§ØÊƲð ¶àÞ¦ с/п ООО Армянско-Pоссийский

ѳÛ-éáõë³Ï³Ý ÙÇç³½·³ÛÇÝ Международный Yниверситет

ѳٳÉë³ñ³Ý Ñ/Ó êäÀ “МХИТАР ГОШ”

ä»ï³Ï³Ý ÉÇó»Ý½Ç³ ÃÇí 107, ïñí³Í 13.11.1996Ã. ä»ï³Ï³Ý ѳí³ï³ñÙ³·Çñ, ïñí³Í 17.10.2002Ã.
Ãîñ. ëèöåíçèÿ N107, âûäàííàÿ â 13.11.1996ã. Ãîñ. àêêðåäèòàöèÿ, âûäàííàÿ â 17.10.2002ã.
State licence N107, given on 13.11.1996 State accreditation, given on 17.10.2002

“MKHITAR GOSH”
Armenian-Russian International University
ÐЫ ºñ¨³Ý« 껵³ëïdz« 3/7 лé/Òåë./Tel: (0037410) 74-70-35, 74-70-40
РА, Ереван, Себастиа 3/7 лé/ Òåë./Tel: (00374322) 40411, 40711, 40311
3/7, Sebastia, Yerevan, RA
www.mkhitargosh.am
ÐЫ ì³Ý³Óáñ« îÇ·ñ³Ý Ø»ÍÇ« 30³
РА, Ванадзор, Тигран Меци, 30a E_mail: mguniv@mail.ru
30a, Tigran Metsi, Vanadzor, RA

MKHITAR GOSH Armenian Russian international university

General medicine
MCQs for state examination 2023-2024 academic year

OBSTETRICS &GYNECOLOGY

1) True support of uterus

a) broad ligament
b) round ligament

-
c) cardinal ligament
d) uterosacral ligament

2) Pace maker of uterine contraction is located at

a) fundus
b) anterior wall
c) posterior wall

-
d) tubal ostia

3) Which gland opens on postero-lateral margin of vaginal opening

 a) skene gland
b) cooper gland

-
c) bartholin's gland
d) bulbourethral gland

4) Which is the smallest transverse diameter of fetal head

a) Biparietal
b) Bitemporal

~
c) Bimastoid
d) super subparieta

5) Longest diameter of fetal skull is

a) occipito frontal
b) submentobregmatic
c) suboccipito frontal

-
d) mento vertical

6) Shortest diameter of pelvic outlet

a) antero-posterior

-
b) inter tuberous
c) oblique
d) inter-spinou

7) Largest diameter of pelvis

-
a) transverse
b) true conjugate
Dia
yourConjugate >I2C)
J
c) oblique
d) bituberous
largest

8) Pelvic inlet: prominent iliac spine in which type of pelvis

a) gynaecoid
b) platypelloid
~
c) android
 d) anthropoid

9) Which of the following is not increased during pregnancy

a) plasma volume
b) rbc count

-
c) platelet count
d) hemoglobin

10) Corpus luteum formation occurs on of menstrual cycle

-
a) 15th day
b) 22nd day
c) 8th day
d) 28th day

11) Doubling of beta hcg levels is seen in

a) 24 hours

-
b) 48 hours
c) 72 hours
d) 96 hours

12) In pregnancy which clotting factor will be decreased

a) factor II
b) factor V
c) factor VII

-
d) factor XI

13) Most common cause of secondary amenorrhea

a) turner syndrome

-
b) pregnancy
c) mullerian agenesis
d) kallmann syndrome

14) When is the best time to do breast exam

 -
a) 3 days after menstruation
b) 3 days before menstruation
c) along with menstruation
d) during ovulation

15) When is the time for ovulation

a) 14 days after menstruation
b) along with LH surge
c) 1 week before menstruation

-
d) 2 weeks before next menstruation

16) Oxygenated blood from placenta goes to fetal heart via

a) ductus arteriosus
-
b) ductus venosus
c) foramen ovale
d) umbilical artery

17) Which of the following closes before birth

a) Ductus arteriosus
b) ductus venosus

~
c) cardinal vein
d) umbilical vein

18) Size of graffican follicle at the time of ovulation

a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
~
c) 20 mm
d) 25 mm

19) Which of the following is not related with fertilization

a) sperm crosses corona radiata
b) implantation after 6 days
c) zona pellucida facilitation by hyaluronidase
 -
d) zona reaction attracts the sperms

20) Gestational sac can be visualized via usg by weeks

a) 4 week
-
b) 5 week
c) 8 week
d) 10 week

21) Uterus is at the level of umbilicus at which age of gestation

a) 12 week
b) 22 week
c) 20 week
-
d) 24week

22) Which of the following is a true statement

a) placenta is formed at morula stage
b) implantation takes place on 10th day
c) during initial weeks corpus luteum survival is due to lh

-
d) fertilization takes place in ampula

23) Implantation occurs after

-
a) 5-6 days
b) 7-8 days
c) 8-10 days
d) 10-12 days

24) Oxytocin will not do the following action

-
a) milk production
b) milk let down
c) contraction of myo-epithelial cells
d) vascular contraction

25) When does haematopoiesis shift to liver from yolk sac

-a) 10 wk
b) 12 wk
c) 16 wk
d) 20 wk

26) Total number of oogonia

a) 6 million
b) 4 million
c) 5 million

-
d) 7 million

27) What is released at the time of ovulation

-
a) 1st polar body
b) primary oocyte
c) secondary oocyte
nd
d) 2 polar body

28) Ovulation occurs after the extrusion of

a) primary oocyte
b) female pronucleus
~
c) 1
st
polar body
d) 2nd polar body

29) Fetal placenta derived from which layer

a) zona basalis
b) zona capsularis
c) zona parietalis
d) inner cell mass
2 -

30) Mature placenta on fetal side is covered by

a) amnion
b) chorion
c) decidua
 d) amniotic membrane

31) During the 3rd stage of labor, what is the pressure in the uterus
a) 30-40 mmhg

-
b) 100-120 mmhg
c) 80-100 mmhg
d) 40-60 mmhg

32) Pressure inside uterus during early phase of active labor

- a) 50 mmhg
b) 100 mmhg
c) 50 mmhg
d) 200 mmhg

33) Force developed from uterine contraction

~ a) 7 kg
b) 14 kg
c) 21kg
d) 25 kg

nd
34) Duration of 2 stage of labor in primipara
a) 30 mins

-
b) 2 hours
c) 15 mins
d) 4 hours

35) To monitor fetal heart rate in a normal delivery partogram, it should be repeated very
~
a) 30 min
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hour
d) 90 minutes

36) While doing partogram, pelvic examination is done at

 a) 30 min
b) 1 hr
c) 2hr

>
d) 4hr

37) Peak of prostaglandins occurs in what stage

a) 1st stage of labor
b) 2nd stage of labor

-
c) 3rd stage of labor
d) before 1st stage of labor

38) Amniotic fluid at term

a) 1000ml - 1200ml
-
b) 800ml-1000ml
c) 900ml-1000ml
d) 700ml-800ml

39) Amniotic fluid is maximum at

a) 24-26 weeks
-
b) 28-30 weeks
c) 36-38weeks
d) 38-40 weeks

40) Bishop score includes all except

a) cervical consistency
b) dilatation of cervix
c) position of cervix

>
d) cervical length

41) Most common fractured bone during birth is

a) humerus
b) scapula
-
c) clavicle
 d) radius

42) Cord compression leads to

a) late deceleration
b) early deceleration

-
c) variable deceleration
d) acceleration

43) Late deceleration is due to

a) head compression
b) cord compression

-
c) uteroplacental insufficiency
d) all of the above

44) Identify the progress of partogram

a) early deceleration

-
b) variable deceleration
c) late deceleration
d) normal partogram

45) As compared to mediolateral episiotomy, median episiotomy has complications because of

a) poor repair
b) cosmetic problem
-
c) extension to rectum
d) more blood loss

46) Arrest disorder is defined as the cessation of cervical dilatation in active phase of labor of more than
a) 1 hr
b) 1.2 hr
c) 1.5 hr
-
d) 2 hr

