0009 ATB FAA H 8083 ATBTestGuidesSetof3 GeneralAirframePowerplant Ebook 2023

FOR USE WITH FAA-H-8083-30A-ATB
Airframe & Powerplant

Mechanics
2023 - GENERAL TEST GUIDE
AIRFRAME & POWERPLANT
MECHANICS
GENERAL TEST GUIDE

Written, Oral & Practical FAA Exam Prep with Practical Test Standards
FOR USE WITH
FAA-H-8083-30A & FAA-H-8083-30A-ATB

Airframe & Powerplant Mechanics Handbook
2023 EDITION
Printed and Published by

Aircraft Technical Book Company
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1.970.726.5111
www.actechbooks.com
Copyright 2022 - Aircraft Technical Book Company. All rights reserved. Except as permitted under the United States Copyright Act of 1976, no part of this publication
may be reproduced or distributed in any form or by any means, or stored in a database retrieval system, without the prior written permission of the publisher.
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Chapter 01 - Safety, Ground Operations, and Servicing Chapter 10 - Inspection Concepts and Techniques
Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples, Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
practical test and sample projects. practical test and sample projects.
Chapter 02 - Regulations, Maintenance Forms, Chapter 11 - Hand Tools and Measuring Devices
Records, and Publications Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples, practical test and sample projects.
practical test and sample projects.
Chapter 12 - Fundamentals of Electricity and Electronics
Chapter 03 - Mathematics in Aviation Maintenance Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
Chapter 13 - Mechanic Privileges and Limitations
Chapter 04 - Aircraft Drawings Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
Chapter 14 - Human Factors
Chapter 05 - Physics for Aviation Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
Chapter 06 - Aircraft Weight and Balance

Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
Chapter 07 - Aircraft Materials, Hardware,

and Processes
Chapter 08 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

Chapter 09 - Fluid Lines and Fittings

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide iii

HOW TO USE THIS TEST GUIDE
This book is designed to help you pass your FAA knowledge test. But, even more important, it is designed to help
reinforce your understanding of the subject which you have been studying in the classroom or with your textbooks and
other tools. Rather than this being the first book you pick up, it should be the last. When you take that route, you will find
the questions in this book both easy and an excellent reinforcement to your studies.
The process we suggest is: Learn first from the textbooks and your instructors. When you are comfortable with a
subject, and can see problems from different sides, then it is time to prepare for the test. This Test Guide, if properly
used, will serve as your proof that you know what you need to know or if a subject requires further study. If so, the
explanation with each question may refresh your understanding, or the textbook reference given will point you to the
right place for review.
WHERE THE QUESTIONS COME FROM:

In 2011, FAA made the decision to stop publishing actual test questions. Previous test guides, where one could
memorize questions are no more. Questions in this and other current FAA test guides now contain only examples of
the type of question you will see on your actual FAA test.
Questions in this book come from two sources. First are previous FAA written questions which remain relevant to
the curricula covered in the FAA 8083 Handbooks. Second are new questions written by Aircraft Technical Book
Company and its team of authors to cover topics in the 8083s (the FAA required curricula) for which previous FAA
samples did not exist.
Should you "make sure" and buy other test guides as well? In one sense it can’t hurt. After all, our question on any
particular topic may have different wording or may approach that topic slightly differently than another’s. However, all
will be different from the actual test questions, and different too from those asked by an examiner, or more important;
by an employer.
So your first job is to learn in the classroom, study the textbooks, and understand the subject. With that, all questions,
no matter how they are written will be easy and obvious, so making your career in aerospace rich and rewarding.
Remember, its not the quick way; its the right way.
PRACTICAL TEST STANDARDS (PTS) AND

AIRMAN CERTIFICATION STANDARDS (ACS)
The PTS and ACS are FAA documents which detail the knowledge and skills required to qualify for an A&P license.
Your knowledge requirements are tested through your FAA oral and written exams (General, Airframe, Powerplant) via
questions similar to those in this book. Your practical skills are assessed by an FAA examiner during that final phase of
your testing.
In May 2022 FAA began a transition from the PTS to the ACS format. For the purpose of learning, the ACS will replace
the PTS in September of 2022. For the purpose of testing, the ACS standards will replace the PTS in July 2023. This
staggered schedule will insure that those presently learning under PTS standards will be tested according to the same.
Each of these documents in their most current editions are available to download and/or print at the following links:
Practical Test Standards (PTS)

https://www.actechbooks.com/test_standards/amt_pts.pdf
Airman Certification Standards (ACS)

https://www.actechbooks.com/test_standards/amt_acs.pdf
iv 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

LEARNING STATEMENT CODES A&P MECHANIC — GENERAL
Learning statement codes replace the old subject matter codes and are noted on the test report. They refer to
measurable statements of knowledge that a student should be able to demonstrate following a defined element of
training. The learning statement corresponding to the learning statement code on the test report can be located in
the Learning Statement Reference Guide on the Web site.
AMG001 Ability To Draw/Sketch Repairs/Alterations

AMG002 Calculate Center Of Gravity
AMG003 Calculate Weight And Balance
AMG004 Determine Correct Data
AMG005 Determine Regulatory Requirement
AMG006 Interpret Drag Ratio From Charts
AMG007 Aerodynamic Fundamentals
AMG008 Air Density
AMG009 Aircraft Cleaning - Materials/Techniques
AMG010 Aircraft Component Markings
AMG011 Aircraft Control Cables - Install/Inspect/Repair/Service
AMG012 Aircraft Corrosion - Principles/Control/Prevention
AMG013 Aircraft Drawings - Detail/Assembly
AMG014 Aircraft Drawings/Blueprints - Lines/Symbols/Sketching
AMG015 Aircraft Electrical System - Install/Inspect/Repair/Service
AMG016 Aircraft Engines - Performance Charts
AMG017 Aircraft Hardware - Bolts/Nuts/Fasteners/Fittings/Valves
AMG018 Aircraft Instruments - Tachometer Indications/Dual Tachometers
AMG019 Aircraft Metals - Inspect/Test/Repair/Identify/Heat Treat
AMG020 Aircraft Metals - Types/Tools/Fasteners
AMG021 Aircraft Publications - Aircraft Listings
AMG022 Aircraft Records - Required/Destroyed
AMG023 Aircraft Repair - Major
AMG024 Airframe - Inspections
AMG025 Airworthiness Certificates - Validity/Requirements
AMG026 ATA Codes
AMG027 Basic Physics - Matter/Energy/Gas
AMG028 Data - Approved
AMG029 Dissymmetry
AMG030 Effects Of Frost/Snow On Airfoils
AMG031 Electrical System - Components/Operating Principles/Characteristics/Symbols
AMG032 Environmental Factors Affecting Maintenance Performance
AMG033 External Loading
AMG034 Flight Characteristics - Autorotation/Compressibility
AMG035 Flight Operations - Air Taxi
AMG036 Fluid Lines - Install/Inspect/Repair/Service
AMG037 Fluid Lines - Material/Coding
AMG038 Forces Acting On Aircraft - Angle Of Incidence
AMG039 Forces Acting On Aircraft - Yaw/Adverse Yaw
AMG040 Fuel - Types/Characteristics/Contamination/Fueling/Defueling/Dumping
AMG041 Fundamental Inspection Principles - Airframe/Engine
AMG042 Fundamental Material Properties
AMG043 Generator System - Components/Operating Principles/Characteristics
AMG044 Geometry
AMG045 Ground Operations - Start/Move/Service/Secure Aircraft
AMG046 Helicopter Engine Control System
AMG047 Helicopter Flight Controls
AMG048 Information On An Airworthiness Directive
AMG049 Instrument Panel Mounting
AMG050 Maintenance Error Management
AMG051 Maintenance Publications - Service/Parts/Repair
AMG052 Maintenance Resource Management
AMG053 Mathematics - Percentages/Decimals/Fractions/Ratio/General
AMG054 Penalties - Falsification/Cheating
AMG055 Physics - Work Forces
8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide v

AMG056 Pitch Control - Collective/Cyclic
AMG057 Precision Measuring Tools - Meters/Gauges/Scales/Calipers
AMG058 Reciprocating Engine - Components/Operating Principles/Characteristics
AMG059 Regulations - Aircraft Inspection/Records/Expiration
AMG060 Regulations - Aircraft Operator Certificate
AMG061 Regulations - Aircraft Registration/Marks
AMG062 Regulations - Airworthiness Directives
AMG063 Regulations - Airworthiness Requirements/Responsibilities
AMG064 Regulations - Certificate Of Maintenance Review Requirements
AMG065 Regulations - Certificate Of Release
AMG066 Regulations - Certification Of Aircraft And Components
AMG067 Regulations - Change Of Address
AMG068 Regulations - Check Periods
AMG069 Regulations - Determine Mass And Balance
AMG070 Regulations - Display/Inspection Of Licenses And Certificates
AMG071 Regulations - Emergency Equipment
AMG072 Regulations - Flight/Operating Manual Marking/Placard
AMG073 Regulations - Housing And Facility Requirements
AMG074 Regulations - Instrument/Equipment Requirements
AMG075 Regulations - Maintenance Control/Procedure Manual
AMG076 Regulations - Maintenance Reports/Records/Entries
AMG077 Regulations - Maintenance Requirements
AMG078 Regulations - Minimum Equipment List
AMG079 Regulations - Minor/Major Repairs
AMG080 Regulations - Persons Authorized For Return To Service
AMG081 Regulations - Persons Authorized To Perform Maintenance
AMG082 Regulations - Privileges/Limitations Of Maintenance Certificates/Licenses
AMG083 Regulations - Privileges Of Approved Maintenance Organizations
AMG084 Regulations - Reapplication After Revocation/Suspension
AMG085 Regulations - Reporting Failures/Malfunctions/Defects
AMG086 Regulations - Return To Service
AMG087 Regulations - Special Airworthiness Certificates/Requirements
AMG088 Regulations - Special Flight Permit
AMG089 Regulations - Weighing An Aircraft
AMG090 Repair Fundamentals - Turnbuckles
AMG091 Rotor System - Components/Operating Principles/Characteristics
AMG092 Rotorcraft Vibration - Characteristics/Sources
AMG093 Starter/Ignition System - Components/Operating Principles/Characteristics
AMG094 Starter System - Starting Procedures
AMG095 Turbine Engines - Components/Operation/Associated Instruments
AMG096 Turbine Engines - Install/Inspect/Repair/Service/Hazards
AMG097 Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS)/Supplemental Type Certificate (STC)
AMG098 Welding Types/Techniques/Equipment
AMG099 Work/Power/Force/Motion
AMG100 Mathematics – Extract Roots/Radicals/Scientific Notation
AMG101 Algebraic Operations – Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division
AMG102 Aircraft Electrical Circuit Diagrams – Read/Interpret/Troubleshoot
AMG103 Human Reliability In Maintenance Errors
AMG105 Environmental Factors Leading To Maintenance Errors
AMG106 Fatigue In Maintenance Errors Causes/Interventions
AMG107 Error Management
AMG108 Maintenance Resource Management
AMG109 Error Management In Shift Turnover
AMG110 Error Capture/Duplicate Inspection
AMG111 Ergonomic Interventions To Maintenance Errors
AMG112 Interventions To Prevent Cross-Connection Maintenance Errors
AMG113 Interventions To Prevent Shift/Task Turnover Errors
AMG115 Environmental Factors – Lighting/Temperature/Noise/Air Quality
AMG116 Error Intervention – Interruptions/Access
vi 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

SAFETY, GROUND OPERATIONS, CHAPTER
01
AND SERVICING
Shop Safety, Flight Line Safety, Fire Protection, Tiedown Procedures, Land Plane Tiedown,
Ground Movement, and Support Equipment
QUESTIONS
1-1 AMG045 1-3 AMG045

The Material Safety Risk Diamond illustrated in Figure 1-1 What sound level becomes dangerous and requires the use
below indicates the of hearing protection?
A. material is mildly radioactive. A. 100 db
B. material flammability risk is high; and reactivity to water B. Varies depending on frequency
is high. C. Varies depending on duration
C. material is biologically hazardous, but not flammable.
RED
BLUE YELLOW
WHITE
Figure 1-1. Risk Diamond.
1-2 AMG042 1-4 AMG045

A risk diamond diagram contains the letter W with a line A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the pilot’s
drawn through it. What does this mean? field of vision whenever the engine is running in order to avoid
A. The material is soluble in water. A. the tail rotor.
B. If exposed to the material, flush with water. B. the main rotor.
C. There is a danger if the material is exposed to water. C. blowing dust or debris caused by rotor downwash.
8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide 1-1

SAFETY, GROUND OPERATIONS, AND SERVICING
ANSWERS
1-1 Answer B. 1-3 Answer C.

The risk diamond on the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) label Hearing protection is extremely important. Such machines
provides a quick reference to the risks associated with the as chainsaws, pneumatic drills, and snowmobiles produce
product. Its four color segments represent Flammability a noise level of 100dB can cause hearing loss. Frequency
(Red), Reactivity (Yellow), Health (Blue), and Special Hazards (vibrations per second) particularly in the high range, such
(White). The numbers (0-4) in the blocks represent the as in musical instruments, can also cause hearing loss.
various levels for each hazard; the higher the number the Duration of exposure is extremely critical in determining
higher the risk. There are only two approved symbols for hearing loss, the longer the duration the greater the potential
Special Hazards: letter W with a line through it meaning that for loss. In each of the situations, you should wear hearing
the material has a high reactivity to water and OX meaning protection. However, duration plays a significant role when
that the material is a strong oxidizer. OSHA determines the requirements for mandatory hearing
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 3] protection, which is what this question implies with the use
of the word "requires". The bottom line here is PROTECT
RED
your hearing. Always wear hearing protection working with
pneumatic drills, rivet guns, or other loud or noisy tools or
machinery all producing high dB ranges and high frequency
ranges, and even short duration exposure to these sounds
can cause a hearing loss. Continued exposure will cause
hearing loss. Don’t forget to protect your hearing at home
and during recreational activities as well. Duration, or
BLUE YELLOW how long you are exposed to a noise level, does not stop
accumulating when you leave the job site. Listening to loud
music on the way home adds to the total duration.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 4]
WHITE
Figure 1-1. Risk Diamond.
1-2 Answer C. 1-4 Answer A.

A risk diamond typically contains a white segment on Always approach the helicopter in view of the pilot.
the bottom which will alert the user to special or unusual Approaching for any other direction is dangerous; the tail
hazards involving the use of the material. The W segment rotor is invisible when operating and the pilot will not see
(with a line through it) signifies that the material is highly you. Additional safety precautions is not to approach the
reactive when exposed to water. For example, when helicopter if the main rotor is turning, unless approved to do
exposed to water the material can ignite or give off so and in the pilot’s field of vision. If you should get dust or
toxic gasses. debris in your eyes while approaching or leaving a helicopter,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 3] immediately sit down to avoid further possible injury.
1-2 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

QUESTIONS
1-5 AMG045 1-8 AMG045

Most mechanic's tool boxes include cutouts in each drawer Never use CO2 type fire extinguishers on burning metal
identifying the tool which is stored in it. What is the primary because it
purpose of those cutouts? A. can release toxic fumes.
A. FOD control. B. can cause explosive conditions on the metal.
B. Protects the tool from damage. C. is generally ineffective.
C. Quick location of the proper tool size.
1-6 AMG045 1-9 AMG045

A Class B fire involves The principle drawback of Halon 104, 1001, and 1202 type
A. petroleum products or combustible liquids. fire extinguishers is that they _____________.
B. energized electrical wiring. A. Must be stored in high pressure cylinders.
C. material such as wood, paper, upholstery, etc. B. Are extremely toxic.
C. Are ineffective against electrical fires.
1-7 AMG045 1-10 AMG045

Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing What class of fire involves the combustion of metallic
agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire? material such as magnesium?
A. Dry chemical A. Class B
B. A fine water mist B. Class C
C. Carbon dioxide C. Class D

ANSWERS
1-5 Answer A. 1-8 Answer B.

When completing a task, an empty tool slot informs the Never use CO2 on Class D fires. As with water extinguishers,
mechanic that the tool has been left somewhere in the work the cooling effect of CO2 on the hot metal can cause
area. Tools left within the aircraft or engine inlets is a primary explosive expansion of the metal.
and common cause of Foreign Object Damage (FOD). Always [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 6]
be sure to carefully inspect your tool case for missing tools.

Class B fires are caused by flammable petroleum products Halon 104, 1001, and 1202 all have high Underwriters
of other flammable or combustible liquids, greases, solvents, Laboratory (UL) toxicity ratings and are not recommended
paints, and so forth. for aircraft use.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 5] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 6]
1-7 Answer C. 1-10 Answer C.

Because carburetors and intake fires will have grease and Class D fire, is defined as fire in flammable metal. Usually
fuel associated with them, you can eliminate "a fine water Class D fires involve magnesium in the shop or in aircraft
mist" as an answer. Although both dry chemical and carbon wheels and brakes, or are the result of improper or poorly
dioxide extinguishers can be used on Class B fires, the conducted welding operations.
best answer is carbon dioxide (CO2), because dry chemical [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 6]
agents can leave chemical residues and dust making
cleanup difficult and cause additional damage.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 6-8]

QUESTIONS
1-11 AMG045 1-14 AMG094

A fire extinguisher clearly marked with a white "C" in a blue When tying down a seaplane in strong winds, the practice of
circle is best suited to which type of fire? flooding the floats
A. Electrical equipment A. is an acceptable method to secure the aircraft.
B. Flammable liquids B. should only be done on the anticipated upwind float.
C. Ordinary combustibles C. is unacceptable and should never be done.
1-12 AMG045 1-15 AMG094

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding the tiedown of If a radial engine has been shut down for more than 30
small aircraft? minutes, the propeller should be rotated through at least two
1. Manila (hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch when it revolutions to
gets wet. A. check for hydraulic lock.
2. Nylon or Dacron rope is preferred to manila rope. B. check for leaks.
3. The aircraft should be headed downwind in order to C. prime the engine.
minimize wing lift.
4. Leave the nose wheel or tail wheel unlocked.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 2
1-13 AMG045 1-16 AMG045

When tying down an aircraft outside, whenever possible it When starting a fuel injected reciprocating engine, the most
should be positioned with the common procedure is to place the mixture control in the
A. nose facing into the wind. _____________ position.
B. tail facing into the wind. A. full rich
C. anticipated upwind aileron into the wind and B. idle cut-off
positioned downwards. C. open

ANSWERS
1-11 Answer A. 1-14 Answer A.

A fire extinguisher with a white "C" in a blue circle is the Seaplanes tied down on land have been saved from high-
symbol that indicates it is to be used on Class C fires, which wind damage by filling the floats with water in addition to
involve energized electrical wiring and equipment. tying the aircraft down in the usual manner.

As noted in the text, Manila rope shrinks when wet so care Before starting a radial engine that has been shut down for
must be taken to allow for this shrinkage when tying down more than 30 minutes, confirm the ignition switch is OFF then
an aircraft. Nylon and Dacron resist shrinkage, mildew and turn the propeller two or three complete revolutions by hand
rot, and have higher tensile strength than Manila rope and to detect if a hydraulic lock is present.
therefore preferred. When tying down an airplane it should [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 13]
be headed into the prevailing winds whenever possible and
install all control locks.

Positioning the airplane with the nose into prevailing wind As a general rule, a fuel injected engine is started with the
whenever possible reduces ground movement from wind mixture control in the Idle Cut-Off position (also known as full
striking the empennage and helps prevent ground flutter of lean). Contrarily a carbureted engine is typically started with
the control surfaces. the mixture in the Full Rich position. However, as these are
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 10] generalities and all engines may have different manufacturer
recommended procedures, be sure to check the aircraft
operations manual for each aircraft to be sure.

QUESTIONS
1-17 AMG045 1-20 AMG045

When starting and ground operating an aircraft’s engine, the When approaching the front of an idling jet engine, the
aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately
A. to aid in achieving and maintaining proper air flow into A. 10 feet.
the engine induction system. B. 15 feet.
B. to help cancel out engine torque effect. C. 25 feet.
C. for engine cooling purposes.
1-18 AMG094 1-21 AMG045

How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float-type When starting a turbofan engine with the aircraft’s onboard
carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel? APU at what minimum RPM should the APU be turning in
A. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the order to successfully start the engine?
mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off, and the A. At least 75% maximum RPM.
throttle fully open until the fuel charge has been cleared. B. 100% of maximum RPM.
B. Turn off the fuel and ignition. Discontinue the starting C. Any RPM equal or greater than the engine’s
attempt until the excess fuel has been cleared. self‑sustain speed.
C. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the
mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch on, and the
throttle fully open until the excess fuel has cleared or
until the engine starts.
1-19 AMG094 1-22 AMG094

Generally, when an induction fire occurs during starting of a During starting of a turbojet powerplant using a compressed
reciprocating engine, the first course of action should be to air starter, a hot start occurrence was recorded. Select what
A. direct carbon dioxide into the air intake of the engine. happened from the following.
B. continue cranking to start the engine to blow out the fire. A. The pneumatic starting unit overheated.
C. close the throttle. B. The powerplant was preheated before starting.
C. The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich.

ANSWERS

Position the aircraft to head into the prevailing wind to ensure This is a general guideline. As shown in Figure 1-17 of the
adequate airflow over the engine for cooling purposes. General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, the intake hazard
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 13] area for this aircraft is 25 feet and fan shaped. Always
become familiar with specific safety issues of the aircraft
with which you work.

If the engine is inadvertently flooded or over-primed, turn the An APU does not have an RPM control. It is either off, or it
ignition switch OFF and move the throttle to the "full open" is operating at 100% of its rated power. As son as the APU
position. To rid the engine of the excess fuel, turn it over by reaches this normal operating condition it may be used for
hand or by the starter. If excessive force is needed to turn various functions.
over the engine, stop immediately. Do not force rotation of [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 17]
the engine. If in doubt, remove the lower cylinder spark plugs
to remove compression. Immediately after the engine starts,
check the oil pressure indicator. If oil pressure does not show
within 30 seconds, stop the engine and determine the trouble.

If an engine fire develops during the starting procedure, A hot start occurs when the engine starts, but the exhaust
continue cranking to start the engine and blow out the fire. gas temperature exceeds specified limits. An excessively
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 15] rich fuel/air mixture entering the combustion chamber usually
causes this. Either too much fuel or not enough airflow can
cause this condition.

QUESTIONS
1-23 AMG094 1-26 AMG094

An overly rich mixture of fuel/air when starting a turbine The most important condition to be monitored during start
engine will cause a _____________. after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the
A. False start A. EGT, TIT, or ITT.
B. Hung start B. RPM.
C. Hot start C. oil pressure.
1-24 AMG094 1-27 AMG094

Which of the following is a typical cause of a hung start on a Which is the proper sequence for starting a turboprop engine?
turbofan engine? A. Turn on boost pump, turn on starter, turn on ignition,
A. a malfunction of the ignition system turn fuel on, monitor EGT
B. the starter cutting off too soon B. Turn fuel on, turn on boost pump, turn ignition on,
C. an excessively rich fuel/air mixture engage the starter, monitor EGT
C. Engage the starter, turn on fuel, turn on boost pump,
turn on ignition, monitor EGT.
1-25 AMG094 1-28 AMG045

During starting of a turbine engine using a compressed air Which statement(s) below reflect(s) the typical requirement(s)
starter, a hung start occurred. Select the proper procedure. when towing some aircraft?
A. Advance power lever to increase RPM. 1. Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent accidental
B. Re-engage the starter. operation of the nose wheel steering mechanism.
C. Shut the engine down. 2. Tail wheel aircraft should be towed backwards.
3. If the aircraft has a steerable nose wheel, the torque-link
lock should be set to full swivel.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2
C. 3

ANSWERS

A hot start is caused by an overly rich mixture of fuel and An important indication of a hot start is the speed at which
air; either too much fuel or not enough air. This is indicated the needle rises on the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature)
by an abnormal speed of an increase in EGT temperature as gauge, other possible indicators include ITT (Interstage
indicated by that gauge. If this occurs the engine should be Turbine Temperature) or TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature).
shut down immediately. A hung start or false start results in If the needle rises abnormally fast, the fuel or power lever
by low RPM and typically caused by not enough power to the should be quickly moved to the fuel cut-off position before
engine starter. the gauge reaches the indicator red line to avoid damage
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 17] to the engine.
1-24 Answer B. 1-27 Answer A.

False or hung starts occur when the engine starts normally, The text provides an example of a typical starting sequence
but the RPM remains at some low value rather than for a turboprop aircraft. Always use the aircraft’s checklists
increasing to the normal starting RPM. This is often the result to start an engine, never depend on just memory no
of insufficient power to the starter, or the starter cutting off matter how many times you have done it. However, an
before the engine starts self-accelerating. In this case, the understanding of how a turboprop engine operates will
engine should be shut down. provide you with the general knowledge to order a logical
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 17] sequencing for starting. You will gain this knowledge when
you have completed your powerplant course of studies.

False or hung starts occur when the engine starts normally, Torque links, also called scissors absorb the shock of landing
but the RPM remains at some low value rather than and taxiing the aircraft. The person in charge of the towing
increasing to the normal starting RPM. This is often the operation should verify, on aircraft with a steerable nose
result of insufficient power to the starter, or the starter wheel, the locking scissors are set to full swivel for towing.
cutting off before the engine starts self accelerating. The locking device must be reset after the tow bar has been
In this case, the engine should be shut down. If an air removed from the aircraft. Persons stationed in the aircraft
turbine starter is used, the engine should "light off" within should not attempt to steer or turn the nose wheel when the
a predetermined time after the fuel is turned on. This time tow bar is attached to the aircraft.
interval, if exceeded, indicates a malfunction has occurred [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 20]
and the start should be discontinued.

QUESTIONS
1-29 AMG045 1-32 AMG045

When towing a large aircraft, when crossing of a taxiway or When taxing or towing an aircraft, an alternating red and
runway is required _____________, green light from the control tower means
A. a person should be in the cockpit to watch A. Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately.
for obstructions. B. OK to proceed but use extreme caution.
B. persons should be stationed at the nose, each wingtip, C. Return to your starting point
and the empennage at all times.
C. a person should be in the cockpit to operate
the brakes.
1-30 AMG094 1-33 AMG045

When taxing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing red light from Which marshalling signal, in Figure 1-2 below, should be
the control tower means given if a taxing aircraft is in imminent danger of striking
A. stop and wait for a green light. an object?
B. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. A. 1
C. return to starting point. B. 2
C. 3
1 2 3
Figure 1-2. Marshalling signals.
1-31 AMG045 1-34 AMG045
When taxing or towing an aircraft, a flashing white light from Referring to Figure 1-3 below, identify the signal to engage
the control tower means the rotor on a rotorcraft.
A. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. A. 1
B. OK to proceed but use extreme caution. B. 2
C. return to your starting point. C. 3
1 2 3
Figure 1-3. Marshalling signals.

ANSWERS
1-29 Answer C. 1-32 Answer B.

The person in charge should assign team personnel as wing Refer to Figure 1-22 on page 1-21 of the General Handbook
walkers. A wing walker should be stationed at each wingtip H-8083-30A-ATB to learn the light signals used by ATC to
in such a position that he or she can ensure adequate communicate with pilots when radio communication is not
clearance of any obstruction in the path of the aircraft. A tail available. AMTs should know these signals as well in the
(empennage) walker should be assigned when sharp turns event of taxiing an aircraft and radio communication with
are to be made, or when the aircraft is to be backed into the tower is unavailable. In this question, an alternating red
position. A qualified person should occupy the pilot’s seat and green light means that you should proceed with extreme
of the towed aircraft to observe and operate the brakes as caution. Light signals should be committed to memory,
required. "A" appears to be true, the main task of the person especially if authorized to taxi aircraft.
in the pilot seat is to operate the brakes, the wing walkers are [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 21]
the main lookouts for obstructions. Although "B" could easily
be considered correct, be cautious of statements that say
"all" or "never". There are often times exceptions to almost
every rule. In this case, when an aircraft is towed from the
gate to a maintenance facility it may well cross active taxi
and runways and wing walkers are not allowed on active taxi 1-33 Answer C.
and runways. Therefore "C" is the most correct answer. Refer to the Figure below for examples of the various
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 21] standardized FAA hand taxi signals for aircraft. As with light
signals, these should be committed to memory.
1-30 Answer B.
Refer to Figure 1-22 on page 1-21 of the General Handbook
H-8083-30A-ATB to learn the light signals used by ATC to
communicate with pilots when radio communication is not
available. AMTs should know these signals as well in the event
of taxiing an aircraft and radio communication with the tower
is unavailable. In this question, a flashing red light means that
you need to move clear of the runway or taxiway immediately.
Light signals should be committed to memory, especially if
authorized to taxi aircraft.
1 2 3
Answer for Figure 1-2. Marshalling signals.
11-34 Answer C.
1-31 Answer C. Refer to the Figure below for examples of the various
Refer to Figure 1-22 on page 1-21 of the General Handbook standardized FAA hand taxi signals for helicopters. As with
H-8083-30A-ATB to learn the light signals used by ATC to light signals, these should be committed to memory.
communicate with pilots when radio communication is not [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 24]
available. AMTs should know these signals as well in the event
of taxiing an aircraft and radio communication with the tower
is unavailable. In this question, a flashing white light means
that you must return to your starting point. Light signals
should be committed to memory, especially if authorized to
taxi aircraft.
1 2 3
Answer for Figure 1-3. Marshalling signals.
QUESTIONS
1-35 AMG045 1-38 AMG040

When refilling an aircraft with nitrogen, the system you are Federal Specification "BB-0-925A Grade A" refers to the
typically servicing is acceptable quality of
A. landing gear. A. Avgas for aircraft reciprocating engines.
B. engine boost pumps. B. aviator’s breathing oxygen.
C. cabin climate control systems. C. hydraulic fluid for aircraft flight control systems.
1-36 AMG045 1-39 AMG040

What is a typical use for a ground support Air Cart? What color fuel would you expect to find in a modern single
A. Starting engines engine piston powered airplane?
B. Pressurizing tires A. Blue
C. Performing cabin pressure tests B. Colorless
C. Red
1-37 AMG040 1-40 AMG040

What effect, if any, will aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel Which type of jet fuel is a blend of kerosene and aviation
have on a turbine engine? gasoline?
A. No appreciable effect. A. JET A
B. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on B. JET A-1
the turbine blades. C. JET B
C. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on
the compressor blades.

ANSWERS

Nitrogen is used in servicing both tires and landing gear Oxygen is commercially available in three general types:
struts. While servicing tires or struts with high-pressure aviator’s breathing, industrial, and medical. Only oxygen
nitrogen, the technician must use caution while performing marked "Aviator’s Breathing Oxygen" which meets Federal
maintenance. Clean areas before connecting filling hose and Specification BB-0-925A, Grade A, or its equivalent should
do not over inflate. be used in aircraft breathing oxygen systems. Industrial
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 25] oxygen may contain impurities, which could cause the pilot,
crew, and/or passengers to become sick. Medical oxygen,
although pure, contains water, which can freeze in the
cold temperatures found at the altitudes where oxygen is
necessary.

Air carts are used to provide low-pressure (up to 50-psi The standard fuel for modern reciprocating engines is 100LL
high volume flow) air, which can be used for starting the which is dyed blue. Jet fuel is clear or straw colored. Two
engines, and heating and cooling the aircraft on the ground other rarely used and nearly obsolete grades of Avgas for
(using the onboard aircraft systems). It generally consists of piston engines are 80/87 which is dyed red and 100/130
an APU built into the cart that provides bleed air from the which is dyed green.
APU’s compressor for operating aircraft systems or starting [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 26]
engines. They are NOT used to pressurize tires.

Never mix Avgas and turbine fuel. Adding jet fuel to Avgas JET B is a jet fuel which is a blend of kerosene and
will cause a decrease in the power developed by the engine aviation gasoline.
and could cause damage to the engine (through detonation) [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 27]
and loss of life. Adding Avgas to jet fuel, although allowed
could cause lead deposits in the turbine engine and lead to
reduced service life.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
1-1(O). For aircraft with a steerable nose gear, what should be done before towing the aircraft?
1-2(O). Where should team members be stationed when towing an aircraft?
1-3(O). How fast can an aircraft be towed?
1-4(O). Describe the brake usage rules when towing aircraft.
1-5(O). What should be done prior to towing an aircraft on or across an active runway?
1-6(O). Describe the safety precautions that should be observed while starting and running an engine.
1-7(O). Describe the safety precautions to be followed when hand cranking an engine.
1-8(O). Who is authorized to taxi aircraft?
1-9(O). If radio communication is unavailable, how does the AMT communicate with ATC when taxiing an aircraft?
1-10(O). Explain the term "hung start".
1-11(O). Explain the term "hot start".
1-12(O). Explain why an AMT should be familiar with standard light signals
1-13(O). Where can you find a listing of standard aircraft taxiing signals?
1-14(O). Describe the procedures for extinguishing an engine induction fire on a reciprocating engine.
1-15(O). List at least three possible hazards associated with the ground operations of aircraft.
1-16(O). Explain the possible results of mixing jet fuel with Avgas in a reciprocating engine.
1-17(O). Can Avgas be used in a turbine engine and explain why or why not.
1-18(O). List at least three precautions that should be observed when fueling an aircraft.
1-19(O). Describe the general safety practices and precautions that should be observed when servicing aircraft oxygen systems.
1-20(O). What do the numbers represent in Avgas grade classifications?
1-21(O). How can the various Avgas grades be identified?
1-22(O). What is JET A fuel made of?
1-23(O). Name three types of contamination that can be found in aviation fuel.
1-24(O). Describe how each of the three types of contamination can affect the fuel system.
1-25(O). How can the presence of water be determined in a fuel sample?
1-26(O). What benefits are achieved when tetraethyl lead (TEL) is added to aviation fuel?

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
1-27(O). Is it acceptable to use automotive fuel in aircraft engines?
1-28(O). Name the four main classifications of fires.
1-29(O). Give an example of a combustible material associated with each of the four main classifications of fire.
1-30(O). Describe how to use a fire extinguisher.
1-31(O). Describe how to identify the correct fire extinguisher for each fire classification.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
1-1(O). On aircraft with a steerable nose wheel, the locking scissors are set to full swivel for towing. The locking
device must be reset after the tow bar has been removed from the aircraft. Persons stationed in the aircraft
should not attempt to steer or turn the nose wheel when the tow bar is attached to the aircraft.
1-2(O). The person in charge should assign team personnel as wing walkers. A wing walker should be stationed at
each wingtip in such a position that he or she can ensure adequate clearance of any obstruction in the path
of the aircraft. A tail walker should be assigned when sharp turns are to be made, or when the aircraft is to be
backed into position. A qualified person should occupy the pilot’s seat of the towed aircraft to observe and
operate the brakes as required. When necessary, another qualified person is stationed to watch and maintain
aircraft hydraulic system pressure.
1-3(O). The towing speed of the aircraft should not exceed that of the walking team members.
1-4(O). Before the aircraft to be towed is moved, a qualified person must be in the cockpit to operate the brakes in case
the tow bar should fail or become unhooked. The aircraft can then be stopped, preventing possible damage.
When moving aircraft, do not start and stop suddenly. For added safety, aircraft brakes must never be applied
during towing except in emergencies, and then only upon command by one of the tow team members.
1-5(O). Prior to any movement of aircraft across runways or taxiways, contact the airport control tower on the
appropriate frequency for clearance to proceed.
1-6(O). Make sure no property damage or personal injury will occur from the propeller blast or jet exhaust. During any and
all starting procedures, a "fireguard" equipped with a suitable fire extinguisher shall be stationed in an appropriate
place. If the aircraft is turbine engine powered, the area in front of the jet inlet must be kept clear of personnel,
property, and/or debris (FOD). Follow manufacturer’s checklists for start procedures and shutdown procedures.
1-7(O). If the aircraft has no self-starter, the engine must be started by turning the propeller by hand (hand propping
the propeller). The person who is turning the propeller calls: "Fuel on, switch off, throttle closed, brakes on." The
person operating the engine will check these items and repeat the phrase. The switch and throttle must not be
touched again until the person swinging the prop calls "contact." The operator will repeat "contact" and then
turn on the switch. Never turn on the switch and then call "contact." A few simple precautions will help to avoid
accidents when hand propping the engine. While touching a propeller, always assume that the ignition is on. The
switches which control the magnetos operate on the principle of short- circuiting the current to turn the ignition
off. If the switch is faulty, it can be in the "off" position and still permit current to flow in the magneto primary
circuit. This condition could allow the engine to start when the switch is off. Be sure the ground is firm. Slippery
grass, mud, grease, or loose gravel can lead to a fall into or under the propeller. Never allow any portion of your
body to get in the way of the propeller. This applies even though the engine is not being cranked. Stand close
enough to the propeller to be able to step away as it is pulled down. Stepping away after cranking is a safeguard
in case the brakes fail. Do not stand in a position that requires leaning toward the propeller to reach it. This
throws the body off balance and could cause you to fall into the blades when the engine starts. In swinging the
prop, always move the blade downward by pushing with the palms of the hands. Do not grip the blade with the
fingers curled over the edge, since "kickback" may break them or draw your body in the blade path.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
1-8(O). As a general rule, only rated pilots and qualified airframe and powerplant technicians are authorized to start,
run up, and taxi aircraft.
1-9(O). Using standard taxi light signals.

[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 21, Figure 1-22]
1-10(O). False or hung starts occur when the engine starts normally, but the RPM remains at some low value rather
than increasing to the normal starting RPM. This is often the result of insufficient power to the starter, or the
starter cutting off before the engine starts self-accelerating. In this case, the engine should be shut down.
1-11(O). A hot start occurs when the engine starts, but the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. This is
usually caused by an excessively rich fuel/air mixture entering the combustion chamber. This condition can be
caused by either too much fuel or not enough airflow. The fuel to the engine should be shut off immediately.
1-12(O). Light signals are used if radio communications are unavailable to control and expedite the taxing of aircraft.
[Reference: AC65-9A, Page 520]
1-13(O). Standard aircraft taxiing signals published in the FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
1-14(O). If an engine fire develops during the starting procedure, continue cranking to start the engine and blow out
the fire. If the engine does not start and the fire continues to burn, discontinue the start attempt. The fireguard
should extinguish the fire using the available equipment. The fireguard must observe all safety practices at all
times while standing by during the starting procedure.
1-15(O). Fire, during engine starting. Turning propellers and rotor blades. Jet exhaust or propeller blast. Jet inlets
while engines are operating. Foreign object debris. Other aircraft, vehicles, personnel, and other obstacles.
Additional hazards include high noise levels, slips, trips, and falls.
1-16(O). Adding jet fuel to Avgas will cause a decrease in the power developed by the engine and could cause damage
to the engine through detonation and engine failure leading to loss of life.
1-17(O). Adding Avgas to jet fuel, although allowed, can cause lead deposits in the turbine engine and can lead to
reduced service life.
1-18(O). NOTE: Choose from the any of the following precautions.

Prior to fueling, the person fueling should check the following:
1. Ensure all aircraft electrical systems and electronic devices, including radar, are turned off.
2. Do not carry anything in the shirt pocket. These items could fall into the fuel tanks.
3. Ensure no flame-producing devices are carried by anyone engaged in the fueling operation. A moment of
carelessness could cause an accident.
4. Ensure the proper type and grade of fuel is used. Do not mix Avgas and JET fuel.
5. Ensure all the sumps have been drained.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
6. Wear eye protection. Although generally not as critical as eye protection, other forms of protection, such
as rubber gloves and aprons, can protect the skin from the effects of spilled or splashed fuel.
7. Do not fuel aircraft if there is danger of other aircraft in the vicinity blowing dirt in the direction of the
aircraft being fueled. Blown dirt, dust, or other contaminants can enter an open fuel tank, contaminating
the entire contents of the tank.
8. Do not fuel an aircraft when there is lightning within 5 miles.
9. Do not fuel an aircraft within 500 feet of operating ground radar.
10. When using mobile fueling equipment:
a. Approach the aircraft with caution, positioning the fuel truck so that if it is necessary to depart
quickly, no backing will be needed.
b. Set the hand brake of the fuel truck and chock the wheels to prevent rolling.
c. Ground the aircraft and then ground the truck. Next, ground or bond them together by running a
connecting wire between the aircraft and the fuel truck. This may be done by three separate ground
wires or by a "Y" cable from the fuel truck.
d. Ensure the ground cables are in contact with bare metal or are in the proper grounding points on the
aircraft. Do not use the engine exhaust or propeller as grounding points. Damage to the propeller can
result, and there is no way of quickly ensuring a positive bond between the engine and the airframe.
e. Ground the nozzle to the aircraft, then open the fuel tank.
f. Protect the wing and any other item on the aircraft from damage caused by spilled fuel or careless
handling of the nozzle, hose, or grounding wires.
g. Check the fuel cap for proper installation and security before leaving the aircraft.
h. Remove the grounding wires in the reverse order. If the aircraft is not going to be flown or moved
soon, the aircraft ground wire can be left attached. When fueling from pits or cabinets, follow the
same procedures as when using a truck. Pits or cabinets are usually designed with permanent
grounding, eliminating the need to ground the equipment. However, the aircraft still must be
grounded, and then the equipment must be grounded to the aircraft as it was with mobile equipment.
1-19(O). Before servicing any aircraft, consult the specific aircraft maintenance manual to determine the proper type
of servicing equipment to be used. Two personnel are required to service an aircraft with gaseous oxygen.
One person should be stationed at the control valves of the servicing equipment and one person stationed
where he or she can observe the pressure in the aircraft system. Communication between the two people
is required in case of an emergency. Aircraft should not be serviced with oxygen during fueling, defueling,
or other maintenance work, which could provide a source of ignition. Oxygen servicing of aircraft should be
accomplished outside hangars.
1-20(O). The two numbers indicate the lean mixture and rich mixture octane rating numbers of the specific fuel. In other
words, with 80/87 aviation gasoline, the 80 is the lean mixture rating and 87 is the rich mixture rating number.
1-21(O). Avgas can be identified by its color.

The color of the fuel should match the color band on piping and fueling equipment.
1-22(O). Kerosene
1-23(O). The types of contamination found in aviation fuel include water, solids, and microbial growths.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
1-24(O). The dissolved water is not a major problem until, as the temperature lowers, it becomes free water. This then
poses a problem if ice crystals form, clogging filters and other small orifices. Solid contaminants are insoluble
in fuel. The more common types are rust, dirt, sand, gasket material, lint, and fragments of shop towels. The
close tolerances of fuel controls and other fuel-related mechanisms can be damaged or blocked by particles
as small as one twentieth the diameter of a human hair. The effects of microorganisms are: 1) Formation of
slime or sludge that can foul filters, separators, or fuel controls, 2) Emulsification of the fuel and 3) Corrosive
compounds that can attack the fuel tank’s structure. In the case of a wet wing tank, the tank is made from the
aircraft’s structure. They can also have offensive odors.
1-25(O). Entrained water is suspended water droplets. These droplets may not be visible to the eye, but will give the
fuel a cloudy look. The entrained water will settle out in time.
1-26(O). Adding TEL to aviation fuel increases the critical pressure and temperature of a fuel. It also lubricates the
engine valves.
1-27(O). No. The lower grades of automobile fuel are not held within the tolerances required for aviation gasoline and
usually contain a conservable amount of cracked gasoline, which may form excessive gum deposits. For these
reasons, automobile fuels should not be used in aircraft engines, especially air-cooled engines operating at
cylinder temperatures.
NOTE: Some engines have been issued Supplemental Type Certificates that allow the engine to be modified to
use automotive gasoline. This modification will be noted in the aircraft documentation.
[Reference: AC65-9A, Page 74]
1-28(O). A, B, C, and D
1-29(O). Class A fires occur in ordinary combustible materials, such as wood, cloth, paper, upholstery materials, etc.
Class B fires occur in flammable petroleum products of other flammable or combustible liquids, greases,
solvents, paints, and so forth.
Class C fires occur involve energized electrical wiring and equipment.
Class D fires involve magnesium.
1-30(O). Most extinguishers have a pin to pull that will allow the handle to activate the agent. Stand back 8 feet and aim
at the base of the fire or flames. Squeeze the lever and sweep side to side until the fire is extinguished. A great
way to remember this is use the acronym PASS – PULL the pin, AIM the hose/nozzle at the base of the fire,
SQUEEZE the lever, and SWEEP the hose side to side.
1-31(O). Fire extinguishers are marked using the same classification system as fires. Use the corresponding class fire
extinguisher with the fire classification. A for A, B for B, C for C, and D for D. There are some fire extinguishers
that can be used on multiple fire classifications and these are marked accordingly.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 8-9, Figure 1-7]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
1-1(P). Given an aircraft or a landing gear mockup, service the tires per the maintenance manual.
1-2(P). Given an aircraft or a landing gear mockup, service the struts per the maintenance manual.
1-3(P). Given an aircraft or simulator, start, run-up, and shut down the aircraft or simulator.
NOTE: Always use the checklist. Aircraft used can be equipped with either a reciprocating or a turbine engine.
1-4(P). Demonstrate the proper hand signals used during aircraft ground operations.
NOTE: This can be accomplished in numerous ways. You may be asked to physically demonstrate various hand
signals as called out by the examiner, the examiner may demonstrate them and you must explain what is meant, or
you may be provided with pictures of the various hand and light signals and describe their meaning to the examiner.
1-5(P). Given the appropriate documentation, determine the approved engine oil(s) for a specific engine.
1-6(P). Given an aircraft, secure the aircraft for outside storage.

NOTE: Be prepared to tie-down various types of aircraft: tricycle, tail wheel, and/or helicopter.
1-7(P). Given an aircraft, fuel and/or defuel the aircraft, per the maintenance manual.
NOTE: This activity may be simulated.
1-8(P). Given an aircraft, sample the fuel, determining if the proper fuel is used, and whether contaminates have
entered the fuel system.
1-9(P). Given an aircraft, set-up and connect an aircraft to a ground power unit.
1-10(P). Given an aircraft, connect a tow bar and prepare the aircraft for towing.
1-11(P). Given the approved hand signals, direct the movement of an aircraft.
1-12(P). Given an aircraft for engine mockup, locate and clear a liquid lock in the aircraft engine.
1-13(P). Given fire extinguishers or pictures of fire extinguishers, identify the types/classes of fires each fire
extinguisher can be used for in a shop or on the flight line.

PAGE LEFT BLANK INTENTIONALLY

REGULATIONS, MAINTENANCE FORMS, CHAPTER
02
RECORDS, AND PUBLICATIONS
General Requirements, Checklists, Certifications, Civil Air Regulations, Suspected Unapproved
Parts, and other FAA Documents
QUESTIONS
2-1 AMG097 2-4 AMG097

What information is generally contained in Aircraft For which of the following are Type Certificate Data Sheets
Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets? issued for?
A. Empty weight of the aircraft 1. Engines
B. Useful load of aircraft 2. Propellers
C. Control surface movements 3. Alternators/Generators
4. Avionics Systems
A. Type Certificate Data sheets are issued for 2 of
these 4 products.
B. Type certificate data Sheets are issued for 3 of
these products.
C. Type Certificate Data Sheets are issued for all 4 of
these products.
2-2 AMG085 2-5 AMG066

If during a scheduled inspection, a defect is found which Which regulation provides the airworthiness standards from
makes the aircraft unairworthy; to whom must this defect an airplane certificated in the normal category?
be reported? A. 14 CFR Part 27
A. The aircraft owner B. 14 CFR Part 25
B. The aircraft owner and the FAA C. 14 CFR Part 23
C. The aircraft owner, the FAA and the
aircraft manufacturer.
2-3 AMG085 2-6 AMG077

Upon inspection of an aircraft, it appears to you that the Which of the following are included in the regulatory
registration number which is visible on the airframe may not definitions of "maintenance"?
be of legal size or placement. Which regulation section would A. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement preservation, and
you review to confirm this? preventive maintenance.
A. CFR Part 43 B. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, preservation,
B. CFR Part 45 inspection, and preventive maintenance
C. CFR Part 47 C. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, preservation, and
inspection

REGULATIONS, MAINTENANCE FORMS, RECORDS, & PUBLICATIONS
ANSWERS

Control surface movements are listed critical to flight and Type Certificate data sheets are issued for complete
therefore listed on the TCDS and Aircraft Specifications. The aircraft, engines, and propellers. Other items are considered
empty weight of the aircraft is not listed as this varies with components of the above and may be mentioned in a TCDS,
installed equipment and age. The useful load of the aircraft is but do not have one of their own.
also not listed as is dependent on the aircraft’s empty weight. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 33]
2-2 Answer A. 2-5 Answer C.

Should the inspector find the aircraft to be unairworthy 14 CFR Part 23 provides the airworthiness standards for
or it does not meet the applicable type certificate data, airplanes certificated in the normal category.
airworthiness directives, or other approved data upon which [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 5]
its airworthiness depends, he/she must give the owner or
lessee a signed and dated list of those discrepancies.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 8 and FAR 43.11]

CFR Part 45 details aircraft identification requirements Maintenance is defined as inspection, overhaul, repair,
including the proper size and placement of N numbers. preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes
CFR Part 43 details maintenance and preventative preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance has its own
maintenance techniques. CFR Part 47 details the definition and means simple or minor preservation operations
processes by which an aircraft is registered. and the replacement of small standard parts not involving
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 10] complex assembly operations.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 5, and FAR 1.1]

QUESTIONS
2-7 AMG051 2-10 AMG076

A Technical Standard Order (TSO) is issued by whom? For aircraft operated under part 91, what difference is
A. The aircraft industry there, if any, between the record entry requirements for
B. Part manufactures maintenance (e.g. repair or alteration) and the record entry
C. The FAA administrator requirements for inspections (beyond the description of the
work performed and the type and extent of inspection)?
A. There is no difference.
B. Aircraft total time is required to be included only in the
maintenance entry.
C. Aircraft total time is required to be included only in the
inspection entry.
2-8 AMG082 2-11 AMG076

Which regulatory document(s) describes the standard for For aircraft operated under Part 91, when is aircraft total time
maintaining civilian aircraft in the United States? required to be recorded in aircraft maintenance records?
A. FAR Part 21 A. After satisfactorily completing maintenance,
B. FAR Part 43 preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration
C. Manufacturer’s maintenance manuals along with FAA (except inspections).
Airworthiness Directives. B. After satisfactorily completing inspections.
C. After satisfactorily completing maintenance, preventive
maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration (including
inspections).
2-9 AMG070 2-12 AMG076

Each of the following must be displayed on a fireproof data According to regulations, what determines whether an
plate attached to all US aircraft except aircraft is considered "large" or "small"?
A. manufacturer’s name. A. Maximum certificated takeoff weight is above or below
B. aircraft serial number. 12,500 pounds.
C. owners contact information. B. Maximum certificated capacity is above or below 20
passengers.
C. Whether or not it is certified for commercial use.

ANSWERS

Technical Standard Orders (TSO) are issued and regulated For inspection entries, the aircraft total time is required to be
by the FAA. You will find information regarding TSOs in 14 included. It is not mandatory for a maintenance entry.
CFR Part 21.5, Subpart O. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 10 and FAR 43.9,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 5 and CFR 21.5] FAR 43.11]
2-8 Answer B. 2-11 Answer B.

14 CFR Part 43 Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Aircraft total time is only required when completing
Rebuilding, and Alteration provides the standard for maintenance entries after satisfactorily completion
maintaining civilian aircraft currently registered in the of inspections.
United States. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 10 and FAR 43.9,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 9] FAR 43.11]

Per 14 CFR Part 45 all type-certificated products must have The maximum certificated takeoff weight, either above or
specified information on a fireproof data plate or similar below 12,500 pounds, is used to determine if an aircraft is
approved fireproof method including both the manufacturer’s considered "large" or "small".
name and a serial number. The owner’s contact information [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 11 and
is NOT required. 14 CFR Part 119]
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 9 and
14 CFR Part 45]

QUESTIONS
2-13 AMG062 2-16 AMG022

For how long must a Part 145 repair station keep records of In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft maintenance
maintenance activity? records, what is it necessary to establish?
A. Until that aircraft’s next scheduled inspection A. Dates of all maintenance, preventive maintenance and
B. For a minimum of 2 years alterations.
C. For a minimum of 5 years B. Dates and/or times of all 100 hour, annual, or
progressive inspections.
C. Total time-in-service of the aircraft.
2-14 AMG064 2-17 AMG051

Which type of FAA designated inspector may conduct If a required repair to an aircraft does not have previously
maintenance or manufacturing inspections only at the place approved FAA data, how should the repair be approved?
of their regular employment? A. The repair may be approved by an A&P mechanic with
A. DER Inspection Authorization (IA) approval.
B. DAR B. The data may be acquired through an approved
C. DMIR document such as AC43.13 1B/2B.
C. An FAA field approval must be requested.
2-15 AMG082 2-18 AMG076

A certificated mechanic, without an inspection When work is performed on an aircraft that necessitates the
authorization, who signs the appropriate block on FAA use of FAA Form 337, who should prepare the form?
Form 337 is doing what? A. The person who performs or supervises the work.
A. Certifying that the work was done in accordance with B. The person who approves for return to service.
the requirements of 14 CFR part 43. C. Either the person who approves for return to service, or
B. Approving the work for return to service. aircraft owner or operator.
C. Stating that he/she is the person who has performed
the work.

ANSWERS

A Part 145 repair station must keep records of maintenance In order to re-construct lost or destroyed maintenance
activity for a minimum of 2 years. records, it is necessary to establish the total time-in-service
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 14] of the airframe. This can be done by reference to other
records that reflect the time-in-service; research of records
maintained by repair facilities; and reference to records
maintained by individual mechanics, etc. Current status of
applicable ADs must be established which may require a
detailed inspection.
[Ref: Advisory Circular 43.9C]

Designated Manufacturing Inspection Representatives If approved data is not available, an FAA field approval may
(DMIR) make conformity inspections only for their employer. be accomplished by completing FAA form 337 while leaving
They are similar to "designated repairmen" because they are block 3 empty for later approval. The FAA will then assign
only authorized to inspect parts at their employers’ facility. specialists to asses the repair prior to giving approval.

He/She is certifying the work was done in accordance with FAA Form 337 should be prepared by the person who
the requirements of 14 CFR Part 43. performs or supervises the work.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 16 and AC 43.9-1E] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 17 and AC 43.9-1E]

QUESTIONS
2-19 AMG076 2-22 AMG063

What is/are the appropriate action(s) concerning minor Which of the following are authorized to sign a return to
repairs performed on a certified aircraft? service document following maintenance on an aircraft?
1. FAA Form 337’s must be completed. 1. A certificated A&P mechanic.
2. Entries must be made in the aircraft’s 2. A holder of Inspection Authorization (IA) certificate.
maintenance record. 3. The aircraft manufacturer.
3. The owner of the aircraft must submit a record of all A. 1 of these 3 persons may sign a return to
minor repairs to the FAA at least annually. service certificate.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 of these 3 persons may sign a return to
B. 2 service certificate.
C. 2 and 3 C. All 3 of these persons may sign a return to
service certificate.
2-20 AMG086 2-23 AMG079

After an A&P rated mechanic completes a 100 hour Which of the below is an appliance major repair?
inspection, what is required before the aircraft is returned A. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump.
to service? B. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control.
A. A systems check of each observed component. C. Troubleshooting and repairing a broken circuit in the
B. An operational check of the engine. landing lights.
C. A flight test of the aircraft.
2-21 AMG085 2-24 AMG075

When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft owner or When a life limited part has been removed from an aircraft,
operator after an inspection is completed, it says in effect that? which of the following is acceptable?
A. The item inspected is unairworthy. A. The part may be inspected and returned to service if
B. Except for these discrepancies, the item inspected is it remains within tolerances.
airworthy. B. The part must be immediately destroyed.
C. The item inspected may or may not be airworthy C. The part must be marked as expired.
depending on the discrepancies found.

ANSWERS

Minor repairs that are completed only need to have the In addition to those listed in the question, an aircraft return
appropriate entries made in the aircraft’s maintenance records. to service document may also be signed by the holder
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 17 and FAR 43.11, of a repair station certificate, the holder of an air carrier
AC43.9C] certificate, a certificated private pilot, and in the case
of light sport aircraft (LSA) a person with a repairman
certificate and LSA maintenance rating.

According to CFR Part 43.15, before authorizing an aircraft’s Refer to FAR Part 43 Appendix A for a listing of all major
return to service following a 100 inspection, the mechanic repairs. If the repair is not listed, then it is considered a minor
must run the aircraft’s engine to determine satisfactory repair. You should study this Appendix and be familiar with
performance specifically noting proper power output, some of the more common major repair items.
magneto operation, fuel and oil pressure, and cylinder and oil [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 20 and FAR 43
temperature. An A&P mechanic is NOT authorized to perform Appendix A]
a flight test of the aircraft.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 18 and FAR 43.11]

When a mechanic has completed an inspection and found According to FAR section 43.10, any expired life limited part
discrepancies, he/she is to document the completion removed from an aircraft must be marked and segregated
of the inspection and note any discrepancies. Once the to insure it is not accidentally reinstalled in that or another
discrepancies are corrected, the item can be returned to aircraft. Recording, tagging, and/or marking the part in
service. No further inspection is required, nor does the numerous ways are acceptable methods. Destroying the
original inspector have to be notified. part is also acceptable but not required.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 18 and FAR 43.11] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 17]

QUESTIONS
2-25 AMG079 2-28 AMG074

Which of the following is an example of a major repair A 413 transponder inspection and test completed within the
performed on an airframe? past 24 months is required in order for the aircraft to operate
A. The upkeep and preservation of the airframe including its transponder _____________.
the components thereof. A. in controlled airspace
B. The restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe B. in IFR conditions and/or above 18,000’ MSL
operation after damage or deterioration. C. in any circumstance
C. Simple or minor preservation operations and the
replacement of small standard parts not involving
complex assembly operations.
2-26 AMG079 2-29 AMG079

The replacement of fabric on fabric-covered parts such During maintenance of a light aircraft, an A&P mechanic,
as wings, fuselages, stabilizers, or control surfaces is changes its tires, replaces the brake pad, bleeds the system,
considered to be a and installs wheel pants. How is this work recorded and the
A. Minor repair unless the new cover is different in any aircraft returned to service?
way from the original cover. A. An entry is made in the aircraft’s maintenance log.
B. Minor repair unless the underlying structure is altered B. A form 337 is submitted to FAA.
or repaired. C. A form 337 is placed in the aircraft’s maintenance log
C. Major repair even though no other alteration or repair but not reported to FAA.
is performed.
2-27 AMG079 2-30 AMG076

Which is classified as a major repair? After making a repair to an aircraft engine that is to be
A. Splicing of skin sheets. returned to service, an FAA Form 337 is prepared. How
B. Installation of new engine mounts obtained from the many copies are required and what is the disposition of the
aircraft manufacturer. completed forms?
C. Any repair of damaged stressed metal skin. A. Two; one copy for the owner and one copy for the FAA.
B. Two; one copy for the FAA and one copy for
the permanent records of the repairing agency
or individual.
C. Three; one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the
FAA, and one copy for the permanent records of the
repairing agency or individual.

ANSWERS

Refer to FAR Part 43 Appendix A for a listing of all major According to CFR 91.413, a transponder may not be used
repairs. If the repair is not listed, then it is considered a minor (turned on) in any situation unless it has been tested by an
repair. You should study this Appendix and be familiar with authorized testing facility and found within compliance within
some of the more common major repair items. the previous 24 months. A similar altimeter test is required
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 20 and FAR Part 43 only if operating in controlled airspace.
Appendix A] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 21, 23]

Refer to FAR Part 43 Appendix A for a listing of all major Because wheel pants were installed, a change in weight and
repairs. If the repair is not listed, then it is considered a minor balance has occurred, as well as a change in performance.
repair. You should study this Appendix and be familiar with Thus a form 337 must be submitted to FAA. Had only the tire
some of the more common major repair items. and brake maintenance occurred, a simple notation in the log
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 20 and FAR Part 43 book would have sufficed.
Appendix A] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 16, 20]

Refer to FAR Part 43 Appendix A for a listing of all major FAA Form 337 must be in duplicate, at a minimum. Although
repairs. If the repair is not listed, then it is considered a minor keeping a copy of the work you have performed, either as an
repair. You should study this Appendix and be familiar with individual or for your repair agency, is not uncommon.
some of the more common major repair items. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 21 and FAR Part
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 20 and FAR Part 43 43.9 Appendix B]
Appendix A]

QUESTIONS
2-31 AMG076 2-34 AMG068

Which minimum license is required to perform a 100 hour How often must an altimeter static system or altitude encoding
inspection and authorize that aircraft for return to service? transponder be inspected by a properly rated inspector?
A. An Airframe and Powerplant (A&P) license. 1. Every 24 months.
B. An A&P license with Inspection Authorization (IA). 2. Anytime the static system is opened and closed.
C. A repairman’s certificate. 3. As part of every annual, or 100 hour inspection.
A. All of the above
B. 1 & 2 above
C. 2 & 3 above
2-32 AMG076 2-35 AMG076

A regular 100 hour inspection is performed on an aircraft For aircraft operated under Part 91, which of the following
which is partially used for hire and on which the hobbs meter records must be retained and transferred with the aircraft
(time in use) reads 1,407 hours. When is the next 100 hour when it is sold?
inspection due? A. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive
A. 1,507 hours. maintenance, 100 hour, annual, and progressive
B. 1,500 hours. inspections.
C. At the next 100 hours of commercial use. B. Records of inspections performed in accordance with
14 CFR part 43, Appendix D.
C. Records of the current status of applicable ADs, and
date and time when recurring ADs are next due.
2-33 AMG076 2-36 AMG062

What is the regulatory definition of "preventive maintenance"? How long are AD compliance records to be kept?
A. Simple or minor preservation operations and the A. Until the work is repeated or superseded by other work.
replacement of small standard parts not involving B. For one year after the work is performed, or until the
complex assembly operations. work is superseded.
B. All preservation operations and the replacement C. They shall be retained and transferred with the aircraft
of standard parts, including any required when it is sold.
assembly operations.
C. All preservation operations and the replacement
of standard parts not involving complex
assembly operations.

ANSWERS

The difference between 100 hour and annual inspections is Per the FAR, the altimeter system and altitude recording
that an annual inspection must be performed by a person equipment must be tested every 24 months and, except for
with an Inspection Authorization while a 100 hour inspection the use of system drain and alternate static pressure valves,
requires only an A&P license. following any opening and closing of the static pressure
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 21, and 14 CFR system. The system should be tested and inspected and
Section 65.95] found to comply with paragraph (a), appendix E, of part 43 of
this chapter.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 23, and FAR
Part 91.411]

An aircraft subject to 100 hour inspections may exceed the 100 Although A and B seem logical as correct answers, only
hour increments by up to 10 hours, but only for the purpose of C is correct as specified in FAR 91.419. Additional records
ferrying that aircraft to the location where the inspection will be are also required to be transferred but not as stated in the
performed. But in either case, the time of that excess use will other answers.
be subtracted from the time allowed before the next inspection. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 24, and FAR
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 22] Part 91.419]

Preventative maintenance is defined as the "simple or The registered owner shall maintain the current status
minor preservation operations and the replacement of small of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) and safety
standard parts not involving complex assembly operations." directives including the method of compliance, the AD
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 22, and FAR Part 1] or safety directive number and revision date. If the AD or
safety directive involves recurring action, the time and date
when the next action is required, and shall be retained and
transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 24, and FAR
Part 91.417]

QUESTIONS
2-37 AMG075 2-40 AMG062

When inspecting an aircraft you suspect an unapproved part If an airworthiness directive is issued without an NPRM,
has been installed at a prior time, you should typically when is compliance required?
A. Remove the part and report to FAA Surveillance and A. At the time of the next scheduled inspection.
Analysis division. B. Within 30 days of its issuance.
B. Contact your supervisor. C. Prior to the next flight.
C. Note your finding in the aircraft maintenance log. If it
appears faulty, replace it.
2-38 AMG062 2-41 AMG062

Civil Aviation Regulations (CARs) are referred to when? Airworthiness Directives are issued primarily to?
A. Inspecting or repairing aerobatic aircraft. A. Provide information about malfunction or defect trends.
B. Inspecting or repairing aircraft certified outside the US. B. Present recommended maintenance procedures for
C. Inspecting or repairing aircraft which entered service correcting potentially hazardous defects.
prior to the 1960s. C. Correct an unsafe condition
2-39 AMG051 2-42 AMG062

Which of these publications contains standards for protrusion When is a mechanic responsible for checking AD compliance?
of bolts, studs, and screws through self-locking nuts? A. Never; the owner or operator is solely responsible.
A. AC 43.13-2B B. When performing an inspection required under part 91,
B. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets 125, or 135.
C. AC 43.13-1B C. Anytime an aircraft or a critical part is returned to
service.

ANSWERS

If either the physical part or the paperwork associated Typically an NPRM (Notice of Proposed Rule Making) is
with the part is questionable, it is best to contact the shop issued 60 days prior to the actual issuance of the AD.
foreman, shift supervisor, or the assigned quality individual However in the case of a critical safety issue, an emergency
to discuss your concerns. Suspected unapproved parts AD may be issued without the prior NPRM. In this case,
(SUPs) should be segregated and quarantined until proper all corrective actions required by the AD are critical and
disposition can be determined. Contacting the manufacturer typically must be performed immediately.
of the product is a good way to start gathering the facts [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 27]
concerning the product in question.

The CARs were a part of the original certification basis Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are issued to provide
through the 1960s and are still used as a reference regarding guidance on correcting unsafe conditions.
aircraft which were first certified before those dates. Later [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 30]
aircraft are certified under regulation 14 CFR Part 25.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 27, and AC 43.9-1E]

Advisory Circular 43.13-1B contains this information. AC Whenever performing an inspection required under part
43.13-2B contains information on aircraft alterations. 91, 125, or 135, the mechanic must perform a check for
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 27, and AC 43.13‑1B] compliance with all applicable ADs.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 30, and AC39-7C]

QUESTIONS
2-43 AMG051 2-46 AMG089

In order to replace a critical component of an older aircraft What FAA-approved document gives the leveling means to
with a modern component of superior quality, which is the be used when weighing an aircraft?
minimum required? A. Type Certificate Data Sheet
A. Documentation of the superior quality. B. AC43.13-1B
B. A supplemental type certificate. C. Manufacturer’s maintenance manual
C. Approval of an A&P with Inspection Authorization.
2-44 AMG062 2-47 AMG097

An aircraft has a total time in service of 468 hours. An Regarding the statements below:
airworthiness directive requiring 200 hour recurring 1. A Supplemental Type Certificate may be issued to
inspections was initially complied with at 454 hours in more than one applicant for the same design change,
service. How many additional hours in service may be providing each applicant shows compliance with the
accumulated before the airworthiness directive must again applicable airworthiness requirement.
be complied with? 2. An installation of an item manufactured in accordance
A. 46 with the Technical Standard Order system requires no
B. 132 further approval for installation in a particular aircraft.
C. 186 A. Both 1 and 2 are true
B. Neither 1 nor 2 is true
C. Only 1 is true
2-45 AMG051 2-48 AMG051

Regarding the statements below: Aviation Maintenance Alerts (formerly General Aviation
1. Manufacturer’s data and FAA publications such as Airworthiness Alerts) do what?
Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, A. Provide mandatory procedures to prevent or correct
and Advisory Circulars are all approved data. serious aircraft problems.
2. FAA publications such as Technical Standard Orders, B. Provide information about aircraft problems and
Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data suggested corrective actions.
Sheets, Aircraft Specifications and Supplemental Type C. Provide temporary emergency procedures until
Certificates are all approved data. Airworthiness Directives can be issued.
A. Both 1 and 2 are true
B. Only 1 is true
C. Only 2 is true

ANSWERS

A Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) is issued by the FAA The Type Certificate Data Sheet provides information on the
to approve a product modification of the airframe, engine, leveling means to be used when weighting an aircraft.
or propeller and serves as an acceptable change to the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 30, and Chapter 12
aircraft’s original type certificate. Page 31-35]

The AD was complied with at 454 hours total time. It has Number 1 is true. Number 2 is not true, as the installation of
accumulated 14 hours since the last inspection. Subtract a TSO item requires approval.
14 from the 200 hour inspection interval, which leaves an [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 30, and Chapter 12
additional 186 hours before the next inspection is due. Page 31, and FAR 21.115]

Although ADs provide guidance for the correction of unsafe These alerts provide information about aircraft problems and
conditions, they are not considered approved data to suggested corrective actions.
actually comply with the maintenance. They usually refer you [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 31, and AC 43.16]
to other approved data sources for the actual completion of
the maintenance.

QUESTIONS
2-49 AMG097 2-52 AMG063

A Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) specifies? Regarding the statements below:
A. The make and model engine allowed. 1. The FARs require approval after compliance with the
B. The minimum and maximum horsepower and weight of data of a Supplemental Type Certificate.
an allowed engine. 2. An installation of an item manufactured in accordance
C. Airworthiness directives effecting the engine. with the Technical Standard Order system requires no
further approval for installation in a particular aircraft.
A. Only 2 is true
B. Neither 1 nor 2 are true
C. Only 1 is true
2-50 AMG075 2-53 AMG026

Where would you find information regarding the overhaul The Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Specification
schedule for a propeller? No. 100 does what?
A. Type certificate data sheet. 1. Establishes a standard for the presentation of technical
B. Manufacturer’s service bulletin. data in maintenance manuals.
C. Manufacturer’s maintenance manual. 2. Divides the aircraft into numbered systems
and subsystems in order to simplify locating
maintenance instructions.
Regarding the above statements:

A. Both 1 and 2 are true.
B. Neither 1 nor 2 are true.
C. Only 1 is true.
2-51 AMG072 2-54 AMG025

Placards required on an aircraft are specified in _____________. In which of the following cases would a Special
A. AC 43.13-1B. Airworthiness certificate be issued, rather than a
B. FAR’s under which the aircraft was type certificated. Standard Certificate?
C. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets. A. For transport category aircraft.
B. For acrobatic aircraft.
C. For Light Sport Aircraft (LSA) category airplanes.

ANSWERS

The type certificate data sheet describes the specifications Only 1 is true.
of the aircraft as it was designed and constructed by its The installation of a TSO item requires approval.
manufacturer for which a type certificate is given. As a [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 31, and FAR Part 21
particular engine is specified by the manufacturer, details Subpart E]
of an alternative engine is not relevant. As airworthiness
directives would be created after the manufacture of the
aircraft, they would be found as issued in the Federal
Register, or a regulatory guidance library.

Inspections and maintenance schedules, as well as the Both 1 and 2 are true. You will want to note ATA Specification
required techniques are published in the manufacturer’s 100 has been superseded by ATA iSpec 2200 and is
maintenance manual. The TCDS will only identify the now a global aviation industry standard for the content,
component required, Service bulletins will advise on newly structure, and electronic exchange of aircraft engineering,
recommended procedures to perform the specific task. maintenance, and flight operations information.

This question is referring to a specific aircraft and its Standard Airworthiness Certificates are available in the
required placard information will be found in the Aircraft following categories: Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, Commuter,
Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets. Transport, and Manned Balloon. In all other cases (notably
here LSA aircraft) a Special certificate is authorized.
Note: These requirements are derived from the FAR that the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 39]
aircraft was type certificated under.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 5, Chapter 12 Page
33]

QUESTIONS
2-55 AMG076 2-58 AMG059

Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA Form 337? Where do you record the compliance of an Airworthiness
A. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with both U.S. and Directives or manufacturers’ service bulletin?
foreign registered aircraft. A. FAA Form 337
B. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with U.S. registered B. Aircraft Maintenance Records
aircraft, and foreign registered aircraft when located in C. Flight Manual
the United States.
C. FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with other than
U.S. registered aircraft.
2-56 AMG076 2-59 AMG059

Where should you find this entry? Which statement is true regarding the requirements for
"Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin from maintenance record format?
outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches from tip in A. Any format that provides record continuity and includes
accordance with Figure 8 in the manufacturer’s structural the required information may be used.
repair manual No. 28-1." B. The format provided by the manufacturer of the aircraft
A. Engine Maintenance Record must be retained.
B. Aircraft Minor Repair and Alteration Record C. Any desired change from the manufacturer provided
C. FAA Form 337 format requires approval from the Federal Aviation
Administration.
2-57 AMG076 2-60 AMG076

If more space is needed for a work description entered on FAA For how long must records of required scheduled
Form 337, what information should be included on the attached inspections performed on an aircraft be kept?
sheet(s), in addition to the rest of the work description? A. For 1 year.
A. Make, model, and serial number of the aircraft, B. For 5 years.
B. Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and the date C. Permanently.
the work was accomplished.
C. Name, date, and office designator of the FAA inspector
from the supervising district office.

ANSWERS

FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with aircraft not Record the compliance to an AD and service bulletins in the
registered in the United States. aircraft maintenance records.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 40, and FAR Part [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 43]
43.9 and AC 43.9-1F]

This is an example of a maintenance record entry. However, Maintenance records can be of any format that provides for
you would not put it in the engine maintenance record record continuity and includes the required information.
(log), and there is no such document "aircraft minor repair [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 43, FAR 43.9, and
and alteration record", therefore FAA Form 337 is the most AC 61-23C]
correct answer.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 40-41, and FAR 43
Appendix A&B]

Attach sheets showing the aircraft nationality, registration Records of regularly scheduled inspection such as 100 hour
mark, and the date the work was completed. All attachments or annual inspections must be kept until the next scheduled
to item 8 must be submitted on 8 1⁄2- by 11-inch paper to inspection is performed. As all aircraft must undergo at
allow for proper processing into the aircraft historical record least an annual inspection, those records must be kept for a
at the aircraft registry. minimum of 1 year.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 40-41, and AC [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 44]
43.9-1F]

QUESTIONS
2-61 AMG086 2-63 AMG076

Where would one find information related to the current In order to conduct line maintenance on a Light Sport
status of life limited parts on an aircraft? Aircraft (LSA) such as replacing a fuel pump, the technician
A. The aircraft’s temporary records. must hold the minimum rating of _____________.
B. The aircraft’s permanent record. A. A&P.
C. The form 337 submitted when that part was installed. B. LSA repairman –maintenance.
C. LSA repairman – inspection.
2-62 AMG062 2-64 AMG079

In which manner must permanent records of an aircraft What constitutes a major repair on a Light Sport
be kept? Aircraft (LSA)?
A. Permanent records must be preserved in writing as a A. Any procedure which alters the weight and balance or
physical document. operational characteristics of the aircraft, powerplant
B. Permanent records may be preserved in either or propeller.
electronic or physical format. B. Any procedure involving structural aspects of
C. Permanent records must be preserved as stated by the the aircraft.
local FSDO office. C. Any procedure for which instructions are not included
in the maintenance manual.

ANSWERS

Per CFR 43.9, permanent records of an aircraft includes total An A&P certificate is not required to work on a light sport
time in service, time since last overhaul, current inspection aircraft. Instead, the ratings for LSA are repairman-inspection
status, status of applicable ADs, and the status of life limited and repairman-maintenance. The repairman-inspection
parts, and major alteration forms. rating allows the holder to perform any procedure consider
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 44] a minor repair, whereas the instructions to perform that
procedure are given in the aircraft maintenance manual.

