th Jan., 1950
[M.P.:HJ.S. 2012] [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
761. The Supreme Court through which of the following 766. Which of the following States has one house
Judicial pronouncements has made all marriages legislature?
compulsorily a registratrable (a) Karnataka
(a) Zahira Sheikh v. State of Gujarat (2004) 4 SCC (b) Maharashtra
158 (c) Gujarat
(b) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) 6 SCC 244 (d) All of these
(c) Mohammad Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
(1985) 2SCC 556
(d) Smt. Seema v. Ashwani Kumar (2006)2SCC 578 767. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
[U.P. H.J.S.2012] High Courts Seat
(a) Chhattisgarh - Bilaspur
762. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme (b) Rajasthan - Jaipur
Court held that the Rule of Law ‘embodied in Article (c) Crissa - Cuttack
14 is the ‘Basic feature of the Indian Constitution (d) Kerala - Ernakulam
and hence it ‘cannot be destroyed even by an [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 ?
(a) Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain, 768. The Supreme Court of India issued directive in July
A.I.R. 1975 SC 2299 2012 to protect which of the following wild animal?
(b) Kesvanand Bharati v. State of Kerala, A.I.R. 1973 (a) Tiger
SC 1461 (b) Lion
(c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, A.I.R. 1980 SC (c) Leopard
1789 (d) Elephant
(d) Golak Nath y. State of Punjab, A.I.R. 1967 SC [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
1643
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] 769. Who among the following was the Chairman of the
Constitution drafting Committee?
763. Who among the following was the first Speaker of (a) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
the Lok Sabha? (b) Motilal Nehru
(a) M.A. Ayenger (c) M.K. Gandhi
(b) Sardar Hukum Singh (d) Sardar Patel
(c) G.V. Mavalankar [M.P. (J) 2009]
(d) Bali Ram Bhagat
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] 770. The provision regarding the nomination of Members
by the President of India to the Council of States has
764. Name of the first Chief Justice of Supreme Court of been taken from the Constitution of:
India was (a) Canada (b) USA
(a) Justice H.LJ. Kania (c) Ireland (a) Australia
(b) Justice Patanjali Shastri [U.P. P.C.S, 2004]
776. Which one of the following is correct in respect of

771. In which case, the Supreme Court gave ‘Doctrine of Justice Saumitra Sen, former Judge of Calcutta High
Prospective Overruling’ Court?
(a) Shankari Pd. V. Union of India (a) He was removed through impeachment.
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (b) He resigned before impeachment motion
(c) I. C. Golak Nath vy. State of Punjab started.
(d) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (c) He resigned after impeachment motion was passed
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] by Lok Sabha.
(d) He resigned after impeachment motion was
772. In which of the following cases the doctrine of withdrawn.
"prospective Over-ruling” was applied? [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan 777. Which one of the following decision is responsible
(c) I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab for the Parliament passing the Constitution (24th
(d) Kesavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala Amendment) Act 1971:
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002) (a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
773. The Supreme Court of India gave direction to the (c) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala
fact*the marriages of all persons, citizens of India, (d) Minerva Mills Ltd. V. Union of India
belonging to various religions should be made [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
compulsory registrable in those respective States
where marriage is solemnized. These directions 778. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution
Were issued in- relates to creation of All India | Judicial Service in
(a) R.D. Upadhyay v. State of A.P. India common to Union and the States?
(b) Shastri v. Muldas (a) Article 312
(c) Seema v. Ashwani Kumar (b) Article 312-A
(d) Kailash Sonkar v. Maya Devi (c) Article 313
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] (d) Article 315
774. ‘Doctrine of prospective overruling’ was laid down
by the Supreme Court in which of the following 779. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan case, the
cases? Supreme Court widened the ambit of the ‘basic
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India features’ of the Constitution by including within the
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan purview
(c) I. C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (a) Rule of law
(d) Keshvanand Bharati v. State of Kerala (b) Judicial Review
[U.P. Lower 2008] (c) Democracy as implied by free and fair elections
(d) All of the above
775. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court [M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
declared that a Constituent Assembly should be
convened to amend the fundamental rights? 780. The principle of basic structure of the Constitution
(a) Golaknath’s case was established in the case of
(b) Maneka Gandhi's case (a) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(c) Keshavanand Bharati's case (b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(d) A. K. Gopalan’s case (c) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (d) None of the above
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
781. When a State fails to implement the administrative