47) First investigation to be done for screening the presence of fetus

 a) tvs

-
b) tas
c) mr
d) doppler

48) Placental circulation is established by

a) 15 day
b) 16 day

-
c) 21 day
d) 25 day

49) Iron and folic acid supplement during pregnancy

a) 500mg iron +100 meg folic acid

-
b) 100mg iron + 500mcg folic acid
c) 100 mg iron +100 meg folic acid
d) 20 mg iron +100 meg folic acid

50) Test which identifies fetal well being by detecting fetal heart rate acceleration and fetal movement
a) bio-physical profile
b) stress test

-
c) non-stress test
d) contraction stress test

51) Length of lower uterine segment at term

a) 5 cm
~
b) 10-12 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm

-a) 8 weeks
b) 12 week
⑭
52) Hegar sign is seen earliest at

c) 14 week
 d) 15 week

53) Jacquemier's sign of pregnancy occurs in which week

a) 6th week

~
b) 8th week
c) 10th week
d) 12th week

54) Obstetric care will mostly affect

a) infant mortality rate
b) early neonatal mortality rate
c) late neonatal mortality rate
d) perinatal mortality rate
~

55) last menstrual period of patient is 30 june 2015, estimated date of delivery is
a) 7 march, 2016
-
b) 7 april, 2016
c) 30 march, 2016
d) 30 april, 2016

56) Lochia lasts for

a) 5 days
b) 2 weeks

-
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks

57) The most common site of puerperal infection is

-
a) placental site
b) cervical laceration
c) episiotomy wound
d) vaginal laceration

58) Following are signs of placental separation except

 a) uterus rises in abdomen
b) uterus becomes discoid
-
c) lengthening of cord
d) fresh gush of blood from the vagina

59) Which of the following is a sign of placental separation in stage III of labor

-
a) gushing of blood
b) discoid uterus
c) filling of placenta in vagina
d) increase in blood pressure

60) The signs and symptoms of placental separation include all of the following except
a) raised fundal height

-
b) fundus of uterus below umbilicus
c) gush of vaginal bleeding
d) lengthening of cord

rd
61) Common cause of 3 day puerperal fever
a) breast engorgement
b) haemorrhage

-
c) puerperal sepsis
d) pulmonary

62) What is the most common cause of maternal mortality in India

-
a) haemorrhage
b) obstructed labour
c) cardiac arrest
d) anemia

63) Most common indirect cause of maternal mortality

a) sepsis
b) hemorrhage
 c) obstructed labor

-
d) anemi

64) Which of the following is the cause of amenorrhoea in a lactating mother

a) increased release of lh
b) increased gnrh secretion
c) hyperestrogenic state

-
d) increased prolactin level

65) Weight of uterus immediately after delivery

a) 60 gm
b) 500 gm
-
c) 1000 gm
d) 800 gm

66) Heart rate returns to normal after delivery

a) immediately
-
b) 4 week
c) 4 hrs after
d) 6 weeks

67) Cardiac output return to normal how many days after delivery
a) 1 hour
b) 4 hours
c) 2 weeks
d) 4 weeks
~

68) The uterus becomes pelvic organ how many days after normal delivery
a) 5-7 days

-
b) 12-14 days
c) 16-18 days
d) 20-22 days
69) Blood loss of fetal origin
a) placenta previa

-
b) vasa previa
c) abruption placenta
d) circumvallate placenta

70) Apregnant patient after delivery presented with hemorrhage. immediate hysterectomy is done in
a) pre-eclampsia

-
b) rupture of uterus
c) atonic uterus
d) inversion of uterus

71) During delivery there is a perineal tear involving the anal sphincter but anal mucosa is not involved. Which is the
degree of tear
a) I
b) II
-
c) III
d) IV

72) Deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the mother is via

~
a) umbilical artery
b) umbilical veins
c) pulmonary artery
d) pulmonary vein

73) Cardiac activity in fetus can be asessed via transabdominal scan by

-
a) 6-7 weeks
b) 8-9 weeks
c) 9-11 weeks
d) 12-14 weeks

74) Crown rump length at 12 weeks

/
a) 7 cm
b) 10 cm
 c) 12 cm
d) 25 cm

75) At 12 week pregnancy "crown–rump length" is

-
a) 60 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 120 mm
d) 250 mm

76) Radiotherapy is most harmful in which week of gestation

-
a) 4-16 week
b) 18-23 week
c) 28-32 week
d) all of the above

77) Folate + vitamin 12 deficiency which of the following is/are mainly seen
a) neural tube defects
~
b) megaloblastic anemia
c) abruptio placentae
d) allareseen

78) Most common cause of 1st trimester abortions

~
a) trisomy
b) monosomy x
c) triploidy
d) tetraploidy

79) Commonest cause of first trimester miscarriage is

a) syphilis
b) cervical incompetence

-
c) chromosomal abnormalities
d) rhesus is oimmunisation
80) In inevitable abortion
a) uterus size equal to aog, cervix open
b) uterus size equal to aog, cervix close

~
c) uterus size small to aog, cervix open
d) uterus size small to aog, cervix close

81) Treatment of choice of inevitable abortion less than 10 week

-
a) dilatation and evacuation
b) suction and evacuation
c) medical management
d) complete hysterectomy

82) For mtp which of the following drug dosage is used

>
a) 200 mg mifepristone + 400 mg misoprostol
b) 200 mg misoprostol + 400 mg mifepristone
c) 200 mg mifepristone + 400 meg misoprostol
d) 400 meg mifepristone + 200 mg misoprostol

83) Which one of following is the legal drug used for mtp in India
a) misoprostol
b) mitoprostane
~
c) mifepristone 200 mg + misoprostol 400 meg oral
d) none

84) Which of the following is not used in mtp

a) misoprostol
b) mifepristone

~c) misoprostol + tamoxifen

d) mifepristone + misoprostol

85) Dangerously low lying placenta is

a) type I anterior
b) type II anterior
 c) type I posterior
d) type II posterior
V

86) Patient with 37 week aog, centrally located placenta previa presented with bleeding per vaginum. management
~
a) caesarean section
b) abortion
c) vaccum delivery
d) foreceps delivery

87) Umbilical cord attached to the margin of placenta

a) circumvallate placenta

-
b) battledore placenta
c) velamentous insertion
d) vasa previa

88) Nitabuch's membrane is absent in

-
a) placenta accreta
b) vasa previa
c) abruption placenta
d) placenta previa

89) Absence of nitabuch's membrane leads to

-
a) placenta previa
b) placenta accreta
c) placenta increta
d) placenta percreta

90) Recurrence of hydatiform mole is assessed by

a) afp level
-
b) p-hcg level
c) ldh level
d) estrogen level
 a) Complete mole contains
b) 46 YY

-
c) 46 XY
d) 46 XXY
e) 69 XXX

91) In gestational trophoblastic disease, metastases most commonly occurs to

a) brain
b) liver
c) lungs
~
d) bone

92) Theca lutein cyst are seen in

-
a) complete mole
b) partial mole
c) tubal ectopic
d) missed abortion

93) In a patient who underwent post molar evacuation by dilatation and curettage. which of the following test used to
define successful removal of h. mole
-
a) beta hcg
b) per speculum
c) progesterone
d) usg