Permanent records may be kept in the manner chosen, For Light Sport Aircraft, a minor repair or alterations are
typically by the Part 145 maintenance organization, so considered any procedure in which the instructions to carry
long as they remain in fact permanent and accessible on out the work are included in the aircraft maintenance manual.
demand. These choices include on paper, electronically Any other maintenance or alteration in which the process
within the repair station’s own servers, or through a number must be determined by other sources or by the technician’s
of commercial agencies who provide this service. personal knowledge is considered a major repairs.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
2-1(O). How is a major structural repair documented?
2-2(O). Where can a mechanic find a listing of items considered to be a major airframe repair?
2-3(O). What information is required to be entered into the maintenance record upon completion of maintenance or
alteration and approving for return to service?
2-4(O). Upon completion of a 100 hour inspection, what is required of the mechanic holding an airframe and
powerplant rating?
2-5(O). Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or
progressive inspection?
2-6(O). If defects are found during an annual inspection, what is required of the inspector?
2-7(O). Can an owner fly an aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection to another
maintenance base for the completion of the repairs? Explain your answer.
2-8(O). Can an aircraft fly with inoperative instruments or equipment?
2-9(O). Define "overhaul" as it relates to aviation maintenance.
2-10(O). Define "rebuilt" as it relates to aviation maintenance.
2-11(O). Explain the phrase "time in service" as it relates to aviation maintenance.
2-12(O). Define "maintenance" as it relates to aviation.
2-13(O). Define "preventive maintenance".
2-14(O). Define a major alteration
2-15(O). Define a major repair.
2-16(O). Provide at least three examples of what information can be found in a Type Certificate Data Sheet?
2-17(O). Where would a mechanic find information on how to level an aircraft?
2-18(O). Who is responsible for determining materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are of the proper type
and conform to the appropriate standards?
2-19(O). Where can you find a checklist to complete a 100 hour or annual inspection?
2-20(O). What is required of the person performing work to comply with an Airworthiness Directive?
2-21(O). What is the purpose of Airworthiness Directives?
2-22(O). When is a mechanic responsible for checking AD compliance?
2-23(O). Name the three categories of airworthiness directives and explain each category.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
2-24(O). In what formats can individuals receive Airworthiness Directives?
2-25(O). How are Airworthiness Directives identified?
2-26(O). Aviation Maintenance Alerts (formerly General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts) provide what types of information?
2-27(O). The Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Specification No. 100 was established for what reason?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
2-1(O). Major repairs are documented on FAA Form 337. Upon completion of the repair and Form 337, an entry is
made in the maintenance records referencing the Form 337 by its date.
[Reference: FAR 43.9, AC 43.9-1F]
2-2(O). FAR 43 Appendix A provides a list of items that are considered major repairs.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 20, and FAR 43 Appendix A]
2-3(O). A maintenance record must include the following information: a description (or reference to acceptable
data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else),
signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held.
2-4(O). Make the proper entries in the aircraft’s maintenance record.

2-5(O). The person approving or disapproving the item for return to service must document the completion of the
inspection and note any discrepancies in the maintenance record.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 43, Chapter 13 Page 4, and FAR 43.11]
2-6(O). The inspector must make a maintenance entry for the completion of the inspection, noting the discrepancies
and give the owner or lessee a signed and dated list of those discrepancies.
2-7(O). Yes, however the owner must obtain a special flight permit from the FAA to be authorized to ferry the aircraft
to another maintenance base.
2-8(O). Yes, under FAR 91.213 an aircraft can fly with inoperative instruments or equipment if it meets this regulation
in regards to a minimum equipment list and has the approved documentation/authorization.
2-9(O). An article is considered overhauled when it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected, repaired as
necessary, reassembled, and tested per approved standards and technical data.
[Reference: FAR 43.2]
2-10(O). An article is considered rebuilt when it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected, repaired as necessary,
reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item and conforms to the new part
tolerances and limits or to approved oversized or undersized dimensions.
2-11(O). Time in service, with respect to maintenance time records, means the time from the moment an aircraft leaves
the surface of the earth until it touches it at the next point of landing.
2-12(O). Inspection, overhaul, repair, preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes preventive maintenance.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
2-13(O). Preventative maintenance is defined as the "simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of
small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations."
2-14(O). A major alteration is an alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications and
might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight
characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness, is not done according to accepted practices or
cannot be done by elementary operations.
2-15(O). A major repair is defined as a repair that, if improperly done, might appreciably affect weight, balance,
structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting
airworthiness, or if not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations.
2-16(O). Model designation of all approved engine types; minimum fuel grade; maximum continuous and takeoff ratings;
name of manufacturer and model of approved propellers and their limits and operating restrictions; airspeed
limits; center of gravity range; empty weight center of gravity; location of the datum; means for leveling the
aircraft; pertinent maximum weights; number of seats and moment arms; oil and fuel capacity; control surface
movements; required equipment; additional or special equipment; and required placard information.
2-17(O). In the Type Certificate Data Sheet.

2-18(O). It is the responsibility of the installing person or agency.

2-19(O). Appendix D of FAR 43.

2-20(O). Make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment.

2-21(O). Airworthiness Directives are FAA publications that notify aircraft owners and other interested persons of
unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be operated.
2-22(O). When performing an inspection required under part 91, 125, or 135.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 30, and AC 39-7D]
2-23(O). Airworthiness directives can be issued in three ways: Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) followed by
a final rule, Final Rule Request for Comment or Immediately Adopted Rule, and Emergency ADs. NPRMs
allow for a comment period by the public prior to being adopted as a final rule. Immediately Adopted ADs are
of a higher priority and are adopted immediately, but do allow for comments by the public. Emergency ADs
are those situations where safety is critical and are issued to aircraft owners/operators without first being
published in the Federal Register. Emergency ADs are published in the next update up the Federal Register.
[Reference: AC 39-7D]

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
2-24(O). ADs can be retrieved from the government website: FAA.gov. Emergency ADs are mailed and/or faxed to
owners/operators.
[Reference: AC39-7D]
2-25(O). ADs have a three-part number designator. The first part is the calendar year of issuance; the second part
is the biweekly period of the year when the number is assigned; and the third part is the sequential release
number within each biweekly period.
2-26(O). These alerts provide information about aircraft problems and suggested corrective actions.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 31, and AC43.16]
2-27(O). ATA Spec 100, also referred to as ATA codes, provides a standard for the presentation of technical data in
maintenance manuals by dividing aircraft systems in to various chapters.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
2-1(P). Given the required information and a sample maintenance logbook, record the maintenance entry for the
completion of a minor repair.
completion of a minor alteration.
completion of a preventative maintenance task.
completion of a maintenance task for compliance with an Airworthiness Directive.
completion of a 100 hour inspection with disapproval for return to service due to needed maintenance or
noncompliance with applicable specifications or airworthiness directive(s).
completion of a 100 hour inspection with approval for return to service. Include a list of two allowable
inoperative instruments and/or equipment in accordance with the provision of 14 CFR part 91.
2-7(P). Given the required information, a sample maintenance logbook, and FAA Form 337, Major Repair and Major
Alteration, document the performance of a major repair and make the appropriate corresponding aircraft
maintenance record entry. (Level 3)
2-8(P). Given the required information, a sample maintenance logbook, and FAA Form 337, Major Repair
and Major Alteration, document the installation of additional equipment and make the appropriate
maintenance record entry.
2-9(P). Given the required information, a sample maintenance logbook, and FAA Form 337, Major Repair and Major
Alteration, document an alteration in accordance with a supplemental type certificate (STC) and make the
appropriate maintenance record entry.
2-10(P). Given the required information, complete FAA Form 8010-4, Malfunction or Defect Report.
2-11(P). Given a manufacturer’s maintenance manual, answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*
2-12(P). Given a manufacturer’s illustrated parts manual, answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*
2-13(P). Given a specific make, model, and serial number of an aircraft, locate and list all applicable ADs.
2-14(P). Given a specific make, model, and serial number of an engine, locate and list all applicable ADs.
2-15(P). Given a specific make, model, and serial number of a propeller, locate and list all applicable ADs.
2-16(P). Given a specific make, model, and serial number of an appliance, locate and list all applicable ADs.
2-17(P). Given a specific make, model, and serial number of an aircraft, determine if a specified AD is required for the
aircraft. Be prepared to answer questions about the AD and explain your answers/decisions.
2-18(P). Given a service bulletin, answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
2-19(P). Given an overhaul manual, answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*
2-20(P). Given a structural repair manual, answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*
2-21(P). Given the instructions for continued airworthiness, answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*
2-22(P). Given access to 14 CFR, locate and interpret specific regulations by applying the information to an assigned
task or answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*
2-23(P). Given the Aircraft Specifications or TCDS for a specific aircraft, apply the information provided to a
maintenance task and/or answer specific questions as determined by the examiner.*
Note: These questions may be written or verbal. Also, these skills are required for all maintenance tasks you are asked to
complete during your exam and therefore can be tested as part of another practical application project.


MATHEMATICS IN AVIATION MAINTENANCE CHAPTER
Fractions, Mixed Numbers, the Decimal System, Proportion, Ratio, Percentage, Powers,
Scientific Notation, Algebra, Volume and Area
03
QUESTIONS
3-1 AMG053 3-4 AMG053

When working with fractions, the common denominator can An aircraft bolt has an overall length of 1-1/2 inches, a shank
be found by multiplying all of the denominators together. length of 1-3/16 inches, and a threaded portion length of 5/8
A. True inch. What is the grip length?
B. False A. 0.3125 inch
C. Cannot be determined B. 0.5625 inch
C. 0.8750 inch
3-2 AMG053 3-5 AMG053

When dividing fractions, it is best to invert the second Select the fractional equivalent for a 0.0625 inch thick sheet
fraction and multiply the resulting numbers. of aluminum.
A. True A. 1/16
B. False B. 11/32
C. Cannot be determined C. 3/64
3-3 AMG053 3-6 AMG053

Which decimal is most nearly equal to a bend radius of A blueprint shows a hole of 0.17187 to be drilled. Which
31/64? fraction size drill bit is most nearly equal?
A. 0.2065B A. 9/32
B. 0.3164 B. 11/32
C. 0.4844 C. 11/64

MATHEMATICS IN AVIATION MAINTENANCE
ANSWERS

Mathematical principle states that when adding and This question provides you more information than needed.
subtracting fractions the fractions must have a common The overall length of the bolt is not important to determine
denominator. A simple way to find the common denominator the grip length. To find the grip length subtract the length of
is to multiply all the denominators together. Note, however, the threaded portion from the length of the shank.
that this number will not always be the Least Common Grip length = shank - threaded portion
Denominator (LCD) but can be used to continue the Shank = 1-3/16 = 19/16 or 1.1875
calculations. When the final fraction is determined, it may Threaded portion = 5/8 = 10/16 or .625
have to be reduced to its lowest terms and/or corrected so it Grip length = 1.1875 – .625
is not an improper fraction. Grip length = .5625
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 3] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 4-8]

Mathematical principle states that to divide fractions, invert To convert a decimal number to a fraction "read" the
the second fraction and then multiply the first fraction by the fraction, this is six hundred twenty-five ten thousandths. As a
new inverted second fraction. fraction, it is written as 625/10,000. Find the lowest common
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 4] denominator, which happens to be 625, reducing the fraction
to 1/16.

This question is asking you to convert a fraction to a decimal. To convert a decimal number to a fraction "read" the fraction,
To convert fractions to a decimal divide the numerator by the this is seventeen thousand one hundred eighty‑seven
denominator. The context in which the work is being done hundred thousandths. As a fraction, this is written as
will determine how accurate (how many decimal places) 17,187/100,000. However, this fraction cannot be reduced
the answer will need to be. Usually this will be to the ten any lower. How do we determine which drill bit to use, since
thousandths (four decimal places) and round up if the fifth this obviously is not an option? In this question, divide each
decimal place is a five or higher, unless otherwise noted. answer to turn the fractions into decimals: 9/32 = 0.28125,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 8] 11/32 = 0.34375 and 11/64 = 0.171875; 11/64th is the closest
drill bit size without over-sizing the hole.

QUESTIONS
3-7 AMG053 3-10 AMG053

An airplane flying a distance of 750 miles used 60 gallons of What is the speed ratio of an input gear with 36 teeth
gasoline. How many gallons will it need to travel 2,500 miles? meshed to a gear with 20 teeth?
A. 200 A. 9:5
B. 325 B. 1:0.56
C. 180 C. 1:1.8
3-8 AMG053 3-11 AMG053

What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200 gallons to one A pinion gear with 14 teeth is driving a spur gear with 42
of 1,680 pounds? teeth at 140 RPM. Determine the speed of the pinion gear.
A. 2:3 A. 10 RPM
B. 5:7 B. 420 RPM
C. 5:42 C. 47 RPM
3-9 AMG053 3-12 AMG053

What is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth driven by a What is the definition of proportion?
pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420 RPM? A. A statement of equality between two or more ratios.
A. 588 RPM B. A statement of inequity between two or more ratios.
B. 160 RPM C. All ratios are proportionate.
C. 140 RPM

ANSWERS

This is a proportion question. A proportion is a statement of The ratio of the input (driving) gear to the driven gear is 36:20
equality between two or more rations. Here the ratio is miles/ or simplified to 9:5. The speed ratio is the inverse of this; 9
gallon. Based on the questions a distance of 750 miles can divided by 5 = 1.8.
be flown using 60 gallons. What the pilot needs to know [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 10]
is how many gallons will need to fly 2,500 miles. Put the
quantities into the appropriate ratio (miles/gallon), then cross
multiply, then divide and solve for the unknown.
750 miles × 2,500 miles
60 gallons: # of gallons
60 × 2,500 = 150,000
150,000 / 750 = 200

A ratio is a comparison of two numbers or quantities. First, The ratio of the two gears is 14:42, which can be simplified to
you must use the same measurement to compare the two, 1:3, the spur gear turns 3 times for every time the driven gear
either gallons or pounds. The standard weight for aviation turns once. "140 RPM of the spur gear then results in 420
gasoline is 6.0 lb./gal. 200 gallons weighs 1,200 pounds. RPM for the pinion gear (140 × 3 = 420)".
Now you can write this as a ratio of 1,200/1,680. Like [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 10]
fractions, ratios need to be expressed in the lowest terms.
There are two ways to get to the answer. The mathematical
way is to reduce the ratio to its lowest terms.
1200/1680 / 10/10 = 120/168 / 6/6 = 20/28 / 4/4 = 5/7
Or the test taking way, turn everything into a decimal and

compare the values:
1200/1680 = .7142
2/3 = .6667
5/7 = .7142
5/42 = .1190
NOTE: Remember, when working in the real world you

are not going to be given options for your answers so you
must know how to calculate them the mathematical way,
but understanding how numbers work can give you the
advantage during testing.

The ratio of the two gears is 42:14 or simplified to 3:1. Since A proportion is a statement of equality between two or more
the driving gear (pinion gear) is smaller than the gear it is ratios. For example, A is to B as C is to D can be represented
turning (spur gear), the speed of the spur gear must also as A:B = C:D or A/B = C/D.
be less. Thus to find the speed of the spur gear, divide the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 10]
pinion gear speed by 3.420 divided by 3 = 140

QUESTIONS
3-13 AMG053 3-16 AMG053

A pilot flies .81 of the way to her destination before she stops An engine of 98 horsepower maximum is running at 75
and refuels. How much is left of her trip? percent power. What is the horsepower being developed?
A. Cannot be determined A. 87.00
B. 19 miles B. 33.30
C. 19% C. 73.50
3-14 AMG053 3-17 AMG053

An airplane is flying at 22,000 feet above sea level. The If an engine is turning 1,965 RPM at 65 percent power, what
current temperature at sea level is -4° and the temperature is its maximum RPM?
at 22,000 feet above sea level is 25° cooler. If the ratio A. 2,653
of temperature change remains constant as altitude is B. 3,023
increased, what is the temperature at 30,000 feet? C. 3,242
A. -21°
B. -29°
C. -38°
3-15 AMG053 3-18 AMG053

The battery of an unmanned aircraft is 21% discharged. Maximum life for a certain part is 1,100 hours. Recently, 15
The capacity of the battery is 2,400 amps. How many amps of these parts were removed from different aircraft with an
remain in the battery? average life of 835.3 hours. What percent of the maximum
A. 1,896 amps part life has been achieved?
B. 189.6 amps A. 75.9 percent
C. 504 amps B. 76.9 percent
C. 75.0 percent

ANSWERS

This is a percentage question. 0.81 is equivalent to 81%. Multiply the maximum horsepower by 75% to get
Subtracting 81% from 100% equals 19%. Read the whole horsepower being developed (98 × .75 = 73.5).
question and all the answers. Although percentages are [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 11]
defined as "parts of one-hundred", 19% of 1,200-mile trip is
228 miles.

Take the 25° C difference in temperature and divide it by In this equation, we need to calculate the maximum RPM.
22,000 (25/22000= .0011364), which gives us the degree Use the following equation to calculate maximum RPM:
change per foot. Now we know we are increasing by 8,000 Max RPM × .65 = 1965
ft. .0011364 × 8000 = 9.09°. The best answer is C -38°. If Max RPM = 1965/.65 = 3023
the temperature change between 0 and 22,000 feet is 25°, [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 11]
dividing 25,000 by 22,000 tells you that for each 1,000 feet
of altitude gained, the temperature decreases 1.136°. 1.136
× 30 (30,000 feet) = 34.08°, meaning that the temperature
at 30,000 feet is approximately 34 degrees less than at sea
level. -4 minus 34 = -38° at 30,000 feet.

If we take 2,400 amps and multiply it by 21%, we get 504 To determine maximum life achieved divide 835.3 by 1100
amps. This is the amount of amps discharged. To determine (835.3/1100 = .759), move the decimal two places to the right
the number of amps remaining subtract 504 from 2,400, to get a percentage, which is the equivalent of multiplying the
which leaves 1,896 amps remaining. answer by 100, either method getting you the percentage.

QUESTIONS
3-19 AMG053 3-22 AMG053

Express 7/8 as a percent. Solve the equation below.
A. 8.75 percent
(-35 + 25) (-7) + (π) (16-2)
B. .875 percent =
C. 87.5 percent 25
A. 174.85
B. 81.49
C. 14.02
3-20 AMG100 3-23 AMG053

What is represented by the equation: 9.11 x 10 -28 grams = What is represented by the formula: area = ½ (base1 + base2)
_____________? x height?
A. The horsepower which can be produced by one gram A. An ellipse.
of AV gas. B. A trapezoid.
B. The mass of the atmosphere. C. A scalene triangle.
C. The mass of an electron.
3-21 AMG053 3-24 AMG053

Square root of 36 + square root of 49/17 squared. Which of the following is the correct formula to determine the
A. 3757 area of a circle?
B. 22.23 A. Area = ∏ × r²
C. .045 B. Area = ∏ × d
C. Area = ∏² × r

ANSWERS

Dividing 7 by 8 you get .875 then multiply by 100 to get the Use the following steps to calculate this equation (do not
percentage equivalent. round up).
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 11] Complete all the operations in order of PEMDAS. First
solve within the parentheses, then the exponents, then
multiplication, division, additions, and finally subtractions.
1. (-35 + 25) = -10
2. 16 -2 is the equivalent 1/162 or 1/256,
which equals (.0039 - 10 × -7) = 70
3. (Π = 3.1416) × .0039 = .001229
4. 70 + .01229 = 70.01229
5. square root of 25 = 5
6. 70.01229 / 5 = 14.002

Note the negative number of the exponent. Of course this A trapezoid is a figure with two bases on opposite sides
represents an extremely small number which of the choices of different lengths. Its area is determined by finding the
given can only possibly represent a mass of an object at the average of those base lengths and multiplying that by
subatomic level. its height.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 11, 16] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 3, 20]

Use the following steps to calculate this equation The formula for the area of a circle is ∏ × r² (squared).
(do not round up) Where as ∏ = 3.14 and r = the radius of the circle, or 1/2 the
The square root of 36 is 6 diameter. The formula for the circumference of a circle is ∏ ×
The square root of 49 is 7 diameter. The formula in answer C is made up.
The square of 17 is 289 [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 21]
6 + 7 = 13. 13 / 289 = .045

QUESTIONS
3-25 AMG053 3-28 AMG100

Which is the correct order of operations when solving an What is another way to express the number: 5-4?
algebraic equation? A. 1/625
A. exponents – parentheses – multiplication – division – B. 1/-625
addition – subtraction C. -625
B. parentheses – exponents – multiplication – division –
addition – subtraction
C. exponents – parentheses – division – multiplication –
addition – subtraction
3-26 AMG053 3-29 AMG053

Solve the equation below. The number 3.47 × 10 to the negative fourth power is
equal to _____________.
[(4 x -3) + (-9 x 2)] ÷ 2 =
A. .00347
A. 29 B. 34,700.0
B. -15 C. .000347
C. -5
3-27 AMG053 3-30 AMG053

What power of 10 is equal to 1,000,000? Which alternative answer is equal to 16,300?
A. 10 to the fourth power A. 1.63 × 10 to the fourth power
B. 10 to the fifth power B. 1.63 × 10 to the negative third power
C. 10 to the sixth power C. 163 × 10 to the negative second power

ANSWERS

Remember the acronym PEMDAS to determine which A number with a negative power equals its reciprocal with
sections of an algebraic equation to solve first. PEMDAS = the same positive power. Multiply 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 = 625.
parentheses/exponents/multiplication/division/addition/ The reciprocal of 625 = 1/625
subtraction. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 13]

[(4 × -3) + (-9 × 2)] -:- 2 = Use the reciprocal operation. 1/3.47 × 104, which is 1/34,700
[(-12) + (-18)] -:- 2 = or 0.000347.
[(-30)]-:- 2 = [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 12]
-15

The power (or exponent) of a number is a shorthand method 1.63 × 104 is equivalent to 16,300. 1.63 × 10 -3 is equivalent to
of indicating how many times a number, called the base, is .00163 and 163 × 10 -2 is equivalent to 1.63.
multiplied by itself. Ten to the sixth power or 106 equals 10 × [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 12]
10 × 10 × 10 × 10 × 10 equally 1,000,000. For a base number
of 10 simply add zeros to equal the power, e.g.
102 = 100, 104 = 10,000 etc.

QUESTIONS
3-31 AMG053 3-34 AMG100

Find the square root of 124.9924. What is the square root of: (-1776 ÷ -2) – 632 = _____________.
A. 111.8 × 10 to the third power A. 128
B. .1118 × 10 to the negative second power B. 256
C. 1,118 × 10 to the negative second power C. 16
3-32 AMG053 3-35 AMG053

The result of 7 raised to the third power plus the square root What is the cube root of 216?
of 39 is equal to? A. 10,077,696
A. 349.24 B. 72
B. .34924 C. 6
C. 343.24
3-33 AMG053 3-36 AMG053

Find the square root of 1,824. Which of the equations is using scientific notation?
A. 42.708 × 10 to the negative second power
B. .42708 #1 3.47 x 104 = 34,700
C. .42708 × 10 to the second power
#2 2(410) = 2,097,152
A. 1
B. 2
C. Both 1 and 2

ANSWERS

The square root of 124.9924 is 11.18, which is equivalent to The order of operation for algebraic equations are:
1,118 × 10 -2. Parenthesis, Exponents, Multiplication and Division (from left
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 12-13] to right), Addition and subtraction (from left to right).
√[(-1,776) / (-2) – 632] =
√ (888 – 632) =
√ 256 =
16

73 = 7 × 7 × 7 = 343 When 6 is multiplied by itself 3 times it equals 216 (6 × 6 × 6).
Square root of 39 is 6.24 The other two answers are incorrect. 72 = 216/3 and
343 + 6.24 = 349.24 10,077,696 is actually 2163 or 216 × 216 × 216.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 12-13] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 13]

The square root of 1,824 is 42.708, which can also be The equation marked 1 is an example of scientific notation.
expressed as .42708 × 102.
#1 3.47 x 104 = 34,700

QUESTIONS
3-37 AMG044 3-40 AMG044

A triangle includes one 90º angle. It stands 9 inches tall and What is the displacement of a cylinder with a 1.5” diameter
has a base of 8 inches. What is its area? bore and a piston stroke of 4 inches?
A. 72 square inches. A. 9.42 cubic inches
B. 36 square inches. B. 7.07 cubic inches
C. 144 square inches. C. 6.15 cubic inches
3-38 AMG044 3-41 AMG044

Compute the area of the trapezoid. A four-cylinder aircraft engine has a cylinder bore of 3.78
inches and is 8.5 inches deep. With the piston on bottom
9’ center, the top of the piston measures 4.0 inches from the
bottom of the cylinder. What is the approximate piston
displacement of this engine?
5’ A. 200 cubic inches
B. 360 cubic inches
C. 235 cubic inches
12’
A. 52.5 square feet
B. 60 square feet
C. 76.5 square feet
3-39 AMG044 3-42 AMG044

What is the area of the cross section of an engine’s cylinder if 32,000 feet = _____________ kilometers.
the bore of the cylinder is 6 inches? A. 198.4
A. 113.1 square inches B. 3.76
B. 18.85 square inches C. 9.77
C. 28.27 square inches

ANSWERS
3-37 Answer B 3-40 Answer B.

The area of any triangle can be considered half of a square. ∏r2 × H. The bore is 1.5 inches diameter which equals a
Thus the formula for the area of a triangle is: A = ½ (base × radius of .75".
height). In this case the base is 8" and the height is 9". .75 squared (.75 × .75) = .5625.
8 × 9 = 72. Half of that is 36. So 3.1416 × .752 × 4 inch stroke distance = 9.4248

The area of a trapezoid can be found by multiplying the Piston Displacement is ∏r2 × H × number of cylinders. So,
altitude by the average length of the bases. 3.1416 × (3.78/2)2 × 4.5 × 4 cylinders = 201.99
The altitude in this figure is 5 feet. The average of the bases The question is asking for the approximate piston
is 10.5 ((9+12)/2). displacement and 200 is the closest answer. To solve this
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 20] problem you must determine the correct stroke length. This
will discussed in more detail when you study aircraft engines.
For now, the stroke is 4.5 inches. It is calculated as the depth
of the cylinder minus the distance from the top of the piston at
bottom dead center (BDC) to the bottom of the cylinder.

The area of circle is ∏r2. The area is calculated as 5,280 feet = 1 mile. .62 miles = 1 kilometer. Thus 32,000 feet
3.1415 × (6/2)2 = 3.1415 × 9 = 28.274. = 6.06 miles and 6.06 miles = 9.77 kilometers.

QUESTIONS
3-43 AMG044 3-46 AMG044

A rectangular-shaped fuel tank measures 60 inches in length, What is the entire surface area of a cube when each side
30 inches in width, and 12 inches in depth. How many cubic edge measures 7.25 inches?
feet are within the tank? A. 381.078 cu. in.
A. 12.5 B. 315.375 sq. in.
B. 15.0 C. 52.5625 sq. in.
C. 21.0
3-44 AMG044 3-47 AMG044

Select the container size that is equal in volume to 60 gallons What is the volume of a sphere with a radius of 4.5 inches?
of fuel.
A. 7.5 cubic feet V = 1/6 π D3
B. 8.0 cubic feet
C. 8.5 cubic feet A. 47.71 cubic inches
B. 381.7 square inches
C. 381.7 cubic inches
3-45 AMG044 3-48 AMG044

How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a rectangular If the circumference of a circle is 24 inches, what is the
shaped tank, which measures 2 feet in width, 3 feet in length, approximate diameter?
and 1 foot 8 inches in depth? (7.5 gal = 1 cu. ft.) A. 7.64 inches
A. 66.6 B. 3.82 inches
B. 75 C. 2.43 inches
C. 45

ANSWERS

Volume = Length × Width × Height Area = length × width = 7.25 × 7.25 = 52.5625 × 6 (sides of a
However, note the question gives you the measurements in cube) = 315.375 sq. in.
inches and the answer is to calculated in feet. Divide each [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 24]
measurement by 12.
(12 inches in a foot).
60 ÷ 12 × 30 ÷ 12 × 12 ÷ 12 = 5 × 2.5 × 1 = 12.5

Divide 60 by 7.5 = 8, since 7.5 gallons equals 1 cubic foot of The equation for the volume of a sphere is:
space, 60 gallons of fuel will need to have a container that V = 4⁄3 × ∏ × r3
can hold 8 cubic feet of volume. V = 1.3333333 × 3.1415 × (4.5)3 = 1.333 × 3.1415 × 91.125 =
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 22-23] 381.7 cubic inches.
Note: Confirm units before choosing an answer.

Volume = Length × Width × Height The key to solving this is remembering the value of ∏ (pi)
3 × 2 × (20/12) = 10 cubic feet × 7.5 gallons = 75 gallons. which is approximately 3.14. As the formula for circumference
Note: Make sure all measurements are in the same units. is diameter × ∏; dividing the circumference by ∏ (3.14) gives
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 23] you the diameter.

QUESTIONS
3-49 AMG044 3-52 AMG044

When solving a complex mathematical equation, which is the Determine the area of the triangle formed by points
proper order of which function to determine first? A, B, and C. A-B = 7.5 inches. A-C = 16.8 inches.
A. Multiplications, then additions, then exponents.
B C
B. Parentheses, then multiplications, then exponents.
C. Exponents, then divisions, then subtractions.
A D
A. 42 square inches
B. 63 square inches
C. 126 square inches
3-50 AMG044 3-53 AMG044

A special delivery needs to be made for a large painting. Which of the following problems can be solved by using the
The painting measures 9 feet tall by 9 feet wide. It is being Pythagorean theorem?
delivered by a cargo plane that has a door opening of 6 1/2 A. How many gallons of fuel will fit in a cylindrical tank?
feet tall and 8 1/2 feet wide. B. What is the displacement of a piston in an engine?
Can the painting fit through the opening? C. What is the height from the ground of an aircraft’s
A. Yes, the diagonal measurement is 10.7 feet. vertical stabilizer?
B. No, the diagonal measurement is 7.5 feet.
C. Yes, the diagonal measurement is 15 feet.
3-51 AMG044 3-54 AMG053

Find the area of the triangle shown. Examples of units used in the conventional (U.S. or English)
measurement include _____________.
A. inch, meter, gram
B. inch, kilo, liter
7.5 C. inch, ounce, pounds
”
3”
4”
A. 12 square inches
B. 6 square inches
C. 15 square inches

ANSWERS

Use the acronym PEMDAS to remember the order in which Area of a triangle =
to solve an algebraic equation. Parentheses, exponents, 1/2 × Base × Height = .5 × 7.5 × 16.8 = 63 square inches.
multiplication, division, addition, subtraction. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 19]

The answers give you the clues to what formula to use, the The Pythagorean Theorem is used to measure the angles
Pythagorean Theorem (a2 + b2 = c2). and length of the sides of a right triangle. As a perceived
triangle can be formed based on your distance from an
Diagonal measurement of the cargo door: aircraft (base of the triangle) and the angle from your position
c2 = (6.5)2 + (8.5)2 = 42.25 + 72.25 = 114.5 to the top of the stabilizer (hypotenuse), the height of the
c = √114.5 = 10.7. triangle (height of the stabilizer) can also be determined.

Area of a triangle = Meters, kilos, and grams are metric measurements.
1/2 × Base × Height = .5 × 3 × 4 = 6 square inches. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 27]

QUESTIONS
3-55 AMG053 3-59 AMG044

How many miles are in a distance of 10 kilometers? Which of the following is a purpose of the binary
A. 2.2 number system?
B. 6.2 A. To determine whether a switch is ON or OFF.
C. 12.2 B. To compare the relative value of two functions.
C. To simplify a complex equation into its basic parts.
3-56 AMG053 3-60 AMG100

One millionth of a meter is known as a _____________. Convert the binary number 11011001 to a decimal number.
A. millimeter Refer to Figure 3-1 below.
B. nanometer A. 38
C. micrometer B. 217
C. 233
BINARY PLACE VALUE TABLE
27
26
25 24 23 22 21 20
= 128 = 64 = 32 = 16 =8 =4 =2 =1
Figure 3-1. Binary Place Value Table.
3-57 AMG100
Which of the following is the correct sequence of number
prefixes, from the smallest to the largest?
A. nano; hecto; tera 3-61 AMG100
B. deca; deci; peta Convert the decimal number 147 to a binary number. Refer to
C. kilo; giga; pico Figure 3-1 below.
A. 10001001
B. 10100001
C. 10010011
BINARY PLACE VALUE TABLE
3-58 AMG100 27
26
25 24 23 22 21 20
= 128 = 64 = 32 = 16 =8 =4 =2 =1
The binary number system is most useful in aircraft
electronics because those systems are either Figure 3-1. Binary Place Value Table.
A. ON/OFF.
B. ON/OFF/ON.
C. FALSE/TRUE/FALSE.

ANSWERS

Note: 1 Kilometer (Km) is equivalent to 0.6214 miles. a simple electric or other switch has two possible conditions;
10 × .6214 = 6.214 miles. ON or OFF. Thus its condition can be represented using
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 22] either a "1" or a "0" in binary code.

Micro is the prefix equivalent to 10 -6 power or 128 + 64 + 0 + 16 + 8 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 217
.000001, therefore one millionth of a meter is one micrometer.
27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 28] = 128 = 64 = 32 = 16 =8 =4 =2 =1
1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1
3-57 Answer A.
The full sequence of number prefixes from the smallest (one
quintillionth 10 -18 to exa (quintillion 1018) is atto, femto, pico,
nano, micro, milli, centi, deci, unit (one), deca, hector, kilo, 3-61 Answer C.
mega, giga, tera, peta, exa. 147 – 128 = 19
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 27] 19 – 16 = 3
3–2=1
1–1=0
27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20
= 128 = 64 = 32 = 16 =8 =4 =2 =1
1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1
3-58 Answer A.
Using the binary numbering system digital electronics send
a signal to indicate whether an electrical pulse has been
received. "1" indicates an electrical pulse has been received
or on and a "0" indicates no pulse or off. There are only two
options, not three as shown in B and C.
Special Note: In a digital electronic logic circuit, the "1"

indicates true and a "0" indicates false.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
3-1(O). State the formula to calculate the area of a circle.
3-2(O). State the formula to calculate the area of a rectangle.
3-3(O). State the formula to calculate the area of a triangle.
3-4(O). State the formula to calculate the volume of a cylinder.
3-5(O). State the formula to calculate the volume of a rectangle.
3-6(O). What is the numerical value for the mathematical constant ∏?
3-7(O). Define a negative number and how it is expressed.
3-8(O). Define ratio and describe how it is expressed.
3-9(O). Define a proportion.
3-10(O). Define percentage.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
3-1(O). Area = ∏ × radius2 or A = ∏ × r2
3-2(O). Area = Length × Width or A=L × W

3-3(O). Area = 1/2 × (Base × Height) or A = 1/2 × (B × H)

3-4(O). Volume = ∏ × radius2 × Height of the cylinder or V = ∏ × r2 × H

3-5(O). Volume = Length × Width × Height or V = L × W × H

3-6(O). Pi (∏) = 3.1416

3-7(O). A negative number is a number less than zero, and is expressed by placing a negative sign in front of the
number.
3-8(O). A ratio is the comparison of two numbers or quantities. It can be expressed in three ways: as a fraction, with a
colon, or with the word "to".
3-9(O). A proportion is a statement of equality between two or more rations.

3-10(O). Percentage means "parts out of one hundred."


QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
NOTE: The practical portion of the Mathematics subject area may be tested simultaneously when performing calculation(s)
in subject areas of Basic Electricity and/or Weight and Balance.
3-1(P). Given specific measurements, calculate the area of a circle, a rectangle, and a triangle.
3-2(P). Given specific measurements, calculate the volume of a sphere, a cube, and a cylinder.
3-3(P). Be able to locate the mathematical formulas needed to complete maintenance, preventative maintenance, or
alteration of the an aircraft, e.g. piston displacement of a cylinder, compression ratio of a cylinder, area of a
wing, volume of a fuel tank, find the rotational speed of a shaft.
3-4(P). Convert a list of fractions convert them to their decimal equivalent and vice versa.
3-5(P). Calculate the square root of a given number.
3-6(P). Calculate the square and cube of a given number.
3-7(P). Add, subtract, multiply, and divide both positive and negative numbers.
3-8(P). Convert common fractions into percentages.


AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS CHAPTER
Computer Graphics, Types of Drawings, Universal Numbering System, Title Blocks, Methods
of Illustration, Symbols, Graphs and Charts
04
QUESTIONS
4-1 AMG013 4-3 AMG013

In a sectional view drawing, what sections illustrate particular The -100 in the title block (Area 1) is applicable to which
parts of an object? doubler part number(s) diagram in the Figure 4-1 below?
A. Removed. A. -101
B. Revolved. B. -102
C. Half. C. Both
4-2 AMG014 4-4 AMG014

Which of the following best describes what is shown by a Where are title blocks normally located on an
sectional drawing? aircraft drawing?
A. The interior details of the object from the plane in which it A. upper left-hand corner
was intersected. B. lower left-hand corner
B. A detailed view of a particular section or component of C. lower right-hand corner
an object.
C. The details of how certain sections of a component are
assembled into a single unit.
Figure 4-1. Maintenance Data.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

The removed section illustrates the parts of an object. The Locate the specific information in the title block pertaining
revolved section shows the shape of the cross section of an to -100 (see Figure 4-1). Locate the doubler. There are two
object. The Half section splits the object to show both the doublers required; reading to the left will tell you which part
exterior and interior shapes. number is applicable to -100 part assemblies.

A sectional drawing depicts the object by cutting away part Title blocks are normally located in the lower right hand
of the object to show the shape and construction at the corner, but may also extend along the entire distance across
cutting plane, they can be full, half, revolved and removed the bottom of a drawing.
section drawings depending on the objective of the drawing. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 7]
Answer for Figure 4-1. Maintenance Data.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-5 AMG014 4-7 AMG014

Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to A dimension on a drawing is given as 4.387" +005, -002.
A. locate parts, sections, and views on large drawings. What is the maximum tolerance?
B. indicate different sections of the aircraft fuselage. A. .005
C. locate parts in the aircraft relative to the mean B. .003
aerodynamic chord. C. .007
4-6 AMG013 4-8 AMG014

The diameter of the holes in the finished object in the What is the allowable manufacturing tolerance for a bushing
diagram (Figure 4-2 below) are where the outside dimensions shown on the blueprint are:
A. 3/4 inch. 1.0625 +.0025 -.0003?
B. 31/64 inch. A. .0028
C. 1/2 inch. B. 1.0650
C. 1.0647
¼"
Notes:
1. Drill 31/64 inch ream ½ inch.
2. All tolerances ±1/32 unless
otherwise specified.
F C 3. Finish all over 25
¼" Note 1. Note 1.
E B
D G
¾"
1½"
J
¼" ¾" ¾"

+1/64"
1" 17" −3/64"
H A
Figure 4-2. Aircraft Drawing.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

Zone numbers on drawings are there to help you locate a Tolerance is defined as the combined total of the maximum
specific area on the drawing. To locate the referenced area and minimum allowances. Thus +.005 and -.002 = .007
on a drawing, locate the letter and number and then mentally [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 9]
draw horizontal and vertical lines from the letter and number
to where they intersect on the drawing. This is the location
where you will find the referenced point.

Refer to the notes in the Figure 4-2. Tolerance is the sum of the plus and minus allowable
Answer: They state the holes are to be drilled to diameter of deviation of the dimensions. Therefore, in this example you
31/64 and then reamed to 1/2 inch. would add the maximum allowable deviation of .0025 and the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 9] minimum allowable deviation of .0003 (ignoring the negative
sign) for a tolerance of .0028.
¼"
Notes:
1. Drill 31/64 inch ream ½ inch.
2. All tolerances ±1/32 unless
otherwise specified.
F C 3. Finish all over 25
¼" Note 1. Note 1.
E B
D G
¾"
1½"
J
¼" ¾" ¾"

+1/64"
1" 17" −3/64"
H A
Answer for Figure 4-2. Aircraft Drawing.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-9 AMG014 4-12 AMG014

What are the maximum number of views possible on an When reading aircraft blueprints, the term "tolerance" used
orthographic projection? in association with aircraft parts or components
A. 3 A. is the tightest permissible fit for proper construction
B. 8 and operation of mated parts.
C. 6 B. is the difference between extreme permissible
dimensions that a part may have and still
be acceptable.
C. represents the limits of galvanic compatibility between
different adjoining material types in aircraft parts.
4-10 AMG014 4-13 AMG014

1. A measurement should not be scaled from an aircraft print Figure 4-3 below depicts the front view of an object along
because the paper shrinks or stretches when the print with three possible bottom views of that same object. Which
is made. is the correct depiction of the bottom view?
2. When a detail drawing is made, it is carefully and A. 1
accurately drawn to scale, and is dimensional. B. 2
C. 3
A. Only #2 is true.
B. Both #1 and #2 are true.
C. Neither #1 or #2 is true.
Front View
4-11 AMG014
Which of these numbers indicates the horizontal distance
from the manufacturer’s datum to the location of a 1 2
component on an aircraft?
A. Zone number.
B. Station number.
C. Moment number.
3
Figure 4-3. Object views.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

An orthographic projection shows an object from its Tolerance is defined as the difference between extreme
6 possible sides; front, back, left side, right side, top, permissible dimensions that a part may have and still be
and bottom. acceptable. This definition is equivalent to "the sum of the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 11] plus and minus allowance figures" used in the text. In the text
definition, you ignored the signs and added the numbers. For
this definition, you keep the signs. Difference in this context
means subtraction; remember that subtracting a negative is
the same as adding a positive.

Scaled drawings are representations drawn in the same View 2 in Figure 4-3 is the correct orthographic view for this
proportions as the original. They can be the same (1:1), part. The bottom of the object is solid, remembering that
smaller (1/4 inch), or larger (2:1). Never re-measure the paper dashed vertical lines represent features of the part that are
drawing to determine a measurement, even if noted as hidden from the view being represented, here the bottom.
scaled 1:1. The paper can shrink or stretch and with today’s [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 11]
technology, copies are easily reduced or enlarged yet will still
note a scale of 1:1.
ALWAYS use the dimensions on the drawing.
Front View
4-11 Answer B. 1 2
A station number is a reference measure from a reference
point. For aircraft, these reference points are the datum for
fuselage measurement, the buttock line for measurements
left and right of the aircraft’s longitudinal axis, and the
waterline for measurements below and above a reference line
running from the nose of the aircraft to the tail. 3
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 9] Answer for Figure 4-3. Object views.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-14 AMG014
According to Figure 4-4 (on this page), the vertical distance
between the top of the plate and the bottom of the lowest
15/64 inch hole is?
A. 2.250
B. 2.242
C. 2.367
Figure 4-4. Aircraft drawing.
4-15 AMG014
Refer to Figure 4-5 (on this page); identify the left side of the
object shown.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
Front View
1 2 3
4-16 AMG004
Refer to Figure 4-6 (on this page). Identify the bottom view of
the object shown.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
Front View
1 2 3

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS
4-14 Answer C.
Add the following dimensions from Figure 4-4:
Distance from the top of the plate to center of the top hole is
3/8" or 0.375"
Distance from the center of first hole to the center of the
center of second hole is 7/8" or 0.875" Distance from the
center of the second hole to the center of the third hole is
7/8" or 0.875"
Distance from the center of the third hole to the center of the
fourth hole is 1/8" or 0.125" Distance from the center of the
fourth hole to the bottom edge is 15/128" or 0.117" 0.375 +
0.875 + 0.875 + 0.125 + 0.117 = 2.367"
Answer for Figure 4-4. Aircraft drawing.
4-15 Answer C.
View 3 in Figure 4-5 on previous page is the correct view of
the left side of the object.
Front View
1 2 3
4-16 Answer A.
View 1 in Figure 4-6 is the correct orthographic view for this
part. The bottom of the object is solid, remembering that
dashed vertical lines represent features of the part that are
hidden from the view being represented.
Front View
1 2 3

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-17 AMG013 4-20 AMG014

What is the class of working drawing that is the description/ A drawing in which the sub-assemblies or parts are shown
depiction of a single part? as brought together on the aircraft is called
A. Installation drawing A. an assembly drawing.
B. Assembly drawing B. an installation drawing.
C. Detail drawing C. a detail drawing.
4-18 AMG014 4-21 AMG014

The drawings often used in illustrated parts catalogs/ In what type of electrical diagram are images of components
manuals are used instead of conventional electrical symbols?
A. exploded view. A. a pictorial diagram.
B. block view. B. a schematic diagram.
C. detail view. C. a block diagram.
4-19 AMG013
Refer to Figure 4-7 (on this page). In the isometric view of a
typical aileron balance weight, identify the view indicated by
the arrow.
A. 1 +
+
B. 3
C. 2
1 2 3

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

Detail drawings depict single parts, providing information Installation drawings are used extensively in aircraft
for construction of the part including specifications on maintenance and repair manuals. They provide the AMT
size, shape, material, and method of construction. a visual representation of how the various parts and/or
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 11] subassemblies are assembled.

An exploded view is a pictorial drawing of two or more This is not specifically addressed within the text. However,
parts that fit together as an assembly. The view shows the based on your knowledge of the three answers determine the
individual parts and their relative position to other parts one that best fits the question. Block diagrams used blocks
before assembled. to simplify the relationship between components of a more
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 13] complex system and do not use electrical systems. Schematic
diagrams show the location of components with respect to
each other within a system and do not use electrical systems.
Pictorial drawings are similar to photographs. The question
refers to images of the components, therefore this would be
the most correct answer.
4-19 Answer B.
An isometric view uses a combination of the views from an
orthographic projection and tilts the object forward so that
portions of three views are seen at once.
+
+
1 2 3
Answer for Figure 4-7. Object views.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-22 AMG014 4-25 AMG014

One purpose for schematic drawings is to show the What type of diagram is used to explain a principle
A. functional location of components within a system. of operation, rather than show the parts as they
B. physical location of components within a system. actually appear?
C. size and shape of components within a system. A. A pictorial diagram.
B. A schematic diagram.
C. An assembly drawing.
4-23 AMG014 4-26 AMG014

Review the two statements below. Which are correct? What do flowcharts illustrate?
1. Schematic diagrams indicate the location of individual A. The flow of hydraulic and fuel lines.
components in the aircraft. B. The flow of air over an airfoil.
2. Schematic diagrams indicate the location of components C. The flow of events or a particular sequence.
with respect to each other within the system.

A. Only #1 is true.
C. Only # 2 is true.
4-24 AMG014 4-27 AMG014

A schematic diagram of a hydraulic system would indicate the The measurements showing the ideal or "perfect" sizes of
A. specific location of individual components within parts on drawings are called
the aircraft. A. tolerances.
B. direction of fluid flow through the system. B. allowances.
C. type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid. C. dimensions.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

Schematic diagrams show the location of components with Schematic diagrams show functional location of components
respect to each other within a system. In other words, their within a system, and by studying the various components
functional location not necessarily their actual location within and how they are related within the system the AMT can
the system. learn how the system operates. Schematic diagrams of this
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 16] type are often used in troubleshooting.

Schematic diagrams show the location of components Flowcharts illustrate a particular sequence or flow of events.
with respect to each other within a system, not their actual There are troubleshooting flowcharts used to aid you in
location in the aircraft. detecting a faulty component. You will find these in the Fault
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 16] Isolation Manuals. Another flowchart you will use in your
career is the logic flowchart that uses standardized symbols
to indicate specific types of logic gates and their relationship
to other digital devices in a system. This type of flowchart is
also used for troubleshooting by illustrating decisions and
reactions. By using standardized symbols, decisions and
actions can be indicated.

Schematic diagrams show the location of components Although not specifically defined, dimensions are the
with respect to each other within a system. In other words, preferred (ideal/perfect) measurements for a part.
their functional location. In this question, the direction of Allowances and tolerances define deviations from these
fluid flow within the system would be depicted as part of its preferred measurements, if acceptable.
functionality. Actual location, type, and quantity of hydraulic [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 18]
fluid would not be found in a schematic diagram.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-28 AMG014 4-30 AMG014

What would be the minimum diameter of 4130 round stock In an aircraft drawing, what type of line would be drawn if
required for the construction of the clevis that would produce it was composed of one long and two short evenly spaced
a machined surface? Refer to Figure 4-8 below. dashes indicating the alternate position of parts of an object
A. 55/64 inch or relative position of a missing part
B. 1 inch A. a sectioning line.
C. 7/8 inch B. a break line.
C. a phantom line.
4-29 AMG014 4-31 AMG014

What is the maximum diameter of the hole for the clevis pin? Using the information, what size drill would be required to
Refer to Figure 4-8 below. drill the clevis bolt hole? Refer to Figure 4-8 below.
A. 0.3175 A. 5/16 inch
B. 0.3130 B. 21/64 inch
C. 0.31255 C. 1/2 inch
Figure 4-8. Aircraft drawing.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

The question is stating that all the surfaces of the clevis Phantom lines composed of one long and two short evenly
are machined. Therefore the part needs to be larger than spaced dashes indicate the alternate position of parts of the
its largest finished dimension which is 7/8 inch. 55/64 is object or the relative position of a missing part.
equivalent to 0.859375 which is too small, and 7/8 is also [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 19]
too small if it must be machined. Therefore the minimum
diameter of 4130 round stock must be 1 inch.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 3 & 18]

The diameter of the clevis hole is 0.3125 with an allowance of The drawing below notes that the clevis bolt hole should
+0.005 and -0.000, which means the maximum size the hole have a diameter of .3125.
can be 0.3175. The drill bit size decimal equivalents are:
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 3 & 18] 5/16 = .3125, 21/64 = .3281, and 1/2 = .5, therefore the 5/16th
would be the correct drill bit to use.
Answer for Figure 4-8. Aircraft drawing.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-32 AMG014 4-34 AMG014

Identify the extension line in Figure 4-9 below. Which statement is applicable when using a sketch for
A. 3 making a part?
B. 1 A. The sketch may be used only if supplemented with
C. 2 a 3-view orthographic projection drawing.
B. The sketch must show all information to manufacture
the part.
C. The sketch need not show all necessary
construction details.
4-33 AMG014 4-35 AMG001

What does the type of line below on an aircraft technical What are the proper procedural steps for sketching repairs
drawing represent? and alterations? Refer to Figure 4-10 below.
A. 3, 1, 4, and 2
A. edges of an object which are invisible from the B. 4, 2, 3, and 1
drawn perspective. C. 1, 3, 4, and 2
B. the center line of an object or portion of an object.
C. the alternating position of a hinged portion of an object.
2
0.25
Paint Stripe 2
3 4
Figure 4-9. Aircraft drawing. Figure 4-10. Sketches.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

Extensions are used to extend the line showing the side or The degree to which a sketch is complete will depend on
edge of a figure for placing a dimension to that side or edge. its intended use. However, it must show all information
They are very narrow and have a short break where they necessary for its intended use. In the example, for making a
extend from the object and extend a short distance past the part, it must have all the information to manufacture the part.
arrow of the dimensioning line. Item #3 in Figure 4-9 from the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 23]
previous page represents extension lines.

Alternating long and short lines are center lines. Invisible To make a sketch, first determine what views are necessary
edges of an object are known as hidden lines and drawn as a to portray the object, then block in the views, using light
long dashed, evenly spaced segmented line. construction lines. Next, complete the details, darken the
object outline, and sketch extension and dimension lines.
The depiction of an alternate position of a hinged component Complete the drawing by adding notes, dimensions, title,
is done with phantom lines and shaped as so: date, and when necessary, the sketcher’s name.
2
0.25
Paint Stripe 4
1 3
Answer for Figure 4-9. Aircraft drawing. Answer for Figure 4-10. Sketches.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-36 AMG001 4-38 AMG001

Refer to Figure 4-11 below. What is the next step required for What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching
a working sketch of the illustration? an aircraft wing repair?
A. Darken the object outlines. A. Draw heavy guidelines.
B. Sketch extension and dimension lines. B. Lay out the repair.
C. Add notes, dimensions, title, and date. C. Block in the views.
4-37 AMG014 4-39 AMG001

Refer to Figure 4-12 (on this page). Which material section- 1. According to FAR Part 91, repairs to an aircraft skin
line symbol indicates cast iron? should have a detailed dimensional sketch included in the
A. 1 permanent record.
B. 2 2. On occasion, a mechanic may need to make a simple
C. 3 sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft, a new design, or
a modification.
For the above statements,

A. Only #1 is true
B. Only #2 is true
C. Both #1 and #2 are true
1 2
3
Figure 4-11. Sketches. Figure 4-12. Material symbols.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

To make a sketch, first determine what views are necessary Blocking in the views is the first step for this type of
to portray the object; then block in the views, using light sketching. The second step is to complete the drawing
construction lines. Next, complete the details, darken the details, the third step is to sketch extension and dimension
object outline, and sketch extension and dimension lines. lines and the fourth step is to add notes and dimensions.
Complete the drawing by adding notes, dimensions, title, [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 23]
date, and when necessary, the sketcher’s name.

Item #3 in Figure 4-12 on the previous page represents To determine this answer you have to know the FARs.
cast iron, #2 is steel, and #1 represents rubber, plastic, or Although statement 1 appears logical, not all repairs need to
electrical insulation. have detailed dimensional sketches included.
1 2
3
Answer for Figure 4-11. Sketches. Figure 4-12. Material symbols.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-40 AMG001 4-41 AMG014

For sketching purposes, almost all objects are composed An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 1,830 cubic inch
of one or more combinations of six basic shapes. displacement and develops 1,250 brake horsepower at 2500
These include: RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure? Refer to
A. angle, arc, line, plane, square, and circle. Figure 4-13 below.
B. triangle, circle, cube, cylinder, cone, and sphere. A. 217
C. triangle, plane, circle, line, and square. B. 205
C. 225
BRAKE - HORSEPOWER (BHP)

0 500 1 000 1 500 2 000 2 500 3 000 3 500 4 000
0 25 50 75 100 125 150 175 200 225 250 275
CID = CUBIC INCH DISPLACEMENT BRAKE MEAN EFFECTIVE PRESSURE (BMEP)
Figure 4-13. BHP performance chart.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

The six basic shapes used in sketching include the triangle, Start at the 1,250 brake-horsepower vertical line, follow it
circle, cube, cylinder, cone, and sphere. to where it intersects with the diagonal line representing
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 23] the 1830 cubic inch displacement engine. Then, follow the
vertical line from this intersection to the diagonal line for
2,500 RPM, at this intersection follow the vertical line to the
bottom to read the brake mean effective pressure. The graph
is hard to read but the closest answer is 217 BMEP.
BRAKE - HORSEPOWER (BHP)

0 500 1 000 1 500 2 000 2 500 3 000 3 500 4 000
0 25 50 75 100 125 150 175 200 225 250 275
CID = CUBIC INCH DISPLACEMENT BRAKE MEAN EFFECTIVE PRESSURE (BMEP)

Answer for Figure 4-13. BHP performance chart.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-42 AMG013 4-43 AMG014

An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic inch Determine the maximum length of No. 16 cable to be
displacement and develops 2,000 brake horsepower, installed from a bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system
and indicates 270 brake mean effective pressure. What with a 25-ampere intermittent load and a 1-volt drop.
is the engine speed RPM? Refer to Figure 4-13 on the Refer to Figure 4-14 below.
previous page. A. 8 feet
A. 2,200 B. 10 feet
B. 2,100 C. 12 feet
C. 2,300
Circuit Voltage
Electric Wire Chart
115 200 14 28
800 100 200 Amperes

5 0 5 0
600 75 150 1 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 15 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 10 12 155
170
Wire Length In Feet For Allowable Voltage Drop
400 700 50 100

20
360 630 45 90
320 560 40 80 0
280 490 35 70 30
0
40
240 420 30 60
200 350 25 50
160 280 20 40
120 210 15 30
ve 1
100 175 12 25
Cur
80 140 10 20
72 120 9 18
ve 2 Curves:
Cur
64 112 8 16
56 98 7 14 1. Continous rating-amperes cables
ve 3
48 84 6 12 Cur in conduit and bundles
40 70 5 10 2. Continous rating-amperes single
36 63 4 9 cable in free-air
32 56 8 3. Intermittent rating-amperes
28 49 7
maximum of 2 minutes.
24 42 3 6
20 35 2 5 20 18 16 14 12 10 8 6 4 2 1 1/0 2/0 3/0 4/0
4 7 .5 1 Wire Size
Voltage Drop
Figure 4-14. Electrical wiring chart.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS

Utilizing Figure 4-13 on the previous page, start at the Utilizing Figure 4-14 on the previous page, first draw a line
2,000 brake-horsepower vertical line, follow it to where it mid-way between the 20 and 30 amperes lines to use as
intersects with the diagonal line representing the 2,800 cubic a guide to represent the 25 amperes in this question. Find
inch displacement engine. Draw a horizontal line from this the 16-gage wire size we will be using, follow this line until it
intersection to the right of the chart. Locate the 270 brake intersects with the 25-ampere line drawn, draw a line from
mean effective pressure on the bottom scale, draw a vertical this intersection to the left column for a 28-volt circuit with a
line up until it intersects with the horizontal line you drew 1-volt drop and the answer is 8 feet.
previously; from here, you can determine that the RPM for [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 25]
this engine will be 2100.
Circuit Voltage
Electric Wire Chart
115 200 14 28
800 100 200 Amperes

5 0 5 0
600 75 150 1 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 15 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 10 12 155
170
Wire Length In Feet For Allowable Voltage Drop
400 700 50 100

20
360 630 45 90
320 560 40 80 0
280 490 35 70 30
0
40
240 420 30 60
200 350 25 50
160 280 20 40
120 210 15 30
ve 1
100 175 12 25
Cur
80 140 10 20
72 120 9 18
ve 2 Curves:
Cur
64 112 8 16
56 98 7 14 1. Continous rating-amperes cables
ve 3
48 84 6 12 Cur in conduit and bundles
40 70 5 10 2. Continous rating-amperes single
36 63 4 9 cable in free-air
32 56 8 3. Intermittent rating-amperes
28 49 7
maximum of 2 minutes.
24 42 3 6
20 35 2 5 20 18 16 14 12 10 8 6 4 2 1 1/0 2/0 3/0 4/0
4 7 .5 1 Wire Size
Voltage Drop
Answer for Figure 4-14. Electric wire chart.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
4-44 AMG014
Determine the proper tension for a 3/16 inch cable (7 × 19
extra flex) if the temperature is 87°F.
Refer to Figure 4-15 below.
A. 135 pounds
B. 125 pounds
C. 140 pounds
Values Include 10 Percent Structural Deflection

340
320
d
Loa 300
ig
it R 280
n Lim
sig 260
De
240
Rigging Load In Pounds

220
200
180
Cable Sizes
1/4 7×19 160
3/16 7×19 140
5/32 7×19
120
1/8 7×19
3/32 7×7 100
1/16 7×7 80
60
40
20
0
-65 -60 -50 -40 -30 -20 -10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130 140 150 160
Temperature In Degress Fahrenheit
Figure 4-15. Cable tension chart.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS
4-44 Answer B.
Utilizing Figure 4-15 below, from the 87° mark on the bottom
of the graph, draw a vertical line up until it intersects with
the 3/16 7 × 19 cable curve. From this intersection draw a
horizontal line to the right scale on the graph to read the
proper rigging load in pounds, 125 is the closest answer.
Values Include 10 Percent Structural Deflection

340
320
d
Loa 300
ig
it R 280
n Lim
sig 260
De
240
Rigging Load In Pounds

220
200
180
Cable Sizes
1/4 7×19 160
3/16 7×19 140
5/32 7×19
120
1/8 7×19
3/32 7×7 100
1/16 7×7 80
60
40
20
0
-65 -60 -50 -40 -30 -20 -10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130 140 150 160
Temperature In Degress Fahrenheit
Answer for Figure 4-15. Cable tension chart.

TITLE
QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
4-1(O). Define tolerance as it relates to aircraft drawings.
4-2(O). Define clearance as it relates to aircraft drawings.
4-3(O). What information can you find on the title block of an aircraft drawing?
4-4(O). Explain a dimension line and what is it used for.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
4-1(O). Tolerance is the allowable variation, the plus (+) figure indicates the maximum, and the minus (−) figure
indicates the minimum allowable variation. The sum of the plus and minus allowance figures is called
tolerance.
4-2(O). The dimensions given for tolerances signify the amount of clearance allowable between moving parts. A
positive allowance is indicated for a part that is to slide or revolve upon another part. A negative allowance is
one given for a force fit.
4-3(O). The information found in a title block is as follows: A drawing number to identify the print for filing purposes
and to prevent confusing it with any other print.
1. The name of the part or assembly.
2. The scale to which it is drawn.
3. The date.
4. The name of the firm.
5. The name of the draftsmen, the checker, and the person approving the drawing.
4-4(O). A dimension line is a light solid line, broken at the midpoint for insertion of measurement indications, and
having opposite pointing arrowheads at each end to show origin and termination of a measurement. They are
generally parallel to the line for which the dimension is given, and are usually placed outside the outline of the
object and between views if more than one view is shown.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
NOTE: The practical portion of the Mathematics subject area may be tested simultaneously when performing calculation(s)
in subject areas of Basic Electricity and/or Weight and Balance.
4-1(P). Given an aircraft drawing, blueprint, and/or system schematic identify the lines and symbols as requested.
4-2(P). Given a system schematic, answer questions regarding the system and explain how it can be used to assist in
troubleshooting a discrepancy with the system.
4-3(P). Given a performance chart, a specific RPM, and BMEP, determine the brake horsepower.
4-4(P). Given a control cable tension chart, find the proper tension for a specified cable at a given temperature.
4-5(P). Using a servicing chart or graph, determine if a component is within limits.
4-6(P). Given specific details, draw a sketch of an alteration or repair.
4-7(P). Given an electrical wiring diagram, explain the various symbols and explain how it can be used to assist in
troubleshooting the system.

AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS

PHYSICS FOR AVIATION CHAPTER
Matter, Energy, Force, Work, Power, Torque, Simple Machines, Pulleys, Gears, Inclined Planes,
Stresses, Motion, Heat, Pressure, Gas, and Sound
05
QUESTIONS
5-1 AMG027 5-4 AMG099

Which of the following is not a characteristic of matter? An engine that weighs 350 pounds is removed from an
A. Porosity. aircraft by means of a mobile hoist. The engine is raised 3
B. Impenetrability. feet above its attachment mount, and the entire assembly is
C. Energy. then moved forward 12 feet. A constant force of 70 pounds
in required to move the loaded hoist. What is the total work
input required to move the hoist?
A. 840 foot-pounds
B. 1,890 foot-pounds
C. 1,050 foot-pounds
5-2 AMG027 5-5 AMG099

A fully charged aircraft battery is an example of? How much work input is required to lower (not drop) a
A. Potential Energy. 120-pound weight from the top of a 3-foot table to the floor?
B. Kinetic Energy. A. 120 pounds of force
C. Power. B. 360 foot-pounds
C. 40 foot-pounds
5-3 AMG055 5-6 AMG099

What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic cylinder Which of the following is not a kind of friction?
if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches and the fluid A. Rolling friction.
pressure is 850 PSI? B. Static friction.
A. 1,020 pounds C. Resisting friction.
B. 960 pounds
C. 850 pounds

PHYSICS FOR AVIATION
ANSWERS

The characteristics of matter are: mass and weight, attraction, Work = Force (F) × distance (d)
porosity, impenetrability, density, and specific gravity. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 5]

Energy in storage is potential energy. Once a circuit is closed Work = Force (F) × distance (d)
and the energy stored in the battery is actually performing [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 5]
work, such as starting an engine or powering a light, it is
considered kinetic energy. Power is the actual force being
applied over distance and time.

Work = Force (F) × distance (d). F = W/d. Thus, the three kinds of friction may be classified as:
F = 850 PSI times 1.2 square inches = 1,020 1. starting (static) friction,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 5] 2. sliding friction, and,
3. rolling friction.

QUESTIONS
5-7 AMG099 5-10 AMG099

In physics, which of the following factors are necessary to The amount of force applied to rope A in Figure 5-1 (below)
determine power? to lift the weight is?
1. Force exerted A. 12 pounds.
2. Distance moved B. 15 pounds.
3. Time required C. 20 pounds.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 3
5-8 AMG099
The simplest machine and probably the most familiar is
A. the gear.
B. the lever.
C. the inclined plane. A
60 POUNDS
5-9 AMG099
Figure 5-1. Amount of force.
If you tried to lift a 200lb aircraft part, which type of pulley
design would make for the least effort needed?
A. Single movable pulley.
B. Block and tackle.
C. Single fixed pulley.

ANSWERS

Power = force × distance ÷ time (divided by time) The block and tackle shown in the figure has four ropes
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 7] supporting the weight and therefore provides a mechanical
advantage of four. To determine the force to be exerted
divide the weight to be moved by the mechanical advantage
(60/4 = 15). It will take 15 pounds of force to lift the weight.
Note that the rope must be pulled four times the distance the
weight is to be lifted, e.g. if the weight must be lifted 10 feet,
you will have to pull the rope 40 feet.
5-8 Answer B.
The simplest machine, and perhaps the most familiar one, is
the lever.
Effort
Support
Ropes
5-9 Answer B.
A block and tackle is made up of multiple pulleys, some of
them fixed and some movable. In Figure 5-2 (right), the block
and tackle is made up of four pulleys, the top two being fixed
and the bottom two being movable. Viewing the figure from
right to left, notice there are four ropes supporting the weight
and a fifth rope where the effort is applied. The number
of weight supporting ropes determines the mechanical
advantage of a block and tackle, in this case the mechanical
advantage is four. If the weight was 200 lb., it would require a
50 lb. effort to lift it. Weight
Figure 5-2. Block and tackle.

QUESTIONS
5-11 AMG099 5-14 AMG099

The type of stress that can cause an object to become Which of the following is Newton’s First Law of Motion,
distorted or change its shape is generally termed the Law of Inertia?
A. torsion. A. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.
B. strain. B. Force is proportional to the product of mass
C. bending. and acceleration.
C. Objects at rest tend to remain at rest and objects in
motion tend to remain in motion at the same speed and
direction, unless acted on by an external force.
5-12 AMG099 5-15 AMG099

__________________ is the type of stress that tries to pull the Based on Newton’s second law of motion, the formula to
object apart. calculate thrust is?
A. Compression Where:
B. Shear F = Force Gt = Gravity (time)
C. Tension W = Weight M = Mass
Vi = Initial Velocity A = Acceleration
W (Vf-Vi)
A. F = --------------
Gt
B. F = MA
C. F = MA/Gt
5-13 AMG099 5-16 AMG099

We need to calculate the acceleration of an airplane traveling Newton’s Third Law of motion is often called?
at 300 mph. The pilot pushes the throttle to a speed of A. Momentum.
600 mph in 30 seconds. What is the airplane’s average B. The law of potential energy.
acceleration in mph/s? C. The law of action and reaction.
A. 20 mph/s
B. 300 mph/s
C. 10 mph/s

ANSWERS

If the stress acting on an object is great enough, it can cause By Newton’s first law of motion, stating that objects at rest
the object to change its shape or to become distorted. tend to remain at rest and objects in motion tend to remain in
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 14-15] motion at the same speed and in the same direction, unless
acted on by an external force.

Tension is a force that tries to pull an object apart. For A body that has great momentum has a strong tendency
example, if a rope was suspending a heavy object, it is the to remain in motion and is therefore hard to stop. Force =
weight of the object which causes tension to be applied to Weight (Velocity final - Velocity initial); Gravity (Time)
the rope.
W (Vf-Vi)
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 14] Force = --------------
Gt

Acceleration is the rate of change of speed of an object. For Newton’s third law of motion is often called the law of action
example, if an object increases its speed by 10 mph over a 5 and reaction.
second period of time, the rate of change of speed is 2 miles [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 18]
per hour per second. Acceleration (A) = Velocity Final (Vf) -
Velocity Initial (Vi) / Time (t)

QUESTIONS
5-17 AMG099 5-20 AMG027

Which of the following scenarios is an example of The heat transfer process of convection occurs in
centripetal force? _____________.
A. The G forces felt by the flight crew during a steep turn. A. Solids and liquids.
B. The forces on spinning propeller blade at it works to B. Liquids and gasses.
pull itself from the hub. C. Solids only.
C. The forces on turbine engine shaft as it works to hold
onto each attached compressor blade.
5-18 AMG027 5-21 AMG027

Which of the following is not used to express quantities of Which statement concerning heat and/or temperature
heat energy? is true?
A. Calorie A. There is an inverse relationship between temperature
B. Degree and heat.
C. BTU B. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the
molecules of any substance.
C. Temperature is a measure of the potential energy of the
molecules of any substance.
5-19 AMG027 5-22 AMG099

An airplane engine is burning enough fuel to produce 680 Thermal expansion is very slight in
horsepower but it is only creating 285. What is the thermal A. gases.
efficiency of this airplane’s engine? B. liquids.
A. 238.59% C. solids.
B. 41.91%
C. 58.08%

ANSWERS

Centripetal force is the force that acts on a body moving in a Convection is the process of transferring heat by the
circular path and is directed toward the center around which movement of fluids. Liquids and gasses are considered
the body is moving. An example is a ball attached to a string fluids. Convection is often used for removing heat or
when it is swung in a circular motion. Another example is the cooling an object. In the convective process, the faster the
force on a shaft such as in a turbine engine which is exerted movement of those fluids, the more heat will be transferred.
by the mass of the fan blades as they rotate with the shaft. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 21]

Two different units are used to express quantities of heat Temperature and heat have a direct relationship, as heat
energy. They are the calorie and the BTU. increases temperature increases. Potential energy is stored
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 19] energy. Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object
in motion.

Thermal Efficiency = Horsepower Produced ÷ Horsepower in Fuel Because the molecules of solids are much closer together
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 19-20] and are more strongly attracted to each other, the expansion
of solids when heated is very slight in comparison to the
expansion in liquids and gases.

QUESTIONS
5-23 AMG099 5-26 AMG055

Which pressure includes atmospheric pressure in its reading? What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic cylinder
A. Gauge pressure if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches and the fluid
B. Absolute pressure pressure is 850 PSI?
C. Differential pressure A. 1,020 pounds
B. 960 pounds
C. 850 pounds
5-24 AMG027 5-27 AMG055

If the volume of a confined gas is double (without the If a double-acting actuating cylinder in a 3,000 PSI system
addition of more gas), assuming the temperature remains has a piston with a surface area of three square inches on
constant, the pressure will the extension side, and a rod with a cross-section area of
A. increase in direct proportion to the volume increase. one square inch attached to the piston on the other side,
B. remain the same. approximately how much force will the actuator be able to
C. be reduced to one-half of its original value. produce when retracting?
A. 9,000 pounds
B. 6,000 pounds
C. 3,000 pounds
5-25 AMG027 5-28 AMG027

Which gas law states that all gases expand and contract in Which statement concerning Bernoulli’s principle is true?
direct proportion to the change in the absolute temperature A. The pressure of a fluid increases at points where the
provided the pressure is held constant? velocity of the fluid increases.
A. Dalton’s Law B. The pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the
B. General Gas Law velocity of the fluid increases.
C. Charles’ Law C. It applies only to gases and the expansion or
contraction when exposed to heat.

ANSWERS

A gauge that includes atmospheric pressure in its reading Pascal’s law states that a force applied to a confined liquid is
is measuring what is known as absolute pressure, or transmitted equally in all directions.
PSIA. Absolute pressure is equal to gauge pressure plus Force = Pressure × Area.
atmospheric pressure. Thus 850 pounds/sq. in. × 1.2 = 1020 pounds

Boyle’s law is normally stated as: "The volume of an Force = Pressure × Area. In a double-acting actuating
enclosed dry gas varies inversely with its absolute pressure, cylinder, the rod on the retraction side reduces the overall
provided the temperature remains constant." surface area of the piston equal to the surface area of the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 25] cross-section of the retraction side. In this example, the 3
sq. in. piston area is reduced by 1 sq. in. of the retraction
piston area.

Charles found that all gases expand and contract in direct The static pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at
proportion to the change in the absolute temperature, points where the velocity of the fluid increases, provided no
provided the pressure is held constant. energy is added to nor taken away from the fluid.

QUESTIONS
5-29 AMG099 5-32 AMG008

What does the following describe? "When two adjacent Which mixture of a cubic foot of air will be the most dense?
objects have the same natural frequency and one starts to A. Air containing 2% water vapor.
vibrate; that wave energy can be transferred to the other B. Air containing 65% water vapor.
object causing it to vibrate as well." C. Air which is completely saturated with water vapor.
A. Resonance.
B. Doppler Effect.
C. Propagation.
5-30 AMG099 5-33 AMG008

Decibels are a measure of a sound’s Which condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a
A. wave length. mixture of air and water?
B. amplitude. A. Relative Humidity
C. frequency. B. Dew point
C. Absolute Humidity
5-31 AMG008 5-34 AMG008

Which atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing Which is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the
speed of an aircraft to be the greatest? atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air
A. Low temperature with low humidity were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure?
B. High temperature with low humidity A. Absolute Humidity
C. High temperature with high humidity B. Relative Humidity
C. Dew point

ANSWERS

The statement describes the phenomena of resonance. Water vapor weighs less than dry air, therefore the weight of
Doppler effect refers to the changing of perceived frequency an air water vapor mixture decreases as the amount of water
of sound related to its motion to or from the observer. vapor increases.
Propagation refers to the movement of a vibration from [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 35-37]
its source.

Sound intensity (or its amplitude) is measured in decibels, Absolute humidity is the actual amount of the water vapor in
with a decibel being the ratio of one sound to another. One a mixture of air and water. Dew point is the temperature that
decibel (dB) is the smallest change in sound the human ear air must be cooled to reach saturation. Relative humidity is
can detect. Wave length and frequency are perceived as a the ratio of vapor present if the air was saturated.
measure of a sounds pitch or tone. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 36]

The density of air determines the true landing speed for an Relative humidity is the ratio of the amount of water vapor
aircraft. Both its temperature and its humidity determine air actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that
density, with density decreasing as temperature and humidity would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing
increase. Air density is one factor in determining aerodynamic temperature and pressure.
lift, in addition to the shape of the airfoil and the speed of the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 36]
airfoil through the air. Thus, the lower the air density the faster
the aircraft will have to travel to maintain the required lift.

QUESTIONS
5-35 AMG099 5-38 AMG007

Which of the following is not a true statement about the Four Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the
Forces of Flight? A. wingspan to the wing root.
A. When an airplane is at a constant altitude, lift and B. square of the chord to the wingspan.
weight are equal. C. wingspan to the mean chord.
B. When an airplane is decelerating, it has less thrust
than drag.
C. When an airplane is climbing, it has more weight
than lift.
5-36 AMG099 5-39 AMG099

Which term below is best described "as the velocity of a Which one of the below is not a method of controlling
fluid increases, the static pressure of that fluid will decrease, boundary layer air?
provided there is no energy added or energy taken away"? A. Air suction through small holes on the wing’s upper
A. Bernoulli’s Principle surface.
B. Newton’s Third Law B. Wing leading edge slots.
C. Pascal’s Law C. Wingtip electrical generators.
5-37 AMG007 5-40 AMG099

An increase in the speed at which an airfoil passes through The term that best describes the approach of the boundary
the air increases lift because layer to the center of the wing that begins to lose speed due
A. the increased speed of the airflow creates a greater to skin friction and becomes thicker and turbulent is
pressure differential between the upper and A. transition point.
lower surfaces. B. turbulent layer.
B. the increased speed of the airflow creates a lesser C. laminar layer.
pressure differential between the upper and
lower surfaces.
C. the increased velocity of the relative wind increases the
angle of attack.

ANSWERS

During flight, there are four forces acting on an airplane. These The aspect ratio of a wing is the relationship between its
forces are lift, weight, thrust, and drag. All four of these forces span (wingtip to wingtip measurement) and the chord of
are measured in pounds. Any time the forces are not in balance, the wing.
something about the airplane’s condition is changing. The [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 40]
possibilities are as follows:
1. When an airplane is accelerating, it has more thrust
than drag.
2. When an airplane is decelerating, it has less thrust
than drag.
3. When an airplane is at a constant velocity, thrust and
drag are equal.
4. When an airplane is climbing, it has more lift
than weight.
5. When an airplane is descending, it has more weight
than lift.
6. When an airplane is at a constant altitude, lift and weight
are equal.

