Chemistry Jee Main Shift-1 Total Questions Topic Wise

EQUILIBRIUM
1. Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is basic
Statement (II) : Acidic/basic nature of salt solution of a salt of weak acid and weak base depends on Ka
and Kb value of acid and the base forming it
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer (1)
Sol. Aq solution of ammonium carbonate is basic. The salt is made from weak acid (H2CO3) and weak base
(NH4OH), acidic or basic nature depends on value of Ka of weak acid and Kb of weak base If solution is
basic Kb (weak base) > Ka (weak acid) Ka(H2CO3) = 4.3 × 10–7 Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 × 10–5 Kb > Ka so
solution is basic Both statements are correct
2. 
 2NO 2(g) , Kp = 0.492 atm at 300K. KC for the reaction at same
For the reaction N 2 O 4(g) 

temperature is × 10–2
(Given : R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)
Answer (2)
Sol.  2NO 2  g 
N 2 O 4  g  
Kp = 0.492 atm at 300 K
Δn
K p  K c (RT) g
0.492 = Kc(0.082 × 300)  n g  1
0.492
KC   2 102
24.6
3. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Compound) (pKa value)
A. Ethanol I. 10.0
B. Phenol II. 15.9
C. m-Nitrophenol III. 7.1
D. p-Nitrophenol IV. 8.3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A  III, B  IV, C  I, D  II (2) A  IV, B  I, C  II, D  III
(3) A  I, B  II, C  III, D  IV (4) A  II, B  I, C  IV, D  III
Answer (4)
Sol. Order of acidic strength of H attached to Oxygen depend on electronic effect of substituents attached to
Oxygen.
pKa: Ethanol > Phenol > m-Nitrophenol > p-Nitrophenol is in the order of electro withdrawing
effect/strength of substituent.
4. The following concentrations were observed at 500K for the formation of NH3 from N2 and H2. At
equilibrium; [N2] = 2 × 10–2 M, [H2] = 3 × 10–2 M and [NH3] = 1.5 × 10–2 M. Equilibrium constant for the
reaction is_____.
Answer (417)
Sol.  2 NH 3
N 2  3 H 2 
 NH 3 
2
Kc 
 N 2  H 2 
3
2
1.5  102 
 3
 2 102  3  102 
= 416.67  417
5. The pH at which Mg(OH)2 [Ksp = 1 × 10–11] begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 M Mg2+
ions is ________ .
Answer (9)
 Mg +2 (aq) + 2OH Θ (aq)
Mg  OH 2 (s) 
At limiting condition, for precipitation to be start Ksp = Qsp
Ksp = [Mg+2] [OH–]2
1 × 10–11 = [0.1] [OH–]2
1011
 OH   
0.1
2
10 10  OH  
 OH    10 5 M
pOH =  log OH  
=5
pH = 14 – 5 = 9
6. The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1 M benzoic acid (pKa = 4.20) and 1 M sodium benzoate is 4.5.
The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300 mL of this buffer solution s mL. (given : log2 = 0.3)
Answer (100)
  300  V  
pH  pK a  log  
 V 
 4.5  4.2  log

 300  V 
V
300  V
  2  V=100 mL
V
7. For the given reaction, choose the correct expression of KC from the following
Answer (4)
Sol: Given reaction Fe3  aq   SCN   aq.   FeSCN   aq.
2
 Pr oduct ions   FeSCN 
2
Kc  
 Re ac tan t ions   Fe3   SCN  
8. Consider the following reaction at 298 K.
Answer (163)
Sol. G° = – RT ln Kp
G° = –8.314 × 298 × 2.303 × log 2.47 × 10–29
G° = +163199.52 J
G° = 163.2 J
   G 163 kJ
9. The correct relationship between Kp,  and equilibrium pressure P is
Answer (3)
10. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10–5 and Kb for NH4OH is 1.8 × 10–5 . The pH of ammonium acetate solution will be
______.
Answer (7)
Sol. Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 ×10–5 Kb for NH4OH = 1.8 × 10–5 pKa = 4.74; pKb = 4.74
1
pH of CH3COONH4 = 14  4.74  4.74 
2
=7
11. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass, M) in water is Wg per 100 mL at 25°C. Its solubility product at
25°C will approximately.
3 5 5 5
W  W  W  W 
1) 107   2 ) 103   3) 107   4) 105  
M  M  M  M 
Answer (3)
 10W  mol
Sol. Solubility =   
 M  lit
Ksp  108  s 
5
5
W 
Ksp  108 10    
5
M 
5
W 
= 10 7  
M 
D & F BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. The electronic configuration for Neodymium is [Atomic Number for Neodymium 60]
1) [Xe]4f4 6s2 2) [Xe]4f1 5d1 6s2 3) [Xe]5f7 7s2 4) [Xe]4f6 6s2
Answer (1)
Sol. The electronic configuration of Neodymium is 60Nd : [Xe]4f4 6s2
2. Which of the following electronic configuration would be associated with the highest magnetic moment?
(1) [Ar] 3d8 (2) [Ar] 3d6 (3) [Ar] 3d3 (4) [Ar] 3d7
Answer (2)
Sol. [Ar] 3d6 have 4 unpaired electrons which has highest magnetic moment.
3. Choose the correct option having all the elements with d10 electronic configuration from the following:
(1) 27Co, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr (2) 46Pd, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr
(3) 29Cu, 30Zn, 48Cd, 47Ag (4) 28Ni, 24Cr, 26Fe, 29Cu
Answer (3)
Sol. Cu : 4s13d10
Zn : 4s23d10
Cd : 5s24d10
Ag : 5s14d10
4. Identify the incorrect pair from the following:
(1) Polythene preparation - TiCl4, Al(CH3)3 (2) Haber process – Iron
(3) Wacker process - PtCl2 (4) Photography - AgBr
Answer (3)
Sol. Wacker process - PdCl2, CuCl2
5. Given below are two statements:
+4
Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation Ce is favoured by its noble gas configuration.
+4
Statement (II) :Ce is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3 state. In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (4)
Sol. Ce58 =  Xe  6s 2 5d1 4f 1
Ce 4 =  Xe 6s0 5d 0 4f 0
E 0Ce4 /Ce3 is very high
E 0Ce4 /Ce3  1.74 V
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
6. Total number of ions from the following with noble gas configuration is .
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
Sr (z = 38), Cs+ (z = 55), La (z = 57), Pb (z = 82), Yb (z = 70) and Fe (z = 26)
Answer (3)
2+ + 2+
Sol. Species with noble gas configuration; Sr ; Cs ; Yb
7. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
(Substances) (Element Present)
(A) Ziegler catalyst I. Rhodium
(B) Blood pigment II. Cobalt
(C) Wilkinson catalyst III. Iron
(D) Vitamin B12 IV. Titanium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer (4)
Sol. Ziegler catalyst – TiCl4 . Al(C2H5)3
Blood pigment– Compound containing iron Wilkinson catalyst – [RhCl(PPh3)3]
Vitamin B12 – Compound containing cobalt
 Correct match is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
8. Which of the following acts as a strong reducing agent? (Atomic number: Ce = 58, Eu = 63, Gd = 64, Lu
= 71)
(1) Gd3+ (2) Eu2+ (3) Lu3+ (4) Ce4+
Answer (2)
Sol. Eu2+ is a strong reducing agent changing to the common +3 state while all other are provided at their
higher oxidation states.
9. Which of the following statement are correct about Zn, Cd and Hg?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation state while Hg shows +I and +II.
C. Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals.
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) B, D only (2) C, D only (3) B, C only (4) A, D only
Answer (1)
Sol. Zn, Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition elements as they have  n  1 d 10 ns 2 configuration so they
have low enthalpy of atomization and their compounds are diamagnetic in general.
List-I List-II
Species Electronic distribution
(A) Cr+2 (I) 3d8

(B) Mn+ (II) 3d34s1
(C) Ni+2 (III) 3d4
(D) V+ (IV) 3d54s1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (A)–(II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) (2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) (4) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
Answer (2)
Sol. Cr+2 = 3d4
Mn+ = 3d54s1 Ni+2 = 3d8
V+ = 3d34s1
11. Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are
(1) Nd3+ & Ce4+ (2) La3+ & Ce4+ (3) Nd3+ & Eu3+ (4) Lu3+ & Eu3+
Answer (2)
Sol. La 3  4 f 0Ce 4  4 f 0
Diamagnetic
12. A and B formed in the following reaction are:
CrO 2 Cl2 + 4NaOH  A + 2NaCl + 2H 2O , A + 2HCl + 2H 2 O 2  B + 3H 2 O
(1) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO3 (2) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO5
(3) A = Na2Cr2O4, B = CrO4 (4) A = Na2CrO4, B = CrO5
Answer (4)
Sol. A is Na2CrO4 B is CrO5
13. Identify correct statements from below:
A. The chromate ion is square planar.
B. Dichromates are generally prepared from chromates.
C. The green manganate ion is diamagnetic
D. Dark green coloured K2MnO4 disproportionates in a neutral or acidic medium to give permanganate.
E. With increasing oxidation number of transition metal, ionic character of the oxides decreases.
(1) B, D, E only (2) A, D, E only (3) B, C, D only (4) A, B, C only
Answer (1)
Sol. (A) Chromate ions are tetrahedral and not square planar
14. In the reaction of potassium dichromate, potassium chloride and sulfuric acid (conc.), the oxidation state of the
chromium in the product is (+) _____.
Answer (6)
Sol. Product is Cr2O2Cl2 Oxidation state of Cr is +6.
15. In acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 shows oxidising action as represented in the half reaction :
Cr2O72   XH   Ye   2 A  ZH 2O
X, Y, Z and A are respectively:
(1) 8, 4, 6 and Cr2O3 (2) 14, 6, 7 and Cr3+ (3) 14, 7, 6 and Cr3+ (4) 8, 6, 4 and Cr2O3
Answer (2)
Sol. In acidic medium
K 2Cr2O7  14 H   6e   2Cr 3  7 H 2O
X = 14 Y = 6 Z = 7 A = Cr+3
16. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In aqueous solutions Cr2+ is reducing while Mn3+ is oxidising in nature.
Reason (R): Extra stability to half filled electronic configuration is observed than incompletely filled electronic
configuration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer (1)
Sol. Cr2+ and Mn3+ both has 3d44s0 configuration. Cr3+ is reducing as its configuration changes from d4 to d3 having a
half filled t2g level and change from Mn3+ to Mn2+ results in the half filled d5 configuration which has extra
stability. Hence A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A
17. Which of the following compounds show colour due to d-d transition?
1) CuSO4 .5 H 2 O 2) K 2CrO4 3) KMnO4 4) K 2Cr2O7
Answer (1)
Sol. Cu2+: 3d94s° CuSO4 .5 H 2 O shows blue colour due to d–d transition. Compounds given in option (2),
(3) and (4) show colour due to LMCT (ligend to metal charge transfer).
18. The transition metal having highest 3rd ionisation enthalpy is:
(1) Fe (2) Mn (3) Cr (4) V
Answer (2)
Sol. Mn: 3d5 4s2 Mn2+ : 3d54s° Electron removal will be most difficult from Mn+2 due to half-filled configuration of Mn2+
ions
Electron removal will be most difficult from Mn2+ due to half-filled configuration of Mn2+ ions.
CHEMICAL KINETICS, NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
1. Consider the following data for the given reaction 2 HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g)
1 2 3
HI (mol L–1) 0.005 0.01 0.02
Rate (mol L–1s–1) 7.5 ×10–4 3.0 ×10–3 1.2 ×10–2
The order of the reaction is .
Answer (2)
Sol. Comparing rate values in experiment 2 and 3
x
r3  0.02 
4 
r2  0.01 
x=2
Order of reaction is 2
2. Time required for completion of 99.9% of a First order reaction is times of half life (t1/2) of the reaction.
Answer (10)
2.303  100 
Sol. t 99.9  log  
K  0.1 
2.303
 log1000
K
2.303
t 50  log 2
K
t 99.9 3
 10
t 50 0.3
Kk
3. For a reaction taking place in three steps at same temperature, overall rate constant K  1 2 .
K3
If Ea1, Ea2 and Ea3 are 40, 50 and 60 kJ/mol respectively, the overall Ea is kJ/mol.
Answer (30)
KK
Sol. The rate constant of a three steps reaction is K  1 2
K3
If Ea1, Ea2 and Ea3 are activation energies of three steps respectively then Ea1 = 40 kJ mol–1, Ea2 = 50
kJ mol–1, Ea3 = 60 kJ mol–1
Using Arrhenius equation, K = Ae–Ea/RT
Ea = Ea1 + Ea2 – Ea3
= 40 + 50 – 60 = 30 kJ mol–1
4. The half-life of radioisotope bromine-82 is 36 hours. The fraction which remains after one day is × 10 –
2.
(Given antilog 0.2006 = 1.587)
Answer (63)
2.303 N
Sol. λ= log 0
t Nt
2.303  .301 2.303 N
 log 0
36 24 Nt
N
log 0  0.2006
Nt
N0
 1.587
Nt
Nt
 0.6301
N0
 63 102
5. The rate of First order reaction is 0.04 mol L–1 s–1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol L–1 s–1 at 20 minutes after
initiation. Half life of the reaction is ______ minutes. (Given log2 = 0.3010, log3 = 0.4771)
Answer (24)
Sol. Rate of first order reaction = 0.04 mol L–1s–1 at time = 10 min
Rate of first order reaction = 0.03 mol L–1s–1 at time = 20 min
r1 = 0.04 mol L–1s–1 r2 = 0.03 mol L–1s–1 t1 = 10 min t2 = 20 min
2.303 r
k= log 1
t 2  t1 r2
2.303 0.04
k= log
10 0.03
k = 0.02876 min–1
0.693 0.0693
t1 = =  24.09
2
k 0.02876
 24 min
6. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 as by equation
2N 2 O5  g   4NO2  g  + O2  g 
The initial concentration of N2O5 is 3 mol L–1 and it is 2.75 mol L–1 after 30 minutes.
The rate of formation of NO2 is x × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1, value of x is . (nearest integer)
Answer (17)
  N 2O5  3  2.75 0.25
Sol.  
t 30 30
  NO2     N 2O5  
 2  
t  t 
0.25
 2
30
 0.017 mol L1 min 1
 17 103 mol L1 min 1
7. Integrated rate law equation for a first order gas phase reaction is given by (where Pi is initial pressure and Pt is
total pressure at time t)
2.303 2 Pi
(1) k  log
t  2 pi  2Pi 
2.303 2 Pi
(2) k  log
t  2 pi  Pi 
2.303 2 Pi
(3) k 
t  2 pi  Pi 
(4) k
2.303
 log
 2 Pi  Pi 
t Pi
Answer (2)
Sol. A  g   2B  g 
Initial: Pi Pressure at time t: Pi – x 2X