94) The risk of -uterine rupture after previous lower transverse uterine incision at caesarean section is
-
a) 1%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 7%

95) Division of zygote took place on 5th day after fertilization. what is the type of twinning
a) monochorionic, monoamniotic
-
b) monochorionic, diamniotic
 c) dichorionic, diamniotic
d) dichorionic, monoamniotic

96) Most common type of twin gestation is

dismnirtie
monochori
- onic
a) monochorionicmonoamniotic
b) dichorionic diamniotic
c) conjoined twins
d) dichorionicmonoamniotic

97) Best position of twins for normal vaginal delivery

a) a non-vertex, b vertex
b) a vertex, b non-vertex

-c) a vertex, b vertex

d) a non-vertex, b non-vertex

98) Twin pregnancy is earliest detected at

~a) 10 weeks
b) 12 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 8 weeks

99) Twin pregnancy is least associated with

a) multigravida
b) genetic

-
c) young female
d) patient receiving fertilization treatment

100) Breech presentation with footling. management is

a) vaginal delivery
~
b) ceasarean section
c) forceps delivery
d) internal podalic version
101) Which of the following is most common compound presentation
a) head with foot

-
b) hand with head
c) hand, head and foot
d) both hand and foot

102) In brow presentation, head of the fetus

a) complete hyperextension
b) partial extension
-
c) complete flexion
d) partial flexion

103) What is the presentation of the given image

-
a) face presentation
b) transverse lie
c) brow presentation
d) vertex

104) Fetus in transverse position.which of the following is true

-a) polyhydramnios is a cause

b) it can be caused by abruptio placenta
c) it results to hand prolapsed in all cases
d) shoulder dystocia is a major threat

105) Treatment of choice of acutehydramnios with fetal distress in pregnancy

-
a) amniocentesis
b) cordocentesis
c) indomethacin
d) termination

106) Which of the following is not a condition for trial of vaginal delivery in vbac (vaginal birth after cesarean)
a) breech presentation those
-b) previous cs of more than 1 previous of
more
-
 c) presence of anesthesiologist
d) informed consent

107) All are contraindications of internal cephalic version except

a) shoulder presentation
b) face presentatidn

~
c) second fetus of twins
d) breech

108) External cephalic version is done in all except

a) primigravida
b) flexed breech
c) anemia

-
d) Pregnancy-induced hypertension

109) Following are contraindications to external cephalic version except

a) contracted pelvis
b) antepartum hemorrhage
c) multiple pregnancy

~
d) hydramnios

110) Low forceps are applied when

a) scalp is visible at the introitus
b) fetal head is at pelvic floor
~
c) fetus is at station + 2
d) fetal head is engaged

111) Drugs not useful in emergency in pregnancy

~a) nifedipine
b) labetalol
c) ritodrine
d) phenobarbitone
112) In pregnancy with hypertension which drug is given
a) propranolol
b) acebutalol
c) metoprolol

-
d) labetalol

113) Which of the following anti-hypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy

a) beta blockers

-
b) ace inhibitors
c) methyldopa
d) ca channel blocker

114) Drug contraindicated in pregnancy

~a) angiotensin receptor blockers

b) beta blockers
c) calcium channel blockers
d) thiazides

115) Antenatal mother with epilepsy on phenytoin therapy must be given

-
a) folic acid supplementation
b) vitamin b12supplementation
c) vitamin b6 supplementation
d) vitamin a supplementation

116) 42 year sprimigravida presents at 28 week period of gestation and has left upper breast mass. choose the best
investigation modality
a) mammography
b) ct scan
-
c) mri
d) high resonance ultrasound

117) Best marker in intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnant women

~
a) bile acid
b) bilirubin
 c) alkaline phosphatase
d) sgpt

118) All of the following can causedic in women except

a) amniotic fluid embolism
b) sepsis

-
c) placenta previa
d) hellp

119) All are true about hellp syndrome except

a) increased ldh
b) low platelet
c) increased live enzymes

-
d) hyponatremia

120) Doc for candidiasis in pregnancy

a) metronidazole 500mg
b) tinidazole 500mg

-
c) fluconazole
d) metronidazole 1 gm

121) A pregnant women with bp 150/100 mmhg, proteinuria after 20 weeks.diagnosis

#
a) pre-eclampsia
b) pregnancy induced hypertension
c) renal hypertension
d) eclampsia

122) All can be done in pre-eclampsia except

-
a) diuretics
b) anti hypertensives
c) mgso4
d) admission and wait
123) For controlling eclamptic patient with convulsion, which of the following will be used
a) mannitol
b) furosemide
c) hydralazine

-
d) mgs04

124) A patient presented with a pregnancy of 32 weeks with antepartum haemorrhage. patient with hypertension.
management at this point of time
a) caesarean section
b) observation

>
c) hospitalization and observation
d) induce labor

125) A pregnant lady with pih is having bleeding per vagina. the decision to continue pregnancy is basedon

-
a) presence of fetal cardiac activity
b) availability of blood
c) blood pressure
d) adequate medical facilities

126) In a diabetic mother, most common fetal complication will be

a) neural tube defect
b) congenital sacral agenesis

-
c) congenital heart disease
d) hydrocephalus

127) Doc for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

-
a) propylthiouracil
b) methimazole
c) 1-131
d) thyroxine

128) Intrauterine death is least likely caused by

a) rh-incompatibility

-
b) obstructed labor
 c) low birth weight
d) placental insufficiency

129) Which of the following sign is seen in intrauterine fetal demise

a) von braun-fernwalds sign

-
b) roberts sign
c) goodell's sign
d) osiander sign

130) Which of the following is most likely cause of intrapartum death

-
a) cord prolapsed
b) abruptions placentae
c) hyaline membrane disease
d) eclampsia

Methotrexate is contraindicated in all except

a) pre-eclampsia
b) iud (intrauterine device)
c) prematurity

-
d) ectopic pregnancy

131) Which of the following statement is not true about placenta

a) weight of full term placenta is 508 8c volume is 497 ml
b) at 17th week weight of placenta is equal to weight of fetus
-
c) it has 4 to 6 lobes
d) total of lobes remain the same throughout the gestation

132) Level of which hormone are increased during post menopausal women
a) estrogen
b) progestron
-
c) fsh
d) cortison

133) Drug contraindicated in pregnancy

 a) oral penicillin
b) cephalosporin 1st generation
c) chloramphenicol
d) erythromycin

134) Antibody to cross placenta

a) Ig a

-
b) Ig g
c) Ig e
d) Ig m

135) Earliest sex-determination is done at

a) 1 month
b) 2 month

-
c) 3 month
d) 4 month

136) The dose of anti-d immunoglobulin to be given to non- immune rh d negative women after delivery is
a) 50 ngm
b) 150 ngm
-
c) 300 ngm
d) 450 ngm

137) Trichomonias is caused by

a) bacteria
b) virus
-
c) protozoa
d) chlamydia

138) All of the following statement are true about bacterial

a) vaginosis except
b) cause by gardnerellavaginalis
c) fishy odor upon whiff test
 ~
d) infection seen when vaginal ph is < 4.5
e) it is not an std

139) Clue cells are seen in

-
a) bacterial vaginosis
b) candidiasis
c) trichomoniasis
d) gonoccocal

140) Whiff test done for

a) gonococcal infections

-
b) gardenella
c) trichomoniasis_
d) candiasis

141) In patients with asymptomatic carrier of chlamydia, organisms resides most commonly in
a) vagina