Bernoulli’s principle, as we refer to it today, states "as the One way of keeping the boundary layer air under control, or
velocity of a fluid increases, the static pressure of that fluid lessening its negative effect, is to make the wing’s surface as
will decrease, provided there is no energy added or energy smooth as possible and to keep it free of dirt and debris. Other
taken away." methods of controlling boundary layer air include wing leading
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 37-39] edge slots, air suction through small holes on the wing’s upper
surface, and the use of devices called vortex generators.

The increased speed of the airflow creates a greater As the boundary layer approaches the center of the wing,
pressure differential between the upper and lower surfaces. it begins to lose speed due to skin friction and it becomes
The lift on the wing as described by Bernoulli’s principle, thicker and turbulent. Here it is called the turbulent layer.
and lift on the wing as described by Newton’s third law, are [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 40]
not separate or independent of each other. They are just
two different ways to describe the same thing, namely the
lift on a wing. The wing of an airplane moves through the air
because the airplane is in motion, and generates lift by the
process previously described.

QUESTIONS
5-41 AMG007 5-44 AMG039

The purpose of an aircraft wing dihedral is to The ailerons or the spoilers on a jet transport are types of
A. increase lateral stability. flight controls or lateral control for the
B. increase longitudinal stability A. vertical axis.
C. increase lift coefficient of the wing. B. lateral axis.
C. longitudinal axis.
5-42 AMG007 5-45 AMG039

What type of stability for an airplane involves the tendency The rudder is a type of flight control or directional control
for the nose to pitch up or pitch down, rotating around the for the
lateral axis? A. vertical axis.
A. Lateral stability B. lateral axis.
B. Directional stability C. longitudinal axis.
C. Longitudinal stability
5-43 AMG007 5-46 AMG038

Which stability term represents a small amount of oscillation The elevator attached to the horizontal stabilizer is a type of
around both the longitudinal and vertical axes? flight control or directional control for the
A. Static stability A. vertical axis.
B. Dutch Roll B. lateral axis.
C. Dynamic stability C. longitudinal axis.

ANSWERS

One design characteristic that tends to give an airplane good The middle of the airplane, from nose to tail, passing through
lateral stability is called dihedral. Dihedral is an upward angle the center of gravity. Movement around this axis is known
for the wings with respect to the horizontal, and it is usually as roll, and control around this axis is called lateral control.
just a few degrees. Movement around this axis is controlled by the ailerons, and
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 43] on some airplanes, it is aided by surfaces on the wing known
as spoilers.

Longitudinal stability for an airplane involves the tendency for The vertical axis of an airplane runs from top to bottom
the nose to pitch up or pitch down, rotating around the lateral through the middle of the airplane, passing through the
axis (wingtip to wingtip). center of gravity. Movement around this axis is known as
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 42] yaw, and control around this axis is called directional control.
Movement around this axis is controlled by the rudder.

The aircraft tendency to move in the opposite direction of The lateral axis of an airplane is a line that runs below the
how it is slipping, and the lift of the vertical fin will try to yaw wing, from wingtip to wingtip, passing through the airplane’s
the airplane in the direction of the slip. If the wing dihedral center of gravity. Movement around this axis is called pitch,
has the greatest effect, the airplane will have a tendency to and control around this axis is called longitudinal control.
experience a Dutch roll. A Dutch roll is the oscillation around [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 43]
both the longitudinal and vertical axes.

QUESTIONS
5-47 AMG038 5-50 AMG007

Which type of flight control tabs move in the opposite At which speed does the airplane experience stability
direction of the control surface on which it is attached? problems?
A. trim tabs A. Subsonic
B. anti-servo tabs B. Transonic
C. balance tabs C. Supersonic
5-48 AMG038 5-51 AMG007

How many of the following devices are primarily used to Which type of wave is not a shock wave?
modify the amount of lift produced by a wing? A. Expansion
• Flaps • Slats • Tabs B. Oblique
• Slots • Spoilers C. Normal
A. 2 of the 5 listed devices are primarily used to modify lift.
B. 3 of the 5 listed devices are primarily used to modify lift.
C. 4 of the 5 listed devices are primarily used to modify lift.
5-49 AMG007 5-52 AMG091

The speed of sound in the atmosphere is affected by Name four of the seven main components of a helicopter.
variations in which of the following? A. Landing gear, transmission, tail rotor, main rotor
A. Sound frequency (cps) B. Cabin, tail boom, transmission, powerplant
B. Ambient temperature C. Blades, tail rotor, landing gear, tail boom
C. Barometric pressure

ANSWERS

Just the opposite of anti-servo tabs, balance tabs move in Stability problems can be encountered during transonic
the opposite direction of the flight control’s trailing edge, flight, because the shock wave can cause the airflow to
providing a force that helps the flight control move. The servo separate from the wing.
tab is acting like a balance tab, but rather than assisting the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 48]
normal force that moves the elevator, it becomes the sole
force that makes the elevator move. Like the balance tab,
the servo tab moves in the opposite direction of the flight
control’s trailing edge.

Flaps, slots, slats, and spoilers effect the airflow, velocities, An expansion wave occurs when supersonic air turns away
and pressures over and under a wing. Tabs are used from the direction of flow as determined by the airfoil shape
primarily to adjust control pressures required by various and follows a new direction. Expansion waves are not shock
larger flight controls. waves. Shock waves are formed when pressure waves
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 46-47] (sound energy) compresses in front of, and cannot get away
from the airplane.

The speed of sound in air changes with temperature, The main parts that make up a helicopter are the cabin,
increasing as temperature increases. landing gear, tail boom, powerplant, transmission, main rotor,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 48] and tail rotor.

QUESTIONS
5-53 AMG091 5-54 AMG091

The rotor system on a helicopter that has blades which are Identify which anti-torque system of a helicopter presents the
rigidly attached to the hub with the blades and a hub able to least amount of risk to personnel on the ground and creates
teeter like a seesaw is the less drag in flight?
A. rigid rotor system. A. NOTAR
B. fully articulated rotor system. B. Fenestron
C. semi-rigid rotor system. C. Tail rotor

ANSWERS

The semi-rigid rotor system is used with a two blade main An alternative to the tail rotor seen in Figure 5-86, General
rotor. The blades are rigidly attached to the hub, with the hub Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, is a type of antitorque rotor
and blades able to teeter like a seesaw. known as a fenestron, or "fan-in-tail" design as seen in
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 51-52] Figure 5-87, General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB. Because
the rotating blades in this design are enclosed in a shroud,
they present less of a hazard to personnel on the ground and
they create less drag in flight.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
5-1(O). Name the six simple machines.
5-2(O). Explain resonance and how it can be hazardous to aircraft.
5-3(O). Explain the relationship between the density of a fluid and specific gravity.
5-4(O). Explain how specific gravity of fluids can be applied to aircraft maintenance.
5-5(O). If the temperature of a confined gas is increased, what effect does this have on its pressure?
5-6(O). If the volume of a gas is allowed to increase, what effect does this have on its temperature if the pressure
remains the same?
5-7(O). If the pressure of a confined gas is increased, what effect does this have on its temperature?
5-8(O). Hydraulic and pneumatic systems both use fluids, what is the difference between these fluids?
5-9(O). Define density.
5-10(O). Define density altitude.
5-11(O). Name the various methods of heat transfer.
5-12(O). What are the effects of thermal expansion on aircraft?
5-13(O). Name the four forces acting on an aircraft in flight.
5-14(O). Explain the four forces acting on an aircraft in flight.
5-15(O). Name the three axes of rotation that determine movement of an airplane in flight.
5-16(O). Where do the three axes of rotation intersect on an airplane?
5-17(O). Name the three flight controls that provide movement around each of the three axes of rotation and on which
axes they rotate the aircraft.
5-18(O). Define angle of attack.
5-19(O). Explain a stall on an aircraft in flight.
5-20(O). Explain the relationship between force, area, and pressure.
5-21(O). Name the five forces or stresses that affect aircraft structures.
5-22(O). Explain the force of tension.
5-23(O). Explain the force of compression.
5-24(O). Explain the force of torsion.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
5-25(O). Explain the force of bending.
5-26(O). Explain the force of shear.
5-27(O). Name the two forms of energy and explain each.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
5-1(O). The lever, the pulley, the wheel and axle, the inclined plane, the screw, and the gear.
5-2(O). Resonance occurs when an object is vibrated at its natural frequency, at which time it becomes relatively
self-sustaining. Sustained vibration at this frequency can cause damage to object as well as transferring
this energy surrounding objects that pick up their natural frequency and start to resonant. This type of
accumulating vibration can destroy an aircraft.
5-3(O). Specific gravity is equal to the density of a substance divided by the density of water. Water has a specific
gravity of 1. The higher the density of the fluid the higher the specific gravity.
5-4(O). Specific gravity is often used to measure the change in density. A hydrometer is used to measure the specific
gravity of liquids, such as the electrolyte (battery liquid) in an aircraft battery or fuel to determine weight.
5-5(O). Increasing the temperature of a confined gas will also increase its pressure.
5-6(O). Allowing the volume of a gas to increase, but maintaining the same pressure its temperature will decrease.
5-7(O). Increasing the pressure of a confined gas will cause its temperature to increase.
5-8(O). Hydraulic fluid is a liquid and is there incompressible, while pneumatic fluid is air and therefore
is compressible.
5-9(O). Density is a measurement of an object’s mass. It is expressed in weight per unit volume, such as pounds per
cubic foot or grams per cubic centimeter.
5-10(O). Density altitude is a calculated altitude obtained by correcting pressure altitude for
non-standard temperature.
5-11(O). The three methods of heat transfer are conduction, convection, and radiation.
5-12(O). Metal expands when exposed to heat and if this expansion is not taken into consideration when designing
airframes the metal would expand causing excess stresses on aircraft structures, powerplants, and
other components.
5-13(O). Lift, weight, thrust, and drag.


ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
5-14(O). Lift is the upward force created by the wing, weight is the pull of gravity on the airplane’s mass, thrust is the
force created by the airplane’s propeller or turbine engine, and drag is the friction caused by the air flowing
around the airplane.
5-15(O). Longitudinal, lateral, and vertical.

5-16(O). At the center of gravity (CG).

5-17(O). Ailerons rotate the aircraft around the longitudinal axis; the elevator rotates the aircraft around the lateral axis,
and the rudder rotates the aircraft around the vertical axis.
5-18(O). Angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the relative wind.
5-19(O). A stall occurs when the angle of attack becomes too great, the airflow separates from the wing and lift
is destroyed.
5-20(O). Force applied to an object is the product of pressure exerted on the object multiplied by the area of the object
where pressure is applied. The equation for this is Force = Pressure × Area.
5-21(O). Tension, compression, torsion, bending, and shear.

5-22(O). Tension is a force that tries to pull an object apart.

5-23(O). Compression is a force that tries to crush an object.

5-24(O). Torsion is the stress an object experiences when it is twisted.

5-25(O). Bending is the result of two stresses, compression and tension, acting on an object at the same time. Tension
is experienced on the outside of the curve formed by the bend and compression is experienced on the inside
curve of the bend.
5-26(O). Shear is the stress an object experiences when a force tries to cut or slice the object.
5-27(O). The two forms of energy are potential and kinetic. Potential energy is energy at rest, or energy that is stored.
Kinetic energy is energy in motion.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
5-1(P). Given several temperatures of various scales, convert them to equivalent temperatures of a different
temperature scale, e.g. Fahrenheit to Celsius.
5-2(P). Given the required information, calculate density altitude.
5-3(P). Given the required information, calculate pressure altitude.
5-4(P). Given a scenario, calculate the force, area, or pressure when given two of the three.
5-5(P). Demonstrate the mechanical advantage of the three classes of levers.
5-6(P). Design an inclined plane on paper, indicating the mechanical advantage.
5-7(P). Given a picture of a venturi, identify the changes in pressure and velocity as a fluid passes through the venturi.
5-8(P). Design a mechanical pulley system.
5-9(P). Given an object’s specific gravity that is less than one, determine its density.
5-10(P). Given a scenario, calculate the horsepower for a given weight, distance, and time.
5-11(P). Given a scenario, calculate expansion due to temperature change.


AIRCRAFT WEIGHT AND BALANCE CHAPTER
Terminology, Weighing Procedures, Weight and Balance Equipment, Loading for Flight,
Extreme Conditions, Equipment Change 06
QUESTIONS
Note: References in this section have also been taken from FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook.
It is an excellent supplement to this chapter and can be purchased in Print or eBook formats at www.actechbooks.com
6-1 AMG069 6-4 AMG003

Which one of the following can provide the empty weight What type of measurement is used to designate arm in a
of an aircraft if the aircraft’s weight and balance records weight and balance computation?
become lost, destroyed, or otherwise inaccurate? A. Distance
A. Reweighing the aircraft with the proper configuration B. Weight
for determining weight. C. Weight/distance
B. The applicable Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate
Data Sheets.
C. The applicable flight manual or pilot’s operating
handbook.
6-2 AMG069 6-5 AMG003

1. Private aircraft are required by regulations to be weighed A 7 pound component located at an arm of +146 is replaced
periodically. with a 4 pound component at the same location, how does
2. Private aircraft are required to be weighed after making this effect the overall CG of the aircraft?
any alteration. A. The center of gravity moves rearward.
B. The center of gravity moves forward.
Regarding the above statements: C. Not enough information is given to determine.
A. Neither #1 nor #2 are true
B. Only # 1 is true
C. Only #2 is true
6-3 AMG003 6-6 AMG003

In the theory of weight and balance, what is the name of the The major source of weight change for most aircraft as they
distance from the fulcrum to an object? age is caused by?
A. Arm A. Accumulation of grime and debris and moisture
B. Datum absorption in cabin insulation.
C. Moment B. Repairs and alterations made to the aircraft over time.
C. Installation of hardware and safety wire and added
layers of paint to the structure.

AIRCRAFT WEIGHT AND BALANCE
ANSWERS

If the weight and balance report for an aircraft is lost, the The arm’s distance is always given or measured in inches
aircraft must be weighed and a new report must be created. from the datum. Distances to the right (aft) of the datum are
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 2] positive and to the left (forward) of the datum are negative.

Statement #1 is false. For a small general aviation airplane, This can not be determined with the given information
being used privately, such as a Cessna 172, there is no because we do not know if position +146 in located in front
FAA requirement that it be periodically reweighed. There of or behind the previous center of gravity. If +146 is located
is, however, an FAA requirement that the airplane always in front of the CG, the weight reduction will move the CG
has a current and accurate weight and balance report. rearward. If +146 is located behind the CG, the reduction will
Statement #2 is false. If the airplane has new equipment move the CG forward.
installed, such as a radio or a global positioning system, [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 3-4]
a new weight and balance report must be created. If the
installer of the equipment wants to place the airplane on
scales and weigh it after the installation that is a perfectly
acceptable way of creating the new report. If the installer
knows the exact weight and location of the new equipment,
it is also possible to create a new report by doing a series
of mathematical calculations.

This question refers to a "fulcrum", a fulcrum is the point Over time, almost all aircraft have a tendency to gain weight.
where an object will balance. In aviation, the fulcrum of an Examples of how this can happen include all of the answers
aircraft is also the center of gravity. The arm is the horizontal provided however, the greatest source of weight change is
distance that a part of the aircraft or a piece of equipment from repairs and alterations.
is located from the fulcrum. However, to make weight and [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 2]
balance calculation easier, the use of a datum is employed.
In weight and balance theory, the datum is a reference point
only and can be placed anywhere on or even in front of
the airplane. The datum is often placed at the nose of the
aircraft or even at a spot measured forward from a specific
location on the aircraft, such as the nose, to allow for all
weight and balance calculations to be positive. Thus, the arm
can be defined as the horizontal distance that a part of the
aircraft or a piece of equipment is located from the datum,
remembering that the center of gravity does not change.

QUESTIONS
6-7 AMG003 6-10 AMG003

What determines whether the value of a moment is preceded The useful load of an aircraft consists of the
by a plus (+) or minus (-) sign in aircraft weight and balance? A. crew, usable fuel, passengers, and cargo.
A. The location of the weight in reference to the datum. B. crew, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and fixed equipment.
B. Whether a change in weight occurs forward or aft of C. crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and
the datum. fixed equipment.
C. The location of the datum in reference to the
aircraft CG.
6-8 AMG003 6-11 AMG003

In the process of weighing an airplane to obtain the CG, the The amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and
arms from the weighing points always extend corresponding CG is?
A. parallel to the centerline of the airplane. A. Empty fuel tanks.
B. straight forward from each of the landing gear. B. Unusable fuel.
C. directly from each weighing point to the others. C. The amount of fuel necessary for 1/2 hour of operation.
6-9 AMG003 6-12 AMG003

When dealing with weight and balance of an aircraft, the term The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between
"maximum weight" is interpreted to mean the maximum A. The maximum takeoff weight and the basic
A. weight of the empty aircraft. empty weight.
B. weight of the useful load. B. Maximum ramp or takeoff weight as applicable and
C. authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents. zero fuel weight.
C. The weight of an aircraft filled, and full fuel, and weight
empty with minimum fuel.

ANSWERS

The algebraic sign of the Moment (+ or -) is based on The useful load consists of fuel, any other fluids that are not
whether the Moment (weight × arm) is located in front of or part of empty weight, passengers, baggage, pilot, copilot,
behind the datum. Thus, a change in weight (for example if and crew members.
a heavy radio is replaced with a lighter one) will affect the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 5]
Moment positively or negatively based upon the weight
change and the radio's distance from the datum (arm).
• Weight added aft of the datum produces a positive
moment (+ weight, + arm)
• Weight added forward of the datum produces a negative
moment (+ weight, - arm)
• Weight removed aft of the datum produces a negative
moment (- weight, + arm)
• Weight removed forward of the datum produces a
positive moment (- weight, - arm)

When weighing an aircraft, the arm of an object is always Unusable fuel is defined as the fuel remaining after a
parallel to the centerline of the aircraft. runout test has been completed in accordance with
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 3, 6] governmental regulations.

The maximum weight is the maximum authorized weight of Useful load is defined as the difference between take off
the aircraft and its contents, and is indicated in the Aircraft weight, or ramp weight if applicable, and basic empty weight.
Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheet. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 5]

QUESTIONS
6-13 AMG003 6-16 AMG002

When determining the empty weight of an aircraft certificated To determine center of gravity, which of the following
under current airworthiness standards (FAR 23), the oil formulas is used?
contained in the supply tank is considered A. total arm × total weight
A. a part of the empty weight. B. total moment / total weight
B. a part of the useful load. C. total moment × total weight
C. the same as the fluid contained in the water injection
reservoir.
6-14 AMG003 6-17 AMG069

What is meant by the term "residual fuel"? The maximum weight as used in the weight and balance
A. A known amount of fuel left in the tanks, lines, control of a given aircraft can normally be found
and engine. A. by adding the fuel, passengers and baggage to the
B. The fuel remaining in the tanks, lines, and engine empty weight.
after draining. B. in the Aircraft Specification or Type Data Sheets.
C. The fuel remaining in the tanks, lines, and engine C. by adding the empty weight and payload.
before draining.
6-15 AMG003 6-18 AMG003

Zero fuel weight is the Load cell scales are commonly found to be the platform type
A. dry weight plus the weight of full crew, passengers, and and placed on top of the aircraft
cargo. A. fuselage.
B. basic operating weight without crew, fuel, and cargo. B. wing.
C. maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft C. jacks.
(passengers, crew, cargo) without fuel.

ANSWERS

Empty weight is defined as the weight of the airframe, Center of Gravity = Total Moment ÷ Total Weight. This
engines, all permanently installed equipment and unusable calculation will provide the point at which an airplane would
fuel. For most aircraft certified after 1978, a full reservoir balance if suspended.
of oil is to be included in the empty weight. Always check [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 7]
the Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheet to
determine if a full oil reservoir is required.

Residual fuel, (also called unusable fuel) is the small amount Maximum weight, as well other important weight and
of fuel within the aircraft that can not be drawn by the balance information found in the Aircraft Specification or
engine during operations as it is below the level of the fuel Type Certificate Data Sheet.
intake. Because the fuel is there but can not be used, it is [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 8]
considered as a part of the empty airframe itself. It also
includes undrainable fuel in the fuel lines, carburetor, and other
engine parts.

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight is defined as the maximum Load cells are defined as a component in an electronic
authorized weight of an aircraft without fuel. This is the sum weighing system that is placed between the jack and the
of basic operating weight (BOW) and payload (weight of jack pad on the aircraft. The load cell contains strain gauges
occupants, cargo, and baggage). whose resistance changes with the weight on the cell.

QUESTIONS
6-19 AMG003 6-22 AMG003

Use of which of the following generally yields the highest To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the
degree of aircraft leveling accuracy? CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed
A. electronic load cell(s) A. in a level flight attitude.
B. spirit level(s) B. with all items of useful load installed.
C. plumb bob and chalk line C. with at least minimum fuel (1/2 gallon per METO
horsepower) in the fuel tanks.
6-20 AMG003 6-23 AMG003

When an aircraft is weighed with full fuel tanks, which device When an aircraft is positioned for weighing on scales located
is used to determine the weight of the fuel? under each landing gear wheel, which of the following may
A. A calculator cause erroneous scale readings?
B. A thermometer A. gear downlocks installed
C. A hydrometer B. parking brakes set
C. parking brakes not set
6-21 AMG003 6-24 AMG003

What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to The standard weight of a person, for the purposes of weight
determine empty weight? and balance calculations, is
A. Remove all items except those on the aircraft A. 180 pounds.
equipment list; drain fuel and hydraulic fluid. B. 170 pounds.
B. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list; drain C. 75 kilos.
fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight.
C. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment
list; drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir.

ANSWERS

The leveling method that yields the highest degree of Before an aircraft can be weighed and reliable readings
accuracy is achieved using a spirit level, sometimes obtained, it must be in a level flight attitude.
thought of as a carpenter’s level, by placing it on or against [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 15]
a specified place on the aircraft. Spirit levels consist of a
vial full of liquid, except for a small air bubble. When the
air bubble is centered between the two black lines, a level
condition is indicated.

A hydrometer measures the specific gravity of a liquid and When weighing an aircraft with the wheels placed on the
will give you the unit of pounds per gallon of the fuel to be scales, release the parking brakes to reduce the possibility of
used to calculate the total weight of the fuel. incorrect readings caused by side loads on the scales.

Empty weight is defined as the weight of the airframe, The standard weight for crew members and passengers is
engines, all permanently installed equipment and unusable 170 lb. per person.
fuel. Therefore, all items not listed on the aircraft equipment [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 17]
list must be removed including fuel and most likely, per
the Type Certificate Data Sheet, servicing of the hydraulic
reservoir must be accomplished before the aircraft can
be weighed.

QUESTIONS
6-25 AMG002 6-28 AMG002

As weighed, the total empty weight of an aircraft is 5,862 Consider the specifications of the following aircraft:
pounds with a moment of 885,957. However, when the The datum is 30.24" forward of the main gear
aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of potable water were on The distance from the main gear to the tail gear is 360.26"
board at +84, and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid were in the The weight measured on the right main gear is 9,980 lbs
tank located at +101. What is the empty weight CG of the The weight measured on the left main gear is 9,770 lbs
aircraft? The weight measured on the tail wheel is 1,970 lbs
A. 150.700
B. 151.700 The following items were in the aircraft when weighed:
C. 151.360 Lavatory water weighing 34 lbs at an arm of +352
Ballast weighing 146 lbs at an arm of +380
Hydraulic fluid weighing 22 lbs at an arm of +8
What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft described?

A. 62.92"
B. 60.31"
C. 58.54"
6-26 AMG002
Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are placed
in an airplane so their distance aft from the CG are 4 feet and
2 feet respectively. How far forward of the CG should a third
box weighing 20 pounds be placed so that the CG will not be
changed?
A. 3 feet
B. 2.5 feet
C. 8 feet
6-27 AMG002 6-29 AMG002

In a balance computation of an aircraft from which an item When an aircraft is weighed, the combined net weight at the
located aft of the datum was removed, use main gear is 3540 pounds with an arm of 195.5". At the nose
A. (-) weight × (+) arm (-) moment. gear, the net weight is 2322 pounds with an arm of 83.5". The
B. (-) weight × (-) arm (+) moment. datum line is forward of the nose of the aircraft. What is the
C. (+) weight × (-) arm (-) moment. empty CG of the aircraft?
A. 151.1
B. 155.2
C. 146.5

ANSWERS

Empty weight is defined as the weight of the airframe, To answer this question you will need to do several mathematical
engines, all permanently installed equipment and unusable computations. To help organize the data and quickly determine
fuel. Therefore, all items not listed on the aircraft equipment the answer use the following table. Scratch paper is allowed in
list must be removed including usable fuel. Hydraulic fluid is the testing environment.
a part of the aircraft empty weight and can be ignored.
ITEM WEIGHT **ARM MOMENT
Beginning weight: 5862 lbs. Right Main 9,980 30.24 301,795.20
Beginning moment: 885,957 Left Main 9,770 30.24 295,444.80
Water moment (weight × arm): 20 × 84 = 1680
Tall Wheel 1,970 *390.50 769,285.00
Adjusted weight: 5862 – 20 = 5842 lbs.
Adjusted moment: 885,957 – 1680 = 884,277 Totals 21,720 62.92 1,366,525.00
Moment divided by weight = CG 881,954/5862 = 151.36 *Main gear arm (30.24) plus distance from main gear to tail
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 18-20] gear (360.26).
6-26 Answer B. Aircraft 21,720 62.91 1,366,525

The center of gravity can be thought of as a fulcrum (datum) Water -34 352 -11,968
and the aircraft as a board balanced on this fulcrum (datum). Ballast -146 380 -55,480
If we change one side, we have to change the other side
Totals 21,540 60.31 1,299,077
to maintain a balanced board. Here are the mathematical
equations to determine the arm of the third box. Note: Hydraulic fluid is included with the empty weight.
Remember: Moment = weight × Arm **Note: Arm = moment / weight
Moment of 10-pound box: 10 × 4 = 40 [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 18-20]
Moment of 5-pound box: 5 × 2 = 10
Total change in moments: 40 + 10 = 50
Note: The added weight changed on the aft or positive side
of the CG, therefore we have to offset the weight change on
the forward or negative side of the CG to maintain balance.
We know the weight but we need to determine where to
place the weight, in other words its arm. Arm of 20-pound
weight: 50 / 20 = 2.5. The 20-pound weight needs to be
added 2.5 feet forward of the CG of the aircraft.

What the question is asking is a bit confusing. What needs to To answer this question you will need to do several
be determined is whether the moment is positive or negative mathematical computations. To help organize the data and
based on the data provided. Remembering the datum is the quickly determine the answer use the following table. Scratch
point where the aircraft balances; objects to the aft or right paper is allowed in the testing environment.
of the datum have positive moments and objects forward or
left of the datum have negative moments. A moment equals ITEM WEIGHT **ARM MOMENT
an object’s weight and arm (distance from datum). In the Main 3540 195.5 692,070
question an item is being removed (a negative weight) from aft Nose 2322 83.5 193.887
of the datum (a positive arm) which mathematical would give a
Totals 5,862 151.1 885,957
negative (-) moment.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 18-20] **Note: Arm = moment / weight

QUESTIONS
6-30 AMG002 6-33 AMG002

Find the empty weight CG location for the following aircraft. When accomplishing loading computation for a small
Each main wheel weighs 753 pounds, nose wheel weighs aircraft, necessary information obtained from the weight and
22 pounds, distance between nose wheel and main wheels balance records would include
is 87.5", nose wheel location is +9.875" from datum, with 1 A. unusable fuel weight and distance from datum.
gallon of hydraulic fluid at -2.10" included in the weight. B. weight and location of permanent ballast.
A. +97.375" C. current empty weight and empty weight CG.
B. +95.61"
C. +96.11"
6-31 AMG002 6-34 AMG002

An aircraft with an empty weight of 2100 pounds and an All other things being equal, if an item of useful load located
empty weight CG of +32.5 was altered as follows: aft of an aircraft’s CG is removed, the aircraft’s CG will be
• Two 18 pound seats located at +73 were removed; A. aft in proportion to the weight of the item and its
• Structural modifications were made at +77 increasing location in the aircraft.
weight by 17 pounds; B. forward in proportion to the weight of the item and its
• A seat and safety belt weighing 25 pounds were location in the aircraft.
installed at +74.5; C. forward in proportion to the weight of the item,
• Radio equipment weighing 35 pounds was regardless of its location in the aircraft.
installed at +95
What is the new CG of the aircraft?

A. +34.01
B. +33.68
C. +34.65
6-32 AMG003 6-35 AMG002

You must weigh an aircraft with full fuel tanks in order to When conducting a rearward adverse condition CG check,
document its current CG point. After the total weight has all load items (such as cargo, usable fuel, and passengers)
been determined, what must be done? located forward of the _____________ should be left empty.
A. Subtract the weight of unusable fuel. A. forward CG limit
B. Subtract the weight of usable fuel. B. rearward CG limit
C. Nothing. The weight you have determine is correct. C. datum

ANSWERS

To answer this question you will need to do several To properly calculate loading information, the current
mathematical computations. To help organize the data empty weight and the empty weight center of gravity must
and quickly determine the answer use the following table. be known.
Scratch paper is allowed in the testing environment. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 20]
Main 3540 195.5 692,070

Nose 2322 83.5 193.887
Totals 5,862 151.1 885,957
Note: Hydraulic fluid is included with the empty weight.
**Note: Arm = moment ÷ weight
Main wheel arm = 87.5" + 9.875"

To answer this question you will need to do several The center of gravity can be thought of as a fulcrum
mathematical computations. To help organize the data and (datum) and the aircraft as a board balanced on this
quickly determine the answer use the following table. Scratch fulcrum (datum). If one-side changes, the board is no
paper is allowed in the testing environment. longer balanced. In this example weight is removed from
the right side of the fulcrum (datum) or aft of the aircraft.
ITEM WEIGHT **ARM MOMENT This would make the aircraft nose heavy (the left side of the
board would move down). To rebalance the aircraft (board)
Aircraft 2100 32.5 68,250.0 the datum (fulcrum) would have to be moved to the left or
Seats
-36 73.0 -2,628.0 forward of its current location in proportion (moment) of the
(Removed) item removed to maintain its balance.
Modification 17 77.0 1,309.0 [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 20]
Seat 25 74.5 1,826.5
Radio 35 95.0 3,325.0
Totals 2141 33.68 72,118.5
**Note: Arm = moment ÷ weight


Empty weight is defined as the weight of the airframe, On an aft extreme condition check, all useful load items
engines, all permanently installed equipment and unusable behind the aft CG limit are loaded and all useful load items in
fuel. Because the airplane was weighed with the fuel tanks front of the aft CG limit are left empty. Even though the pilot’s
full, the full weight of the fuel must be subtracted and the seat will be located in front of the aft CG limit, the pilot’s seat
unusable fuel added back in. The weight of the fuel being cannot be left empty. If the fuel tank is located forward of the
subtracted is based on the pounds per gallon determined by aft CG limit, minimum fuel will be shown.
the hydrometer check. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 21]

QUESTIONS
6-36 AMG002 6-39 AMG002

When computing the maximum forward loaded CG of an Which statement is true regarding helicopter weight
aircraft, minimum weights, arms, and moments should be and balance?
used for items of useful load that are located aft of the A. Regardless of internal or external loading, lateral
A. rearward CG limit. CG control is ordinarily not a factor in maintaining
B. forward CG limit. helicopter weight and balance.
C. datum. B. The moment of tail-mounted components is subject to
constant change.
C. Weight and balance procedures for airplanes generally
also apply to helicopters.
6-37 AMG002 6-40 AMG002

An aircraft as loaded weighs 4,954 pounds at a CG of +30.5 Improper loading of a helicopter which results in exceeding
inches. The CG range is +32.0 to +42.1. Find the minimum either the fore and aft CG limits is hazardous due to the
weight of the ballast necessary to bring the CG within the CG A. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control.
range. The ballast arm is +162 inches. B. coriolis effect being translated to the fuselage.
A. 61.98 pounds C. reduction or loss of effective collective pitch control.
B. 30.58 pounds
C. 57.16 pounds
6-38 AMG002 6-41 AMG002

When computing weight and balance, an airplane is Where do you look to determine the operating CG
considered to be in balance when? range when calculating a new aircraft weight and
A. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls balance document?
within its cg range. A. It is found on the airframe data plate.
B. all moment arms of the plane fall within CG range. B. It is found in the type certificate data sheet.
C. the movement of the passengers will not cause the C. It is found in the pilot`s aircraft information manual.
moment arm to fall outside the CG range.

ANSWERS

On what is called a forward extreme condition check, All of the terminology and concepts that apply to airplane
all useful load items in front of the forward CG limit are weight and balance also apply generally to helicopter weight
loaded, and all useful load items behind the forward CG and balance; however most have much more restricted CG
limit are left empty. ranges than airplanes.

Ballast Needed = Loaded weight of aircraft (distance CG is Cyclic pitch control is defined as the control for changing the
out of limits) ÷ Arm from ballast location to affected limit. pitch of each rotor blade individually as it rotates through one
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 23] cycle to govern the tilt of the rotor disk and, consequently,
the direction and velocity of horizontal movement (left/
right/forward/aft). If the CG location is too extreme, in
either direction, it may not be possible to keep the fuselage
horizontal or maintain control of the helicopter.

For an aircraft to be balanced, the sum of the moment Acceptable weight and balance ranges or each individual
arms must fall within the CG range, represented on a graph model of an aircraft are provided on the Type Certificate Data
provided with the aircraft documentation. Remembering the Sheet. Minimum equipment lists including their location and
fulcrum example: even though the weights on either side arms are given in the Aircraft Information Manual and so can
of the fulcrum are not equal, and the distances from each be notated if a change occurs.
weight to the fulcrum are not equal, when the product of the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 9]
weights and arms (moments) are equal a balanced condition
is achieved. In order to fly legally, the center of gravity for the
aircraft must fall within the CG limits.

QUESTIONS
6-42 AMG069 6-44 AMG002

The FAA mandates the same weight and balance An aircraft’s LEMAC and TEMAC are defined in terms
requirements for weight-shift control aircraft and powered of distance?
parachutes as it does for certified airplanes and helicopters. A. From the datum.
A. True, the regulations are the same. B. From each other.
B. False, the regulations are not the same. C. Ahead of and behind center of lift.
C. False, the regulations are the same for weight-shift
control aircraft but not for powered parachutes.
6-43 AMG002 6-45 AMG002

If an aircraft CG is found to be at 24% of MAC, that 24% is an Consider the following on a large aircraft, and convert the
expression of the? CG location from inches to percent of MAC.
A. Distance from the TEMAC. • The CG is located at 283 inches behind the datum.
B. Distance from the LEMAC. • LEMAC is located at 270 inches behind the datum.
C. Average distance from the LEMAC to the wing center • TEMAC is located at 324 inches behind the datum.
of lift. A. 24%
B. 17%
C. 21%

ANSWERS

Weight-shift control aircraft and powered parachutes do not • LEMAC is an acronym for the Leading Edge of the Mean
fall under the same Code of Federal Regulations that govern Aerodynamic Chord.
certified airplanes and helicopters and, therefore, do not • TEMAC is an acronym for the Trailing Edge of the Mean
have Type Certificate Data Sheets or the same type of FAA Aerodynamic Chord.
mandated weight and balance reports. • Both the LEMAC and TEMAC are given in distance
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 28] (inches) from the datum of the aircraft.

On larger airplanes, the CG is identified as being at a location To convert from inches to percent MAC, use the formula:
that is a specific percent of the mean aerodynamic chord Percent of MAC = (CG – LEMAC) / MAC × 100. So; 283 –
(% MAC). For example, imagine that the MAC on a particular 270 = 13. Divided by MAC which is 54 = .241 × 100 = 24%
airplane is 100", and the CG falls 20" behind the leading edge [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 31]
of the MAC. That means it falls one-fifth of the way back, or
at 20% of the MAC.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
6-1(O). What is the purpose of weighing an aircraft?
6-2(O). Define the following terms: datum, arm, moment, tare, ballast, residual fuel/oil, and moment index.
6-3(O). Explain when a moment is positive or negative.
6-4(O). When does an aircraft have to be reweighed?
6-5(O). What are the two primary reasons for an aircraft to be weighed and balanced?
6-6(O). When preparing to weigh an aircraft where will you find the "leveling means" for the aircraft?
6-7(O). How is tare weight dealt with once the aircraft is weighed?
6-8(O). Define MAC and when is it used.
6-9(O). How are the center of gravity and the center of lift of an aircraft related?
6-10(O). What is an adverse loaded CG check?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
6-1(O). To determine its empty weight and the center of gravity for safe and efficient operations.
6-2(O).
• Datum – The imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes.
Also referred to as a reference datum.
• Arm – The horizontal distance from the reference datum to center of gravity (CG) of an item.
• Moment – the product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm.
• Tare – are those items, such as chocks, that are used to hold an aircraft on the scales when it is weighed.
• Ballast – a weight installed or carried in an aircraft to move the center of gravity to a location within its
allowable limits.
• Residual fuel/oil – fuel that remains in the sumps and fuel lines when the fuel system is drained from the inlet
to the fuel metering system, with the aircraft in level flight attitude. The weight of the residual fuel is part of the
empty weight of the aircraft.
• Moment index the moment (weight times arm) divided by a reduction factors such as 100 or 1,000 to make the
number smaller and reduce the chance of mathematical errors in computing the center of gravity.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Glossary]
6-3(O). The algebraic sign of the moment is determined based on the location of the datum.
6-4(O). When required by a maintenance program (usually under FAR Part 121), when there is change in equipment
or the aircraft is modified (if the calculation method is not used), or if the weight and balance report is lost,
destroyed, or otherwise inaccurate.
6-5(O). Safety is the primary reason. A secondary reason is for the efficiency of the aircraft.
6-6(O). In the Type Certificate Data Sheet for the aircraft.

6-7(O). Tare weight must be subtracted from the total weight to find the correct weight of the aircraft.
6-8(O). Mean Aerodynamic Chord and is an imaginary airfoil that has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the
actual airfoil. The center of gravity on large aircraft is given in a percent of the MAC.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 30 and FAA-H-8083-1, Chapter 03 Page 7]
6-9(O). The most efficient condition for an aircraft is to have the point where it balances fall very close to, or perhaps
exactly at, the aircraft’s center of lift. If this were the case, little or no flight control force would be needed
to keep the aircraft flying straight and level. In terms of stability and safety, however, this perfectly balanced
condition might not be desirable and these conditions are taken into consideration during the design phase of
the aircraft.
6-10(O). An adverse loaded CG check is a weight and balance check to determine that no condition of legal loading of
an aircraft can move the CG outside of its allowable limits.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 21 and FAA-H-8083-1, Glossary Page 1]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
6-1(P). Given a specified aircraft, locate the datum using the appropriate Type Certificate Data Sheet.
6-2(P). Given the basic required information from an aircraft weighing, calculate the new empty weight and center of
balance for the aircraft.
6-3(P). Given loading graphs and CG Envelops, answer specified questions about the aircraft.
6-4(P). Given an actual or hypothetical equipment change on an aircraft, calculate the weight and location of required
ballast to maintain the aircraft’s center of gravity.
6-5(P). Given a specific aircraft, prepare an aircraft for weighing per the manufacturer’s instructions.
6-6(P). Given a specific aircraft, calculate the center of gravity for a fully loaded aircraft.


AIRCRAFT MATERIALS, HARDWARE, CHAPTER
07
AND PROCESSES
Aircraft Metals, Forging, Nonmetallic Aircraft Materials, Packings, Seals, Aircraft Hardware,
Rivets, Fasteners, Screws, and Sleeves
QUESTIONS
7-1 AMG020 7-4 AMG019

Which property of sheet metal is most important when Aircraft aluminum skin is easily worked because it possesses
selecting a material to be formed into curved shapes such as these two characteristics:
fairings and wheel pants? A. It’s malleable and ductile.
A. Malleability B. It’s elastic and strong.
B. Ductility C. It’s permeable and hard.
C. Elasticity
7-2 AMG019 7-5 AMG019

In the material designation number "4130" for chromium The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type
molybdenum steel what does the first digit (4) of the of aluminum?
number indicate? A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent pure copper
A. The main alloying ingredient. B. Aluminum alloy containing zinc
B. The percentage of the main alloying ingredient. C. 99% commercially pure aluminum
C. The hardness state of the material.
7-3 AMG019 7-6 AMG019

What is generally used in the construction of aircraft Which is the main alloying ingredient of 2024 aluminum?
engine firewalls? A. Zinc.
A. Stainless steel B. Copper.
B. Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel C. Magnesium.
C. Titanium nickel alloy

AIRCRAFT MATERIALS, HARDWARE, AND PROCESSES
ANSWERS

Malleability refers to a metal’s ability to be hammered or Aluminum alloys, although strong, are easily worked because
formed into various shapes without cracking or leaving other they are malleable and ductile.
detrimental effects. Ductility is the property enabling metal to [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 6]
be continuously bent and twisted without breaking (such as
electrical wires). Elasticity is the ability of a metal to return to
its original shape once a force is removed.

In this system, a four-numeral series designates the plain 1100 is the code number used to represent aluminum that is
carbon and alloy steels; five numerals designate certain 99.00 percent pure aluminum. The last 2 digits of the 1xxx are
types of alloy steels. The first digit indicates the type of used to indicate the hundredths of 1% above the original 99%.
steel, the second digit also generally (but not always) gives [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 7]
the approximate amount of the major alloying element, and
the last two (or three) digits are intended to indicate the
approximate middle of the carbon range.

Partly due to its corrosion resistant characteristics, some The first number 2 off 2xxx aluminum alloys denotes that the
common applications for stainless steel are in the fabrication main alloying ingredient is copper.
of firewalls, exhaust collectors, stacks, and manifolds, where [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 8]
both temperatures are high and the presence of corrosive
agents may be common.

QUESTIONS
7-7 AMG019 7-10 AMG019

What aluminum alloy designation indicates that the metal has The cast housing of a turbine engine gearbox must be
received no hardening or tempering treatment? quenched during the heat treatment process. Which of the
A. 3003-F following has the slowest cooling potential?
B. 5052-H36 A. Oil
C. 6061-O B. Water
C. Brine (salt water)
7-8 AMG019 7-11 AMG019

The metal Titanium, when moistened and drawn across Parts are rinsed thoroughly in hot water after they have been
glass, will produce a pencil like line. heat treated in a sodium and potassium nitrate bath to
A. True A. prevent corrosion.
B. False B. prevent surface cracking.
C. Cannot be determined C. retard discoloration.
7-9 AMG019 7-12 AMG019

Iron Constantan thermocouples function primarily by When quenching a heated piece of steel, the proper
measuring the procedure is to
A. hardness of a metal as it changes temperature. A. quickly drop the part in the quenching solution tank
B. electrical conductivity of a metal as it changes and allow it to soak.
temperature. B. agitate the part vigorously as it is placed in the
C. expansion of a metal as it changes temperature. quenching solution.
C. immerse irregular parts so the light end enters the
solution first.

ANSWERS

The various designations are as follows: Various solutions are used in the quenching process and
• F — as fabricated. the rate of cooling depends on the solution used. Cooling
• O — annealed, recrystallized (wrought products only). is relatively rapid during quenching in brine, somewhat less
• H — strain hardened. rapid in water, and slow in oil.
• H1 (plus one or more digits) — strain hardened only. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 17]
• H2 (plus one or more digits) — strain hardened and
partially annealed.
• H3 (plus one or more digits) — strain hardened and
stabilized.

Titanium resembles stainless steel in appearance. A quick Sodium and Potassium Nitrate are salts which are highly
method used to identify titanium is the spark test. Titanium corrosive. Thus any metal part immersed in these or any
gives off a brilliant white trace ending in a brilliant white other salt must be rinsed properly to avoid corrosion.
burst. It can also be identified by moistening the titanium and [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 17-19]
using it to draw a line on a piece of glass. This will leave a
dark line similar in appearance to a pencil mark.

Thermocouples provide an accurate temperature Agitating the part as it is placed in solution will dislodge
measurement. Thermocouples are usually encased in metallic vapor and air bubbles from the part allowing it to cool more
or ceramic tubes closed at the hot end to protect them from evenly. Do not just drop the part in the container as allowing
the furnace gases. A necessary attachment is an instrument, it to lie on the bottom will affect the rate of cooling between
such as a millivoltmeter or potentiometer, for measuring the the top and bottom causing it to warp. Immersing the heavy
electromotive force generated by the thermocouple. end of an object first will begin the cooling process on the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 16] denser end earlier, thus allowing a more even cooling.

QUESTIONS
7-13 AMG019 7-16 AMG019

What is meant by a metal’s critical temperature range? Normalizing is a process of heat treating for
A. The temperature at which hardening of a metal begins. A. Aluminum alloys only.
B. The metal’s melting point. B. Iron-base metals only.
C. The temperature at which carbon particles dissolve in C. Both aluminum alloys and iron base metals.
steel.
7-14 AMG019 7-17 AMG019

Which of the following is an effect of annealing steel and Why is steel tempered after being hardened?
aluminum alloys? A. To increase its hardness and ductility.
1. A decrease in internal stress. B. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses.
2. A softening of the metal. C. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce brittleness.
3. Improved corrosion resistance.
A. #1 and #2
B. #1 and #3
C. #2 and #3
7-15 AMG019 7-18 AMG019

Which heat treating operation would be performed when the Case hardening may be in the form of
surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a A. carburizing, nitriding, or cyaniding.
high carbide or nitride content? B. nitrating, cycling, or quenching.
A. Tempering C. carburizing, neutralizing, or sanitizing.
B. Normalizing
C. Case hardening

ANSWERS

Critical temperature is the point at which carbon molecules Normalizing is the process of heating a ferrous part to a
begin to dissolve in steel. At this point, the rate of the subsequent proper temperature until it is uniformly heated and then
cooling can alter and determines the metal’s hardness. cooling it slowly in still air.

Annealing of steel produces a fine grained, soft, ductile Rapid quenching creates stress within the steel. Tempering
metal without internal stresses or strains. In the annealed reheats the metal to just below its critical temperature to
state, steel is at its weakest. In general, annealing is the relieve internal stress and draw out some of its brittleness.
opposite of hardening. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 21]

Case hardening produces a hard wear-resistant surface or Case hardening produces a hard, wear resistant surface
case over a strong, tough core. In case hardening, the surface over a strong core. It can be accomplished through several
of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high processes. Carburizing adds a controlled amount of carbon
carbide or nitride content. The core is unaffected chemically. to the steel surface to form carbides. Nitriding introduces
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 21] nitrogen to the surface of the steel. Cyaniding is a third
method, however it isn’t used in aircraft work.

QUESTIONS
7-19 AMG019 7-22 AMG019

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is What type of testing best determines the heat treatment
A. heat treated aluminum alloy, and the surface is condition of softer non-ferrous metals such as aluminum
commercially pure aluminum. and brass?
B. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material A. Rockwell testing
is heat treated aluminum alloy. B. Brinell testing
C. strain hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface C. Barcol testing
material is commercially pure aluminum.
7-20 AMG019 7-23 AMG019

Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force is
harmful effects? repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature, such
A. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form as rolling, hammering, or bending?
B. 6061-T9 stainless steel 1. The metals become artificially aged.
C. Clad aluminum alloy 2. The metals become stress-corrosion cracked.
3. The metals become cold worked, strained, or work
hardened.
A. #2
B. #1 and #3
C. #3
7-21 AMG019 7-24 AMG037

At what point does an aircraft alloy 2017 aluminum rivet Composite aircraft structures can reach up to _______________
obtain its maximum strength? the tensile strength of steel or aluminum.
A. When it is mechanically set with a squeezer or rivet gun A. 10 times
B. When it is heat treated prior to installation B. 100 times
C. Approximately 9 days after installation C. 4-6 times

ANSWERS

The terms "Alclad and Pureclad" are used to designate A Barcol tester measures heat treatment conditions by
sheets that consist of an aluminum alloy core coated with measuring the force of pressing a spring loaded indenter into
a layer of pure aluminum to a depth of approximately 5 1⁄2 the soft metal non-ferrous being tested such as aluminum,
percent on each side. brass, or copper. Rockwell and Brinell testing is similar in
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 23] application, but used for harder ferrous metals.

The treatment of material which has been previously heat Work hardening and strain result when metals are
treated is considered a reheat treatment. Unclad heat- mechanically worked at temperatures below their critical
treatable alloys can be solution heat treated repeatedly range. While hardening reduces a metal’s flexibility, strain
without harmful effects. The number of solution heat hardening increases its strength and hardness. Artificial age
treatments allowed for clad sheet is limited due to increased hardening can also be accelerated by reheating and soaking
diffusion of core and cladding with each reheating. Existing for a specified period of time.
specifications allow one to three reheat treatments of clad [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 31]
sheet depending upon cladding thickness.

The heat treatment of alloy 2017 rivets consists of subjecting Composite aircraft structures have a longer life, greater
the rivets to a temperature between 930 °F to 950 °F for flexibility, higher corrosion resistance, are 3-5 times stiffer, and
approximately 30 minutes, and immediately quenching in have a tensile strength 4 to 6 times that of steel or aluminum.
cold water. These rivets reach maximum strength in about 9 [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 33]
days after being driven.

QUESTIONS
7-25 AMG037 7-28 AMG017

Regarding the use of respirators when working with Selecting the O-ring most compatible with the type of fluid
composite material; which is the best indication that the being sealed should be done with reference to
mask's filters need to be replaced? A. the factory color coding on the ring.
A. You can smell resin with the mask on. B. numerical coding etched on the inside of the ring
B. The mask is clogged with debris, making breathing surface.
more difficult. C. the labeling on the package.
C. The expiration date of the mask has passed.
7-26 AMG037 7-29 AMG017

Honeycomb composite construction for aircraft consist of The advantages of MS28782 Teflon backup rings include:
A. core, face sheets, and adhesive. 1. They are unaffected by age.
B. core, beeswax, and resin. 2. They are unaffected by fluid or vapor.
C. face sheet, resin, and fiberglass. 3. They are interchangeable with any other MS28782 ring
of equal size.
4. They can tolerate extreme temperatures.
A. Only 1 and 2 above
B. Only 3 and 4 above
C. All of the above
7-27 AMG017 7-30 AMG017

What type of synthetic rubber offers the best resistance to A class three bolt thread is
aviation fuels and oils and is therefore used for fuel hoses, A. a tight fit.
fuel tank linings, and gaskets? B. a loose fit.
A. Buna-N C. a medium fit.
B. Buna-S
C. Neoprene

ANSWERS

When working with resins, it is important to use vapor The part number on the sealed envelope provides the most
protection. Charcoal filters within a respirator remove the reliable identification of an O-ring’s type and characteristics.
vapors for a period of time. When removing the respirators While manufacturers provide color coding on some O-rings,
for breaks, and upon placing it back on, if you can smell the the color stain is not permanent and may be omitted due to
resin vapors, replace the filters immediately. manufacturing limitations.

Honeycomb core is made from paper, Nomex, carbon, Characteristics of Teflon rings include all of the advantages
fiberglass or metal. The core is sandwiched together listed and are suitable for use in extreme situations, such
between a high-density laminate or solid face and back and as high pressure hydraulic systems. The primary purpose
held together with an adhesive. of inspecting a Teflon ring is to ensure the surfaces are free
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 34] from dirt or irregularities and to verify the edges are clean
cut and sharp.

Buna‑N has excellent resistance to hydrocarbons (fuel The Class of a thread indicates the tolerance allowed in
and oil) and solvents. However, its resiliency at very low manufacturing. Class 1 is a loose fit, Class 2 is a free fit,
temperatures (below -75 degrees °F) can be poor. Thus, Class 3 is a medium fit, and Class 4 is a close fit. Aircraft
Buna‑N is commonly used for oil and fuel hoses, fuel tank bolts are usually manufactured in the Class 3, medium fit.
linings, gaskets, and seals. Buna‑S is best suited for water A Class 4 fit requires a wrench to turn the nut onto a bolt,
resistance and commonly used in tires and tubes. Neoprene whereas a Class 1 fit can easily be turned with the fingers.
is most commonly used for weather seals, window channels, Generally, aircraft screws are manufactured with a Class 2
and with non-aromatic gasoline and oil hoses. Neoprene thread fit for ease of assembly.
may also be used in air conditioning systems with Freon. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 40]

QUESTIONS
7-31 AMG017 7-34 AMG017

An AN-73 bolt has the head drilled for insertion of safety wire. When is a AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?
A. True A. For tension and shear load conditions.
B. False B. For areas where external tension loads are applied.
C. Cannot be determined C. Only for shear load applications.
7-32 AMG017 7-35 AMG017

A bolt with a raised or recessed triangle on the head is A clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal and is
classified as a secured with a
A. NAS standard aircraft bolt. A. castellated shear nut tightened with no strain imposed
B. NAS close tolerance bolt. and safetyed with a cotter pin.
C. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. B. castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between
the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached.
C. castellated shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-
locking nut tightened to prevent rotation of the bolt in
the fork.
7-33 AMG017 7-36 AMG017

Which of the bolt head code markings shown below Which statements regarding aircraft bolts is correct?
identifies a corrosion resistant AN standard steel bolt? Refer 1. Alloy bolts smaller than 1/4" diameter should not be
to Figure 7-1 below. used in primary structures.
A. 1 2. When tightening castellated nuts, it is permissible to
B. 2 tighten the nut up to 10% over the recommended torque
C. 3 to permit alignment.
3. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material
thickness.
A. #1 and #2 are correct.
B. #1 and #3 are correct.
C. All are correct.
1 2 3
Figure 7-1. Aircraft hardware.

ANSWERS

The AN-73 drilled head bolt is similar to the standard hex The head of a clevis bolt is round and is either slotted to
bolt, but has a deeper head drilled to receive wire for receive a common screwdriver or recessed to receive a
safe tying. crosspoint screwdriver. This type of bolt is used only where
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 41] shear loads occur and never in tension. It is often inserted as
a mechanical pin in a control system.

Close tolerance NAS bolts are marked with either a raised The castellated shear nut, AN320, is designed for use with
or recessed triangle. The material markings for NAS bolts devices (such as drilled clevis bolts and threaded taper pins)
are the same as those for AN bolts, except that they may be which are normally subjected to shearing stress only. Like
either raised or recessed. the castle nut, it is castellated for safetying. Note, however,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 42] that the nut is not as deep or as strong as the castle nut; also
the castellations are not as deep as those in the castle nut.

All aircraft grade bolts are marked with an identifying symbol Grip length or grip range is determined by measuring the
on their head. A cross indicates a standard steel AN bolt. An thickness of the material with a hook scale inserted through
"X" in a triangle indicates a close tolerance bolt. A single line the hole. Once this measurement is determined, select the
indicates a corrosion resistant AN steel bolt. correct grip range by referring to the charts provided by the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 42] rivet manufacturer. Be certain that the bolt grip length is
correct. Grip length is the length of the unthreaded portion of
the bolt shank. The grip length should equal the thickness of
the material being bolted together, however, bolts of slightly
greater grip length may be used if washers are placed under
the nut or the bolt head. In the case of plate nuts, add shims
under the plate.

QUESTIONS
7-37 AMG017 7-40 AMG017

Aircraft nuts are made of stainless steel, anodized 2024T Which precaution must be taken every time a self locking nut
aluminum alloy, or is used on an aircraft?
A. copper plated carbon steel. A. The head of the bolt must be safety wired.
B. copper plated nickel steel. B. A lock washer must be used with the nut.
C. cadmium plated carbon steel. C. Ensure the bolt is not subject to rotation.
7-38 AMG017 7-41 AMG017

Which of the following is true when using all AN300 series Which of the following is not a benefit of AN 960 and
nuts (AN310, AN340, etc)? AN 970 washers?
A. All AN300 series nuts require a secondary A. A smooth bearing surface between the bolt
safetying mechanism. and assembly.
B. AN300 series nuts may not be used in high B. Corrosion control from contact of dissimilar metals.
temperature applications. C. Increased resistance to the bolt vibrating loose.
C. AN300 nuts may not be used when the components
are subject to rotation.
7-39 AMG017 7-42 AMG017

The locking feature of the nylon type locknut is obtained by? Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should
A. the use of an unthreaded nylon locking insert. be installed so the bolt head is facing
B. a nylon insert held firmly in place at the base of the load A. upward, or in a rearward direction.
carrying section. B. upward, or in a forward direction.
C. making the threads in the nylon insert slightly smaller C. downward, or in a forward direction.
than those in the load carrying section.

ANSWERS

Aircraft nuts are made of cadmium plated carbon steel, Do not use self locking nuts at joints which subject either
stainless steel, or anodized 2024T aluminum alloy. the bolt or nut to rotation. They may however be used with
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 45] bearings and control pulleys provided the inner race of
the bearing is clamped to support the structure by the nut
and bolt.

AN 300 series nuts such as wing nuts and castle nuts are Plain washers, such as the AN960 and AN970, are used
non‑self locking and therefore need an additional method to form a smooth bearing surface and act as a shim in
to insure they do not rotate loose such as cotter pins or obtaining correct grip length for a bolt and nut assembly,
safety wire. prevent damage to the surface material and provide
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 44] protection of structures where corrosion caused by
dissimilar metals is a factor.

A nylon type locknut is not threaded and the inside diameter Whenever possible, place the bolt with the head on top
is smaller than the largest diameter of the threaded portion (upward) or in the forward position. This positioning tends to
or the outside diameter of a corresponding bolt. When the prevent the bolt from slipping out if the nut is accidentally lost.
nut is screwed onto a bolt, it acts as an ordinary nut until [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 50]
the bolt reaches the fiber collar. When the bolt is screwed
into the fiber collar, friction (or drag) causes the fiber to be
pushed upward. This creates a heavy downward pressure
on the load carrying part and automatically throws the
load carrying sides of the nut and bolt threads into positive
contact. After the bolt has been forced all the way through
the fiber collar, the downward pressure remains constant.
This pressure locks and holds the nut securely in place even
under severe vibration.

QUESTIONS
7-43 AMG017 7-46 AMG017

Elongated bolt holes in critical aircraft structural members When attaching a component to the aircraft structure by way
may be drilled to the next larger size. of an aircraft bolt and a castellated tension nut combination,
A. True what’s an acceptable solution when the cotter pin hole does
B. False not align within the recommended torque range?
C. With manufacturer’s approval A. Exceed the torque range
B. Tighten below the torque range
C. Change washers and try again
7-44 AMG017 7-47 AMG017

A helicoil insert is used When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where
A. to replace damaged rivets in aircraft structures. can the recommended torque value be found?
B. to replace damaged threads in aircraft structures. A. AC43.13-2B
C. when the next smaller size bolt is desired. B. Technical Standard Order
C. AC43.13-1B
7-45 AMG017 7-48 AMG020

Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening An 1100 aluminum alloy rivet is a soft rivet not suitable for
aircraft nuts and bolts relate to high strength applications.
A. clean, dry threads. A. True
B. clean, lightly oiled threads. B. False
C. both dry and lightly oiled threads. C. Cannot be determined

ANSWERS

In cases of oversized or elongated holes in critical members, Nuts should never be over torqued. To help a hole line up
obtain advice from the aircraft or engine manufacturer before with the castellation add washers under the nut until the
drilling or reaming the hole to take the next larger bolt. cotter key aligns.
Usually, such factors as edge distance, clearance, or load [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 54]
factor must be considered. Oversized or elongated holes in
noncritical members can usually be drilled or reamed to the
next larger size.

A helicoil is a formed screw threaded coil with a diamond AC43.13-1B includes a torque value table which can be
shaped cross section used as a replacement screw thread used as a guide when tightening nuts, bolts, studs, screws,
bushing when the original threaded area is stripped or etc., whenever a specific torque setting is not called for by
otherwise damaged. the manufacturer.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 52] [Ref: AC43.13-1B, Table 7-1 Pages 7-9]

Unless a torque table or manufacturer’s instruction specifies The 1100 rivet, which is composed of 99.00 percent pure
otherwise, torque values are always given for clean dry aluminum, is very soft. It is for riveting the softer aluminum
threads. Do not lubricate nuts or bolts except for corrosion alloys, which are used for nonstructural parts (parts where
resistant steel parts or when instructed to do so. strength is not a factor).

QUESTIONS
7-49 AMG020 7-52 AMG017

A damaged aluminum wing skin is repaired with copper Which type of specialty fastener would be best suited to
rivets. This repair is done without consulting the manufacturer secure an aircraft cowling?
of the aircraft. What is one problem this may cause? A. Camloc fasteners
A. Dissimilar metal corrosion B. Dzus fasteners
B. Inadequate rivet-hole clearance C. Turnlock fasteners
C. Inadequate strength
7-50 AMG020 7-53 AMG017

What optimum shank length of a Self-Plugging rivet should be What is the primary benefit of an MS33737 instrument nut?
used when joining two pieces of sheet metal with one piece A. It pulls the instrument tightly against the
being .040” thick, and the other .060” thick? instrument panel.
A. .225 inches B. It provides a shock absorbing surface to minimize
B. .175 inches vibration to the instrument.
C. .250 inches C. It reduces magnetic influences in the cockpit, which
can affect the accuracy of the instrument.
7-51 AMG020 7-54 AMG017

Which rivet type is the only blind rivet considered to be One of the most common aircraft cables is a 7×19. What
interchangeable with a solid rivet? does the "7×19" indicate?
A. Wiredraw Cherrylock rivets A. The cable’s tensile strength is the product of 7 and 19.
B. Huck Mechanical locked rivets B. The cable is made up of 19 strands of wire, which
C. Bulbed Cherrylock rivets contains 7 wires in each strand.
C. The cable is made up of 7 strands of wire, which
contains 19 wires in each strand.

ANSWERS

The use of copper rivets in aircraft repair is limited. Copper The Camloc fastener is typically a non-structural fastener
rivets can be used only on copper alloys or nonmetallic containing 3 parts, a stud assembly, a grommet, and a
materials such as leather. If a copper rivet is inserted into an receptacle. It is commonly used to secure aircraft cowlings,
aluminum alloy two dissimilar metals are brought in contact fairings, and other frequently removable parts of an aircraft.
with each other. As all metals possess a small electrical [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 69]
potential, dissimilar metals in the presence of moisture
will cause an electrical current to flow between them and
corrosion will result.

When selecting a self-plugging (friction lock) rivet, insure that The MS33737 instrument nut reduces magnetic influences
1/8 inch (.125) of the rivets shank will protrude the materials in the cockpit, while nonmagnetic mounting nuts secure
being joined. So in this case, .040 + .060 = .100‑inch material instruments in a control panel.
thickness. Add .125 inches of protrusion length, and the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 72]
optimum shank length is .225.

The large blind head of the bulbed cherrylock rivets The most common aircraft cables are the 7 × 7 and 7 × 19.
introduced the word "bulb" to blind rivet terminology. In The 7 × 19 cable is constructed of seven strands of 19
conjunction with the unique residual preload developed by the wires each. Six of these strands are laid around the center
high stem break load, its proven fatigue strength makes it the strand. This cable is extra flexible and is used in primary
only blind rivet interchangeable structurally with solid rivets. control systems and in other places where operation over
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 62] pulleys is frequent.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
7-1(O). What does the code "1100" tell us about aluminum?
7-2(O). If given an unknown piece of metal, how can you tell if it is titanium or stainless steel?
7-3(O). Explain case hardening.
7-4(O). Name the three methods of case hardening.
7-5(O). Explain the special characteristics of Alclad 2024-T4.
7-6(O). Explain the construction of a honeycomb composite material.
7-7(O). Compare the tensile strength of composite aircraft structures and those made of steel or aluminum.
7-8(O). Explain the term "ice box rivets".
7-9(O). When are "ice box rivets" used?
7-10(O). Name the two types of heat treatments applicable to aluminum alloys.
7-11(O). Artificial aging is another term for what type of heat treatment?
7-12(O). Why are cork gaskets the best choice for mating rough surfaces?
7-13(O). Name the classes of bolt threads and explain what the differences are between them.
7-14(O). When are self-locking nuts used on aircraft?
7-15(O). What are AN960 and AN970 washers used for?
7-16(O). Explain the correct way to line up a hole for use with a cotter pin.
7-17(O). Define grip length or range.
5-18(O). Explain how to determine the correct grip length or range when selecting a bolt.
7-19(O). Explain the standard positioning for aircraft bolts when installed on an aircraft and why.
7-20(O). Explain the use of helicoils.
7-21(O). What specialty fastener is best suited to secure an aircraft cowling?
7-22(O). Explain the primary benefit of an MS33737 instrument nut.
7-23(O). Explain the industry standard for securing fasteners with safety wire.

AIRCRAFT MATERIALS, PROCESSES, & HARDWARE
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
7-1(O). The code 1100 is given to aluminum that is 99.00 percent pure aluminum.
7-2(O). Two methods can be used. One is the spark test; titanium will give off a brilliant white trace ending in a brilliant
white burst. The other is by moistening the titanium and using it to draw a line on a piece of glass. This will
leave a dark line similar in appearance to a pencil mark.
7-3(O). It is a heat-treating operation where the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high
carbide or nitride content producing a hard wear-resistant surface or case over a strong, tough core.
7-4(O). The common forms of case hardening are carburizing, cyaniding, and nitriding.
7-5(O). "Alclad and Pureclad" are used to designate sheets that consist of an aluminum alloy core coated with a layer
of pure aluminum to a depth of approximately 5 1⁄2 percent on each side.
7-6(O). Honeycomb’s core is made from paper, Nomex, carbon, fiberglass or metal. The core is sandwiched together
between a high-density laminate or solid face and back and held together with an adhesive.
7-7(O). Composite aircraft structures have a tensile strength 4 to 6 times that of steel or aluminum.
7-8(O). "Ice box rivets," are 2017-T and 2024-T rivets that have been annealed, and must be kept refrigerated until they
are to be driven. This refrigeration delays the hardening of the rivets.
7-9(O). The 2017-T and 2024-T rivets are used in aluminum alloy structures where more strength is needed than is
obtainable with the same size 2217-T rivet.
7-10(O). One is called solution heat treatment, and the other is known as precipitation heat treatment.
7-11(O). Precipitation heat treatment.

7-12(O). A cork gasket best conforms to the uneven or varying space.

7-13(O). The Class of a thread indicates the tolerance allowed in manufacturing. Class 1 is a loose fit, Class 2 is a free
fit, Class 3 is a medium fit, and Class 4 is a close fit.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
7-14(O). Self-locking nuts are used on aircraft to provide tight connections, which will not shake loose under
severe vibration.
7-15(O). Plain washers, such as the AN960 and AN970, are used to form a smooth bearing surface and act as a shim in
obtaining correct grip length for a bolt and nut assembly, prevent damage to the surface material and provide
protection of structures where corrosion caused by dissimilar metals is a factor.
7-16(O). If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to
change washers and try realigning the holes again.
7-17(O). Grip length is the length of the unthreaded portion of the bolt shank.
7-18(O). In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness. To determine grip length or grip range
measure the thickness of the material with a hook scale inserted through the hole. Once this measurement is
determined, select the correct grip range by referring to the charts provided by the manufacturer.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 44, 51]
7-19(O). Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so the bolt head is facing upward or
in a forward direction. This positioning tends to prevent the bolt from slipping out if the nut is accidentally lost.
7-20(O). Helicoils can be used to restore damaged threads.

7-21(O). Camloc fasteners are used to secure aircraft cowlings and fairings.
7-22(O). The MS33737 instrument nut reduces magnetic influences in the cockpit.
7-23(O). In safetying, arrange the wire so that if the bolt or screw begins to loosen, the force applied to the wire is in the
tightening direction.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
7-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mock-up, torque a series of bolts per specifications.
7-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mock-up, use industry standards and properly safety-wire a series of bolts per
specifications.
7-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mock-up, select the appropriate hardware and install a specified component.
NOTE: Be prepared to select and install all standard aircraft hardware including, but not limited to, screws,
bolts, nuts (including self-locking), cotter pins, and washers.
7-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mock-up, select, install, and secure a clevis bolt and associated hardware per
industry standards.
7-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mock-up, properly install and safety a turnbuckle per industry standards. (5-6(P))
Given various standard aviation rivets, identify them by physical characteristics.

AIRCRAFT CLEANING AND CHAPTER
08
CORROSION CONTROL
Forms of Corrosion, Factors Affecting Corrosion, Preventing Corrosion, Corrosion-prone
Areas, Inspection, and Removal
QUESTIONS
8-1 AMG012 8-4 AMG012

Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements Which of these materials is the most anodic?
for corrosion to occur? A. cadmium
A. The presence of an electrolyte. B. aluminum (1100)
B. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a C. magnesium
cathodic area.
C. The presence of a passive oxide film.
8-2 AMG012 8-5 AMG012

Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have Regarding the below statements:
the effect of producing 1. In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or
A. passive oxidation. dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes.
B. improved corrosion resistance. 2. In the galvanic or electro-chemical series for metals, the
C. corrosion. most anodic metals are those that will give up electrons
most easily.
A. Only #1 is true.
B. Only #2 is true.
C. Both #1 and #2 are true.
8-3 AMG012 8-6 AMG012

Which of these materials is the most cathodic? Of the following, when and/or where is galvanic corrosion
A. Zinc most likely to occur?
B. 2024 aluminum alloy A. When an electrolyte (water) covers the surface of an
C. Stainless steel aluminum skin, seeps into the cracks between lap
joints, and oxygen is excluded from the area.
B. At the interface of a steel fastener and aluminum alloy
inspection plate in the presence of an electrolyte.
C. In an area of unprotected metal exposed to an
atmosphere containing battery fumes, exhaust gases,
or industrial contaminants.

AIRCRAFT CLEANING AND CORROSION CONTROL
ANSWERS

The corrosion process always involves two simultaneous All metals are electrically active and have potential "nobility"
changes: The metal that is attacked or oxidized suffers in a chemical environment. The less noble, or more anodic
what may be called anodic change, and the corrosive a metal is the more easily it will corrode. Magnesium is the
agent is reduced and may be considered as undergoing least noble of all metals and so the most anodic.
cathodic change. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 6]

Caustic cleaning solutions in concentrated form should be The corrosion process always involves two simultaneous
kept tightly capped and as far from aircraft as possible. changes: The metal that is attacked or oxidized suffers what
Some cleaning solutions used in corrosion removal are, in may be called anodic change; and the corrosive agent is
themselves, potentially corrosive agents; therefore, particular reduced and may be considered as undergoing cathodic
attention should be directed toward their complete removal change. During an electro-chemical attack, the quantity of
after use on aircraft. Where entrapment of the cleaning corrosive agent is reduced and, if not renewed or removed,
solution is likely to occur, use a noncorrosive cleaning agent, may completely react with the metal, becoming neutralized.
even though it is less efficient. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 5]

All metals are electrically active and have potential "nobility" Galvanic action, not unlike electroplating, occurs at the
in a chemical environment. The more noble a metal is the points or areas of contact where the insulation between
more cathodic it is and will less easily corrode. Platinum the surfaces has broken down or been omitted. This
is the most noble metal. Stainless steel is more noble and electrochemical attack can be very serious because in many
cathodic than zinc or aluminum alloys. instances the action is taking place out of sight, and the only
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 5] way to detect it prior to structural failure is by disassembly
and inspection.

QUESTIONS
8-7 AMG012 8-10 AMG012

Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of Which is the best method to detect intergranular corrosion?
A. excessive anodation. A. Magnetic particle inspection.
B. contact between two unlike metals. B. Ultrasonic inspection.
C. excessive etching C. Liquid penetrant.
8-8 AMG012 8-11 AMG012

Galvanic corrosion is most likely to be most rapid and severe Which is the most likely cause of type of corrosion shown in
when the surface area of the the picture below?
A. cathodic metal is smaller than the surface area of A. A caustic chemical which has dripped onto the surface.
the anodic metal. B. Dissimilar metal contact.
B. anodic and cathodic metals are approximately C. Irregularities during the metal’s initial manufacturing.
the same.
C. anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the
cathodic metal.
8-9 AMG012 8-12 AMG012

Which of the following may not be detectable even by The form of corrosion pictured below is most likely caused by
careful visual inspection of the surface of aluminum alloy A. poor cleaning processes prior to painting.
parts or structures? B. slight relative movement between this and another
A. Filiform corrosion metallic surface.
B. Intergranular corrosion C. presence of caustic substance such as battery acid.
C. Uniform etch corrosion

ANSWERS

Galvanic action, not unlike electroplating, occurs at the Intergranular corrosion occurs within the structure
points or areas of contact where the insulation between of aluminum alloys (and sometimes stainless steel).
the surfaces has broken down or been omitted. This Being non‑ferrous aluminum, we can rule out magnetic
electrochemical attack can be very serious because in many particle inspection. Being within the structure, as
instances the action is taking place out of sight, and the only opposed to its surface, we can rule out liquid penetrants.
way to detect it prior to structural failure is by disassembly Ultrasonic techniques excel at detecting subsurface defects
and inspection. of non‑ferrous metals.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 7] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 9 and
Chapter 10 Page 23]

During an electro-chemical attack, the quantity of corrosive Intergranular corrosion results from a lack of uniformity
agent is reduced. With a smaller area this reduction will be caused by changes that occur in the alloy during heating and
increased and thus more severe. cooling during the material’s manufacturing process.

Light to moderate intergranular corrosion is an attack along Fretting corrosion is a particularly damaging form of
the grain boundaries of an alloy and may exist without visible corrosive attack that occurs when two mating surfaces,
evidence. Extreme intergranular corrosion is visibly evident normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to
as it may cause the surface to exfoliate, or delaminate along slight relative motion.
the grain boundaries. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 10]

QUESTIONS
8-13 AMG012 8-16 AMG012

The lifting and flaking of the metal at the surface due to Corrosion problems downstream of engine exhaust areas is
delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of caused by
corrosion residual product buildup is called A. chemical makeup of exhaust gasses.
A. brinelling. B. heat from engine exhaust.
B. granulation. C. moisture mixed in the exhaust gasses.
C. exfoliation.
8-14 AMG012 8-17 AMG012

Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur In which area of a piano hinge type attachment to a control
A. when two surfaces fit tightly together but can move surface is corrosion most likely to occur?
relative to one another. A. Contact between the hinge halves.
B. only when two dissimilar metals are in contact. B. Contact between the hinge and hinge pin.
C. when two surfaces fit loosely together and can move C. Contact between the hinge and flight control.
relative to one another.
8-15 AMG012 8-18 AMG012

Which aspect of the heat treating process, if done Which procedure is recommended to keep aircraft control
incorrectly, becomes a significant factor causing stress cables free of corrosion?
cracking corrosion? A. Keep cables clean and dry.
A. Insufficient heating B. Keep cable routing as straight as possible and free of
B. Unequal cooling unnecessary tension.
C. Too fast cooling C. Keep cables coated with a light oil film.

ANSWERS

Very severe intergranular corrosion may sometimes cause Both jet and reciprocating engine exhaust deposits are
the surface of a metal to "exfoliate." This is a lifting or flaking very corrosive and present particular trouble where gaps,
of the metal at the surface due to delamination of the grain seams, hinges, and fairings are located downstream from the
boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual exhaust pipes or nozzles.
product buildup. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 12]

Fretting corrosion is a particularly damaging form of The contact between the dissimilar metals of the aluminum
corrosive attack that occurs when two mating surfaces, hinge halves and steel hinge pin is a frequent location
normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to for corrosion to form. When inspecting and servicing this
slight relative motion. hinge, be sure this internal area is well lubricated with a
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 10] water‑displacing lubricant. After application, move the
surface back and forth several times to insure proper
penetration of the lubricant.