Pt = Pi – x + 2x
Pt = Pi + x
x = Pt – P
2.303 int ial pressure of A

K log
t Pr essure of A at time t
2.303 P 2.303 p1
K log 1  log
t P1  x t P1  P1  P
2.303 P1
K log
t 2 Pi  Pt
8. r = k[A] for a reaction, 50% of A is decomposed in 120 minutes. The time taken for 90% decomposition of A is
_______ minutes.
Answer (399)
2.303 2.303
Sol. t90 = log10 
k k
2.303
t50= log 2  120
k
2.203 120

k log 2
120
T90=  396.67
0.3010
Nearest integer = 399
14
C
9. The ratio of 12
in a piece of wood is 1/8 part that of atmosphere. If half life of C14 is 5730 years, the age of
C
wood sample is ________ years.
Answer (17190)
Sol. N = N0e –t
1
 1e  t
8
et  8
t  In8
0.693
t  In8
t1/2
In8
t x t1/ 2
In2
t  3 x5730 years
= 17190 years
10. The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant volume
A  g   2 B g   C  g 
S.No Time/s Total pressure/(atm)

1 0 0.1
2 115 0.28
The rate constant of the reaction is ____ × 10 -2 s-1 (nearest integer)
Answer (2)
2.303  0.3  0.1 
Sol: K  log  
115  0.3  0.28 
2.303  0.2 
K log  
115  0.02 
2.303
log10
115
 0.02002
= 2 102 sec1
Answer=2
ELECTROCHEMISTRY, REDOX REACTIONS & VOLUMETRIC ANALYSIS
1. Mass of methane required to produce 22 g of CO2 after complete combustion is ________g.
(Given Molar mass in g mol–1 C = 12.0
H = 1.0
O = 16.0)
Answer (8)
Sol. CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
22 1
Moles of CO 2  
44 2
1
Moles of CH 4 
2
1
Mass of CH 4  16 = 8gm
2
2. The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108 gmol–1) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces
5600 mL of O2 at S.T.P. will be g.
Answer (108)
Sol. 2 H 2O   O2  4 H   4e 
5.6
moles of O2   0.25
22.4
moles of electrons = (0.25 × 4) = 1
Ag   e    Ag
moles of Ag = 1 mass of Ag = 108 gm
3. The quantity which changes with temperature is:
(1) Molarity (2) Molality (3) Mass percentage (4) Mole fraction
Answer (1)
Sol. Formula of molarity includes volume which depends upon temperature.
4. Which of the following cannot function as an oxidising agent?
(1) N3– (2) SO 24  (3) MnO 4 (4) BrO3
Answer (1)
Sol. Nitrogen is present in its lowest oxidation state in N3–.
5. Which of the following statements is not correct about rusting of iron?
(1) Dissolved acidic oxides SO2, NO2 in water act as catalyst in the process of rusting.
(2) Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of electrochemical cell on the surface of iron object.
(3) When pH lies above 9 or 10, rusting of iron does not take place.
(4) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting, even if the tin coating is peeling off.
Answer (4)
Sol. If Tin coating is peeling off, then rusting of iron will take place as contact of iron with air will take place.
6. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the electrode will be –
–2
______ × 10 V.
 2.303RT 
  0.059 V 
 F 
Answer (18)
Sol. 2H +  2e    H2
0.059
log  H + 
2
E cell  0 
2
+
= + .059(logH )
= – 0.059 × PH
= – 0.059 × 3
= – 0.177 V
–2
= –17.7 × 10 V
7. 1 mole of PbS is oxidised by “X” moles of O3 to get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = .
Answer (8)
Sol. PbS + 4O3   PbSO 4  4O 2
X=4
Y=4
(X + Y) = 8
8. In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of Cl – ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification of the
solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 10% H2O2 turns organic layer blue indicating formation of
chromium pentoxide. The oxidation state of chromium in that is
(1) +6 (2) +10 (3) +5 (4) +3
Answer (1)
Sol. The reactions involved in chromyl chloride test and subsequent formation of chromium pentaoxide are as
follows:
Cr2 O72  6H +  4Cl    2CrO 2Cl 2 (g)  3H 2 O
(Red)
Cr2O 2 Cl2 (g)  4NaOH(aq) 

 Na 2 CrO 4 (aq) +2NaCl  2H 2 O
(Yellow)

 Na 2Cr2O 7 (aq)  2 Na   H 2 O
2Na 2CrO 4 (aq) 2 H 
(Yellow) (Orange)
Na 2 Cr2 O 7  4H 2O 2  2H 
+
 2CrO 5  5H 2 O  2Na +
(Blue in amyl alcohol)
Oxidation state of chromium in CrO5 is +6.
9. In alkaline medium, MnO 4 , oxidises I– to

(1) IO– (2) I2 (3) IO 3 (4) IO 4
Answer (3)
Sol. In alkaline medium, MnO 4 , oxidises I– to IO3
2MnO 4  I   H 2 O  2MnO 2  IO 3  2OH 
10. Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline medium as shown below :
 
aCl 2(g)  bOH (aq)  cClO(aq)  dClaq   eH 2 O(I)
The values of a, b, c and d in a balanced redox reaction are respectively:
(1) 2, 4, 1 and 3 (2) 1, 2, 1 and 1 (3) 2, 2, 1 and 3 (4) 3, 4, 4 and 2
Answer (2)
Sol. The balanced disproportionation reaction of Cl2 in alkaline medium is
Cl2 + 2OH –  ClO – + Cl – + H 2 O
a = 1, b = 2, c = 1, d = 1
11. KMnO4 decomposes on heating at 513K to form O2 along with
(1) K2MnO4 & MnO2 (2) K2MnO4 & Mn (3) MnO2 & K2O2 (4) Mn & KO2
Answer (1)
Sol. KMnO4 decomposes on heating at 513 K as per the following reaction
2KMnO 4  513K
 K 2 MnO 4  MnO 2  O 2
Therefore, K2MnO4 and MnO2 are formed alongwith O2.
12. The mass of zinc produced by the electrolysis of zinc sulphate solution with a steady current of
0.015 A for 15 minutes is × 10–4 g.
(Atomic mass of zinc = 65.4 amu)
Answer (46)
Sol. I = 0.015 amp
t = 15 × 60 = 900 sec Q = I × t
= 0.015 × 900 C = 13.5 C
13.5
F
96500
Zn 2+ +2e  Zn
13.5
Number of moles of Zn produced =
2  96500
13.5  65.4
Mass of Zn produced = g
2  96500
 45.75  10 –4 g
 46  10 –4 g
13. constant current was passed through a solution of AuCl4 ion between gold electrodes. After a period
of 10.0 minutes, the increase in mass of cathode was 1.314g. The total charge passed through the solution
is × 10–2 F. (Given atomic mass of Au = 197)
Answer (2)
1.314
Sol. Moles of Au deposited 
197
Equivalents of Au deposited = Equivalents of charge conducted
1.314
 Charge in F
197
= 0.02001
 2 102
14. If 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is required to neutralise 25 mL of NaOH solution, the amount of NaOH in
50 mL of given NaOH solution is g.
Answer (4)
Sol. Let molarity of NaOH is M.
Equivalents of H2C2O4 = Equivalents of NaOH
0.5 × 50 × 10–3 × 2 = M × 25 × 10–3 × 1
M=2
Mass of NaOH in 50 mL of such solution
= 2 × 50 × 10–3 × 40
=4g
15. 2MnO 4  bl   cH 2O  xl 2  yMnO 2  zOH
If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of z is .
Answer (8)
2MnO 4  bl   cH 2O  xl 2  yMnO 2  zOH
Balanced chemical reaction is
2MnO 4  6l  4H 2O  3l 2  2MnO 2  8OH 
Z=8
16. 0.05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a plate of 0.05 m 2 area. The number of silver atoms
deposited on plate are × 1023. (At mass Ag = 108, d = 7.9 g cm–3)
Answer (11)
Sol. Given density of silver coating = 7.9 g/cm3
Volume of silver coating = 0.05 × 104 cm2 × 0.05 cm
= 25 cm3
Mass of silver coating
d=
Volume of silver coating
Mass of silver coating
7.9 =
25 cm 3
Mass of silver coating = 7.9 × 25 g
= 197.5 g
197.5
Moles of silver coating   1.83 mol
108
Atoms of silver = 1.83 × 6.022 × 1023
= 11.02 × 1023
Ans = 11
17. The metals that are employed in the battery industries are
A. Fe B. Mn C. Ni D. Cr E. Cd
(1) A, B, C and D only (2) A, B, C, D and E (3) B, C and E only (4) B, D and E only
Answer (3)
Sol. Mn, Ni and Cd are metals that are employed in the battery industries. Commercial dry cell has → Zinc anode and
MnO2 + carbon black + NH4CI paste cathode. Ni – Cd cell is a rechargeable cell. Cd(s) + Ni(OH)3(s) → CdO(s) +
2Ni(OH)2(s) + H2O(l)
18. One Faraday of electricity liberates X ×10-1 gram atom of copper from copper sulphate. x is ______.
Answer (5)
Sol. Cu2+ + 2e– ⎯⎯→ Cu
2 Faraday will liberate = 1 mol Cu
= 1 gram atom Cu
1 Faraday will liberate = 0.5 mol Cu
= 0.5 gram atom Cu
0.5 = 5 × 10–1
 Ans  x =5
19. The values of conductivity of some materials at 298.15 K in Sm–1 are 2.1 × 103 , 1.0 × 10-16 , 1.2 × 10, 3.91, 1.5 ×
10-2 , 1 × 10-7 , 1.0 × 103 . The number of conductors among the materials is _____.
Answer (4)
Sol. Conductors with conductivity
2.1 × 103 : Sodium
1.2 × 10 : Graphite 3.91 : 0.1 M HCl
1.0 × 103 : Iron [Ref. - NCERT]
20. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reactions?
(A) Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
(B) 3MnO42   4 H   2 MnO4  MnO2  2 H 2O
(C) 3KMnO4   K 2 MnO4  MnO2  O2
(D) 2 MnO4  3Mn 2  2 H 2O  5 MnO2  4 H 
(1) (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (D) (3) (A), (B) (4) (A), (B), (C)
Answer (3)
Sol. Disproportionation reaction is a reaction in which, the same element is simultaneously oxidised and reduced.
21. The potential for the given half cell at 298 K is (–) ________ × 10–2 V.
2 H aq   2e   H 2  g 
 H    1M , pH 2  2atm
(Given : 2.303RT/F = 0.06 V, log2 = 0.3)
Answer (1)
Sol. EH0  / H  0V
2
2 H  2e   H 2  g 

 aq 
0.06 2
EHalfcall  0  Log 2
2 1
EHalfcall  0.03 x 0.30
 0.009
= 0.9 × 10–2
0.9  1
22. Consider the following redox reaction :

MnO  H   H 2C2O4  Mn 2   H 2O  CO2 The standard reduction potentials are given  Ered

4
0
:
E 0 MnO  / Mn2 1.51V E 0CO2 / H 2C2O4 0.49V
4
If the equilibrium constant of the above reaction is given as Keq = 10 X, then the value of x = ______.
(nearest integer
Answer (338)
0
Sol. Ecell  1.51  0.49 =0.2.0V
.0591
0  2 log k
10
logK = 338.409
K  10338.409
23. The amount of electricity in Coulomb required for the oxidation of 1 mol of H 2O to O2 is _____ × 105C
Answer (2)
Sol: 2 H 2O  O2  4 H   4e 
Mole of electron = 2
Charge = 2 × 96500 C
= 1.93 × 105 C
Nearest integer = 2
24. Identify the factor from the following that does not affect electrolytic conductance of a solution.
(1) The nature of solvent used (2) Concentration of the electrolyte
(3) The nature of the electrolyte added (4) The nature of the electrode used
Answer (4)
Sol. Conductivity of electrolytic solution depends upon:
(i) Nature of electrolyte added.
(ii) Size of ions produced and their solvation
(iii) Nature of the solvent and viscosity.
(iv) Concentration of the electrolyte.
(v) Temperature (Increases with increase of temp.).
It does not depend on nature of electrode used
CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS
1. Consider the following complex ions
P = [FeF6]3–
Q = [V(H2O)6]2+
R = [Fe(H2O)6]2+
The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) is:
1) R < Q < P (2) R < P < Q (3) Q < R < P (4) Q < P < R
Answer (3)
Sol. P = [FeF6]3–
Q = [V(H2O)6]2+
R = [Fe(H2O)6]2+
FΘ with Fe+3, and H2O with Fe+2 behaves as WFL and pairing does not takes place
 FeF6 
3
=3d 5  t 32g e g2
Number of unpaired electron = 5
μ = n  n+2  BM
= 5  5 + 2  BM
= 35 BM
2+
 V  H 2 O 6  = 3d 3 t 32g eg 0
n=3
μ = 15 BM
2
R =  Fe  H 2O 6   3d 6  t24g eg2
n=4
μ= 24 BM
Q<R<P
2. Yellow compound of lead chromate gets dissolved on treatment with hot NaOH solution. The product of
lead formed is a:
(1) Neutral complex with coordination number four
(2) Dianionic complex with coordination number four
(3) Tetraanionic complex with coordination number six
(4) Dianionic complex with coordination number six
Answer (2)
hot
2
Sol. PbCrO 4 