-
b) urethra
c) ectocervix
d) endocervix

142) First sign of fallopian tube tb

-
a) pain
b) bleeding
c) watery discharge
d) amenorrhea

143) Clubbing of fimbrial end of fallopian tube is seen uponhsg. what could be the possible pathology
a) tuberculosis
b) gonococcal
>
c) hydrosalpinx
d) mullerian anomaly
144) A young female was worked up for examined for her infertility by hysterosalpingography reveals 'bead - like'
fallopian tube and clubbing of ampulla. which of the following is the most likely cause
a) gonococcus
b) mycoplasma
c) chlamydia

-
d) mycobacterium tuberculosis

145) Pelvic inflammatory disease can be due to

-
a) iucd insertion
b) oral contraceptive
c) condom
d) hypertension

146) 40 year old woman with pelvic inflammatory disease investigation to be done
a) usg
b) ct
c) mri

-
d) laproscopy

147) Most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding

a) pelvic inflammatory disease
b) endometriosis
c) dermoid cyst

-
d) anovulatory

148) Which of the following is an acyclical bleeding

a) menorrhagia
b) polymenorrhoea
c) metrorrhagia
-
d) oligomenorrhoea

149) A 15 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea in every menstrual period. menarche occurs at 13 years of age.
since then she experiences this very severe pain at rightshecan't attend the school during mense from past year- for
whichshe consulted and started to take nsaids. initially it iseffective but after some timeit is ineffective. What is
next line of management
 /
a) pelvic and abdomen usg
b) oral contraceptive pills
c) dilatation and curettage
d) high dose of non-specific steroid

150) Drug of choice in case of puberty menorrhagia

-
a) progesterone
b) ocp
c) iucd
d) endometrial curettage

151) Most common uterine cancer is

-a) leiomyoma
b) endometrial cancer
c) adenomyoma
d) leiomayosarcoma

152) Hysteroscopical excision can be done for all except

a) uterine fundus fibroid
b) submucous fibroid

-
c) subserous fibroid
d) endometrial polyp

153) Laproscopy is most applicable to all types of fibroidexcept

-a) subserous fibroid

b) uterine fundus fibroid
c) submucous fibroid
d) endometrial polyp

154) A pregnant female with 16 week aog presented with bleeding.upon usg fibroid detected
a) management
b) conservative management
-
c) laparoscopic myomectomy
 d) curettage
e) hysterectomy

155) Drug contraindicated intuerine fibroid

above

-
a) danazol
the
b) estrogen
I Alleg
c) mifepristone
d) gnrh analogue

156) Most common cause of hirsutism in females is

a) metropathicaheamorrhagica

-
b) pcod (Polycystic Ovarian Disease)
c) endometriosis
d) pid (pelvic inflammatory disease)

157) Image: patient with history of amenorrhea and hirsutism. usg of uterus given below. Diagnosis
a) pcos
-
b) endometriosis
c) adenomomatosis
d) choriocarcinoma

158) Primary treatment for hirsutism in pcod

a) minoxidil
b) progesterone
c) gnrh analogue

-
d) combined ocp

159) Menstrual blood stored in vagina

a) pyometra
b) hematometra

~
c) hematocolpos
d) hematosalphinx
160) Most common type of cervical cancer

-
a) squamous cell ca
b) small cell ca
c) adeno ca
d) adenoma

161) All of the following statements are true regarding etiology of cervical cancer except
a) both active and passive cigarette smoking increases the risk of cervical cancer

-
b) oral contraceptives decreases the risk of cervical cancer
c) abstinence from sexual activity and barrier protection decrease cervical cancer risk
d) low education increases cervical cancer risk

162) Most common cause of ca cervix!

a) hpv 6 and 18
b) hpv 16 and 18
-
c) hpv 6
d) hpv 6 and 11

163) Most commonly associated human papilloma virus with cancer cervix is

>
a) hpv 16
b) hpv 24
c) hpv 32
d) hpv 36

164) Secondary level prevention of ca cervix

a) vaccination
b) pap smear
-
c) colposcopy
d) spectroscopy

165) Screening test for cervical cancer is

a) biopsy

-
b) papaniculaou smear
 c) visual inspection
d) colposcopy

166) Cancer cervix screening according to who guidelines

a) women between the ages of 21 and 29 should have a pap test every 3 years
b) women between the ages of 30 and 65 should have both a pap test and an hpv test every 5 years
c) women over age 65 who have had regular screenings with normal results should not be screened for cervical
cancer
/
d) all of the above

167) % women with postmenopausal bleeding found to have endometrial cancer

a) 20
b) 30

-
c) 40
d) 60

168) This type of endometrial hyperplasia leads to increasedrisk of endometrial cancer

a) simple
b) proliferative

-
c) atypical
d) secretive

169) Best prognostic for endometrial pathology

a) transvaginal ultrasound

-
b) biopsy
c) hysteroscopy
d) fractional curettage

170) What would be the appropriate treatmentof stage-iendometrial cancer

a) conservative management
b) chemo therapy fallowed by radio therapy
-
c) simple hysterectomy
d) bilateral salpingoophoroectomy
 171) Earliest presentation of fallopian tube cancer

-
a) painless watery discharge
b) painless vaginal bleeding
c) painful watery discharge
d) painful vaginal bleeding

172) Most common symptom of tumor of fallopian tube

/
a) abdominal lump
b) pain
2
c) bleed per vagina
2
d) watery discharge per vagina

173) All of the following are germ cell tumor except

a) dysgerminoma
b) choriocarcinoma

-
c) clear cell tumor
d) teratoma

174) Most common germ cell ovarian tumor

a) dysgerminoma
b) teratoma
-
c) endodermal sinus tumor
d) clear cell tumor

175) Most common malignant germ cell ovarian tumor

a) yolk sac tumors
b) dysgerminoma
-
c) dermoid cyst
d) brenners

176) Most frequent epithelial tumors of ovary

-
a) papillary serous cystadenoma
 b) brenners
c) endometrioid
d) mucinous cyst adenoma

177) Most com mon malignant ovarian tumor

a) clear cell tumor
b) serous cyst adenocarcinoma
#
c) mucinous cyst adenocarcinoma
d) granulosa cell tumor

178) All of the following statements are true about choriocarcinoma except
a) can present with epigastric pain
-
b) ovary is the primary site
c) lungs are common site of metastasis
d) snow storm appearance upon cxr

179) Syncitiotrophoblast is seen in

a) partial mole
b) complete mole
-
c) choriocarcinoma
d) placental site of trophoplastoma

180) Treatment of choice inchoriocarcinoma is

/
a) chemotherapy
b) external beam radiotherapy
c) hysterectomy
d) intracavitary brachytherapy

181) Tumor marker of ca ovary for follow up

a) cea
b) psa

X
c) ca 125
d) beta hcg
182) In turner syndrome allare seen except
a) webbed neck

-
b) tall stature
c) widening of long bones of leg
d) xo inheritance

183) Which of the following is true about turner syndrome

a) 45 X chromosome
b) primary amenorrhea
c) coarctation of aorta

-
d) all of the above

184) Turner syndrome is

-
a) 45 XO
b) 47 XXY
c) trisomy 13
d) trisomy 18

185) Turner syndrome presents with which heart defect

a) pda
b) tof

~
c) coaractation of aorta
d) mitra stenosis

186) Young female scomesin with primary amenorrhea with normal breast, normal pubichair.usg revea j sabsent
uterus and cervix with short vaginal pouch and normal ovaries. diag11osis
a) klinefeltersyndrome