Internal stresses may formed and trapped in a metal due A light oil coating acts as a preservative and boundary for
to unequal cooling during the heat treatment process. corrosion producing oxidation.
Additional factors such as exposure to harmful chemical [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 14]
environments such as sea water contribute to the
occurrences of stress cracking corrosion in aluminum,
titanium and magnesium.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 9 and 10]

QUESTIONS
8-19 AMG012 8-22 AMG012

What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed During inspection, you observe an oxidation layer
steel surfaces? approximately .001" thick on an aluminum wing skin. The
A. Steel wire brushes proper action is to
B. Fine grit aluminum oxide A. remove and replace the skin.
C. Medium grit carborundum paper B. remove by abrasives the oxidized layer.
C. do nothing. The oxidation layer is actually a corrosion
inhibitor.
8-20 AMG012 8-23 AMG012

Ferrous oxide corrosion is typically formed by When an anodized surface coating is damaged in service, it
A. atmospheric humidity. can be partially restored by
B. dissimilar metal contact. A. applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer.
C. exposure to a slight but constant electrical charge. B. chemical surface treatment.
C. use of a suitable mild cleaner.
8-21 AMG012 8-24 AMG012

What is the principle benefit of an Alclad aluminum surface Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a
A. it is easy to keep clean. A. silicon carbide brush.
B. pure aluminum is less susceptible to corrosion than B. carborundum abrasive.
aluminum alloys. C. stiff, hog-bristle brush.
C. the hardened surface protects internal structure
of material.

ANSWERS

Corrosion products must be removed by careful processing, Aluminum alloys commonly form a smooth surface oxidation
using mild abrasive papers such as rouge or fine grit aluminum that is from 0.001 to 0.0025 inch thick. This is not considered
oxide, or fine buffing compounds on cloth buffing wheels. detrimental; the coating provides a hard shell barrier to the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 15] introduction of corrosive elements. Such oxidation is not to
be confused with severe corrosion that can occur.

One of the most familiar types of corrosion is ferrous oxide When this coating is damaged in service, it can only be
(rust), generally resulting from atmospheric oxidation of partially restored by chemical surface treatment. Any light
steel surfaces. corrosion removal from an anodized surface should be done
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 17] very carefully to avoid removing the thin oxide film.

Relatively pure aluminum has considerably more corrosion Using a stiff, hog bristle brush or nonwoven abrasive pad,
resistance compared with the stronger aluminum alloys. The break loose and remove as much of the corrosion products
protection obtained with the pure-aluminum clad surface as practicable. Steel wire brushes, carborundum abrasives, or
(commonly called "Alclad") can be maintained if kept in a steel cutting tools must not be used.
polished condition. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 20]

QUESTIONS
8-25 AMG012 8-28 AMG012

How may magnesium engine parts be cleaned? A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to
A. Soak in 20% caustic soda solution. increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities
B. Spray with MEK (methyl ethyl ketone). is called
C. Wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize, and A. anodizing.
scrape or grit blast. B. alodizing.
C. dichromating.
8-26 AMG012 8-29 AMG012009

If a metal joint includes contact from magnesium to another A Chromic Acid/Sulfuric Acid wash is best used to
metal, the correct procedure is to: A. remove surface corrosion from metal components.
1. Apply at least 2 coats of epoxy primer to each mating B. restore a protective oxide coating on an
surface. aluminum surface.
2. Apply vinyl tape between the mated surfaces. C. slightly etch a smooth metal surface for better
3. Apply an oil film to each mating surface. paint adhesion.
4. Ensure if the mating surface is aluminum, it is anodized
A. #1 and #2
B. # 1, 2, and 4
C. All of the above
8-27 AMG012 8-30 AMG012

Which of the following are the desired effects of using Which of the following is an acceptable first step procedure
Alodine on aluminum alloy? to help prevent scratching when cleaning a transparent
1. A slightly rough surface. plastic surface?
2. Relieved surface stresses. A. Gently wipe the surface with clean water.
3. A smooth painting surface. B. Flush the surface with clean water.
4. Increased corrosion resistance C. Gently wipe the surface with a clean soft cloth
A. #3 and #4 moistened with de-mineralized or distilled water.
B. #1, #2, and #4
C. #1 and #4

ANSWERS

Wash down the engine and accessories with a fine spray Alodizing is a simple chemical treatment for aluminum alloys
of kerosene or solvent. A bristle brush may be used to to increase their corrosion resistance and to improve their
help clean some of the surfaces. Remember magnesium paint bonding qualities. Because of its simple application
is the most chemically active of the metals used in aircraft process, alodizing is quickly replacing anodizing as the
construction and is the most difficult to protect against preferred method of corrosion protection.
corrosion. The information in the text is for general reference [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 23]
only, always follow manufacturer’s instructions for cleaning.

Special care is taken with magnesium as it is the most Chromic Acid Inhibitor is a 10 percent solution by weight
anodic metal and will corrode quickly when in contact with of chromic acid, activated by a small amount of sulfuric
any other metal. At least two coats of epoxy primer or zinc acid, and is particularly effective in treating exposed or
chromate must be applied to each mating surface. If spacing corroded aluminum surfaces. It may also be used to treat
allows and if service temperatures are expected to be less corroded magnesium.
than 250 degrees, a smooth coating of vinyl tape should also [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 23]
be placed between surfaces.

Alodizing is a simple chemical treatment for all aluminum Before applying soap and water to plastic surfaces, flush the
alloys to increase their corrosion resistance and to improve surfaces with fresh water to dissolve salt deposits and wash
their paint bonding qualities. away dust particles. Plastic surfaces should be washed with
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 22] soap and water, preferably by hand.

QUESTIONS
8-31 AMG012 8-34 AMG012

What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber.
or grease come in contact with a tire? A. Aliphatic naptha
A. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth and then rinse B. Methyl ethyl ketone
with clean water. C. Aromatic naptha
B. Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a washdown
and rinse with soap and water.
C. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic
naptha and then wipe dry with a clean cloth.
8-32 AMG012 8-35 AMG012

When aircraft are being cleaned, which of the following What is the primary disadvantage of using kerosene as
safety precautions should be observed? a solvent?
1. Place type ABC fire extinguishers with a booster line at A. It is has a low temperature flashpoint.
each aircraft entrance. B. It leaves a residue which must be further cleaned with
2. Move aircraft outside if flammable liquids are used. other solvents.
3. Turn off all interior electrical devices and switches. C. It evaporates quickly.
A. All of the above
B. #2 and #3
C. #1 and #3
8-33 AMG012 8-36 AMG012

Which cleaning substance is acceptable to use on oxygen Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because
system equipment? of the danger of
A. Stoddard solvent A. forming passive oxides.
B. Methylethylketone (MEK) B. entrapping corrosive materials.
C. Ethyl alcohol C. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide.

ANSWERS

Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a washdown and Aliphatic Naptha can also be used for cleaning acrylics
rinse with soap and water Surface oil, hydraulic fluid, grease, and rubber. However, because it has a low flashpoint (80
or fuel can be removed from aircraft tires by washing with a degrees), it must be used with care. Aliphatic naphtha is also
mild soap solution. After cleaning, lubricate all grease fittings, recommended for wipe down of cleaned surfaces just before
hinges, and so forth, where removal, contamination, or dilution painting. Do not confuse this with aromatic naptha which is
of the grease is suspected during washing of the aircraft. toxic and attacks rubber and acrylic products.

All of these safety precautions should be observed, as Kerosene does not evaporate as rapidly as dry cleaning
appropriate, when cleaning aircraft. Again, always remember solvent and generally leaves an appreciable film on cleaned
to follow published procedures. surfaces, which may actually be corrosive. Kerosene
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 26] film may be removed with safety solvent, water emulsion
cleaners, or detergent mixtures.

Only Anhydrous cleaning agents, such as ethyl alcohol, The danger of entrapping corrosive materials in faying
should be used to clean oxygen equipment. MEK vapor is surfaces and crevices counteracts any advantages in their
a toxic compound which should not be breathed. Stoddard speed and effectiveness.
solvent and other petroleum based agents will leave an oily [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 29]
residue on the equipment.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
8-1(O). List the three methods of cleaning an aircraft exterior.
8-2(O). Wet washing can remove accumulated dirt, oil, grease, and carbon deposits. What does it not remove?
8-3(O). When would a dry wash be accomplished on an aircraft and what does it clean or remove?
8-4(O). When would you polish an aircraft and what are the benefits.
8-5(O). Why is keeping the interior of an aircraft just as important as maintaining a clean exterior?
8-6(O). How can the accumulation of dirt and grease affect an air-cooled engine?
8-7(O). Define metal corrosion.
8-8(O). What are the two general classifications of corrosion?
8-9(O). Name the five forms of corrosion.
8-10(O). Define intergranular corrosion.
8-11(O). Define fretting corrosion.
8-12(O). Define stress corrosion.
8-13(O). What form of corrosion is exfoliation and how would you describe its appearance?
8-14(O) What is ferrous oxide?
8-15(O). Explain the corrosion process.
8-16(O). Name the areas of an aircraft that are prone to corrosion.
8-17(O). Name the preventive maintenance steps that can be taken to reduce the effects caused by corrosion.
8-18(O). Name the various components for a complete corrosion treatment (removal) program.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
8-1(O). Wet wash, dry wash, and polishing.
8-2(O). Corrosion and oxide films.

8-3(O). When the use of liquids is neither desirable nor practical and removes film, dust, and small accumulations of
dirt and soil.
8-4(O). Polishing is usually performed after surfaces have been cleaned. It restores luster to painted and unpainted
surfaces of the aircraft. It is also used to remove oxidation and corrosion.
8-5(O). Corrosion can establish itself on the inside structure to a greater degree because it is difficult to reach
some areas for cleaning. Nuts, bolts, bits of wire, or other metal objects carelessly dropped and neglected,
combined with moisture and dissimilar metal contact, can cause electrolytic corrosion.
8-6(O). They provide an effective insulation against the cooling effect of air flowing over it. Such an accumulation can
also cover up cracks or other defects.
8-7(O). The deterioration of the metal by chemical or electrochemical attack that can occur internally as well as on the
surface of the metal changing the smooth surface, weakening the interior, or damaging or loosening adjacent parts.
8-8(O). Direct chemical attack and electrochemical attack.

8-9(O). Surface, dissimilar metal, intergranular, stress, and fretting.

8-10(O). Corrosion that attacks along the grain boundaries of an alloy and is commonly the results of a lack of
uniformity caused by changes that occur in the alloy during heating and cooling during the material’s
manufacturing process.
8-11(O). Corrosion that occurs when two mating surfaces, normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to
slight relative motion.
8-12(O). Corrosion that occurs by combined effect of sustained tensile stresses and a corrosive environment. [Ref:
General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 6]
8-13(O). Exfoliation is a very severe form of intergranular corrosion and can cause lifting or flaking of the metal
at the surface due to delamination of the grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual
product buildup.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
8-14(O). A type of surface corrosion, commonly referred to as rust, which is the result of atmospheric oxidation on the
surface of steel.
8-15(O). The corrosion process involves two simultaneous changes: The metal that is attacked or oxidized suffers what
may be called anodic change, and the corrosive agent undergoes cathodic change.
8-16(O). Exhaust trail areas, battery compartments and vent openings, bilge areas on float aircraft, wheel well and
landing gear, water entrapment areas, engine frontal areas and cooling air vents, wing flap and spoiler
recesses, external skin areas, helicopter rotor heads and gear boxes, and control cables.
8-17(O).
1. Adequate cleaning
2. Thorough periodic lubrication
3. Detailed inspection for corrosion and failure of protective systems
4. Prompt treatment of corrosion and touchup of damaged paint areas
5. Keeping drain holes free of obstructions
6. Daily draining of fuel cell sumps
7. Daily wipe down of exposed critical areas
8. Sealing of aircraft against water during foul weather and proper ventilation on warm, sunny days
9. Maximum use of protective covers on parked aircraft.
8-18(O).
1. Cleaning and stripping of the corroded area,
2. Removing as much of the corrosion products as practicable,
3. Neutralizing any residual materials remaining in pits and crevices,
4. Restoring protective surface films, and
5. Applying temporary or permanent coatings or paint finishes.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
8-1(P). Given various samples, either actual or pictorial, identify the type of corrosion and describe the correct
procedure for removing the corrosion and treating the damaged area to prevent further corrosion.
8-2(P). Given a specific aircraft or mockup and the manufacturer’s instructions, select the proper cleaning materials
and remove grease that has been spilled on an aircraft tire.
8-3(P). Given a specific aircraft or mockup and the manufacturer’s instructions, select the proper cleaning material
and clean a transparent plastic cockpit enclosure or windshield.
8-4(P). Given a piece of metal commonly used on aircraft, remove any corrosion present and treat the metal to
prevent further corrosion.

FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS CHAPTER
Rigid Fluid Lines, Tube Bending, Flexible Hose Fluid Lines, Hose Clamps,
and Flexible Hose Inspection
09
QUESTIONS
9-1 AMG037 9-4 AMG037

Which tubings have the characteristics of high strength and The best tool for cutting aluminum tubing, or any tubing of
abrasion resistance, necessary for use in a high-pressure moderately soft metal, is a
(3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear A. hand operated wheel-type tubing cutter.
and flaps? B. fine-tooth hacksaw.
A. Aluminum alloy (2024-T or 5052-0) C. circular-saw equipped with an abrasive cutting wheel.
B. Corrosion-resistant steel (annealed CRES 304,
CRE 321 or CRES 304-1/8-hard
C. Aluminum alloy (1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H
9-2 AMG037 9-5 AMG037

Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and What is the advantage of using a fine tooth saw instead of a
A. outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments. tube cutter when cutting rigid tubing?
B. inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments. A. Decreases work hardening of the tube material.
C. outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments. B. Reduces burrs inside of the tube in the cut area.
C. A more precise cut resulting in a cleaner flaring
operation.
9-3 AMG037 9-6 AMG037

The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that Which statement is true regarding flattening of tubing
a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4-inch 0.072 in bends?
5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension A. Flattening by a maximum of 20 percent of the original
of this tubing? diameter is permissible.
A. 0.606 inch B. Flattening by not more than 25 percent of the original
B. 0.688 inch diameter is permissible.
C. 0.750 inch C. The small diameter portion in the bend cannot exceed
more than 75 percent of the diameter of straight tubing

FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS
ANSWERS

Corrosion resistant steel tubing, annealed CRES 304, Tubing may be cut with a tube cutter or a hacksaw. The
CRES 321 or CRES 304-1/8-hard, are used extensively in cutter can be used with any soft metal tubing, such as
high pressure hydraulic systems (3,000 psi or more) for the copper, aluminum, or aluminum alloy.
operation of landing gear, flaps, brakes, and in fire zones. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 3]

Rigid metal tubing is sized by outside diameter (o.d.) in 1/16" Use of a fine tooth saw (32 teeth per inch or more) reduces
(.625") increments. Flexible fuel lines are sized by 1/16 inside work hardening of the metal tubing, particularly when the
diameter. No fluid lines are sized in 1/32" measurements. tube is of a harder metal. However, be careful not to let the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 2] saw slip and damage the metal.

The wall thickness is typically printed on the tubing in A small amount of flattening in a bend is acceptable, but the
thousands of an inch. To determine the inside diameter small diameter of the flattened portion must not be less than
(i.d.) of the tube, subtract twice the wall thickness from the 75% of the original outside diameter.
outside diameter. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 4]
Convert 3⁄4" to decimal = .75, then subtract the wall
thickness 2(.072) = .144 to get 0.606 (.75-.144).

QUESTIONS
9-7 AMG037 9-10 AMG036

When bending metal tubing, what is the maximum amount of Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size
flattening permissible in the bend area of the tube? according to the
A. Flattened portion diameter not less than 75% of the A. outside diameter.
original tube diameter B. wall thickness.
B. Flattened portion diameter not less than 50% of the C. inside diameter.
original tube diameter
C. Flattened portion diameter not less than 2/3rds the
original tube diameter
9-8 AMG036 9-11 AMG037

Which is the proper flare type when fitting 3/8" OD aluminum Which statement is true regarding the variety of symbols
tube with AN fittings? utilized on the identifying color-code bands currently used on
A. 37 degree double flare. aircraft plumbing lines?
B. 37 degree single flare. A. Symbols are composed of various single colors
C. 45 degree double flare. according to line content.
B. Symbols are always black against a white background
regardless of line content.
C. Symbols are composed of one to three contrasting
colors according to line content.
9-9 AMG036 9-12 AMG037

Which is NOT considered an advantage of double flaring? A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is
A. A double flare is more resistant to shearing A. a dual-purpose pneumatic and/or hydraulic line for
under stress. normal and emergency system use.
B. A double flare is smoother and seals better. B. used to carry physically dangerous materials.
C. A double flare is recommended for hard metal tubing C. a pneumatic or hydraulic system drain or discharge line.
when cracking may occur.

ANSWERS

A small amount of flattening in bends is acceptable, but the The inside diameter of the fitting is the same as the inside
small diameter of the flattened portion must not be less than diameter of the hose to which it is attached.
75% of the original outside diameter. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 7]

The flaring tool used for aircraft tubing has male and female Identification tags are produced in two sections. The text
dies ground to produce a flare of 35° to 37°. 45° is an section states the fluid in the line, and the symbol section
automotive setting and should never be used on aircraft. provides a universally understood geometric symbol in black
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 5] over a white background.
9-9 Answer C. 9-12 AnswerB.

A double flare folds the tube in on itself and forms an Lines containing physically dangerous materials, such as
accurate flare without cracking or splitting. Double flaring oxygen, nitrogen, or Freon™, may be marked PHDAN.
is recommended with soft tubing materials on rigid tubing [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 8]
less than 3/8" outside diameter. When used, a double flare
provides a smother bearing surface and is less likely to form
leaks. It is also more resistant to the shearing effect of torque.

QUESTIONS
9-13 AMG037 9-16 AMG036

If a standard AN flared fitting is colored black, what material What is the procedure to remove a damaged Cryofit fitting?
is in made of? A. Apply heat directly to the fitting until the fitting slides off
A. Aluminum. the tube.
B. Bronze. B. Cool the fitting with liquid nitrogen until the fitting slides
C. Steel. off the tube.
C. Cut it off at the sleeve and replace with a swaged
fitting.
9-14 AMG036 9-17 AMG037

In which circumstance is an MS flareless fitting preferable to Cryofit fittings are often used on transport category aircraft
an AN flared fitting? A. for high pressure fuel lines.
A. In high pressure systems subject to vibration and B. when routine disconnections are not required.
pressure fluctuations. C. when the fluid lines will be subject to extremely cold
B. In low pressure systems where the simpler fitting temperatures.
is acceptable.
C. When the fitting is subject to frequent removal
and servicing.
9-15 AMG036 9-18 AMG036

Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2 inch Which statement(s) about military standard (MS) flareless
aluminum oil lines to be assembled using flared tube ends fittings is/are correct?
and standard AN nuts,sleeves,and fittings? 1. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally
A. AN-818-5 tightened by turning the nut a specified amount, rather
B. AN-818-16 than being torqued.
C. AN-818-8 2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should be assembled
clean and dry without lubrication.
3. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally
tightened by applying a specified torque to the nut.
A. 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 3

ANSWERS

Aluminum fittings are blue, black fittings are steel, and Cryofit fittings can only be removed by cutting the tube at the
cadmium plated bronze fittings are left a natural color. Care sleeve and replacing it with a swaged fitting; assuming enough
should be taken to use the same fitting material as the tubing room remains on the line for proper routing. If insufficient line
to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion. length remains, the entire line must be replaced.

MS flareless fittings are designed primarily for high pressure Many transport category aircraft use Cryofit fittings to join
(3,000psi) hydraulic systems when subject to extreme hydraulic lines in areas where routine disconnections are
vibration and fluctuating pressure. Both flared and flareless not required.
fittings may be disassembled for service. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 14]

The last dash in the designation for AN nuts is measured in Tighten the nut by hand until an increase in resistance to
1/16-inch increments. Eight sixteenths is equal to one-half, turning is encountered. Should it be impossible to run the nut
therefore, the coupling nut that should be chosen is AN-818-8. down with the fingers, use a wrench, but be alert for the first
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 11] signs of bottoming. It is important that the final tightening
commence at the point where the nut just begins to bottom.
Use a wrench and turn the nut one-sixth turn (one flat on a
hex nut). Use a wrench on the connector to prevent it from
turning while tightening the nut. After the tube assembly
is installed, the system should be pressure tested. It is
permissible to tighten the nut an additional one- sixth turn
(making a total of one-third turn), should a connection leak.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 15 and 16]

QUESTIONS
9-19 AMG036 9-22 AMG036

When joining and torquing flared tubes and fittings A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be repaired,
A. apply sealing compound between the fitting and flare. provided it does not
B. apply lubricant between the fitting and flare. A. appear in the heel of a bend.
C. assure the connection is clean and dry. B. appear on the inside of a bend.
C. exceed 10 percent of the tube OD on a straight section.
9-20 AMG037 9-23 AMG036

Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized area to Which maintenance record entry best describes the action
such an extent that repair is necessary, may be repaired taken for a 0.125-inch deep dent in a straight section of 1/2-
A. by cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a swaged inch aluminum alloy tubing?
tube fitting to join the tube ends. A. Dented section removed and replaced with identical
B. only by replacing the tubing section run (connection new tubing flared to 45 degrees.
to connection) using the same size and material as B. Dent within acceptable limits, repair not necessary.
the original. C. Dented section removed and replaced with identical
C. by cutting out the damaged section and soldering in a new tubing flared to 37 degrees.
replacement section of tubing.
9-21 AMG036 9-24 AMG036

Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy Which of the following defects are NOT acceptable for
tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than metal lines?
A. 20 percent of the wall thickness. 1. Cracked flare.
B. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness, whichever 2. Seams.
is less. 3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than 20 percent of
C. 10 percent of the wall thickness. tube diameter.
4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend less than 10
percent of wall thickness.
5. Dents in straight sections that are 20 percent of
wall thickness.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1, 2, 3, and 5

ANSWERS

Never apply material to the faces of the fitting and flare as Scratches or nicks not deeper than 10 percent of the wall
this destroys the metal to metal contact which is necessary thickness in aluminum alloy tubing, which are not in the heel
to ensure a fluid proof seal. of a bend, may be repaired by burnishing with hand tools.

A severely damaged line should be replaced. However, the Ten percent of 0.5 is .05, the dent is greater than the
line may be repaired by cutting out the damaged section and allowable 10% and therefore the tubing must be replaced.
inserting a tube section of the same size and material. Flare Standard tube flares are 37°.
both ends of the undamaged and replacement tube sections [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 5-16]
and make the connection by using standard unions, sleeves,
and tube nuts. Aluminum 6061-T6, corrosion resistant steel
304-1/8h and Titanium 3AL-2.5V tubing can be repaired by
swaged fittings.

Scratches or nicks not deeper than 10 percent of the wall When installing or inspecting metal tubing the following
thickness in aluminum alloy tubing, which are not in the heel defects are not allowed:
of a bend, may be repaired by burnishing with hand tools. • Flare distorted into nut threads
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 16] • Sleeve cracked
• Flare cracked or split
• Flare out of round
• Inside of flare rough or scratched
• Threads of nut or union dirty, damaged, or broken
• Scratches or nicks deeper than 10 percent of the
wall thickness
• Severe die marks, seams, or splits in the tube
• Dents greater than 20 percent of the tube diameter in the
heel of a bend.

QUESTIONS
9-25 AMG036 9-28 AMG036

In a metal tubing installation; Which of the following can be identified by the letters and
A. rigid straight line runs are preferable. numbers printed on aircraft hydraulic hose?
B. tension is undesirable because pressurization will A. The recommended expiration date.
cause it to expand and shift. B. The hose size.
C. a tube may be pulled in line if the nut will start on the C. Its compatible fluid types.
threaded coupling.
9-26 AMG036 9-29 AMG036

The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in fluid and Which is NOT an advantage of a Teflon hose?
pneumatic metal tubing runs is to 1. An almost limitless shelf life.
A. clear obstacles and make turns in aircraft structures. 2. Less resistance to viscous fluids.
B. provide for access within aircraft structures. 3. May be used in very cold to very hot conditions.
C. prevent excessive stress on the tubing. 4. Compatible will nearly all substances and fluids.
5. May be preformed to clear obstruction.
A. 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. All the above are advantages
9-27 AMG036 9-30 AMG036

Which of the following hose materials are compatible with The term "cold flow" is generally associated with
phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids? A. the effects of low temperature gasses or liquids flowing
1. Butyl in the hose or tubing.
2. Teflon B. impressions left in natural or synthetic rubber hose
3. Buna-N material.
4. Neoprene C. flexibility characteristics of various hose materials at
A. 1 and 2 low ambient temperatures.
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 3

ANSWERS

If the tube must be machine formed, definite bends must be Hydraulic hose is marked every 9 inches of length to identify
made to avoid a straight assembly. Bends are also necessary its MIL type, its size, the quarter and year of manufacture,
to permit the tubing to expand or contract under temperature and a 5 digit code to identify its manufacturer.
changes and to absorb vibration. In all cases, the new tube [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 19]
assembly should be formed prior to installation so it will not
be necessary to pull or deflect the assembly into alignment
by means of the coupling nuts.

Bends are necessary to permit the tubing to expand or Teflon hoses typically come preformed and are braided with
contract under temperature changes and to absorb vibration, stainless steel wire for strength and protection. They offer all
which cause stress on the tubing. of the advantages listed above.

Butyl is a synthetic rubber compound made from petroleum The term "cold flow" describes the deep, permanent
raw materials. It is an excellent material to use with impressions in the hose produced by the pressure of hose
phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid (Skydrol). Do not use clamps or supports.
with petroleum products. Teflon™ is the DuPont trade [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 19]
name for tetrafluoroethylene resin. It has a broad operating
temperature range (−65 °F to +450 °F). It is compatible with
nearly every substance or agent used. Teflon™ hose is
unaffected by any known fuel, petroleum, or synthetic based
oils, alcohol, coolants, or solvents commonly used in aircraft.
Buna-N and Neoprene are synthetic rubber and are resistant
to petroleum based products but not phosphate ester base
hydraulic fluid (Skydrol).

QUESTIONS
9-31 AMG037 9-34 AMG036

Flexible fluid lines must be installed with? When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing;
A. enough slack to allow maximum flexing during A. paint removal from tube is not recommended as it will
operation. increase corrosion.
B. slack equal to approximately 5% of their length. B. repaint clamp and tube after clamp installation to
C. snuggly around its path to prevent entanglement with prevent corrosion.
other lines or components. C. remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location.
9-32 AMG037 9-35 AMG036

The maximum distance between end fittings to which a Which of the below statements is/are true?
straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The 1. Bonded clamps are used for support when installing
minimum hose length to make such a connection should be metal tubing.
A. 54 1⁄2 inches. 2. Unbonded clamps are used for support when
B. 51 inches. installing wiring.
C. 52 1⁄2 inches. A. Only #1 is true.
C. Only #2 is true.
9-33 AMG037
A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose
during installation because, when under pressure, it
A. Expands in length and diameter.
B. expands in length and contracts in diameter.
C. contracts in length and expands in diameter

ANSWERS

Hose assemblies must not be installed in a manner that Bonded clamps are used to secure rigid fluid lines from
will cause a mechanical load on the hose. When installing electrical buildup. Thus, any paint or anodizing on that
flexible hose, provide slack or bend in the hose line from 5 to portion of the tube must be removed to provide an adequate
8 percent of its total length to provide for changes in length electrical contact.
that will occur when pressure is applied. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 23]

Hose assemblies must not be installed in a manner that Use bonded clamps to secure metal hydraulic, fuel, or oil
will cause a mechanical load on the hose. When installing lines in place. Unbonded clamps should be used only for
flexible hose, provide slack or bend in the hose line from 5 to securing wiring.
8 percent of its total length to provide for changes in length [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 23]
that will occur when pressure is applied.
5% of 50 = 2.5
therefore, 50 inches + 2.5 inches = 52.5 inches.
9-33 Answer C.
Flexible hose contracts in length and expands in diameter
when pressurized.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
9-1(O). What are the three most common types of metals used for rigid fluid line fabrication in aviation?
9-2(O). Which metal is used for low to medium pressure hydraulic and pneumatic systems?
9-3(O). Which metals are best suited for high-pressure hydraulic systems?
9-4(O). How is metal tubing fluid line sized?
9-5(O). Name at least three synthetic materials commonly used in the manufacture of flexible hose.
9-6(O). Which synthetic rubber hosing is best for use with fuel?
9-7(O). Which synthetic rubber hosing is best for use with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid (Skydrol)?
9-8(O). How do you determine the correct sizing for flexible hose?
9-9(O). What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?
9-10(O). What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing?
9-11(O). How much slack must flexible lines have when installed?
9-12(O). Why must a pressurized flexible hose be installed with slack?
9-13(O). Why should you never overtighten a flareless tube fitting?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
9-1(O). Aluminum alloy, steel, and titanium.
9-2(O). Aluminum alloy tubing.

9-3(O). Corrosion resistant steel and titanium.

9-4(O). Metal tubing is sized by outside diameter (o.d.), which is measured fractionally in sixteenths of an inch.
9-5(O). Buna-N, neoprene, butyl, ethylene propylene diene rubber (EPDM) and Teflon™. While Teflon™ is in a category
of its own, the others are synthetic rubber.
9-6(O). Buna-N
9-7(O). Butyl
9-8(O). By a dash number, stenciled on the side of the hose, indicating the size of tubing with which it is compatible.
When the dash number of the hose corresponds with the dash number of the tubing, the proper size hose is
being used.
9-9(O). All AN steel fittings are colored black.

9-10(O). A double flare is smoother and more concentric than a single flare and therefore seals better. It is also more
resistant to the shearing effect of torque.
9-11(O). When installing flexible hose, provide slack or bend in the hose line from 5 to 8 percent of its length.
9-12(O). Flexible hose contracts in length and expands in diameter when pressurized.
9-13(O). Flareless tube fittings should never be overtightened as this may cause permanent damage to the sleeve
and nut.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
9-1(P). Given the appropriate materials and specifications, fabricate a rigid line to include tube fittings, bends, and
tube flaring.
9-2(P). Given the appropriate materials and specifications, fabricate a flexible line with replaceable fittings on at least
one end.
9-3(P). Given a section of rigid and/or flexible lines, inspect for and identify any defects.
9-4(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, remove and install a rigid and/or flexible line.
9-5(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, inspect an installed flexible and/or rigid line for correct installation. Write up any
discrepancies found.
9-6(P). Given the appropriate materials and specifications, assemble a flareless fitting tube connection.
9-7(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, repair a damaged rigid line per industry standards.
9-8(P). Identify various sizes and types of aircraft fittings.
9-9(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, secure a rigid line using clamps per industry standards.
9-10(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, identify various fluid and/or air lines installed.


INSPECTION CONCEPTS AND TECHNIQUES CHAPTER
Preparation, Logs and Checklists, Publications, Required Inspections, Special Inspections,
Composite and Weld Inspection, and Tools
10
QUESTIONS
10-1 AMG059 10-4 AMG097

What record would indicate an approved return to service Which piece of information would NOT be found in a Type
following a completed annual or 100 hour inspection? Certificate Data Sheet?
A. Airworthiness certificate A. CG range and datum locations
B. Aircraft maintenance manual B. Frequency and type of inspections required for the
C. Aircraft log book aircraft
C. Control surface movement limitations
10-2 AMG062 10-5 AMG062

Which publication would describe work required to correct The person ultimately responsible for determining whether an
an unsafe condition discovered in the design of an aircraft? aircraft is in an airworthy condition is the
A. Structural repair manual A. pilot in command.
B. Manufacturer’s maintenance manual B. aircraft’s owner.
C. Airworthiness directive C. A&P mechanic who signed off the current annual or 100
hour inspection.
10-3 AMG097 10-6 AMG059

An aircraft was not approved for return to service after an Which inspection schedule plan must be individually
annual inspection and the owner wanted to fly the aircraft to approved by an FAA Flight Standard District Office?
another maintenance base. Which statement is correct? A. 100 hour inspection schedule
A. The owner must obtain a special flight permit. B. Annual inspection schedule
B. The owner may fly without restriction up to 10 hours. C. Progressive inspection schedule
C. The owner may fly in the restricted category up to
10 hours.

INSPECTION CONCEPTS AND TECHNIQUES
ANSWERS

The aircraft logbook is the register in which all significant For determining the overall condition of an aircraft, 14 CFR
events involving the aircraft are recorded including provides for the inspection of all civil aircraft at specific intervals,
scheduled inspections, AD compliance, service bulletins, depending generally upon the type of operations in which
major and minor repairs, etc. they are engaged. Refer to the CFR for specific inspection
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 2] requirements and rules for the performance of inspections.

Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for
39, Airworthiness Directives, defines the authority and determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe
responsibility of the Administrator for requiring the necessary flight. Additionally, it is the pilot’s responsibility to review the
corrective action of unsafe conditions that may exist because airworthiness certificate, maintenance records, and other
of a design defect, maintenance, or other causes. The required paperwork to verify the aircraft is indeed airworthy.
Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are published to notify aircraft [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 12]
owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions
and to prescribe the conditions under which the product
may continue to be operated. Airworthiness Directives are
Federal Aviation Regulations and must be complied with
unless a specific exemption is granted.

According to CFR Part 21, for an aircraft which is overdue Each registered owner or operator of an aircraft desiring to
on an inspection or maintenance, but deemed safe to use a progressive inspection program must submit a written
operate, a special flight permit may be requested from FAA request to the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)
to transport the aircraft to a preferred repair station. having jurisdiction over the area in which the applicant is
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 17] located. Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR)
part 91, §91.409(d) establishes procedures to be followed for
progressive inspections.

QUESTIONS
10-7 AMG088 10-10 AMG026

An aircraft scheduled for a 100 hour inspection has flown 98 Which of the following ATA systems designation is correct?
hours since the last inspection. It is currently located 4 hours A. ATA 21 regards air conditioning; and ATA 32 regards
from its primary maintenance facility. What must be done? landing gear.
A. The inspection must be done at a facility within 2 hours B. ATA 28 regards hydraulic power and ATA 33 regards
flying time of its present location. ice and rain protection.
B. A special ferry permit must be obtained from the local C. ATA 26 regards oxygen systems; and ATA 49 regards
FSDO to fly the aircraft beyond its 100 hour term. vacuum systems.
C. It is close enough for government. Fly it home and do
the inspection at your regular facility
10-8 AMG059 10-11 AMG059

A turbine powered business jet typically undergoes what An aircraft encountering severe turbulence in flight should
type of inspection schedule? undergo a
A. Progressive Inspections A. structural inspection before its next operation.
B. A-D checks B. structural inspection only if personal injury occurred
C. 100 hour inspections during the encounter.
C. standard annual, or 100 hour inspection before its next
operation.
10-9 AMG074 10-12 AMG059

An aircraft equipped with an Air Traffic Control transponder When an aircraft is struck by lightning in flight, which
must have that transponder checked components are the most likely to suffer damage?
A. as part of the normal aircraft inspection schedule. A. Electrically conductive metallic components.
B. within 24 calendar months of the previous transponder B. Non-electrically conductive composite and plastic
inspection. components.
C. within 12 calendar months of the previous C. Aircraft electronic systems.
transponder inspection.

ANSWERS

When an aircraft is due for a 100 hour inspection, it may Answer A is correct. Of the wrong answers; ATA 28 regards
be flown up to 10 hours beyond the 100 hour limit, if fuel systems, ATA 33 regards lights, ATA 26 regards fire
necessary, to fly to a destination where the inspection is to protection, and ATA 47 regards auxiliary power systems.
be conducted. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 15]

Continuous inspection programs are similar to progressive When an aircraft encounters a gust condition, the load on
inspection programs, except they apply to large or turbine- the wings may exceed the normal wing load supporting the
powered aircraft and are therefore more complicated and aircraft weight. A special inspection should be performed
include both routine and detailed inspections. However, the after a flight through severe turbulence.
detailed inspections may include different levels of detail. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 16]
A-checks are the least comprehensive and occur frequently.
D-checks, on the other hand, are extremely comprehensive,
involving major disassembly, removal, overhaul, and inspection
of systems and components. D-checks might occur only three
to six times during the service life of an aircraft.

Aircraft having an air traffic control (ATC) transponder must When surges pass through good electrical conductors,
have each transponder checked within the preceding 24 damage is likely to be minimum or non-existent. However,
months. These checks must be conducted by appropriately with non-conductive components such as composite cowls,
certified individuals. windows, or radomes, burning or more serious damage
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 14] can occur. Look for burn marks or delamination damage to
composite structures.

QUESTIONS
10-13 AMG085 10-16 AMG024

A Rockwell test of affected components would be useful Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which
during an inspection of an aircraft subject to ______________. of the following?
A. a lightening strike. 1. Porous plastics
B. flood damage. 2. Ferrous metals
C. fire damage. 3. Nonferrous metals
4. Smooth primer-sealed wood
5. Nonporous plastics
A. 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2, 3, and 5
10-14 AMG019 10-17 AMG024

Which of the following methods may be suitable to detect A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant inspection
cracks open to the surface in aluminum forgings and castings? should be cleaned with
1. Dye or liquid penetrant inspection A. the prescribed cleaning solvent.
2. Magnetic particle inspection B. the penetrant developer.
3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection C. water-base solvents only.
4. Eddy current inspection
5. Ultrasonic inspection
6. Visual inspection
A. 1, 4, 5, and 6
B. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
10-15 AMG024 10-18 AMG024

Detection of a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and
usually requires clear, the most probable cause is the part
A. the developer be applied to a flat surface. A. was not correctly degaussed before the developer
B. a longer-than-normal penetrating time. was applied.
C. the surface to be highly polished. B. has no appreciable damage.
C. was not thoroughly washed before the developer
was applied.

ANSWERS

The heat from an onboard fire could affect the hardness Liquid penetrant inspection can be used on both ferrous and
ratings of ferrous metal components that have been affected. nonferrous metals, nonporous plastics, ceramics, molded
A Rockwell Hardness test can help determine if they rubber, and glass.
remain airworthy. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 8 Page 19]

Dye or liquid penetrant inspection, eddy current inspection, Before performing a penetrant inspection, thoroughly clean
ultrasonic inspection, and visual inspection are all suitable the metal surface per the instructions.
inspections for detecting cracks open to the surface in both [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 20]
aluminum forgings and castings. Visual inspection can be
enhanced by looking at the suspect area with a bright light, a
magnifying glass, and a mirror (when required). Some defects
might be so obvious that further inspection methods are not
required. Penetrant inspection is a nondestructive test for
defects open to the surface in parts made of any nonporous
material. Eddy current inspection can frequently be performed
without removing the surface coatings such as primer, paint,
and anodized films. It can be effective in detecting surface and
subsurface corrosion, pots and heat treat condition. Ultrasonic
detection equipment makes it possible to locate defects in all
types of materials. Minute cracks, checks, and voids too small
to be seen by x-ray can be located by ultrasonic inspection.
Magnetic particle inspection is a method of detecting invisible
cracks and other defects in ferromagnetic materials such as
iron and steel. It is not applicable to nonmagnetic materials.
Tap testing, also referred to as the ring test or coin test, is
widely used as a quick evaluation of an accessible surface to
detect the presence of delamination or debonding.

When inspecting a component, the smaller the defect, the The defect must be clean and free of contaminating materials
longer the penetrating time. Fine crack- like apertures require so that the penetrant is free to enter.
a longer penetrating time than defects such as pores. Be [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 20]
sure to follow the manufacturer’s inspection instructions.

QUESTIONS
10-19 AMG024 10-22 AMG019

In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer Which is NOT an advantage of the eddy current
A. seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of nondestructive inspection technique?
a defect. A. Can often be performed without removing paint and
B. acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication. primer.
C. thoroughly cleans the surface prior to inspection. B. Can be used with almost all types of structural material.
C. Can test a substance for both corrosion and heat treat
condition.
10-20 AMG019 10-23 AMG024

What nondestructive testing method requires little or no Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable
part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface for the inspection of most metals, plastics, and ceramics for
defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate surface and subsurface defects?
metals or alloys and their heat treat conditions? A. Eddy current inspection
A. Eddy current inspection. B. Magnetic particle inspection
B. Ultrasonic inspection. C. Ultrasonic inspection
C. Magnetic particle inspection.
10-21 AMG024 10-24 AMG024

Which non-destructive testing method is typically used Which type of ultrasonic testing would normally be used
to inspect aluminum components subjected to fire or to measure the thickness of a material when the backside
extreme heat? surface is inaccessible?
A. Liquid penetrant inspection A. Pulse echo
B. Eddy current inspection B. Through transmission
C. Ultrasonic inspection C. Resonance

ANSWERS

Visible penetrant-type developer, when applied to the Eddy current inspection can frequently be performed without
surface of a part, will dry to a smooth, even, white coating. removing the surface coatings such as primer, paint, and
As the developer dries, bright red indications will appear anodized films. It can be effective in detecting surface
where there are surface defects, acting like a blotter and subsurface corrosion, pots and heat treat condition.
absorbing the penetrant that remained in the defects after However, it can only detect faults in metal structures.
removing the penetrant. If no red indications appear, there [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 21]
are no surface defects.

Eddy current inspection can frequently be performed without Ultrasonic detection equipment makes it possible to locate
removing the surface coatings such as primer, paint, and defects in all types of materials. Magnetic particle inspection
anodized films. It can be effective in detecting surface and is suitable only with ferrous metals. Eddy current inspection
subsurface corrosion, pots and heat treat condition. is suitable only with materials that conduct electricity.

Inspection of aircraft structures that have been subjected to The resonance method is used principally for thickness
fire or intense heat can be relatively simple if visible damage measurements when the two sides of the material being tested
is present. Visible damage requires repair or replacement. are smooth and parallel and the backside is inaccessible.
If there is no visible damage, the structural integrity of an [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 26]
aircraft may still have been compromised. Since most
structural metallic components of an aircraft have undergone
some sort of heat treatment process during manufacture,
an exposure to high heat not encountered during normal
operations could severely degrade the design strength of the
structure. The strength and airworthiness of an aluminum
structure that passes a visual inspection but is still suspect
can be further determined by use of a conductivity tester
which uses eddy current.

QUESTIONS
10-25 AMG019 10-28 AMG019

What is the purpose of a couplant used during In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular
ultrasonic inspections? to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes
A. Creates a reflective surface. A. a large disruption in the magnetic field.
B. Creates a sealed interface. B. a minimal disruption in the magnetic field.
C. Electrically excite the sonic pulse. C. no disruption in the magnetic field.
10-26 AMG019 10-29 AMG019

What method of magnetic particle inspection is used Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect
most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks which defects?
and other defects? A. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part.
A. Residual B. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
B. Inductance C. Defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of
C. Continuous magnetic force within the part.
10-27 AMG019 10-30 AMG019

The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection
buildup forming method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be
A. a fernlike pattern. used to
B. a single line. A. reveal all possible defects.
C. parallel lines. B. evenly magnetize the entire part.
C. ensure uniform current flow.

ANSWERS

Because ultrasonic energy does not travel through air, a To locate a defect in a part, it is essential the magnetic lines
layer of couplant is required between the transducer and of force pass approximately perpendicular to the defect. It is
specimen to fill any voids in between. therefore necessary to induce magnetic flux in more than one
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 29] direction since defects are likely to exist at any angle to the
major axis of the part.

The highly critical nature of aircraft parts and assemblies and Circular magnetization is the induction of a magnetic field
the necessity for subsurface inspection in many applications consisting of concentric circles of force about and within
have resulted in the continuous method being more widely the part achieved by passing electric current through the
used. The continuous procedure provides greater sensitivity part. This type of magnetization will locate defects running
than the residual procedure, particularly in locating approximately parallel to the axis of the part.
subsurface discontinuities. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 32]

Inclusions are foreign material formed by impurities in To locate a defect in a part, it is essential the magnetic lines
the metal during the metal processing stages. Inclusions of force pass approximately perpendicular to the defect. It
interrupt the continuity of the metal because they prevent the is therefore necessary to induce magnetic flux in more than
joining or welding of adjacent faces of the metal. Indications one direction since defects are likely to exist at any angle
of subsurface inclusions are usually broad and fuzzy. to the major axis of the part. This requires two separate
They are seldom continuous or of even width and density magnetizing operations, referred to as circular magnetization
throughout their length. Larger inclusions, particularly those and longitudinal magnetization.
near or open to the surface, appear more clearly defined. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 32]
Close examination will generally reveal a lack of definition
and consists of several parallel lines rather than a single
line. These characteristics will usually distinguish a heavy
inclusion from a crack.

QUESTIONS
10-31 AMG019 10-34 AMG019

Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified
inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization? as having a fatigue crack under which condition?
A. 45 degree A. The discontinuity pattern is straight.
B. Longitudinal B. The discontinuity is found in a non- stressed area of
C. Transverse the part.
C. The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of
the part.
10-32 AMG019 10-35 AMG019

Which is a benefit of the Magnaglo method of Magnetic What two types of indicating mediums are available for
particle inspection? magnetic particle inspection?
A. Small flaws are more easily detectable. A. Wet and dry process materials.
B. Magnetization and demagnetization of the part is B. High retentivity and low permeability material.
not necessary. C. Iron and ferris oxides.
C. Inspection of parts can typically be done without
removal from the aircraft.
10-33 AMG019 10-36 AMG019

Which statement is true regarding the residual method of One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle
magnetic particle inspection? inspection is by
A. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent. A. subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage ac.
B. It provides greater sensitivity than the continuous B. slowly moving the part out of an ac magnetic field of
method of magnetic particle inspection. sufficient strength.
C. It is only used with steels that have been heat treated. C. slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic field of
sufficient strength.

ANSWERS

To locate a defect in a part, it is essential the magnetic Fatigue occurs in materials which are exposed to frequent
lines of force pass approximately perpendicular to the reversals of loading or repeatedly applied loads if the
defect. Circular magnetization will locate defects running fatigue limit is reached or exceeded.
approximately parallel to the axis of the part. In longitudinal Repeated vibration or bending will ultimately cause a
magnetization, the magnetic field is produced in a direction minute crack to occur at the weakest point. As vibration
parallel to the long axis of the part thus detecting defects at or bending continues, the crack lengthens until the part
a 90° angle to axis. Defects at a 45° angle should therefore completely fails. This is termed shock and fatigue failure.
be detected by either method. Although cracks generally run in a uniform direction, they
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 32] are not straight and would not appear in a non-stressed
(non-fatigued) area or part.

Magnaglo inspection is similar to regular magnetic particle The various types of indicating mediums available for
techniques except that a fluorescent solution is used magnetic particle inspection are divided into two general
and the inspection made under a black light, so allowing material types: wet and dry. The basic requirement for any
smaller flaws to be seen. indicating medium is that it produces acceptable indications
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 33] of discontinuities.

The residual method of magnetic particle inspection is used The simplest procedure for developing a reversing and
only of heat treated steel. While the process is easier to gradually decreasing magnetizing force in a part involves the
perform, it is not as sensitive as the continuous method. All use of a solenoid coil energized by alternating current. As the
forms of magnetic particle inspections are most useful in part is moved away from the alternating field of the solenoid,
detecting anomalies on or near the surface. the magnetism in the part gradually decreases.

QUESTIONS
10-37 AMG019 10-40 AMG024

The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic Which of these factors are considered essential knowledge
particle inspection utilizes a ferromagnetic material that has for x-ray exposure?
A. high permeability and low retentivity. 1. Processing of the film
B. low permeability and high retentivity. 2. Material thickness and density
C. high permeability and high retentivity. 3. Exposure distance and angle
4. Film characteristics
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. All of the above
10-38 AMG019 10-41 AMG024

Regarding the below statements. A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair
1. An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it using the potted compound repair technique. What
to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is nondestructive testing method is used to determine the
gradually reduced in strength. soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?
2. An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to A. Eddy current test
a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately B. Metallic ring test
reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength. C. Ultrasonic test
A. Both #1 and #2 are true
B. Only #1 is true
C. Only #2 is true
10-39 AMG024 10-42 AMG024

Which is an advantage of the radiographic inspection Which of the following are commonly used nondestructive
technique? testing methods on composite structures?
A. Provides a very precise image of a defect. A. Tap test, ultrasonic, and radiographic
B. Results can be interpreted with a minimal amount of B. Tap test, eddy current, and dye penetrant
training. C. Tap test, magnaglo, and flux density
C. Can often be accomplished without disassembly of the
part from the aircraft.

ANSWERS

For acceptable operation, magnetic particle inspection must The factors of radiographic exposure are so interdependent
have an indicating medium that has high permeability and that it is necessary to consider all factors for any particular
low retentivity. High permeability ensures that a minimum radiographic exposure. These factors include, but are not
of magnetic energy will be required to attract the material limited to, material thickness and density, shape and size of
to flux leakage caused by discontinuities. Low retentivity the object, type of defect expected, characteristics of x-ray
ensures that the mobility of the magnetic particles will not be machine used, the exposure distance, the exposure angle,
hindered by the particles themselves becoming magnetized film characteristics, and types of intensifying screen, if used.
and attracting one another. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 35-36]

Demagnetization may be accomplished in a number of Tap testing, also referred to as the ring test, coin test or
different ways. A convenient procedure for aircraft parts metallic ring test, is widely used as a quick evaluation
involves subjecting the part to a magnetizing force that of any accessible surface to detect the presence of
is continually reversing in direction and, at the same delamination or debonding.
time, gradually decreasing in strength. As the decreasing [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 37]
magnetizing force is applied first in one direction and then
the other, the magnetization of the part also decreases. How
the magnetizing force is achieved is irrelevant.

Radiographic inspection techniques are used to locate Common aviation nondestructive testing methods include
defects or flaws in airframe structures or engines with little or ultrasonic, acoustic emission, and radiographic inspections.
no disassembly. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 37]

QUESTIONS
10-43 AMG098 10-45 AMG098

Which is a characteristic of a good gas weld? Using Figure 10-1 below, identify the weld caused by an
A. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure excessive amount of acetylene.
fusion of the filler rod. A. 1
B. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above B. 2
the base metal. C. 3
C. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal.
10-44 AMG098 10-46 AMG098

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what Using Figure 10-1 below, select the illustration which depicts
percentage(s) of the base metal thickness? a cold weld.
A. 100 percent A. 1
B. 25 to 50 percent B. 2
C. 60 to 80 percent C. 4
1 2
3 4
Figure 10-1. Examples of welds.

ANSWERS

A good weld is uniform in width with the ripples even and The puddle has a tendency to boil during the welding
well feathered into the base metal, which shows no burn due operation if an excessive amount of acetylene is used. This
to overheating. often leaves slight bumps along the center and craters at the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 39] finish of the weld.

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirements are 25 to 50 A weld that has improper penetration and cold laps caused
percent of the thickness of the base metal. by insufficient heat appears rough and irregular, and its
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 39] edges are not feathered into the base metal.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
10-1(O). Describe the characteristics of a good weld.
10-2(O). When inspecting a fillet weld, how much penetration is required of the base metal?
10-3(O). What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?
10-4(O). Magnetic particle inspections are used primarily for detecting what types of defects?
10-5(O). Liquid penetrant inspection methods can be used on what types of materials?
10-6(O). What tools are needed to aid in visual inspections?
10-7(O). Tap testing, also referred to as the ring test or coin test, is widely used to detect what types of defects and on
what type of material?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
10-1(O). A good weld is uniform in width with the ripples even and well feathered into the base metal, which shows no
burn due to overheating.
10-2(O). The penetration requirements are 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
10-3(O). Wet and dry process materials.

10-4(O). Defects located on or near the surface.

10-5(O). Ferrous and nonferrous metals and nonporous plastics.

10-6(O). A bright light, a magnifying glass, and a mirror (when required).

10-7(O). It detects the presence of delamination or debonding in composite material.


QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
NOTE: Additional application of your skills in inspection will be tested during the airframe and powerplant practical
application tests. Be sure you understand the basics as outlined in this text.
10-1(P). Given an aircraft component or mock-up, perform a dye or fluorescent penetrant inspection and record your
findings.
10-2(P). Given an aircraft component or mock-up, find a non-visible defect using eddy current or ultrasonic inspection
equipment and record your findings.
10-3(P). Given an aircraft or mock-up, inspect hardware for defects and proper installation.
10-4(P). Given an aircraft or mock-up, visually inspect welds and record findings.


HAND TOOLS AND MEASURING DEVICES CHAPTER
General Purpose Tools, Metal Cutting Tools, Drills, Taps and Dies, Layout and Measuring Tools
11
QUESTIONS
11-1 AMG020 11-4 AMG020

What type of pliers are typically used for twisting safety wire? When choosing a hacksaw blade; which pitch of the blade’s
A. Round nose pliers teeth is best for cutting cold-rolled or structural steel?
B. Duckbill pliers A. 14 pitch
C. Needle nose pliers B. 24 pitch
C. 32 pitch
11-2 AMG020 11-5 AMG020

Which of the following is not an appropriate use of a Which is true regarding the use of metal cutting hand snips?
center punch? A. Cutting with snips hardens the material at the edge line.
A. Removing rivets from holes B. Cutting with snips leaves fractures along the edge line.
B. Transfer dimensions from a paper template to metal C. Cutting with snips removes small amounts of metal at
C. Create an indentation to start a twist drill the edge line.
11-3 AMG020 11-6 AMG020

What wrench type is best used on the B-nut of a fuel or Which file type will provide the smoothest cut and
hydraulic line? finest finish?
A. Crow foot A. Vixen file
B. Flare nut B. Lead float file
C. Hook spanner C. Mill file

HAND TOOLS AND MEASURING DEVICES
ANSWERS

Duck-bill pliers resemble a "duck’s bill" in that the jaws The courser of these blades with 14 teeth per inch is best for
are thin, flat, and shaped like a duck’s bill. They are used cutting solid steel bars. 24 teeth per inch is recommended
exclusively for twisting safety wire. for aluminum, and 32 teeth per inch is recommended for thin
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 3] walled pipe or sheet metal.

Punches are used to locate centers for drawing circles, Minute fractures often occur along the cut line when using
starting holes for drilling, punch holes in sheet metal, transfer aviation hand snips. Therefore the cut should be made about
location of holes in patterns, and to remove damaged rivets, 1/32” from the line and then the edge should be finished with
pins or bolts. a hand file to the line.

The flare nut wrench has the appearance of a box- end Vixen (curved tooth files)—Curved tooth files are especially
wrench that has been cut open on one end. This opening designed for rapid filing and smooth finish on soft metals and
allows the wrench to be used on the B-nut of a fuel, wood. The regular cut is adapted for tough work on cast iron,
hydraulic, or oxygen line. soft steel, copper, brass, aluminum, wood, slate, marble,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 6] fiber, rubber, and so forth. The fine cut gives excellent results
on steel, cast iron, phosphor bronze, white brass, and all
hard metals. The smooth cut is used where the amount of
material to be removed is very slight, but where a superior
finish is desired.

QUESTIONS
11-7 AMG020 11-10 AMG020

Which system provides the most accuracy in measuring drill Which tap type is used to cut full threads in a blind hole?
bit diameter? A. A taper tap.
A. The numbering system; sizes 1-80. B. A plug tap.
B. The lettering system; sizes A-Z. C. A bottom tap.
C. The fraction system by 64ths of an inch.
11-8 AMG020 11-11 AMG057

For drilling most materials, a bit with a lip angle of 59 degrees Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other
is most common. However, for soft materials such as cylindrical work?
Plexiglas, use a bit with a lip angle of A. Combination set
A. 20 degrees. B. Dial indicator
B. 45 degrees. C. Micrometer caliper
C. 90 degrees.
11-9 AMG020 11-12 AMG057

A proper procedure to produce a precision hole exactly .125" If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a
in diameter would be to drill hole approximately 1/4" in diameter, the mechanic should
A. once with a precision 4 flute 1/8" or #49 drill bit. use a
B. a hole at .120" and then remove the final .005" with A. telescoping gauge and determine the size of the hole
a reamer. by taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of
C. a hole at .115" and then remove the final .010" with the telescoping gauge.
a reamer. B. 0-1 inch inside micrometer and read the measurement
directly from the micrometer.
C. small hole gauge and determine the size of the hole
by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of
the gauge.

ANSWERS

The number system of classification is the most accurate: The bottoming tap is not tapered. It is used to cut full threads
N80 (0.0314 inch) to Number 1 (0.228 inch). to the bottom of a blind hole.
11-11 Answer A.
The center head of a combination set is used to find the
center of shafts or other cylindrical work.
11-8 Answer C.
For most drilling, a twist drill with a cutting angle of 118°
(59° on either side of center) will be sufficient; however,
when drilling soft metals, a cutting angle of 90° may be
more efficient.
11-12 Answer C.
Small hole gauges were not discussed in the text. They are
a measuring tool with a round expandable head on one end.
The ball is split with the use of a wedge. Place the round
head of the gauge into the hole, turn the handle to expand
the ball until it touches the sides of the hole. Then with the
micrometer measure the size of the ball, being very careful
not to crush the ball in the micrometer. A telescoping gauge
and an inside micrometer could possibly give a measurement
of the diameter but for very small holes they are not accurate.
The small hole gauge would be the most accurate, it will also
tell you if the hole has become out of round due to wear. See
picture below for example of a small hole gauge.
11-9 Answer B. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 21]
Reamers are used to smooth and enlarge holes to exact
size. A hole that is to be reamed to exact size must be drilled
about 0.003 to 0.007 inch under size.

QUESTIONS
11-13 AMG057 11-16 AMG057

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact Identify the correct statement.
dimension? A. An outside micrometer is limited to measuring
A. Machinist scale diameters.
B. Surface gauge B. Tools used on certified aircraft must be an approved
C. Dial indicator type.
C. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a
measuring device.
11-14 AMG057 11-17 AMG057

What precision measuring tool is used for measuring Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a
crankpin and main bearing journals for out of round wear? micrometer?
A. Dial indicator A. .01
B. Micrometer caliper B. .001
C. Depth gauge C. .0001
11-15 AMG057 11-18 AMG057

What may be used to check the stem on a poppet type valve The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer
for stretch? below is
A. Dial indicator A. 0.2851
B. Micrometer B. 0.2911
C. Telescoping gauge C. 0.2901

ANSWERS

A machinist scale is the same thing as a rule. They are for They are used to scribe circles and arcs and for transferring
transferring measurements from the rule to the work. measurements from the rule to the work. Micrometers can
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 21] measure length and width as well as diameters, within its
range. Not all tools have to be approved, many do have to be
calibrated and some specialty tools need to be authorized.

The micrometer caliper is the correct answer. Out- of-round Some micrometers are equipped with a vernier scale
describes the physical condition of a round object that that makes it possible to directly read the fraction of a
has become oblong due to wear. Dial indicators are used division that is indicated on the thimble scale. The vernier
to measure variations in a surface and used to determine graduations divide the inch into 10 equal parts, each equal to
runout (bend) in a shaft. Depth gauges are not used to 0.0001 inch.
measure diameters. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 23]

Stretch is measured in length. Of the three measuring tools First read the barrel (A), remembering each division is .25.
listed, only a micrometer measures length. The thimble has been moved past the third notice giving us
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 21] a reading of .275, then add in the amount reading on the
thimble (B) which is .010 which now gives us .285, then add
in the reading from the venier scale (C) which is .0001, which
now gives us a measurement of 0.2851.

QUESTIONS
11-19 AMG057 11-21 AMG057

What is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper The measurement reading on the micrometer in Figure 11-3 is
scale below? A. .2758
A. 1.411 inches B. .2702
B. 1.436 inches C. .2792
C. 1.700 inches
Figure 11-3. Micrometer.

Figure 11-1. Vernier caliper scale.
11-20 AMG057 11-22 AMG057

What does the micrometer in Figure 11-2 below read? Which tool can be used to measure the alignment or bend of
A. .2974 a rotor shaft or for warp in a rotating component?
B. .3004 A. Dial indicator
C. .3108 B. Shaft gauge
C. Protractor
Figure 11-2. Micrometer.

ANSWERS

The zero on the vernier scale has moved beyond the 1 inch The thimble has moved past the 0.275 mark on the barrel,
mark, it has also moved past the 4, and is past the first 0.025 but has not reached the .005 mark on the thimble. Adding
mark, giving an initial measurement of 1.425 inches. Locate 0.275 and .004 equals 0.279. Locate the mark on the thimble
the mark on the vernier scale that lines up, in this case the that aligns with the vernier scale, which in this case is .0002.
11. Add 0.011 to 1.425 and the final measurement is 1.1436. Adding 0.279 and 0.0002 gives a final measurement of 0.2792.

The thimble has been moved past the 3 on the barrel, but A variation of the micrometer is the dial indicator, which
only slightly. Locate the mark on the vernier scale that lines measures variations in a surface. For example if a bend is
up, in this case the 4, which is equal to 0.0004. When 0.004 suspected, the part can be rotated while resting between a
is added to .3 the final measurement will be 0.3004. pair of machined V-blocks. A dial indicator is then clamped to
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 24] a fixed stand while the shaft is rotated. The amount of bend
or misalignment of the shaft is displayed on the dial or LCD
display as the needle fluctuates within thousandths of an inch.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
11-1(O). What is a dial indicator and what is it used to measure?
11-2(O). The vernier micrometer caliper can be used to measure objects to what increment?
11-3(O). What measuring tool can be used to measure the inside of a hole?
11-4(O). What measuring tool can be used to measure the depth of blind holes?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
11-1(O). A dial indicator is a type of micrometer that measures variations in a surface by using an accurately machined
probe linked to a circular indicator whose movement indicates thousandths of an inch.
11-2(O). The vernier micrometer caliper can measure to one ten-thousandths (0.0001) of an inch.
11-3(O). Inside calipers can be used to measure the diameters of holes.

11-4(O). The slide caliper, when fitted with a depth gauge.


QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
Your ability to select and use the appropriate tools while on the job is tested throughout the various sections of your practical
test. Be sure you are comfortable with using all the tools. If not, practice using them; it is the only way to become proficient.
Check with the examiner to confirm if you will need to supply your own tools for the test and be sure to come prepared.
You are required to be able to perform, read, and record a precision measurement using various tools, including but not
limited to, a dial indicator, micrometer, or a vernier caliper.
11-1(P). Given a vernier caliper, measure the given object to the nearest ten-thousandths of an inch and record
your findings.
11-2(P). Given a dial indicator, measure the run out of a given object and record your findings.
11-3(P). Given a micrometer, measure a given object and record your findings.


FUNDAMENTALS OF ELECTRICITY CHAPTER
12
AND ELECTRONICS
Electricity and Electronics, General Composition of Matter, Magnetism Current,
Instrumentation, Batteries, and Semiconductors
QUESTIONS
12-1 AMG031 12-4 AMG031

2/1,000th of a KV = ____________ Which term means .001 ampere?
A. 20 volts. A. Microampere
B. 2.0 volts. B. Kiloampere
C. .2 volt. C. Milliampere
12-2 AMG020 12-5 AMG031

Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the Which is the correct formula that defines Current?
most readily? A. amperes = charge / time
A. Copper. B. volts = joules / charge
B. Iron. C. power = volts / time
C. Aluminum.
12-3 AMG020 12-6 AMG031

The potential difference between two conductors which are How much current does a 30-volt, 1/2 horsepower motor that
insulated from each other is measured in is 85-percent efficient draw from the bus?
A. volts. (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts)
B. amperes. A. 14.6 amperes
C. coulombs. B. 12.4 amperes
C. 14.1 amperes

FUNDAMENTALS OF ELECTRICITY AND ELECTRONICS
ANSWERS

"KV" is short for kilovolt. One kilovolt is equal to a 1000 volts, "Milli" is the metric prefix representing one thousandth,
therefore two thousandths of a kilovolt is equal to 2.0 volts. therefore a milliampere is one thousandths of an ampere or
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 5] .001 ampere.

Permeability is the measure of the ease with which a The unit of electrical current is Amperes. Thus answer A.
magnetic flux can pass through a material. Of the three I = Q / t is correct were (I) is the symbol for current (amperes),
options, iron has the highest permeability. (Q) represents charge in coulombs, and (t) represents time.

A volt is the basic unit of electrical potential or electromotive We are solving for current (I) and given power (P) and volts
force. Potential difference between two conductors is (E), then we must use the formula I = P/E. Note: One 1/2
measured in volts. horsepower working at 85 percent efficiency is 746 divided
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 16] by 2 and then divided by .85.
I = [(746)/2] / .85] / 30 I = (343 / .85) / 30
I = 438.8 / 30
I = 14.6

QUESTIONS
12-7 AMG031 12-10 AMG031

The voltage drop in a circuit of known resistance is If the cross-sectional area of a given conductor is
dependent on increased to four times its original value, and the length
A. the voltage of the circuit. and temperature remain constant, the resistance of the
B. the resistance of the conductor and does not change conductor will be
with voltage or amperage. A. one-fourth its original value.
C. the amperage of the circuit. B. four times its original value.
C. found by multiplying the original resistance by the
percentage increase in cross-sectional area.
12-8 AMG031 12-11 AMG031

How much power is being furnished to the circuit depicted in Which of the below is the product of electrical resistance?
Figure 12-1 below? A. coulombs
A. 575 watts B. heat
B. 2,875 watts C. ohms
C. 2,645 watts
23A
5Ω
Figure 12-1.
12-9 AMG031 12-12 AMG031

Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a
decrease? system which contains the following loads?
A. Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area. (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts)
B. Decrease the length or increase the cross A. 385 watts
sectional area. B. 402 watts
C. Increase the length or decrease the cross C. 450 watts
sectional area.
UNIT RATING
One Motor (75 percent efficient) 1/5 hp
Three Position Lights 20 watts each
One Heating Element 5 amp
One Anticollision Light 5 amp

ANSWERS

The relationship between voltage, resistance, and current Since resistance varies inversely with the cross- sectional
(measured in amps) is expressed in Ohm’s Law (E = I(R)). If area of a conductor, increasing the cross- sectional area of
resistance is known, then the voltage (E) drop will be affected the conductor will reduce the resistance by one-fourth.
by or dependent upon the current (amperage) of the circuit. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 20]

The circuit contains only resistance, therefore you can use the When current flows through a resistive circuit, energy
power formula P = I × E. However, we first have to determine is dissipated in the form of heat. Ohms are the unit of
the voltage. Using Ohm’s Law (E = I × R) we can determine the resistance with a circuit. Coulombs are the unit of charge
voltage to be 115 volts (23 amps × 5 ohms). Power can now be which is defined by amps × time.
determined as 2,645 watts (115 volts × 23 amps). [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 22]

The resistance of a metallic conductor is directly proportional To determine total power requirements, first calculate
to its length, the longer the length of a given size of wire, the the power needed for each unit. 450 watts is the closest
greater the resistance. The resistance of a metallic conductor correct answer.
is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. If [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 22]
the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled, the
resistance to current flow will be reduced in half.

QUESTIONS
12-13 AMG031 12-16 AMG031

A 12-volt electric motor has 1,000 watts input and 1 Which requires the most electrical power?
horsepower output. Maintaining the same efficiency, how (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts)
much input power does a 24-volt 1- horsepower electric A. Four 30-watt lamps arranged in a 12-volt parallel circuit.
motor require? B. A 1/5-horsepower, 24-volt motor which is 75
A. 1,000 watts percent efficient.
B. 2,000 watts C. A 24-volt anti-collision light circuit consisting of two
C. 3,000 watts light assemblies, which require 3 amperes each
during operation.
12-14 AMG031 12-17 AMG031

A 1-horsepower, 24-volt DC electric motor that is 80 percent Which symbol in Figure 12-2 below represents a
efficient requires 932.5 watts. How much power will a variable resistor?
1-horsepower, 12-volt DC electric motor that is 75 percent A. 2
efficient require? B. 3
A. 832.5 watts C. 4
B. 900.5 watts
C. 994.6 watts
5
6
2 1
4 7
3
12-15 AMG031
Which requires the most electrical power during operation?
(Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts) 8
A. A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes.

B. Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel circuit.
9
C. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24-volt
10
parallel system.
+
G 11
−
Figure 12-2. Electrical Symbols.

ANSWERS

Maintaining the same efficiency, a 1 horsepower motor will Calculate the power requirements of each answer to
require the same 1,000 watts of input, no matter the voltage. determine the correct answer.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 22] 4 × 30 watts = 120 watts
(746 × 1/5) / .75 = 199 watts
2 × (24 volts × 3 amps) = 144 watts

Due to friction and heat loss, motors are not 100% efficient. Symbol 3 is a variable resistor. Symbol 2 identifies a relay.
Therefore, it will take more than 746 watts to maintain a 1 Symbol 4 identifies a circuit breaker.
horsepower output. Calculate the watts needed by dividing [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 27-28]
746 by 75%, which equals 994.6 watts. The voltage in this
example is irrelevant.
12-15 Answer C.
Calculate the power requirements of each answer to
determine the correct answer.
12 volt motor × 8 amps = 96 watts
4 lamps × 30 watts = 120 watts
2 × (3 amps x24 volts) = 144 watts

QUESTIONS
12-18 AMG031 12-20 AMG031

Which of the components is a potentiometer in the Referring to Figure 12-3 below, what is the measured voltage
Figure 12-2 below? of the series-parallel circuit between terminal A and B?
A. 2 A. 1.5 volts
B. 3 B. 3.0 volts
C. 4 C. 4.5 volts
1.5V 1.5V
5
6
2 1
1.5V 1.5V
4 7
3 − +
A B
8 Figure 12-3. Battery circuit.
10
+
G 11
−
Figure 12-2. Electrical Symbols.
12-19 AMG031 12-21 AMG031

If a thermal protector switch activates to prevent overheating What is the operating resistance of a 30-watt light bulb
damage to an electric motor, once the motor has cooled; designed for a 28-volt system?
______________________. A. 1.07 ohms
A. The motor will reset by itself. B. 26 ohms
B. The circuit can be reset from the flight deck. C. 0.93 ohm
C. The circuit protector is replaced by a
maintenance crew.

ANSWERS

The component symbol labeled #3 represents a potentiometer. A voltage source is an energy source that provides a
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 28] constant voltage to a load. Two or more of these sources
in series will equal the algebraic sum of all the sources
connected in series. Only two of the batteries are in series.
Therefore, 1.5 V + 1.5 V = 3.0 V.

A thermal protector switch contains a bimetallic strip that We can use a variation of Ohm’s Law to calculate resistance:
bends when it is heated, and so opening the circuit. Once Resistance(R) = Voltage (E) / Current (I). Unfortunately, we do
the temperature reduces, the metal strip bends back and so not know the current. However, using the power formula we
again closes the circuit for continued operation. can calculate current and then solve for resistance.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 30] Using the formula I = P / E, we get I = 30 watts / 28 volts =
1.07 amps. Now solve for resistance: R = 28 volts / 1.07=
26.17 ohms. The closest correct answer is B.

QUESTIONS
12-22 AMG031 12-25 AMG031

A 14-ohm resistor is to be installed in a series circuit Which statement is correct when made in reference to a
carrying .05 ampere. How much power will the resistor be parallel circuit?
required to dissipate? A. The current is equal in all portions of the circuit.
A. At least .70 milliwatt. B. The total current is equal to the sum of the currents
B. At least 35 milliwatts. through the individual branches of the circuit.
C. Less than .035 watt. C. The current in amperes can be found by dividing the
EMF in volts by the sum of the resistors in ohms.
12-23 AMG031 12-26 AMG031

Referring to Figure 12-4 below, find the voltage across the How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to
8-ohm resistor. supply to a circuit containing five lamps in parallel, three of
A. 8 volts which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which
B. 20.4 volts have a resistance of 5 ohms each?
C. 24 volts A. 1.11 amperes
B. 15.30 amperes
C. 25.23 amperes
E
D
B
C
R 2 = 10 ohms
R 3 = 40 ohms
R 1 = 8 ohms
24V
A F G H
Figure 12-4. Circuit diagram.
12-24 AMG031 12-27 AMG031

In a parallel circuit with four 6-ohms resistors across a 24-volt A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel
battery, what is the total voltage across resistor-three (VR3) in circuit consisting of four resistors of equal value. What is the
the circuit? voltage drop across each resistor?
A. 6 volts A. 3 volts
B. 18 volts B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts C. 24 volts

ANSWERS

To determine power, we need to know the current and The total current of the circuit will be the sum of the current
voltage. Using Ohm’s Law, first solve for voltage (E = I × R) in all branches.
or E = .05 amps × 14 ohms = 0.7 volts. Now we can solve [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 41]
for power: P = IE or .05 amps × .7 volts = .035 watts or
35 milliwatts.

No calculations are needed here. Remember, in a parallel In this problem, determine the total resistance in a parallel
circuit the voltage remains the same across each resistor. circuit using the formula:
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 40] 1/[(1/R1)+(1/R2)+(1/R3) +(1/R4) +(1/R5)] =
1/[1/6+1/6+1/6+1/5+1/5] = 1/[.167+.167+.167+.2+.2]=1/.901 =
1.11 ohms total resistance.
Now use Ohm’s Law to determine the current required,
I = E/R = 28 volts/1.11 = 25.23 amps.

In parallel circuits the voltage across any branch is equal to No calculations are needed to answer this questions.
the voltage across all of the other branches. Kirchhoff’s voltage law states that the algebraic sum of the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 40] applied voltage and the voltage drop around any closed
circuit is zero. In simpler terms, the sum of all the voltage
drops in a circuit must equal the sum of the voltage source(s)
in the circuit.

QUESTIONS
12-28 AMG031 12-30 AMG031

A cabin entry light of 10 watts and a dome light of 20 watts Referring to Figure 12-6 below, if resistor R3 is disconnected
are connected in parallel to a 30-volt source. If the voltage at the break point between it and terminal D, What will the
across the 10-watt light is measured, it will be ohmmeter read?
A. equal to the voltage across the 20-watt light. A. Infinite resistance
B. half the voltage across the 20-watt light. B. 10 ohms
C. one-third of the input voltage. C. 20 ohms
R1 R2 R3
40Ω 40Ω 40Ω Ω

Break
A B C D
12-29 AMG031 12-31 AMG031

Referring to Figure 12-5 below, if resistor R5 is disconnected With an ohmmeter connected into the circuit in Figure 12-7
at the junction of R4 and R3 as shown, what will the below, what will the ohmmeter read?
ohmmeter read? A. 20 ohms
A. 2.76 ohms B. Infinite resistance
B. 3 ohms C. 10 ohms
C. 12 ohms
R4 = 6 ohms
Disconnected
R1 R2 R3
R1 = 12 ohms
R2 = 6 ohms
R3 = 6 ohms
R5 = 6 ohms
Ω 20Ω 20Ω 20Ω Ω

Break
Figure 12-5. Circuit diagram. Figure 12-7. Circuit diagram.

ANSWERS

In a parallel circuit, the voltage is constant across each path, When R3 is disconnected at Terminal D, the current flow
while the current varies. The voltage across the 10 watt light is stopped and results in the ohmmeter registering an
will be equal to the voltage across the 20 watt light. infinite resistance.