NaOH
 Na 2 CrO 4 +  Pb  OH 4 
yellow complex
The complex formed is [Pb(OH)4]2– which has coordination number = 4 and complex is dianionic due to
presence of (–2) charge.
Due to cross conjugation of negative charge it is most stabilised anion. So compound is most acidic.
3. Identify from the following species in which d2sp3 hybridization is shown by central atom :
(1) BrF5 (2) SF6 (3) [Pt(Cl4)]2– (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+
Answer (4)
Sol. Co3+ : 3d6 4s0
2 3
Pairing will take place and hybridization will be d sp .
4. The Spin only magnetic moment value of square planar complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is B.M.
(Nearest integer) (Given atomic number for Pt = 78)
Answer (0)
2+
Sol. Pt : 5d8 6s0
Pairing will take place and hence number of unpaired electrons = 0.
5. In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO forms a bridge between metal atoms?
(1) [Mn2(CO)10] (2) [Co2(CO)8] (3) [Ru3(CO)12] 4) [OS3(CO)12]
Answer (2)
Sol. Among the given metal carbonyls, only [Co2(CO)8] shows bridging CO ligands between two metal atoms.
Structures of other metal carbonyls are
6. The correct IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is

(1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI) (2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
(3) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII) (4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI)
Answer (2)
Sol. IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
7. On passing a gas, ‘X’, through Nessler’s regent, a brown precipitate is obtained. The gas ‘X’ is
(1) Cl2 (2) NH3 (3) H2S (4) CO2
Answer (2)
Sol. Nessler’s reagent is used for the test of NH3.
 HgO.Hg  NH 2  I 

NH 3  HgI 42  
OH
brown ppt
8. The oxidation number of iron in the compound formed during brown ring test for NO3 ion is _____.
Answer (1)
Sol. Brown ring complex is [Fe(H2O)5 NO]2+. It has Fe at +1 oxidation state that can be explained by magnetic
moment data of complex. It is an example of ligand to metal charge transfer that is why Fe has +1 and
NO has +1 oxidation state.
9. Choose the correct statements from the following:
(A) Ethane-1, 2-diamine is a chelating ligand.
(B) Metallic aluminium is produced by electrolysis of aluminium oxide in presence of cryolite.
(C) Cyanide ion is used as ligand for leaching of silver.
(D) Phosphine act as a ligand in Wilkinson catalyst.
(E) The stability constants of Ca2+ and Mg2+ are similar with EDTA complexes.
(1) (C), (D), (E) only (2) (A), (B), (C) only
(3) (A), (D), (E) only (4) (B), (C), (E) only
Answer (2)
Sol. (A) H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2 is a chelating ligand.
(B) Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of Al2O3 in the presence of cryolite.

(C) Cyanide ion form complex with silver Ag 2S  CN     Ag  CN 2 
(A), (B) and (C) are true.
10. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms an ion having geometry
(1) Octahedral (2) Tetrahedral (3) Square planar (4) Trigonal bipyramidal
Answer (1)
3+
Sol. AlCl3 
Acidified
aq.solution
  Al  H 2 O 6 
Hybridisation of Al+3 in  Al  H 2 O 6 
3+
is sp3d2 and geometry is octahedral.
11. The coordination geometry around the manganese in deca carbonyl dimanganese (0) is
(1) Square pyramidal (2)Square planar
(3) Octahedral (4)Trigonal bipyramidal
Answer (3)
Sol.
Each Mn has 6 atoms surrounding it in an octahedral geometry

12. The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 and purple colour of KMnO4 is due to
(1) d  d transitions in K2Cr2O7 and charge transfer transitions in KMnO4
(2) d  d transitions in KMnO4 and charge transfer transitions in K2Cr2O7
(3) Charge transfer transition in both
(4) d  d transitions in both
Answer (3)
Sol. Colour in K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4, both d° complexes is due to charge transfer transitions.
13. Number of complexes which show optical isomerism among the following is .
3 3 2 2
cis  Cr  ox  2 Cl2  , Co  en 3  , cis   Pt  en 2 Cl2  , cis  Co  en 2 Cl2  ,
2 3
trans   Pt  en  2 Cl2  , trans   Cr  ox 2 Cl2 
Answer (4)
3 3 2 
cis  Cr  ox 2 Cl2  ,  Co  en 3  , Cis  Pt  en  2 Cl 2  , cis- Co  en 2  Cl 2 
show optical isomerism
14. Number of spectral lines obtained in He+ spectra, when an electron makes transition from fifth excited
state to first excited state will be
Answer (10)
 n  n  n  n  1
Sol. Number of spectral lines  2 1 2 1
2
Where, n2 = 6, n1 = 2
Number of spectral lines 

 6  2  6  2  1
2
45
  10
2
15. The correct statements from following are:
A. The strength of anionic ligands can be explained by crystal field theory.
B. Valence bond theory does not give a quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of coordination compounds.
C. The hybridisation involved in formation of [Ni(CN)4]-2 complex is dsp2 D. The number of possible isomer(s) of cis-
[PtCl2(en)2]+2 is one Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A, C only (2) A, D only (3) B, D only (4) B, C only
Answer (4)
Sol. (A) Strength of anionic ligands cannot be explained by CFT instead LFT i.e., ligand field theory explains the strength of
ligands.
(B) VBT does not give a quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of coordination compounds.
Square planar geometry since → 4dsp2 hybridised orbitals created.

(D) cis-[PtCI2(en)2]  It has two possible isomers
16. The ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for [Ni(NH3)6]+2 is _____ × 10-1 BM.
(given = atomic number of Ni : 28)
Answer (28)
Sol. [Ni(NH3)6]+2  Nickel in +2 oxidation state Ni+2 in presence of 6 NH3 ligand (strong field).
Ni2+ have two unpaired electrons, and forms sp3d 2 hybridisation in presence of 6 NH3 ligand.
  n  n  2  2  2  2  2  4
  8  2.82  2.8BM
 28  10 1 BM
Hence answer is  28
17. Select the option with correct property-
(1) [Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4]-2– both Paramagnetic (2) [Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4 ]-2– both Diamagnetic
(3) [NiCl4] – Diamagnetic, [Ni(CO)4] Paramagnetic (4) [Ni(CO)4] Diamagnetic, [NiCl4 ]-2– Paramagnetic
-2
Answer (4)
Sol. [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic due to d10 configuration. Ni2+ with no pairing will be paramagnetic due to presence of 2
unpaired electrons.
18. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(Complex ion) (Electronic
Configuration)
A. 3 I.
Cr  H 2O6   t2 g 2 eg0
B. 3 II. t2 g 3eg0
 Fe  H 2O 6 
C. 2 III. t2 g 3eg2
 Ni  H 2O 6 
D. 3 IV. t2 g 6eg2
V  H 2O 6 
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer (3)
3 0
Sol A: Cr3+ : t2g eg
3 2
B: Fe3+ : t2g eg
6 2
C: Ni2+ : t2g eg
2 0
D: V3+ : t2g eg
19. Which of the following complex is homoleptic?
(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] + (2) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] (3) [Fe(NH3)4Cl2] + (4) [Ni(CN)4] 2–
Answer (4)
Sol. Homoleptic complexes are compounds in which all the ligands attached to metal centre are the same.
e.g., [Ni(CN)4] 2-
Statement (I) : A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green in colour.
Statement (II) : A solution of [Ni(CN)4]2- is colourless. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (4)
Sol. [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ is green in colour. Ni2+ has 3d8 configuration.
H2O is weak ligand; no-pairing of unpaired electrons, d-d transition absorbs light and emits green light. [Ni(CN)4] 2– is
colourless. As CN– is strong ligand, causes pairing of electrons. Therefore, d-d transition is not possible.
3
Co  NH 3 6  and CoF6  are respectively known as:
3
21.
(1) Spin free Complex, Spin paired Complex 2) Inner orbital Complex, Spin paired Complex
(3) Spin paired Complex, Spin free Complex (4) Outer orbital Complex, inner orbital Complex
Answer (3)
Sol. Co3+: 3d64s°
With NH3 . pairing will take place ⇒ Spin paired complex With F–, no paring will take place
⇒ Spin free complex.
CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE

1. Choose the polar molecule from the following :
(1) CHCl3 (2) CH2 = CH2 (3) CCl4 (4) CO2
Answer (1)
Sol. The molecule which has permanent dipole moment are said to be polar molecule.
2. Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is .

Answer (6)
Sol. CO and NO+ both are Isoelectronic to N2 i.e. both have 14 electrons.
Both have bond order equal to 3 Bond order of CO = 3
Bond order of NO+ = 3 Sum = 3 + 3 = 6
3. The number of non-polar molecules from the following is .
HF, H2O, SO2, H2, CO2, CH4, NH3, HCI, CHCI3, BF3
Answer (4)
Sol. Non-polar molecules are
H2; CO2; CH4; BF3
4. Number of compounds with one lone pair of electrons on central atom amongst following is_____
O3, H2O, SF4, CIF3, NH3, BrF5, XeF4
Answer (4)
Sol. The structures of the given compounds are
 No. of compounds with one lone pair of electrons on central atom = 4
5. The number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one is
.
H 2 , He +2 , O +2 , N 22 , O 22  , F2 , Ne 2+ , B2
Answer (1)
Sol. According to M.O. theory electronic configurations of the given species are
Bond Order
H2 :  1s
2 1 Diamagnetic
He2 : σ1s2 σ *11s 0.5 Paramagnetic
O +2 : σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ 2s
2 2.5 Paramagnetic
σ σ 
*2
2s
2
2Pz
2
2Px
 2P
2
 *12P
y x
N 22 :  12s *1s2  22s 2.0 Paramagnetic

 *22s 22P  22P z x
 
2
2Py
*1
2 Px  *1
2 Py
F2 ,O 2
2
:    22s
2
1s
*2
1s
1.0 Diamagnetic
 *22 s 22P  22P z x
 
2
2 Py
*2
2 Px
 *22 P y
Ne2 :  12s *12s 22s 0.5 Paramagnetic

 *22 s 22P  22P z x
 
2
2 Py
*2
2 Px
 *22 Py *12 Pz

B2 :  12s *12s 22s 10 Paramagnetic
  
*2
2s
1
2 Px
1
2 Py
6. The total number of anti bonding molecular orbitals, formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals in a diatomic
molecules is
Answer (4)
Sol. In the formation of diatomic molecule, the total number of 2s and 2p orbitals participate is 8. So, 8
molecular orbitals will form four of which will be antibonding, hence answer will be 4.
7. The total number of molecules with zero dipole moment among CH4, BF3, H2O, HF, NH3, CO2 and SO2
is
Answer (3)
Sol. CH4, BF3, CO2 are nonpolar while H2O, HF, NH3 and SO2 are polar that can be explained by their
geometry.
CH4 : Tetrahedral, BF3 : Trigonal planar, CO2 : Linear
8. The linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals takes place only when the combining
atomic orbitals
A. have the same energy B. have the minimum overlap
C. have same symmetry about the molecular axis D. have different symmetry about the molecular axis Choose the
most appropriate from the options given below.
(1) B, C, D only (2) B and D only (3) A, B, C only (4) A and C only
Answer (4)
Sol. Linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals takes place when • They have same energy • Maximum
overlap • Have same symmetry about the molecular axis Hence, only A and C are correct.
9. The number of species from the following in which the central atom uses sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding is ----.
NH3, SO2, SiO2, BeCl2, CO2, H2 O, CH4, BF3
Answer (4)
Sol.
10. Which of the following is least ionic?