-
b) mullerianagenesis
c) gonadaldysgenesis
d) xyy

187) Which of the following is not trophoblast related

a) choriocarcinoma
 b) h.mole
c) placental site trophoblast tumor

-
d) chorioangioma

188) Unexplained infertility is diagnosed

a) 1% of infertile couples
b) 5% of infertile couples

-
c) 10% of infertile couples
d) 2s% of infertile couples

189) Testicular biopsy is best indicatedin diagnostic work up of patient with

-
a) azoospermia
b) oligospermia
c) necrospemnia
d) pyospermia

190) Acoupleafter four days of having sex, contraceptive recommended

a) oralcontraceptivepills

~
b) cut380
c) yuzpemethod
d) low dose pop with norgesterol

191) Failure rate of pomeroy's technique of sterilizationis

-
a) 0.1% to 0.3%
b) 0.3% to 1%
c) 1.0% to 1.5%
d) 1.6% to 2.0%

192) Contraceptive effect of cut-380 a lasts for how many years

a) 5
-
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
193) Levo-norgesterol all state ment are true except
a) sedin combined ocp with estrogen
b) compositionincombinedocpis0.15mg
c) should be given for21days

↑
d) they are lipid friendly

194) True about pearlindex

a) Population study
b) family planning
c) contraceptive methods
d) contraceptive failure
↓

195) All are benefits of ocp's except

a) improve menstrual abnormality
b) protect again stun wanted pregnancy
c) protect from breast cancer
-
d) protect from endometrial cancer

196) Non-contraceptive benefit of combined oral contraceptive pills include all except
a) protection against endometrial cancer

-
b) protection against cervical cancer
c) relief of dysmenorrhoea
d) relief of menorrhagia

197) Mechanism faction of combined ocp

a) prevent implant ationofovum
b) prevent fertilization
-
c) prevent release of ovum from ovary
d) reduce spermmotility

198) A patient presented to you posthysterectomy and in need of hrt, with osteoporosis. what will be thechoice of hrt
for such patient
a) progestin
 -
b) estrogen
c) estrogen and proestin both
d) testoesterone

199) Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum atlaparoscopyi

a) N2

-
b) CO2

c) O2

d) N2O

205. All are contraindications of diaphragm. Except?

-a. Multiple sex partners
b. Recurrent UTI de &

J
are

-
c. Uterine prolapse ac
d. Herpes vaginitis

206. Which one of the following is the most common problem associated with the use of condom?
a. Increased monilial infection of vagina
b. Premature ejaculation
c. Contact dermatitis
-
d. Retention of urine

207. Oral contraceptive pills decrease incidence of all of the following conditions. Except?
~
a. Salpingitis
b. Hepatic adenoma
c. Ovary CA
d. Fibroadenosis

208. Sterilization is commonly performed at which site of fallopian tube?

a. Ampulla
b. Infundibulum
c. Isthmus
~
d. Cornua
 209. A 28-year-old P1L1 had Cu T inserted 2 years back, on examination Cu T threads are not seen.
USG shows Cu T partly in abdominal cavity. Method of removal is?
a. Hysteroscopy
b. No need of removal (wait and watch)
-
c. IUCD hook
d. Laparoscopy

210. The most common complication of IUCD is?

a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Bleeding
-
c. Backache
d. Cervical stenosis

211. PID occurs least common with?

a. OCPs
-
b. Condom
c. IUCD
d. Diaphragm

212. Least common complication of fibroid is?

a. Menstrual disorder
b. Malignancy
c. Urinary retention
-
d. Degeneration

213. Calcareous degeneration occurs most commonly in which type of fibroids?

a. Sub mucous
-
b. Sub serous
c. Interstitial
d. Cervical

214. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following. Except?
a. Amniotic fluid
b. Maternal blood
c. Chorionic villi
~
d. Fetal blood

215. An HIV positive, 36 years old female on ART councils. Which of the following 1st trimester
markers of Down syndrome would be affected by?
a. β-HCG
-
b. PAPP-A
c. NT
d. All of the above
&
216. Maximum level of alpha fetoprotein is seen in?
a. Fetal serum
b. Placenta
>
-
c. Amniotic fluid
d. Maternal serum

217. The best time to do chorionic villous sampling is?

a. Between 6-8 weeks
b. Between 7-9 weeks
c. Between 9-11 weeks
d. Between 11-13 weeks
-

218. Early date for detection of fetal heart?

~a. 6.0-6.5 weeks
b. 6.5-7 weeks
c. 7.1-7.5 weeks
d. 8 weeks

219. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester
by ultrasound?
-
a. Anencephaly
b. Iniencephaly
c. Microcephaly
d. Holoprosencephaly

220. Diagnosis of Down syndrome at 11 weeks is best assessed by?

a. Ultrasonography
b. Amniocentesis
~c. Chorionic villous biopsy
 d. Doppler ultrasound

221. Banana and lemon sign is seen in which fetal anomalies?

~a. Neural tube defect
2
b. Hydrops fetalis
c. Twins
d. IUD

222. A pregnant female, 38-year-old, had a child with Down's syndrome. How do you assess the risk of
Down's syndrome in the present pregnancy?
-a. Maternal alpha-fetoprotein
b. Maternal HCG
c. USG
d. Chorionic villous biopsy

223. Tear drop sign is seen in?

a. Spina bifida
b. Anencephaly
-c. Agenesis of corpus callosum
d. Cystic hygroma

224. Which is not done in case of IUGR?

a. Non-stress test
b. Oxytocin challenge test
c. Ultrasound abdomen
-d. Amniocentesis

225. A 25-year-old woman had premature rupture of membranes, delivered a male child and became
lethargic and apneic on the 1st day and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of
abortion 1 year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of a hemolytic colonies on blood agar was
found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most
likely etiological Agent?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
-b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Pepto streptococci
d. Enterococcus faecalis
 226. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly in ultrasound is seen at week?
a. 6 weeks of gestation
b. 8 weeks of gestation
c. 10 weeks of gestation
-d. 14 weeks of gestation

227. Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatal by?

a. X-ray abdomen
b. Amniocentesis
c. Clinical examination
d. Ultrasonography
-

228. All are true about aneuploidy. Except?

a. 30% of trisomy 21 fetus die in utero
b. 80% of trisomy 18 fetus die in utero
c. Occurrence of aneuploidy has no relation with the progression of mother’s age
d. The recurrence risk for non disjunctional aneuploidy is 1% higher

229. Lifespan of the fetal RBC approximates?

a. 60 days
b. 80 days
c. 100 days
-d. 120 days

230. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?

a. 3 – 5 days
-b. 7 – 9 days
c. 10 – 12 days
d. 13 – 15 days sa End-"
=

231. In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs
around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?
a. 24 hours prior to ovulation
>b. Accompanied by ovulation
c. 48 hours after the ovulation
d. At the time of fertilization

232. In superfecundation which of the following is seen?

 ~
a. Fertilization of 2 ova released at same time, by sperms released at intercourse on 2 different occasions
b. Fertilization of 2 ova released at same time by sperms released at single intercourse
2 c. Both of the above -
d. None of the above

