1) Studies have shown that 50% of spontaneous abortion are caused by a chromosomal

abnormality false
2) Ocp reduces risk of ectopic pregnancy true
3) Hpv is the most common STD agent true
4) PMS is a syndrome that occurs in a way to interfere with daily activity and occur in
follicular phase false
5) TESE is making a small incision in the testis and examining the tubules for the presence
of sperm false
6) Having fibroids increase the risk of uterine cancer false
7) Uterine anomalies have been ass. With patients exposed to diethylbestrol in utero ?
8) There is high ass between uterine malformations and congenital renal anomalies
especially renal agenesis and ectopia true
9) Benign /malignant liver tumors are the contraindication for coc ‘s true
10) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is characterized by development of antibodies
against phospholipids true

1) What measurement can help differentiate hypothalamic - pituitary amenorrhea from

ovarian failure
Testosterone level
FSH level
Hcg level
Serum estradiol level

2) The most common anatomic abnormality to cause secondary amennorrhea is

Intact hymen
Vaginal septum
Asherman syndrome
Cervical stenosis

3) Disruption of the pulsatile secretion of gonadotropin- releasing hormone directly

interferes with
FSH
Estradiol
Cathecolamines
 Prolactin

4) A 30- year old woman with history of pocs presents for evaluation of infertility after 1
year of unprotected intercourse what is the initial step in evaluation
Anatomic assessment of female genital tract
Serum AMH FSH and estradiol
Laparoscopy
Determination of ovulation

5) What is definition of RPL

2 0r more consecutive spontaneous miscarriage

6) The anatomic uterine abnormalities that can predispose to a higher risk of pregnancy
loss include
Congenital malformation
Uterine leiomyomas
Intrauterine adhesion
All of the above

7) What is the percentage of RPL that remain unexpected after work up

50%
30%
20%
0.5%

8) Sperm maturation occurs in th

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Urethra

9) All methods can be used to determine if and when ovulation occurs except
TVUS
LH test
BBT
Bimanual examination

10) A 29 years old woman has been treated for bacterial vaginosis after 3 days of
metronidazole she notes abdominal discomfort , bloating and diarhea which is the most
likely explanation
Alcohol use clostridium difficile
Medication side effect
Undiagnosed salpingitis
11) A 45 years old G2P2 has significant heavy menstrual bleeding due to uterine fibroids .
the pelvic US shows 2 large uterine fibroids one in the anterior corpus and one in fundal
region the patient is considering uterine artery embolization which of the following is the
best way to ensure that fibroids are not leiomyosarcomas
Endometrial biopsy
Uterine dilation and curretage
Percutaneous biopsy of fibroid
MRI
Serum marker for CA125

12) Risk factors for PID include all except

Not douching
Multiple sex partners
Use of IUD
Being younger than 25

13) A common test for male factor infertility is

Semen analysis
Testicular size and consistency
Hysterosalpingogram
Both A and B

14) What is the primary drug for anovulation

Ovarian drilling
GnRH antagonist
Clomiphene citrate
Testosterone therapy

15) Metformin a diabetes drug may be useful in tx of

PCOS
Varicocele
Klinefelter syndrome
Sertoli cell only syndrome

16) A 25 year old nulliparous woman is being evaluated for IUD insertion which
characteristic is most acceptable for IUD use
Current STD
Nulliparity
Recent PID
Enlarged uterine with irregular cavity

17) What are the health benefits for OCP

 Reduction of severe menstrual cramps
Cleaning up acne and improve bone density
Prevention of certain cancers
All

18) A 29 years old G2P0 underwent an evaluation for amenorrhea of 10 months duration
her menses had been regular . pregnancy test , TSH ,prolactin level ,LH are normal .
The pt had sequential estrogen and progestin therapy without vaginal bleeding .
diagnosis is
intrauterine adhesion by imaging . which one is most accurate
Her condition usually occurs after uterine curettage
She would be best diagnosed by laparoscopy
Tx includes endometrial ablation

19) Sperm production starts in

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory ducts

20) A 38 year old has headache amenorrhea galactorrhea . the pregnancy test is negative
prolactin level is markedly high TSH normal . dr makes diagnosis of pituitary adenoma
and orders MRI which clinical presentation is ass with prolactin secreting pituitary
adenoma
Diabetes insipidus
Occipital cerebral defect
Central field visual defect
Amenorrhea