(1) BaCl2 (2) KCl (3) CoCl2 (4) AgCl
Answer (4)
Sol. AgCl is least ionic due to pseudo inert gas configuration
11. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1 Å, then fractional charge on each
atom is ______ × 10–1 esu. (Given 1 D = 10–18 esucm) Answer (1.2 × 10–9 )
Sol. Dipole moment : 1.2 D
= 1.2 × 10–18 esu cm
 = q.d, 1.2 × 10–18 = (q) × 10–8
q = 1.2 × 10–10 esu q = 1.2 × 10–9 × 10–1 esu .
12. The lowest oxidation number of an atom in a compound A2B is –2. The number of electrons in its valence shell
is _______.
Answer (6)
Sol. In compound A2B Lowest oxidation state of B is –2 It means it has 6e– in its valence shell.
13. The number of molecules/ion/s having trigonal bipyramidal shape is _______.
PF5, BrF5, PCl5, [Pt Cl4] 2– , BF3Fe(CO)5
Answer (3)
Sol.
Statement (I): A π bonding MO has lower electron density above and below the inter-nuclear axis.
Statement (II): The π* antibonding MO has a node between the nuclei. In the light of the above statements,
choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true (3) Both
statement I and statement II are false (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Answer (4)
SOL.
Hence statement I is false and statement II is true
15. Select the compound from the following that will show intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(1) NH 3 (2) H 2O (3) C2 H 5OH 4)

Answer (4)
16. Choose the polar molecule from the following :

(1) CHCl3 (2) CH2 = CH2 (3) CCl4 (4) CO2
Answer (1)
Sol. The molecule which has permanent dipole moment are said to be polar molecule.
CHCl3 is polar molecule

17. Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is .
Answer (6)
Sol. CO and NO+ both are Isoelectronic to N2 i.e. both have 14 electrons.
Both have bond order equal to 3 Bond order of CO = 3
Bond order of NO+ = 3 Sum = 3 + 3 = 6
18. The total number of molecular orbitals from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals of a diatomic molecule is ____.
Answer (8)
Sol. 2s – 2s combine to form two molecular orbitals  2s and  2s
2p – 2p combine to form 6 molecular orbital
 2 Pz ,  2 Pz ,  2 Px ,  2 Py ,  2 Px ,  2 Py
Total molecular orbitals formed are 6 + 2 = 8
BIOMOLECULES, POLYMERS, CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

1. Two nucleotides are joined together by a linkage known as
1) Peptide linkage 2) Disulphide linkage
3) Glycosidic linkage 4) Phosphodiester linkage
Answer (4)
Sol. Two nucleotides are joined together by phosphodiester linkage between 5 and 3 carbon atoms of
pentose sugar.
2. Which structure of protein remains intact after coagulation of egg white on boiling?
(1) Tertiary (2) Quaternary (3) Secondary (4) Primary
Answer (4)
Sol. Primary structure of protein remains intact (it represents the sequence of amino acids).
3. Type of amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of proteins is :
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
Answer (4)
Sol. Hydrolysis of proteins results in the formation of  -amino acids only.
List-I List-II
(Bio Polymer) (Monomer)
A. Starch I. Nucleotide
B. Cellulose II.  -glucose
C. Nucleic acid III.  -glucose
D. Protein IV.  -amino acid
(1) A  I, B  III, C  IV, D  II (2) A IV, B  II, C  I, D  III
(3) A  II, B  III, C  I, D  IV (4) A  II, B  I, C  III, D  IV
Answer (3)
Sol. Biopolymer Monomer
Starch  -D-glucose
Cellulose  -D-glucose
Nucleic acid Nucleotide
Protein  -amino acid (Natural amino acids)
5. Sugar which does not give reddish brown precipitate with Fehling’s reagent, is
(1) Maltose (2) Glucose (3) Lactose (4) Sucrose
Answer (4)
Sol. Aldehyde (carbonyl) group is not free in sucrose.
6. The total number of correct statements, regarding the nucleic acid is .
A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic information.
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell division.
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell.
D. The message for the synthesis of particular proteins is present in DNA.
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to daughter cells.
Answer (3)
Sol. DNA is regarded as reserve of genetic information. Proteins are synthesised by various RNA molecules
in the cell.
Statements B, D, E are correct
LIST-I LIST-II
A Glucose/NaHCO3/  I Gluconic acid
B Glucose/HNO3 II No reaction
C Glucose/HI/  III n-hexane
D Glucose/Bromine IV Saccharic acid
water

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer (4)
8. From the vitamins A, B1, B6, B12, C, D, E and K, the number of vitamins that can be stored in our body is _____.
Answer (5)
Sol. Following vitamins can be stored in human body Vitamin A, D, E, K, B12.
9. If one strand of a DNA has the sequence ATGCTTCA, sequence of the bases in complementary strand is
(1) TACGAAGT (2) CATTAGCT (3) GTACTTAC (4) ATGCGACT
Answer (1)
Sol. Adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine.
Givensequence   A T G C T T C A
   
Complementary strand  T A C G A A G T 
10. The number of tripeptides formed by three different amino acids using each amino acid once is _____
Answer (6)
Answer = 3 × 2 × 1
=6
AMINES
1. Which of the following is strongest Bronsted base?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (2)
Sol. Bronsted base are those which can donate its lone pair to H ion.
more easily the compound can donate its lone pair to H+ strong will be basic character
is strongest Bronsted base due to availability of lone pair.

In other option lone pair is delocalised
2. 9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The mass
of acetanilide produced if the reaction is 100% completed is × 10–1 g.
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 N : 14, O : 16, C : 12, H : 1)
Answer (135)
Sol.
9.3
Moles of aniline =  0.1
93
Mass of acetanilide =  0.1 135
= 13.5
= 135 × 10–1 gm
3. The arenium ion which is not involved in the bromination of Aniline is .

(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. Bromination of aniline results in the formation of 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline because NH2 group strongly
activates the benzene ring particularly at the ortho and para positions. So, arenium ion will be formed
when Br2 attacks the ortho and para positions but not the meta position. Therefore arenium ion having Br
atom at the meta position will not be involved in the given reaction.
4. A reagent which gives brilliant red precipitate with Nickel ions in basic medium is
(1) Dimethyl glyoxime (2) Meta-dinitrobenzene
(3) Neutral FeCl3 (4) Sodium nitroprusside
Answer (1)
Ni 2  dimethyl glyoxime 
Basic medium
  Ni  dmg 2 
Cherry red
or
brilliant red
5. The product A formed in the following reaction is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (3)
Sol.
6. The final product A, formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (1)
NH 3 , 
C 6 H 5 Br 
Mg , ether
CO , H 
 C6 H 5COOH   C6 H 5CONH 2
2
C6 H 5CONH 2 
Br2 , NaOH
 C6 H5 NH 2
Aniline
7. The products A and B formed in the following reaction scheme are respectively
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (1)
Sol.
8. IUPAC name of following compound is :
(1) 2-Aminopentanenitrile (2) 2-Aminobutanenitrile

(3) 3-Aminopropanenitrile (4) 3-Aminobutanenitrile
Answer (4)
Sol.

Statement I: Aniline reacts with con. H 2 SO4 , followed by heating at 453-473 K gives paminobenzene sulphonic acid,
which gives blood red colour in the ‘Lassaigne’s test’.
Statement II: In Friedel-Craft’s alkylation and acylation reactions, aniline forms salt with the AlCl3 catalyst. Due to this,
nitrogen of aniline acquires a positive charge and acts as deactivating group. In the light of the above
statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true (4) Both statement I and statement II are false
Answer (3)
Sol. Due to presence of sulphur, carbon and nitrogen compound will give blood red colour in “Lassaigne” test.
Aniline forms salt which makes it deactivating group.
Both S(I) and S(II) are correct.
10. The azo-dye (Y) formed in the following reaction is Sulphanilic acid + NaNO2 + CH3COOH → X.
Answer (3)
Sol. Coupling reaction at para-position of NH2 will take place.
Option (3) is correct.
11. A compound (x) with molar mass 108 g mol–1 undergoes acetylation to give product with molar mass 192 g mol–
1
. The number of amino groups in the compound (x) is ______.
Answer (2)
 192  108 
Sol. Number of amino groups =  2
 42 
Statement (I): Aminobenzene and aniline are same organic compounds.
Statement (II): Aminobenzene and aniline are different organic compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (3)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (1)
Sol. Aminobenzene and aniline are same organic compound. Aniline is also known as aminobenzene or
phenylamine.
because aniline has amino group in its structure.

13. Number of compounds which give reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent is _______
Answer (5)
Sol. 1° and 2° amines will give reaction with Hinsberg reagent
Compound which gives reaction with Hinsberg reagent are
(1) Ph – NH2 (2) Ph – CH2 – NH – CH3 (3) NH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2 4)
14. Following is a confirmatory test for aromatic primary amines. Identify reagent (A) and (B).
(1) A = HNO3 /H 2SO 4 ;
(2) A=NaNO 2 +HCl,0 – 5°C;
(3) A = NaNO 2 +HCl,0 – 5°C ;
(4) A = NaNO0 +HCl,0 – 5°C ;

Answer (4)
Sol.

Statement (I) : The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho and para directing and a powerful activating group.
Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo FriedelCraft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation). In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Answer (1)
Sol. • NH2 group in aniline is ortho and para directing and a powerful activating group due to its strong electron
donating nature.
• Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation) due to salt formation with aluminium
chloride which is used as a Lewis acid catalyst.
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS, ETHERS

Statement (I) : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol.
Statement (II) : Ethanol will give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent. In the light of the above
statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (2)
Sol. p-Nitrophenol is more acidic than m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol. The electron withdrawing group –
NO2 stabilizes phenoxide ion through –R effect at para and ortho position. –NO2 group in meta position
will show –I effect. Presence of –NO2 group at ortho position it form hydrogen bonding with –OH group.
Hence, acidity is less than p-nitrophenol order of acidic strength. p-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol > m-
nitrophenol Ethanol will not give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent. 3° alcohol will give white
turbidity immediately statement I is true but statement II is false.
2. The final product A, formed in the following reaction sequence is

(i) BH 3
(ii)H 2 O2 , Θ OH
Ph  CH  CH 2 
A
(iii) HBr
(iv) Mg,ether, then HCHO/H3 O+
(1) Ph  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
Ph  CH  CH 3
(2) |
CH 3
(3) Ph  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  OH
Ph  CH  CH 3
(4) |
CH 2 OH
Answer (3)

List-I List-II
(Reaction) (Reagent(s))
(A) (I) Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4
(i) NaOH
(B) (II)
(ii) CH3Cl
(i) NaOH,
CHCl3
(C) (III)
(ii) NaOH
(iii) HCl
(i) NaOH
(D) (IV) (ii) CO2
(iii) HCl
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Answer (2)
Sol. (A) Kolbe reaction in presence of NaOH; CO2 and HCl.
(B) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(C) Oxidation of phenol
(D) Williamson ether synthesis
4. The major product(P) in the following reaction is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (4)
Sol.
5. According to IUPAC system, the compound is named as
(1) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene (2) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol
(3) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol (4) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
Answer (4)
Sol. is Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
6. Phenol treated with chloroform in presence of sodium hydroxide, which further hydrolyzed in presence
of an acid results
(1) Benzene-1, 3-diol (2) Salicylic acid
(3) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (4) Benzene-1, 2-diol
Answer (3)
Sol.
is Reimer Tiemann reaction.
7. Products A and B formed in the following set of reactions are
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (2)
Sol.
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: High concentration of strong nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides which do not
have bulky substituents will follow SN 2 mechanism.
Statement II: A secondary alkyl halide when treated with a larger excess of ethanol follows SN1
mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below :
(1) Statement I true but Statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer (2)
Sol. High concentration of strong nucleophile and lack of bulky substituents favors SN2 mechanism.
Ethanol is a weak nucleophile so SN1 mechanism should be preferred
8. Salicylaldehyde is synthesized from phenol, when reacted with
(1) CO2, NaOH (2) (3) CCl4, NaOH (4) HCCl3, NaOH
Answer (4)
Sol. Phenol reacts with CHCl3, NaOH to give salicylaldehyde. This is Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
9. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Alcohols react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles.
Reason R: Alcohol is react with active metals such as sodium, potassium and aluminium to yield corresponding alkoxides
and liberate hydrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true
Answer (1)
Sol. Assertion is correct

10. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: pKa value of phenol is 10.0 while that of ethanol is 15.9.
Reason R: Ethanol is stronger acid than phenol. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below.
Answer (2)
Sol. pKa of phenol = 10.0
pKa of ethanol = 15.9
Acid which has more pKa is weaker acid.
Ethanol is weaker acid than phenol
11. Identify A and B in the following reaction sequence

Answer (1)
12. Match List-I with List-I

List-I Reactants List-II Product
(A) Phenol, Zn/∆ (I) Salicylaldehyde
(B) Phenol, CHCl3, (II) Salicylic acid
NaOH,
HCl
(C) Phenol, CO2, (III) Benzene
NaOH,
HCl
(D) Phenol, Conc, (IV) Picric acid
HNO3
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Answer (2)
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1
1. The number of electrons present in all the completely filled subshells having n = 4 and s = + is _____.
2
(Where n = principal quantum number and s = spin quantum number)
Answer (16)
1
Sol. Total (n2) electrons present with s = +
2
1
 Total 16 electrons with n = 4 and s = +
2
2. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
1 1 1 1
(1) 5, 0, 0, + (2) 5, 0, 1, + (3) 5, 1, 0, + (4) 5, 1, 1, +
2 2 2 2
Answer (1)
Sol. The electronic configuration of Rb-atom (Z = 37) is 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p65s1
The values of four quantum numbers of the valence electron of Rb-atom are
1
n = 5, I = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
3. Match List I with List II.
List I (Spectral Series for List II (Spectral Region/Higher
Hydrogen) Energy State)
A. Lyman I. Infrared region
B. Balmer II. UV region
C. Paschen III. Infrared region
D. Pfund IV. Visible region
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer (4)
Sol. Correct match is as follows:
Spectral series for Spectral region/Higher
hydrogen Energy state
Lyman UV region
Balmer Visible region
Paschen Infrared region
Pfund Infrared region
4. Given below are two statements.