233. Surfactant appears in amniotic fluid at the gestational age of?

a. 20 weeks
b. 32 weeks
c. 36 weeks
~
d. 28 weeks

234. Amniotic fluid is mainly produced by?

⑮
a. Placenta
>b. Fetus
c. Chorion
d. Amnion sind

235. Amount of liquor is maximum at?

- a. 32–34 weeks
b. 36–38 weeks
c. 34–36 weeks
d. 38–40 weeks

236. Weight gain in pregnancy is related to all. Except?

a. Ethnicity
b. Smoking
c. Socioeconomic status
-
d. Pre-conceptional weight

237. All of the following changes are seen in pregnancy. Except?

a. Increased stroke volume
b. Increased cardiac output
c. Increased Intravascular volume
d. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
~
 238. The clotting factor which is not increased in pregnancy?
a. Factor 2
b. Factor 7
c. Factor 10
-
d. Factor 11

239. An expectant mother feels quickening at?

a. 12-18 weeks
-
b. 16-20 weeks
c. 26 weeks
d. 24-28 weeks

240. An 18-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain and vaginal spotting for several days.
She denies sexually transmitted disease although she is sexually active with her boyfriend; they use
condoms for protection. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. Her blood pressure is 124/80
mm Hg, pulse is 90/ min, and temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F). Abdominal examination demonstrates
vague left lower quadrant tenderness without rebound or guarding. Pelvic examination shows a
normal vagina and cervix without cervical motion tenderness. No adnexal masses are appreciated.
Results of a complete blood cell count and metabolic panel are within normal limits. Which of the
following is the next best step in management?
a. Transvaginal USG
b. Follow up after 3 months
c. Quantitative b HCG measurement
-
d. Rapid urine Beta HCG measurement

241. Bag of membrane ruptures?

a. Before full dilatation of cervix
-
b. After full dilatation of cervix
c. After head is engaged
d. With excessive show

242. A 21 years old girl with 8-weeks amenorrhea, now comes in shock. The likely diagnosis is?
~a. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
b. Incarcerated amnion
c. Twisted ovarian cyst
d. Threatened abortion

243. Placenta previa is characterized by all. Except?

 a. Painless bleeding
b. Causeless bleeding
-
c. Recurrent bleeding
d. Presents after first trimester

244. All the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient. Except?
a. 37 weeks
b. IUD
c. Transverse lie
d. Continuous bleeding

245. A positive “Stall worthy's sign” is suggestive of which of the following conditions?
a. Twin pregnancy
b. Breech presentation
c. Vesicular mole
d. Low lying placenta
-

246. A 21-year-old primigravida is admitted at 39-weeks-gestation with painless antepartum hemorrhage. On

examination uterus is soft non-tender and head engaged. The management for her would be?
a. Blood transfusion and sedatives
b. A speculum examination
-
c. Pelvic examination in OT
d. Tocolysis and sedatives

247. A lady with 38-weeks pregnancy and painless vaginal bleeding comes to casualty. On examination
head is engaged and uterus is non tender and relaxed. The next line of treatment is?
a. Per speculum examination
~
b. Conservative management
c. Termination of pregnancy
d. Ultrasonography

248. A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per
vaginum and loss of fetal movements. On examination the uterus is contracted with increased uterine
tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. The most likely diagnosis is?
a. Placenta previa
b. Hydramnios
c. Premature labor
d. Abruptio placenta
>
 249. Postcoital test showing non motile sperms in the cervical smear and Motile sperms from the
posterior fornix suggests?
a. Faulty coital practice
b. Immunological defect
c. Hypospadias
d. Azoospermia
-

250. 16-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea with B/L inguinal hernia. She has normal sexual
development with no pubic hair. USG shows no uterus and ovaries and a blind vagina. Diagnosis is?
a. Turner’s syndrome
-
b. Mullerian agenesis
c. STAR syndrome
d. Androgen insensitivity syndrome

251. In which of the following conditions do the ovaries functions normally?

a. Turner’s syndrome
-
b. Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
c. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
d. Swyer’s syndrome

252. Exposure of a female fetus to androgen in early embryogenesis may arrest differentiation of?
-
a. Mullerian ducts
b. Ovary
c. Urogenital sinus
d. Mesonephric ducts

253. In pregnancy, which type of anemia is not common in India?

>
a. Vitamin B12 anemia
b. Folic acid anemia
c. Iron + folic acid anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia

254. The following are related to the treatment of thalassemia except?

a. Fresh (relatively) blood transfusion
b. Folic acid
c. Routine iron therapy
d. Deferoxamine improves pregnancy outcome
-
 255. Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy is?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Mitral regurgitation
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
-
d. Tetralogy of Fallot's

256. Which type of Hb is not affected by Rh isoimmunization?

a. Anti C
b. Anti E
-
c. Anti lewis
d. Anti D

257. A 26-year-old woman in the first trimester of pregnancy has been admitted with retching and repeated
vomiting with large hematemesis. Her pulse rate is 126/minute and blood pressure is 80 mm Hg systolic. The
most likely diagnosis is?
-
a. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
b. Bleeding from oesophageal varices
c. Peptic ulcer
d. Hiatus hernia

258. All of the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract infections in pregnancy except?
a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Vesicoureteral reflux
-

259. Which can be used in pregnancy?

a. ACE inhibitors
b. Aldosterone
c. AT receptor antagonist
d. Propylthiouracil
-

260. Drug used for preventing preterm labor?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Nifedipine
~
d. Ritodrine
 261. A pregnant mother at 32-week gestation presents in preterm labor. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce
lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions. Except?
a. Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours
b. Pregnancy induced hypertension
-
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Chorioamnionitis

262. A woman at 32 weeks of pregnancy, presents with labor pains. On examination, her cervix is dilated and
uterine contractions are felt. The management is?
>
a. Isoxsuprine hydrochloride
b. Dilatation and evacuation
c. Termination of pregnancy
d. Wait and watch

263. Best tocolytic in a cardiac patient is?

a. Atosiban
b. Isoxsuprine
-
c. Nifedipine
d. MgSO4

264. Half-life biological of oxytocin?

a. 2–3 min
-
b. 3–4 min
c. 5–6 min
d. 7–8 min

265. Forceps should not be used in?

a. Twin delivery
b. Hydrocephalus
-
c. Post maturity
d. After coming head of breech

266. All of the following are true regarding forceps and vacuum delivery. Except?
a. Vacuum requires more clinical skills than forceps
-
b. Vacuum is preferred more in HIV patients than forceps
c. Forceps is more associated with fetal facial injury
 d. Vacuum has more chance of formation of cephal-hematoma

267. Most common genital prolapse is?

-
a. Cystocele
b. Procidentia
c. Rectocele
d. Enterocoele

268. All are risk factors for vaginal candidiasis except?

a. HIV
-
b. Hypertension
c. Pregnancy
d. Diabetes mellitus

269. Which of the following is true with regards to genital tuberculosis?

a. Ovarian involvement can occur without tubal affection
b. Infertility is mainly due to anovulation
c. Acid fast bacilli is identified in 100% cases of tubercular endometritis
d. A negative Mantoux test reasonably excludes tuberculosis
-

270. A newborn with 46XX has external genitalia of male. All the following are the possible causes
except?
a. Placental aromatase deficiency
b. Maternal androgen adrenal tumor
-
c. Anti-Mullerian hormone deficiency
d. WNT 4 mutations

271. A 48-year-old female suffering from severe menorrhagia (DUB) underwent hysterectomy She
wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X-ray
shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is?
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen and progesterone
-
c. Estrogen
d. None

272. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveal proliferative changes. Which hormone should be
preferred?