directions given by the Union under Article 256 of
the Constitution of India
(a) The Parliament may compel the State to execute
the said direction
(b) The President may presume that Constitutional
machinery in the State has failed
(c) The Governor may dissolve the State Legislature
(d) The President may impose emergency under
Article 352 of the Constitution
[U.P. Lower 2009]
782. Which out of the following does not constitute basic

structure of the Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Secularism
(c) Judicial review
(d) Right to speedy trial
[Bihar (J) 2009]
783. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the Constitution

itself and not in "we the people of India." This
ideology was expressed in:
(a) Lucknow Development Authority v. A.K. Gupta
case
(b) Shankari Prasad case
(c) Golak Nath case
(d) Keswanand Bharati's case
[U.P. A.P.P, 2002}
784. In which case, the Supreme Court directed the

Government to implement the law against female
foeticide with full determination?
(a) Parents Association vs. Union of India
(b) Madhu Kishwar vs. State of Bihar
(c) CEHAT vs. Union of India
(d) Nishi Maghu vs. State of Jammu and Kashmir
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
785. Which one of the following Schedules of the

Constitution of India contains provisions regarding
anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
[Haryana (J) 2015]

Constitution of India

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Constitution of India

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The most simplified preparations for Civil Judge Examination

Preamble and Citizenship A. Republic 1. Head of State is not a hereditary

10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

64. The term ‘state’ as defined in Article 12 of the

65. Which one of the following is considered to be

[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (a) Article 17 (b) Article 15

(a) Citizens of India (c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India

[U.P. P.C.S. 2001]

(c) Employment of children below 14 years in

[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]

(b) Article 20 [M.P. (J) 2009]

(b) Right to Life (d) State of U. P. Y. Shiv Shankar Lal Srivastava

289. “Directive principle of state policy” is

295. Which of the following is a Directive Principles of

from Executive (a) Article 43rd

317. Which Article of the Constitution postulates

324. Part IV-A of the Constitution containing

333. Which one of the following is not a ‘Fundamental

334. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental

(c) Article-59 (a) 3 months

370. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in

72 and 161 of the Constitution be decided quickly

(a) 1,2 and 3 (d) None of the above

(d) Chief Minister (7)

(c) The party to which he belongs [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]

(b) 3 months Reason (R): When the Vice- President of India

List I List II (c) The question of repugnancy has to be, decided

(c) Is not in force, yet (c) The Debt Recovery Tribunal

[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [U.P. Lower 2008]

to who may invoke it." It was held by Supreme

[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] (c) Article 142

(a) Contingency fund of India Singh

566. A resolution for disapproval of proclamation of

579. Once a proclamation of emergency is made, the right

594. The amendment of the following requires ratification

618. The "Right to Property" as a fundamental right was

(a) Inclusion of four additional languages as official (a) 74th Amendment

(b) Article 246

relating to a subject in the concurrent list would be

(b) The Law Commission [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]

(a) Federalism 683. Which one among the following statements is

illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, (b) Andhra Pradesh

(a) 14and7 (b) 11 and7 appointment of adhoc

724. The VIII Schedule of the Constitution of India does

Code: Banarjee v. Bank of

(d) 1 2 4 3 (b) Australia

776. Which one of the following is correct in respect of

781. When a State fails to implement the administrative

782. Which out of the following does not constitute basic

783. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the Constitution

784. In which case, the Supreme Court directed the

785. Which one of the following Schedules of the

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