Statement (I) : The orbitals having same energy are called as degenerate orbitals.
Statement (II) : In hydrogen atom, 3p and 3d orbitals are not degenerate orbitals.
Answer (3)
Sol. In hydrogen 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals have same energy.
5. The ionization energy of sodium in kJ mol–1 , if electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just
sufficient to ionize sodium atom is ______.
Answer (494)
Sol.  = 242 nm = 242 ×10–9 m
Energy to just remove 1 electron from 1 mol sodium atom =
Energy for removal of 1e– from 1 atom
Energy for removal of 1e– from 1 mol atoms
6. The four quantum numbers for the electron in the outer most orbital of potassium (atomic no. 19) are
1
1) n  4, l  0, m  0, s  
2
1
2) n  4, l  2, m  1, s  
2
1
3) n  3, l  0, m  1, s  
2
1
4) n  2, l  0, m  0, s  
2
Answer (1)
Sol. K19 : 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
1
Outermost electron is 4s1 n = 4 , l = 0 m = 0 , S=+
2
7. According to the wave-particle duality of matter by de-Broglie, which of the following graph plot presents most
appropriate relationship between wavelength of electron () and momentum of electron (p)?
Answer (4)
Sol.
h

p
1

p
So, graph between  and p is rectangular hyperbola.
8. The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is (
1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2
Answer (3)
Sol. No. of radial nodes = n – l – 1
=3–1–1
=1
ALDEHYDE KETONE AND CARBOXYLIC ACID

1. Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. After removal of H+ ion, negative charge is formed, more stable the negative charge more will be the
acidic strength.
2. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive:

(1) Lucas test (2) Carbylamine test (3) Tollen’s test (4) Phthalein dye test
Answer (4)
Sol. Phenolic group is identified by phthalein dye test.
3. The order of relative stability of the contributing structure is :

(1) III > II > I (2) I > II > III (3) II > I > III (4) I = II = III
Answer (2)
Sol. In structure I, octet of every element is complete.
4. From the compounds given below, number of compounds which give positive Fehling’s test is
.
Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Acetophenone, Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde, cyclohexane
carbaldehyde.
Answer (3)
Sol. Fehling’s test is given by aliphatic aldehydes only. The following compounds give positive Fehling’s test.
Acetaldehyde, Methanal, Cyclohexane carbaldehyde
No. of compounds which are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one is 1
5.
Consider the given reaction. The total number of oxygen atom/s present per molecule of the product (P)
is .
Answer (1)
No. of O-atom present per molecule of (P) = 1
6. Identify the reagents used for the following conversion
(1) A  DIBAL  H , B  NaOH  alc , C  Zn / HCl

(2) A  DIBAL  H , B  NaOH  alc  , C  NH 2  NH 2 / KOH , ethylene glycol
(3) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl
(4) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(aq), C = NH2-NH2/KOH, ethylene glycol
Answer (2)
Sol.
7. The total number of ‘Sigma’ and ‘Pi’ bonds in 2-formylhex-4-enoic acid is .
Answer (22)
Sol. 2 – formylhex – 4 – enoic acid is
8.
This reduction reaction is known as

(1) Etard reduction (2) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(3) Stephen reduction (4) Rosenmund reduction
Answer (4)
Sol. C 6 H 5COCl 
H 2 / Pd / BaSO4
 C6 H 5CHO
Rosenmund’s reduction convert acid halides to aldehydes.
9. In the given reactions, identify the reagent A and reagent B.
(1) A  CrO2Cl2 , B  CrO3 (2) A  CrO3 , B  CrO2Cl2

(3) A  CrO2 Cl 2 , B  CrO2Cl2 (4) A  CrO3 , B  CrO3
Answer (2)
Sol.
A  CrO3
B  CrO2Cl2
10. Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is
O O
|| ||
(1) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH  C  H (2) CH 3  CH  CH  CH  C  H
| |
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 O O
| || ||
(3) H 2C  C  C  CH 2  C  H (4) CH 3  CH 2  CH  C  C  H
| | |
H H H
Answer (2)
O
||
5 4 3 2 1
Sol. CH 3  CH  CH  CH  C  H
|
CH 3
4-Methylpent-2-enal
11. The compound formed by the reaction of ethanal with semicarbazide contains ______ number of nitrogen
atoms.
Answer (3)
Sol.
When ethanal reacts with semicarbazide, semi carbazone is formed via condensation, number of nitrogen
atoms present in product is 3.
12. m-chlorobenzaldehyde, on treatment with 50% KOH solution yields
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (1)
Sol.
Cannizzaro reaction.
Statement I: IUPAC name of HO –CH2–(CH2)3– CH2–COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
Statement II: 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct IUPAC name for above compound.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Answer (3)
Sol.
Correct IUPAC name is

7-Hydroxyheptan-2-one
Hence, statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
14. The product of the following reaction is P.
The number of hydroxyl groups present in the product P is ______.

Answer (1)
15. Identify major product 'P' formed in the following reaction.
Answer (3)
Sol. Friedel craft acylation reaction to produce benzophenone.
16. Identify the name reaction.
(1) Gatterman-Koch Reaction (2) Rosenmund Reduction (3) Stephen Reaction (4) Etard Reaction
Answer (1)
Sol. Named reaction Gattermann coch reaction is used to convert benzene directly into benzenecarbaldehyde.
17. Match List - I with List - II.

(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Answer (3)
O
||
SOL. CH 3  CH 2 5  c  OC2 H 5 
DIBAL  H
 CH 3  CH 2 5 CHO  C2 H 5OH
  Zn Hg and
C6 H 5COC6 H 5 
Conc . Hcl
 C6 H 5CH 2C6 H 5
C6 H 5CHO 
CH 3 MgBr , H 2 o
 C6 H 5CH  OH  CH 3
 CH 3  C  OH  CH 2COOC2 H 5

CH 3COCH 2COOC2 H 5 
NaBH 4 / H
|
H
18. Identify A and B in the following sequence of reaction.
Answer (2)
Sol.
19. Which among the following has highest boiling point?
(1) CH 3CH 2CH 2CHO (2) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2 – OH
(3) H 5C2 – O – C2 H 5 (4) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 3
Answer (2)
Sol. CH 3 – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 2 – OH will have highest boiling point due to intermolecular H-bonding
THERMODYNAMICS
–1 –1
1. For a certain thermochemical reaction M  N at T = 400 K, H° = 77.2 kJ mol , S = 122 JK , log
–1
equilibrium constant (logK) is – __________ × 10 .
Answer (37)
Sol. G 0  H 0  T S 0
= (77.2 × 1000) – 400(122)
= 77200 – 48800
= 28400
G° = – (2.303)(8.314)(400)logK
logK = –3.708
–1
= –37.08 × 10 = 37
2. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(2) G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
(3) G is zero for a reversible reaction
(4) G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
Answer (4)
Sol. G is negative for a spontaneous process, zero for a reversible process and positive for a non- spontaneous
process.
3. Standard enthalpy of vapourisation for CCI4 is 30.5 kJ mol–1. Heat required for vapourisation of 284 g of
CCI4 at constant temperature is _____ kJ.
(Given molar mass in g mol–1; C = 12, CI = 35.5)
Answer (56)
284
Sol. Moles of CCl4 =  1.8
154
Heat required = 1.8 mol × 30.5 kJ mol1
= 56.24 kJ
= 56 kJ
4.
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the same
point by tracing the path A  B  C  A as shown in the diagram above. The total work done in the
process is J.
Answer (200)
Sol. Work done = Area under curve
1
Work done   AC  AB
2
1 dm = 0.001 m3
3
AB = 20 dm3 = 0.02 m3
1 kPa = 1000 Nm–2
20 kPa = 20000 Nm–2
1
Work done   0.02  20000 J
2
= 200 J
5. Two reactions are given below:

3
2Fes  + O 2(g)  Fe2O3(s) , H 0  822 kJ/mol
2
1
C (s) + O 2(g)  CO (g) , H 0  110 kJ/mol
2
Then enthalpy change for following reaction
3C s   Fe2O3 s   2 Fe s   3CO g  is __________________. kJ/mol
Answer (492)
Sol. Net enthalpy change
= – (Enthalpy change of first reaction)
+ 3(Enthalpy change of second reaction)
= 822 – 330 = 492
6. If 5 moles of an ideal gas expands from 10 L to a volume of 100 L at 300 K under isothermal and reversible
condition then work, w, is –x J. The value of x is _____. (Given R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1 )
Answer (28721)
Sol. W = –2.303(5)(8.314)(300) log10 = –28720.713 J x = 28720.713 Nearest integer = 28721
7. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following.
(1) q = 0, T < 0, w  0 (2) q  0, T = 0, w = 0 (3) q = 0, T  0, w = 0 (4) q = 0, T = 0, w = 0
Answer (4)
Sol. In adiabatic free expansion, there is no external pressure for gas to expand. So, work done is zero.
w = 0, T = 0. For adiabatic process, no heat is exchanged. q = 0
8. For a certain reaction at 300 K, K = 10, then ∆G° for the same reaction is –_____ × 10-1 kJ mol-1.
(Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
Answer (57)
Sol. ∆G° = –(2.303)(8.314)(300) logK
= –(2.303)(8.314)(300)
= –5744 J = –5.744 kJ
= –57.44 × 10-1 kJ
STATES OF MATTER
1. If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 K expand isothermally from 30 dm3 to 45 dm3 against a constant
opposing pressure of 80 kPa, then the amount of heat transferred is J.
Answer (1200)
Sol. W   Pext  V 
N
2 
 80  103 45  30   103 m3
m
= – 80 × (15) N.m
= –1200 J
q  W  E  0
q  1200 J
SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY

1. Number of moles of methane required to produce 22 g CO2(g) after combustion is x ×10-2 moles. The value of x is
______.
Answer (50)
Reaction of combustion of methane:
CH4 + 2O2 ⎯→ CO2 + 2H2 O
1 mol methane produce 1 mol CO2.
 1 mol methane produce 44 g CO2.
Hence, 1/2 mol CH4 will produce 22 g CO2.
 Moles of methane required to produce 22 g CO2.
 0.5 mol
 50 × 10-2 mol
Hence, the value of x = 50
2. A sample of CaCO3 and MgCO3 weighed 2.21 g is ignited to constant weight of 1.152 g. The composition of
mixture is:
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 CaCO3 : 100, MgCO3 : 84)
(1) 1.187 g CaCO3 + 1.023 g MgCO3 (2) 1.187 g CaCO3 + 1.187 g MgCO3
(3) 1.023 g CaCO3 + 1.187 g MgCO3 (4) 1.023 g CaCO3 + 1.023 g MgCO
Answer (1)
Sol. Assume mass of CaCO3 = x gm Mass of MgCO3 = (2.21 – x) gm

caco3   cao  co2 

mgco3   mgo  co2 
(Mass of CaO) + (Mass of MgO) = 1.152 gm
 x   2.21  X 
 X 56     X 40  1.152
 100   84 
x = 1.187 gm  CaCO3 = 1.187 gm  MgCO3 = 1.023 gm
3. Number of moles of H+ ions required by 1 mole of MnO4 to oxidise oxalate ion to CO2 is _______.
Answer (8)
Sol. Balanced reaction:

16 H   2 MnO 4  5C2O42
 10Co2  2 Mn 2   8 H 2O
Moles of H+ required = 8
4. Consider the following reaction:
3PbCl2 + 2(NH4)3PO4 → Pb3(PO4)2 + 6NH4Cl
If 72 mmol of PbCl2 is mixed with 50 mmol of (NH4)3PO4, then the amount of Pb3(PO4)2 formed is _______ mmol
(nearest integer).
Answer (24)
Sol. 3 pbcl2  2  NH 4 3 PO4  Pb3  PO4 2  6 NH 4Cl
71mmol 50 mmol
PbCl2 is limiting reagent
3 mol PbCl2 produces 1 mol of Pb3(PO4)2
72 mmol of PbCl2 will produce
1/3 × 72 mmol of Pb3(PO4)2 = 24 mmol
SOLUTIONS
1. A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law will have :
1) increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
2) increased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
3) decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
4) decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
Answer (4)
Sol. A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative deviation due to decrease in vapour pressure and
increase in boiling point.
2. Volume of 3 M NaOH (formula weight 40 g mol–1) which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is
× 10–1 dm3.
Answer (7)
84
Sol. Moles of NaOH =  2.1
40
Moles 2.1
Volume = = = 0.7 = 7 × 101
Molarity 3
3. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is 7 × 105 Pa at 273K. Osmotic pressure of the same solution at
283K is × 104 Nm–2.
Answer (73)
Sol. P1, osmotic pressure at 273K = 7 × 105 Pa P2, osmotic pressure at 283K is given by
P2 T2
=  P  T 
P1 T1
283
P2 = 7×105 × = 72.56 × 104 Pa
273
 73 104 Nm2
4. A solution of H2SO4 is 31.4% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.25g/mL.
The molarity of the H2SO4 solution is M (nearest integer)
[Given molar mass of H2SO4 = 98g mol–1]
Answer (4)
Sol. Density of H2SO4 solution = 1.25 gmol–1
Mass percentage of H2SO4 = 31.4 %
Mass of 1 L H2SO4 solution = 1250g
1250 × 31.4
Mass of H2SO4 in 1L solution = g
100
1250 × 31.4
Molarity of H2SO4 solution =
98 × 100
= 4.00 M
5. Molality of 0.8 M H2SO4 solution (density 1.06 cm–3) is × 10–3 m.
Answer (815)
Molality×103
Molality =
1000×d    Molarity×Molar Mass 
0.8  103