~a. MDPA (Medroxyprogesterone acetate)

 b. Desogestrol
c. Norethisterone
d. None of the above

273. In 40 days of menstrual cycle the ovulation occurs at?

a. 14th day
b. 20th day
-
c. 26th day
d. 30th day

274. A 26-year-old nulliparous female with third degree uterine prolapse but no cystocele and no
rectocele is best treated by?
a. Abdominal sling surgery
b. Le fort colpocleisis
~
c. Fothergill’s repair
d. Amputation of cervix

275. A case of obstructed labor which was delivered by Cesarean section complains of cyclical passage
of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most likely site of fistula?
a. Uretherovaginal
-
b. Vesico- vaginal
c. Vesico- Uterine
d. Uretero- uterine
276. A young nulliparous woman has 3rd degree uterovaginal prolapsed without any cystocele or
rectocele. There is no stress incontinence. Uterocervical length is 3 inches. All other symptoms are
normal. The best treatment plan for her will be?
a. Observation and reassurance till child bearing is over
b. Shirodkar’s vaginal repair
c. Shirodkar’s abdominal sling
d. Fothergill’s operation
-

277. Cytokine involved in ovarian hyperstimulation syn-drome?

a. IL-2
b. VEGF
2c. TNF-alpha
d. Endothelin

278. The first step in the management of hirsutism due to stein- Leventhal syndrome is?
-
a. OCP
b. HMG
c. Spironolactone
d. Bromocriptine
279. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in 27-year-old obese woman presenting with
Oligomenorrhea, infertility and hirsutism?
-
a. Polycystic ovaries
b. Endometriosis
c. Pelvic inflammatory disease
d. Turner’s syndrome

280. Pulsatile GnRH is used for treating?

a. precocious puberty
~
b. Anovulation
c. Size of fibroid
d. Pain in endometriosis

281. In azoospermia, the diagnostic test which can distinguish between testicular failure and obstruction
of Vas deferens is?
a. Estimation of FSH level
b. Estimation of Testosterone level
c. Karyotyping
~d. FNAC of testes
282. A 25-year-old infertile male underwent semen analysis. Results show: sperm count – 15 million/ml;
pH-7.5; volume – 2ml; no agglutination is seen. Morphology shows 60% normal and 60% motile
sperms. Most likely diagnosis is?
a. Normospermia
~
b. Oligospermia
c. Azoospermia
d. Aspermia

283. Side effect of clomiphene citrate includes all except?

a. Multiple pregnancy
b. Breast Tenderness
c. Multiple polycystic ovary
-d. Teratogenic effect on off springs
284. The following are the primary sites of acute gonococcal infection. Except?

a. Urethra
b. Bartholin’s gland
c. Skene’s gland (Para urethral glands)
d. Ectocervix
-

285. The risk factors of acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) are the following. Except?
a. Menstruating teenagers who have multiple sex partner
b. IUD users
~
c. Women with monogamous partner who had vasectomy
d. Previous history of acute PID
286. A 35-year-old P2C2 female has CIN grade III confirmed on pap smear and Colposcopy. Next step in
management is?
a. Conization
-
b. LEEP
c. Cryosurgery
d. Hysterectomy

287. A 47-year-old female is diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which lymph node would be first involved
in metastatic spread of this disease beyond the cerra and uterus?
a. Internal iliac lymph node
b. Obturator node
-
c. External iliac node
d. Para cervical node

288. All of the following are risk factors for cancer cervix. Except?

a. Early age of intercourse

b. Early menarche
c. Smoking
d. Multi parity
289. What is the ideal treatment for a 55-year-female with simple hyperplasia of endometrium with
atypia?
~
a. Simple hysterectomy
b. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)
c. Levonorgestrel (LNG)
d. IUCD

290. A 52-year-old menopausal female presents with single episode of postmenopausal bleeding. TVS
shows endometrial uniform thickness of 6 mm. What is the most appropriate step in management?
a. Perform fractional curettage
b. Perform hysteroscopy and biopsy
c. Perform pipette aspiration
d. Do TAH

291. A 40-year-old presented to OPD with complaint of heavy menstrual bleeding, USG Pelvic organ
was done showing ET 16mm. This procedure was planned. Identify the procedure?
a. Cervical Cytology or Biopsy
b. Transvaginal Sonography
c. Endometrial Biopsy
~
d. “Wet Prep” Examination and Cervical Culture

292. A 55-year-old obese female who is a smoker presented with an abdominal mass since last 6 months.
CA-125 was done having value 68, oophorectomy was done & HPE examination shows following
findings. What would be your diagnosis?
a. Serous cyst adenoma of ovary
b. Mucino cyst adenoma of ovary
c. Brenner’s Tumor
- 2
d. Clear cell carcinoma

293. Identify the instrument & its use?

a. Sim’s speculum – to retract posterior vaginal wall

b. Sim’s anterior vaginal wall retractor -to retract anterior vaginal wall
-
c. Auvard speculum used retracts the posterior vaginal wall during vaginal hysterectomy
d. Doyen's retractor used in LSCS

294. Tumor shown in image are commonly seen in ovaries but extra ovarian origin of such tumor is all.
Except?

a. LUMBAR REGION,
 b. UTEROVESICAL AREA
c. PARASACRAL REGION
d. VESICOVAGINAL SEPTUM

295. HSG image shows following finding in a patient with distance A measuring less than 4 cm & angle
B measuring less than 60 degrees. What would be your diagnosis?

-
a. Bi-cornuate uterus
b. Uni-cornuate uterus with rudimentary horn
c. Septate uterus -
d. Arcuate uterus ⑦

296. Instrument used in which surgery?

a. Vaginal hysterectomy
~
b. Myomectomy
c. Vault repair
d. Abdominal hysterectomy

297. Chose the correct option?

 a. 1 Used for sampling of endo cervix
b. 2 Used for sampling of endo cervix & ectocervix
c. 3 Used for sampling of endo cervix & ectocervix
-
d. 2 Used for sampling of ectocervix

298. A 36-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. She has one child of 7 years. USG
shows a single 3 x 3 cm submucosal fibroid. Hemoglobin is 10.5 gm/dl. What is the best treatment
option for her?
a. GnRH injection
b. UAE
-
c. Hysteroscopic myomectomy
d. Laparoscopic myomectomy

299. Best investigation to establish the diagnosis of endometriosis is?

a. Laparoscopy
2b. USG
c. X-ray pelvis
d. CT scan

300. SERM used for contraception?

a. Raloxifene
b. Ormeloxifene
-
c. Clomiphene
d. Toremifene

301. Prostate gland is homologous to?

a. Bartholin's gland
b. Cowper's gland
~
c. Skene gland
 d. Bulbourethral glands

302. Ovary develop from?

a. Mullerian duct
b. Genital ridge
-
c. Genital tubercle
d. Mesonephric duct

303. A young female presented to you with primary amenorrhea. Examination reveals normal breast
development and absent axillary hairs. Pelvic examination shows a normally developed vagina with
clitoromegaly. On ultrasound, gonads are visible in the inguinal region. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
-
b. Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome
c. Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
d. Gonadal dysgenesis

304. A 5-year-old girl complains of failure to attain menarche. Her height is 4 feet & secondary sexual
characteristics are absent. What is the next best step in making a diagnosis?
a. Perform a CT of brain
b. Perform a hormone profile
c. Do a karyotype
d. Do a TVS

305. 17-year-old girl with amenorrhea, atrophied breast & hypo-plastic uterus. Diagnosis?

a. Turner’s syndrome
b. Imperforate hymen
c. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
d. Klinefelter’s syndrome

306. Zavenelli’s maneuver is done in?

-
A. Shoulder dystocia
B. Deep transverse arrest
C. Retained placenta
D. Face presentation
307. A multigravida with previous 2 normal deliveries presents with unstable lie of the fetus at 34-week
gestation. What could be the most probable cause?
-
A. Placenta previa
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Uterine anomaly
D. Pelvic tumor
308. A woman with 20-weeks pregnancy presents with bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination
the Os is open but no products have come out. The diagnosis is?
A. Missed abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
-C. Inevitable abortion
D. Complete abortion
309. A woman with H/o recurrent abortions presents with isolated increases in APTT. Most likely cause
is?