When R5 is disconnected, the ohmmeter will register the The ohmmeter is only reading R1 and R2. To calculate the
resistance of the remaining resistors. Resisters 3 and 4 are in total resistance in a parallel circuit use the following formula:
series and therefore their resistance is added together for a 1/[(1/R1) + (1/R2)] = 1/[(1/20) + (1/20)] = 1/(.05 +.05) = 1/.1 = 10 ohms
total resistance of 12 ohms. Resistors 1 and 2 are in parallel [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 41]
with resistors 3 and 4. To calculate the total resistance in a
parallel circuit use the following formula:
1/[(1/R1) + (1/R2) + (1/R3 & 4)] = 1/[(1/12) + (1/6) + (1/12)] =
1/(.08 + .17 + .08) = 1/.33 = 3.03 ohms.
The closest correct answer is B.

QUESTIONS
12-32 AMG031 12-35 AMG031

Find the total resistance of the circuit in Figure 12-8 below. A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts and a load
A. 22.0 ohms consisting of a 10 ohm resistor in series with a 20 ohm
B. 18.5 ohms resistor. What is the voltage drop across the 10 ohm resistor?
C. 21.2 ohms A. 10 volts
B. 20 volts
C. 30 volts
1
R a = 1/R + 1/R
4 5 R 1 =18 ohms R 2 =12 ohms
Rb = R a + R 2
R 4 = 12 ohms
R 3 = 4 ohms
R 5 = 6 ohms
Rc = 1 24V
1/Rb + 1/R3
Rt = R c + R 1
12-36 AMG031
Referring to Figure 12-9 below, determine the total current
flow in the circuit.
12-33 AMG031 A. 0.2 ampere
A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel B. 0.8 ampere
circuit consisting of three resistors of equal value. What is C. 1.4 amperes
the value of each resistor?
A. 36 ohms
B. 4 ohms I1 I2 I3
C. 12 ohms
−
Et 30Ω 60Ω 15Ω
12V
+
It R1 R2 R3
12-34 AMG031 12-37 AMG031

Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit? Which is correct in reference to electrical resistance?
A. Total resistance will be smaller than the A. Two electrical devices will have the same combined
smallest resistor. resistance either connected in series or connected
B. Total resistance will decrease when one of the in parallel.
resistances is removed. B. If one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is
C. Total voltage drop is the same as the total resistance. removed, the total resistance of the circuit will increase.
C. A device that has a high resistance will use more
power than one with a low resistance with the same
applied voltage.

ANSWERS

The formulas in the figure provide you with the means to For series circuits, current is the same throughout the
solve this complex circuit problem. NOTE: When solving for circuit, but voltage drop varies with each resistor. First,
total resistance of series- parallel circuits, begin calculations determine the total resistance, which is sum of the two
at the farthest point from the power source, working back resisters (10+20=30 ohms). Next, determine the current by
towards the power source. using Ohm’s Law formula I=E/R = 30 volts/30 ohms = 1 amp.
Finally to determine the voltage drop use the formula E1=IR1
First solve for the parallel branches: = (1 amp)(10 ohms) = 10 volts.
Ra = 1/(1/R4 + 1/R5) = 1/(1/12 + 1/6) = 1/.083 + .167 = 1/.25 = 4 [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 41, 43]
Then determine the resistance in the series R2 and R4,5:

Rb = Ra + R2 = 4 + 12 = 16
Solve for the next parallel branches:

Rc = 1/(1/Rb + 1/R3) = 1/(1/16 + 1/4) = 1/.0625 + .25 = 1/.3125 = 3.2
Finally solve the last remaining series to determine the total

resistance in this circuit:
Rt = Rc + R1 = 3.2 + 18 = 21.2 ohms

To solve this problem you need to use the following formulas: Total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the sum of the
I = P / E to determine the current in the system. current flowing through each branch in the circuit. Determine
I = 192 / 48 = 4 amps. the current in each branch using the formula:
R = E / I to determine total resistance in the circuit. I = E/R (I1 = 12V/30 ohms = .4 amps.
R = 48/4 = 12 ohms. I2 = 12V/60 ohms = .2 amps, and I3 = 12V/15 ohms = .8
The total resistance in the circuit is 12 ohms. Remember, in a amps). Add the currents from each branch for a total of 1.4
parallel circuit the total resistance is less than any individual amps (.4 + .2 + .8).
branch. To determine the resistance of each resistor use the [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 43]
following formula: r = Rt × n, where ‘r’ is the resistance of a
resistor and ‘n’ is the number of resistor in the circuit.
R = 12 × 3 = 36 ohms
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 22, 37, 41]

Total resistance in a parallel circuit is smaller than the Total resistance in a parallel circuit is smaller than the
smallest resistor. This can be derived from the general smallest resistor; therefore, if you remove a resistor in a
formula for total resistance in a parallel circuit: parallel circuit the total resistance will become larger.
Rt = 1/[(1/R1) + (1/R2) + (1/R3)] [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 43]

QUESTIONS
12-38 AMG031 12-41 AMG031

If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms, and 22 ohms are The working voltage of a capacitor in an AC circuit should be
connected in series in a 28-volt circuit, how much current will A. equal to the highest applied voltage.
flow through the 3-ohm resistor? B. at least 20 percent greater than the highest
A. 9.3 amperes applied voltage.
B. 1.05 amperes C. at least 50 percent greater than the highest
C. 0.93 amperes applied voltage.
12-39 AMG031 12-42 AMG031

The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly
current is called (disregard resistance) proportional to the
A. impedance. A. distance between the plates and inversely proportional
B. reluctance. to the plate area.
C. inductive reactance. B. plate area and is not affected by the distance between
the plates.
C. plate area and inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates.
12-40 AMG031 12-43 AMG031

Capacitors are sometimes used in DC circuits to When different rated capacitors are connected in parallel in a
A. counteract inductive reactance at specific locations. circuit, the total capacitance is
B. smooth out slight pulsations in current/voltage. (Note: CT = C1 + C2 + C3 …)
C. assist in stepping voltage and current up and/or down. A. less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor.
B. equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor.
C. equal to the sum of all the capacitances.

ANSWERS

Using Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law, voltage varies across each The capacitor should be selected so that its working
resister while the current remains the same in a series circuit. voltage is at least 50 percent greater than the highest
First determine the total resistance in this circuit (Rt = 3 voltage to be applied.
ohms + 5 ohms + 22 ohms = 30 ohms), Then use the formula [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 52]
I = E/R to determine the current flowing across each resistor.
I = 28V/30 ohms = 0.93 amperes

Inductive reactance is the opposition to the flow of current. The capacitance of parallel plates is directly proportional to
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 44] their area and inversely proportional to their spacing.

The function of capacitors is to smooth out DC pulsations. We can derive from the formula that capacitors in a parallel
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 76] circuit are equal to the sum of all the capacitances.

QUESTIONS
12-44 AMG031 12-47 AMG031

What is the total capacitance of a circuit containing three Referring to the equation, when more than two inductors of
capacitors with capacitances of .25 microfarad, .03 different inductances are connected in parallel in a circuit,
microfarad, and .12 microfarad, respectively? the total inductance is
(Note: CT = C1 + C2 + C3 …)
1
A. .4 μF LT = --------------------------------
1/L1 + 1/L 2 + 1/L3…
B. .04 pF
C. .04 μF A. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor.
B. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor.
C. equal to the sum of the individual inductances.
12-45 AMG031 12-48 AMG031

Transfer of electrical energy from one circuit to another An increase in which of the following factors will cause an
without the aid of electrical connections increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit
A. is called induction. A. inductance and frequency.
B. is called capacitance. B. resistance and voltage.
C. is practical for use only with low voltages/amperages. C. resistance and capacitive reactance.
12-46 AMG031 12-49 AMG031

When inductors are connected in series in a circuit, the total The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an
inductance is (where the magnetic fields of each inductor do AC circuit is
not affect the others) A. resistance.
(Note: LT = L1 + L2 + L3 …) B. reactance.
A. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor. C. impedance.
B. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor.
C. equal to the sum of the individual inductances.

ANSWERS

Use the formula to solve the problem. We can derive this answer from the equation provided.
CT = .25 μF + .03 μF + .12 μF = .4 μF In a parallel circuit, total inductance (LT) is less than the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 55] inductance of the lowest rated inductor.

Induction or induced current is produced when a conductor The inductive reactance of a component is directly
is cut or crossed by the changing lines of a magnetic flux. proportional to the inductance of the component and the
This transfer of energy is produced without the aid of applied frequency to the circuit.
electrical connections. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 60]

We can derive this answer from the equation provided. In a Impedance is defined as the combined effects of resistance,
series circuit total inductance (LT) is equal to the sum of the inductive reactance, and capacitive reactance. Together,
individual inductances. these effects make up the total opposition to current flow in
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 59] an AC circuit.

QUESTIONS
12-50 AMG031 12-53 AMG031

What is the impedance of an AC series circuit consisting What happens to the current in a voltage step-up transformer
of an inductor with a reactance of 10 ohms, a capacitor with a ratio of 1 to 4?
with a reactance of 4 ohms, and a resistor with a A. The current is stepped down by a 1 to 4 ratio.
resistance of 8 ohms? B. The current is stepped up by a 1 to 4 ratio.
C. The current does not change.
Z = R2 + (XL - Xc)2
Z = Impedance
R = Resistance
X L = Inductive Reactance
XC = Capacitive Reactance
A. 2.5 ohms
B. 5.29 ohms
C. 10 ohms
12-51 AMG031 12-54 AMG031

The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating Referring to Figure 12-10 below, how many instruments
current is mutual (voltmeters and ammeters) are installed correctly?
A. inductance. A. All are installed correctly.
B. capacitance. B. 1
C. reactance. C. 2
− + −
A V V
+ − +
+ −
A
12-52 AMG031 12-55 AMG031

When calculating power in a reactive or inductive AC circuit, Troubleshooting an open circuit with a voltmeter as shown in
the true power is the circuit in Figure 12-11 below will
A. more than the apparent power. A. permit current to illuminate the lamp.
B. less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and B. create a low resistance path and the current flow will be
more than the apparent power in an inductive circuit. greater than normal.
C. less than the apparent power. C. permit the battery voltage to appear on the voltmeter.
Open V

ANSWERS

To find the impedance (Z), when a circuit contains resistance, If a transformer steps up the voltage, it will step down the
inductance, and capacitance, use the following equation: current by the same ratio. This should be evident if the
power formula is considered. The power (I × E) of the output
Z = R2 + (XL - Xc)2 (secondary) electrical energy is the same as the input
Z = √[82 + (10 – 4)2 = √[64 + (6)2 = √[64 + 36] = √[100] = 10 ohms (primary) power minus the energy loss in the transforming
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 63] process. In this example the current is stepped down by a 1
to 4 ratio.
12-54 Answer C.
12-51 Answer A. Refer to Figure 12-10 below. Always connect an ammeter in
Basic transformers consist of two coils that are not series with the element through which the current flow is to
electrically connected, but are arranged so that the magnetic be measured. Item 1 is incorrect as it is parallel to the circuit,
field surrounding one coil cuts through the other coil. When therefore Item 2 is correctly installed. When voltmeters are
an alternating voltage is applied to (across) one coil, the used, they are connected in parallel with a circuit. Observe
varying magnetic field set up around that coil creates an that the polarity is correct before connecting the meter to
alternating voltage in the other coil by mutual induction. the circuit or damage will occur by driving the movement
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 66] backwards. Item 3 is incorrect because the polarity is
reversed, therefore Item 4 is correctly installed.
1 3 4
− + −
A V V
+ − +
2
+ −
A
Answer for Figure 12-10. Circuit diagram.
12-55 Answer C.
12-52 Answer C. When voltmeters are used, they are connected in parallel with
When there is capacitance or inductance in the circuit, the a circuit. When a voltmeter is connected across two points
current and voltage are not exactly in phase and the true in a circuit, current will be shunted, allowing the current to
power is less than the apparent power. complete its circuit, however the use of a high resistance
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 66] voltmeter will reduce the amount of current allowed to flow
through the voltmeter to reduce the effects of shunting, but
still allow the reading of the voltage in the circuit.
Open V

QUESTIONS
12-56 AMG031 12-58 AMG031

What is the correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a Referring to Figure 12-12 below, the No.7 wire is used to
circuit is? A. Complete the PUSH-TO-TEST circuit.
A. In series with a unit. B. open the UP indicator light circuit when the landing
B. Between source voltage and the load. gear is retracted.
C. In parallel with a unit. C. close the UP indicator light circuit when the landing
gear is retracted.
12-57 AMG031 12-59 AMG031

Referring to Figure 12-12 below, with the landing gear Referring to Figure 12-12 below, when the landing gear is
retracted, the red indicator light will not come on if an open down, the green light will not come on if an open condition
occurs in wire occurs in which wire?
A. number 7. A. Number 6
B. number 17. B. Number 7
C. number 19. C. Number 17
Gear Switch
Up #13
#1
Down Motor Relay
#14
Gear safety switch
#15
#2
Up limit Down limit

#11
switch switch
#12 Horn
#16 NAV. switch bypass relay

20
#19 #10
Throttle switches (closed position)
BUS
#8
#7
5 #18 Red Green
#17
#3
Nose gear
#6 down switch
#5 #4
Left gear Right gear NOTE: Switches shown
down switch down switch gear down - on the ground
Figure 12-12. Landing gear circuit.

ANSWERS

When voltmeters are used, they are connected in parallel Wire #7 supplies power to both the red and green indicator
with a circuit. Observe the polarity is correct before lights push-to-test circuits. When the push-to-test button is
connecting the meter to the circuit. pressed, the circuit is closed to ground. Push-to-test buttons
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 72] verify the bulb is working.

If an open condition should occur in wire #19 the red If there is an open condition in wire #6, the green light will
indicator light will not turn on. Wire #19 supplies power to not come on when the landing gear is down. However, if
red indicator light via the up limit switch and wire #8. Wire there was an open condition in wire #5, #4, or #3 the light
#7 supplies power to wire #18 for the red indicator light would not come on either. In the real world, additional
push-to-test circuit, and wire #17 for the green indicator light troubleshooting would need to be completed to locate the
push-to-test circuit. wire with the open condition along this circuit.

QUESTIONS
12-60 AMG031 12-63 AMG031

The purpose of providing a space underneath the plates in a What determines the amount of current which will flow
lead acid battery’s cell container is to through a battery while it is being charged by a constant
A. ensure the electrolyte quantity ratio to the number of voltage source?
plates and plate area is adequate. A. The total plate area of the battery.
B. prevent sediment buildup from contacting the plates B. The state-of-charge of the battery.
and causing a short circuit. C. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery.
C. allow for convection flow of the electrolyte to provide
cooling of the plates.
12-61 AMG031 12-64 AMG031

If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery A lead acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no load
compartment, which procedure should be followed? voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of
A. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in
by a water rinse. this instance is
B. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water. A. 0.52 ohm.
C. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area B. 2.52 ohms.
followed by a water rinse. C. 5.0 ohms.
12-62 AMG031 12-65 AMG031

Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead- Which of the following statement(s) is/are generally true
acid storage battery electrolyte is true? regarding the charging of several aircraft batteries together?
A. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature 1. Batteries of different voltages (but similar capacities)
correction if the electrolyte temperature is 80 °F. can be connected in series with each other across the
B. A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from charger, and charged using the constant current method.
the hydro meter reading if the electrolyte temperature is 2. Batteries of different ampere-hour capacity and same
above 20 °F. voltage can be connected in parallel with each other
C. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication across the charger, and charged using the constant
of the capacity of the battery regardless of the voltage method.
electrolyte temperature. 3. Batteries of the same voltage and same ampere-hour
capacity must be connected in series with each other
across the charger, and charged using the constant
current method.
A. 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2

ANSWERS

This space permits the electrolyte to circulate freely around The state of charge of a storage battery depends upon
the plates and provides a path for sediment, causing shorting the condition of its active materials, primarily the plates. In
out of the plates, to settle to the bottom of the cell. the constant voltage method, a motor generator set with a
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 90] constant, regulated voltage forces the current through the
battery. In this method, the current at the start of the process
is high but automatically tapers off.

If a spill occurs, wash out the compartment, neutralize To determine the internal resistance, subtract the closed
with a sodium bicarbonate solution, rinse with water, and circuit voltage from the no load voltage and then divide by
dry thoroughly. the closed circuit current.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 93] No load voltage: 12 cells × 2.1 volts = 25.2 volts
Closed circuit voltage: 1- amps × 2 ohms = 20 volts
Closed circuit current: 10 amps (25.2 volts – 20 volts) ÷ 10
amps = .52. ohms

The specific gravity reading on a hydrometer will vary from In the constant current charging method, the current remains
the actual specific gravity as the temperature changes. No almost constant during the entire charging process. Multiple
correction is necessary when the temperature is between batteries may be charged at one time but must be placed in
70 °F and 90 °F, since the variation is not great enough to series so the current remains the same across all the batteries.
consider. When temperatures are greater than 90 °F or less This method requires a longer time to charge a battery fully
than 70 °F, it is necessary to apply a correction factor. and toward the end of the process, presents the danger of
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 93] overcharging if care is not exercised. In the constant voltage
method, a motor generator set with a constant, regulated
voltage forces the current through the battery. The constant
voltage method requires less time and supervision than does
the constant current method. Multiple batteries can also be
charged at the same time using the constant voltage charging
method. The batteries must be placed in parallel with each
other to maintain the same voltage within this recharging circuit.

QUESTIONS
12-66 AMG031 12-69 AMG031

When a charging current is applied to a nickel- cadmium The end-of-charge voltage of a 19-cell nickel-cadmium
battery, the cells emit gas? battery, measured while still on charge
A. Toward the end of the charging cycle. A. must be 1.2 to 1.3 volts per cell under normal
B. Throughout the charging cycle. operating temperature.
C. If the electrolyte level is too high. B. must be 1.4 volts per cell averaged across the number
of cells.
C. depends upon its temperature and the method used
for charging.
12-67 AMG031 12-70 AMG031

In a lithium ion battery, what is the negative electrode Nickel-cadmium batteries, which are stored for a long period
generally made from? of time, will show a low liquid level because
A. Lithium A. of the decrease in the specific gravity of the electrolyte.
B. A Metal Oxide B. electrolyte evaporates through the vents.
C. Carbon C. electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates.
12-68 AMG031 12-71 AMG031

The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is highest when How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be
the battery is determined?
A. in a fully charged condition. A. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte.
B. in a discharged condition. B. By a measured discharge.
C. under a no-load condition. C. By the level of the electrolyte.

ANSWERS

The cells of nickel-cadmium batteries emit gas towards the For nickel-cadmium batteries, the end-of-charge voltage
end of the charging cycle. This can also occur if the cells are is determined while the cell is on the charger and depends
overcharged. upon its temperature and the method used for charging.

Generally the negative electrode of a lithium ion battery is When stored for a long period of time, the water level in the
made of carbon. The positive electrode is a metal oxide, and battery evaporates and the electrolyte is absorbed into the
the electrolyte is lithium salt within a solvent. plates, dropping the electrolyte level in the cells.

On recharge, the level of the electrolyte rises and, at full This question is not specifically addressed in the text. Unlike
charge the electrolyte will be at its highest level. lead-acid batteries, nickel-cadmium batteries cannot use a
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 95] hydrometer to test for the state-of-charge. The only way to
determine the state-of-charge for nickel-cadmium batteries
is to fully discharge the battery, then recharge and measure
the amount of charge put back in the battery.

QUESTIONS
12-72 AMG031 12-75 AMG031

Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces, which A typical application for zener diodes is as
have been affected by electrolyte, should be neutralized with A. full-wave rectifiers.
a solution of B. half-wave rectifiers.
A. boric acid solution. C. voltage regulators.
B. sodium bicarbonate.
C. potassium hydroxide.
12-73 AMG031 12-76 AMG031

Which of the following are commonly used as rectifiers in Referring to Figure 12-13 below, if an open condition occurs
electrical circuits? at R1, the light
1. Anodes 1. cannot be turned on.
2. Resistors 2. will not be affected.
3. Diodes 3. cannot be turned off.
A. 3, 1
B. 3, 2
C. 3
Emitter Collector
Base Up
position 12V
R2
Down
position R1
12-74 AMG031
Diodes are used in electrical power circuits primarily as Figure 12-13. Transistorized circuit.
A. cutout switches.
B. rectifiers.
C. relays.

ANSWERS

Boric acid solution. When replacing a lead-acid battery with Within the normal operating range, the zener will function
a nickel-cadmium battery, the battery compartment must be as a voltage regulator, waveform clipper, and other
clean, dry, and free of all traces of acid from the old battery. related functions.
The compartment must be washed out and neutralized with [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 106]
boric acid solution, allowed to dry thoroughly, and then
painted with an alkali resisting varnish.

Diodes are commonly used as rectifiers within electrical The schematic is a dimming circuit. The lamp is not meant
circuits. Diodes can be described as electron check valves. to be completely turned off, the options range from full
They allow electrons to flow in only one direction. A rectifier bright to full dim. If an open condition should occur at R1
is a device for converting alternating current to direct current, the light will not be able to be dimmed as the voltage drop
the diode only allows the flow of one of the alternation of the will be reduced across R2 and increase the brightness at all
AC through the circuit. settings. The closest correct answer is C.
12-74 Answer B.
Diodes are commonly used as rectifiers within electrical
circuits. Diodes can be described as electron check valves.
They allow electrons to flow in only one direction. A rectifier
is a device for converting alternating current to direct current,
the diode only allows the flow of one alternation of the AC
through the circuit.

QUESTIONS
12-77 AMG031 12-79 AMG031

Referring to Figure 12-13 below, if R2 sticks in the up position, In a functional and operating circuit, the logic gate depicted
the light will in Figure 12-14 below will be 0
1. be on full bright. A. only when all inputs are 0.
2. be very dim. B. when all inputs are 1.
3. not illuminate. C. when one or more inputs are 0.
Emitter Collector
Base Up
position 12V
R2
Down
position R1
Figure 12-13. Transistorized circuit.
12-78 AMG031 12-80 AMG031

Which statement concerning the logic gate depicted in Which of the following logic gates illustrated in Figure 12‑14
Figure 12-13 above is true? below will provide an active high output only when all inputs
A. Any input being 1 will produce a 0 output. are different?
B. Any input being 1 will produce a 1 output. A. XNOR
C. All inputs must be 1 to produce a 1 output. B. NOR
C. XOR
INPUTS OUTPUT INPUTS OUTPUT

Figure 12-14. Logic gate.

ANSWERS

The schematic is a dimming circuit. The up position is full This symbol represents a logic AND gate. It is telling us that
bright. Therefore, if R2 sticks in the up position, the light will when one or more inputs are 0 the output will be 0. In this
be full bright and not be able to dim. logic AND gate all three inputs must have a value of 1 for the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 110] output to be 1.

This symbol represents a logic OR gate. It is telling us that Only the XOR or exclusive OR gate will provide a high (1)
any input point with a value of 1 will result in an output of 1. output only when the inputs are different.
The symbol for this is and the truth table shows the
inputs and outputs.
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
12-1(O). Define capacitance.
12-2(O). Name the two groups a capacitor can be classified.
12-3(O). What is the basic unit of capacitance?
12-4(O). Define inductance?
12-5(O). What is the basic unit of inductance?
12-6(O). Explain the relationship between mechanical and electrical power.
12-7(O). In an AC circuit, does the capacitor cause the current to lead or lag the voltage? 10-8(O). In an AC circuit, does
the inductor cause the current to lead or lag the voltage? 10-9(O). How is induction produced?
12-10(O). Name the basic unit of measurement for power.
12-11(O). State the formula for power.
12-12(O). State the three ways components can be arranged in a DC circuit?
12-13(O). State Ohm’s Law in algebraic form and give the unit of measurement for each element.
12-14(O). Name the five sources of electrical energy.
12-15(O). Explain Kirchoff’s voltage law.
2-16(O). When measuring voltage, should the voltmeter be placed in series or parallel with the power source?
12-17(O). When measuring current, should an ammeter be placed in series or parallel with power source?
12-18(O). State the ingredients that makes up the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery.
12-19(O). What instrument is used for measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?
12-20(O). If the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery is spilled, what should be used to neutralize the acid?
12-21(O). If the electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is spilled, what should be used to neutralize the acid?
12-22(O). What temperature range of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery does not require a correction when measuring
the specific gravity?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
12-1(O). Capacitance is the property of an electric conductor that characterizes its ability to store an electric charge.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 52, Glossary G-2]
12-2(O). Fixed and variable.

12-3(O). The farad.

12-4(O). The ability of a coil or conductor to oppose a change in current flow.

12-5(O). The henry.

12-6(O). Mechanical power is measured in units of horsepower and electrical power is measured in watts. One
horsepower is equivalent to 746 watts.
12-7(O). The current leads the applied voltage.

12-8(O). The current lags behind the applied voltage.

12-9(O). Induction or induced current is produced when a conductor is cut or crossed by the changing lines of a
magnetic flux. This transfer of energy is produced without the aid of electrical connections.
12-10(O). The watt.

12-11(O). Power = Voltage times current (P=EI).

12-12(O). In series, in parallel, and in series-parallel.

[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 34, 40, 42]
12-13(O). E = I × R, where E is voltage and measured in volts, I is current and measured in amps, and R is resistance
and measured in ohms.
12-14(O). Pressure, chemical, thermal, light, and magnetism.

12-15(O). The sum of all the voltage drops in a circuit must equal the sum of the voltage source(s) in the circuit.
12-16(O). When voltmeters are used, they are connected in parallel with a circuit.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
12-17(O). An ammeter should be placed in series with the element through which the current flow is to be measured.
12-18(O). The electrolyte is a potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution in distilled water.

12-19(O). A hydrometer.
12-20(O). Wash the area thoroughly with water and then apply bicarbonate of soda.
12-21(O). In case of spillage on hands or clothes, neutralize the alkali immediately with vinegar or dilute boric acid
solution (one pound per gallon of water); then rinse with clear water.
12-22(O). The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature
is 70 °F - 80 °F.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
12-1(P). Given an aircraft or mockup of a component with electrical power and the appropriate measuring equipment,
measure the voltage in a specified circuit and record your findings.
measure the current in a specified circuit and record your findings.
measure the resistance in a specified circuit and record your findings.
12-4(P). Given an aircraft or mockup of a component and the appropriate measuring equipment, determine the
continuity of a specified circuit and record your findings.
12-5(P). Given a listing of measurements, or those measurements gathered from readings you have taken and the
appropriate publications, determine if the readings are within the acceptable range and record your findings.
12-6(P). Given an electrical circuit diagram, answer written or oral questions about the diagram.
12-7(P). Given a faulty electrical circuit on a aircraft or mockup, the required tools, and appropriate publications,
troubleshoot the circuit and record your findings.
12-8(P). Given the minimum required information, calculate voltage using Ohm’s Law.
12-9(P). Given the minimum required information, calculate current using Ohm’s Law.
12-10(P). Given the minimum required information, calculate resistance using Ohm’s Law.
12-11(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, inspect the battery and its associated electrical system and record your findings.
12-12(P). Given an aircraft battery and a hydrometer determine the battery’s state-of-charge and record your findings.
12-13(P). Given an aircraft battery and the appropriate equipment, complete an electrical leak (cell imbalance) test and
record your findings.
12-14(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, the appropriate tools, and applicable publications, remove the battery.
12-15(P). Given an aircraft or mockup, the appropriate tools, and applicable publications, install a battery.
12-16(P). Given the appropriate equipment, set-up and connect a charger to one or more batteries for constant
current charging.
12-17(P). Given the appropriate equipment, set-up and connect a charger to one or more batteries for constant
voltage charging.

MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS CHAPTER
General Mechanic Certification, Specific Mechanic Certification, Inspection Authorization,
and Ethics
13
QUESTIONS
As an AMT you are expected to be able to read, understand, and apply Federal Regulations to your everyday work. It is
recommended that you read the actual regulations and confirm you understand how the answer to each question is interpreted
from the regulation itself. These are not the only regulations you will be required to know and understand during your career, so
it is highly recommended you understand how to read and interpret regulations. If you are having difficulties, ask for assistance
from your instructor(s).
13-1 AMG082 13-4 AMG082

A mechanic applicant is issued a temporary certificate Under Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, what is
after successful completion of the required tests to allow the maximum penalty for falsification, alteration, or fraudulent
for what? reproduction of certificates, logbooks, reports, and records?
A. Review of his/her application and supplementary A. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one
documents. year.
B. Background check/investigation that may be B. Imprisonment for up to one year and up to a maximum
completed. $5,000 fine.
C. Both A and b. C. Suspension or revocation of any certificate held.
13-2 AMG082 13-5 AMG082

What part of the FARs prescribes the requirements for What is the normal duration of a mechanic certificate with
issuing mechanic certificates and associated ratings and the airframe and/or powerplant ratings?
general operating rules for the holders of these certificates A. Valid until the holder is relieved of duties for which the
and ratings? holder was employed and certificated.
A. 14 CFR Part 43 B. Valid until surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
B. 14 CFR Part 56 C. Valid until 24 months after the holder has last exercised
C. 14 CFR Part 65 the privileges of the certificate.
13-3 AMG082 13-6 AMG082

What is the maximum duration of a temporary airman What is the maximum penalty for cheating or other
certificate? unauthorized conduct when taking an FAA mechanic test?
A. 60 days A. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year.
B. 90 days B. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year,
C. 120 days and suspension or revocation of any certificate held.
C. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one
year, and suspension of any certificate held for 5 years.

MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS
ANSWERS
NOTE: 14 CFR is the 14th Title of the Code of Federal Regulations, and include the Federal Aviation R egulations (FARs). FAR and
14 CFR are interchangeable and you will see both used throughout this text.

Temporary certificates are issued to allow the review of an The maximum penalty for falsification, alteration, or
individual’s application and supplementary documents. fraudulent reproduction of certificates, logbooks, reports,
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 2] and records is the suspension or revocation of any
certificate held.

14 CFR Part 65 provides the requirements for A certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it
issuing mechanic certificates as well as providing the is surrendered, suspended, or revoked, with the exception of
general operating rules for the holders of those certificates repairman certificates.
and ratings. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 2]

Temporary certificates are effective for a period of not more Cheating or other unauthorized conduct during testing will
than 120 days. result in not being able to reapply for any certificate or rating
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 2] for a period of 1 year. It is also grounds for the suspension of
any currently held certificate(s).

QUESTIONS
13-7 AMG082 13-10 AMG082

In total, 9 exams are given to test the knowledge of an A&P An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an
candidate? How many questions must be answered properly aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an
in the first of those exams? annual inspection. Which of the following statements is/are
A. 42 true concerning who may correct the discrepancies?
B. 70 1. Only a mechanic with an inspection authorization
C. 75 2. An appropriately rated mechanic
3. An appropriately rated repair station
A. 1
B. 2
C. 2 & 3
13-8 AMG082 13-11 AMG082

An A&P certificate is marked "valid only outside the United According to 14 CFR Section 65.19, should an applicant fail
States risk". What is the likely reason for this restriction? to receive a passing grade on a knowledge exam,
A. The certificate was given by a non-US agency. he/she may:
B. The certificate holder does not speak English. A. Appeal the grade by demonstrating proficiency in an oral
C. The special authorization has been issued by a military or practical exam.
authority outside the United States. B. Retake the exam after 60 days.
C. Retake the exam anytime following further instruction.
13-9 AMG082 13-12 AMG082

Which of the following may a certificated airframe and The 100 hour inspection required by the FARs for certain
powerplant mechanic perform on aircraft and approve for aircraft being operated for hire may be performed by
return to service? A. persons working under the supervision of an
1. 100 hour inspection. appropriately rated mechanic.
2. An annual inspection, under specified circumstances. B. appropriately rated mechanics only if they have an
3. A progressive inspection, under specified inspection authorization.
circumstances. C. appropriately rated mechanics and approved by them
A. 1 and 3 for return to service.
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 2

ANSWERS

The first exam given to an A&P candidate is the written exam A certificated mechanic with an airframe and/or powerplant
for General. This exam contains 60 multiple choice questions ratings may perform the maintenance and return the
and requires a score of at least 70%. Thus 42 questions aircraft to service. Certificated repair stations will have the
must be answered correctly. Each written exam must be appropriately rated personnel to perform maintenance and
successfully passed before one is eligible to take the oral return aircraft to service as well.
and practical exams; for a total of 9 exams in all. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 4]

In most circumstances, the ability to write, speak, and Following the failure of a written exam, the applicant may
understand the English language is a requirement to hold either retake the exam following 30 days or sooner with
an A&P certificate. However, if an applicant does not meet a signed statement by a certified technician that further
this requirement and is employed outside the United States instruction has been received.
by a US carrier, an exemption may be issued. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 3]

An airframe and powerplant mechanic can perform 100 An appropriately rated mechanic may perform a 100 hour
hour inspections required by part 91 and approve and inspection and return the aircraft to service.
return the aircraft to service. Mechanics with an Inspection [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 4]
Authorization (IA) may also perform progressive inspections.

QUESTIONS
13-13 AMG082 13-16 AMG082

In addition to holding a valid A&P certificate, which of the Regarding the below statements;
following will satisfy the requirement so that he or she may 1. Certificated mechanics with an airframe rating may
supervise another certificated mechanic to time a magneto? perform a minor repair to an airspeed indicator providing
A. He/she must be employed at an authorized powerplant they have the necessary tools and equipment available.
repair station. 2. Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may
B. A log entry that he or she has previously performed this perform a major repair to a propeller providing they have
task him/herself. the necessary tools and equipment available.
C. He/she must have been instructed to do the work by A. Only 1 is true
another certificated mechanic. B. Neither 1 nor 2 is true
C. Only 2 is true
13-14 AMG082 13-17 AMG082

Certificated mechanics, under their general certificate A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of
privileges, may the certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24
A. perform minor repairs to instruments. months, the Administrator has found that the certificate
B. perform 100 hour inspection of instruments. holder is able to do the work or the certificate holder has
C. perform minor alterations to instruments. A. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating
for at least 18 months.
B. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating
for at least 12 months.
C. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating
for at least 6 months
13-15 AMG082 13-18 AMG082

FAA certificated mechanics may Which of the following is true regarding the privileges of an
A. approve for return to service a major repair for which A&P mechanic?
they are rated. A. He/she may perform minor and major repairs and
B. supervise and approve a 100 hour inspection. approve the work for return to service.
C. approve for return to service a minor alteration they B. He/she may perform minor repairs and approve the
have performed appropriate to the rating(s) they hold. work for return to service.
C. He/she may perform minor repairs, but may not
approve the work for return to service.

ANSWERS

A certificated mechanic may perform this task by him Statement 1 is false because a certificated mechanic is
or herself. However, prior to supervising another for that not authorized to repair instruments. Statement 2 is false
same task, a record, such as a personal log book entry, because a certificated mechanic is not authorized to perform
must be had that he/she has previously done the work by major repairs to propellers.
themselves. The requirement of employment at an authorized [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 4]
repair station only pertains to major repairs of propellers
and instruments.

A certificated mechanic may perform 100 hour inspections A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of
on instruments. He or she is just not authorized to repair his certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24
them if found to be unairworthy. months, the Administrator has found that he/she is able to do
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 4] that work; or he/she has, for at least 6 months served as a
mechanic under his certificate and rating.

A certificated mechanic may return to service, any aircraft A certificated A&P mechanic may perform minor airframe
or appliance, or part thereof, for which he is rated, including and powerplant work and approve that work for return
minor alterations. to service. He/she may also perform major repairs and
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 4] alterations but in this case an A&P mechanic holding
an Inspection Authorization (IA) is required to issue the
return to service.

QUESTIONS
13-19 AMG082 13-22 AMG082

An Airworthiness Directive requires that a propeller be Instrument repairs may be performed
altered. Certificated mechanics could A. by the instrument manufacturer only.
A. perform and approve the work for return to service if it B. by an FAA-approved instrument repair station.
is a minor alteration. C. on airframe instruments by mechanics with an airframe
B. not perform the work because it is an alteration. rating.
C. not perform the work because they are not allowed to
perform and approve for return to service, repairs or
alterations to propellers.
13-20 AMG082 13-23 AMG082

Which of the following is a requirement to continue to hold an What experience requirements must be met prior to being
Inspection Authorization (IA) certificate? able to apply for Inspection Authorization?
A. You must have a fixed base of operations. A. Held an A&P certificate for 3 years and active as a
B. You must have exercised the privileges of the certificate mechanic for previous 2 years.
within the last 60 days. B. Held an A&P certificate for 5 years and active as a
C. You must have performed an annual inspection in the mechanic for previous 3 years.
past 90 days. C. Held an A&P certificate for 3 Years and have logged at
least 200 hours of service during previous year.
13-21 AMG082 13-24 AMG082

Who has the authority to approve for return to service Which of the following are privileges of holding an Inspection
a powerplant or propeller or any part thereof after a Authorization rating, beyond those permitted with only
100 hour inspection? airframe and powerplant ratings?
A. A mechanic with a powerplant rating. 1. Perform and approve return to service an annual or
B. Any certificated repairman. progressive inspection.
C. Personnel of any certificated repair station. 2. Perform and approve return to service a 100 hour
inspection but not an annual inspection.
3. Service and approve return to service aircraft
instruments.
4. Approve return to service of an aircraft part following a
major repair.
A. A. All of the above
B. B. 1 and 4
C. C. 1, 3, and 4

ANSWERS

A certificated mechanic can perform minor alterations and Per the general privileges and limitations of the certificate,
approve the work for return to service. a mechanic cannot perform any maintenance, repairs, or
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 4] alterations to instruments. Only approved instrument repair
stations can perform this work.

An IA certificate is valid through its expiration date so long You may apply for an Inspection Authorization rating after
as the holder has a fixed base of operations including the you have held an A&P certificate for 3 years and have been
required equipment and availability of inspection data. active as a mechanic for the previous 2 years.
The performance of an annual inspection each 90 days [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 5]
is one option for renewing the certificate upon its natural
expiration date.

A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may With the Inspection Authorization (IA) rating the mechanic
approve for return to service a powerplant or propeller after a may perform and return to service an annual or progressive
100 hour inspection. inspection. He or she may also approve the return to service
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 5] of an aircraft part following a major repair.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
13-1(O). When qualifying for a mechanic certificate with both airframe and powerplant ratings, how many months of
practical experience are needed to meet the eligibility requirements?
13-2(O). What certificate and ratings must a mechanic hold to be authorized to conduct an annual inspection on an
aircraft and return it to service?
13-3(O). What certificate and ratings must a mechanic hold to be authorized to conduct a 100 hour inspection on an
aircraft and return it to service?
13-4(O). If you should move, how long do you have to notify the FAA of your permanent change of address and how
may you notify the FAA?
13-5(O). How old must you be before you are eligible for a mechanic’s certificate?
13-6(O). How many months experience must you have within any 24-month period to continue to exercise your
mechanic privileges?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
13-1(O). 30 months experience is needed to be eligible for application for a mechanic certificate with an airframe and
powerplant ratings.
13-2(O). A mechanic certificate with both an airframe and powerplant rating and an Inspection Authorization.
13-3(O). A mechanic certificate with both an airframe and powerplant rating.

[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 5, FAR 65.85, and 65.87]
13-4(O). Address changes must be made within 30 days of moving, either in writing or on-line.
13-5(O). You must be at least 18 years old.

13-6(O). 6 months.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
You should be able to demonstrate the ability to understand mechanic privileges and limitations contained in 14 CFR Part
65 by locating and interpreting/explaining the essential information within the regulations. Although all Federal Aviation
Regulations can be chosen during your exam, the following areas located within 14 CFR Part 65 should be reviewed.
A. Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. (§65.12)

B. Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. (§65.18)
C. Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: falsification, reproduction, or alteration. (§65.20)
D. Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test. (§121.15)
E. §120.15 Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test by a Part 65 certificate holder.
a. This section applies to all individuals who hold a certificate under part 65 of this chapter and who are subject
to drug and alcohol testing under this part.
b. Refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under part 65 of this chapter to take a drug or alcohol test
required under the provisions of this part is grounds for:
i. Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under part 65 of this chapter for a period of
up to 1 year after the date of such refusal; and
ii. (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under part 65 of this chapter.
F. General privileges and limitations. (§65.81)
G. Recent experience requirements. (§65.83)
H. Airframe rating; additional privileges and/or Powerplant rating; additional privileges. (§65.85 and §65.87)
I. Display of certificate. (§65.89)


HUMAN FACTORS CHAPTER
Psychology, Human Factors in Aviation, The Pear Model, Human Error, and The "Dirty Dozen"
14
QUESTIONS
Introduction to Human Factors

Human factors training has been implemented in many aviation maintenance organizations within the United States. Although not
yet mandated to be included within the curriculum of FAA certificated part 147 aviation maintenance schools, its importance is
spreading. This training is currently mandated by the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) and many other countries around
the world within their part 147 schools.
In an effort to promote the importance of safety and work performance of the AMT through the study of human factors, the FAA
has added a chapter specifically devoted to human factors in aviation maintenance. Be advised that even if your school does
not offer formalized training on human factors, you will encounter questions regarding this subject in the certification testing to
become an AMT. By reading and understanding the material presented in Chapter 14 of the Aviation Maintenance Technician
Handbook – General (FAA-H-8083-30-ATB) you will be prepared for those questions relating to human factors.
14-1 AMG111 14-4 AMG103

Anthropometrics is the study of The concept that a system should continue to function even
A. ancient cultural artifacts. if one of its components fails describes the practice of
B. physical dimensions and abilities of the human body. A. industrial engineering.
C. how people behave in social settings. B. safety engineering.
C. anthropometrics.
14-2 AMG103 14-5 AMG105

When we think of aviation safety in a contemporary way, The model that incorporates people’s actions in relation to
human error is their workplace environment, physical abilities, and available
A. the starting point. resources is the
B. the ending point. A. SHEL Model.
C. the intervention point. B. Dirty Dozen Model.
C. PEAR Model.
14-3 AMG103 14-6 AMG105

The branch of human factors that studies an AMTs ability to The environmental aspect of the PEAR model considers
quickly solve problems is called? which of the following:
A. Cognitive science. 1. Work place design
B. Safety engineering. 2. Shared goals
C. Clinical psychology. 3. Company culture
4. Lighting
A. 2 of the above factors
B. 3 of the above factors
C. All of the above factors

HUMAN FACTORS
ANSWERS

Anthropometry is the study of the dimensions and abilities of Safety engineering assures a life-critical system behaves
the human body. It is a branch of anthropology that focuses as needed even if a component fails. Ideally, engineers
on the comparative measurements of the human body and study a system to study what happens when a fault occurs
its parts. Anthropometry data contributes to various aspects and develop redundancy or backup systems to prevent an
of our lives from product design to ergonomics. overall failure.

Human factors should not be a consideration after an PEAR is an acronym formed from the words: People,
accident or incident, but should be identified and made Environment, Actions, and Resources. This model is used to
visible before they produce damaging results. describe human factors and the relationships between the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Pages 2 and 14] various aspects of human interaction within our world.

Cognitive science is the interdisciplinary scientific study The PEAR model divides environmental factors into physical
of how our brains process information. Problem solving and organizational environments. The physical aspects
is another way of expressing troubleshooting. Learning encompasses aspects of physical comfort such as lighting,
how good troubleshooters process information through noise control, temperature, etc. The organizational aspects
perception, language, reasoning, and even emotion can help encompass psychological aspects such as teamwork,
improve the problem solving capabilities of others. mutual respect, communication, etc.

HUMAN FACTORS
QUESTIONS
14-7 AMG107 14-10 AMG103

Considering an incident in which an AMT falls off a poorly During an engine inspection of a twin engine aircraft, the gap
maintained ladder; which would be considered the latent error? on each of 24 spark plugs must be checked and adjusted if
A. The AMT was inattentive when climbing the ladder. needed. To avoid errors due to complacency, which of the
B. The AMT did not inspect the ladder prior to use. following measures should be applied?
C. The broken ladder should have been previously A. Assign the most experienced mechanic to the task.
replaced. B. Refresh the mechanic on the importance of the job and
its proper technique.
C. Split the task between 2 or 3 mechanics.
14-8 AMG107 14-11 AMG107

A lack of communication is a contributing cause for Which of the following actions can help you avoid
accidents/incidents. Which of the following personal actions complacency?
can you use to improve communication and mitigate or A. Always expect to find faults or problems.
reduce these risks? B. Documenting your work in greater detail.
A. Ensure that the pressure being felt is not self-induced. C. Sharing the work with another team member.
B. Discuss work to be done or what has been completed.
C. Stop and look rationally at the problem.
14-9 AMG107 14-12 AMG108

Which of the following is the best way to insure that you have Getting applicable training, keeping your knowledge current,
understood verbal instructions? using current manuals, asking questions, and asking
A. Immediately write down the instructions on paper someone who knows, are all behaviors or safety nets to
for reference. reduce errors caused by a
B. Repeat the instructions back to the speaker. A. lack of resources.
C. Immediately perform the directed task while you B. lack of knowledge.
remember the instructions. C. lack of communication.

HUMAN FACTORS
ANSWERS

A latent error constitutes previous issues which led to Complacency may occur in the most experienced mechanic
the event, in this case the company’s failure to notice the when a task becomes overly redundant or familiar. One way
damaged ladder or its reluctance to fix or replace it when to lessen this risk is for repetitive tasks to be shared amongst
first discovered. While each of the above factors contributed multiple persons and so lessen each persons time with
to the event, the first in the series of errors allowed the that repetition.
possibility of the others occurring. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 16]

Discussing work to be done or what has been completed To avoid complacency always expect to find faults or
are personal actions can you use to improve communication problems. AMT's are often tasked with repetitive inspections
and mitigate or reduce these risks. Communication is a key and more often than not, nothing is found to be deficient.
attribute to conducting proper maintenance and maintaining These types of tasks that do not challenge our skills, are
a safe work environment. Good communication is a skill that done so often they become automatic, and rarely find a
can be learned. failure can lead to complacency. By always expecting faults
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 15] or problems, we can focus on the task. Tell yourself "today is
the day I will find a discrepancy."

After hearing verbal communication, repeating it back to Lack of Knowledge can be overcome by getting applicable
the person is a sure way to know you have received and training, keeping your knowledge current, using current
understand the message being sent. The text described manuals, asking questions, and asking someone who
the concept of call backs. This concept is used in medical knows. An AMT must have a vast knowledge base of aircraft
operating rooms and by pilots communicating with Air Traffic systems and technology. However, we cannot know and
Control. It is also a basic strategy recommended for all retain everything that is required to maintain the often
verbal communications when listening for understanding. numerous types of aircraft we work on. Even if you only
By repeating or paraphrasing the conversation, the receiver work on one aircraft, the amount of reference material is
of the message can assure the sender that the message was too large to retain everything. Therefore the use of current
understood correctly. If not, the sender can repeat and/or manuals is mandatory. Staying current with technology
rephrase the message for better understanding. will assist you in maintaining your proficiency in an ever
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 16] changing technological industry. Also do not be afraid to ask
questions, nobody knows everything.

HUMAN FACTORS
QUESTIONS
14-13 AMG107 14-16 AMG106

A behavior or safety net to reduce errors caused by Which of the following are symptoms of fatigue?
distractions is to 1. Short-term memory loss
A. double inspect your work, either by yourself or 2. Hot or cold flashes
someone else. 3. Tiredness
B. use a detailed checklist. 4. Failure to maintain situational overview
C. mark the uncompleted work. 5. Hunger
6. Mood swings
A. 1, 3, 4, 6
B. 2, 4, 5, and 6
C. 2, 3, and 5
14-14 AMG106 14-17 AMG106

Repeatedly forgetting where you placed a tool is often a Of those listed below, which is the best countermeasure to
symptom of _____________. combat fatigue?
A. pressure A. A vacation lasting several days
B. distraction B. Getting extra sleep on days off
C. fatigue C. Sleeping at regular intervals
14-15 AMG107 14-18 AMG108

Which behavior or safety net can improve teamwork? If a specified tool or part is not available to complete
A. Performing team tasks without a full team an assigned task, and no equivalent tools or parts are
B. Assigning duties among team members, regardless of authorized, you should
experience level. A. use the closest type of tool or part available.
C. Improved communication and coordination among B. modify the most similar tool or part available to get it as
team members. close to specifications as possible.
C. cease work until the actual tool or part can be obtained.

HUMAN FACTORS
ANSWERS

Use a detailed checklist to reduce errors caused by Short-term memory loss, tiredness, failure to maintain
distractions. Distractions can be either mental or physical. situational overview (also referred to as situational
Using a detailed checklist will help you know where you left awareness), and mood swings are all symptoms of fatigue.
a task. It is also recommended that your mark COMPLETED Fatigue may be displayed in any number of symptoms both
work as you complete the task(s) listed on the checklist. physical and mental. These symptoms can include lack of
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 16] energy, lack of motivation, difficulty concentrating, difficulty
starting and completing tasks, dizziness, moodiness, and
short-term memory loss.

Fatigue reduces alertness, short term memory, and failure The best remedy for combating fatigue is quality sleep at
to maintain a situational overview. While all aspects of the regular intervals, even on days off. People on shift work or
Dirty Dozen, can create multiple problems, because the who regularly change shifts are often unable to readjust their
forgetfulness was repeated, of the 3 listed fatigue is the body’s circadian rhythm, making even long periods of sleep
best answer. of little benefit due to the poor quality of sleep. A vacation
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 20] period may often have the same result as shift changes by
losing the regularity of your sleep schedule.

Communication is a key factor in improving teamwork. Tasks A lack of resources can be frustrating when you are on a
can be accomplished by teams that are reduced in numbers timeline. Aircraft need to be in-service to generate revenue
if coordination though communication is accomplished. and the pressure to get a job done without the required tools
(Note: Always maintain safety...if safety is compromised and/or parts can be high. Sadly, it is not a matter of ‘if’ you
by not having a full team re-evaluate the work to be done.) will experience this situation, but when. Good communication
Reconfirming duties before the work commences is and assertiveness will help in maintaining your personal
accomplished through communication and coordination. integrity. Remember, lives can be affected: yours, your co-
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 20] workers and passengers (who include family and friends).

HUMAN FACTORS
QUESTIONS
14-19 AMG107 14-22 AMG107

Which action can help a technician reduce the feelings of Which behavior or safety net can help reduce errors caused
pressure to quickly complete a task? by stress?
A. Ensure that the pressure is not self induced. A. Discussing this situation with someone else to get their
B. Accept solutions to a problem to expedite completion. input and assistance.
C. Use a detailed checklist to monitor your rate B. Eliminating all sources of stress before starting the job.
of completion. C. Being sure the stress is outside of your control and
there is nothing you can do about it.
14-20 AMG106 14-23 AMG105

Not alerting others when something does not seem right, not Working in high temperature environments can cause
speaking up when the actions of another concern you, or not 1. the body to overheat.
reporting procedures are poorly written or impractical, are all 2. an increase in perspiration.
actions of someone who lacks? 3. an increased heart rate.
A. Awareness. A. 1 and 2
B. Assertiveness. B. 2 and 3
C. Knowledge. C. All of the above.
14-21 AMG106 14-24 AMG107

Which behavior will give you the most credibility and provide Which answer is a safety net for Lack of Awareness?
the greatest safety net against a Lack of Assertiveness? A. Check if work conflicts with an existing modification
A. Avoiding complex tasks. or repair.
B. Never compromising your integrity. B. Get a good night’s sleep before coming to work.
C. Having others check your work. C. Ask your spouse to review the work you performed.

HUMAN FACTORS
ANSWERS

To reduce the feelings of pressure ensure the pressure One way to help address stress is to discuss it with
is not self-induced. Pressure in this context means you someone, be it a trusted friend, co-worker, or professional
are being forced to act to meet a particular outcome that counselor. Stress is the result of physical, psychological, or
you would not normally chose, or you are being asked physiological factors affecting our well-being. Discussing
to complete tasks that create undue demands, such as the situation with someone can help us determine what
reduced deadlines. However, as noted in the text, pressure the sources of the stress are, called stressors, and thereby
can be self-induced. Therefore, ask yourself is the pressure allow us to take action to reduce the effects or eliminate it
coming from outside forces, e.g. your supervisor, departure all together. Understand not all stressors can be eliminated,
schedules, or customers, or are you creating them but the negative effects can be reduced if we know what is
needlessly by your own thoughts or actions to try to perform causing them. As mentioned earlier, pressure can also be
to an unrealistic standard. self- induced. Pressure can be stressor, if we examine the
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 24] causes of the pressure and determine if it self-induced we
can then work on eliminating it.

Assertiveness is the ability to express your feelings, Temperature is a physical stressor. High temperature
opinions, beliefs, and needs in a positive, productive exposure can cause all of the physical reactions listed. Take
manner. This skill may not come naturally to you but it can caution when working in extreme heat, stay hydrated, use
be learned. Your self-esteem and ability to be assertive sunscreen and tinted eye protection, and rest periodically out
will improve by learning to be a better communicator, of the direct sun.
gaining knowledge in your field, and being a positive and [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 28]
hardworking member of your team. These skills will add
credibility to any situation you might encounter and have
to address that proves unsafe or non-compliant with
regulations and/or policy and procedures.

You maintain your personal integrity by adhering to a high Checking to see if the work you are doing conflicts with an
level of work standards that you never compromise. This is existing modification or repair is one safety net to help in
also the best way to maintain your credibility as an AMT. By improving your awareness. Be aware of who’s around you
maintaining high standards, others will not bother to ask you and what’s around you. Even be aware of what is behind the
to compromise them, and you will be setting the example for work you are doing, such as wiring that could be damaged
others. Remember, actions speak louder than words. from drilling.

HUMAN FACTORS
QUESTIONS
14-25 AMG107 14-27 AMG103

"Lack of Awareness" is defined as What percentage of aircraft accidents are deemed to be
A. a failure to recognize all the consequences of an action caused by human error?
or lack of foresight. A. 20%
B. not understanding the technical procedures required B. 50%
for your task. C. 80%
C. after repeating the same task multiple times, losing
awareness of some of the minor details of a task.
14-26 AMG107 14-28 AMG107

Most often, problems associated with a team’s "normal way The "SHEL" model is another human factors tool. The goal is
of doing things" can be best identified by the to determine not only what the problem is, but also
A. most experienced member of the team. A. where and why the problem exists.
B. team’s supervisor. B. how to recognize when the problem is likely to
C. newest member of the team. occur again.
C. how many human and non-human factors contribute to
the problem.

HUMAN FACTORS
ANSWERS

Lack of Awareness can be defined as a failure to recognize all Historically 20% of aviation accidents are caused by
the consequences of an action or lack of foresight. This is the mechanical failure and 80% are caused by human factors
definition provided in the text and what you will be tested on. as discussed in the dirty dozen. However, even of those
However, the original definition provided by Gordon DuPont, 20% deemed to be caused by mechanical failure, many can
who coined the Dirty Dozen, defines it as "a lack of alertness be also be traced down the line to human issues during the
and vigilance in observing." Mr. DuPont does go on to state design, manufacturing, or assembly levels.
that this occurs when the AMT fails to take into consideration [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 31]
possible consequences of his or her actions or inactions
through lack of planning. Staying alert to what is going on
around you and asking "what if" questions when you have
conflicting information or when things don’t appear just right
can help you to remain more aware of your surroundings. "C"
is not a definition; it would be considered a probable cause for
the loss of awareness."B" refers to a lack of knowledge.

New team members usually will ask why something is done The SHEL model is similar to the PEAR model. It can help
the way it is, especially if it differs from written policies or us define Human Factors by showing the relationship
procedures. In other cases, norms are passed from one between our world of procedures ("S" represents software),
employee to another as "tribal knowledge" and no written machines ("H: represents hardware), environment ("E"
policy or procedure has been documented. Norms are represents environment) and their relationship with humans
not necessarily bad. Good norms contribute to safety ("L" represents live ware), and our world of procedures ("S"
and efficiency and should therefore be documented. Bad represents software), machines ("H" represents hardware),
norms are usually unsafe and/or are short cuts that bypass and "E" represents environment. When investigating
acceptable procedures to meet time pressures on the accidents/incidents this model can be used to determine in
job. Use communication, assertiveness, knowledge, and which areas errors are taking place and to focus solutions
personal integrity to address and correct any bad norms you within those areas to remove or mitigate future risks.
may observe. [Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 13]

HUMAN FACTORS
QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
14-1(O). Describe complacency and how it relates to job performance.
14-2(O). What causes fatigue and what are some solutions?
14-3(O). Under the PEAR model, there are physical and organizational environments; describe them both.
14-4(O). Describe an active error and a latent error, give examples.
14-5(O). To avoid errors due to Lack of Communication, what steps can be taken by the departing shift?
14-6(O). If a Technician is not familiar with a particular airplane, what steps can he or she take to remedy the problem?
14-7(O). There are two kinds of unintentional errors, what are they called? Describe them both.
14-8(O). Norms can be both positive and negative. Define norms and describe both positive and negative norms.
14-9(O). Give some examples of common maintenance errors.

HUMAN FACTORS
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
14-1(O). As a technician gains knowledge, a sense of self satisfaction and false confidence may occur. Repetitive tasks
may be overlooked or skipped. Inspection of items may not seem important and mistakes may be overlooked.
The mind may wander during repetitive tasks, which may lead to mistakes.
[Ref: General Handbook H-8083-30-ATB Chapter 14, Page 16]
14-2(O). The major causes of fatigue are lack of a good night’s sleep, too much stress, working too many hours or
working various shifts. It is important to get 8 to 9 hours of sleep, exercise daily and eat healthy meals. You
need to be aware of your natural circadian rhythm and at your low points, schedule non complex tasks. Shift
work degrades performance, morale, and safety; this affects physical health. The technician along with his/her
company must regulate shift work and time off.
14-3(O). The physical environment includes the workspace in the hangar, shop and in the field. Items that effect the
physical environment can include outside weather, workspace, lighting, sound and temperature in the physical
workspace. The organizational environment is less tangible. Leadership and organizational structure define
communication, shared values, mutual respect and stress the importance of safety in the workplace.
14-4(O). Active errors (also called unsafe acts) are specific activities that lead to and cause a specific, obvious event.
They are the central cause of the accident; for example: the AMT did not have the correct part and knowingly
installed an incorrect part. Latent errors are company issues that lead to an unsafe event that may or may not
happen; for example: The purchasing manager did not order the correct part. This may lead to the technician
intentionally installing the wrong part as above which would then become an active error or the technician
delaying the job to wait for correct part.
14-5(O). Make sure there is an overlap in schedule allowing technicians to communicate face to face so that accurate
information is exchanged. Make sure all steps were completed without any omissions. All steps in the
procedure must be signed off by departing technician as the work is performed. Applicable logs must be
detailed and reviewed and discussed.
14-6(O) Technician must be sure to use all data available; manuals, other technicians familiar with the airplane; and
most importantly, be aware that there are differences that exist between airplanes. If resources are not
available, a manufacturer’s representative should be contacted. If none of these options exist, the repair
should be delayed until resources are available.
14-7(O). Unintentional errors fall into two categories, slips and mistakes. Slips can be an error in your action – i.e.
transposing numbers, forgetting to tighten a bolt or overlooking a stress fracture. Mistakes would be an error
in judgment or insufficient knowledge; i.e. selecting the wrong part for a repair, using the wrong procedure,
or deciding that the repair is not necessary. Both slips and mistakes are not intentional but mistakes that can
have serious consequences.

HUMAN FACTORS
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
14-8(O). Norms can be both positive and negative. Define norms and describe both positive and negative norms.
Norms is short for Normal – The normal way we do something. Norms can be positive or negative. Positive
norms are organizations with a risk adverse safety culture. Negative norms in a company would be making
sure you meet the deadline, even if steps are skipped.
14-9(O). Give some examples of Common Maintenance Errors.

1. Incorrect installation of components.
2. Fitting of wrong parts.
3. Electrical wiring discrepancies to include crossing connections.
4. Forgotten tools and parts.
5. Failure to lubricate.
6. Failure to secure access panels, fairings, or cowlings.
7. Fuel or oil caps and fuel panels not secured.
8. Failure to remove lock pins.

HUMAN FACTORS
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
14-1(P). Role Play - A repair is given a deadline that is not realistic. You are the mechanic on duty and the repairs
are necessary without skipping steps in order to follow proper safety protocol. Handle the situation with
your supervisor.
14-2(P). Role Play - Your supervisor is slurring his words and seems slightly disoriented. Deal with the situation.
14-3(P). You have completed your shift, but not all tasks were completed. Fill out a task card to be passed to the
next shift.


Mechanics
2023 - AIRFRAME TEST GUIDE
MECHANICS
AIRFRAME TEST GUIDE

FOR USE WITH
FAA-H-8083-31A & FAA-H-8083-31A-ATB

2023 EDITION

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Chapter 01 - Aircraft Structures Chapter 10 - Aircraft Instruments
Chapter 02 - Aerodynamics, Assembly, Rigging Chapter 11 - Communications & Navigation

Chapter 03 - Fabric Covering Chapter 12 - Hydraulic & Pneumatic

Chapter 04 - Metal Structural Repair Chapter 13 - Landing Gear

Chapter 05 - Aircraft Welding Chapter 14 - Fuel Systems

Chapter 06 - Aircraft Wood Chapter 15 - Ice & Rain Protection

Chapter 07 - Composite Materials Chapter 16 - Cabin Environment

Chapter 08 - Painting & Finishing Chapter 17 - Fire Protection

Chapter 09 - Electrical Systems

8083-31A-ATB Airframe Test Guide iii


by an employer.

your testing.


iv 8083-31A-ATB Airframe Test Guide

Learning Statement Codes A&P Mechanic — Airframe
training. The learning statement corresponding to the learning statement code is on the test report.
AMA001 Aerodynamic Fundamentals

AMA002 Air Conditioning System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA003 Aircraft Component Markings
AMA004 Aircraft Components Material - Flame Resistant
AMA005 Aircraft Cooling System - Charging / Leaking / Oil / Pressure / Water
AMA006 Aircraft Cooling System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA007 Aircraft Corrosion - Principles / Control / Prevention
AMA008 Aircraft Engines - Indicating System
AMA009 Aircraft Exterior Lighting - Systems / Components
AMA010 Aircraft Flight Indicator System
AMA011 Aircraft Hardware - Bolts / Nuts / Fasteners / Fittings /Valves
AMA012 Aircraft Heating System - Exhaust Jacket Inspection
AMA013 Aircraft Instruments - Install / Inspect / Adjust / Repair / Markings
AMA014 Aircraft Instruments - Types / Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA015 Aircraft Lighting - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA016 Aircraft Metals - Inspect / Test / Repair / Identify
AMA017 Aircraft Metals - Types / Tools / Fasteners
AMA018 Aircraft Warning Systems - Navigation / Stall / Takeoff
AMA019 Airframe - Inspections
AMA020 Airframe - Repair / Component Installation
AMA021 Airframe Design - Structures / Components
AMA022 Alternators - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA023 Antenna System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA024 Anti-Icing / Deicing - Methods / Systems
AMA025 Autopilot - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA026 Autopilot - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA027 Avionics - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA028 Avionics - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA029 Basic Hand Tools / Torque Values
AMA030 Batteries - Capacity / Charging / Types / Storage / Rating / Precautions
AMA031 Brake System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA032 Brake System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA033 Carburetor - Icing / Anti-Icing
AMA034 Chemical Rain Repellent
AMA035 Combustion Heaters - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA036 Compass - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA037 Composite Materials - Types / Repairs / Techniques / Processes
AMA038 Control Cables - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA039 DC Electric Motors - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA040 Dope And Fabric - Materials / Techniques / Hazards
AMA041 Electrical System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics / Symbols
AMA042 Electrical System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA043 Electronic Test Equipment
AMA044 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) - Operation / Battery / Testing
AMA045 Fiberglass - Install / Troubleshoot / Service / Repair
AMA046 Fire Detection System - Types / Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA047 Fire Detection Systems - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA048 Fire Extinguishing Systems - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA050 Flight Characteristics - Longitudinal Stability / Instability
AMA051 Fluid Lines - Material / Coding
AMA052 Fuel - Types / Characteristics / Contamination / Fueling / Defueling / Dumping
AMA053 Fuel / Oil - Anti-Icing / Deicing
AMA054 Fuel System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA055 Fuel System - Install / Troubleshoot / Service / Repair
8083-31A-ATB Airframe Test Guide v

AMA056 Fuel System - Types
AMA057 Fuel/Air Mixture - Idle Rich Mixture - Rpm Rise
AMA058 Fundamental Material Properties
AMA059 Fuselage Stations
AMA060 Helicopter Control System
AMA061 Helicopter Control System - Collective
AMA062 Helicopter Drive System - Free Wheeling Unit
AMA063 Hydraulic Systems - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA064 Hydraulic Systems - Fluids
AMA065 Hydraulic Systems - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA066 Instrument Panel Installation - Shock Mounts
AMA067 Instruments - Manifold Pressure Indicating System
AMA068 Landing Gear System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA069 Landing Gear System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA070 Maintenance Publications - Service / Parts / Repair
AMA071 Navigation / Communication Systems - Types / Operational Characteristics
AMA072 Oxygen System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA073 Oxygen System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service / Precautions
AMA074 Oxygen System - Quality / Types / Contamination / Cylinders / Pressure
AMA075 Physics - Work Forces
AMA076 Pitot-Static System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA077 Pitot-Static System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA078 Plastic Fundamentals - Installation / Cleaning / Repair / Characteristics
AMA079 Pneumatic System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA080 Pressurization System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA081 Primary Flight Controls - Inspect / Adjust / Repair
AMA082 Primary Flight Controls - Types / Purpose / Functionality
AMA083 Radar Altimeter - Indications
AMA084 Radar Altimeter - Signals
AMA085 Radio System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA086 Radio System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA087 Radio System - License Requirements / Frequencies
AMA088 Regulations - Airworthiness Requirements / Responsibilities
AMA089 Regulations - Maintenance Reports / Records / Entries
AMA090 Regulations - Privileges / Limitations Of Maintenance Certificates / Licenses
AMA091 Rotor System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA092 Secondary Flight Control System - Inspect / Adjust / Repair
AMA093 Secondary Flight Control System - Types / Purpose / Functionality
AMA094 Sheet Metal Fabrication - Blueprints / Shaping / Construction
AMA095 Smoke Detection Systems - Types / Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMA096 Static Pressure System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMA097 Tires - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service / Storage
AMA098 Turbine Engines - Components / Operational Characteristics / Associated Instruments
AMA099 Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) / Supplemental Type Certificate (STC)
AMA100 Weight And Balance - Equipment Installation / Cg / General Principles
AMA101 Welding / Soldering - Types / Techniques / Equipment
AMA102 Wooden Components - Failures / Decay / Patching / Gluing / Substitutions
vi 8083-31A-ATB Airframe Test Guide

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES CHAPTER
Major Structural Stresses, Fixed-Wing Aircraft, Wings, Empennage, Flight Control Surfaces,
and Aircraft Structure Maintenance
01
QUESTIONS
1-1 AMA021 1-4 AMA021

Which stresses does an operating piston engine apply to Which of the following creates a critical need for frequent
its airframe? inspections on a pressurized fuselage?
A. Shear and bending. A. Corrosion
B. Tension and torsion. B. Metal fatigue
C. Compression and shear. C. Humidity and temperature changes
1-2 AMA021 1-5 AMA021

Which type of stress does a stringer in a semi-monocoque Which of the following wing design features will provide the
fuselage absorb? greatest amount of lateral stability?
A. Shear A. Sweepback
B. Tension B. Dihedral
C. Torsion C. Cantilever
1-3 AMA021 1-6 AMA021

Which type of skin material would most likely be found on a Which of the following wing components are positioned
monocoque fuselage? chordwise within a wing’s structure?
A. Fabric A. Stringers and formers.
B. Wood B. Ribs and stingers.
C. Metal C. Ribs and formers.
8083-31A-ATB Airframe Test Guide 1-1

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
ANSWERS

An operating engine and propeller apply both tension and Pressurized fuselages are constantly stretching and shrinking
torsion to the airframe via its engine mounts. Tension, being as the pressurization inside the fuselage cycles higher and
the pulling force generated by the propeller. Torsion being lower with each flight. Thus frequent inspections are required
the twisting force created by the rotating propeller on the for minute cracks caused by this constant flexing.
non-rotating airframe. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 10]
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 7]

Of the 5 stresses that may act on airframe parts, (tension, Dihedral is the measure of the angle the span of the wing
compression, torsion, shear, bending) horizontally installed has to the fuselage. The higher this angle, the greater is the
stringers and longerons prevent tension and compression lateral stability of the aircraft. Cantilever is a construction
from bending the fuselage. method allowing the absence of external bracing.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 8-9] Sweepback provides benefits regarding critical mach
numbers in high speed flight.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 10-11]

A monocoque fuselage relies on the strength and stiffness The chordwise direction is from the leading to training edge
of the skin to carry the primary loads in all directions. Thus of the wing; versus spanwise which is from the root to the tip.
metal or composites (or in rare cases, wood) would be the Ribs and formers are positioned chordwise and are mostly
likely skin material of choice. responsible for determining and forming the structure for the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 8-9] aerodynamic shape of the wing.
1-2 8083-31A-ATB Airframe Test Guide

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
QUESTIONS
1-7 AMA021 1-10 AMA021

Most manufactured aircraft have wings spars made of Which of the following can be part of an empennage?
A. laminated wood. 1. Rudder
B. solid extruded aluminum. 2. Elevator
C. spruce wood. 3. Fuel tank
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 2
C. All of the above
1-8 AMA021 1-11 AMA082

The purpose of anti-drag wires within the structure of a wing Ailerons control which of an airplane’s axes of rotation?
is to add strength to the _____________. A. Longitudinal
A. trailing edge fittings B. Lateral
B. spar C. Vertical
C. ribs
1-9 AMA021 1-12 AMA021

Which term below is also referred to as a pod? To prevent in-flight flutter of a control surface such as an
A. Nacelles aileron or elevator, the center of gravity of the component is
B. Rib typically set ______________.
C. Spar A. exactly on the hinge line
B. slightly forward of its hinge line
C. slightly aft of its hinge line

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
ANSWERS

Spars may be made of metal, wood, or composite materials The other components of the typical empennage are of
depending on the design criteria of a specific aircraft. heavier construction than the tail cone. These members
Wooden spars are usually made from spruce. Lamination include fixed surfaces that help stabilize the aircraft and
of solid wood spars is often used to increase strength. movable surfaces that help to direct an aircraft during flight.
Currently, most manufactured aircraft have wing spars made The fixed surfaces are the horizontal stabilizer and vertical
of solid extruded aluminum or aluminum extrusions riveted stabilizer. The movable surfaces are usually a rudder located
together to form the spar. at the aft edge of the vertical stabilizer and an elevator
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 13-14] located at the aft edge the horizontal stabilizer.

Since ribs are laterally weak, drag and anti-drag wires are An aircraft can rotate in 3 directions: The rudder controls
mounted between the ribs to reduce fore and aft forces in yaw or the vertical axis (nose goes left or right). The elevator
the chord direction. controls pitch or the lateral axis (nose goes up or down). The
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 10-16] ailerons control roll or the longitudinal axis (the left and right
wings go up or down). Page 1-25 of the Airframe textbook
shows these directions clearly.

Nacelles (sometimes called "pods") are streamlined Primary control surfaces must be balanced around their
enclosures used primarily to house the engine and its center of gravity so they do not vibrate or flutter in the air
components. They usually present a round or elliptical profile stream. Balancing typically consists of assuring that the
to the wind thus reducing aerodynamic drag. center of gravity of the movable surface is slightly forward of
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 19-20] its hinge line.

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
QUESTIONS
1-13 AMA093 1-16 AMA001

Which device serves to increase the pilot’s sense of feel The primary purpose of stall strips is to
when operating a primary control surface such as ailerons A. provide added lift at high angles of attack.
or rudders? B. stall the inboard portion of the wings first.
A. Trim tabs C. provide added lift at slow speeds.
B. Balance tabs
C. Anti-balance tabs
1-14 AMA093 1-17 AMA021

When operating at low speeds, spoilers on transport aircraft Which of these wing devices has the purpose of reducing
are typically interconnected with and operate simultaneously drag created by airflow over the wing tips and so improving
with the the aircraft’s overall fuel economy?
A. flaps. A. Vortex generators
B. ailerons. B. Winglets
C. elevators. C. Gap seals
1-15 AMA093 1-18 AMA068

Which type of tab can be used in an emergency failure of An aircraft said to have conventional landing gear, is
the hydraulic system to move and control the primary flight understood to have
control surfaces? A. fixed landing gear which are not retracted in flight.
A. Servo tabs B. two main gear under the wing and a nose wheel.
B. Spring tabs C. two main gear typically forward of the wing and a
C. Balance tab tail wheel.

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
ANSWERS

Anti-balance or anti-servo tabs move in the same direction A stall strip is a small triangular metal strip installed along
as the primary control surface (typically the horizontal the leading edge of an airplane wing near the wing root. Stall
stabilizer). These are common when the input to the control strips cause the root section of the wing to stall before the
surface is too sensitive to the pilot’s control. The anti-servo portion of the wing ahead of the ailerons.
tab increases the force needed to move the control surface [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 34]
thus making the aircraft more stable for the pilot.

At low speeds, spoilers are rigged to operate with the A winglet is an aerodynamic addition to the wing tip (an
ailerons. On the wing where the aileron is moved up, the obvious upturn of the wing) which reduces drag which is
spoiler also raises to amplify the reduction of lift on that side. caused by the circulation of air from the bottom to the top of
On the wing with downward aileron deflection the spoiler the wing at the wing tip. Vortex generators help low speed
remains stowed. As the aircraft speed increases the ailerons performance by maintaining a stable boundary layer of air
become more effective and the spoiler link disconnects. flowing over the wing. Gap seals cover the space between
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 30] the wing and control surfaces smoothing airflow over this
area at high angles of attack.

A servo tab is similar to a balance tab in location and effect, As tail wheel type aircraft dominated early aviation,
but is designed to fully operate and position the primary "conventional gear" refers to an aircraft with a tail wheel.
control surface in the event of a systems failure, not just Nose wheel aircraft are referred to as "tricycle gear". An
reduce the force needed to do so. aircraft with or without gear retraction is termed either
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 32] "fixed gear" or "retractable gear".

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
QUESTIONS
1-19 AMA070 1-22 AMA098

If a manufacturer’s maintenance manual does not exist for Approximately what percentage of the airflow entering a
an older aircraft, the correct procedures for maintaining that helicopter’s turbine engine is applied to the production
aircraft can be found by of power?
A. consulting an A&P mechanic with A. 25%
Inspection Authorization. B. 60%
B. consulting FAA Advisory Circular AC43.13 1B/2B. C. 90%
C. consulting a current manufacturer’s maintenance
manual of a similar type airplane.
1-20 AMA059 1-23 AMA021

To locate the position of a hinge on the REAR SPAR Which type of helicopter rotor system allows movement in
OF the vertical stabilizer, you must refer to the the blade positions during speed (RPM) changes to counter
hinge’s ________________. variations of centrifugal force?
A. Butt line A. Anti-torque rotor systems
B. Waterline B. Semi rigid rotor systems
C. Reference datum C. Articulated rotor systems
1-21 AMA059 1-24 AMA061

Which is the location of FS 137? Which helicopter flight control causes the rotor to tilt, thus
A. 137 inches aft of the nose of the aircraft. changing the horizontal direction of the aircraft?
B. 137 inches aft of the datum. A. Cyclic
C. 137 inches aft of the aircraft center of gravity (CG). B. Collective
C. Foot pedals

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
ANSWERS

FAA AC43.13 1B/2B Acceptable Methods of Aircraft Because airflow through the helicopter turboshaft engine is
Inspection and Repair documents the proper and legal not a straight line pass through as in a jet engine, the cooling
techniques and procedures to maintain non-pressurized efficiency of the airflow is limited. Thus, approximately 75%
aircraft under 10,000 pounds and for which no current of the incoming airflow into the engine is re-routed for the
manufacturer’s manual exists. purpose of engine cooling.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 38] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 42]

The waterline is a vertical reference which identifies points Fully articulated blade systems provide hinges that allow
above or below the indicated reference. a point on the the rotor blades to move fore and aft. When first starting to
vertical spar of the vertical stabilizer is identified from this spin, the blades lag until centrifugal force is fully developed.
point. The butt line is a horizontal measurement from the Once rotating a reduction in speed causes the blades to
centerline of the aircraft, useful for points along the wing or lead the main rotor until forces come into balance. In a
horizontal stabilizer. The reference datum indicates locations fully articulated system, they are free to do so due to being
along the length of the fuselage. mounted on a vertical drag hinge.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 39-40] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 44]
1-21 Answer B 1-24 Answer A.