1000 1.06  0.8  98
 0.81499
 815 103
6. The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required to prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is_
g. (Molar mass of CH3COONa is 82.02 g mol–1)
Answer (7)
Sol. Given volume of solution = 250 mL
Molarity of solution of CH3COONa = 0.35 M
Moles of CH 3COONa
Molarity = 100
Volume of solution (in ML)
Moles of CH 3COONa
0.35 =  1000
250
0.35 × 250
Moles of CH 3COONa =
1000
= 0.0875 mol
Mass of CH 3COONa = 0.0875  82.02 g
= 7.18 g
7. The solution from the following with highest depression in freezing point/lowest freezing point is
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene
(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene
(4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water
Answer (2)
Sol. Assuming same quantity of solvent, 180 g of acetic acid will have highest moles among given solutes.
Further, in water acetic acid will dissociate leading to increase in number of solute particles.
8. If a substance ‘A’ dissolves in solution of a mixture of ‘B’ and ‘C’ with their respective number of moles
in nA, nB and nC, Mole fraction C in the solution is:
nB nC nC nC
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n A +n B nA  nB  nC nA  nB  nC nA  nB  nC
Answer (3)
moles of a component
Sol. Mole fraction =
totalmoles of all components
nC

n A  n B  nC
9. Identify the mixture that shows positive deviations from Raoult’s law.
(1) (CH3)2 CO + C6 H5 NH2 (2) CHCl3 + C6 H6 (3) CHCl3 + (CH3)2 CO (4) (CH3)2 CO + CS2
Answer (4)
10. Choose the correct statements from the following
A. Mn2 O7 is an oil at room temperature B. V2 O4 reacts with acid to give
C. CrO is a basic oxide D. V2O5 does not react with acid
(1) A, B and D only (2) A, B and C only (3) B and C only (4) A and C only
Answer (4)
Sol. V2O5 is Amphoteric and hence can react with acid as well as base.
Statements A and C are correct.
11. The molarity of 1L orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4) having 70% purity by weight (specific gravity 1.54 g cm–3 ) is
_______ M. (Molar mass of H3PO4 = 98 g mol–1)
Answer (11)
Sol. Mass of solution = 1540 gm
Mass of H3PO4 = 1540×70/100  =1078 gm
Moles of solute = 1078/ 98 = 11
12. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentration 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001
M, respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor (i) for these solutions will be in the order :
(1) iA > iB > Ic (2) iA < iB < iC (3) iA = iB = iC (4) iA < iC < iB
Answer (2)
Sol. As concentration of solution decreases degree of dissociation () increases and van’t Hoff factor (i) depends on
degree of dissociation. [A] = 0.1 M [B] = 0.01 M [C] = 0.001 M iA < iB < iC
13. Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to 18.6 kg of water to protect the freezing point at –24°C is
______ kg (Molar mass in g mol-1 for ethylene glycol 62, Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)
Answer (15)
mole
Sol. ∆Tf = Kf(m) 24  1.86 
18.6
Moles = 240
Mass = 240 × 62
= 14880 gm
= 14.88 kg
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS, HYDROGEN

1. Identify the incorrect pair from the following.
(1) Cryolite – Na3AlF6
(2) Fluoroapatite – 3Ca3(PO4)2 .CaF2
(3) Fluorspar – BF3
(4) Carnallite – KCl . MgCl2 . 6H2O
Answer (3)
Sol. The correct pairs are
1. Cryolite – Na3AlF6
2. Fluorapatite – 3Ca3(PO4)2 . CaF2
3. Fluorspar – CaF2
4. Carnallite – KCl . MgCl2 . 6H2O
2. Number of metal ions characterized by flame test among the following is _____.
Sr2+, Ba2+, Ca2+, Cu2+, Zn2+, Co2+, Fe2+
Answer (4)
Sol. Ca2+ – Brick red
Sr2+ – Crimson red
Ba2+ – Grassy green
Cu2+ – Blue green
QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS
1. NaCl reacts with conc. H2SO4 and K2Cr2O7 to give reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to give
yellow solution (C). (B) and (C) respectively are :
(1) CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4 (2) Na2CrO4, CrO2Cl2
(3) CrO2Cl2, Na2Cr2O7 (4) CrO2Cl2, KHSO4
Answer (1)
Sol. 4 NaCl  K 2Cr2O7 6 H 2 SO4 
 2CrO2Cl2 4 NaHSO4  2 KHSO 4  3H 2O
(B)
CrO 2 Cl 2 +4NaOH 
 Na 2 CrO 4 +2NaCl+2H 2 O
(C)
Yellow
2. Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 gives “A” which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution
produces B. A and B respectively are
(1) MnO24 and Mn 2O7 (2) Mn 2 O 7 and MnO 4
(3) Mn 2 O3 and MnO 42  (4) MnO 24  and MnO 4
Answer (4)
Sol. A is MnO 24 
B is MnO 4
3. Total number of species from the following which can undergo disproportionation reaction is
H 2 O 2 , ClO 3 , P4 , Cl2 , Cu +1 , NO 2 , K 
Answer (6)
Sol. H 2 O 2 , ClO 3 , P4 , Cl2 , Cu +1 , NO 2 have atoms in intermediate oxidation states.
4. Molar mass of the salt from NaBr, NaNO3, KI and CaF2 which does not evolve coloured vapours on heating with
concentrated H2SO4 is ______ g mol–1 .
(Molar mass in g mol–1 : Na : 23, N : 14, K : 39, O : 16, Br : 80, I : 127, F : 19, Ca : 40
Answer (78)
Sol.
CaF2 will not give coloured vapours on heating with conc. H2SO4.
Other will give coloured vapours due to formation of Br2, NO2, I2.
Br2 → Red-brown colour
I2 → Violet colour
NO2 → Deep red orange gas.
Molar mass of CaF2  40 + 19 + 19 = 78 g/mol
5. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen, CuSO4 acts as :
(1) Oxidising agent (2) Catalytic agent (3) Reducing agent (4) Hydrolysis agent
Answer (2)
Sol. In Kjeldahl’s Method CuSO4 acts as a catalytic agent.
Organic compound + H2SO4 
cuso4
  NH 4 2 SO4
Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a primary standard for standardisation of sodium hydroxide solution.
Statement (II) : In this titration phenolphthalein can be used as indicator. In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Answer (2)
Sol. Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a primary standard, generally used to standardize a solution of NaOH.
Indicator used for titration of weak acids is phenolphthalein as it goes from colourless at acidic pH to pink at
basic pH.
7. The number of white coloured salts, among the following is _______.
(a) SrSO4 (b) Mg(NH4)PO4

(c) BaCrO4 (d) Mn(OH)2
(e) PbSO4 (f) PbCrO4
(g) AgBr (h) PbI2
(i) CaC2O4 (j) [Fe(OH)2(CH3COO)
Answer (5)
Sol. SrSO4, PbSO4, Mg(NH4)PO4, Mn(OH)2 and CaC2O4 are white coloured salts.
8. Lassaigne’s test is used for detection of

(1) Nitrogen, Sulphur and Phosphorous only (2) Nitrogen, Sulphur, Phosphorous and halogens
(3) Phosphorous and halogens only (4) Nitrogen and Sulphur only
Answer (2)
Sol. Nitrogen, sulphur, halogens and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by Lassaigne’s test.

Statement I: Dimethyl glyoxime forms a sixmembered covalent chelate when treated with NiCl 2 solution in presence of
NH4OH
Statement II: Prussian blue precipitate contains iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (1)
Sol. Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six-membered chelate via hydrogen bonding/noncovalent force when treated with
NiCl2 solution in presence of NH4OH. Prussian blue precipitate Fe4  Fe  CN 6  has Fe at  3
3
is as well as +2 oxidation state. Where ionisation sphere is Fe and coordination sphere has Fe2
3
10. Following Kjeldahl’s method, 1g of organic compound released ammonia, that neutralised 10 mL of 2M H 2 SO4.
The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is ______ %.
Answer (56)
10  2
Sol. Moles of H2 SO4.  0.02
1000
Moles of NH3 = 0.04
Moles of N = 0.04
Mass of N = 0.56 gm
% by mass of N = 56%
PERIODIC PROPERTIES
Statement (I) : The 4f and 5f - series of elements are placed separately in the Periodic table to preserve
the principle of classification.
Statement (II) : s-block elements can be found in pure form in nature. In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true
Answer (2)
Sol. S–block elements are highly reactive and hence can’t be found in pure form in nature.
 Statement II is incorrect.
2. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy decreases across a period.
Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge outweighs the shielding across the period.
Answer (2)
Sol. Assertion is false because the first ionisation enthalpy generally increases across a period barring few
exceptions.
Reason is true because the increase in first ionisation enthalpy across a period is due to the increasing
nuclear charge outweighs the shielding effect.
3. The element having the highest first ionization enthalpy is

(1) C (2) N (3) Al (4) Si
Answer (2)
Sol. In general ionisation enthalpy increases on moving left to right in the period and decreases on moving top
to bottom in group. Hence 1st ionisation enthalpy is highest for N.
Statement I : Fluorine has most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II : Oxygen has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below.
Answer (4)
Sol. –  eg H : S  Se  Te  Po  O 16th group
–  eg H : Cl  F  Br  I 17th group
5. If IUPAC name of an element is “Unununnium” then the element belongs to nth group of Periodic table.
The value of n is _____.
Answer (11)
Sol. IUPAC name given is Unununnium
un = 1
un = 1
un = 1
Atomic number is 111 belongs to group 11th.
Statement-I: Along the period, the chemical reactivity of the elements gradually increases from group
1 to group 18.
Statement-II: The nature of oxides formed by group 1 elements is basic while that of group 17 elements
is acidic.
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Answer (3)
Sol. Chemical reactivity decreases in a period from left to right. Group-1 elements being metals form basic
oxides, while group 17 elements being non-metals form acidic oxides.
7. The correct sequence of electron gain enthalpy of the elements listed below is
A. Ar B. Br C. F D. S
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below
(1) A > D > C > B (2) C > B > D > A (3) A > D > B > C (4) D > C > B > A
Answer (3)
Sol. Electron gain enthalpy of D  S = –200 kJ mol-1 C  F = –333 kJ mol-1 B  Br = –325 kJ mol-1
A  Ar = 96 kJ mol-1 A > D > B > C (source NCERT
8. Consider the following
Which of the following is/are true about A', B', C' and D'?
A. Order of atomic radii: B' < A' < D' < C'
B. Order of metallic character: B' < A' < D' < C'
C. Size of the element: D' < C' < B' < A'
D. Order of ionic radii : B'+ < A'+ < D' + < C'+ Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) A only (2) A and B only (3) B, C and D only ( 4) A, B and D only
Answer (4)
Sol. Size of element : B’<A’<D’<C’ Statement A, B and D are correc
9. In case of isoelectronic species the size of F– , Ne and Na+ is affected by
(1) Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals (2) Principal quantum number (n)
(3) Nuclear charge (z) (4) None of the factors because their size is the same
Answer (3)
Sol. For isoelectronic species, size depends on nuclear charge. More nuclear charge, lesser will be the size of species,
this is because the valence electron will experience greater attractive force due to increase in nuclear charge.
10. Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic character in the molecules. LiF, K 2O, N2, SO2 and CIF3.
(1) LiF < K2O < ClF3 < SO2 < N2 (2) N2 < SO2 < ClF3 < K2O < LiF
(3) ClF3 < N2 < SO2 < K2O < LiF (4) N2 < ClF3 < SO2 < K2O < LiF
Answer (2)
Sol. The ionic character of molecule depends on electronegativity difference between atoms of molecule. Greater
the difference, greater will be ionic character. On this basis, the order of increasing ionic character in the given
molecule is – N2 < SO2 < ClF3 < K2O < LiF
Statement (I): Both metals and non-metals exist in p and d-block elements
Statement (II): Non-metals have higher ionisation enthalpy and higher electronegativity than the metals. In the light of
the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false (4) Both statement I and statement II are true
Answer (1)
Sol. d block does not contain any non-metal. Non-metallic character, ionisation enthalpy, electronegativity
increases on moving left to right in a period and decreases on moving down the group.
P-BLOCK ELEMENTS ( GROUP-13 TO 18)