-
A. Lupus anticoagulant
B. Factor VII
C. Von-Willebrand’s disease
D. Hemophilia A

310. All are contraindications of diaphragm. Except?

-
a. Multiple sex partners
b. Recurrent UTI
c. Uterine prolapse
d. Herpes vaginitis
I ⑬ ?

311. A 28-year-old P1L1 had Cu T inserted 2 years back, on examination Cu T threads are not seen. USG
shows Cu T partly in abdominal cavity. Method of removal is?
a. Hysteroscopy
b. No need of removal (wait and watch)
c. IUCD hook
d. Laparoscopy
-
312. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following. Except?
a. Amniotic fluid
b. Maternal blood
c. Chorionic villi
d. Fetal blood
-

313. An HIV positive, 36 years old female on ART councils. Which of the following 1st trimester
markers of Down syndrome would be affected by?
a. β-HCG
b. PAPP-A
c. NT
-
d. All of the above

314. The best time to do chorionic villous sampling is?

 a. Between 6-8 weeks
b. Between 7-9 weeks
c. Between 9-11 weeks
-d. Between 11-13 weeks

315. Tear drop sign is seen in?

a. Spina bifida
b. Anencephaly
c. Agenesis of corpus callosum
-
d. Cystic hygroma

316. A 25-year-old woman had premature rupture of membranes, delivered a male child and became
lethargic and apneic on the 1st day and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of
abortion 1 year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of a hemolytic colonies on blood agar was
found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most
likely etiological Agent?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
-
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Pepto streptococci
d. Enterococcus faecalis

317. Lifespan of the fetal RBC approximates?

a. 60 days
b. 80 days
1 c. 100 days
d. 120 days
-

318. Amount of liquor is maximum at?

-a. 32–34 weeks
b. 36–38 weeks
c. 34–36 weeks
 d. 38–40 weeks

319. The clotting factor which is not increased in pregnancy?

a. Factor 2
b. Factor 7
c. Factor 10
d. Factor 11
-
320. An 18-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain and vaginal spotting for several days.
She denies sexually transmitted disease although she is sexually active with her boyfriend; they use
condoms for protection. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. Her blood pressure is 124/80
mm Hg, pulse is 90/ min, and temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F). Abdominal examination demonstrates
vague left lower quadrant tenderness without rebound or guarding. Pelvic examination shows a
normal vagina and cervix without cervical motion tenderness. No adnexal masses are appreciated.
Results of a complete blood cell count and metabolic panel are within normal limits. Which of the
following is the next best step in management?
a. Transvaginal USG
b. Follow up after 3 months
c. Quantitative b HCG measurement
d. Rapid urine Beta HCG measurement

-
321. A 21 years old girl with 8-weeks amenorrhea, now comes in shock. The likely diagnosis is?

a. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

b. Incarcerated amnion
c. Twisted ovarian cyst
d. Threatened abortion

322. A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per
vaginum and loss of fetal movements. On examination the uterus is contracted with increased uterine
tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. The most likely diagnosis is?
a. Placenta previa
b. Hydramnios
c. Premature labor
~
d. Abruptio placenta

323. In which of the following conditions do the ovaries functions normally?

a. Turner’s syndrome
-
b. Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
c. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
d. Swyer’s syndrome

324. A 26-year-old woman in the first trimester of pregnancy has been admitted with retching and
 repeated vomiting with large hematemesis. Her pulse rate is 126/minute and blood pressure is 80 mm
Hg systolic. The most likely diagnosis is?
a. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
-
b. Bleeding from oesophageal varices
c. Peptic ulcer
d. Hiatus hernia
325. A pregnant mother at 32-week gestation presents in preterm labor. Therapy with antenatal steroids
to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions. Except?
a. Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours
b. Pregnancy induced hypertension
c. Diabetes mellitus
-
d. Chorioamnionitis

326. You are called to the operating room. The general Surgeons have operated on a woman to rule out
appendicitis and the signs of an abdominal pregnancy with an 18-week fetus and placenta attached to
the omentum. The best course of action in the case is?
A. Removal of both fetus and placenta
-
B. Laparoscopic ligation of umbilical cord
C. Removal of the fetus only
D. Closely follow until viability and the deliver by laparotomy

327. A twenty years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg. Pulse rate 120/min
and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by?
-
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Laparoscopy
C. Culdocentesis
D. Resuscitation and Medical management

328. Identify the type of forceps?

A. Kielland Forceps
B. Wrigley’s Forceps
-
C. Long Curved Obstetric Forceps
D. Pipers Forceps
329. HCG is secreted by? trophoblast
-A. Trophoblast cells auto
B. Amniotic membrane syn
C. Fetal yolk sac
D. Hypothalamus

330. A 37-weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre. She has not had
any antenatal care till now. The best approach regarding tetanus immunization to this case would be
to?

331. Oxygenated blood from the placenta reaches the fetal heart in utero via?
A. Umbilical arteries
-
B. Umbilical vein
C. Ductus venosus
D. Ductus arteriosus

332. 29 years old G3P2 female at 32 weeks of gestation presents to emergency department with vaginal
bleeding, she does not have any pain. On examination her PR 100bpm BP is 100/70. Fundal height is
32 weeks and fetal heart rate is 100bpm. Which of the following is the management of the patient?
A. conservative management
B. emergency CS
-
C. steroids followed by induction of labor
D. steroids followed by CS

333. Lochia in correct order during puerperium?

-
A. Rubra, Serosa, alba
B. Serosa, rubra, alba
C. Alba, serosa, rubra
D. Alba, mucosa, serosa

334. All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension. Except?

a. Nifedipine
-
b. Captopril
c. Methyldopa
d. Hydralazine

335. Best time to give Anti-D to a pregnant patient?

a. 12 weeks
b. 28 weeks
c. 36 weeks
 ·
d. After delivery

336. The following sign in USG are depictive of?

A. Intrauterine two gestations sac

B. Amniotic sac and yolk sac
-
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Heterotopic pregnancy

337. Indications of urgent delivery of the second baby in twin are all. Except?

A. Abruptio placenta
B. Cord prolapsed of the second baby
-
C. Inadvertent use of IV ergometrine with the delivery of the anterior shoulder of the first baby
D. Breech presentation of the second baby

338. Increased demand of following occurs in pregnancy. Except?

A. Folic acid
B. Iron
C. Vitamin B12
D. Zinc

339. Folic acid supplementation reduces the risk of?

 -
A. Neural tube defect
B. Toxemia of pregnancy
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Placenta previa

340. The dose of anti D gamma globulin given after term delivery for a Rh negative mother and Rh
positive baby is?
a. 50 micro gram
b. 200 micro gram
c. 300 micro gram
-
d. 100 micro gram
e. All of the above doses are incorrect

341. Rh negative G2P1 has an antibody titer of 4 IU/ml (IAT 1:4) at 8 weeks. Her husband is
homozygous Rhesus positive. What is the next step in the management?
a. Assess middle cerebral artery blood flow from 18 weeks
b. Assess the amniotic fluid bilirubin levels at 18 weeks
c. Determine the fetal Rhesus status by analyzing cell-free fetal DNA present in the maternal blood at
8 weeks
d. Repeat the antibody titer in 4 weeks