Fuselage stations (Fus. Sta. or FS) are numbered in inches The cyclic is the control stick typically located between the
from a reference or zero point known as the reference datum. pilot’s legs. It changes the angle of the swash plate which
The reference datum is an imaginary vertical plane at or near changes the plane of rotation of the rotor blades moving the
the nose of the aircraft from which all fore and aft distances aircraft horizontally depending on the position of the cyclic.
are measured. The distance to a given point is measured in [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 46-47]
inches parallel to a center line extending through the aircraft
from the nose through the center of the tail cone. Some
manufacturers may call the fuselage station a body station,
abbreviated BS.

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
1-1(O). Name the three major categories of aircraft.
1-2(O). Name the five principal units that make up a fixed-wing aircraft.
1-3(O). Name the principal units that make up a helicopter airframe.
1-4(O). Name the five major stresses to which all aircraft are subjected.
1-5(O). Define fuselage.
1-6(O). Explain a monocoque fuselage.
1-7(O). Explain a semi‑monocoque fuselage.
1-8(O). Explain the purpose of stringers as used the construction of a semi‑monocoque fuselage.
1-9(O). What factors are taken into consideration when designing the wing structure of an aircraft?
1-10(O). What are nacelles and what purpose do they serve?
1-11(O). What is the empennage and which components does it house?
1-12(O). Name the primary flight control surfaces on a fixed-wing aircraft.
1-13(O). What is a stabilator?
1-14(O). Explain fuselage stations?
1-15(O). Define Buttock line or butt line (BL).
1-16(O). Define Water line (WL).
1-17(O). Which components make up the rotor section of a helicopter.
1-18(O). Name the three basic classification of rotor blades.
1-19(O). Which section of a helicopter help to counteract the effects of torque produced by the main rotors?

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
1-1(O). Rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air vehicles.
1-2(O). Fuselage, wings, stabilizers, flight control surfaces, and landing gear.
1-3(O). Fuselage, main rotor and related gearbox, tail rotor (on helicopters with a single main rotor), and the landing gear.
1-4(O). Tension, compression, torsion, shear, and bending.

1-5(O). The main structure or body of an aircraft that houses space for cargo, controls, accessories, passengers, and
other equipment.
1-6(O). A single-shell type of aircraft structure in which all of the flight loads are carried in the outside skin of
the structure.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 9, G-23]
1-7(O). A form of aircraft stressed skin structure. Most of the strength of a semi‑monocoque structure is in the skin,
but the skin is supported on a substructure of formers and stringers that give the skin its shape and increase
its rigidity.
1-8(O). They give the fuselage its shape and, in some types of structure, to provide a small part of fuselage strength.
1-9(O). Wing designs must factor the aircraft’s size and weight, the use of the aircraft, the desired speed in flight and
at landing, and desired rate of climb.
1-10(O). Nacelles are streamlined enclosures used primarily to house the engine and its components, usually with a
round or elliptical profile reducing aerodynamic drag.
1-11(O). The empennage is the tail section and usually consists the vertical and horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and elevator.
1-12(O). Ailerons, elevators, and rudder.

1-13(O). It is a flight control on the empennage of an airplane that acts as both a stabilizer and an elevator. The entire
horizontal tail surface pivots and is moved as a unit.
1-14(O). They are used to help locate components on an aircraft. They are numbered in inches from a reference or
zero point known as the reference datum.

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
1-15(O). This is a vertical reference plane down the center of the aircraft from which measurements left or right can be made.
1-16(O). This is the measurement of height in inches perpendicular from a horizontal plane usually located at the
ground, cabin floor, or some other easily referenced location.
1-17(O). The mast, hub, and rotor blades.

1-18(O). Rigid, semi-rigid, or fully articulated.

1-19(O). The tail boom and tail rotor, or antitorque rotor, counteract this torque effect.

AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
1-1(P). Given an actual aircraft, mock-up, or even a drawing of an aircraft identify the various structures as requested
by the examiner.
1-2(P). Given an actual aircraft, mock-up, and a maintenance manual task locate the panels to be removed to
complete the required maintenance.
1-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mock-up complete an operational check of the primarily flight control surfaces and
document any discrepancies.
1-4(P). Given an actual aircraft, mock-up complete an operational check of the secondary flight control surfaces and
document any discrepancies.
1-5(P). Given a series of pictures, identify the various types of wing designs.

AERODYNAMICS, AIRCRAFT ASSEMBLY, CHAPTER
02
AND RIGGING
Basic Aerodynamics, Aerodynamics and the Laws of Physics, Thrust and Drag, Primary Flight
Controls, and High-speed Aerodynamics
QUESTIONS
2-1 AMA001 2-4 AMA075

An aircraft’s airspeed is 100 mph. The speed of the airflow Newton’s ______________ Law of Motion is the law of action
under the wing is 105 mph and its speed over the wing is 115 and reaction.
mph. If the angle of attack is then increased by 2 degrees A. First
what will be the affect on the speed of airflow above B. Second
the wing? C. Third
A. It will stay the same.
B. It will decrease.
C. It will increase.
2-2 AMA014 2-5 AMA001

A deviation from the measurement 29.92” Hg is best According to Bernoulli’s Principle, when air flowing through
calculated by which device? a tube reaches a narrowing of that tube, the speed of that air
A. An anemometer. flowing through that tube is ______________ and its pressure
B. A barometer. is ______________.
C. A variometer. A. decreased; decreased
B. increased; decreased
C. decreased; increased
2-3 AMA001 2-6 AMA001

When the atmosphere is considered “saturated”, the length Which of the following statements regarding airfoils is True
of runway required for an aircraft to take off is ______________ (within limits)?
than/to on an unsaturated day. A. Lift is increased by decreasing by angle of incidence of
A. shorter an airfoil.
B. longer B. Lift is increased by increased the angle of attack of
C. equal an airfoil.
C. Lift is decreased by increasing the angle of attack of
an airfoil.

AERODYNAMICS, AIRCRAFT ASSEMBLY, AND RIGGING
ANSWERS

The airflow over the top and bottom of a wing must reach Newton’s Third Law states that for every action (force) there
the trailing edge of the wing at the same time. When angle is an equal and opposite reaction (force). This law can be
of attack is increased, the distance the air must flow above illustrated by the example of firing a gun. The action is the
the wing increases, and so its speed must then also forward movement of the bullet while the reaction is the
increase, thus lowering the pressure above the wing and backward recoil of the gun.
creating additional lift. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 4]

Inches of Mercury is a measure of atmospheric pressure and In Bernoulli’s principle states when a fluid (air) flowing
so directly provided by a barometer. While a variometer does through a tube reaches a constriction, or narrowing, of the
this as well through an internal barometer, the direct reading tube, the speed of the fluid flowing through that constriction
it provides is vertical speed changes. An anemometer is increased and its pressure is decreased.
measures wind speed or the pressure caused by the wind. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 4]

The term saturated refers to the amount of humidity in the Within limits, lift can be increased by increasing the Angle
air. Saturated air contains the most humidity possible at a Of Attack (AOA), wing area, velocity, density of the air, or
given temperature. As humid air is less dense than dry air, by changing the shape of the airfoil. When the force of lift
the performance of an aircraft decreases versus if it were on an aircraft’s wing equals the force of gravity, the aircraft
operating in dry air. maintains level fight.

QUESTIONS
2-7 AMA001 2-10 AMA001

The angle of incidence is that acute angle formed by In order to maintain level flight, as thrust increases, the angle
A. a line parallel to the wing from root to tip and a line of attack must ______________.
parallel to the lateral axis of the aircraft. A. increase
B. a line parallel to the wing chord and a line parallel to the B. decrease
longitudinal axis of the aircraft. C. remain the same
C. the angular difference between the setting of the main
airfoil and the auxiliary airfoil (horizontal stabilizer) in
reference to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
2-8 AMA001 2-11 AMA001

The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and the The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest
relative wind is known as the A. does not change when in flight.
A. angle of attack. B. affects the dihedral of the wings in flight.
B. angle of incidence. C. is the same as the angle between the relative wind and
C. longitudinal dihedral angle. the chord of the wing.
2-9 AMA001 2-12 AMA001

As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the center of As lift increases on an aircraft, parasitic drag ______________
pressure will and induced drag ______________.
A. move toward the leading edge. A. increases; increases
B. remain stationary because both lift and drag B. increases; decreases
components increase proportionally to increased C. decreases, increases
angle of attack.
C. move toward the trailing edge.

ANSWERS

The angle of incidence is the acute angle formed between As thrust increases additional air flows over the wing and
the chord line of an airfoil and the longitudinal axis of the so increases lift. Therefore to prevent the airplane from
aircraft on which it is mounted. climbing, the angle of attack must be slightly reduced, thus
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 6, G-2] lowering the lift proportionately. The end result is that by
increasing power and lowering lift, the airplane speeds up
without gaining altitude.

The chord of an airfoil or wing section is an imaginary The angle of incidence in most cases is a fixed, built-in angle.
straight line that passes through the section from the leading The acute angle the wing chord makes with the longitudinal
edge to the trailing edge. The chord line provides one side axis of the aircraft is called the angle of incidence, or the
of an angle that ultimately forms the AOA. The other side angle of wing setting.
of the angle is formed by a line indicating the direction of [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 6]
the relative airstream. Thus, AOA is defined as the angle
between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the
relative wind.

The point of intersection of the resultant force line with the Lift is increased by increasing angle of attack and so
chord line of the airfoil is called the Center Of Pressure (CP). presenting more of the structure of the aircraft to the airflow.
The CP moves along the airfoil chord as the AOA changes. Induced drag is increased because as angle of attack is
Throughout most of the flight range, the CP moves forward increased the pressure difference between the top and
with increasing AOA and rearward as the AOA decreases. bottom of the aircraft becomes greater, causing more
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 6] vortices, more turbulence, and so more drag.

QUESTIONS
2-13 AMA050 2-16 AMA050

An airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical axis An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have
by the a minimum tendency to
A. ailerons. A. pitch.
B. elevators. B. roll.
C. rudder. C. yaw.
2-14 AMA082 2-17 AMA001

The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a
rotation about the pitching moment that has been set into motion has
A. vertical axis. A. poor lateral stability.
B. longitudinal axis. B. poor longitudinal stability.
C. lateral axis. C. good lateral stability.
2-15 AMA081 2-18 AMA001

Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight
the balance of the airplane about its is referred to as
A. vertical axis. A. longitudinal stability.
B. lateral axis. B. lateral stability.
C. longitudinal axis. C. directional stability.

ANSWERS

The axis that passes through the center, from top to bottom, When an aircraft has a tendency to keep a constant AOA
is called the vertical, or yaw, axis. Yaw is controlled by the with reference to the relative wind (i.e., it does not tend to
rudder located at the rear portion of the vertical tail assembly. put its nose down and dive or lift its nose and stall); it is said
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 9] to have longitudinal stability. Longitudinal stability refers to
motion in pitch. See Figure 2-10 in the text for a table of flight
control surfaces and their relationship to aircraft stability.

The axis that extends crosswise from wing tip to wing tip is When an aircraft has a tendency to keep a constant AOA
the lateral, or pitch, axis. Pitch is affected by the elevators with reference to the relative wind (i.e., it does not tend to
located at the rear portion of the horizontal tail assembly. put its nose down and dive or lift its nose and stall); it is said
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 9] to have longitudinal stability. Longitudinal stability refers to
motion in pitch. See Figure 2-10 in the text for a table of flight

When an aircraft has a tendency to keep a constant AOA Motion about the aircraft’s longitudinal (fore and aft) axis
with reference to the relative wind (i.e., it does not tend to is a lateral, or rolling, motion. The tendency to return to the
put its nose down and dive or lift its nose and stall); it is said original attitude from such motion is called lateral stability.
to have longitudinal stability. Longitudinal stability refers See Figure 2-10 in the text for a table of flight control
to motion in pitch. The horizontal stabilizer is the primary surfaces and their relationship to aircraft stability.
surface that controls longitudinal stability. The action of the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 10]
stabilizer depends upon the speed and AOA of the aircraft.
Trim tabs are small airfoils recessed into the trailing edges
of the primary control surfaces. Trim tabs can be used to
correct any tendency of the aircraft to move toward an
undesirable flight attitude. Their purpose is to enable the
pilot to trim out any unbalanced condition which may exist
during flight, without exerting any pressure on the primary
controls. See Figure 2-10 in the text for a table of flight

QUESTIONS
2-19 AMA001 2-22 AMA091

The purpose of the vertical fin (stabilizer) is to provide _____________ are often attached on swept-wing aircraft
A. lateral stability. to prevent the spanwise movement of air at high angles
B. directional stability. or attack.
C. longitudinal stability. A. Canard wings
B. Wing fences
C. Winglets
2-20 AMA082 2-23 AMA063

The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to Which type of drag is greater when an aircraft is moving at a
A. contribute to the static balance of the control surface. slower speed?
B. make in flight trim adjustments possible. A. Induced Drag
C. assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces. B. Profile Drag
C. Parasitic Drag
2-21 AMA092 2-24 AMA091

To what is the control rod for the trim tab of an Which of the following statements is not true in regards to
elevator attached? high-speed aerodynamics?
A. The elevator. A. High-speed aerodynamics are often called
B. An elevator control horn. compressible aerodynamics and a special branch of
C. The horizontal stabilizer. study of aeronautics.
B. The compression effect becomes more important as
speed decreases.
C. Mach number is the ratio of the speed of the aircraft to
the local speed of sound.

ANSWERS

The vertical stabilizer is the primary surface that controls Wing fences are flat metal vertical plates fixed to the upper
directional stability. surface of the wing. They obstruct spanwise airflow along
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 11] the wing, and prevent the entire wing from stalling at once.
They are often attached on swept-wing aircraft to prevent
the spanwise movement of air at high angles of attack. Their
purpose is to provide better slow speed handling and stall
characteristics.

Spring tabs are similar in appearance to trim tabs, but serve Up through the stall, induced drag is greatest when the airfoil
an entirely different purpose. Spring tabs are used for the is producing the greatest amount of lift. This occurs when the
same purpose as hydraulic actuators to aid the pilot in angle of attack is the greatest such as during the low speed
moving the primary control surface. conditions during takeoff, climb and landing. Parasitic and
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 12] profile drag are greatest at higher speeds when the aircraft is
typically in cruise flight.

The trim tab is connected to the fixed surface of the The compression effect becomes more important as speed
horizontal stabilizer and operated by a separate control. increases. Near and beyond the speed of sound, about 760
Servo and balance tabs are attached too, and so move mph (at sea level), sharp disturbances generate a shockwave
together with the corresponding control surface. that affects both the lift and drag of an aircraft and flow
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 12] conditions downstream of the shockwave. The shockwave
forms a cone of pressurized air molecules, which move
outward and rearward in all directions and extend to the
ground. The sharp release of the pressure, after the buildup
by the shockwave, is heard as the sonic boom.

QUESTIONS
2-25 AMA081 2-28 AMA060

Which of the three major steps are for rigging of the various The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the pilot to
flight control systems? compensate for and/or accomplish which of the following?
1. Placing the control system in a specific position— A. Attitude and airspeed.
holding it in position with pins, clamps, or jigs, then B. Lateral and yaw position.
adjusting the various linkages to fit the immobilized C. Torque and directional control.
control component.
2. Placing the control surfaces in a specific reference
position—using a rigging jig, a precision bubble
protractor, or a spirit level to check the angular
difference between the control surface and some fixed
surface on the aircraft.
3. Setting the maximum range of travel of the various
components—this adjustment limits the physical
movement of the control system.
A. 1 and 3.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1, 2, and 3.
2-26 AMA091 2-29 AMA091

What configuration of a rotary-wing aircraft has two When a helicopter’s rotor blade rotates from front to rear, its
horizontal rotors that provide both lift and directional control? pitch, as controlled by an articulated rotor head
A. Autogyro A. decreases.
B. Single rotor helicopter B. increases.
C. Dual rotor helicopter C. moves to neutral.
2-27 AMA091 2-30 AMA060

What do the foot pedals control on a helicopter? Regarding gyroscopic forces, the movement of the cyclic
A. The pitch of the tail rotor blades. pitch control changes the AOA of each blade an appropriate
B. The RPM of the tail rotor blades. amount so that the end result is the same in what type of
C. The angle of the disk of the tail rotor. rotor system?
A. One-blade rotor system.
B. Two-blade rotor system.
C. Three or more blade rotor system.

ANSWERS

All of the statements make up the three major steps for The force that compensates for torque and provides for
rigging various flight control, the order listed is also correct. directional control can be produced by various means. The
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 16] defining factor is dictated by the design of the helicopter,
some of which do not have a torque issue. Single main rotor
designs typically have an auxiliary rotor located on the end of
the tail boom. This auxiliary rotor, generally referred to as a
tail rotor, produces thrust in the direction opposite the torque
reaction developed by the main rotor.

An aircraft with two horizontal rotors that provide both the lift As a helicopter moves forward, the relative wind over
and directional control is a dual rotor helicopter. The rotors the retreating blade decreases. Therefore to maintain a
are counterrotating to balance the aerodynamic torque and balanced amount of lift produced as the blade advances,
eliminate the need for a separate antitorque system. an articulated rotor head increases the pitch of that
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 18] retreating blade.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 18 and 21]

Through input from the left and right foot pedals, the In a rotor system using three or more blades, the movement
tail rotor produces thrust in the opposite direction to of the cyclic pitch control changes the AOA of each blade an
the torque produced by the main rotor by increasing or appropriate amount so that the end result is the same.
decreasing the angle of attack of the tail rotor blades. This [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 20-23]
thrust both prevents the helicopter from spinning on its
vertical axis and also points the nose in a desired direction
when maneuvering.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 19, 30]

QUESTIONS
2-31 AMA091 2-34 AMA060

What helicopter flight condition is also known as the law of The rotorcraft control device that senses rotor and engine
conservation of angular momentum? RPM and makes the necessary adjustments in order to keep
A. Ground Effect rotor RPM constant is the
B. Coriolis Effect A. throttle control.
C. Translating Tendency B. swash plate assembly.
C. governor.
2-32 AMA091 2-35 AMA060

___________ is the differential lift between advancing and Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a helicopter is
retreating halves of the rotor disk caused by the different effected by movement of the
wind flow velocity across each half. A. cyclic pitch control.
A. Dissymmetry of lift B. collective pitch control.
B. Translational lift C. tail rotor pitch control.
C. Effective translational lift
2-33 AMA062 2-36 AMA011

A freewheeling unit is used in which form of helicopter flight Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a helicopter is
A. forward flight. effected by movement of the
B. hovering flight. A. collective.
C. autorotation. B. cyclic.
C. pedals.

ANSWERS

The Coriolis Effect is also referred to as the law of A governor is a sensing device that senses rotor and engine
conservation of angular momentum. It states that the value of RPM and makes the necessary adjustments in order to keep
angular momentum of a rotating body does not change unless rotor RPM constant. Once the rotor RPM is set in normal
an external force is applied. In other words, a rotating body operations, the governor keeps the RPM constant, and there
continues to rotate with the same rotational velocity until some is no need to make any throttle adjustments.
external force is applied to change the speed of rotation. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 29-30]

Dissymmetry of lift is the differential (unequal) lift between This primary flight control allows the pilot to fly the helicopter
advancing and retreating halves of the rotor disk caused in any horizontal direction: fore, aft, and sideways.
by the different wind flow velocity across each half. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 30]
This difference in lift would cause the helicopter to be
uncontrollable in any situation other than hovering in a calm
wind. There must be a means of compensating, correcting,
or eliminating this unequal lift to attain symmetry of lift.

Autorotation is permitted mechanically by a freewheeling This primary flight control allows the pilot to fly the helicopter
unit, which is a special clutch mechanism that allows in any horizontal direction: fore, aft, and sideways.
the main rotor to continue turning even if the engine is [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 30]
not running. If the engine fails, the freewheeling unit
automatically disengages the engine from the main rotor
allowing the main rotor to rotate freely. It is the means
by which a helicopter can be landed safely in the event
of an engine failure; consequently, all helicopters must
demonstrate this capability in order to be certificated.

QUESTIONS
2-37 AMA060 2-40 AMA091

Which helicopter stabilizer system reduces the pilot Which type of blade tracking is accomplished with tracking
workload by improving basic aircraft control harmony and tip cap reflectors and a strobe light?
decreasing disturbances? A. Electronic Blade
A. Offset flapping hinge. B. Flag and Pole
B. Bell stabilizer bar system. C. Marking Method
C. Stability augmentation system.
2-38 AMA091 2-41 AMA091

If a helicopter is said to have a vibration of 4/rev to 6/rev, Which tail rotor tracking method utilizes a six-inch piece of
which frequency vibration type would it be? rubber hose attached to the end of a 1/2 × 1/2 inch pine stick
A. Low frequency vibration. or flexible device?
B. Medium frequency vibration. A. Electronic Method
C. High frequency vibration. B. Marking Method
C. Neither
2-39 AMA091 2-42 AMA062

During helicopter operation; if manifold pressure is high, and Out of the list below, which component(s) are not part of the
RPM is low _______________. helicopter transmission system?
A. raise the collective pitch. 1. Freewheeling Unit
B. increase the throttle RPM. 2. Main Rotor Transmission
C. lower the collective pitch. 3. Reciprocating Engine
4. Clutch
5. Tail Rotor Drive System
A. 1 and 5
B. 3
C. 1 and 2

ANSWERS

Stability Augmentation System (SAS) reduces pilot workload One of the most common electronic blade tracker is the
by improving basic aircraft control harmony and decreasing Strobex blade tracker. It permits blade tracking from inside
disturbances. These systems are very useful when the pilot or outside the helicopter while on the ground or inside the
is required to perform other duties, such as sling loading and helicopter in flight. Tracking can be accomplished with
search and rescue operations. tracking tip cap reflectors and a strobe light. The tip caps
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 32] are temporarily attached to the tip of each blade. The
high-intensity strobe light flashes in time with the rotating
blades. The strobe light operates from the aircraft electrical
power supply. By observing the reflected tip cap image, it is
possible to view the track of the rotating blades. Tracking is
accomplished in a sequence of four separate steps: ground
tracking, hover verification, forward flight tracking, and auto
rotation RPM adjustment.

Medium frequency vibration (4/rev and 6/rev) is another Procedures for tail rotor tracking using the marking method:
vibration inherent in most rotors. An increase in the level after replacement or installation of tail rotor hub, blades,
of these vibrations is caused by a change in the capability or pitch change system, check tail rotor rigging and track
of the fuselage to absorb vibration, or a loose airframe tail rotor blades. Tail rotor tip clearance shall be set before
component, such as the skids, vibrating at that frequency. tracking and checked again after tracking; and the strobe-
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 32] type tracking device may be used if available. Instructions
for use are provided with the device. Attach a piece of soft
rubber hose six inches long on the end of a 1/2 × 1/2 inch
pine stick or other flexible device. Cover the rubber hose with
Prussian blue or similar type of coloring thinned with oil.

Lowering the collective pitch decreases manifold pressure The transmission system transfers power from the engine to
and increases RPM. Raising it does the opposite. Increasing the main rotor, tail rotor, and other accessories during normal
the throttle increases both manifold pressure and RPM. flight conditions. The main components of the transmission
Reducing the throttle does the opposite. system are the main rotor transmission, tail rotor drive
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 29] system, clutch, and freewheeling unit.

QUESTIONS
2-43 AMA062 2-46 AMA081

One purpose of the freewheeling unit required between the After repairing a control surface the flight control balance
engine and the helicopter transmission is to condition may be determined by
A. disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve the A. suspending the control surface from its leading
starter load. edge in the streamline position and checking
B. automatically disengage the rotor from the engine in weight distribution.
case of an engine failure. B. the behavior of the trailing edge when the surface is
C. permit practice of autorotation landings. suspended from its hinge points.
C. checking for equal distribution of weight throughout
the control surface.
2-44 AMA062 2-47 AMA081

What is the purpose of the freewheeling unit in a helicopter After repairing or recovering a rudder, the surface should
drive system? be rebalanced
A. It releases the rotor brake for starting. A. in its normal flight position.
B. It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades B. to its span wise axis.
during starting. C. to manufacturer’s specifications.
C. It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops or
slows below the equivalent rotor RPM.
2-45 AMA100 2-48 AMA099

A tail-heavy condition that causes undesirable flight Other than the manufacturer maintenance manual what other
performance and is not usually allowed is referred to as document could be used to determine the primary flight
A. static underbalance. control surface deflection for an imported aircraft that is
B. dynamic balance. reassembled after shipment?
C. static overbalance. A. The certificate of airworthiness issued by the
importing country.
B. The import manual for the aircraft.
C. The aircraft type certificate data sheet.

ANSWERS

Since lift in a helicopter is provided by rotating airfoils, Very often, repairs to a control surface require static
these airfoils must be free to rotate if the engine fails. The rebalancing of the control surface. The control surface must
freewheeling unit automatically disengages the engine from be permitted to rotate freely about the hinge points without
the main rotor when engine RPM is less than main rotor binding. Balance condition is determined by the behavior
RPM. This allows the main rotor and tail rotor to continue of the trailing edge when the surface is suspended from its
turning at normal in-flight speeds. hinge points.

Since lift in a helicopter is provided by rotating airfoils, Several methods of balancing (rebalancing) control surfaces
these airfoils must be free to rotate if the engine fails. The are in use by the various manufacturers of aircraft. Several
freewheeling unit automatically disengages the engine from methods of balancing (rebalancing) control surfaces
the main rotor when engine RPM is less than main rotor are in use by the various manufacturers of aircraft. The
RPM. This allows the main rotor and tail rotor to continue manufacturer’s maintenance manual and service instructions
turning at normal in-flight speeds. must be followed and all precautions observed when
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 38] handling the weights.

A tail-heavy condition (static underbalance) causes The Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) is a formal
undesirable flight performance and is not usually allowed. description of an aircraft, engine, or propeller. It is issued
Better flight operations are gained by nose‑heavy static by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) when the
overbalance. Most manufacturers advocate the existence of FAA determines that the product meets the applicable
nose‑heavy control surfaces. requirements for certification under 14 CFR. It lists the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 38] limitations and information required for type certification,
including airspeed limits, weight limits, control surface
movements, engine make and model, minimum crew,
fuel type, thrust limits, RPM limits, etc., and the various
components eligible for installation on the product.

QUESTIONS
2-49 AMA070 2-52 AMA038

Which manual would be used to locate the "life limits" of What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft
a product or its components that must be complied with primary control systems?
during inspections and maintenance? A. 1/8 inch
A. Structural Repair Manual (SRM) B. 1/4 inch
B. Maintenance Manual C. 5/16 inch
C. Manufacturer’s Service Information
2-50 AMA020 2-53 AMA038

Which of these two publications are required for reference Identify the cable that is used in primary control systems and
if you are reinstalling the flap assembly of an aircraft which in other place where operation over pulleys is frequent?
weighs more than 12,500 pounds? A. 2
A. Manufacturer’s Maintenance Manual and B. 1
Illustrated Parts Catalog. C. 3
B. Manufacturer’s Maintenance Manual and
Type Certificate Data Sheets.
C. Advisory Circular AC43.13 1B/2B and Illustrated
Parts Catalog.
1 2 3
2-51 AMA038 2-54 AMA038

The vast majority of aircraft control cables are terminated If all instructions issued by the swaging tool manufacturer
with swaged terminals that must be are followed when swaging a cable terminal, the resultant
A. corrosion treated to show compliance with the swaged terminal strength should be
manufacturers requirements after the swaging operation. A. the full rated strength of the cable.
B. pull tested to show compliance with the manufactures B. 70% of the full rated strength of the cable.
requirements after the swaging operation. C. 80% of the full rated strength of the cable.
C. checked with a no-no-go gauge before and after, to
show compliance with the manufacturers requirements
after the swaging operation.

ANSWERS

A maintenance manual is developed by the manufacturer of Cable designations are based on the number of strands
the applicable product and provides the recommended and and wires in each strand. The 7 × 19 cable is made up of
acceptable procedures to be followed when maintaining or seven strands of 19 wires each. Six of these strands are laid
repairing that product. Maintenance personnel are required around the center strand. This cable is very flexible and is
by regulation to follow the applicable instructions set forth by used in primary control systems and in other locations where
the manufacturer. The limitations section of the manual lists operation over pulleys is frequent. See Figure 2-65, in the
"life limits" of the product or its components that must be Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, which specifies that
complied with during inspections and maintenance. 7 × 19 wire comes in diameters form 1/8-inch to 3/8-inch.

The Illustrated Parts Catalog is required to identify the The 7 × 19 cable is made up of seven strands of 19 wires
correct parts and specific hardware required for the each. Six of these strands are laid around the center strand.
installation. Type Certificate Data Sheets do not include This cable is very flexible and is used in primary control
maintenance instructions. AC43.13 only specifies procedures systems and in other locations where operation over pulleys
for aircraft under 12,500 pounds when current maintenance is frequent.
manuals do not exist. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 42]

When swaging tools are used, it is imperative that all the Compliance with all of the instructions should result in the
manufacturer’s instructions, including ‘go’ and ‘no-go’ terminal developing the full-rated strength of the cable.
dimensions, be followed exactly to avoid defective and [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 42-43]
inferior swaging.

QUESTIONS
2-55 AMA038 2-58 AMA038

What nondestructive checking method is normally used A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a
to ensure that the correct amount of swaging has taken large all metal aircraft is used primarily to
place when installing swaged-type terminals of aircraft A. provide a means of changing cable tension in flight.
control cable? B. maintain a given tension automatically.
A. Check the surface of the swaged portion of the terminal C. increase the cable tension in cold weather.
for small cracks which indicated incomplete swaging.
B. Measure the finished length of the terminal barrel and
compare with the beginning length.
C. Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the
swaged portion of terminal.
2-56 AMA038 2-59 AMA038

Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control cable When a control cable is properly rigged, which cable system
and running it back and forth over the length of the cable is installation item is the small extra push that is needed for the
generally a satisfactory method of _____________. flight deck control to hit its mechanical stop?
A. applying anti-corrosion lubricant A. Cable Connectors
B. inspecting for wear or corrosion B. Spring-backs
C. inspecting for broken wires C. Turnbuckles
2-57 AMA038 2-60 AMA021

Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control cable pulley If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing heavy, this
groove is evidence of condition may be corrected by
A. excessive cable tension. A. increasing the dihedral angle of the left wing, or
B. pulley misalignment. decreasing the dihedral angle of the right wing, or both.
C. cable misalignment. B. increasing the angle of the incidence of the left wing,
or decreasing the angle of incidence of the right wing,
or both.
C. adjusting the dihedral angle of the left wing so that
differential pressure between the upper and lower wing
surfaces is increased.

ANSWERS

Using a go/no-go gauge supplied by the swaging tool Cable tension regulators are used in some flight control
manufacturer or a micrometer and swaging chart, check the systems because there is considerable difference in
terminal shank diameter for proper dimension. temperature expansion of the aluminum aircraft structure
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 43] and the steel control cables. Some large aircraft incorporate
tension regulators in the control cable systems to maintain a
given cable tension automatically.

Close inspection in these critical fatigue areas can be With a control cable properly rigged, the fight control should
performed by rubbing a rag along the cable. If there are any hit its stops at both extremes prior to the fight deck control.
broken strands, the rag snags on the cable. A more detailed The spring-back is the small extra push that is needed for the
inspection can be performed in areas that may be corroded fight deck control to hit its mechanical stop.
or indicate a fatigue failure by loosing or removing the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 46]
cable and bending it. This technique reveals internal broken
strands not readily apparent from the outside.

Excess wear on both sides of a pulley groove indicate that A wing heavy condition is an out-of-trim flight condition in
the pulley is misaligned from the direction of travel of the which an airplane flies hands off, with one wing low. With
cable. Had the cable been offset to the left or right, only a few exceptions, the dihedral and incidence angles of
that side of the cable would show wear. Had the cable conventional modern aircraft cannot be adjusted. Some
been excessively tight, wear would show on the inside of manufacturers permit adjusting the wing angle of incidence
the groove. to correct for a wing-heavy condition. The dihedral and
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 44] incidence angles should be checked after hard landings or
after experiencing abnormal flight loads to ensure that the
components are not distorted and that the angles are within
the specified limits.

QUESTIONS
2-61 AMA020 2-64 AMA020

During an airplane rigging process, a grid plate and plumb If the vertical stabilizer of a single engine, propeller driven
bob are used when _________________. airplane is rigged properly, it should be perpendicular to the
A. jacking the aircraft A. longitudinal axis.
B. checking the aircraft weight and balance B. vertical axis.
C. measuring symmetry between opposing components C. lateral axis.
2-62 AMA020 2-65 AMA070

Checking engine alignment on a multi engine aircraft Where would you find precise information to perform a
typically involves the use of which tool? symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft?
A. A level device. A. Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet
B. A plumb bob and grid. B. Manufacturer’s Service Bulletins
C. A measuring line. C. Aircraft Service or Maintenance Manual
2-63 AMA019 2-66 AMA038

Proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed wing can Using the chart below, when the outside temperature is 80°F,
usually be checked by utilizing a select the acceptable 3/16 cable tension range.
A. plum bob, string, and straightedge. A. 130 pounds minimum, 140 pounds maximum
B. straightedge, tape measure, and carpenter’s square. B. 120 pounds minimum, 140 pounds maximum
C. incidence board described by the manufacturer. C. 117 pounds minimum, 143 pounds maximum
Design limit rig load (tolerance +/- 10%)

ANSWERS

When a large aircraft is jacked to a level position, a plumb After the rigging of the horizontal stabilizer has been
bob is suspended from a predetermined position over a grid checked, the verticality of the vertical stabilizer relative to the
plate. Necessary adjustments to the jacks are indicated on lateral datum can be checked. The measurements are taken
the grid scale, and thus jacking heights can be adjusted from a given point on either side of the top of the fin to a
as needed. given point on the left and right horizontal stabilizers.

An engine alignment (or symmetry) check on a multi engine When performing a symmetry alignment check the precise
aircraft ensures that the thrust line of each engine aligns with figures, tolerances, and checkpoints for a particular aircraft
the other within factory limits. This is done be measuring the are found in the applicable service or maintenance manual.
distance from a specified point on each engine to a specified [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 52]
point on the fuselage.

Incidence is usually checked in at least two specified To use the chart, determine the outside air temperature
positions on the surface of the wing to ensure that the wing (80°F), follow the 80°F line up until it intersects the curve
is free from twist. A variety of incidence boards is used to for 3/16" cable. Extend a horizontal line from the point of
check the incidence angle. intersection to the right edge of the chart. The value at this
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 50] point indicates the tension, rigging load in pounds, + or –
10%, to establish on the cable. In this example, the tension
should be between 117 and 143 pounds.
Design limit rig load (tolerance +/- 10%)

QUESTIONS
2-67 AMA081 2-70 AMA088

A universal propeller protractor, used to measure the degrees An aircraft that is required by Section 94.409, to
of aileron travel, should be zeroed have a 100-hour inspection may be flown beyond the
A. with the aileron in the DOWN position. inspection requirement
B. with the aileron in the NEUTRAL position. A. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection
C. when the aircraft is in a level flight attitude. can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10 flight hours.
B. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can
be accomplished, but a special flight permit is necessary.
C. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection
can be accomplished, but not to exceed 15 flight hours.
2-68 AMA011 2-71 AMA090

When safety wiring 2 standard thread bolts to each other, in Which of the following is true regarding the use of a checklist
which direction should the safety wire be positioned? when performing an annual inspection of a light aircraft?
A. Both bolts should be pulled clockwise by the A. The use of a checklist provided by the aircraft
safety wire. manufacturer is required.
B. Both bolts should be pulled counterclockwise by B. The use of a checklist created by the inspector
the safety wire. is acceptable.
C. Each bolt should be pulled opposite to the other; one C. The use of a checklist by a licensed A&P mechanics
clockwise and the other counter clockwise. is recommended but not required.
2-69 AMA088 2-72 AMA088

An aircraft self locking nut is identified with a gold coloring. Where would you find the operating conditions that make a
What is this nut designed for? 100-hour inspection mandatory?
A. Location with high temperatures. A. 14 CFR part 91
B. Locations subjected to corrosion. B. 14 CFR part 43
C. Locations where frequent removal is required. C. AC 43.13-2B

ANSWERS

In order for a control system to function properly, it must An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in hours or
be correctly adjusted. Correctly rigged control surfaces days when routine and detailed inspections will be performed,
move through a prescribed arc (surface- throw) and are and including instructions for exceeding an inspection interval
synchronized with the movement of the flight deck controls. by not more than 10 hours while en route, and for changing an
Therefore, the explanations in this chapter are limited to the inspection interval because of service experience.
three general steps listed below: [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 62]
1. Lock the flight deck control, bellcranks, and the control
surfaces in the neutral position.
2. Adjust the cable tension, maintaining the rudder,
elevators, or ailerons in the neutral position.
3. Adjust the control stops to limit the control surface travel
to the dimensions given for the aircraft being rigged.

A standard thread bolt turns clockwise to tighten, Thus 14 CFR Part 43 requires that each person performing
the safety wire should be aligned to pull both bolts in a a scheduled inspection must use a checklist. While a
clockwise direction. checklist created by the manufacturer is preferred, one
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 54-55] published in another source or even created by the
inspector is acceptable.

Cadmium plated nuts (gold in color) offer exceptionally A 100-hour inspection is required when an aircraft is
good corrosion protection but should not be used where operated under 14 CFR part 91 and used for hire, such as
temperatures can exceed 450 degree. Non-self locking flight training. It is required to be performed every 100 hours
nuts should be used when frequent removal is expected of service in addition to the annual inspection.
and secured instead with safety wire, cotter pins or other [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 62]
temporary safety locking devices.

QUESTIONS
2-73 AMA088 2-76 AMA088

Large airplanes and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes In order to legally operate an on-board air traffic control
operated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, General transponder, the transponder must have been inspected and
Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected re-approved for service ______________.
A. in accordance with a continuous airworthiness A. within the preceding 12 months
maintenance program (camp program) authorized B. as a part of the aircraft’s last 100 hour or
under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E. annual inspection
B. in accordance with the progressive inspection C. within the preceding 24 months
requirements of Federal Aviation Regulation Section
91.409(d).
C. in accordance with an inspection program authorized
under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
2-74 AMA088 2-77 AMA088

What determines whether an aircraft must have a 100 hour Who is authorized to change the batteries on a portable
inspection or an annual inspection? Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)?
A. Whether or not the aircraft is used for hire. A. A licensed A&P mechanic.
B. The progressive inspection schedule as approved B. A technician at a certified avionics shop licensed
by FAA. under part 91.413.
C. Manufacturer’s requirements and the presence of an C. Any person, including the pilot.
approved maintenance manual.
2-75 AMA096 2-78 AMA089

Each static pressure system, altimeter instrument, and According to regulation, for long must a record a completed
automatic pressure altitude reporting system, must be tested annual inspection be retained?
and inspected of an airplane or helicopter that was operated A. For 3 years for the date of return to service.
in controlled airspace under instrument flight rules (IFR) B. Indefinitely as a part of the aircraft log.
within the preceding ________ calendar months. C. For one year.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24

ANSWERS

Inspection requirements for large airplanes (over 12,500 Any person using an air traffic control (ATC) transponder
lbs) are found under 14 CFR part 91, section 91.409, to must have had, within the preceding 24 calendar months,
include paragraphs (e) and (f). Paragraph (e) applies to that transponder tested and inspected and found to comply
large airplanes (to which 14 CFR part 125 is not applicable), with 14 CFR part 43, Appendix F.
turbojet multiengine airplanes, turbo propeller powered [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 63]
multiengine airplanes, and turbine powered rotorcraft.
Paragraph (f) lists the inspection programs that can be
selected under paragraph (e).

A 100 hour inspection is required when an aircraft is Under 14 CFR part 43, section 43.3g; battery removal
operated under CFR Part 91 for hire. Examples include flight and reinstallation on a portable ELT is considered simple
instruction charters, tours, or any other scenario in which preventative maintenance and can thus be performed by the
compensation is earned. An annual inspection is sufficient pilot, owner, or operator.
when only private use of the aircraft is performed. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 63]

To comply with 14 CFR part 43, Appendix E, any person FAR part 43.15 requires that the owner/operator of the
operating an airplane or helicopter in controlled airspace aircraft retains the records of an inspection until the
under IFR must have had each static pressure system, each work/inspection is repeated or for one year after the work
altimeter instrument and each automatic pressure altitude is performed.
reporting system tested and inspected within the preceding [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 64]
24 calendar months.

QUESTIONS
2-79 AMA088 2-81 AMA088

Which regulation applies to airplanes having a seating If you are operating under an Experimental certificate for a
capacity of 20 or more passengers or a maximum payload Light Sport Aircraft, weight-shift control aircraft or a powered
capacity of 6,000 pounds or more? parachute, what type of inspection is required?
A. Title 14 CFR part 125, section 125.247 A. Annual inspection.
B. Continuous Airworthiness Maintenance Program B. Condition inspection once every 12 months.
(CAMP) C. 100-Hour inspection.
C. Title 14 CFR part 91
2-80 AMA088 2-82 AMA057

Which of the following additional components for rotorcrafts Before a annual inspection, an initial run up is conducted to
are required by a person completing an inspection under check rigging of
14 CFR part 91 in accordance with the maintenance manual? 1. full power and idle RPM.
1. The drive shaft or similar systems. 2. positive switch grounding.
2. The main rotor and center section (or the equivalent are. 3. fuel mixture check.
3. The auxiliary rotor. A. 1 and 3
4. The main rotor transmission gear box for obvious defects. B. 2 only
A. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1, 2, and 3
B. All of the above
C. 2, 3, and 4

ANSWERS

Title 14 CFR part 125, section 125.247 applies to airplanes When operating under an Experimental certificated issued
having a seating capacity of 20 or more passengers or a for the purpose of operating Light Sport Aircraft, these
maximum payload capacity of 6,000 pounds or more. aircraft must have a condition inspection performed once
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 68] every 12 months.

A piston-engine helicopter can be inspected in accordance Initial run-up provides an assessment to the condition of
with the scope and detail of 14 CFR part 43, Appendix D the engine prior to performing the inspection. The run-up
for an Annual Inspection. However, there are additional should include full power and idle RPM, magneto operation,
performance rules for inspections under 14 CFR part 43, including positive switch grounding, fuel mixture check, oil
section 43.15, requiring that each person performing an and fuel pressure, and cylinder head and oil temperatures.
inspection under 14 CFR part 91 on a rotorcraft, shall [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 65]
inspect these additional components in accordance with
the maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued
Airworthiness of the manufacturer concerned: the drive shaft
or similar systems, the main rotor transmission gear box for
obvious defects; the main rotor and center section (or the
equivalent area); and the auxiliary rotor.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
2-1(O). What material are aircraft control cables made?
2-2(O). What instrument is used to determine the amount of tension on a cable?
2-3(O). How can you inspect for broken wires of a control cable?
2-4(O). What is the purpose of a turnbuckle?
2-5(O). What are used to guide cables as well as change the direction of cable movement?
2-6(O). Why are push rods used as links in the flight control system?
2-7(O). When are torque tubes used in a control system?
2-8(O). What must be accomplished after repairing a control surface the flight control balance condition?
2-9(O). Where will you find the procedures and specifications for rigging an aircraft?
2-10(O). List the three main primary flight controls on an aircraft.
2-11(O). What is the purpose of trim tabs on a flight control surface?
2-12(O). What is the main purpose of a Stability Augmentation Systems (SAS)?
2-13(O). Name the three basic classifications of rotors found on helicopters.
2-14(O). How is pylon rock reduced in a helicopter?

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
2-15(O). What are the most common causes of high frequency vibrations within a helicopter?
2-16(O). Explain rotor blade tracking.
2-17(O). Describe the general procedure for leveling a small aircraft after jacking.
2-18(O). Explain a grid plate as it relates to aircraft leveling.
2-19(O). If an aircraft must be jacked outside, how should the aircraft be positioned?
2-20(O). Define a progressive inspection.
2-21(O). What regulation authorizes the use of a progressive inspection?
2-22(O). How often must the altimeter instrument and automatic pressure altitude reporting system must be tested and
inspected for an aircraft operated in controlled airspace under instrument flight rules (IFR)?
2-23(O). Can a 100-hour inspection be overflown?
2-24(O). When must an aircraft owner/operator comply with an airworthiness directive?
2-25(O). What information needs to be included when recording the approval for return to service of an aircraft after a
100-hour or annual inspection?
2-26(O). What regulation governs the operating conditions that make a 100-hour inspection mandatory?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
2-1(O). Carbon steel or stainless (corrosion resistant) steel.
2-2(O). A tensiononometer.
2-3(O). Wrap a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control cable and run it back and forth over the length of the
cable. A more detailed inspection can be performed by loosening or removing the cable and bending it. This
technique reveals internal broken strands not readily apparent from the outside.
2-4(O). It is used for making minor adjustments in cable length and for adjusting cable tension.
2-5(O). Pulleys.
2-6(O). Push rods provide both a push and a pull motion.

2-7(O). When an angular or twisting motion is needed in a control system.

2-8(O). Repairs to a control surface require static rebalancing of the control surface.
2-9(O). Rigging procedures are detailed in the applicable manufacturer’s maintenance or service manuals and
applicable structural repair manuals. Additionally, aircraft specification or type certificate data sheets (TCDS)
also provide information regarding control surface movement and weight and balance limits.
2-10(O). Ailerons, elevator, and the rudder.

2-11(O). To enable the pilot to trim out any unbalanced condition that may exist during flight, without exerting any
pressure on the primary controls.
2-12(O). Reduces pilot workload by improving basic aircraft control harmony and decreasing disturbances.
2-13(O). Rigid, semirigid, or fully articulated.

2-14(O). To keep the vibration from reaching noticeable levels, transmission mount dampening is incorporated to
absorb the rocking.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
2-15(O). The most common and obvious causes: loose elevator linkage at swashplate horn, loose elevator, or tail rotor
balance and track.
2-16(O). Blade tracking is the process of determining the positions of the tips of the rotor blade relative to each other
while the rotor head is turning, and of determining the corrections necessary to hold these positions within
certain tolerances.
2-17(O). A spirit level and a straight edge are placed across the fixed pegs or blocks generally attached to the fuselage
parallel with the datum lines.
2-18(O). The grid plate is a permanent fixture installed on the aircraft floor or supporting structure. To level the aircraft,
a plumb bob is suspended from a predetermined position in the ceiling of the aircraft over the grid plate. The
adjustments to the jacks necessary to level the aircraft are indicated on the grid scale. The aircraft is level
when the plumb bob is suspended over the center point of the grid.
2-19(O). The aircraft should be positioned with the nose into the wind.
2-20(O). This is an inspection that may be used in place of an annual or 100-hour inspection. It has the same scope as
an annual inspection, but it may be performed in increments so the aircraft will not have to be out of service
for an extended period.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 02 Page G-28]
2-21(O). 14 CFR part 91, section 91.409(d)

2-22(O). 24 months
2-23(O). Yes, the maximum time a 100-hour inspection may be extended is 10 hours, if required, to reach a
maintenance facility to conduct the inspection.
2-24(O). Always, compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in the maintenance records.
2-25(O). Type inspection and a brief description, the date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service, the
signature, the certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for
return to service, and for the annual and 100-hour inspection, if the aircraft is found to be airworthy and
approved for return to service, enter the following statement: "I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in
accordance with a (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in airworthy condition."
2-26(O). When used for compensation or hire, or used for flight training when used for flight training provided by a
flight instructor.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
2-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, required tools, appropriate publications check or set the tension of a
control surface cable and record maintenance.
2-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, required tools, appropriate publications install a control surface and
record maintenance.
2-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, required tools, appropriate publications check the static balance of a
control surface and record findings.
2-4(P). Given a specific helicopter model and the maintenance manuals, locate the procedures for rigging
a helicopter.
2-5(P). Given a specific helicopter model and the maintenance manuals, locate helicopter rotor blade
tracking procedures.
2-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the maintenance manuals, identify fixed-wing aircraft rigging
adjustment locations.
2-7(P). Given the appropriate publications for a specific aircraft, locate leveling methods and procedures for a
specific aircraft.
2-8(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, inspect a flight control system for travel and security and record findings.
2-9(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, inspect a primary flight control cable and document your findings.
2-10(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, required tools, and appropriate publications install one or more swaged
cable terminals, check them with the appropriate gage and record maintenance.
2-11(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, required tools, and appropriate publications install one or more Nicopress
sleeves, check with the appropriate gage and record maintenance.
2-12(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, required tools, and appropriate publications check, adjust as necessary a
push-pull flight control system and record maintenance.
2-13(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate publications for a specific aircraft, locate jacking
points and leveling locations.
2-14(P). Given the appropriate publications for a specific aircraft, determine the jacking requirements for a
particular aircraft.
2-15(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, required tools, and appropriate publications jack an aircraft or portion
thereof, e.g., as appropriate for tire/wheel change, or gear retraction.
2-16(P). Given a sample of an aircraft maintenance record, determine if inspection and/or maintenance is due and
record findings.
2-17(P). Given an actual aircraft, mockup, or component, accomplish a 14 CFR part 91 required inspection and record
your findings.
2-18(P). Given an actual aircraft, mockup, or component, accomplish an inspection after maintenance or preventive
maintenance and record your findings.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
2-19(P). Given a specific aircraft and condition, determine the placarding requirements and record results.
2-20(P). Given a specific aircraft and specific operating conditions, determine if all required instruments and equipment
are installed as outlined in 14 CFR part 91 and record findings.
2-21(P). Given an actual aircraft, mockup, or component, required tools, and appropriate publications accomplish a
conformity inspection and record your findings.
2-22(P). Given the required documentation, generate a checklist for conducting a 100-hour airframe inspection on a
specific aircraft.

AIRCRAFT FABRIC COVERING CHAPTER
Fabric Terms, Legal Aspects, Approved Materials, Covering Processes, Determining Fabric
Condition, Fabric Strength, Cotton and Polyester
03
QUESTIONS
3-1 AMA040 3-4 AMA040

What is the purpose of a Selvedge edge woven into the When a fabric seam must be made where there is no
edges of fabric or finishing tape? structure underneath, what method is typically used to
A. Prevents the woven fabric from unraveling. attach the seam?
B. Creates a smooth edge negating the need for additional A. Reinforcing tape
finishing tape. B. A Sewn seam
C. Allows fabric to lay down smoothly around C. Fabric cement
contoured shapes.
3-2 AMA088 3-5 AMA040

An aircraft comes to you with a worn fabric covering. You Fabric rejuvenator is used to
replace that fabric with a different type of fabric which has A. restore fabric strength and tautness to at least the
previously been approved for that aircraft by an STC. This is minimum acceptable level.
considered by FAA as _____________. B. restore the condition of dope coatings.
A. a major alteration C. penetrate the fabric and restore fungicidal resistance.
B. a minor repair
C. a major repair
3-3 AMA040 3-6 AMA040

Which type of fabric tape is used on protrusions such as a Fungus and mildew have no effect on
strut fitting to help prevent the base fabric from tearing? A. cotton fabric.
A. Reinforcing Tape B. linen fabric.
B. Surface Tape C. polyester fabric.
C. Anti-Chafe Tape

AIRCRAFT FABRIC COVERING
ANSWERS

A selvedged edge produced during a fabrics manufacture When a fabric seam must be made with no structure
locks the other fabric threads into place to prevent the edges underneath a sewn seam can be used. Fabric cement is
from unraveling. The edge of a piece of fabric which is cut used only to attach fabric to pieces of structure. Reinforcing
to size, thus eliminating the selvedged edge should be done tape is used after the primary fabric covering is installed to
so only with pinking shears as an alternative method to protect or strengthen areas for attaching the fabric to ribs.
limit raveling. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 6]

According to 14CFR Part 43, changing parts of a wing, tail Rejuvenator is a finishing material used to restore resilience
section or the fuselage when not listed in the original aircraft to an old dope film. It contains strong solvents to open the
specifications is considered a major alteration. An FAA form dried out film and plasticizers to restore resilience to the
337 needs to be approved by a certificated A&P mechanic old dope.
with Inspection Authorization for this alteration to be legal. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 8]

Anti-chafe tape provides a smooth surface on protrusions As fungus and mildew do not effect polyester or glass fabric,
or metal seams underneath the base sections of fabric. It is fungicidal and mildewcidal additives are not required with
applied after the aircraft is inspected and primed, but before these materials. On organic fabrics such as cotton and linen,
the primary fabric covering is installed. modern topcoats formulas with premixed anti-fungal agents
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 5] typically provide sufficient insurance from these problems.

QUESTIONS
3-7 AMA040 3-10 AMA040

Which of the following is a factor for the selection of the Fabric testing using a mechanical punch tester should
correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any be done?
type of aircraft? A. On a point of fabric on which all coating layers
A. The aircraft Vne (never exceed speed). are intact.
B. The aircraft Vc (design cruising speed). B. On a point of fabric where there is a crack or chip in
C. The aircraft’s maximum weight. the coatings.
C. On a point of fabric that was purposely left uncoated
during the covering process to serve as a test point for
this purpose.
3-8 AMA088 3-11 AMA040

If an aircraft was originally certified with a Grade A Cotton Prior to covering, wing ribs are anchored in place to prevent
covering with a breaking strength of 80 pounds, but then movement during the covering process by
the cotton covering was later replaced with a polyester A. gussets placed at all points of attachment.
fabric with a breaking strength of 70 pounds, at what tested B. braces placed at 8" intervals connecting one rib to
strength must the new fabric again be replaced the next.
A. 56 pounds. C. wrapping strips of fabric snugly from one rib to
B. 49 pounds. the next.
C. 80 pounds.
3-9 AMA090 3-12 AMA040

How is it determined whether a test strip of fabric must When a seam is required in an area of critical airflow such as
be cut from the aircraft structure to determine the fabric’s a leading edge, the minimum amount of fabric overlap is
strength during an annual or 100-hour inspection? A. 2-4 inches.
A. Determined by time in service based on the B. 4-6 inches.
manufacturer’s requirement. C. two times the diameter of the leading edge structure to
B. Determined by an IA based on his/her knowledge which it is wrapped.
and experience.
C. Determined by passage or failure of a punch test.

ANSWERS

Vne is the maximum speed an aircraft is certified to fly Fabric testing should be done on uncovered pieces of fabric
in any condition. Therefore, all structural factors must be so as not to compromise the test by the stiffness of the
sufficient to handle these loads. The second factor when coatings. If a chipped or cracked point of fabric can not
selecting fabric is maximum wing loading which represents be found in an upper surface area (exposed to UV light) a
the maximum pressure per square foot due to the aircraft small piece of coating should be removed to expose a point
weight. The actual total weight of the aircraft is not a factor. for testing.

To maintain airworthiness, the fabric must not deteriorate Inter-rib bracing holds ribs in place during the covering
to a breaking strength of less than 70% of the originally process. A single wrap without adhesive is enough to hold
certified material. each rib in place but still allowing small movements during
80 pounds × 70% = 56 pounds the final shrinking process.

Although failure of a punch test usually indicates a need to Typically 2-4 inches of fabric overlap is required where the
recover an aircraft, the decision of whether a test strip must be ends of fabric are joined in areas of critical airflow. In other
cut from the aircraft to determine fabric strength is determined areas 1-2 inches of overlap is sufficient.
by an IA based on his/her knowledge and experience. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 16]

QUESTIONS
3-13 AMA040 3-16 AMA040

When heat shrinking fabric on a wing, in order to get even On a tail dragger aircraft drain grommets in the wing are
tightness and a wrinkle free result, it is best to work usually placed
A. from the root end of the wing outwards to the tips. A. in each rib bay at the lowest point when the aircraft is
B. from the center section first, then work outwards in flight attitude.
to the ends. B. in each rib bay at the bottom of the trailing edge.
C. from each end first, then work inwards to the center. C. in each rib bay at the bottom of the leading edge.
3-14 AMA040 3-17 AMA040

Because of the propeller slipstream, rib lace spacing is When and how is finishing tape applied on a fabric
closer than outside the slipstream area: the size of the covered aircraft?
slipstream area is considered to be A. Doped on after sealer coats but prior to the finish coat.
A. the propeller diameter plus one additional rib. B. Doped on after primary fabric doping but before
B. twice the propeller diameter. sealer coats.
C. the propeller diameter added to the distance from the C. Sewn or laced on before dope is applied.
propeller to the leading edge.
3-15 AMA040 3-18 AMA040

Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose Which layer of coating on a fabric aircraft contains the
A. to provide additional anti-wear resistance under aluminum pigments used to block ultraviolet rays from
reinforcement tape. damaging the fabric?
B. to help prevent "ripple formation" in covering fabric. A. Sealer Coat
C. to provide additional wear resistance over the edges of B. Fill Coat
fabric forming structures. C. Primer Coat

ANSWERS

Moving the calibrated heating iron from one end to the other As the greatest opportunity for moisture to enter the wing is
and then inwards from each end to the center is more likely when the aircraft is parked, the trailing edge becomes the
to evenly draw the fabric tight with a minimum of wrinkles. lowest point where most moisture will accumulate. Therefore,
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 17] drain grommets should be located against the trailing edge.

Because of greater turbulence in the area of the prop wash, Finishing tape is applied with dope to cover all seams and
unless manufacturer’s instructions state otherwise, the edges including those created by the installation of any
slipstream area is considered to be the propeller diameter rings, grommets, and gussets. It is the final pieces of fabric
plus one additional rib. to be installed with the chordwise strips being installed first
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 18] followed by the spanwise strips.

Finishing tape is applied to protect the seams, edges, and Fill coats contain premixed aluminum solids to block UV rays
above the wing ribs by smoothing aerodynamic resistance and are applied as the second coating step following the
and so lessening abrasion and helping to prevent it from first sealer coat and before the primer coat. The fourth final
coming loose in flight. topcoat is then applied.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
3-1(O). What factors are used to determine the proper type of aircraft fabric covering material for an aircraft?
3-2(O). What are some of the approved aircraft fabric coverings and systems?
3-3(O). What kinds of seams are used on fabric coverings?
3-4(O). Explain the terms, ‘warp’, ‘fill’, and ‘bias’ as they refer to aircraft fabric.
3-5(O). Why is structure surface preparation important and when is this performed?
3-6(O). What covering methods are commonly used when recovering fabric-covered aircraft?
3-7(O). How is the fabric covering attached to the airframe?
3-8(O). What areas on aircraft coverings are most susceptible to deterioration?
3-9(O). How is aircraft covering protection and preservation typically accomplished?
3-10(O). How does the technician determine repair procedures for fabric coverings?
3-11(O). What is a major concern when inspecting fabric covering that has been damaged?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
3-1(O). When a fabric covered aircraft is certified, the aircraft manufacturer uses materials and techniques approved
under the type certificate. The same material and techniques must be used to recover the aircraft. However,
FAA approved exceptions exist. A Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) for the aircraft in question can be
approved by the FAA and materials and techniques there-in may then be used instead of those on the original
type certificate. A field approval from the local Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) may also be granted.
This provides one-time permission to use materials and techniques other that those found on the original
Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS). Note that a Form 337 is executed for a field approval. Another method of
using materials and techniques not on the original TCDS is when a manufacturer secures approval for a new
process. The new process, materials and techniques, is then available for use by operators of that aircraft.
Accepting these legal aspects, an owner/ operator may have a choice of more than one recovering process. A
personal decision has to be made as to which approved process is preferred.
3-2(O). Ceconite™, Polyfiber™, and Superflight™ are currently approved fabrics for aircraft. The companies that own
and sell these fabrics have been awarded Parts Manufacturer’s Approvals (PMA’s) to legally do so. The holders
of the PMA also developed and gained approval for the various tapes, chords, threads, and liquids to be used
as well as the procedures and techniques involved. Processes for covering fabric aircraft can also be approved
independently of a particular fabric and may enable the use of more than one fabric using the same ancillary
products and process approved as an approved process. Approved covering system processes are: Air Tech,
Stewart System, Ceconite™/ Randolf System, Stits/Poly-Fiber™, and Superflight™ Systems 1 and VI.
3-3(O). There are two methods of covering an aircraft with fabric. In the envelope method, sewn envelopes for the
aircraft surfaces to be covered are used. The sewn seams are executed in accordance with approved data
and the technician simply installs the fabric in accordance with the STC or manufacturer’s instructions. In
the blanket method, a large sheet of approved fabric is draped over the aircraft part, such as a wing, and it is
seamed to fit the part using doped or glued seams. In this method, guidelines for seam overlap and placement
must be followed by the technician. Some leeway exists as to where to place doped or glued seams so the
looks of the finished job can be maximized.
3-4(O). The warp of a fabric is the direction along the length of a fabric. The fill, or weave, of a fabric is the direction
across the width of the fabric. These terms can be used to refer to the fibers that make up the fabric. Fabric
bias refers to a cut, fold, or seam made diagonally to the warp and fill.
3-5(O). Since polyester aircraft fabric covering last so long, before recovering an aircraft, while the old fabric has
been removed, a thorough inspection, cleaning, and repairs to the airframe should be performed. It is a rare
opportunity to have the structure of the aircraft fully exposed and the technician must take the opportunity
to inspect and correct any discrepancies found such as cracks, corrosion, chips, indentations, oil spots, etc.
This cleaning, inspection, and repair should involve the IA that is approving the major repair or alteration that
is the recovering process. Removal of glue and treatment of leading edges are required to gain maximum
performance from the recovering products. Treatment of the structure with primer or a varnish may be
prescribed for good adhesion of the fabric but also for protection of the structure. The exposure of the entire
structure also allows taping over sharp edges, metal seams, rivet heads and any other feature that might wear
through the fabric once installed. Inter-rib bracing, if required, can be done while the structure is fully exposed.
This holds the ribs in place during the covering process.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
3-6(O). Two basic methods are used when covering an aircraft with fabric. One is the envelope method. In this
method, fabric envelopes are pre-sewn to closely fit the components of the aircraft being covered (i.e. wings,
fuselage, etc.). The manufacturer then ships these to the technician who installs them on the airframe. The
other method is known as the blanket method. Here, the technician uses multiple flat sections of fabric which
are trimmed and attached to the airframe.
3-7(O). A polyester fabric covering is cemented or glued to the airframe structure at all points where it makes contact.
Special formula adhesives have replaced nitrate dope for adhesion in most covering processes. Fabric on
wings must be secured to the wing ribs with more than just cement. Screws, rivets, clips, and lacing are used
depending on the manufacturer’s approved technique.
3-8(O). The only significant cause of deterioration of polyester fabric comes from ultra violet (UV) light. Therefore the
upper, sun-exposed surfaces of the aircraft covering are the most affected. To protect these areas, sealer
coats of product containing UV inhibitors are sprayed on the fabric during the finishing process applied to the
covering material.
3-9(O). Once all finishing tapes have been installed on the fabric, a sealer coat is applied. This coat saturates and
completely surrounds the fibers in the polyester fabric, forming a barrier that keeps water and contaminants from
reaching the fabric during its life. It is usually brushed on in a cross coat application for thorough penetration.
Two coats are common. Some processes vary on how many coats and whether spray coating is permitted.
3-10(O). Repairs to fabric covering are inevitable. Always inspect a damaged area to ensure the damage is confined
to the fabric and does not involve the structure below. The source of approved data for the covering job is the
same source of approved data for any repair made to that covering. Thus, if the fabric was installed under an
STC, the STC holder has included repair procedures and techniques in the STC which the technician is require
to follow for a repair of that fabric. If the fabric covering was approved under the aircraft manufacturer’s type
certificate, then the technician must follow the manufacturer’s instruction for any repair.
3-11(O). When inspecting a fabric covering that has been damaged it is import to inspect closely to determine the
extent of the damage and determine that it is confined to the fabric alone or whether it includes the structure
below the fabric. A repair to the fabric only which covers damage to the structure is unacceptable and
potentially dangerous.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
3-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, inspect the repair of a damaged covering for airworthiness and record
your findings.
3-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, test a finished covering sample to determine acceptability of strength and
3-3(P). Given the appropriate publications for a specific aircraft, determine the minimum fabric strength
covering requirements.
3-4(P). Given a covering sample, determine if it has the appropriate identification markings.
3-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup with a defect, determine the acceptable repairs and summarize your findings.
3-6(P). Given a sample of a damaged fabric-covered surface, determine the classification, either major or minor of the
repair; document your findings and include the reference to the appropriate publications that were consulted.
3-7(P). Given a specific aircraft and associated publications, locate the requirements for a repair of a specified fabric
covering defect.

AIRCRAFT METAL STRUCTURAL REPAIR CHAPTER
Hole Drilling, Forming Tools, Sheet Metal Holding Devices, Aluminum Alloys, Structural
Fasteners, Forming Operations, and Repairability
04
QUESTIONS
4-1 AMA094 4-4 AMA029

Which of the following stresses is a riveted joint primarily When driving out a tight pin or bolt, two punch types are
designed to resist? often used in this order. What are they?
A. Bearing Stresses A. An awl; and then a drive punch.
B. Tension Stresses B. A drive punch; and then a pin punch.
C. Shearing Stresses C. A center punch; and then a chassis punch.
4-2 AMA017 4-5 AMA017

Which is the force that tries to pull two sheets apart? When removing a damaged section on a stringer, the best
A. Bearing saw to use is a
B. Torsion A. reciprocating saw.
C. Bending B. Kett saw.
C. circular cutting saw.
4-3 AMA017 4-6 AMA017

When using a combination square with a center head Which shears have an upper cutting blade that is stationary
to determine the exact center of a shaft, how many while the lower blade is movable?
measurements must be taken? A. Throatless Shears
A. 1 B. Scroll Shears
B. 2 C. Squaring Shears
C. 4

AIRCRAFT METAL STRUCTURAL REPAIR
ANSWERS

Rivets should not be used in tension applications because The usual method for driving out a pin or bolt is to start
the tension strength of a rivet is quite low compared to its working it out with a drive punch until the shank of the punch
shear strength. In addition, a joint held together by multiple is touching the sides of the hole. Then use the correct size
rivets resists shear by the combined strength of all the rivets. pin punch to drive the pin or bolt the rest of the way out of
When the primary stress is bearing or tension, only some of the hole.
the rivets (typically the end rivets) work to secure the joint. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 6-7]

When a top sheet is bearing against the bottom sheet, the Since the head of the Kett saw can be turned to any desired
fasteners holding the sheets together are pressing top sheet angle, it is useful for removing damaged sections on a
against bottom sheet. Bearing stress is the force that tries stringer. The pneumatic circular cutting saw, useful for
to pull two fastened sheets of material apart. Bearing stress cutting out damage as well, is similar to the Kett saw. The
resists the force applied by the rivet or bolt placed to hold advantages of a Kett saw include:
the sheets together. 1. Can cut metal up to 3/16-inch in thickness.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 3] 2. No starting hole is required.
3. A cut can be started anywhere on a sheet of metal.
4. Can cut an inside or outside radius.

Two measurements (or steps) must be taken. First, place the Scroll shears are used for cutting irregular lines on the
shaft perpendicular to the square within the center head and inside of a sheet without cutting through to the edge. The
draw a line along the square’s rule. Next, rotate the shaft upper cutting blade is stationary while the lower blade is
approximately 90 degrees and draw a second line. Where movable. A handle connected to the lower blade operates
the lines intersect is the center. the machine.

QUESTIONS
4-7 AMA017 4-10 AMA029

When needing to quickly remove corners from sheet metal, When drilling in tough metals like corrosion-resistant steel
the best tool to use is a and titanium, which drill bit would be used?
A. band saw. A. Step Drill Bits
B. rotary punch press. B. Cobalt Alloy Drill Bits
C. notcher. C. Twist Drill Bits
4-8 AMA017 4-11 AMA029

To polish surfaces, which is the best tool or tools to use? Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a
1. Disk Sander drilled hole to the correct size?
2. Belt Sander A. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.
3. Wet Or Dry Grinder B. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when
4. Grinding Wheels starting the cut and reduce the pressure when
A. 1 and 4 finishing the cut.
B. All of the above C. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging
C. 2 and 3 the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from
the hole.
4-9 AMA029 4-12 AMA029

Which drill bit size is the largest in diameter? Which drill accessory or accessories aid in holding the drill
A. Number 30 drill perpendicular to the part?
B. Number 40 drill 1. Drill Stop
C. Letter A drill 2. Drill Bushing
3. Drill Holder
A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 3

ANSWERS

The notcher is used to cut out metal parts, with some Cobalt alloy drill bits are designed for hard, tough metals like
machines capable of shearing, squaring, and trimming metal. corrosion-resistant steel and titanium. It is important for the
The notcher consists of a top and bottom die and most often aircraft technician to note the difference between HSS and
cuts at a 90° angle, although some machines can cut metal cobalt, because HSS drill bits wear out quickly when drilling
into angles up to 180°. Notchers are available in manual titanium or stainless.
and pneumatic models able to cut various thicknesses of [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 17]
mild steel and aluminum. This is an excellent tool for quickly
removing corners from sheet metal parts.

Disk sanders have a powered abrasive-covered disk or belt Reamer flutes are not designed to remove chips like a drill.
and are used for smoothing or polishing surfaces. Also, Do not attempt to withdraw a reamer by turning it in the
grinding wheels are removable. A polishing or buffing wheel reverse direction. Chips can be forced into the material
can be substituted for the abrasive wheel. surface scarring the hole.

Numbered drill sizes are ranked in descending order from There are several types of tools available that aid in holding
the smallest #80 drill at 0.135" to the largest #1 drill at .2280 the drill perpendicular to the part. They consist of a hardened
inches. Lettered drills are ranked in ascending order from bushing anchored in a holder. Some holder types are:
an A drill at .2340 to a Z drill at .4130. All larger are ranked in standard, egg cup, plate, and arm.
fractional sizes only. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 20]

QUESTIONS
4-13 AMA058 4-16 AMA029

Annealing of aluminum Which forming technique is usually limited to relatively flat
A. increases the tensile strength. parts with flanges, beads, and lightening holes?
B. makes the material brittle. A. Stretch Forming
C. removes stresses caused by forming. B. Drop Hammer
C. Hydropress Forming
4-14 AMA094 4-17 AMA094

Any bend formed on a bar folder can also be made on the Which tool is used to stretch and thin a piece of metal before
1. press brake. forming it into a desired shape?
2. cornice brake. A. A piccolo former.
3. box and pan brake. B. An english wheel.
A. 2 and 3 C. A stretch former.
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2, and 3
4-15 AMA094 4-18 AMA094

Which of these tools would be used to form a bead down the All the following are shrinking and stretching tools or
center of a piece of sheet metal? devices, except?
A. Rotary Machine 1. Dollies and Stakes
B. Slip Roll Former 2. Hardwood Form Blocks
C. Stretch Former 3. Sandbags
4. C-Clamp
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1

ANSWERS

Annealing aluminum makes the metal soft for forming. Hydropress forming is usually limited to relatively flat parts
Forming the metal (stretching, bending, crimping, etc.), with flanges, beads, and lightening holes. However, some
work hardens the aluminum. It may need to be re-annealed types of large radii contoured parts can be formed by a
before the entire job of forming the metal is complete as it combination of hand forming and pressing operations.
may become too brittle to form without damaging it. The [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 24-25]
annealing removes stresses caused by forming.

A brake is similar to a bar folder because it is also used for The English wheel, a popular type of metal forming tool
turning or bending the edges of sheet metal. The cornice used to create double curves in metal, has two steel wheels
brake is more useful than the bar folder because its design between which metal is formed. The English wheel is
allows the sheet metal to be folded or formed to pass through primarily a stretching machine, so it stretches and thins the
the jaws from front to rear without obstruction. In contrast, metal before forming it into the desired shape. Thus, the
the bar folder can form a bend or edge only as wide as the operator must be careful not to over-stretch the metal.
depth of its jaws. Thus, any bend formed on a bar folder [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 25-26]
can also be made on the cornice brake. The box and pan
brake can be used to do everything that the cornice brake
can do. Since most cornice brakes and box and pan brakes
are limited to a maximum forming capacity of approximately
0.090 inch annealed aluminum, 0.063-inch 7075T6, or 0.063-
inch stainless steel, operations that require the forming of
thicker and more complex parts use a press brake.

The rotary machine is used on flat stock to form a curved Clamps and vises hold materials in place when it is not
edge or place a bead along a particular length of the possible to handle a tool and the work piece at the same
material. A slip roller is used to form a straight piece of time. A clamp is a fastening device with movable jaws that
sheet into an even large radius curved piece. Stretch has opposing, often adjustable, sides or parts. The C-clamp
forming involves shaping a piece of sheet metal over a is shaped like a large C and has three main parts: threaded
preformed block. screw, jaw, and swivel head.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 23-24] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 26-29]

QUESTIONS
4-19 AMA017 4-22 AMA017

What is the benefit of adding magnesium to an aluminum A rivet with an identifying code of
alloy, such as with aluminum alloy 3003? MS20 426 DD 6 6 _____________.
A. Improved corrosion resistance. A. may be used as is from the manufacturer
B. Increased hardness. B. must be refrigerated upon receipt to maintain
C. Increased malleability. their hardness
C. must be annealed before use
4-20 AMA016 4-23 AMA017

When fabricating parts from Alclad™ 2024-T3 aluminum What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum
sheet stock alloy rivets after heat treatment?
A. bends should be made with a small radius to develop A. To retard age hardening.
maximum strength. B. To relieve internal stresses.
B. all bends must be 90° to the grain. C. To accelerate age hardening.
C. all scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be
held to a minimum.
4-21 AMA017 4-24 AMA016

Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because What is generally the best procedure to use when removing
of their a solid shank rivet?
A. low strength characteristics. A. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a
B. tendency toward embrittlement when subjected drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove
to vibration. the rivet with a punch.
C. high alloy content. B. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a
drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet
with a punch.
C. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a
shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch.

ANSWERS

Aluminum alloy 3003 is similar to Aluminum 1100 except for DD rivets will age harden quickly and so must be annealed
containing a small amount of magnesium. Doing so retains before use. Storing DD rivets in a freezer will somewhat delay
most qualities of Aluminum 1100 except for increasing its the hardening process and may be used immediately after
strength and hardness. removal from the freezer. DD rivets are now less common
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 30] and have been replaced with E type rivets which may be
used in its received condition.

Cladding of any aluminum alloy is performed to prevent Some rivet alloys, such a DD rivets (alloy 2024-T4), are too
corrosion. Therefore, all scratches, kinks, tool marks, hard to drive in the condition they are received and must be
nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum to ensure the annealed before they can be installed. Typically, these rivets
integrity of the cladding. Fiber-tipped pens are used when are annealed and stored in a freezer to retard hardening,
marking directly on aluminum because graphite in a No. which has led to the nickname "ice box rivets". They are
2 pencil can cause corrosion. Marking part layout on the removed from the freezer just prior to use.
protective plastic membrane is preferred, or tape the piece [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 32]
with masking tape and do the layout on the tape if the
membrane has been removed.