1. Element not showing variable oxidation state is:
(1) Bromine (2) Chlorine (3) Iodine (4) Fluorine
Answer (4)
Sol. Fluorine does not show variable oxidation state due to absence of vacant d-orbital.
2. From the given list, the number of compounds with +4 oxidation state of Sulphur is .
SO3, H2SO3, SOCl2, SF4, BaSO4, H2S2O7
Answer (3)
Sol. H2SO3, SOCl2, SF4 have +4 oxidation state of Sulphur
Statement (I) : Oxygen being the first member of group 16 exhibits only –2 oxidation state.
Statement (II) : Down the group 16 stability of +4 oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state
increases.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (2)
Sol. Oxygen can show other oxidation states apart from (–2).
Stability of +6 oxidation state decreases down the group due to inert pair effect.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I : The electronegativity of group 14- elements from Si to Pb, gradually decreases.
Statement II : Group 14 contains non-metallic, metallic, as well as metalloid elements.
Answer (4)
Sol. Statement-I is false because electronegativity of Group-14 elements from Si to Pb is almost
constant, i.e., 1.8.
Statement-II is correct because Group-14 contains non-metals, metalloids as well as metals.
Carbon – Non-metal
Silicon – Metalloid
Germanium – Metalloid
Tin – Metal
Lead – Metal
5. Anomalous behavior of oxygen is due to its
(1) Small size and low electronegativity (2) Large size and high electronegativity
(3) Large size and low electronegativity (4) Small size and high electronegativity
Answer (4)
Sol. Anomalous behavior of oxygen is due to small size and high electronegativity as compared to the elements
of group 16.
6. Given below are two statements.
Statement (I) : The gas liberated on warming a salt with dil H2SO4, turns a piece of paper dipped in lead
acetate into black, it is a confirmatory test for sulphide ion.
Statement (II) : In statement-I the colour of paper turns black because of formation of lead sulphite.
Answer (2)
Sol. H2S turns Pb(CH3COO)2 black.
Pb  CH3COO  2 +H 2S   PbS+2CH3COOH
Black
Statement-I is true.
Statement-II is false.
List-I List-II
Molecule Shape
(A) BrF5 (I) T-shape
(B) H2O (II) See saw
(C) ClF3 (III) Bent
(D) SF4 (IV) Square pyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (A)–(I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) (2) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) (4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Answer (4)
Sol. BrF5
75
Electron pair  6
2
square pyramidal
H2O Bent
73
CIF3 e– pair  5
2
T-Shape
64
SF4 e– pair  5
2
8. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However from As to Bi
only a small increase in covalent radius is observed.
Reason (R): Covalent and ionic radii in a particular oxidation state increases down the group.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (1)
Sol. There is considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However from As to Bi increment in
covalent radii is very small due to presence of d and f orbital electron results in increase in effective nuclear
charge.
Covalent and ionic radius at particular oxidation state generally increases down the group, due to increase
in shell number.
9. Choose the correct statements about the hydrides of group 15 elements.
(A) The stability of the hydrides decreases in the order NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(B) The reducing ability of the hydride increases in the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
(C) Among the hydrides, NH3 is strong reducing agent while BiH3 is mild reducing agent.
(D) The basicity of the hydrides increases in the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
Choose the most appropriate from the option given below
(1) B and C only (2) A and B only (3) A and D only (4) C and D only
Answer (2)
Sol. BiH3 is a stronger reducing agent than NH3.
Basicity of hydrides decreases down the group.
Statement-I : Since Fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of NF3 is
greater than NH3.
Statement-II : In NH3, the orbital dipole due to lone pair and the dipole moment of NH bonds are in
opposite direction, but in NF3 the orbital dipole due to lone pair and dipole moments of N-F bonds are in
same direction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
Answer (2)
Sol. In NF3 the orbital dipole due to lone pair and dipole moments of N – F bonds are in opposite direction. In
NH3, they are the same direction.
Thus, in NH3 the dipole moments add up which leads to higher dipole moment than NF3.
11. Reduction potential of ions are given below :
ClO4 IO 4 BrO4
E 0 =1.19V E 0 =1.65V E 0 =1.74V
The correction order of their oxidising power is
(1) IO4  BrO4  ClO4 (2) BrO4  IO4  ClO4
(3) ClO4  IO4  BrO4 (4) BrO4  ClO4  IO4
Answer (2)
Sol. Higher the reduction potential higher is the oxidizing power.
12. The molecule/ion with square pyramidal shape is

(1) PCl5 (2) PF5 (3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) BrF5
Answer (4)
Sol. BrF5 has 1 lone pair and 5 bond pairs.
It has square pyramidal shape.

13. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: H2Te is more acidic than H2S.
Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2Te is lower than H2S.
Answer (4)
Sol. Bond enthalpy of H2 Te is lower than H2S, thus H2Te releases H+ more easily . So, It is a stronger acid.
14. Consider the oxides of group 14 elements SiO2, GeO2, SnO2, PbO2, CO and GeO. The amphoteric oxides are (1)
SnO2, CO (2) SiO2, GeO2 (3) GeO, GeO2 (4) SnO2, PbO2
Answer (4
Sol. SnO2 and PbO2 → Amphoteric oxides CO → Neutral oxide GeO, SiO2, GeO2 → Acidic oxides
Statement I: Noble gases have very high boiling points.
Statement II: Noble gases are monoatomic gases. They are held together by strong dispersion forces. Because of this they
are liquefied at very low temperature. Hence, they have very high boiling points.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
Answer (2)
Sol. Noble gases have very low melting and boiling points because noble gases are held together by weak dispersion
forces. Even helium has lowest boiling point (4.2 K) of any known substance.
Therefore, both statement I and II are incorrect
Statement I: S8 solid undergoes disproportionation reaction under alkaline conditions to
From S-2 and
Statement II: – C l O-4 can undergo disproportionation reaction under acidic condition.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)
Sol. C l is present in highest oxidation state (+7) and hence cannot undergo disproportionation reaction.
Statement I is correct.
Statement II is false.
17. Choose the correct statements from the following
A. All group 16 elements form oxides of general formula EO2 an EO3, where E = S, Se, Te and Po. Both the types of
oxides are acidic in nature
B. TeO2 is an oxidising agent while SO2 is reducing in nature.
C. The reducing property decreases from H2S to H2Te down the group.
D. The ozone molecule contains five lone pairs of electrons.
(1) C and D only (2) B and C only (3) A and D only (4) A and B only
Answer (4)
Sol. (C) Reducing property increases from H2S to H2Te (D) Ozone molecule have 6 lone pair of electrons..
 Statements A and B are correct.
Statement I: Group 13 trivalent halides get easily hydrolyzed by water due to their covalent nature. Statement II: AlCl3
upon hydrolysis in acidified aqueous solution forms octahedral [Al(H2O6) 3+] ion. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both statement I and statement II are false
Answer (1)
Sol. Al can expand its octet due to presence of vacant d-orbital. Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
19. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion
(A) : PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are associated through van der Waal’s forces, but PH3 molecules are associated
through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer (3)
Sol. PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3 due to lower electronegativity of larger PH3 molecules. They are unable to
form hydrogen bonds among themselves.
20. Among the following oxides of p-block elements, number of oxides having amphoteric nature is ________.
Cl2O7, CO, PbO2, N2O, NO, Al2O3, SiO2, N2O5, SnO2
Answer (3)
Sol. Amphoteric oxides are those which can react with both acids and bases. Amphoteric oxides are: PbO2, Al2O3,
SnO2 CO, NO and N2O are neutral. Cl2O7, SiO2 and N2O5 are acidic.
Statement (I): SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic while SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature.
Statement (II): Allotropic forms of carbon are due to property of catenation and pπ-dπ bond formation. In the light of
the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true (3)
Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Answer (4)
Sol. SnO, PbO, SnO2, PbO2 : Amphoteric CO2, SiO2, GeO2, GeO : Acidic CO : Neutral
pπ-dπ bonding is not possible between two carbon atoms hence Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
22. The strongest reducing agent among the following is:
(1) NH3 (2) BiH3 (3) PH3 (4) SbH3
Answer (2)
Sol. Reducing character of the hydrides increases on moving down in the 15th group hence Ammonia is only a mild
reducing agent while BiH3 is strongest reducing agent
Assertion (A) : Melting point of Boron (2453 K) is unusually high in group 13 elements.
Reason (R) : Solid Boron has very strong crystalline lattice.
:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is false but (R) is true
4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer (2)
Sol. Melting point of Boron is unusually high due to very strong crystalline lattice. Both (A) and (R) are
correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES

1. IUPAC name of following compound (P) is
1) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane 2) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclohexane
3) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane 4) 1-Ethyl-5,5-dimethylcyclohexane
Answer (3)
Sol. Numbering is done in such a way that all locants should get lowest possible number. Name
of substituent written according to alphabetical order Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
2. Highest enol content will be shown by :
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (3)
Sol. Highest enol content will shown by
Due to formation of aromatic compound.

3. The ascending order of acidity of –OH group in the following compounds is :
(A) Bu–OH (B)
(C) (D) (E)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) < (E) (2) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) < (E)
(3) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E) (4) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) < (E)
Answer (2)
Sol.
Acidic strength order
Bu–OH is aliphatic alcohol.
4. Among the following, total number of meta directing functional groups is . (Integer based)
–OCH3, –NO2, –CN, –CH3, –NHCOCH3, –COR, –OH, –COOH, –Cl
Answer (4)
Sol. Meta directing groups:
–NO2
–CN
–COR
–COOH
Total 4 groups are meta directing groups.
5. Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is
(1) 2) 3) 4)
Answer (4)
Sol. Bond line representation does not include representation of H-atoms.
6. The molecular formula of second homologue in the homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is
.
(1) CH2O (2) C2H4O2 (3) C3H6O2 (4) C2H2O2
Answer (2)
Sol. Second homologue : CH3COOH = C2H4O2
7. The technique used for purification of steam volatile water immiscible substances is :
(1) Steam distillation (2) Distillation
(3) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure (4) Fractional distillation
Answer (1)
Sol. Steam distillation is used for purification of steam volatile water immiscible substances.
8. Total number of compounds with Chiral carbon atoms from following is .
CH3  CH 2  CH  NO2   COOH

CH 3  CH 2  CHBr  CH 2  CH 3
CH3  CH  I   CH 2  NO2
CH3  CH 2  CH  OH   CH 2OH
CH 3  CH  CH  I   C 2 H 5
|
I
Answer (5)
Sol. Compounds with chiral carbon are
9. Appearance of blood red colour, on treatment of the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound with
FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H2SO4 indicates the presence of element/s
(1) N and S (2) N (3) Br (4) S
Answer (1)
Sol. Appearance of blood red colour on treatment of sodium fusion extract of an organic compound with FeSO4
in presence of conc. H2SO4 is due to the formation of [Fe(SCN)]2+
Na + C + N + S  NaSCN
Fe3+ + SCN–  [Fe(SCN)]2+ (Blood red)
This indicates the presence of both N and S in the organic compound.
10. The difference in energy between the actual structure and the lowest energy resonance structure for the
given compound is
(1) hyperconjugation energy (2) electromeric energy
(3) resonance energy (4) ionization energy
Answer (3)
Sol. The difference in energy between the actual structure and the lowest energy resonance structure of the
given compound is resonance energy.
11. The interaction between  bond and lone pair of electrons present on an adjacent atom is responsible for
(1) Hyperconjugation (2) Inductive effect (3) Resonance effect (4) Electromeric effect
Answer (3)
Sol. The interaction between  bond and lone pair of electrons present on adjacent atom is responsible for
‘Resonance effect’.
12. Number of compounds among the following which contain sulphur as heteroatom is .
Furan, Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine, Tyrosine
Answer (2)
Sol. The structures of the given compounds are
Number of compounds containing S-atom = 2
13. Chromatographic technique/s based on the principle of differential adsorption is/are

A. Column chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. Paper chromatography
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A only (2) C only (3) B only (4) A & B only
Answer (4)
Sol. Column chromatography and thin layer chromatography is based on principle of differential adsorption
while paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.
14. The ascending acidity order of the following H atoms is
(1) D < C < B < A (2) A < B < C < D (3) C < D < B < A (4) A < B < D < C
Answer (3)
Sol. Order of acidic strength of H attached to carbon : Csp  Csp2  Csp3 . Further differentiation is based on
electronic effect of substituents, hence correct order is C < D < B < A.
15. Which one of the following will show geometrical isomerism?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (2)
Sol. The geometrical isomers of
While in case of other structures geometrical isomerism is not possible.

16. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dil. HNO3 before testing for halogens because,
(1) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3 (2) Ag2S is soluble in HNO3
(3) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3 (4) AgCN is soluble in HNO3
Answer (3)
Sol. The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with dil. HNO3 because it decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
NaCN  HNO3   NaNO3  HCN 
Na2 S  2 HNO3   2 NaNO3  H 2 S
17. What happens to freezing point of benzene when small quantity of naphthalene is added to benzene?
First decreases and then
(1) increases (2) Increases
(3) Decreases (4) Remains unchanged
Answer (3)
Sol. When small quantity of naphthalene is added to benzene freezing point decreases due to decrease in vapour
pressure of solution.
18. On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent moved
by 5 cm. The retardation factor of the organic compound is × 10–1.
Answer (7)
Distance travelled by solute
Sol. Retardation factor =
Distance travelled by solvent
3.5
Rf = =0.7
5
=7×10 1
Ans = 7
19. The correct stability order of carbocations is
(1)
   
(2)  CH 3 3 C  CH 3  C H 2   CH 3 2 C H  C H 3
   
(3) C H 3   CH 3  C H  CH 3  C H 2   CH 3 3 C
   
(4)  CH 3 3 C   CH 3  C H  CH 3  C H 2  C H 3
Answer (4)
Sol. Stability order of carbocations
tertiary > secondary > primary > methyl
More is alkyl substituents in a carbocation more is hyperconjugation and inductive effect, thus more is the
stability.
20. Number of geometrical isomers possible for the given structure is/are _____.
Answer (4)
Sol. Possible geometries
Left DB Middle DB Right DB

E – E
Z – Z
E Z Z
Z E Z
Total 4 possibilities
21. 2–chlorobutane + Cl2  C4H8Cl2 (isomers)

Total number of optically active isomers shown by C4H8Cl2, obtained in the above reaction is ____.
Answer (6)
Sol.
When Cl attaches to
Carbon A  2 optically active isomers are formed
Carbon B  No optically active isomer
Carbon C  2 optically active isomers
Carbon D  2 optically active isomers
22. ‘Adsorption’ principle is used for which of the following purification method?
(1) Sublimation (2) Chromatography (3) Extraction (4) Distillation
Answer (2)
Sol. Adsorption chromatography is based upon the differential adsorption of the various components of a mixture on a
suitable adsorbent such as silica gel or alumina.
LIST-I (Technique) LIST-II (Application)