Alloy code "A" rivets are pure 1100 aluminum or 3003 When removing a rivet, work on the manufactured head.
aluminum alloy. They have the lowest shear strength of all Use a drill bit one size smaller than the rivet shank to drill out
common aluminum rivets and are for nonstructural uses only. the rivet head. Drill the rivet to the depths of its head while
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 33] holding the drill at a 90 degree angle. The rivet head often
breaks away and climbs the drill which is a signal to withdraw
the drill. Drive the remaining rivet shank out with a drift punch
slightly smaller than the rivet shank diameter.

QUESTIONS
4-25 AMA017 4-28 AMA017

What is the angle of the standard countersunk head rivet? Which rivet size should be used to join two sheets of
A. 105° .032 aluminum?
B. 100° A. MS20455AD5-3
C. 88° B. MS20425D4-3
C. MS20470AD4-4
4-26 AMA017 4-29 AMA011

MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersink rivet which has The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets
A. an overall length of 5/16 inch. indicate the
B. a shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head). A. degree of dimensional and process control observed
C. a shank length of 5/32 inch (excluding head). during manufacture.
B. specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets.
C. head shape, shank size, material used, and
specifications adhered to during manufacture.
4-27 AMA058 4-30 AMA017

A DD rivet is heat treated before use to Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?
A. soften to facilitate riveting. A. 2117-T3
B. harden and increase strength. B. 2017-T3
C. relieve internal stresses. C. 2024-T4

ANSWERS

The countersunk head angle can vary from 60° to 120°, As a general rule, the rivet diameter or shank size is equal
but the 100° has been adopted as standard because this to 2.5 – 3 times the thickness of the thicker sheet. Or, take
head style provides the best possible compromise between the skin thickness (.032) multiply by 3 (.032 × 3 = .096) and
tension/shear strength and flushness requirements. use the next larger size of rivet. Diameter of rivets come in
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 31] 32nd inch intervals and are represented in the rivet identifier
by the first dash number. The next largest size of rivet would
be 4/32 (.1250). So 4 will be the first dash number in the
rivet identifier. To find the length of the rivet to be used, the
grip length is added to the length needed to form the shop
head. The grip length is the total thickness of the materials
(.032 + 032 = .064). The amount needed for the shop head
is 1.5 times the shank size being used (1.5 × .1250 = .1875).
So, the grip length (.064) plus the length needed for the shop
head (.1875) equals (.064 + .1875) = .25. Rivet length is the
last dash number in the rivet identifier represented in 16th’s
of an inch. Since .2515 is closest to 4/16th’s of an inch, the
last dash number is 4. Therefore, the answer is C because
it is a rivet that has a 4/32nd’s diameter (dash 4) and a
4/16th’s length (dash 4).

The last number in the identifying code indicates the length Standard rivet alloy code marking are manufactured onto
of the rivet in sixteenths of an inch. The 426 indicates that the heads of rivets for quick identification. For example, alloy
this is a countersunk rivet. code A rivets have no head markings; alloy code AD have a
Countersunk rivets are measured using the overall length. dimple on the head; alloy code D rivets have a raised dot, etc.

Some rivet alloys, such as DD rivets, are too hard to drive in The 2117-T rivet is used for general repair work, since it
the received condition and must be annealed before they can requires no heat treatment, is fairly soft and strong, and is
be installed. Annealing softens the alloy. highly corrosion resistant when used with most types of
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 32] alloys. Always consult the maintenance manual for correct
rivet type and material.

QUESTIONS
4-31 AMA017 4-34 AMA017

Most rivets used in aircraft repair have Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because
A. a raised dot. they _________________.
B. smooth heads without markings. A. can be heat treated faster than the other forms
C. dimples. of aluminum
B. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated
aluminum alloys
C. are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys
4-32 AMA017 4-35 AMA017

A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of The length of rivet to be chosen when making a structural
0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are repair that involves the joining of 0.032 inch and 0.064 inch
drilled for 3/32 inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be aluminum sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is
used will be A. 1/4 inch.
A. 5/16 inch. B. 7/16 inch.
B. 1/4 inch. C. 5/16 inch.
C. 1/8 inch.
4-33 AMA017 4-36 AMA094

A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of The shop head of a rivet should be
0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are A. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
drilled for 1/8 inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used B. one and one-half times the diameter of the
will be manufactured head of the rivet.
A. 5/16 inch. C. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
B. 3/16 inch.
C. 5/32 inch.

ANSWERS

The AD rivet is the most frequently used in aircraft repair. While aluminum alloys are lightweight and strong, they
AD rivets are identified by a dimple marked on the head of do not possess the corrosion resistance qualities of pure
the rivet. aluminum itself. Therefore with a Alclad process a thin
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 32-33] coating of pure aluminum is placed on the alloyed material
as a protective coating

The length of the rivet is calculated by adding the grip or A number 30 drill is used to drill a hole for a 1/8 inch
total thickness of the material to be riveted (2 × .040 = .080) diameter rivet (.125 inch). Therefore, the grip of the rivet plus
plus the amount needed to form the shop head. The amount the amount of rivet needed to form the shop head can be
needed to form the shop head is 1.5 times the rivet diameter calculated to obtain the rivet length required. The grip is .096
(1.5 × 3/32 or 1.5 × .0937 = .141). So, the grip (.080) plus (.032 + .064). The amount to form the proper sized shop head
the length needed to form the shop head (.141) equals .221. is .1875 (1.5 × .125). Added together, the result is the length of
Therefore, the length of the rivet needed must be the closest the rivet required (.096 + .1875 = .2835).
to .221 which is a rivet with a length of .250 or 1/4 inch. .2835 is closest in size to a 5/16 rivet.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 33] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 33 & 40]

The length of the rivet is calculated by adding the grip or The amount of rivet shank needed to form a proper shop head
total thickness of the material to be riveted (2 × .0625 = .125) equals one and a half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
plus the amount needed to form the shop head. The amount [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 33]
needed to form the shop head is 1.5 times the rivet diameter
(1.5 × 1/8 or 1.5 × .1250 = .1875). So, the grip (.125) plus the
length needed to form the shop head (.1875) equals .31.
Therefore, the length of the rivet needed must be the closest
to .3125 which is a rivet with a length of .3125 or 5/16 inch.

QUESTIONS
4-37 AMA016 4-40 AMA094

Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated A single lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section of
A. to a temperature of 910 to 930°F and quenched in damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of 1/8 inch rivets is
cold water. used, the minimum allowable overlap will be
B. by the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment A. 3/4 inch.
before being driven. B. 13/16 inch.
C. by the manufacturer and require reheat treatment C. 1/2 inch.
before being driven.
4-38 AMA016 4-41 AMA094

When repairing a small hole on a piece of metal, the major What is the minimum spacing for a single row of aircraft rivets?
consideration in the design of the patch should be A. Three times the length of the rivet shank.
A. that the bond between the patch and the skin is B. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank.
sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion. C. Two times the diameter of the river shank.
B. the shear strength of the riveted joint.
C. to use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the skin.
4-39 AMA094 4-42 AMA094

How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach A factor which determines the minimum space between
a 10 × 5 inch plate, using a single row of rivets, minimum rivets is the
edge distance, and 4D spacing? A. diameter of the rivets being used.
A. 54 B. length of the rivets being used.
B. 56 C. thickness of the material being riveted.
C. 52

ANSWERS

The 2117 rivet is used for general repair work, since it requires The minimum edge distance for a non-countersunk rivet is 2D
no heat treatment, is fairly soft and strong, and is highly (2 × 1/8 = 1/4). The edge distance must be maintained from
corrosion resistant when used with most types of alloys. the edge of the overlapped splice on both ends of the lap
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 33-34] sheet. Therefore 2 × 2D or 2 × 1/4 = 1/2. This is the minimum
length of overlap for a single row of rivets with the proper
edge distance on both ends. However, a second row of rivets
is called for. Staggering the rivets allows a closer spacing of
rivet rows. The distance from the first row to the second row of
staggered rivets is called transverse pitch. It is calculated off
of the pitch between the rivets in the first row. The minimum
pitch between rivets in the first row is 3D or 3/8 inch (3 × 1/8).
Transverse pitch is 75% of the rivet pitch of the first row (.75 ×
.375 = .28125 or 3/4 × 3/8 = 9/32 = .28125). Thus, the minimum
4-38 Answer B. amount allowed for edge distance (1/2) plus the transverse
Shear is one of two stresses applied to rivets. The shear distance between the first and second row (9/32) must be
strength is the amount of force required to cut a rivet that added together to obtain the minimum length of the overlap
holds two or more sheets of material together. Tension is the sheet (1/2 + 9/32 = 25/32 = 781. From the answers given, A
other stress applied to rivets. While rivet spacing is important, (.75) and C (.5) are both shorter than .781. Answer B (13/16 or
consideration for rivet spacing depends more on the size of .8125) is slightly longer than the calculated minimum of .78125
the rivet since a patch is being discussed. Dissimilar metal so it is the minimum allowable overlap.
corrosion occurs largely irrelevant of bond strength. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 35]
4-41 Answer B.
The minimum spacing between rivets in a single row is three
times the diameter of the rivet shank.
4-39 Answer B. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 35]
The diameter of the rivet used is 1/8 inch because the -4 in
the rivet identifier indicates 4/32 inch. Therefore, rivet spacing
is 1/2 inch (4D = 4 × 1/8 = 1/2 inch). Minimum edge distance
is 1/4 inch (2D = 2 × 1/8 = 2/8 = 1/4 inch). Maximum edge
distance is 1/2 inch (4D = 4 × 1/8 = 1/2 inch). The general
rule for rivet spacing, as it applies to a straight row layout,
is quite simple. In a one-row layout, find the edge distance
at each end of the row and then lay off the rivet pitch. The
rectangular plate using a single row of rivets has two 10-inch
long sides and two 5- inch long sides. Edge distance must
be maintained at both ends of each row. Therefore, two times 4-42 Answer A.
edge distance must be subtracted from each dimension. 10 Rivet pitch is the distance between the centers of
inches minus 2 × 1/4 inch edge distance (1/2 inch) equals 9 neighboring rivets in the same row. The smallest allowable
1/2 inches. Spacing the rivets 1/2 inch apart requires 19 rivets rivet pitch is 3 rivet diameters.
for each 10- inch side. 5 inches minus 1/2 inch equals 4 1/2 [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 35] ]
inch. Spacing of rivets 1/2 inch apart requires 9 rivets for each
5-inch side. Add all of the rivets required:
19 + 19 + 9 + 9 = 56 rivets.

QUESTIONS
4-43 AMA094 4-46 AMA017

Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between the _____________ is/are used if the smoothness of the material,
A. head of the rivets in the same row. such as skin, requires that all countersunk rivets be driven
B. centers of the rivets in adjacent rows. within a specific tolerance.
C. centers of adjacent rivets in the same row. A. Rivet Sets/headers
B. Compression riveting
C. Microshavers
4-44 AMA094 4-47 AMA040

Rivet pitch is the distance between the As compared to aluminum alloy sheet, when drilling stainless
A. centers of adjacent rivets in the same row. steel sheet, good practice is to drill at a _____________.
B. heads of rivets in the same row. A. higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill
C. centers of rivets in adjacent rows. B. lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill
C. lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill
4-45 AMA017 4-48 AMA016

A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should The form of dimpling that should only be used when the
A. be nearly flat on the end, with a light radius on the edge regular male die is broken or not available is
to prevent damage to the sheet being riveted. A. hot dimpling.
B. have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head and B. radius dimpling.
contact the center two thirds of the rivet head. C. coin dimpling.
C. have the same radius as the rivet head.

ANSWERS

Transverse pitch is the distance between staggered rivet rows. A microshaver is used if the smoothness of the material (such
Rows that are not staggered use normal rivet spacing rules. as skin) requires that all countersunk rivets be driven within
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 35] a specific tolerance. This tool has a cutter, a stop, and two
legs or stabilizers. The cutting portion of the microshaver is
inside the stop. When the microshaver is adjusted and held
correctly, it can cut the head of a countersunk rivet to within
.002 inch without damaging the surrounding material.

Rivet spacing is measure between the centerline of rivets When drilling stainless steel, use an HSS drill bit ground to
in the same row. Rivet pitch is the distance between the an included angle of 135°. Keep the drill speed about 1/2 that
centers of neighboring rivets in the same row. required for drilling mild steel but never exceed 750 RPM.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 34] Drilling speed for aluminum is 200 to 300 surface feet per
minute (sfm). For mild steel, it is 30 to 50 sfm. Thus, drilling
stainless steel would require a speed lower than aluminum.
Keep a uniform pressure on the drill so the feed is constant
at all times and be sure pressure is on the drill bit when
rotation begins.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 16 & 83]

The MS20470 rivet is a universal head rivet. Non- flush rivet The coin dimpling, or coin pressing, method uses a
headers (sets) should fit to contact the center two-thirds of countersink rivet as the male dimpling die. Place the female
the rivet head. They must be shallow enough to allow slight die in the usual position and back it with a bucking bar. Place
upsetting of the head in driving and some misalignment the rivet of the required type into the hole and strike the rivet
without eyebrowing the riveted surface. A header that is too with a pneumatic riveting hammer. Coin dimpling should be
small marks the rivet; while one too large marks the material. used only when the regular male die is broken or not available.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 39] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 43-44]

QUESTIONS
4-49 AMA016 4-52 AMA011

Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial CherryMAX and Olympic-Lok rivets
A. bearing failure. A. may be installed with ordinary hand tools.
B. torsion failure. B. utilize a pulling tool for installation.
C. shear failure. C. utilize a rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar
for installation.
4-50 AMA016 4-53 AMA011

What type of loads cause the most rivet failures? One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over
A. Shear earlier generations is
B. Head A. the squeezed on collar installation provides a more
C. Bearing secure, tighter fit.
B. they can be removed and reused again.
C. they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.
4-51 AMA011 4-54 AMA011

Which blind rivet was designed to prevent the problem of A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension and
losing the center stem due to vibration? shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the
A. Friction-locked blind rivet A. method of installation.
B. Mechanical-lock blind rivet B. number of locking collar grooves.
C. High-shear fastener C. shape of the head.

ANSWERS

If, upon examination, the rivet shank appears ogled and the The CherryMax® mechanical-lock blind rivet is popular with
holes in the sheet are misaligned, the rivet has failed in shear. general aviation repair shops because it features the one tool
Joggles in removed rivet shanks indicate partial shear failure. concept for installation.
In this case, try to determine what is causing the shearing [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 49]
stress and take necessary corrective action. Replacement
with the next largest diameter rivet may be possible.

Aircraft structural joint design involves an attempt to find the The advantages of Hi-Lok® two-piece fastener includes its
optimum strength relationship between being critical in shear light weight, high fatigue resistance, high strength, and its
and critical in bearing (shear and bearing are the two primary inability to be over torqued. The hex tip of an Allen wrench
loads put on a riveted structure). When critical in shear, the engages the recess to prevent rotation of the pin while the
rivets fail if less than the optimal number of fasteners are collar is being installed. The collar has wrenching flats which
installed. When bearing is a cause of failure, the material are used to install it.
cracks or tears but the rivets remain intact. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 51]

The self-plugging, mechanical-lock blind rivet was developed The easiest way to differentiate between tension and shear
to prevent the problem of losing the center stem due to pins is the number of locking grooves. The tension pins
vibration. This rivet has a device on the puller or rivet head normally have four locking grooves and shear pins have two
that locks the center stem into place when installed. locking grooves.

QUESTIONS
4-55 AMA011 4-58 AMA094

Threaded rivets (Rivnuts® or rivet nuts) are commonly used to Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the
A. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where shear A. radius of the neutral axis plus one half the thickness of
strength is desired. the metal being formed.
B. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where bearing B. inside radius of the metal being formed.
strength is desired. C. inside radius plus one half the thickness of the metal
C. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. being formed.
4-56 AMA011 4-59 AMA094

Which of the following rivets is not a nonstructural A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The
blind fastener? curvature of the bend is referred to as the
A. Pop rivet A. bend radius.
B. Mechanical lock blind rivet B. bend allowance.
C. Pull through nut plate blind rivet C. neutral line.
4-57 AMA094 4-60 AMA094

Which forming operation involves shaping and forming The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal from which
malleable metal by hammering or tapping with a rubber, a simple L shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 inch is to be bent
plastic or rawhide mallet? depends upon the radius of the desired bend. The bracket
A. Shrinking which will require the greatest amount of material is one
B. Bumping which has a bend radius of
C. Crimping A. 1/2 inch.
B. 1/4 inch.
C. 1/8 inch.

ANSWERS

Rivnuts® are used for the installation of fairings, trim, Bend radius is the arc that is formed when sheet metal is
and lightly loaded fittings that must be installed after an bent. The bend radius is measured from a radius center to
assembly is completed. Often used for parts that are the inside surface of the metal. It is the radius of the bend
removed frequently, the rivet nut is available in flat head or measured on the inside of the curved material.
countersunk versions. They are installed by crimping from [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 60 & 62]
one side. The rivet nut provides a threaded hole into which a
machine screw can be installed.

The nonstructural blind fasteners are: pop rivets (a common Bend radius is the arc that is formed when sheet metal is
pull-type rivet produced for non-aircraft related applications) bent. The bend radius is measured from a radius center to
and pull-through nut plate blind rivets (used where the high the inside surface of the metal. It is the radius of the bend
shear strength of solid rivets is not required or if there is no measured on the inside of the curved material.
access to install a solid rivet). [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 60 & 62]

Bumping involves shaping or forming malleable metal by The radius of the bend is generally proportional to the
hammering or tapping—usually with a rubber, plastic, or thickness of the material. Furthermore, the sharper the radius
rawhide mallet. During this process, the metal is supported of bend, the less material that is needed for the bend. Since
by a dolly, a sandbag, or a die. Each contains a depression the bend allowance must be subtracted from the total length
into which hammered portions of the metal can sink. of the L bracket flat layout, (3 inches + 1 inch = 4 inches),
Bumping can be done by hand or by machine. the overall length of the flat layout will be longest with the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 58-59] sharpest radius.

QUESTIONS
4-61 AMA094 4-64 AMA094

The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal Which of the following list of steps for using a sheet metal
without critically weakening the part is called the brake to fold metal are correct?
A. minimum radius of bend. Step 1: Adjustment of bend radius.
B. bend allowance. Step 2: Adjusting clamping pressure.
C. maximum radius of bend. Step 3: Adjusting the nose gap.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. All of the above
4-62 AMA094 4-65 AMA094

On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, allow for The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a
stretching by cornice or box brake is measured and marked
A. adding the setback to each leg. A. one radius from either bend tangent line.
B. subtracting the setback from one leg. B. one-half radius from either bend tangent line.
C. subtracting the setback from both legs. C. one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed
under the brake.
4-63 AMA094 4-66 AMA094

When bending a sheet of metal, if bend allowance is not ___________________ can be curved and not bent sharply by
considered, what will be the result after bending? stretching or shrinking either of the flanges.
A. Cracking at the bend line will result. A. Straight line bends
B. The resulting sheet will be undersized. B. Formed or extruded angles
C. The resulting bend will be at an insufficient angle. C. Flanged angles

ANSWERS

The bend radius necessary to bend a part can be found on When using a sheet metal brake to fold metal, the brake set
the parts drawings, but if it is not mentioned on the drawing, up for box and pan brakes and cornice brakes is identical.
consult the structural repair manual for a minimum bend A proper set up of the sheet metal brake is necessary
radius chart. This chart lists the smallest radius allowable for because accurate bending of sheet metal depends on the
each thickness and temper of metal that is normally used. To thickness and temper of the material to be formed and the
bend tighter than this radius would jeopardize the integrity of required radius of the part. Any time a different thickness of
the part. Stresses left in the area of the bend may cause it to sheet metal needs to be formed or when a different radius
fail while in service even if it does not crack while bending it. is required to form the part, the operator needs to adjust the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 68] sheet metal brake before the brake is used to form the part.

Setback is the distance the jaws of a brake must be set back A sight line needs to be drawn to help position the bend
from the mold line to form a bend. The setback dimension tangent line directly at the point where the bend should start.
must be determined prior to making a bend because setback Draw a line inside the bend allowance area that is one bend
is used in determining the location of the beginning bend radius away from the bend tangent line that is placed under
line tangent. Thus, when figuring the total length of the flat the brake nose bar. Put the metal in the brake under the
layout for this fitting with a single bend, subtract the setback clamp and adjust the position of the metal until the sight line
from each flat’s mold line dimension. By adding in the bend is directly below the edge of the radius bar.
allowance, the length of flat layout is determined. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 74]

Because the inside radius of a bend shrinks more than the Both formed and extruded types of angles can be curved
outside radius stretches, when bending a piece of metal, the (not bent sharply) by stretching or shrinking either of the
location and length of the neutral axis must be determined flanges. Curving by stretching one flange is usually preferred
so that sufficient metal can be provided for the bend. This is since the process requires only a V-block and a mallet and is
called bend allowance. easily accomplished.

QUESTIONS
4-67 AMA094 4-70 AMA016

In regards to hand forming curved flanged parts, which of the In regards to the basic principles of sheet metal repair, which
following is true? of the following statements are not true?
1. The concave flange is formed by stretching. 1. Ensure that the cross-sectional area of a splice or patch is
2. The convex flange is form by shrinking. at least equal to or greater than that of the damaged part.
3. Bend the flange on the concave first. 2. The joint is critical in sheer if more than the optimum
4. Convex surfaces are formed by shrinking the material number of fasteners of a given sized are installed.
over a form block. 3. The joint is critical in bearing if less than the optimum
A. 1, 2, and 4 number of fasteners of a given size are installed.
B. 1 and 2 4. Form all repairs in such a manner to fit the original
C. All of the above contour perfectly.
5. Keep the weight of all repairs to a minimum.
6. The importance of retaining the proper balance
and rigidity of aircraft control surfaces cannot
be overemphasized.
A. 5
B. 1 and 6
C. 2 and 3
4-68 AMA094 4-71 AMA016

If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using a form What type of damage repair consists of removing the
block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should first be placed damaged portion from the structure and replacing it with a
over the hollow portion of the mold and securely fastened in member identical in material and shape?
place. The bumping operation should be A. Damage repairable by insertion.
A. started by tapping the aluminum lightly around the B. Damage necessitating replacement of parts.
edges and gradually working down into the center. C. Negligible damage.
B. distributed evenly over the face of the aluminum at all
times rather than being started at the edges or center.
C. started by tapping the aluminum in the center until it
touches the bottom of the mold and then working out
in all directions.
4-69 AMA017 4-72 AMA016

When drilling a hole for a 1/8" rivet, first drill a _____________ Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a
pilot hole and then drill the final hole with a _____________ stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have been
size bit. critically loaded?
A. .125"; number 30 A. If rivets show no visible distortion, further investigation
B. number 30; .125" is unnecessary.
C. number 40; .125" B. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups
of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the
same direction.
C. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks will
be joggled.

ANSWERS

Curved flanged parts are usually hand formed with a Aircraft structural joint design involves an attempt to find the
concave flange, the inside edge, and a convex flange, the optimum strength relationship between being critical in shear
outside edge. The concave flange is formed by stretching, and critical in bearing. These are determined by the failure
while the convex flange is formed by shrinking. Such parts mode affecting the joint. The joint is critical in shear if less
are shaped with the aid of hardwood or metal forming than the optimum number of fasteners of a given size are
blocks. Bend the flange on the concave curve first. This installed. This means that the rivets will fail, and not the sheet,
practice may keep the flange from splitting open or cracking if the joint fails. The joint is critical in bearing if more than the
when the metal is stretched. Convex surfaces are formed by optimum number of fasteners of a given size are installed; the
shrinking the material over a form block. Using a wooden or material may crack and tear between holes, or fastener holes
plastic shrinking mallet and a backup or wedge block, start may distort and stretch while the fasteners remain intact.
at the center of the curve and work toward both ends. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 86-89]

After clamping the bumping block into a bench vise, use a Damage must be repaired by insertion when the area is too
soft-faced rubber mallet, or a hardwood drive block with large to be patched or the structure is arranged such that
suitable mallet, to start the bumping near the edges of the repair members would interfere with structural alignment.
form. Work the material down gradually from the edges with In this type of repair, the damaged portion is removed from
light blows of the mallet. The purpose of bumping is to work the structure and replaced by a member identical in material
the material into shape by stretching rather than forcing it into and shape. Splice connections at each end of the insertion
the form with heavy blows. Always start bumping near the member provide for load transfer to the original structure.
edge of the form. Never start near the center of the blister. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 91-92]

The final rivet hole size should be the smallest size which If the heads are tipped or rivets are loose, they show up in
allows for easy insertion of the rivet, which is typically about groups of several consecutive rivets and are probably tipped
.003" larger than the actual rivet diameter. To produce that in the same direction. If heads that appear to be tipped are
final hole size, first drill a slightly smaller pilot hole, and then not in the same direction, tipping may have occurred during
use the correct size bit to ream out the hole to its required some previous installation.
dimension. In this example, a #30 drill hole measures [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 92-93]
.1285"; or approximately .003" larger than the rivet diameter,
allowing for that proper insertion force.

QUESTIONS
4-73 AMA016 4-76 AMA016

What is indicated by the presence of aluminum oxide When riveting dissimilar metal together, what precautions
surrounding the manufactured heads of a rivet installation? must be taken to prevent an electrolytic action?
A. Fretting Corrosion A. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by redesigning
B. Loose Rivets the unit according to the recommendations outlined
C. Exfoliation Corrosion in AC43.13-2A.
B. Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a process
called anodic treatment.
C. Place a protective separator between areas of potential
electrical difference.
4-74 AMA016 4-77 AMA017

Which patch may be utilized in repairing skin where The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are
aerodynamic smoothness is not important? A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long.
A. Flush Patch B. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long.
B. Open and Closed Skin Area Repair C. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long.
C. Lap or Scab Patch
4-75 AMA094 4-78 AMA016

What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets? Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc.,
A. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank. which have been built up from sheet metal, are normally?
B. Two times the diameter of the rivet head. A. Repairable, using approved methods.
C. Two times the diameter of the river shank. B. not repairable, but must be replaced when damaged
or deteriorated.
C. repairable, except when subjected to
compressive loads.

ANSWERS

The presence of a black residue around the rivets is not Corrosion Resistant Steel (CRES) causes magnesium,
an indication of looseness, but an indication of movement aluminum, or cadmium to corrode when it touches these
(fretting). The residue, which is aluminum oxide, is formed by metals. To isolate CRES, from magnesium and aluminum,
a small amount of relative motion between the rivet and the apply a finish that gives protection between their mating
adjacent surface. surfaces.

The lap or scab type of patch is an external patch where The Alloy Code (AD) is followed by two numbers separated
the edges of the patch and the skin overlap each other. The by a dash. The first number is the numerator of a fraction,
overlapping portion of the patch is riveted to the skin. Lap which specifies the shank diameter in thirty-seconds of an
patches may be used in most areas where aerodynamic inch. The second number is the numerator of a fraction in
smoothness is not important. sixteenths of an inch and identifies the length of the rivet.

Edge distance, also called margin by some manufacturers, Forming processes used on the flight line and those
is the distance from the center of the rivet to the edge of practiced in the maintenance or repair shop cannot
the sheet. It should not be less than 2 or more than 4 rivet duplicate a manufacturer’s resources, but similar techniques
diameters and the recommended edge distance is about 2 of factory metal working can be applied in the handcrafting
half diameters of the rivet shank. of repair parts. For exact information about specific repairs,
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 34] consult the manufacturer’s maintenance or Structural Repair
Manuals (SRM).

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
4-1(O). What are some considerations when inspecting a sheet metal structure?
4-2(O). Name and describe five types of sheet metal defects.
4-3(O). What is involved in the selection of repair material?
4-4(O). When forming a bend in metal, what is K-factor and how is it used?
4-5(O). How is a rivet selected for a repair?
4-6(O). What actions are taken to install a rivet?
4-7(O). What are some precautions and safety practices when working with metals other than aluminum?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
4-1(O). The extent of the damage is often greater than the area where damage can be seen. An impact, for example,
will transfer the shock throughout the structure not just where the external damage is visible. The entire
member and surrounding support structure must be inspected for damage. Corrosion often occurs on the
inside of structure in pockets and corners where moisture and salt spray may accumulate. Ensure that drain
holes are kept clean and open. Surface irregularities may be visible but they may also be covering further
damage in the structure that is covered. Clues like smoking from loose rivets, buckled skin, etc. must be
interpreted and further inspection of the substructure must be made. Damage to aluminum alloy surface
protection should be repaired immediately to prevent corrosion to the core metal. The full extent of cracks and
substructure condition often requires eddy current or ultra sound inspection to be performed.
4-2(O). 1) Burnishing – a polishing of one surface by sliding contact with a smooth, harder surface. Usually, there
is no displacement or removal of metal. 2) Crack – a physical separation of two adjacent portions of metal,
evidenced by a fine or thin line across the surface caused by excessive stress at that point. It may extend
inward from the surface from a few thousandths of an inch to completely through the section thickness. 3)
Dent – indentation in a metal surface produced by an object striking with force. The surface surrounding the
indentation is usually slightly upset. 4) Inclusion – presence of foreign or extraneous material wholly within a
portion of metal. Such material is introduced during the manufacture of rod, bar, or tubing by rolling or forging.
5) Score - deeper than a scratch, tear, or break in the metal that results from contact under pressure. May
show discoloration from temperature produced by friction. Other defects are: Brinelling, Burr, Corrosion, Cut,
Erosion, Chattering, Galling, Gouge, Nick, Pitting, Scratch, Stain, and Upsetting.
4-3(O). The repair material must duplicate the strength of the original structure. The same material as the original is
desired. If an alloy weaker than the original material has to be used, a heavier gauge must be used to give
equivalent cross-sectional strength. A lighter gauge material should not be used even when using a stronger
alloy. Note that extensive repairs that are made too strong can be as undesirable as repairs weaker than the
original structure. All aircraft structure must flex slightly to withstand the forces of takeoff, flight, and landing. If
a repair is too strong, excessive flexing occurs at the edge of the repair causing accelerated metal fatigue.
4-4(O). K-factor is the percentage of material thickness where there is no stretching or compressing of the material,
such as the neutral axis. This percentage has been calculated and is one of 179 numbers on a K chart. The
number corresponds to the angle to which the metal is bent. The K factor of a 90° bend is 1. All other bend
angles must use the K-factor to calculate the setback. The setback is the distance the jaws of a break must be
set back from the mold line to form a bend. The K-factor is multiplied by the sum of the radius of the intended
bend and the material thickness to arrive at the setback.
4-5(O). Normally, the rivet size and material should be the same as the original rivets in the part being repaired.
If a rivet hole has been enlarged or deformed, the next size larger rivet can be used after the hole has
been reworked. Proper edge distance and rivet spacing must be maintained. Consult the manufacturer’s
maintenance manual for the correct rivets to be used. The size rivet for any repair can be determined by
referring to the rivets used by the manufacturer in the next parallel rivet row inboard on a wing, or forward
on the fuselage. Another method is to multiply the thickness of the skin by three and use the next larger size
diameter rivet than the resulting product. The number of rivets to be used can be found in the manufacturer’s
structural repair manual or in Advisory Circular (AC) 43.13-1.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
4-6(O). The riveting procedure consists of transferring and preparing the hole, drilling, and driving the rivets. First, the
holes in which rivets will be inserted must be correctly located. Accomplish transfer of holes from a drilled
part to another part by placing one part over the other and using the established holes as a guide. Alternately,
scribe the hole locations through from the drilled part onto the part to be drilled. Spot with a center punch and
drill. Hole locations may also be laid out following manufacturer instructions or standard acceptable practices.
Next, the holes must be drilled. It is critical to use the correct size drill bit for the shank diameter of the rivets to
be installed or the rivet may not hold securely. It is necessary to hold the drill at a 90° to the work. Ensure that
the drill bit is seated and cutting in the center punched hole. Avoid excess pressure and allow the drill bit to
cut completely through the material. After the holes are drilled, they must be prepared for the rivets. All burrs
and drill chips must be removed. If countersinking or dimpling is required, use the method that is correct for
metal of that thickness. Always keep hammer blows and dimpling pressure to a minimum so that no undue
work hardening occurs. Before driving the rivets, make certain that the holes line up perfectly and that they
are securely fastened with temporary fasteners. Solo riveting is possible if the riveter can hold the bucking bar
and still operate the rivet gun. A team approach is used when this is not possible. A code or a radio set is used
by the riveter and the bucking bar person to communicate the status of the riveting process. Always inspect
installed rivets for any sign of looseness and proper installation.
4-7(O). When working with Corrosion Resistant Steel (CRES), a finish must be applied to isolate the steel from
aluminum or magnesium parts. Contact with these metals causes corrosion. Also, a larger bend radius
prevents cracking of CRES in the bend area. Understand that working with CRES, pressures needed to
be applied when sheering, punching, and drilling, etc., will be greater than with mild steel. Working with
magnesium, it is important to keep any particles away from sources of ignition. They ignite very easily and, if
concentrated, could cause an explosion. Extinguish magnesium fires with dry talc, calcium carbonate, sand,
or graphite. Do not use foam, water, carbon tetrachloride, or carbon dioxide on a magnesium fire. Magnesium
must also not touch methyl alcohol. Titanium also has working precautions. Small particles of titanium burn
very easily and can explode when in sufficient concentration. If water touches molten titanium, a steam
explosion could occur. Like magnesium, extinguish titanium fires with dry talc, calcium carbonate, sand, or
graphite. Do not use foam, water, carbon tetrachloride, or carbon dioxide.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
4-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate tooling, install and remove at least two each of two or
more types of rivets.
4-2(P). Given specific dimensions and appropriate sheet metal tooling, lay out and form a piece of metal, to include at
least one bend.
4-3(P). Given required information, lay out a rivet pattern.
4-4(P). Given required information, determine the hole size to use in a sheet metal repair.
4-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, inspect a sheet metal assembly or repair for airworthiness and record
your findings.
4-6(P). Given appropriate sheet metal tooling, drill and install countersunk rivets.
4-7(P). Given appropriate sheet metal tooling, drill and install countersunk rivets via dimpling.

AIRCRAFT WELDING CHAPTER
Types of Welding, Gas Welding and Cutting Equipment, Cutting, Brazing and Soldering,
and Repair of Steel Tubing
05
QUESTIONS
5-1 AMA101 5-4 AMA101

Which statement concerning a welding process is true? In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is
A. The inert arc welding process uses an inert gas to used to?
protect the weld zone from the atmosphere. A. Concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent
B. In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used its dissipation.
for steel is covered with a thin coating of flux. B. Prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle.
C. In the metallic arc welding process, filler material, if C. Lower the temperature required to properly fuse
needed, is provided by a separate metal rod of the the metal.
proper material held in the arc.
5-2 AMA101 5-5 AMA101

The shielding gases generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc Which type of welding torch contains a tungsten electrode
(GTA) welding of aluminum consist of within a fine bore copper nozzle?
A. a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide. A. Plasma Arc Torch
B. helium or argon. B. Injector Torch
C. nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen C. Oxy-Acetylene Torch
and hydrogen.
5-3 AMA101 5-6 AMA101

Which of the following types of electric arc welding is not What is the benefit of adding acetone to acetylene
well suited for repair work because the weld quality cannot welding gas?
be easily determined? A. Increased stability.
A. Shielded Metal Arc Welding B. A hotter flame.
B. Gas Metal Arc Welding C. Decreased combustion rate.
C. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding

AIRCRAFT WELDING
ANSWERS

In shielded metal arc welding, the flux on the metal wire rod In gas tungsten arc welding, a stream of inert gas, such
melts, releasing an inert gas that shields the molten puddle as argon or helium, flows out around the electrode and
from oxygen in the air to prevent oxidation. The molten flux envelopes the arc thereby preventing the formation of oxides
covers the weld and hardens to an airtight slag that protects in the molten puddle.
the weld bead as it cools. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 3]

In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas, In the plasma welding the torch is a non- consumable
such as argon or helium, flows out around the electrode and tungsten electrode is located within a fine-bore copper nozzle.
envelopes the arc thereby preventing the formation of oxides [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 6]
in the molten puddle.

Gas Metal Arch Welding (GMAW) can be used for large Acetylene is chemically very unstable, and is stored in special
volume manufacturing and production work; it is not well cylinders designed to keep the gas dissolved. The cylinders
suited to repair work because weld quality cannot be easily are packed with a porous material and then saturated with
determined without destructive testing. acetone. When the acetylene is added to the cylinder, it
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 3] dissolves; in this solution, it becomes stable. Pure acetylene
stored in a free state explodes from a slight shock at 29.4
pounds per square inch (psi). The acetylene pressure gauge
should never be set higher than 15 psi for welding or cutting.

AIRCRAFT WELDING
QUESTIONS
5-7 AMA101 5-10 AMA101

Which is true regarding the use of hydrogen, rather than In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the
acetylene as a welding gas? tip opening determines the
A. Hydrogen must be stored in special cylinders and kept A. melting point of the filler metal.
dissolved with acetone. B. temperature of the flame.
B. Hydrogen can be used and stored at a higher pressure C. amount of the heat applied to the work.
than acetylene.
C. Detecting a Hydrogen leak is easier than
with acetylene.
5-8 AMA101 5-11 AMA101

An acetylene welding hose is a two part hose in which the The most important consideration(s) when selecting a filler
acetylene portion is welding rod is
A. red with left hand threads; the oxygen portion is green A. current setting or flame temperature.
with right hand threads. B. material compatibility.
B. green with left hand threads; the oxygen portion is red C. ambient conditions.
with right hand threads.
C. red with right hand threads; the oxygen portion is green
with left hand threads.
5-9 AMA101 5-12 AMA101

In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the material To prevent corrosion after successfully brazing two pieces of
being welded is controlled by the metal together, the mechanic should _____________.
A. amount of gas pressure used. A. clean with hot water and stainless steel brush
B. size of the tip opening. B. spray immediately with primer
C. distance the tip is held from the work. C. clean with an acid wash

AIRCRAFT WELDING
ANSWERS

Being more stable than acetylene, hydrogen may be stored The torch tip delivers and controls the final flow of gases. It
at higher pressures in standard cylinders with less risk of is important that you use the correct tip with the proper gas
explosion and thus is suitable for underwater welding and pressures for the work to be welded satisfactorily. The size
cutting. However, because it is colorless and odorless it is of the tip opening—not the temperature—determines the
more difficult to detect leaks. amount of heat applied to the work.

The acetylene hose is red and has left hand threads To insure proper strength and corrosion resistance, the
indicated by a groove cut into the connection nut. The welding rod selected should be compatible with the base
oxygen hose is green and has right hand threads indicated metal being welded.
by the absence of a groove on the connection nut. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 15]

The torch tip delivers and controls the final flow of gases. It As brazing fluxes are water soluble, use a hot water rinse
is important that you use the correct tip with the proper gas and wire brush to remove the excess flux. If the flux was
pressures for the work to be welded satisfactorily. The size overheated during welding and has turned green or black, it
of the tip opening—not the temperature—determines the will need to be removed with an acid solution.
amount of heat applied to the work. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 20]

AIRCRAFT WELDING
QUESTIONS
5-13 AMA101 5-16 AMA101

Which type of welding flame is most widely used because If too much acetylene is used in the welding of stainless steel
it has the smallest effect on the composition of the A. oxide will be formed on the base metal close to
base metal? the weld.
A. Oxidizing Flame B. a porous weld will result.
B. Carburizing Flame C. the metal will absorb carbon and lose its resistance
C. Neutral Flame to corrosion.
5-14 AMA101 5-17 AMA101

A welding torch backfire may be caused by When welding Chrome Molybdenum steel, the areas
A. using too much acetylene. sounding the weld site should be preheated to
B. a loose tip. A. 300-400 degrees.
C. a tip temperature that is too cool. B. 600-700 degrees.
C. within 100 degrees of the kindling temperature of the
filler rod.
5-15 AMA101 5-18 AMA101

Filing or grinding a weld bead How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld
A. may be performed to achieve a smoother surface. stainless steel?
B. reduces the strength of the joint. A. Neutral
C. may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to B. Slightly Oxidizing
achieve uniform material thickness. C. Slightly Carburizing

AIRCRAFT WELDING
ANSWERS

A neutral flame is produced with a balanced mixture of Too much acetylene in the flame adds carbon to the metal
acetylene and oxygen and is most widely used for most and causes it to lose its resistance to corrosion.
welding as it does not alter the composition of the base [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 17]
metal, and when welding steel allows the metal to flow
quietly without burning or sparking.

A backfire may be caused by touching the tip against the The welding technique for chrome molybdenum
work, overheating the tip, by operating the torch at other than (chromemoly) is practically the same as that for carbon
recommended pressures, by a loose tip or head, or by dirt or steels, except for sections over 3/16-inch thick. The
slag in the end of the tip, and may cause molten metal to be surrounding area must be preheated to a temperature
splattered when the flame pops. between 300°F and 400°F before beginning to weld.

Welds should never be filed to give them a better A slightly carburizing flame is recommended for welding
appearance, since filing deprives the weld of part of its stainless steel. The flame should be adjusted so that a
strength. feather of excess acetylene, about 1/16-inch long, forms
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 16] around the inner cone.

AIRCRAFT WELDING
QUESTIONS
5-19 AMA101 5-22 AMA101

The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should Which statement best describes magnesium welding?
A. be neutral and soft, and slightly carburizing. A. Magnesium can be welded to other metals.
B. contain an excess of acetylene and leave the tip at a B. Filler rod should be nickel steel.
relatively low speed. C. Filler rod should be the same composition as
C. be slightly oxidizing. base metal.
5-20 AMA101 5-23 AMA101

When brazing; to what temperature should the base metal Which is true regarding soldering of electrical connections?
be preheated? A. Only use solder with a melting point below 293°.
A. The filler material boiling point. B. Only use solder which contains rosin.
B. The base material flow temperature. C. Always use solder containing at least 50% silver.
C. The filler material flow temperature.
5-21 AMA101 5-24 AMA101

What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminum? What is the purpose of using flux during all silver
A. Removes dirt, grease, and oil. soldering operations?
B. Minimizes or prevents oxidation. A. To remove contaminants from the joint.
C. Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod. B. To chemically react with the solder to
increase adhesion.
C. To provide even heat conductivity.

AIRCRAFT WELDING
ANSWERS

To be sure there is no possibility of oxidation, when When welding magnesium, for the weld strength to match the
welding aluminum, the flame should be neutral, soft, and base metal strength, the filler material should be of the same
slightly carburizing. composition as the base material in the alloy.

When brazing, the base metal should be preheated slowly Electrical connections should be soldered only with a soft
until it reaches the flowing temperature of the filler metal, but solder containing rosin, as rosin does not corrode the
not as high as the metal’s boiling point. electrical connections.

Use of the proper flux when welding aluminum is important Flux must be used in all silver soldering operations to ensure
as aluminum flux is designed to remove aluminum oxide by the base metal is chemically clean. The flux removes the film
chemically combining with it during the heating process. of oxide from the base metal and allows the silver solder to
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 18-21] adhere to it.

AIRCRAFT WELDING
QUESTIONS
5-25 AMA101 5-28 AMA101

What is the most important factor for successful TIG welding Which of the following is not true regarding controlling the
of titanium? expansion of metals during welding?
A. Proper preheat temperatures are achieved. A. Chill bars made of nickel are an effective way to control
B. A clean welding surface. expansion and contraction.
C. Proper oxygen/fuel ratios. B. Expansion is a greater problem with thinner sheets
of metal.
C. Expansion can be controlled by tack welding along
the joint.
5-26 AMA101 5-29 AMA101

Expansion and contraction of metal is of greatest concern When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration
when welding A. the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the
A. thin material. thickness of the base metal.
B. thick material. B. the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness
C. a thin piece of metal to a thick piece. of the base metal.
C. look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very
high bead.
5-27 AMA101 5-30 AMA101

What primarily determines the number of beads required What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube
when welding a joint? longeron dented at a cluster?
A. The type of joint. A. Welded Patch Plate
B. The thickness of the metal. B. Welded Split Sleeve
C. The amperage of your equipment. C. Welded Outer Sleeve

AIRCRAFT WELDING
ANSWERS

The techniques for welding titanium are similar to those Expansion and contraction have a tendency to buckle and
required for nickel-based alloys and stainless steels. To warp thin sheet metal 1/8-inch or thinner. The most effective
produce a satisfactory weld, emphasis is placed on the method of alleviating this situation is to remove the heat from
surface cleanliness and the use of inert gas to shield the the metal near the weld, preventing it from spreading across
weld area. A clean environment is one of the requirements to the surface area. This can be done by placing heavy pieces
weld titanium. of metal, known as chill bars, on either side of the weld; to
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 24] absorb the heat and prevent it from spreading. Copper is
most often used for chill bars because of its ability to absorb
heat readily.

Expansion and contraction have a tendency to buckle and The welded joint should have a penetration that is 100
warp pieces of metal 1/8" thick and thinner. This is because percent of the thickness of the base metal. When welding
of having a low mass large surface area that spreads and butt joints in metal thicker than 1/8th inch it is often
dissipates heat quickly. This is often alleviated by placing necessary to bevel the edges so heat from the torch can
heavy pieces of metal near the welded point to prevent the completely penetrate the metal.
heat from spreading along the entire piece of thinner stock. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 31]

Grove and fillet welds in heavy metals often require multiple Dents at a cluster weld can be repaired by welding a formed
beads to produce the soundest welds with the number of steel patch plate over the dented area and surrounding tubes.
beads determined by the thickness of the metal. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 32-33]

AIRCRAFT WELDING
QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
5-1(O). Name the two most common fuel gases used for gas welding.
5-2(O). Name the three types of torches used in gas welding.
5-3(O). Why must acetylene gas be kept at 15 psi or below?
5-4(O). What do the cylinders containing acetylene contain to help stabilize this gas?
5-5(O). What determines the amount of heat applied to the material being welded in gas welding?
5-6(O). What should be considered when selecting a filler welding rod?
5-7(O). Which type of flame should be used when welding aluminum or nickel?
5-8(O). What can cause a welding torch to backfire?
5-9(O). Can a weld bead be filed or grind?
5-10(O). Explain the purpose of tack welding.
5-11(O). What shielding gas is generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc (GRA) welding of aluminum?
5-12(O). In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, what is the purpose of the stream of inert gas?
5-13(O). When inspecting a butt-welded, the weld penetration should be how thick.
5-14(O). What is the recommended repair for engine mounts?
5-15(O). How is the number of beads determined when producing a fillet welds in heavy metals?
5-16(O). What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminum?
5-17(O). Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?
5-18(O). List the protective personal equipment you should use when welding.
5-19(O). What color of glass is used in the protective eye-wear designed especially for aluminum oxy‑fuel welding?

AIRCRAFT WELDING
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
5-1(O). Oxygen and acetylene.
5-2(O). Equal pressure, injector, and cutting.

5-3(O). Acetylene is chemically very unstable. The acetylene pressure gauge should never be set higher than 15 psi
for welding or cutting.
5-4(O). Acetylene, being very unstable, is stored special cylinders designed to keep the gas dissolved. The cylinders
are packed with a porous material and then saturated with acetone.
5-5(O). The size of the tip opening determines the amount of heat applied to the work.
5-6(O). The filler rod selected should be compatible with the base metal being welded.
5-7(O). A carburizing flame is best used for welding such nonferrous alloys as aluminum, nickel, and Monel.
5-8(O). A backfire may be caused by touching the tip against the work, overheating the tip, by operating the torch at
other than recommended pressures, by a loose tip or head, or by dirt or slag in the end of the tip, and may
cause molten metal to be splattered when the flame pops.
5-9(O). No, welds should never be filed to give them a better appearance, since filing deprives the weld of part of
its strength.
5-10(O). A method of holding parts together before they are permanently welded. The parts are assembled, and small
spots of weld are placed at strategic locations to hold them in position.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Glossary Page G-35]
5-11(O). Argon or helium is used as the shielding gas for Gas Tungsten Arc when welding aluminum.
5-12(O). To prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle.

5-13(O). The weld penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
5-14(O). The preferred method to repair an engine mount member is by using a larger diameter replacement tube
telescoped over the stub of the original member using fish-mouth and rosette welds.

AIRCRAFT WELDING
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
5-15(O). Fillet welds in heavy metals often require the deposit of a number of beads to complete a weld. It is important
that the beads be deposited in a predetermined sequence to produce the soundest welds with the best
proportions. The number of beads is determined by the thickness of the metal being welded.
5-16(O). The use of flux in aluminum welding minimizes or prevents oxidation.

[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 18, 20, 21]
5-17(O). Flux must be used in all silver soldering operations to ensure the base metal is chemically clean. The flux
removes the film of oxide from the base metal and allows the silver solder to adhere to it.
5-18(O). Welding helmet, welding gloves, protective clothing, and footwear; if not in an adequately ventilated area,
appropriate breathing equipment.
5-19(O). Patented green glass by TM Technologies.


AIRCRAFT WELDING
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
5-1(P). Given appropriate welding equipment and safety equipment, ignite a torch, set one or more specified flame
patterns, and properly shutdown torch.
5-2(P). Given appropriate soldering equipment and safety equipment, solder a joint or connection.
5-3(P). Given appropriate aircraft quality materials and safety equipment, weld or braze a joint.
5-4(P). Given a specific welding task, determine the appropriate method and materials that is to be used.
5-5(P). Given a specific soldering task, determine the appropriate method and materials that is to be used.
5-6(P). Given a specific brazing task, determine the appropriate method and materials that is to be used.
5-7(P). Given a specific welding task, determine the appropriate data that is to be used.
5-8(P). Given a specific soldering task, determine the appropriate data that is to be used.
5-9(P). Given a specific brazing task, determine the appropriate data that is to be used.

AIRCRAFT WOOD AND STRUCTURAL REPAIR CHAPTER
Wooden Aircraft Construction, Wooden Aircraft Repairs, Materials, Adhesives, Application,
Joint Pressures, and Wing Repairs
06
QUESTIONS
6-1 AMA070 6-4 AMA102

What is the danger of a wooden aircraft structure in which A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar
the wood holds a moisture content of over 20%? generally indicates
A. Expansion and contraction of the A. compression failure.
structure components. B. shear failure.
B. The growth of fungus. C. decay.
C. A weakening of the glued joints.
6-2 AMA102 6-5 AMA102

In order to properly inspect wood structure of an aircraft, the Which of the following types of wood has the greatest
wooden components must be strength properties?
A. between 60-80°F. A. Spruce
B. at a moisture content as close as possible to its B. Western Hemlock
principle area of operation. C. Douglas Fir
C. dry.
6-3 AMA102 6-6 AMA102

Glued joints are typically designed to take what type of load? The slope of the grain of any wood used for aircraft may not
A. Shear Loads be greater than
B. Tension Loads A. 1:15.
C. Both Shear and Tension Loads B. 1:30.
C. the width to length ratio of that piece.

AIRCRAFT WOOD AND STRUCTURAL REPAIR
ANSWERS

The ideal moisture range for wooden aircraft components A compression failure is indicated by a rupture across the
is 8-12%. Any amount of moisture above 20% promotes the wood fibers. If suspected, a flashlight beam shown to run
growth of fungus. In addition, a high moisture level can cause parallel to the grain will assist in revealing it. The surface will
the components to swell, making inspection of the glued appear to have minute ridges or lines running across the grain.
joints more difficult. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 7]

Wet or damp wood causes swelling making it difficult to assess Douglas Fir is the strongest of the woods mentioned. Thus,
the condition of glue joints. The ideal range is 8-12 percent Douglas fir may be used as a substitute for Spruce in most
humidity inside the wood. Meters are available that check cases. Noble Fir also slightly exceeds Spruce except in
internal moisture content without making holes in the structure. shear strength where it is approximately 8% deficient.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 3] Hemlock is also slightly stronger than Spruce. A complete
chart of wood properties may be found on page 8 of
Chapter 06 of the 8083-31-ATB Airframe handbook.

Glued joints are designed to take shear loads. If a tension The slope of the grain of any aircraft grade wood species
load is expected, the joint is supplemented with a number of may not be steeper than a 1:15 ratio, meaning it can not
screws or bolts in the areas subjected to tension. angle across the wood length of wood by more than 1" of
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 6] width to 15" of length.

QUESTIONS
6-7 AMA102 6-10 AMA102

Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft If the allowable temperature of a wood adhesive is listed as
structure provided 62-80 degrees, at what temperature will the usable pot life
A. no pitch pockets are within 12 inches. be longest?
B. they produce a small effect on grain direction. A. 62 degrees
C. they have no mineral streaks. B. 71 degrees
C. 80 degrees
6-8 AMA102 6-11 AMA102

Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are When a bevel is being cut to repair a cap strip on a wing rib,
characterized by buckling of the fibers that appear as streaks the length of the beveled area should be
on the surface A. equal to the thickness of the rib cap strip.
A. at right angles to the growth rings. B. 16 times the thickness of the rib cap strip.
B. at right angles to the grain. C. 10 times the thickness of the rib cap strip.
C. parallel to the grain.
6-9 AMA102 6-12 AMA021

Which of the following is most important for successful What is the purpose of a gusset plate used in the
gluing of structural wood joints? construction and repair of aircraft structures?
A. All moisture is eliminated. A. To join and reinforce intersecting structural members.
B. The joined surfaces are properly sanded. B. To provide access for inspection of
C. The ambient temperature. structural attachments.
C. To hold structural members in position temporarily until
the permanent attachment has been completed.

ANSWERS

Pin knot clusters are a group of knots, all having a Pot life is a product of time and temperature. The cooler the
diameter less than approximately 1/16th inch. They are adhesive mix is kept, within the recommended limits of the
acceptable provided they produce only a small effect on manufacturer, the longer it remains usable.
the grain direction. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 6-7]

Compression failures, often caused by natural forces during The angle and length of a beveled sides to be joined should
the growth of the tree or rough handling of the lumber are be 10 times the thickness of the rib cap strip. The "16 times"
characterized by a buckling of the fibers that appear as dimension refers to the length of the reinforcing plywood
streaks at right angles to the grain, and vary from pronounced faceplates on either side of the beveled joint.
failures to very fine hairlines that are difficult to detect. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 14]

Be sure to know what the factory recommended temperature Plywood gussets are nailed or glued into place to join and
range is for the glue you are using. Otherwise, a moisture reinforce intersecting structural members on wing and
content of the wood from 8-12% is recommended, and stabilizer ribs, trailing edges, and other locations.
insure the joining surfaces are planed, not sanded or sawed. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 14-15]

QUESTIONS
6-13 AMA102 6-15 AMA102

If elongated bolt holes are discovered while inspecting a In what circumstances are mineral streaks found in wood to
wooden wing spar, which is the minimum required repair? be used for structural aircraft repair acceptable?
A. It is permissible to ream out the holes and use an A. Never.
oversized bolt. B. As long as they are not perpendicular to the
B. The section of spar or the entire spar must be replaced. natural grain.
C. The spar may be reinforced using a similar wood as C. As long as decay is not found in the streaked area.
splice plates.
6-14 AMA102 6-16 AMA102

Holes bored for bolts which will hold fittings in place should When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross
be cut sectional areas which will develop dangerous stress
A. to match the hole diameter of the fitting. concentration should be avoided by using
B. .002" undersized to ensure a tight fit through the wood. A. circular or elliptical patches.
C. exactly to equal the hole diameter of the fitting. B. square patches.
C. doublers with any desired shaped patches.

ANSWERS

Bolts and bushings in all aircraft structures must fit snugly. Mineral streaks are acceptable so long as, with careful
If one is loose, movement of the structure allows it to further inspection, no decay is found in the streaked area. All stains
enlarge the hole. In the case of elongated holes in a spar, the must be carefully examined to determine if they are harmless
repair may require a new section to be spliced into the spar of in the early stages of decay.
or a replacement of the entire spar. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 9]

All holes drilled for bolts that are to hold fittings in place Both the damaged area and the patch should be cut out in
should match the hole diameter of the fitting. After drilling a circular or oval shape with the radius of corners at least
the hole through the wood should be sealed with varnish or 5 times the thickness of the material to eliminate any sharp
an acceptable substitute and then allowed to dry prior to corners which could stress the skin.
installing the bolt or bushing. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 21]

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
6-1(O). How can you determine if the wood is dry before you inspect a wood aircraft airframe?
6-2(O). What effect does moisture/humidity have on wood?
6-3(O). Name the one characteristic all aircraft approved wood species have in common.
6-4(O). For wood to be certificated for aircraft usage, what must it have?
6-5(O). Which wood is the standard for comparisons in aircraft structures?
6-6(O). Can Northern White pine be substituted for Spruce in an aircraft structure?
6-7(O). When would mineral streaks cause a piece of aircraft quality wood to be rejected?
6-8(O). When are pin knot clusters acceptable in a piece of aircraft quality wood?
6-9(O). Are hard knots acceptable in a piece of aircraft quality wood?
6-10(O). Name two methods for repairing plywood skin.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
6-1(O). A moisture meter should be utilized to verify the percentage of moisture in the structure.
6-2(O). Moisture and/or humidity causes wood to swell.

6-3(O). The one item common to all the species is that the slope of the grain cannot be steeper than 1:15.
6-4(O). For certificated aircraft, the wood should have traceability to a source that can provide certification to a
military specification (MIL-SPEC).
6-5(O). Spruce is the standard by which the other wood is measured.

6-6(O). Northern White Pine cannot be used as substitute for Spruce without an increase in size to compensate for its
lesser strength.
6-7(O). Mineral streaks—unacceptable, if accompanied by decay.

6-8(O). Only if they produce a small effect on grain direction.

6-9(O). Hard knots unacceptable.

6-10(O). Fabric, splayed, surface, plug, or scarf.


QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
6-1(P). Given a sample of aircraft wood, inspect the sample and record your findings.
6-2(P). Given an actual wooden aircraft structure or mockup, inspect the structure and record your findings.
6-3(P). Given an actual wooden aircraft structural repair or mockup, inspect the repair for airworthiness and record
your findings.
6-4(P). Given various samples of wood, identify and select those samples that are acceptable aircraft quality woods.
6-5(P). Given a specific defect, determine the acceptable repair and reference your documentation.
6-6(P). Given a specific defect in an actual wooden aircraft structure or mockup, inspect the defect and determine if it
within acceptable limits, record your findings.
6-7(P). Given various actual aircraft woods or a listing of them, locate and list any allowable substitute for the woods.
6-8(P). Given the appropriate publications, determine the allowable species of wood that can be substituted for
spruce, record your findings and include the required dimensional changes, if any that are necessary.
6-9(P). Given the appropriate publications, locate the repair procedures for a damaged wood spar.
6-10(P). Given the appropriate publications, locate the repair procedures for a damaged wood rib structure.


ADVANCED COMPOSITE MATERIALS CHAPTER
Description of Composite Structures, Manufacturing and In-service Damage, Nondestructive
Inspection of Surfaces, and Plastics
07
QUESTIONS
7-1 AMA037 7-4 AMA045

The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in
composite buildup depends primarily on aircraft structures is
A. the orientation of the plies. A. S-glass.
B. the curing temperature. B. G-glass.
C. the mix of hardener to resin. C. E-glass.
7-2 AMA037 7-5 AMA037

Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest Which of the following are generally characteristic of Aramid
in what direction? fiber (Kevlar ®) composites?
A. Fill 1. High tensile strength
B. Bias 2. Flexibility
C. Warp 3. Stiffness
4. High compressive strength
5. Ability to conduct electricity
A. 1, 3, and 5
B. 1 and 2
C. 2, 3, and 4
7-3 AMA037 7-6 AMA037

What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is to Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/
be oriented for a particular ply of fabric? graphite fiber composites?
A. Fill Clock (or Compass) 1. Flexibility
B. Bias Clock (or Compass) 2. Stiffness
C. Warp Clock (or Compass) 3. High compressive strength
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum
5. Ability to conduct electricity
A. 1, 3, and 5
B. 2, 3, and 4
C. 1 and 3

ADVANCED COMPOSITE MATERIALS
ANSWERS

The strength and stiffness of a composite buildup depends There are several types of fiberglass used in the aviation
on the orientation sequence of the plies. industry. S-glass and S2-glass identify structural fiberglass
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 2] that have a higher strength than E-glass.

Warp indicates the longitudinal fibers of a fabric. The warp Kevlar ® is DuPont’s name for Aramid fibers. Aramid fibers are
is the high strength direction due to the straightness of lightweight, strong, and tough as well being flexible.
the fibers. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 4]

A warp clock is used to describe direction of fibers on Carbon fibers are very stiff and strong. Advantages include
a diagram, spec sheet, or manufacturer’s sheets. If the its high strength and corrosion resistance. Disadvantages
warp clock is not available on the fabric, the orientation is include lower conductivity than aluminum; therefore, a
defaulted to zero as the fabric comes off the roll. Therefore, lightning protection mesh or coating is necessary for aircraft
90° to zero is the width of the fabric across. parts that are prone to lightning strikes. Carbon fibers have a
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 3] high potential for causing galvanic corrosion when used with
metallic fasteners and structures.

QUESTIONS
7-7 AMA037 7-10 AMA037

The maximum tensile strength of fiber reinforced plastic is The curing process of a mixed resin may be temporarily
achieved using _____________. stopped by
A. unidirectional fibers A. thoroughly mixing a resin inhibitor compound
B. fibers uniformly distributed at 45 degrees to each other B. placing it in a freezer
C. bi-directional fibers C. place the uncured resin in a pressure vessel above
125 PSI
7-8 AMA037 7-11 AMA078

Lightning protective fibers on aircraft provide On a prepreg composite tape, once the chemical reaction
A. less electrically resistive surface to aid in within the resin has begun, ___________________.
lightning dissipation. A. the reaction can be reversed by placing the unused
B. more electrically resistive surface to aid in prepreg in a freezer
lightning dissipation. B. any unapplied prepreg tape must be discarded
C. an electrical pathway to guide static charges to C. the tape is ready to be applied
lightning dissipater's on an aircraft.
7-9 AMA037 7-12 AMA037

The principle advantage of polyimide resin is that it offers Which composite adhesive type must be stored at the
A. high flexibility. coldest temperature of the three?
B. high temperature resistance. A. Paste adhesives
C. strength for load bearing structural applications. B. Foaming adhesives
C. Film adhesives

ANSWERS

Fibers in a unidirectional material have all their strength and Thermosetting resins use a chemical reaction to cure.
stiffness only in that one direction and so are stronger in that When the components of the resin have been mixed and
direction for a given thickness then multi-directional fibers. the chemical reaction has started the material will be have
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 2-3] thickened and is tacky; the prepreg materials are in the
B stage. To prevent further curing the resin is placed in a
freezer at 0°F. In the frozen state, the resin of the prepreg
material stays in the B stage. The curing starts when the
material is removed from the freezer and warmed again.

The surface of a composite structure often includes a metal Prepreg comes from the manufacturer in the B stage of
laced conductive ply to help dissipate a lightning strike over curing, but the curing state is temporarily halted by its
a larger surface of the aircraft. storage in a 0ºF freezer. Once it is removed from the freezer,
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 6] its use must occur quickly before the B stage advances to
the point of unsuitability. By replacing the unused prepreg
back in a freezer, the current cure state can be halted, but
not reversed.

Polyimide resins excel in high temperature environments Film type adhesives must be stored in refrigerated conditions
due to temperature resistance and low thermal expansion of under 0°F. Paste and foaming adhesives are stored at
properties. Typical uses are on electrical circuit boards, room temperature.
near hot engines, and heat effected airframe structural [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 10]
components.

QUESTIONS
7-13 AMA037 7-16 AMA037

Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite 1. When performing a ring (coin tap) test on composite
wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength? structures, a change in sound may be due to damage or
A. 60:40 to transition to a different internal structure.
B. 40:60 2. The extent of separation damage in composite
C. 50:50 structures is most accurately measured by a ring
(coin tap) test.
Regarding the above statements.

A. Only No. 1 is true.
B. Only No. 2 is true.
C. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
7-14 AMA037 7-17 AMA037

The most frequent cause of damage to composite parts are When inspecting a composite panel using the ring
A. improper construction techniques. test/coin test tapping method, a dull thud sound may
B. static electrical buildup. indicate _____________.
C. impacts to the surface by debris. A. insufficient resin in the matrix mix
B. to much resin in the matrix mix
C. a delamination in the matrix mix
7-15 AMA037 7-18 AMA037

Corrosion is a factor with composite aircraft Composite inspections conducted by means of
components when ultrasonic monitoring
A. assembled with certain aluminum alloys. A. pick up the "noise" of corrosion or other
B. lighting protective plies are installed. deterioration occurring.
C. in proximity to fuel and other liquid. B. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected.
C. analyze ultrasonic signals transmitted into the parts
being inspected.

ANSWERS

A part is resin rich if too much resin is used, for nonstructural The ring (coin tap) test is accomplished by tapping the
applications this is not necessarily bad, but it adds weight. A inspection area with a solid round disk or lightweight
part is called resin starved if too much resin is bled off during hammer-like device and listening to the response of the
the curing process or if not enough resin is applied during structure to the hammer. A clear, sharp, ringing sound is
the wet layup process. Resin-starved areas are indicated indicative of a well-bonded solid structure, while a dull or
by fibers that show to the surface. The ratio of 60:40 fiber to thud-like sound indicates a discrepant area.
resin ratio is considered optimum. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 16]

Manufacturing damage includes anomalies, such as porosity, The coin tap method of inspection is accomplished by
micro-cracking, and delaminations resulting from processing tapping the inspection area with a solid round disk or a light
discrepancies. It also includes such items as inadvertent hammer. A clear and sharp ringing sound indicates a well
edge cuts, surface gouges and scratches, damaged fastener bonded structure. A dull thud sound is sign of a discrepancy,
holes, and impact damage. typically being a delamination causing gaps in the matrix mix.

Many fiberglass and Kevlar ® parts have a fine aluminum A high-frequency (usually several MHz) sound wave is
mesh for lightning protection. This aluminum mesh often introduced into the part and may be directed to travel
corrodes around the bolt or screw holes. The corrosion normal to the part surface, or along the surface of the part,
affects the electrical bonding of the panel, and the aluminum or at some predefined angle to the part surface ultrasonic
mesh needs to be removed and new mesh installed to sound waves have properties similar to light waves. When
restore the electrical bonding of the panel. an ultrasonic wave strikes an interrupting object, the wave or
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 15] energy is either absorbed or reflected back to the surface.
The disrupted or diminished sonic energy is then picked up
by a receiving transducer and converted into a display on an
oscilloscope or a chart recorder.

QUESTIONS
7-19 AMA037 7-22 AMA037

Which of the following is an advantage of When curing an on-aircraft composite repair, a heat blanket
prepreg composites? is used to maintain the proper curing temperature. What
A. Does not have a problem of a lean or rich mix. is used to insure a proper contact between the blanket
B. Does not need to be stored in a freezer. and the part?
C. Is less expensive than a fiber and resin mix. A. Vacuum Bags
B. Shrink Wrapping
C. Shrink Tape
7-20 AMA037 7-23 AMA037

What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag The minimum number of thermocouples used to monitor a
pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called? heat cycle is
A. Release A. no fewer than three.
B. Bleeder B. one per two square feet of the structure.
C. Breather C. two, one at the heat source and one at the furthest
point of the heat source.
7-21 AMA037 7-24 AMA037

The principle advantage to curing composite parts with an To prevent premature curing, all prepreg materials must
autoclave versus a standard oven is be stored
A. eliminates the need for vacuum bagging. A. in a vacuum sealed environment.
B. allows curing in higher temperatures and pressures. B. in a refrigerated environment under 32°F.
C. allows circulation of the heated air for a more consistent C. in a refrigerated environment under 0°F.
temperature over the entire part.

ANSWERS

Prepreg material is a factory pre-mixed assembly of resin and A heat blanket must conform to and be in 100% contact with
fibers. Its benefit is that the optimum mix ratios have already the part. This is typically accomplished with vacuum bag
been established. Its concern is that, in order not to begin pressure. Shrink wrapping and shrink tapes are commonly
to cure, it must be stored in freezers at temperatures below used for pressure application in curing ovens.
0ºF. As soon as it is removed from the cold temperature it will [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 22-24]
begin to cure and have a limited shelf life.

The bleeder ply creates a path for the air and volatiles to Never use fewer than three thermocouples to monitor
escape from the repair. Excess resin is collected In the a heating cycle. Thermocouple placement is the key in
bleeder. Bleeder material could be made of a layer of obtaining proper cure temperatures throughout the repair.
fiberglass, non‑woven polyester, or it could be a perforated In general, the thermocouples used for temperature
Teflon® coated material. control should be placed as close as possible to the repair
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 21] material without causing it to become embedded in the
repair or producing indentations in the repair. They should
also be placed in strategic hot or cold locations to ensure
the materials are adequately cured but not exposed to
excessively high temperatures that could degrade the
material structural properties.

Unlike a standard oven, autoclaves are specially constructed Prepreg is a fabric or tape that is impregnated with a resin
to allow for high temperatures and regulated pressures. during the manufacturing process. Store the prepreg material
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 23] in a freezer below 0°F to prevent further curing of the resin.

QUESTIONS
7-25 AMA037 7-28 AMA037

The principle benefit of vacuum bagging over a wet layup is it The proper sequence of procedures to repair a damaged
A. removes excess resin uniformly from the structure. composite component in which the damage extends to the
B. squeezes resin more deeply into the structure. component’s core is
C. prevents expansion of the structure during the 1. remove the damage.
curing process. 2. remove water from damage area.
3. install the honeycomb core and repair plies.
4. prepare the damaged area.
5. inspect the damage.
6. vacuum bag the repair.
A. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3, 6
B. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3, 6
C. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2, 6
7-26 AMA045 7-29 AMA037

The maximum design properties of a fiberglass component Which is not a step to ensure proper bonding of a composite
are achieved at what curing temperature patch to an aluminum surface
A. room temperature. A. cure the film adhesive material at 250°F.
B. 150°F. B. anodize the aluminum surface.
C. 250 – 300°F. C. install anchor tabs on the aluminum surface.
7-27 AMA037 7-30 AMA037

A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be The purpose of a double vacuum debulk process when
made on damages less than repairing laminated fiberglass structures is to remove
A. 2 inches in diameter. A. water from between the laminations.
B. 1 inch in diameter. B. air from between the laminations.
C. .5 inches in diameter. C. dirt and foreign substances from between
the laminations.

ANSWERS

The pressure applied by the vacuum bag is distributed evenly The proper procedure sequence for repairing a damaged
across the part allowing the resin to be bleed off uniformly composite component is: Step 1: Inspect the damage,
while removing excess trapped air. Step 2: Remove water from damaged area, Step 3: Remove
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 29] the damage, Step 4: Prepare the damaged area, Step 5:
Installation of honeycomb core (wet layup), Step 6: Prepare
and install the repair plies, Step 7: Vacuum bag the repair,
Step 8: Curing the repair, and Step 9: Post repair inspection.

Room temperature cure repairs can be accelerated by the Surface preparation is very important to achieve the
application of heat. Maximum properties are achieved at adhesive strength. Grit blast silane and phosphoric acid
150°F. A vacuum bag can be used to consolidate the plies anodizing are used to prepare aluminum skin. Film adhesives
and to provide a path for air and volatiles to escape. using a 250°F (121°C) cure are used routinely to bond the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 32] doublers to the metallic structure.

A potted repair can be used to repair damage to a sandwich Generally, the properties of a wet layup repair are not as
honeycomb structure that is smaller than 0.5 inches. The good as a repair with prepreg material; but by using a
honeycomb material could be left in place or could be DVD method, the properties of the wet layup process can
removed and is filled up with a potting compound to restore be improved. The DVD process is a technique to remove
some strength. Potted repairs do not restore the full strength entrapped air that causes porosity in wet layup laminates.
of the part. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 42]

QUESTIONS
7-31 AMA037 7-34 AMA037

Metal fasteners which may be used with repairs of carbon The best cutting tool to use on composite honeycomb
fiber structures are made from? structures is a
A. Magnesium A. water jet cutter.
B. Titanium B. fine tooth saw carbide saw blade.
C. Aluminum C. toothless diamond coated saw blade.
7-32 AMA037 7-35 AMA037

The principle difference between composite structure Health problems resulting from composite repair processes
fasteners and metal structure fasteners is that are best avoided by
composite fasteners A. use of a high quality respirator.
A. are made from the same composite material to B. consulting Material Data Safety Sheets (MSDS).
eliminate corrosion. C. consulting AC43.13 section 1B.
B. are more electrically conductive to aid in
lightning dissipation.
C. have larger bearing surfaces.
7-33 AMA037 7-36 AMA078

When drilling into composite structures the general rule is Which of the following is true regarding thermoplastics
to use versus thermosetting plastics?
A. high speed, low pressure drills. A. Thermosetting plastics may be remolded after
B. low speed and high pressure drills. hardening by reapplying heat.
C. low speed and low pressure drills. B. Thermosetting plastics are best suited for forming
windshields and canopies.
C. Thermoplastics must be stored in a cool and
dry location.

ANSWERS

Titanium or stainless steel fasteners are always used The band saw is the equipment that is most often used in
when joining carbon based composites as aluminum and a repair shop for cutting composite materials. A toothless
magnesium will corrode quickly when in contact with carbon. carbide or diamond-coated saw blade is recommended.

The main differences between fasteners for metal and Advanced composite materials including prepreg, resin
composite structures are the materials and the footprint systems, cleaning solvents, and adhesives could be
diameter of nuts and collars. hazardous, and it is important that you use personal
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 46] protection equipment. It is important to read and understand
the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) and handle all
chemicals, resins, and fibers correctly.

A general rule for drilling composites is to use high speed Thermoplastics will continuously soften and reform when
and a low feed rate (pressure). Drilling equipment with exposed to heat. Thermosetting plastics may be molded into
a power feed control produces better hole quality than a form once. Then once hardened, they can not appreciably
drill motors without power feed control. Drill guides are be reformed again. Because thermoplastics continuously
recommended, especially for thicker laminates. respond to heat, they must be stored in a cool dry location.

QUESTIONS
7-37 AMA078 7-40 AMA078

What is the cause of crazing on an acrylic plastic panel? When installing transparent plastic enclosures that are
A. It was bent beyond its limits in a cold state. retained by bolts extending through the plastic material and
B. It was cooled too quickly after forming. self-locking nuts, the nuts should be tightened to a
C. It was heated to an excess temperature when forming. A. firm fit, then backed off one full turn.
B. firm fit, plus on full turn.
C. firm fit.
7-38 AMA078 7-41 AMA078

When drilling through acrylic plastics, a drill bit with an Which is considered good practice concerning the
included tip angle of is recommended. installation of acrylic plastics?
A. 90° A. When rivets are used, drill the mounting holes through
B. 150° the plastic oversize by 1/8 inch.
C. 120° B. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted holes
are not recommended.
C. When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic should
be installed hot and tightened to a firm fit before the
plastic cools.
7-39 AMA078 7-42 AMA037

Which is true regarding the use of polymerizable cements Which of the following is an acceptable combination of
with transparent plastics? materials and its fasteners?
A. They expand as the cement hardens. A. Kevlar composite materials with cadmium
B. They produce a hazy residue and should be used only coated fasteners.
around edges or under fairings. B. Carbon fiber composite materials with
C. Remaining beads of cement are easily machined off. aluminum fasteners.
C. Carbon fiber composite materials with cadmium
coated fasteners.