A Distillation I Separation of glycerol from
spent-lye
B Fractional II Aniline-water mixture
C Steam distillation III Separation of crude oil fractions
D Distillation under reduced pressure IV Chloroform aniline
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-III,C-I, D-IV
Answer (1)
Sol. A-IV: Chloroform and aniline can be separated by distillation.
B-III: Separation of crude oil fractions in petroleum industry is done by fractional distillation.
C-II: Aniline water mixture can be separated by steam distillation due to difference in boiling point.
D-I: Separation of glycerol from spent-lye done by distillation under reduced pressure (vacuum distillation).
24. A species having carbon with sextet of electrons and can act as electrophile is called
(1) Pentavalent carbon (2) Carbon free radical (3) Carbocation (4) Carbanion
Answer (3)
Sol. Sextet of electron means 6 electrons in outermost shell.
A species having six electron in outermost shell is electron deficient and hence can act as electrophile (electron
loving).
Carbocation is a species which have 6e–s in outermost shell and can act as E+ .
25. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds called essential oils.
These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with water vapour in vapour phase.
A suitable method for the extraction these oils from the flower is-
(1) distillation (2) crystallisation (3) distillation under reduced pressure (4) steam distillation
Answer (4)
Sol. Steam distillation is used for those substances which are miscible with water vapour.
26. The correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reaction of the following compound is:
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C > D (3) D > C > B > A (4) B > C > A > D
Answer (2)
Sol. Rate  electron density on benzene ring. Correct order is B > A > C > D
27. Which of the following compound will most easily be attacked by an electrophile?
Answer (4)
Sol.
Phenol is most easily attacked by an electrophile because of presence of –OH group which increases electron
density at ortho and para position mainly.
Here, chlorine atom shows +R effect o-, p-directive. But deactivate benzene ring. –OH and –CH3 are activating
and ortho para directing groups. –OH activates more than –CH3.
28. Ionic reactions with organic compounds proceed through

(A) Homolytic bond cleavage (B) Heterolytic bond cleavage
(C) Free radical formation (D) Primary free radical (E) Secondary free radical.
(1) (C) only (2) (D) and (E) only (3) (A) only (4) (B) only
Answer (4)
Sol. Ionic reactions occur when covalent bond between two atoms undergoes heterolytic cleavage by transferring
electrons and in process forms positively and negatively charged ions. Heterolytic cleavage
29. The set of meta directing functional groups from the following sets is:
(1) –NO2, –NH2, –COOH, –COOR (2) –NO2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COR
(3) –CN, –NH2, –NHR, –OCH3 (4) –CN, –CHO, –NHCOCH3, –COOR
Answer (2)
Sol. –NO2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COR, –CN, –COOR are having –R effect hence meta directing for incoming electrophilic –
NH2, –NHCOCH3 are having +R effect
30. The functional group that shows negative resonance effect is :
(1) —COOH (2) —NH2 (3) —OR (4) —OH
Answer (1)

List-I Compound List-II Use
(A) Carbon tetrachloride (I) Paint remover
(B) Methylene chloride (II) Refrigerators and air
conditioners
(C) DDT (III) Fire extinguisher
(D) Freons (IV) Non Biodegradable
insecticide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Answer (4)
Sol. A: Carbon tetrachloride is used in fire extinguisher.
B : Methylene chloride is used in paint remover.
C: DDT is example of Non-biodegradable insecticide.
D : Freons are used in refrigerators and air conditioners.
HYDROCARBONS
1. Cyclohexene is type of an organic compound.

1) Acyclic 2) Benzenoid non-aromatic
3) Alicyclic 4) Benzenoid aromatic
Answer (3)
Sol: The given compound belongs to alicyclic compounds
2. 3-Methylhex-2-ene on reaction with HBr in presence of peroxide forms an addition product (A). The
number of possible stereoisomers for ‘A’ is ____________.
Answer (4)
Sol.
(A) has 2 chiral carbons Possible stereoisomers = (2)2 = 4
3. Among the given organic compounds, the total number of aromatic compounds is _______.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer (3)
Sol. Compound (A) is not aromatic due to presence of sp3 carbon between the rings
4. The incorrect statement regarding conformations of ethane is:

(1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations
(2) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable conformation
(3) The conformations of ethane are inter- convertible to one-another
(4) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is 600
Answer (2)
Sol. Staggered conformation is most stable
 Option (2) is incorrect
5. The final product A formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (1)
6. Identify product A and product B :

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (1)
Sol.
7. Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts with B gives the product C. Find out A and B.
CH 3  C  CH  Na 
B
 CH 3  C  C  CH 2  CH 2  NaBr
(C) |
CH3
 
(1) A  CH 3  C  C Na, B  CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  Br
 
(2) A  CH 3  C  C Na, CH 3  CH 2  CH 3
(3) A  CH 3  CH 2  CH 3 , B  CH 3  C  CH
(4) A  CH 3  CH  CH 2 , B  CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  Br
Answer (1)
Sol. CH 3  C  CH  Na
 CH 3  C  C  Na 
( A)
 
CH 3  C  C Na  CH 3CH 2CH 2 Br 
 CH 3  C  C  CH 2CH 2CH 3
(B)
8. Which of the following molecule/species is most stable?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (1)
Sol. The compound cyclopropenium ion is most stable, because it is an aromatic compound
9. The compound that is white in colour is
(1) ammonium arsinomolybdate (2) lead sulphate (3) ammonium sulphide (4) lead iodide
Answer (2)
Sol. Lead sulphate is a white solid, which appears white in microcrystalline form.
10. Number of alkanes obtained on electrolysis of a mixture of CH3COONa and C2H5COONa is ______.
Answer (3)
11.
The total number of hydrogen atoms in product A and product B is _____.
Answer (10)
In product A = 4 Hydrogen atoms are present

In product B = 6 Hydrogen atoms are present
Total H-atom = 4 + 6 = 10
12. Major product of the following reaction is –
Answer (4)
Sol.
13. Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.
Answer (2)
Sol. 2-3–dibromo-1-phenylpentane
14. Total number of deactivating groups in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction among the following
is _______.
Answer (2)
Sol. are deactivating groups in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction, because they
are –R group which pulls electron density towards themselves.
15. In the given reactions identify A and B
CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 + H2   “B”

Na / Liquid NH
3
(1) A : n-Pentane B : trans-2-butene

(2) A : n-Pentane B : Cis-2-butene
(3) A : 2-Pentyne B : trans-2-butene
(4) A : 2-Pentyne B : Cis-2-butene
Answer (3)
16. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon of combustion gives 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of water vapour. Total number
of carbon and hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon is ______.
Answer (14)
40
Sol. Number of carbon atoms = 4
10
50  2
Number of H-atoms   10
10
Total atoms = (4 + 10) = 14
HALOALKANE AND HALOARENES

1. The correct statement regarding nucleophilic substitution reaction in a chiral alkyl halide is :
(1) Retention occurs in SN1 reaction and inversion occurs in SN2 reaction
(2) Racemisation occurs in both SN1 and SN2 reactions
(3) Racemisation occurs in SN1 reaction and inversion occurs in SN2 reaction
(4) Racemisation occurs in SN1 reaction and retention occurs in SN2 reaction
Answer (3)
Sol. In SN1 reaction carbocation is formed as intermediate. Hence both side attack is possible, racemic product
is formed.
In SN2 reaction, nucleophile attack from back side takes place and hence inversion in configuration takes
place.
2. Which among the following halide/s will not show SN1 reaction?
(A) H2C = CH – CH2Cl (B) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl
(C) (D)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (B) and (C) only (2) (B) only
(3) (A) and (B) only (4) (A), (B) and (D) only
Answer (2)
Sol. Vinyl halide will not show SN1 reaction, due to very less stability of carbocation formed and partial double
bond character in C — Cl bond.
3. Identify B formed in the reaction
Cl  (CH 2 ) 4  Cl 
excess NH3
 A 
NaOH
 B + H 2 O + NaCl
 + +
(1) (2) C I N H 3  (CH 2 ) 4  N H 3Cl
(3) (4) H2N – (CH2 )4 – NH2

Answer (4)
Sol: A: Cl  NH3   CH 2 4  NH3 Cl
B: H 2 N  (CH 2 ) 4  NH 2
4. Major product formed in the following reaction is a mixture of:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (2)
Sol.
5. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Aryl halides cannot be prepared by replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by halogen
atom.
Reason R : Phenols react with halogen acids violently.
Answer (3)
Sol. Assertion is true because aryl halides cannot be prepared by replacement of OH group of phenol by
halogen atom.
Reason is false because phenols do not react with halogen acids.
6. Which of the following reaction is correct?
(1) C2 H 5CONH 2  Br2  NaOH   C2 H 5CH 2 NH 2  Na2CO3  NaBr  H 2O
0C
(2) CH 3CH 2CH 2 NH 2 
HNO2 ,0
H 2O
 CH 3CH 2OH  N 2  HCl
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
Sol. The correct organic products of given reactions are as follows
(1) C2 H 5CONH 2  Br2  NaOH  C2 H 5 NH 2
0
(2) CH 3CH 2CH 2 NH 2 
HNO2 ,0 C
H 2O
 CH 3CH 2CH 2OH
(3)
(4)
Hence option (4) is correct.
7. Alkyl halide is converted into alkyl isocyanide by reaction with

(1) KCN (2) NaCN (3) NH4CN (4) AgCN
Answer (4)
Sol. RX + AgCN 
 RNC + AgX
(Major)
8. Example of vinylic halide is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (2)
Sol.
Assertion (A) : CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl is an example of allyl halide.
Reason (R) : Allyl halides are the compounds in which the halogen atom is attached to sp2 hybridised
carbon atom.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (3)
sp3
Sol. CH 2 = CH  CH 2  Cl
Halogen is attached to sp3 hybridised carbon in allyl halide.
10. Number of isomeric products formed by monochlorination of 2-methylbutane in presence of sunlight is -----
Answer (6)
Sol.
4 structural isomers are possible out of which 2 are optically active.  Total 6 isomers are possible.
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as a main product while with AgCN form
isocyanide as the main product.
Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN both are highly ionic compounds. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct Answer (4)
Sol. l. R –X+ KCN⎯⎯→ R- CN +KX
R- X +AgCN ⎯⎯→R- NC+ AgX
KCN is ionic so it provides cyanide ions in solution and attacks from carbon side on alkyl halide. But AgCN is covalent it
cannot form cyanide ion so it attacks from nitrogen side and isocyanide is formed predominantly. A is correct R
is not correct.
12. Number of optical isomers possible for 2- chlorobutane _______.
Answer (2)
Sol. 2-chlorobutane
2-chlorobutane contains only one chiral centre. So, it can show two optical isomers

13. C2 H 5`Br 
alc. KOH
 A 
Br2
ccl4
B 
KCN
Excess
 C 
H 3o
Excess
D
Acid D formed in above reaction is:
(1) Malonic acid (2) Oxalic acid (3) Gluconic acid (4) Succinic acid
Answer (4)
14. Total number of isomeric compounds (including stereoisomers) formed by monochlorination of

2-methylbutane is _____.
Answer (6)
Sol. 4 structural isomers are obtained out of which 2 are optically active.
⇒ Total 6 isomers are obtained.
15. The product (C) in the below mentioned reaction is:

KOH
CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  Br 

 abc 


 
HBr
 B 
KOH

C
 aq 
(1) Propene (2) Propan-2-ol (3) Propan-1-ol (4) Propyne

Answer (2)
Sol. Propan-2-o
GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS

1. Which among the following purification methods is based on the principle of “Solubility” in two different
solvents?
(1) Distillation (2) Differential Extraction
(3) Column Chromatography (4) Sublimation
Answer (2)
Sol. Differential extraction is based on the principle of solubility in two different solvents.

Chemistry Jee Main Shift-1 Total Questions Topic Wise

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EQUILIBRIUM

1. Given below are two statements :

 4.5  4.2  log

8. Consider the following reaction at 298 K.

9. The correct relationship between Kp,  and equilibrium pressure P is

(A) Cr+2 (I) 3d8

Initial: Pi Pressure at time t: Pi – x 2X

2.303 int ial pressure of A

S.No Time/s Total pressure/(atm)

Cr2O 2 Cl2 (g)  4NaOH(aq) 

Oxidation state of chromium in CrO5 is +6.

9. In alkaline medium, MnO 4 , oxidises I– to

22. Consider the following redox reaction :

Sol. PbCrO 4 

Structures of other metal carbonyls are

6. The correct IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is

Each Mn has 6 atoms surrounding it in an octahedral geometry

Number of spectral lines 

Square planar geometry since → 4dsp2 hybridised orbitals created.

18. Match List I with List II

CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE

2. Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is .

N 22 :  12s *1s2  22s 2.0 Paramagnetic

Ne2 :  12s *12s 22s 0.5 Paramagnetic

 *22 Py *12 Pz

10. Which of the following is least ionic?

Hence statement I is false and statement II is true

(1) NH 3 (2) H 2O (3) C2 H 5OH 4)

16. Choose the polar molecule from the following :

CHCl3 is polar molecule

BIOMOLECULES, POLYMERS, CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

is strongest Bronsted base due to availability of lone pair.

3. The arenium ion which is not involved in the bromination of Aniline is .

5. The product A formed in the following reaction is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. The final product A, formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

8. IUPAC name of following compound is :

(1) 2-Aminopentanenitrile (2) 2-Aminobutanenitrile

9. Given below are two statements:

because aniline has amino group in its structure.

(2) A=NaNO 2 +HCl,0 – 5°C;

(3) A = NaNO 2 +HCl,0 – 5°C ;

(4) A = NaNO0 +HCl,0 – 5°C ;

15. Given below are two statements :

ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS, ETHERS

2. The final product A, formed in the following reaction sequence is

Option (3) is correct.

3. Match List-I with List-II.

(A) (I) Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4

4. The major product(P) in the following reaction is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

7. Products A and B formed in the following set of reactions are

Given below are two statements:

Sol. Assertion is correct

11. Identify A and B in the following reaction sequence

12. Match List-I with List-I

4. Given below are two statements.

Energy for removal of 1e– from 1 mol atoms

ALDEHYDE KETONE AND CARBOXYLIC ACID

2. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive:

 22 Py 12 Pz