ANSWERS

The amount that acrylic plastic can be bent or formed in a In clamping or bolting plastic panels into their mountings, do
cold state is very limited. If it is bent beyond these limits, not place the plastic under excessive compressive stress. It
excess stress is imposed to the point that tiny cracks will is easy to develop more than 1,000 psi on the plastic by over-
form throughout; a process known as crazing. torquing a nut and bolt. Tighten each nut to a firm fit, and
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 54] then back the nut off one full turn (until they are snug and can
still be rotated with the fingers).

A twist drill with an included angle of 150° is used to drill In installations involving bolts or rivets make the holes
acrylic plastics. through the plastic oversize by 1/8-inch and center so that
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 56] the plastic does not bind or crack at the edge of the holes.
The use of slotted holes is also recommended.

Polymerizable cements shrink as the cement hardens. For corrosion protection purposes, never use a cathodic
Bubbles tend to float to the top of the cement bead in a gap material fastener such as those made from aluminum or
joint after the cement is poured. These cause no problem cadmium plating with composites made from carbon or
if the bead is machined off. These cements produce clear, carbon fiber reinforcement materials.
transparent joints and should be used when the color and [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 46]
appearance of the joints are important.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
7-1(O). What are the advantages of composite materials?
7-2(O). Explain how to perform a ring (corn tap) test and how is a defect detected.
7-3(O). Name several non-destructive testing methods that can be used to inspect a fiberglass/honeycomb structure
for entrapped water.
7-4(O). Name several types of damage that can occur to composite parts.
7-5(O). Define a warp clock and how is it used.
7-6(O). How should prepreg materials be stored to prevent premature curing?
7-7(O). Define shelf life.
7-8(O). When can a potted repair be used on a honeycomb structure?
7-9(O). List the steps to repair a damaged composite component when the damage extends to the component’s core.
7-10(O). What are the general guidelines for drilling into composite structures?
7-11(O). Define crazing.
7-12(O). Explain how to properly store transparent thermoplastic sheets.
7-13(O). Describe the general rule for clamping or bolting plastic panels into their mountings.
7-14(O). After cleaning transparent plastic what should be done to the surface?
7-15(O). How can you protect yourself against health problems resulting from composite repair materials
and processes?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
7-1(O). High strength, relatively low weight, and corrosion resistance.
7-2(O). The ring (coin tap) test is accomplished by tapping the inspection area with a solid round disk or lightweight
hammer-like device and listening to the response of the structure to the hammer. A clear, sharp, ringing sound
indicates a well-bonded solid structure, while a dull or thud-like sound indicates a discrepant area.
7-3(O). Pulse echo (ultrasonic), radiography, and thermography.

7-4(O). Damage from improper cure or processing include porosity, micro-cracking, and delamination. Shop damages
include inadvertent edge cuts, surface gouges, and scratches from mishandling, improper machining, improper
drilling, tool drops, contamination, improper sanding, inadequate tooling, mislocation of holes or details.
7-5(O). An alignment indicator to show the orientation of the piles of a composite material, the ply direction is shown
in relation to a reference direction, usually the warp. It is used to correctly align the fibers for construction or
repair of composite parts.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 3,29-30 and G-39]
7-6(O). Store the prepreg material in a freezer below 0°F to prevent further curing of the resin.
7-7(O). The length of time a product is good when it remains in its original unopened container.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Glossary Page 31]
7-8(O). A potted repair can be used to repair damage to a sandwich honeycomb structure that is smaller than
0.5 inches.
7-9(O). Step 1: Inspect the Damage, Step 2: Remove Water From Damaged Area, Step 3: Remove the Damage, Step
4: Prepare the Damaged Area, Step 5: Installation of Honeycomb Core (Wet Layup), Step 6: Prepare and
Install the Repair Plies, Step 7: Vacuum Bag the Repair, Step 8: Curing the Repair, and Step 9: Post Repair
Inspection.
7-10(O). When drilling composites use equipment with power feed control. Drill using high speed and a low feed rate
(pressure). Drill guides are recommended, especially for thicker laminates.
7-11(O). A form of stress-caused damage that occurs in a transparent thermoplastic material. Crazing appears as a
series of tiny, hair-like cracks just below the surface of the plastic.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
7-12(O). Store in a cool, dry place away from fumes. Keep paper-masked transparent sheets out of direct sun. Store
with masking paper in place in bins tilted at a 10° angle from vertical. If stored horizontally, avoid getting dirt
and debris between sheets, never stack over 18 inches high and with smallest sheets stacked on top (do not
let sheets overhang). Formed sections should be supported so they do not lose their shape.
7-13(O). Do not place the plastic under excessive compressive stress by over-torquing a nut and bolt. Tighten each nut
to a firm fit, and then back the nut off one full turn (until they are snug and can still be rotated with the fingers).
7-14(O). If, after removing dirt and grease, no great amount of scratching is visible, finish the plastic with a good grade of
commercial wax. Apply the wax in a thin even coat and bring to a high polish by rubbing lightly with a soft cloth.
7-15(O). Use personal protection equipment and read and understand the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) and
handle all chemicals, resins, and fibers correctly.

ANSWERS
PRACTICAL EXAM
7-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, visually inspect an unpainted composite surface and record your findings.
7-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, visually inspect a composite structure, perform a tap test, and record
your findings.
7-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, visually inspect a composite structure, perform an ultrasonic inspection,
and record your findings.
7-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, visually inspect a composite structure, perform a moisture detection test,
7-5(P). Given the appropriate documentation, select the correct materials and clean a transparent surface, and
record maintenance.
7-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, inspect a window or windscreen and record your findings.
7-7(P). Given the appropriate documentation and supplies, remove one or more minor scratches from a transparent
surface and record maintenance.
7-8(P). Given various laminated composite structure samples, identify the fiber-reinforcing materials of each.
7-9(P). Given the appropriate documentation, locate the data used for composite structure damage assessment.

AIRCRAFT PAINTING AND FINISHING CHAPTER
Finishing Materials (Polymers, Paint, Ventilation), Methods of Applying Finish,
Finishing Equipment, Preparation, and Troubleshooting
08
QUESTIONS
8-1 AMA007 8-4 AMA007

What is the purpose of adding butanol and alcohol to a wash Which type of coating typically contains phosphoric acid as
coat primer prior to spraying? one of its components?
A. Slows the evaporation rate. A. Wash Primer
B. Enhances the adhesion qualities of the primer. B. Epoxy Primer
C. Quickens the drying time. C. Zinc Chromate Primer
8-2 AMA007 8-5 AMA007

Which of the following solvents is often mixed with other Which of the following are benefits of epoxy primers?
solvents for the purpose of reducing its flammability? 1. Low toxicity.
A. Naphtha 2. Good chip resistance.
B. Methylene Chloride 3. Sandable.
C. Acetone 4. Can be sprayed on bare metal.
A. Two of these four are benefits of epoxy primers.
B. Three of these four are benefits of epoxy primers.
C. All four of these are benefits of epoxy primers.
8-3 AMA007 8-6 AMA007

What is the danger when using Linseed oil as a protective If a brushing is used to touch up an area of paint, what will
coating on the interior of metal tubing? best eliminate the possibility of remaining brush marks?
A. Linseed oil fumes are toxic. A. Slow evaporation time
B. Spontaneous combustion can occur. B. Thinning
C. Spillage on the exterior of the tube can dissolve C. Very fine brush bristles
some primers.

AIRCRAFT PAINTING AND FINISHING
ANSWERS

Butanol and ethanol alcohol are mixed together in ratios Wash primers are water-thin coatings of phosphoric acid in
ranging from 1:1 to 1:3 to use to dilute wash coat primer for solutions of vinyl butyral resin, alcohol, and other ingredients.
spray applications because the butyl alcohol retards the Their functions are to passivate the surface, temporarily
evaporation rate. provide corrosion resistance, and provide an adhesive base
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 2] for the next coating, such as a urethane or epoxy primer.

Methylene Chloride can be mixed with other solvents. It is Epoxies are a synthetic, thermosetting resin that produces
widely used in paint strippers, and as a cleaning agent and tough, hard, chemical-resistant coatings and adhesives.
degreaser for metal parts. It has no flash point under normal They can be used as a non-sanding primer/sealer over bare
use conditions and can be used to reduce the flammability of metal and it is softer than urethane, so it has good chip
other substances. resistance. They are not classified as hazardous because
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 2] they contain no isocyanates.

Linseed oil generates heat as it dries. Oily materials and rags To avoid brush marks or roping, the material to be applied
must be properly disposed after use to eliminate the possible should be thinned to a proper consistency, but not too
cause of spontaneous ignition and fire. thin to cause the material to run. Proper thinning and paint
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 3] temperature allows the finish to flow out and eliminate marks.

QUESTIONS
8-7 AMA007 8-10 AMA007

For use with HVLP spray guns, the critical operating What is the most important aspect of insuring a successful
characteristic of the compressed air source is painting operation?
A. constant high pressure. A. Temperature and viscosity are at the
B. constant air volume. manufacturer’s requirement.
C. moisture elimination. B. The skill of the painter when handling the spray gun.
C. The preparation of the surface to be painted.
8-8 AMA007 8-11 AMA040

What is not an advantage of airless spraying equipment When spraying topcoat or primer, how far is the spray head
compared to an air atomized system? held from the painted surface?
A. Reduction in overspray. A. 8-10 inches.
B. Quality of the finish. B. 12-16 inches.
C. Increased transfer efficiency. C. Determined by product data sheet based on
temperature and viscosity.
8-9 AMA007 8-12 AMA040

When making a viscosity measurement of a mixed paint What the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
with a Zahn cup or similar, begin the timing when the top A. High Atmospheric humidity.
edge of the cup breaks the surface of the material, and end B. Excess reducer in the paint.
the timing _____________. C. Non-compatible primer.
A. when the cup is empty
B. when a steady flow from the cup ends
C. at the amount of time stated by the manufacturer

ANSWERS

The key to the operation of the newer High-Volume The most important and time consuming part of any paint
Low-Pressure (HVLP) spray guns is the air volume, not project is the proper cleaning and preparation of the
the pressure. substrate surface, including dirt and grease removal, proper
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 6] acid wash and alodine coating, and complete drying, thus
insuring a long lasting and corrosion free finish.

This system increases transfer efficiency and production Hold the spray gun a constant 8-10" from the surface,
speed with less overspray than conventional air atomized moving the gun across the surface at approximately 1 foot
spray systems. It is used for production work but does not per second in a straight line across the surface. Do not arc
provide the fine finish of air-atomized systems. the stroke, as this reduces the distance between the gun and
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 8] the surface.

With a stopwatch in one hand, lift the cup out of the sample. Sags and runs are usually caused by applying too much
As the top edge of the cup breaks the surface, start the paint to an area, by holding the spray gun too close to the
stopwatch. Stop the timing when the first break in the flow surface, or moving the gun too slowly across the surface.
of the liquid is seen at the cup’s orifice. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 14]

QUESTIONS
8-13 AMA040 8-16 AMA040

Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse If a fisheye appearance occurs after painting, the typical
humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature? cause is
A. Orange Peel A. improper cleaning of the surface.
B. Pinholes B. trapped solvents in the paint mixture.
C. Blushing C. dirt or debris in the paint mixture or airlines.
8-14 AMA007 8-17 AMA040

What is used to prevent blushing when painting in a high When removing masking tape following the painting of a trim
humidity environment? color, at what point should the masking tape be removed to
A. A fast drying reducer can be added to the paint. avoid damage to the underlying surface?
B. A slow drying reducer can be added to the paint. A. Immediately following the spraying of the new color.
C. Increase the air pressure at the spray gun. B. When the new color paint is dry to the touch.
C. When the new color paint is fully cured.
8-15 AMA040 8-18 AMA088

What is the common cause of an unwanted Orange Peel If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with
finish on a painted surface? a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space
A. Contaminates in the paint or air lines. required for the registration mark N1683C?
B. Paint material is too thick (not enough reducer in A. 52 inches
the mixture). B. 48 inches
C. Paint material is too thin (too much reducer in C. 57 inches
the mixture).

ANSWERS

Blushing is the dull milky haze that appears in a paint finish. Fisheyes appear as small holes in the coating as it is being
It occurs when moisture is trapped in the paint. Blushing applied, which allows the underlying surface to be seen.
forms when the solvents quickly evaporate from the sprayed Usually, it is due to the surface not being cleaned of all traces
coating, causing a drop in temperature that is enough of silicone wax.
to condense the water in the air. It usually forms when [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 15]
the humidity is above 80 percent. Other causes include,
incorrect temperature, incorrect reducer (fast drying) being
used, or excessively high air pressure at the spray gun.

Blushing occurs when moisture is trapped in the drying paint With all the trim completed, the masking paper should be
and is common when humidity levels approach 80%. Other removed as soon as the last trimmed area is dry to the touch.
causes are use of an incorrect fast drying reducer and/or too Carefully remove the Fine Line trim edge tape by slowly
high air pressure at the gun. pulling it back onto itself at a sharp angle. Remove all trim
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 13] and masking tape from the base coat as soon as possible to
preclude damage to the paint.

"Orange peel" can be the result of a number of factors with The width for the number "1" is 1/6 × 12" = 2". The spacing
the first being the improper adjustment of the spray gun. between the characters is 1/4 × (2/3 × 12") = 2". The minimum
Other causes include, not enough reducer (too thick) or the space required needed for the registration marking is
wrong type of reducer for the ambient temperature, material 52" (8 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 8 + 2 + 8 + 2 + 8 + 2 + 8 = 52).
not uniformly mixed, forced drying method is too quick, too [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 18]
little flash time between coats, or spray painting when the
ambient or substrate temperature is either too hot or too cold.

QUESTIONS
8-19 AMA007 8-21 AMA007

Which statement is true regarding paint Which chemical paint stripper type is now considered the
system compatibility? safest to use?
A. Acrylic nitrocellulose lacquers may be used over old A. Methylene Chloride Systems
nitrocellulose finishes. B. EFS-2500 Systems
B. Old type zinc chromate primer may not be used directly C. Benzyl Alcohol Systems
for touch up of bare metal surfaces.
C. Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with
epoxy finishes.
8-20 AMA007
When planning a paint touch-up project following a repair,
how can it be determined if the existing topcoat is acrylic or
epoxy based?
A. Apply a coating of engine oil; the acrylic finish
will soften.
B. Wipe with a wet rag of MEK; the acrylic finish will bleed
some color.
C. Remove a small chip of the topcoat and immerse in
isopropyl alcohol; within 3-5 minutes an acrylic chip
will dissolve.

ANSWERS

Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with One of the more recent entries into the chemical stripping
epoxy finishes. Acrylic nitrocellulose lacquers adhere poorly business is an environmentally friendly product known as
to bare metal and both nitrocellulose and epoxy finishes. Old EFS-2500, which works by breaking the bond between the
type zinc chromate primer may be used directly for touchup substrate and primer. Methylene Chloride has been classified
of bare metal surfaces and for use on interior finishes. as a toxic air contaminant and carcinogen. Benzyl alcohol
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 19] is ineffective as a paint stripper and is not considered
environmentally friendly.
8-20 Answer B.
Wipe a small area of the surface in question with a rag wet
with MEK. The MEK picks up the pigment from an acrylic
finish, but has no effect on an epoxy coating. Just wipe the
surface, and do not rub.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
8-1(O). Why are aircrafts more often painted than not?
8-2(O). What is the purpose of a primer when preparing an aircraft for painting?
8-3(O). Name at least three types of primers used in aviation.
8-4(O). Why is it important that primers and paints be of the same brand when painting an aircraft?
8-5(O). What are some of the effects of ambient conditions on finishing materials?
8-6(O). What cases poor adhesion?
8-7(O). What regulation provides the requirements for registration markings?
8-8(O). What are the basic requirements for identification and registration marking for aircraft?
8-9(O). What can cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
8-10(O). What can cause of "orange peel" on a painted surface?
8-11(O). What causes a "fisheye" appearance occurs after painting?
8-12(O). Where can you find safety, hazard, health, and environmental information about finishing products?
8-13(O). What personal protective equipment should be used when mixing any paint or two-part coatings?
8-14(O). Where should paint and solvent soaked rags be disposed of?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
8-1(O). Paint protects the integrity of the airframe by protecting the exposed surfaces from corrosion and
deterioration. Also, a properly painted aircraft is easier to clean and maintain because the exposed surfaces
are more resistant to corrosion and dirt, and oil does not adhere as readily to the surface.
8-2(O). A primer is the foundation of the finish. Its role is to bond to the surface, inhibit corrosion of metal, and provide
an anchor point for the finish coats.
8-3(O). Wash primers, gray enamel undercoat, urethane, epoxy, and zinc chromate.
8-4(O). It is highly recommended that a complete system from etching to primers and reducers to the finish topcoat
are compatible, are of the same brand, for the entire project because they are formulated to work together.
Mixing brands is a risk that may ruin the entire project.
8-5(O). Changes in temperature can cause blushing and orange peel. Also, rapid changes in ambient temperatures
while spraying may cause an uneven release of the solvents, causing the surface to dry, shrink, and wrinkle.
8-6(O). Improperly cleaned and prepared surfaces.

8-7(O). The complete regulatory requirement for identification and marking of a U.S.-registered aircraft can be found
in Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR), Part 45, Identification and Registration Marking. [Ref:
Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 17]
8-8(O). The regulation states that the marks must be painted on the aircraft or affixed by other means to insure a
similar degree of permanence; have no ornamentation; contrast in color with the background; and be legible.
8-9(O). Sags and runs are usually caused by applying too much paint to an area, by holding the spray gun too close to
the surface, or moving the gun too slowly across the surface.
8-10(O). Improper adjustment of the spray gun is the most common, but other causes include not enough reducer
(too thick) or the wrong type of reducer for the ambient temperature, material not uniformly mixed, forced
drying method is too quick, too little flash time between coats, or spray painting when the ambient or
substrate temperature is either too hot or too cold.
8-11(O). Improper cleaning of the surface.

8-12(O). The manufacturer’s technical or Material and Safety Data Sheets (MSDS).

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
8-13(O). Eye protection and respirators should be worn at a minimum, protective clothing and gloves are
also recommended.
8-14(O). In fireproof containers.


QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
8-1(P). Given a specific aircraft finishing application, select the appropriate finishing materials.
8-2(P). Given a specified aircraft surface, determine the preparation processes and procedures for applying a specific
finishing material.
8-3(P). Given an actual aircraft surface or mockup, prepare the surface for application of a finishing material.
8-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate materials and equipment, apply a primer to
the surface.
8-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate materials and equipment, apply a topcoat to
the surface.
8-6(P). Given one or more, various aircraft finished surfaces, inspect and record your findings.
8-7(P). Given a specific finishing task, locate the appropriate data to use for accomplishing the task.
8-8(P). Given a specific aircraft registration designation and a specific fixed-wing aircraft make and model, determine
where the registration designation should be located on the aircraft and the sizes of the registration numbers.
8-9(P). Given a specific aircraft registration designation and a specific rotorcraft make and model, determine where
the registration designation should be located on the rotorcraft and the sizes of the registration numbers.

AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEM CHAPTER
Aircraft Batteries, Aircraft Electrical Systems,Wiring Installation, Electrical System
Components, Grounding, and Bonding
09
QUESTIONS
9-1 AMA041 9-4 AMA041

What does the term "free electron" mean in relation to Which of the following produces voltage by moving a
current and conductors? magnetic field in relationship to a conductor?
A. The inner electrons are tightly bound to the atom and A. EMF
can be easily motivated to move to an atom with more B. Chemical
space in their inner rings. C. Heat
B. The outer electrons are loosely bound to the atom and
can be easily motivated to move.
C. The inner electrons are loosely bound to the atom and
can be easily motivated to move.
9-2 AMA041 9-5 AMA041

Which theory regarding the flow of electricity should be used The value of the induced voltage/current depends
during the connection or troubleshooting of electrical circuits? on which basic factors during the process of
A. Only the electron current theory can be applied. electromagnetic induction?
B. The FAA officially defines current flow using the 1. Number of turns in the conductor coil.
conventional current theory. 2. Strength of the electromagnet.
C. The use of either theory may be applied as long as it is 3. Speed of rotation of the conductor or magnet.
used consistently. A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
9-3 AMA041 9-6 AMA039

What is drift velocity? Which of the following is an advantage of an AC electrical
A. The tendency for electrons to "rattle around" through system over DC?
a conductor. A. AC power can be transmitted over long distances more
B. The average velocity of electrons through a conductor readily and more economically.
when an electric field is introduced. B. AC systems require more space, but are less heavy.
C. The force present to "push" the electrons. C. AC systems are larger than DC systems.

AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
ANSWERS

The term "free electron" describes a condition in some Voltage is most easily described as electrical pressure force.
atoms where the outer electrons are loosely bound to their It is the Electromotive Force (EMF), or the push or pressure
parent atom. These loosely bound electrons are easily from one end of the conductor to the other that ultimately
motivated to move in a given direction when an external moves the electrons. The symbol for EMF is the capital letter
source, such as a battery, is applied to the circuit. E. EMF is always measured between two points and voltage
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 3] is considered a value between two points.

There are two competing schools of thought regarding the During the process of electromagnetic induction, the value of
flow of electricity. The two explanations are the conventional the induced voltage/current depends on three basic factors:
current theory and the electron theory. Both theories 1. Number of turns in the conductor coil (more loops equals
describe the movement of electrons through a conductor. greater induced voltage), 2. Strength of the electromagnet
They simply explain the direction current moves. (the stronger the magnetic field, the greater the induced
Typically during troubleshooting or the connection of voltage), and 3. Speed of rotation of the conductor or magnet
electrical circuits, the use of either theory can be applied (the faster the rotation, the greater the induced voltage).
as long as it is used consistently. The Federal Aviation [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 6-7]
Administration (FAA) officially defines current flow using
electron theory (negative to positive).

When a voltage is applied across the conductor, an AC can be transmitted over long distances more readily and
electromotive force creates an electric field within the more economically than DC; space and weight can be saved
conductor, and a current is established. The electrons do not since AC devices, especially motors, are smaller and simpler
move in a straight direction, but undergo repeated collisions than DC devices.
with other nearby atoms within a conductor. These collisions [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 9]
usually knock other free electrons from their atoms, and
these electrons move on toward the positive end of the
conductor with an average velocity called the drift velocity,
which is relatively low speed.

QUESTIONS
9-7 AMA041 9-10 AMA041

In an AC system, at what point of an AC sine wave is The primary effect of a coil is its property to oppose any
instantaneous voltage the greatest? change in current through it. This property is called
A. 90º A. resistance.
B. 180º B. inductance.
C. 360º C. capacitive reactance.
9-8 AMA041 9-11 AMA041

Which of the following statements in regards to AC current Doubling the amount of turns in a coil has what affect on the
is true? field strength?
1. AC voltages can be increased or decreased by means A. Reduces it by half.
of transformers. B. Doubles it.
2. The polarity and voltage constantly change in DC. C. Increases it by a factor of four.
3. The three values of AC that apply to both voltage and
current are instantaneous, peak and effective.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2
9-9 AMA041 9-12 AMA041

A _____________ is equal to the number of cycles in on When the length of the coil doubles but the number of turns
revolution multiplied by the number of revolutions of the coil remains the same what affect does this have on
per second. the field strength?
A. period A. Reduces it by half.
B. frequency B. Doubles it.
C. cycle C. Decreases if by a factor of four.

ANSWERS

Instantaneous voltage varies with every instant of time. The primary effect of a coil is its property to oppose
Based on its AC wave form, it is at its highest positive value any change in current through it. This property is
at 90º and highest negative value at 270º. At the 0º, 180º, and called inductance.
360º points voltage is zero. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 12]

AC systems are more economically than DC, since AC One of the physical factors that affect inductance is the
voltages can be increased or decreased by means of number of turns—doubling the number of turns in a coil
transformers. AC is constantly changing in value and polarity, produces a field twice as strong if the same current is used.
or as the name implies, alternating. There are three values of As a general rule, the inductance varies with the square of
AC that apply to both voltage and current. These values help the number of turns.
to define the sine wave and are called instantaneous, peak, [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 13]
and effective.

The frequency, then, is equal to the number of cycles in One of the physical factors that affect inductance is the
one revolution multiplied by the number of revolutions per length of a coil—doubling the length of a coil, while keeping
second. The frequency is the number of cycles of AC per the same number of turns, reduces inductance by one-half.
second (CPS). [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 13]

QUESTIONS
9-13 AMA041 9-16 AMA030

The total opposition to current flow in an AC circuit is How are the cells in a Ni-Cad battery connected?
known as A. In series with nickel copper links
A. capacitive reactance. B. In series with cadmium links
B. resistance. C. In parallel with nickel copper links
C. impedance.
9-14 AMA041 9-17 AMA030

What does the electrical equation XL = 2π × f × L refer to? Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal
A. Inductive reactance runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery?
B. Impedance A. Constant current charging of the battery to more than
C. Power factor 100% of its capacity.
B. A high internal resistance condition.
C. Excessive current draw from the battery.
9-15 AMA030 9-18 AMA030

In which Figure are the batteries incorrectly connected? At what temperature does electrolyte freeze?
A. 1 A. -75°F
B. 2 B. -90°F
C. 3 C. It does not freeze.

ANSWERS

Impedance is the total opposition to current flow in an A NiCad battery consists of a metallic box, usually stainless
AC circuit. steel, plastic-coated steel, painted steel, or titanium
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 15] containing a number of individual cells. These cells are
connected in series to obtain 12 volts or 24 volts. The cells
are connected by highly conductive nickel copper links.

The equation regards inductive reactance where The combination of high battery temperature (in excess
XL = inductive reactance in ohms, L = inductance in Henries, of 160°F) and overcharging can lead to a condition called
f = frequency in cycles per second, and π = 3.14. Inductive thermal runaway. The temperature of the battery has to be
reactance is a measure of how much electro-magnetic field constantly monitored to ensure safe operation. Thermal
(EMF) in a circuit opposes the applied current. runaway can result in a NiCad chemical fire and/or explosion
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 13] of the NiCad battery under recharge by a constant-voltage
source and is due to cyclical, ever- increasing temperature
and charging current. One or more shorted cells or an
existing high temperature and low charge can produce the
following cyclical sequence of events:
1. excessive current,
2. increased temperature,
3. decreased cell(s) resistance,
4. further increased current, and
5. urther increased temperature.

Figure 1, correctly depicts batteries connected in series. Discharged lead-acid batteries exposed to cold
Figure 2, correctly depicts batteries connected in parallel. temperatures are subject to plate damage due to freezing
Figure 3, depicts batteries improperly connected in parallel. of the electrolyte. To prevent freezing damage, maintain
Because the polarity of the middle battery is reversed it will each cell’s specific gravity at 1.275 or, for sealed lead-
cause a short circuit condition across the other two batteries. acid batteries, check open circuit voltage. NiCd battery
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 21] electrolyte is not as susceptible to freezing because no
appreciable chemical change takes place between the
charged and discharged states. However, the electrolyte
freezes at approximately –75°F.

QUESTIONS
9-19 AMA030 9-22 AMA041

The specific gravity reading of a fully charged lead acid The commutator of a generator
battery at a temperature of 80ºF is 1.300. What is the A. changes direct current produced in the armature into
approximate specific gravity of a battery which is 50% alternating current as it is taken from the armature.
discharged when the temperature drops to 30ºF? B. changes alternating current produced in the armature
A. 1.21 into direct current as it is taken from the armature.
B. 1.41 C. reverses the current in the field coils at the proper time
C. .650 in order to produce direct current.
9-20 AMA041 9-23 AMA039

The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to change What enables the output voltage of a generator to approach
A. direct current to alternating current. a steady DC value?
B. alternating current to direct current. A. Increasing the number of loops
C. the frequency of alternating current. B. Increasing the number of commutators
C. Using a permanent magnet
9-21 AMA030 9-24 AMA041

A NiCd battery is observed with an excess spewage of A commutator, coils, and a shaft are the major components
electrolyte. Which action is most likely to correct of a(n) _____________.
this problem? A. armature
A. Adjust the voltage regulator. B. field frame
B. Replace the vent cap. C. DC generator
C. Identify and replace the defective cell.

ANSWERS

US manufactured lead-acid batteries are considered fully Generators use a modified slip ring arrangement, known as
charged when the specific gravity reading is 1.275 – 1.300 at a commutator, to change the AC produced in the generator
a standard temperature of 80ºF. A 1/3rd discharged battery loop into a DC voltage. The action of the commutator allows
reads about 1.240 and a 2/3rds discharged battery at about the generator to produce a DC output.
1.200. In addition, as temperature drops below standard, the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 27]
fully charged specific gravity drops a small amount as well; in
this case for a 50ºF drop by .020.

A constant current charging system usually consists of a As the number of loops is increased, the variation between
rectifier to change the normal AC supply to DC. maximum and minimum values of voltage is reduced, and
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 24] the output voltage of the generator approaches a steady
DC value.

After cleaning the battery, checking the electrolyte level, and A commutator, coils and a shaft are the major components
tightening the cap, if the spewage continues, identify and of an armature. Together with the field frame, brush
replace the defective cell. assemblies and a housing, this forms the basic components
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 27-29] of a DC generator.

QUESTIONS
9-25 AMA041 9-28 AMA041

While charging, a lead acid battery cell fails to reach the A voltage regulator controls generator output by
required 1.55 volts. Which is the appropriate action? A. introducing a resistance in the generator to battery
A. Replace the cell. lead in the event of overload.
B. Check and refill the electrolyte. B. shorting out the field coil in the event of overload.
C. Clean and retighten its hardware to proper C. varying current flow to the generator field coil.
torque values.
9-26 AMA041 9-29 AMA041

Which type of DC generator is not used as an DC generators are classified by the connection of the
airplane generator? A. armature to the external circuit.
A. Compound Wound B. field circuit to the external circuit.
B. Externally Grounded C. armature and field circuit to the external circuit.
C. Series Wound
9-27 AMA041 9-30 AMA041

The most common method of regulating the voltage output How is a shunt wound DC generator connected?
of a compound DC generator is to vary the A. One field is shunted across the other.
A. current flowing through the shunt field coils. B. The field and armature are shunted with a capacitor.
B. resistance of the series field circuit. C. Both fields are shunted across the armature.
C. total effective field strength by changing the reluctance
of the magnetic circuit.

ANSWERS

If the cell fails to reach 1.55 volts charge, or reaches it The voltage of the generator is accurately controlled by
and then drops, the cell is defective and must be removed means of a voltage regulator connected in the field circuit
and replaced. of the generator. The output voltage of the generator is
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 28] controlled by means of a rheostat inserted in series with
the field windings. In the actual aircraft, the field rheostat
would be replaced with an automatic control device, such
as a voltage regulator.

Since the series wound generator has such poor voltage There are three types of DC generator: series wound, parallel
and current regulation, it is never employed as an (shunt) wound, and series-parallel (or compound wound). The
airplane generator. appropriate generator is determined by the connections to the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 32] armature and field circuits with respect to the external circuit.

The output voltage of a shunt generator can be controlled by A generator having a field winding connected in parallel
means of a rheostat inserted in series with the field windings. with the external circuit is called a shunt generator. It should
As the resistance of the field circuit is increased, the field be noted that, in electrical terms, shunt means parallel.
current is reduced; consequently, the generated voltage is Therefore, this type of generator could be called either a
also reduced. As the field resistance is decreased, the field shunt generator or a parallel generator.
current increases and the generator output increases. In the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 32]
actual aircraft, the field rheostat would be replaced with an
automatic control device, such as a voltage regulator.

QUESTIONS
9-31 AMA041 9-34 AMA042

How is the rheostat in a shunt generator connected? What is the cause of generator brush arcing?
A. In series with the field winding. A. Low brush block spring tension.
B. In parallel with the field winding. B. Carbon dust particles.
C. In series with the armature. C. Seating brushes with No. 000 sandpaper.
9-32 AMA041 9-35 AMA041

The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the
output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes within
speed and load is to vary the? the holder?
A. Strength of the magnetic field. A. Brush spring tension.
B. Number of conductors in the armature. B. The brush pigtail.
C. Speed at which the armature rotates. C. Undercutting the mica on the commutator.
9-33 AMA041 9-36 AMA041

By what measurement are DC generators rated for power? The voltage regulator controls generator voltage by
A. amperes at rated voltage changing the
B. watts at rated voltage A. current in the generator output circuit.
C. the impedance at rated voltage B. resistance of the generator field circuit
C. resistance in the generator output circuit.

ANSWERS

The output voltage of a shunt generator can be controlled by Brushes contain conductive materials that cause arcing
means of a rheostat inserted in series with the field windings. between brushes and commutator bars. It is important that
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 32] the brush spring pressure be correct. Excessive pressure
causes rapid wear of brushes. Too little pressure, however,
allows bouncing of the brushes, resulting in burned and
pitted surfaces.

Aircraft generator output can easily be adjusted through Flexible low-resistance pigtails are provided on most heavy
control of the generator’s magnetic field strength. current carrying brushes, and their connections should
Remember, the strength of the magnetic field has a direct be securely made and checked at frequent intervals. The
effect on generator output. More field current means more pigtails should never be permitted to alter or restrict the free
generator output and vice versa. motion of the brush. The purpose of the pigtail is to conduct
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 34] the current from the armature, through the brushes, to the
external circuit of the generator.

A DC generator is typically rated for its voltage and power Generator control systems are often referred to as voltage
output. Each generator is designed to operate at a specified regulators or Generator Control Units (GCU).
voltage, approximately 14 or 28 volts. The power output of [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 33]
any generator is given as the maximum number of amperes
the generator can safely supply.

QUESTIONS
9-37 AMA041 9-40 AMA041

The over voltage control automatically protects the generator How do low output generators control generator
system when excessive voltage is present by output power?
A. opening and resetting the field control relay. A. Modify voltage to the field winding.
B. breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field B. Modify current flow to the generator field.
control relay. C. Modify voltage to the armature.
C. opening the shunt field circuit.
9-38 AMA041 9-41 AMA041

If a generator is equipped with a vibrator type voltage What controls the resistance of a carbon pile
regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points voltage regulator?
remain open A. Field current from the generator.
A. is controlled by the reverse current cutout relay B. Current output of the generator.
point clearance. C. Magnetism of the voltage coil.
B. depends on the load carried by the generator.
C. is increased when the external load is greater than the
generator output.
9-39 AMA042 9-42 AMA041

A generator in a 24-V DC system shows low voltage, a likely A circuit protection device called a current limiter is
cause is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is designed to be used in
A. a defective reverse current cutout relay. A. starter generator circuit.
B. shorted or grounded wiring. B. heavy power circuits.
C. an out of adjustment voltage regulator. C. 400 cycle AC circuits.

ANSWERS

The overvoltage protection system compares the sampled A typical generator control circuit for low-output generators
voltage to a reference voltage. The overvoltage protection modifies current flow to the generator field to control
circuit is used to open the relay that controls the field generator output power. As flight variables and electrical
excitation current. It is typically found on more complex loads change, the GCU must monitor the electrical system
generator control systems. and make the appropriate adjustments to ensure proper
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 35] system voltage and current.

A vibrator-type voltage regulator is a type of voltage regulator In a carbon pile regulator, the voltage coil acts like an
used with a generator or alternator that intermittently places electromagnet. That varying magnetism controls pressure
a resistance in the field circuit to control the voltage. A set of on the carbon stack which alters the resistance of the
vibrating contacts puts the resistor in the circuit and takes it carbon. The more common voltage regulators operate from
out several times a second. the generators field current. Current limiters operate via the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 36] current output of the generator.

The most basic of the GCU functions is that of voltage A current limiter is an electrical component used to limit the
regulation. Regulation of any kind requires the regulation amount of current a generator can produce. Some current
unit to take a sample of a generator output and compare limiters are a type of slow- blow fuse in the generator output.
that sample to a known reference. If the generator’s output Other current limiters reduce the generator output voltage if
voltage falls outside of the set limits, then the regulation unit the generator tries to put out more than its rated current.
must provide an adjustment to the generator field current. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 37]
Adjusting field current controls generator output.

QUESTIONS
9-43 AMA041 9-46 AMA039

If the reverse current cutout relay contact points fail to Aircraft which operate only AC generators (alternators) as a
open after the generator output has dropped below battery primary source of electrical power normally provide current
potential, current will flow through the generator armature suitable for battery charging through the use of
A. opposite the normal direction and through the shunt A. a stepdown transformer and a rectifier.
field in the normal direction. B. a dynamotor with a half wave DC output.
B. in the normal direction and through the shunt field C. an inverter and a voltage dropping resistor.
opposite the normal direction.
C. and the shunt field opposite the normal direction.
9-44 AMA022 9-47 AMA042

What makes up a rectifier in a DC alternator? A battery generator system provides direct current. On
A. 3 Diodes installations requiring alternating current from the battery
B. 6 Diodes generator system, it is necessary to have
C. 6 Transistors A. a variable resistor between the battery and generator.
B. a transformer.
C. an inverter.
9-45 AMA041 9-48 AMA022

What does a rectifier do? What is the frequency of an alternator depend upon?
A. Changes direct current into alternating current. A. RPM
B. Reduces voltage. B. Voltage
C. Changes alternating current into direct current. C. Current

ANSWERS

The third unit of a three-unit regulator is used to prevent The TR unit is used to change AC to DC. The TR contains
current from leaving the battery and feeding the generator. a transformer to step down the voltage from 115-volt AC to
This type of current flow would discharge the battery and is 26-volt AC and a rectifier to change the 26-volt AC to 26-volt
opposite of normal operation. It can be thought of as a reverse DC. The output of the TR is therefore compatible with the
current situation and is known as reverse current relay. aircraft battery at 26-volt DC.

The invention of the diode has made the development of the Most airplanes using a 24-volt DC system have special
alternator possible. The rectifier assembly is comprised of equipment that requires a certain amount of 400 cycle AC
six diodes. This rectifier assembly replaces the commutator current. For these aircraft, a unit called an inverter is used to
and brushes found on DC generators and helps to make the change DC to AC. Inverters are commonly used when only a
alternator more efficient. small amount of AC is required for certain systems.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 39] Inverters may also be used as a backup AC power source on
aircraft that employ an AC alternator.

A rectifier assembly changes the three-phase AC to DC. All AC alternators must rotate at a specific RPM to
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 39] keep the frequency of the AC voltage within limits.
Aircraft AC alternators should produce a frequency of
approximately 400Hz.

QUESTIONS
9-49 AM022 9-52 AMA041

How many degrees out of sync is each phase of a How does the speed control unit of a CSD adjust the
AC alternator to one another? hydraulic pressure to control output speed?
A. 90° A. Piston Pump
B. 120° B. Wobble Plate
C. 150° C. Gear Reduction
9-50 AMA022 9-53 AMA022

How does the wave pattern of an AC alternator differ from a In an AC alternator control system, the computer that
DC alternator? controls alternator functions on large transport category
A. AC has larger amplitude for each wave. aircraft is?
B. They have different phase shifts. A. BPCU
C. They are the same. B. GCU
C. BPCU and GCU
9-51 AMA041 9-54 AMA030

A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of The primary function of which of these devices ensures that
A. a variable hydraulic pump and a hydraulic motor. an alternator maintains an AC output of 115-120 volts?
B. a synchronous electrical motor. A. Generator Control Unit (GCU)
C. an infinitely variable mechanical gearing system. B. Bus Power Control Unit (BPCU)
C. Constant Speed Drive (CSD)

ANSWERS

AC alternators produce a three-phase AC output. For each The speed control unit is made up of a wobble plate that
revolution of the alternator, the unit produces three separate adjusts hydraulic pressure to control output speed.
voltages. The sine waves for these voltages are separated [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 43]
by 120°.

AC alternators produce a three-phase AC output. For each The two most common units used to control AC alternators
revolution of the alternator, the unit produces three separate are the bus power control unit (BPCU) and the GCU. In
voltages. The sine waves for these voltages are separated by this case, the term "generator" is used, and not alternator,
120°. This wave pattern is similar to those produced internally although the meaning is the same. The GCU is the main
by a DC alternator; however, in this case, the AC alternator computer that controls alternator functions.
does not rectify the voltage and the output of the unit is AC. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 45-46]

A unit called a Constant-Speed Drive (CSD) is used to ensure The Generator Control Unit insures that an alternator
the alternator rotates at the correct speed to ensure a 400Hz maintains a constant voltage of 115-120 volts. The Constant
frequency. The CSD can be an independent unit or mounted Speed Drive insures that voltage is at a continuous frequency
within the alternator housing. The CSD is a hydraulic unit. of 400 Hz. The Bus Power Control Unit controls the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 42-43] distribution of power to the various electrical busses.

QUESTIONS
9-55 AMA030 9-58 AMA039

An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose Which of the items list below are required for a
of indicating the starter circuit?
A. rate of current used to charge the battery. 1. Solenoid
B. amperage available for use. 2. Start Switch
C. total amperes being used in the airplane. 3. Aircraft Battery
4. Starter Motor
5. External Power
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. All can be required.
9-56 AMA022 9-59 AMA068

What instrument is used to monitor the output from an What is used to monitor the position of each gear during all
aircraft alternator? flight operations?
A. Volt Meter A. Limit Switch
B. Dual Polarity Ammeter B. Squat Switch
C. Single Polarity Ammeter C. Indicator Switch
9-57 AMA041 9-60 AMA041

What kind of protection is in place to prevent an incorrect In order to provide power for an electroluminescent
polarity connection with an external power source? instrument panel, what must be included with the DC
A. Plug with a ground. electrical system of a light aircraft?
B. Diode A. A rectifier.
C. Solenoid B. A transformer.
C. An inverter.

ANSWERS

The ammeter shown in the battery circuit is used to monitor All items listed can be required in a general starter circuit.
the current flow from the battery to the distribution bus. See Figure 9-91 on p. 9-51 in the text for an example of
When all systems are operating properly, battery current starter circuit.
should flow from the main bus to the battery giving a positive [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 50-51]
indication on the ammeter. In this case, the battery is being
charged. If the aircraft alternator (or generator) experiences a
malfunction, the ammeter indicates a negative value.

All alternators must be monitored for correct output. Most A series of limit switches are needed to monitor the position
light aircraft employ an ammeter to monitor alternator output. of each gear during the operation of the system. (A limit
A typical ammeter circuit used to monitor alternator output. switch is simply a spring-loaded, momentary contact switch
An ammeter placed in the alternator circuit is a single polarity that is activated when a gear reaches it limit of travel).
meter that shows current flow in only one direction. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 52]

This diode is used to prevent any accidental connection An electroluminescent panel operates only with AC power.
in the event the external power supply has the incorrect Therefore an inverter is needed to change the DC current
polarity (i.e., a reverse of the positive and negative electrical to AC.
connections). A reverse polarity connection could be [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 55]
catastrophic to the aircraft’s electrical system.

QUESTIONS
9-61 AMA022 9-64 AMA041

What is the process of equalizing alternator outputs in a What prevents the dual fed bus from powering the main
multiple alternator system? generator busses?
A. Paralleling A. Circuit Breaker
B. Strapping B. Current Limiter
C. Pairing C. Diode
9-62 AMA022 9-65 AMA022

On a twin engine aircraft, if one alternator has a higher When two AC generators are operated in parallel, the
voltage output than the other, how is the problem corrected A. amperes and voltage most both be equal.
by the paralleling circuit? B. amperes and frequency must both be equal.
A. The paralleling circuit creates a magnetic force to C. frequency and voltage must both be equal.
open or close contact points.
B. The paralleling circuit increases the current to the
lower alternator’s field winding.
C. The paralleling circuit disengages the dominant
alternator until the voltage of the lesser alternator
increases to the proper value.
9-63 AMA041 9-66 AMA041

Generator busses are connected to the isolation bus through Which of the following statements are true regarding split-
which of the following? bus power distributions systems?
A. Diode and Current Limiter 1. The split-bus system does allow both engine- driven
B. Reverse Polarity Diode generators to power any given bus and at the same time.
C. Circuit Breakers 2. On all modern split-bus systems, the auxiliary power unit
can be started and operated during flight.
3. Each engine-driven AC generator powers only on main
AC bus during normal conditions.
A. Only 3
B. 2 and 3
C. Only 1

ANSWERS

Since two alternators (or generators) are used on twin engine The dual-feed busses are connected to the main generator
aircraft, it becomes vital to ensure both alternators share the busses through both a current limiter and a diode.
electrical load equally. This process of equalizing alternator Remember, a diode allows current flow in only one direction.
outputs is often called paralleling. The current can flow from the generator bus to the dual-feed
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 57] bus, but the current cannot flow from the dual fed bus to the
main generator bus.

If the two alternators provide equal voltages, the paralleling The left and right DC generators are connected to their
coil has no effect. If one alternator has a higher voltage respective main generator busses. Each generator feeds its
output, the paralleling coils create the appropriate magnetic respective bus, and since the busses are connected under
force to open/close the contact points, controlling field normal circumstances, the generators operate in parallel.
current and control alternator output. Both generators feed all loads together. If one generator
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 57] fails or a current limiter opens, the generators can operate
independently. This design allows for redundancy in the
event of failure and provides battery backup in the event of a
dual generator failure.

An aircraft with two starter generator units used to start the During normal conditions, each engine-driven AC generator
engines and generate DC electrical power has a system powers only one main AC bus. The busses are kept split from
that is typically defined as a split-bus power distribution each other, and two generators can never power the same
system since there is a left and right generator bus that splits bus simultaneously. The split-bus system does allow both
(shares) the electrical loads by connecting to each sub-bus engine-driven generators to power any given bus, but not at
through a diode and current limiter. the same time. On all modern split bus systems, the APU can
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 58] be started and operated during flight. This allows the APU
generator to provide back-up power in the event of a main
generator failure.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 61] ]

QUESTIONS
9-67 AMA042 9-70 AMA042

Which type of wiring diagrams would be used to The primary considerations when selecting electric wire
troubleshoot electronic systems? size are
A. Schematic Diagram A. the voltage and amperage load it must carry.
B. Block Diagram B. system voltage and cable length.
C. Pictorial Diagram C. current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.
9-68 AMA088 9-71 AMA042

Wiring approved for use in commercial and military aircraft In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used
are specifically designed to meet? to designate electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a
A. International Civil Aviation Organization size is related to its
(ICAO) standards A. cross sectional area.
B. Military specifications B. combined resistance and current carrying capacity.
C. Technical Standard Order (TSO) specifications C. current carrying capacity.
9-69 AMA042 9-72 AMA042

What is the primary importance in the selection of wire for Which of the following factors must be taken into
aircraft use and is the basic factor in wire rating in regards consideration when determining the wire size to use for an
to insulation? aircraft application?
A. Abrasion Resistance 1. Mechanical strength
B. Heat Resistance 2. Allowable power loss
C. Corrosion Resistance 3. Ease of installation
4. Resistance of current return path through the
aircraft structure
5. Permissible voltage drop
6. Current carrying capability of the conductor
7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent)
A. 1, 2, 4, and 5
B. 2, 4, 6, and 7
C. 2, 5, 6, and 7

ANSWERS

A block diagram is used as an aid for troubleshooting Several factors must be considered in selecting the size of
complex electrical and electronic systems. A block wire for transmitting and distributing electric power, these
diagram consists of individual blocks that represent several include the wires current carrying capacity and the allowable
components, such as a printed circuit board or some other voltage drop.
type of replaceable module. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 69]

Commercial and military aircraft use wire that is Wire is manufactured in sizes according to a standard known
manufactured under MIL-W-22759 specification, which as the American Wire Gauge (AWG). The wire diameters
complies with current military and FAA requirements. (cross sectional area) become smaller as the gauge numbers
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 67] become larger. Typical wire sizes range from a number 40 to
number 0000.

Since electrical wire may be installed in areas where Several factors must be considered in selecting the size of
inspection is infrequent over extended periods of time, it wire for transmitting and distributing electric power, these
is necessary to give special consideration to heat-aging include the wires current carrying capacity, the allowable
characteristics in the selection of wire. Resistance to heat is voltage drop, allowable power loss, and the type of load.
of primary importance in the selection of wire for aircraft use, [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 69]
as it is the basic factor in wire rating.

QUESTIONS
9-73 AMA042 9-76 AMA042

What is the shortest recommended run for aluminum wires? What type of identification sleeving should be used for wires
A. 2 Feet exposed to solvent and synthetic hydraulic fluids?
B. 18 Inches A. Polyolefin
C. 3 Feet B. Polyethylene
C. Fiberglass
9-74 AMA042 9-77 AMA042

What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 feet What is the minimum bend radius for an electrical
long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation? wire bundle?
Use the formula: A. Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle.
VD = RLA; B. Fifteen times the outside diameter of the bundle.
VD = Voltage drop; C. Five times the outside diameter of the bundle.
R = Resistance per ft = .00644;
L = length of wire;
A = amperes
A. 1/2 V
B. 1 V
C. 4 V
9-75 AMA042 9-78 AMA042

The voltage drop of main power wires from the generation Non-printed wires may be identified with printed sleeves
or battery source to the bus should not exceed what which must be placed
percentage of the regulated voltage? A. no more than 15 inches apart.
A. 2% B. no more than 6 feet apart.
B. 5% C. centered in between every bracket or clamp.
C. 10%

ANSWERS

When aluminum conductor wire is used, sizes should be In most cases, identification tape can be used in place of
selected on the basis of current ratings. Use of aluminum sleeving. For sleeving exposed to high temperatures (over
wire is also discouraged for runs of less than 3 feet. 400°F), materials, such as silicone fiberglass, should be used.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 71] Polyolefin sleeving should be used in areas where resistance
to solvent and synthetic hydraulic fluids is necessary.

Voltage drop = (.00644) × (50 feet) × (12.5 amps) = 4.25 Volts. The minimum radius of bends in wire groups or bundles must
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 72] not be less than 10 times the outside diameter of the largest
wire or cable, except that at the terminal strips where wires
break out at terminations or reverse direction in a bundle.

The voltage drop in the main power wires from the generation Indirect marking of cables may be done with heat shrinkable
source or the battery to the bus should not exceed 2 percent sleeves placed over the wire covering within 3 inches of each
of the regulated voltage when the generator is carrying rated end and at intervals not longer than 6 feet.
current or the battery is being discharged at the 5 minute [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 77-78]
rate.

QUESTIONS
9-79 AMA042 9-82 AMA042

When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some
harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum number of moving parts, what protection should be given the wire?
splices permitted between any two connectors is? A. Wrap with friction tape.
A. Three B. Pass through conduit.
B. Two C. Wrap with soft wire solder into the shield.
C. One
9-80 AMA042 9-83 AMA042

How far away can the nearest splice be from a If there is less than 3/8" clearance between the bulkhead and
termination device? the wire bundle, what must be done?
A. 6 Inches A. A clamp must be used.
B. 12 Inches B. A grommet should be installed.
C. 18 Inches C. An angle bracket must be used.
9-81 AMA042 9-84 AMA042

Where electrical cables must pass through holes in Clamps should be spaced at intervals not exceeding?
bulkheads, formers, ribs, firewalls, etc, the wires should be A. 12 Inches
protected from chafing by B. 18 Inches
A. wrapping with electrical tape. C. 24 Inches
B. using a suitable grommet.
C. wrapping with plastic.

ANSWERS

There should be no more than one splice in any one wire Conduit is manufactured in metallic and nonmetallic
segment between any two connectors or other disconnect materials and in both rigid and flexible forms. Primarily, its
points. Exceptions include when attaching to the spare purpose is for mechanical protection of cables or wires.
pigtail lead of a potted connector, when splicing multiple [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 83]
wires to a single wire, when adjusting wire size to fit
connector contact crimp barrel size, and when required to
make an approved repair.

Splices should not be used within 12 inches of a termination When a wire bundle is clamped into position, if there is less
device, except when attaching to the pigtail spare lead of a than 3/8-inch of clearance between the bulkhead cutout and
potted termination device, to splice multiple wires to a single the wire bundle, a suitable grommet should be installed.
wire, or to adjust the wire sizes so that they are compatible [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 83]
with the contact crimp barrel sizes.

Where wires or wire bundles pass through bulkheads or Wires and cables are supported by suitable clamps,
other structural members, a grommet or suitable clamp grommets, or other devices at intervals of not more than
should be provided to prevent abrasion. 24 inches.

QUESTIONS
9-85 AMA042 9-88 AMA042

A piece of rigid electrical conduit should be replaced if What is normally used to bond non-continuous stainless
the diameter of a bend section in the conduit has been steel aircraft components?
flattened by A. Aluminum Jumpers
A. in excess of 10% of its normal diameter. B. Stainless Steel Jumpers
B. in excess of 25% of its normal diameter. C. Copper Jumpers
C. if any flattening of its diameter is apparent at all.
9-86 AMA041 9-89 AMA043

Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to Bonding connections should be tested for
the primary structure. One purpose of grounding is to A. reactance.
A. prevent development of radio frequency potentials. B. amperage value.
B. prevent current return paths. C. resistance value.
C. allow static charge accumulation.
9-87 AMA041
With regards to grounding, which of the following
statements are true?
1. Grounding is the electrical connecting of two or more
conducting objects not otherwise adequately connected.
2. To minimize the interaction between various return
currents, different types of ground (i.e., AC returns, DC
returns and all others) should be identified and used.
3. The design of the ground return circuit should be given
as much attention as the other leads of a circuit.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3

ANSWERS

Kinked or wrinkled bends in rigid conduits are not Aluminum alloy jumpers are recommended for most cases;
recommended and should be replaced. Tubing bends that however, copper jumpers should be used to bond together
have been flattened into an ellipse and have a minor diameter parts made of stainless steel, cadmium plated steel, copper,
of less than 75 percent of the nominal tubing diameter should brass, or bronze.
be replaced, because the tube area has been reduced by at [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 87]
least 10 percent.

Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) is caused when The resistance of all bond and ground connections should be
electromagnetic fields (radio waves) induce High Frequency tested after connections are made before re-finishing.
(HF) voltages in a wire or component. One of the more [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 87]
important factors in the design and maintenance of aircraft
electrical systems is proper bonding and grounding.
Inadequate bonding or grounding can lead to unreliable
operation of systems, EMI, electrostatic discharge damage
to sensitive electronics, personnel shock hazard, or damage
from lightning strike.
9-87 Answer C.
Grounding is the process of electrically connecting
conductive objects to either a conductive structure or
some other conductive return path for the purpose of safely
completing either a normal or fault circuit.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
9-1(O). How are wire sizes determined?
9-2(O). What factors must be considered in selecting the size of wire for transmitting and distributing electric power?
9-3(O). Which method of lacing would be used for a bundle of wires 1 inch or less?
9-4(O). A wire bundle needs several splices, how should they be arranged?
9-5(O). What is the maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors?
9-6(O). How far away can the nearest splice be from a termination device?
9-7(O). Define the term "derated" at it relates to electrical specifications.
9-8(O). Why are switches derated for known continuous load current applications?
9-9(O). Name the two most common types of voltage regulators.
9-10(O). Explain how a carbon-pile voltage regulator works.
9-11(O). What is a shunt winding?
9-12(O). What is a Constant-Speed Drive (CSD).
9-13(O). What is a switch?
9-14(O). How are rotary switches activated and where will you commonly find them?
9-15(O). What is a circuit breaker?
9-16(O). What is a micro switch and what are they typically used for?
9-17(O). What is a relay?
9-18(O). What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when compared to a fuse?
9-19(O). What should you look for when inspecting wiring?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
9-1(O). Wire sizes are in accordance with the standard known as the American Wire Gauge (AWG) and determined by
the wire diameters.
9-2(O). Current carrying ability, allowable voltage drop, mechanical strength, and allowable power loss.
9-3(O). The single cord-lacing method and tying tape may be used for wire groups of bundles 1 inch in diameter or less.
9-4(O). Splices in bundles must be staggered to minimize any increase in the size of the bundle, preventing the bundle
from fitting into its designated space or causing congestion that adversely affects maintenance.
9-5(O). There should be no more than one splice in any one wire segment between any two connectors or other
disconnect points. Exceptions include when attaching to the spare pigtail lead of a potted connector, when
splicing multiple wires to a single wire, when adjusting wire size to fit connector contact crimp barrel size, and
when required to make an approved repair.
9-6(O). Splices should not be used within 12 inches of a termination device, except when attaching to the pigtail spare
lead of a potted termination device, to splice multiple wires to a single wire, or to adjust the wire sizes so that
they are compatible with the contact crimp barrel sizes.
9-7(O). It is the reduction in the rated voltage or current of an electrical component.

[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 98 & G-12]
9-8(O). Derating is done to extend the life or reliability of the device.

9-9(O). Carbon pile regulators and the three-unit regulators.

9-10(O). It is a type of voltage regulator used with high-output DC generators. Field current is controlled by varying
the resistance of a stack of thin carbon disks. This resistance is varied by controlling the amount the stack
is compressed by a spring whose force is opposed by the pull of an electromagnet. The electromagnet’s
strength is proportional to the generator’s output voltage.
9-11(O). It is the field coils in an electric motor or generator that are connected in parallel with the armature.
9-12(O). It is a special drive system used to connect an alternating current generator to an aircraft engine. The drive
holds the generator speed (and thus its frequency) constant as the engine speed varies.
9-13(O). They are devices that open and close circuits. They consist of one or more pair of contacts.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
9-14(O). A rotary switch is activated by twisting a knob or shaft and are commonly found on radio control panels.
9-15(O). An electrical component that automatically opens a circuit any time excessive current flows through it.
9-16(O). A precision switch that uses a short throw of the control plunger to actuate the contacts. Micro switches are
used primarily as limit switches to control electrical units automatically.
9-17(O). An electrical component that uses a small amount of current flowing through a coil to produce a magnetic pull
to close a set of contacts through which a large amount of current can flow. The core in a relay coil is fixed.
9-18(O). Unlike a fuse that operates once and then has to be replaced, a circuit breaker can be reset, therefore are
reusable, to resume normal operation.
9-19(O). Check for abrasions, defective insulation, condition of terminations, and potential corrosion. Grounding
connections for power, distribution equipment, and electromagnetic shielding must be given particular
attention to ensure that electrical bonding resistance has not been significantly increased by the loosening of
connections or corrosion.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
9-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and appropriate tools and/or test equipment,
troubleshoot an electrical system or portion thereof, and record your findings.
9-2(P). Given a specific aircraft electrical system and appropriate publications, select a circuit switch or circuit
protection device for a specified application.
9-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment, tools and testing equipment, if
applicable, install a circuit switch or circuit protection device.
9-4(P). Given various materials and tools, select the appropriate materials and tools and complete a wire splice.
applicable adjust a voltage regulator.
applicable, select and install one or more wires and pins and/or sockets in a connector.
9-7(P). Given various materials, select the appropriate material and fabricate a bonding wire.
9-8(P). Given a bonding wire, appropriate publications, and the appropriate testing equipment, install and complete a
resistance check.
9-9(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and the appropriate testing equipment, if
necessary, check the operation of an airframe electrical system circuit.
necessary, check the operation of an airframe electrical system component.
necessary, inspect and check a landing light and record your findings.
necessary, inspect and check the anti-collision and position lights and record your findings.
necessary, inspect the generator brushes to determine serviceability and record your findings.

AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Pressure Measuring Instruments, Remote Sensing and Indication, Mechanical Movement
Indicators, and Electronic Instruments
10
QUESTIONS
10-1 AMA013 10-4 AMA014

Which of the following instruments are located in the A Bourbon tube instrument maybe used to indicate
"Basic T" on the instrument panel? 1. pressure.
A. Altimeter, oil pressure, fuel pressure, attitude indicator. 2. temperature.
B. Directional gyro, attitude indicator, altimeter, 3. position.
airspeed indicator. A. 1
C. Altimeter, rate of climb, attitude indicator, B. 2 and 3
turn coordinator. C. 1 and 2
10-2 AMA014 10-5 AMA014

In addition to flight instruments, two major categories of Solid state piezoelectric pressure sensing units
instruments classified by the job they perform are can _____________.
A. engine instruments and temperature instruments. A. change impedance when under pressure
B. navigation instruments and airframe instruments. B. act as diodes when under pressure
C. engine instruments and navigation instruments. C. vary resistance when under pressure
10-3 AMA008 10-6 AMA067

The operating mechanism of most hydraulic pressure What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge
gauges is indicate when the engine is not operating?
A. a bourdon tube. A. Zero pressure.
B. an evacuated bellows filled with an inert gas to which B. Differential between the manifold pressure and the
suitable arms, levers, and gear are attached. atmospheric pressure.
C. an airtight diaphragm. C. The existing atmospheric pressure.

AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

The instruments used in controlling the aircrafts flight The Bourdon tube is the internal mechanism for many
attitude are known as flight instruments. Over the years, pressure gauges used on aircraft. Since the pressure of
flight instruments have come to be situated similarly on the vapor produced by a heated liquid or gas increases as
instrument panels in most aircraft. The basic T arrangement temperature increases, Bourdon tube mechanisms can also
for flight instruments includes the artificial horizon in the be used to measure temperature.
center directly in front of the pilot. To the left is the airspeed [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 5-6]
indicator. To the right is the altimeter. Below the artificial
horizon is a heading indicator, often a directional gyro.

While there are many miscellaneous gauges and indicators The solid state sensors used in most aviation applications
on the flight deck, the three basic kinds of instruments exhibit varying electric output or resistance changes when
classified by the job that they perform are the flight pressure changes occur.
instruments, the engine instruments, and the navigation [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 7]
instruments. A fourth category, position/condition
instruments, includes gauges and indicators not falling into
one of the three basic kinds since they typically report the
position of a certain movable component or the condition of
various aircraft components or systems.

Bourdon tube gauges are simple and reliable. Some of the In reciprocating engine aircraft, the manifold pressure gauge
instruments that use a Bourdon tube mechanism include the indicates the pressure of the air in the engine’s induction
engine oil pressure gauge, hydraulic pressure gauge, oxygen manifold. When the engine is not running, the pressure in the
tank pressure gauge, and deice boot pressure gauge. induction manifold is the atmospheric pressure and will be
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 5] indicated on the gauge.

QUESTIONS
10-7 AMA098 10-10 AMA096

Regarding an EPR gauge for a turbine engine? In addition to the pressure sensitive flight instruments, which
A. It is a direct reading gauge. other system requires an accurate static air pressure sensor?
B. It is a differential pressure gauge. A. Vacuum System
C. It does not require electricity. B. Autopilot System
C. Oil and Fuel Pressure Indicators
10-8 AMA014 10-11 AMA076

Pressure switches Air Data Computers (ADC’s) and Digital Air Data Computers
A. are used to drive a vacuum gauge. (DADC’s) have many advantages when accepting and
B. are electro-mechanical devices. processing static system data such as?
C. are rarely used on aircraft. A. One-time processing without the need for
compensating devices in each instrument or units.
B. Eliminating the need for heated static ports.
C. Standardized input from different sources.
10-9 AMA096 10-12 AMA096

Which instruments are connected to an aircraft’s static What will be the result if the instrument static pressure line
pressure system only? becomes disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during
1. Vertical Speed Indicator cruising flight?
2. Cabin Altimeter A. The altimeter will read low and the airspeed indicator
3. Altimeter will read high.
4. Cabin Rate-Of-Change Indicator B. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.
5. Airspeed Indicator C. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read high.
A. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 4, and 5

ANSWERS

EPR stands for Engine Pressure Ratio. On a turbine engine, The autopilot computers require the same sensing data as
an EPR gauge presents an indication of thrust being does the flight crew when performing manual operation.
developed by the engine. Since the EPR gauge compares Oil and fuel pressure and the vacuum systems are absolute
two pressures (exhaust pressure versus inlet pressure), it is a sensors or indicators requiring only its own source of
differential pressure gauge. pressure monitoring.

A pressure switch is a simple device usually made to open There are numerous benefits of using ADC’s (or
or close an electric circuit when certain pressure is reached DADC’s). Simplification of pitot static plumbing creates
in a system. It contains a diaphragm to which the pressure a lighter, simpler system with few connections. One-time
is applied on one side. The opposite side of the diaphragm compensation calculations can be done in the computer,
is connected to a mechanical switching mechanism for an eliminating the need to build compensating devices into
electric circuit. Each switch is rated to close (or open) at a numerous individual instruments or units in the systems
certain pressure and must be installed in the proper location using air data. DADC’s can run a number of checks to verify
on the aircraft. They are widely used for various components the plausibility of data received. Change to an alternate data
or systems on an aircraft. source can be automatic. Plus solid state technology is more
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 11-12] reliable and modern units are small and lightweight.

The vertical speed indicator and the altimeter are connected In a pressurized cabin, the air pressure is greater than the
to the static system. The airspeed indicator is as well but ambient air. In an altimeter, this increase in pressure would fill
it is also connected to the pitot tube. The static system the case around the aneroid bellows and cause an indication
is designed to collect atmospheric pressure in a static as though the aircraft was at a lower altitude. In the airspeed
condition. This pressure is irrelevant for a cabin altitude indicator, the pitot ram air pressure fills an aneroid, which is
indication or a cabin rate-of-change indication. surrounded by static air pressure in the case. By filling the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 13-14] case with a higher pressure than the static ambient pressure,
in this case the cabin air pressure, the aneroid expansion will
be suppressed causing a lower airspeed indication.

QUESTIONS
10-13 AMA001 10-16 AMA076

Air pressure is inversely proportional to altitude. At what 1. An airspeed indicator measures the differential between
altitude is atmospheric air pressure approximately half of pitot and static air pressures surrounding the aircraft at
what it is at sea level? any moment of flight.
A. 5,000 Feet 2. An airspeed indicator measures the differential between
B. 18,000 Feet pitot and cabin air pressures at any moment of flight.
C. 40,000 Feet
Regarding the above statements,
A. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. Only No. 1 is true.
10-14 AMA014 10-17 AMA014

Within an altimeter, when the aneroid capsule Machmeter red and white striped pointer is used in high
expands _____________. performance aircraft to
A. the reading of the Kollsman window increases A. simplify monitoring of higher airspeeds.
B. the altitude reading decreases B. measure airspeeds above the speed of sound.
C. the altitude reading increases C. prevent operation at or above the speed of sound
or maximum allowable speed due to possibility of
destructive shock waves.
10-15 AMA096 10-18 AMA010

Why are most static vents located on the side of the fuselage? Which of the following are some uses for a DC Selsyn system?
A. To prevent hysteresis. 1. Indicates position of retractable landing gear.
B. To prevent icing. 2. Indicates the angle of incidence of an aircraft.
C. To reduce position error. 3. Indicates the altitude of an aircraft.
4. Indicates cowl flaps or coil cooler door position.
5. Indicates fuel quantity.
6. Indicates the rate of climb of an aircraft.
7. Indicates position of wing flaps.
A. 2, 3, 5, and 6
B. 2, 3, 4, and 5
C. 1, 4, 5, and 7

ANSWERS

At 18,000 feet, atmospheric air pressure (7.34psi) is about 1/2 The airspeed indicator is a differential pressure gauge. Ram
of atmospheric pressure at sea level on a standard day. This air pressure is directed from the aircraft’s pitot tube into a
is also the altitude that flight levels begin and all airspace is diaphragm located in an aircraft instrument case. Static air
controlled airspace above this level. Barometric pressure is pressure is directed into the case surrounding the diaphragm.
set at 29.92 in the Kollsman window on all aircraft altimeters As the speed of the aircraft varies, the ram air pressure varies,
operating at 18,000 feet and above. expanding or contracting the diaphragm. Linkages attached
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 18-20] to the diaphragm cause a pointer to move over the instrument
face, which is calibrated in knots or miles per hour.

As the pressure within the aneroid capsule always remains The machmeter is essentially an airspeed instrument that
the same, it expands or contracts based on the outside is calibrated in relation to Mach (the speed of sound). It
pressure pushing on it. When that pressure decreases due to contains an altitude sensing diaphragm that adjusts input to
increased altitude, the capsule expands. This expansion then the pointer so changes in the speed of sound with altitude
drives the internal mechanisms to move the dials clockwise, are incorporated. Shock waves can develop when an
thus displaying a higher altitude. aircraft travels near the speed of sound that can affect flight
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 19] controls and, in some cases, literally tear the aircraft apart.
A maximum allowable speed is established for the aircraft
during certification flight testing. The machmeter is used to
ensure this speed is not exceeded.

Position error, or installation error, is that inaccuracy caused A synchro system is an electric system used for transmitting
by the location of the static vent. The amount of air pressure information from one point to another. Most position
collection error is measured in test flights. Normally, location indicating instruments are designed around a synchro
of static vents is adjusted during these test flight so that system, such as the flap position indicator or indicators to
position error is minimal. display the position of landing gear, autopilot systems, or
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 21-22] radar. Fluid pressure indicators also commonly used the
synchro system. Fluid pressure can be directed into a remote
transmitter. The motion of a pressure bellows can be geared
to the transmitter rotor in such a way as to make the rotor
turn. The position of an aircraft, such as the altitude above
sea level or the rate of climb of the aircraft are displayed via
direct reading, pressure instruments. The angle of incidence
of an aircraft is fixed on most aircraft.

QUESTIONS
10-19 AMA010 10-22 AMA010

1. A DC Selsyn system is a widely used electrical method The rotor in a Magnasyn remote indicating system uses
of indicating a remote mechanical movement or position. A. an electromagnet.
2. A synchro type indicating system is an electrical B. an electromagnet and a permanent magnet.
system used for transmitting information from one point C. a permanent magnet.
to another.

10-20 AMA014 10-23 AMA014

Which best describes the basic operation of a DC Selsyn A mechanical accelerometer operates on the principle of
system when transmitting information between of a A. gravity.
remote position indicator such as wing flaps and the B. rigidity in space.
cockpit indicator? C. inertia.
A. A transmitter sends varying voltages to an indicator
motor which moves a pointer.
B. Resistances based on the flap position are compared
and sent to an indicator motor to position a pointer.
C. A magnetic field in the transmitter is mirrored to a
magnetic field in the indicator to align a pointer.
10-21 AMA010 10-24 AMA018

The basic difference between an Autosyn and a Magnesyn The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in
indicating system is the some light aircraft is activated by
A. rotor. A. positive air pressure.
B. transmitter. B. static air pressure.
C. receiver. C. negative air pressure.

ANSWERS

A synchro system is an electric system used for Aircraft with alternating current (AC) electrical power systems
transmitting information from one point to another. Most make use of Autosyn or Magnasyn synchro remote indicating
position‑indicating instruments are designed around a systems. Magnasyn systems use permanent magnet rotors.
synchro system. The common synchro system that uses [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 28]
direct current is called a DC Selsyn system. AC systems are
known as either a Magnasyn system or an Autosyn system.

A circular resistance windings with three tap-offs is fed Simple accelerometers are mechanical, direct reading
voltage by a center transmitter rotor. As the rotor changes instruments calibrated to indicate force in G’s. The
position, the voltage at the tap-off points changes as does accelerometer operates on the principle of inertia. A mass
the magnetic field created by the voltage flowing through inside is free to slide along a shaft in response to the
the resistance coil. The magnetic field change is directional. slightest acceleration force. When a maneuver creates an
Wires transfer the resistance coil tap-off voltage to a acceleration force, the aircraft and instrument move but
resistance coil in the indicator. The direction of the magnetic inertia causes the mass to stay at rest in space. As the shaft
field established in the indicator is the same as that in the slides through the mass, the relative position of the mass on
transmitter. A permanent magnet is attached to the center the shaft changes. This position corresponds to the force
rotor shaft in the indicator, as is the indicator pointer. The experienced. Through a series of pulley’s, springs, and
magnet and pointer align with the magnetic field for the shafts, the pointers are moved on the dial to indicate the
correct indication. relative strength of the acceleration force.

Aircraft with Alternating Current (AC) electrical power A reed-type stall warning device is located behind an
systems make use of Autosyn or Magnasyn synchro remote opening precisely located in the leading edge of the wing.
indicating systems. Magnasyn systems use permanent When the angle of attack increases to near the point of
magnet rotors. Autosyn systems are distinguished by the fact stall, low pressure air flows over the opening. This causes
that the transmitter and indicator rotors are electro-magnets a suction and the air leaving the wing through the opening
rather than permanent magnets. flows past the reed which vibrates audibly to warn the pilot.

QUESTIONS
10-25 AMA018 10-28 AMA014

Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin An electrical resistance thermometer
warning the pilot when a stall A. is used for measuring extremely high temperatures.
A. is starting to occur. B. uses a bridge circuit and a variable resistor sensor.
B. first affects the outboard portions of the wings. C. compares the resistance of two dissimilar metals.
C. is imminent.
10-26 AMA010 10-29 AMA098

The operation of an Angle Of Attack (AOA) indicating system Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured
is based on by using
A. airflow parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. A. iron/constantan thermocouples.
B. airflow parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft. B. chromel/alumel thermocouples.
C. detecting the angular difference between the C. ratiometer electrical resistance thermometers.
relative wind and the fuselage, which is used as a
reference plane.
10-27 AMA014 10-30 AMA098

Which of these readings would be measured with electrical Which of the following is true of Exhaust Gas Temperature
resistance type temperature indicators? (EGT) and turbine inlet temperature (TIT) systems?
A. Cylinder Head Temperature A. Several thermocouples are used.
B. Exhaust Gas Temperature B. They are high amperage devices.
C. Carburetor Air Temperature C. The total voltage produced drives the indicator motor.

ANSWERS

A stall warning device uses an aural tone to warn of an Typically, the resistance of a metal increases as the
impending stall due to an increase in angle of attack. temperature rises. An electrical resistance thermometer
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 34] has a sensor that is manufactured so that it has a definite
resistance for each temperature value in its working range.
A bridge circuit in the indicator balances this variable
resistance against the other known resistances of the circuit.
A galvanometer attached across the bridge circuit, which
is also the indicator pointer, indicates proportionally to the
changing resistance of the sensor.

There are two main types of AOA sensors in common use. Thermocouple leads are made from a variety of metals
Both detect the angular difference between the relative wind depending on the maximum temperature to which they are
and the fuselage, which is used as a reference plane. The exposed. Iron and constantan, or copper and constantan
slotted probe airstream direction detector measures angle are common for cylinder head temperature measurement.
of attack using two slots. The probe extends out of the side Chromel and alumel are used for turbine engine exhaust
of the fuselage into the airflow. The slots lead to different gas temperature.
sides of movable paddles in a chamber of the unit just inside [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 39]
the fuselage skin. As the angle of attack varies, the pressure
ported by each of the slots changes and the paddles rotate
to neutralize this pressure difference. The shaft upon which
the paddles rotate connects to a potentiometer wiper
contact. The changing resistance is used to balance a bridge
circuit that signals a motor in the indicator to move the
pointer proportional to the angle of attack.

Electrical resistance thermometers are used widely in many Several thermocouples are used to measure EGT or TIT.
types of aircraft to measure carburetor air temperature, oil They are spaced at intervals around the perimeter of the
temperature, free air temperature, and more. They are used engine exhaust duct or turbine casing. An average of the
to measure low and medium temperatures in the -70°C to voltage produced by the thermocouples is used. The tiny
150°C range. Ratiometer temperature measuring systems thermocouple voltage is typically amplified to drive the
are used to measure engine oil, outside air, carburetor indicator servo motor.
air and other temperatures in many types of aircraft. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 40]
Thermocouples are used to measure high temperatures. Two
common applications are the measurement of Cylinder Head
Temperature (CHT) and Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT).

QUESTIONS
10-31 AMA014 10-34 AMA036

How many of the following are controlled by gyroscopes? When swinging a magnetic compass, the compensator's are
1. Attitude indicator. adjusted to correct for
2. Heading indicator. A. magnetic variations.
3. Turn needle of the turn and slip indicator. B. compass card oscillations.
A. Three C. magnetic influence deviation.
B. One
C. Two
10-32 AMA036 10-35 AMA036

Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to A direction indicating instrument that combines the use of a
A. dampen the oscillation of the float. gyro and a magnetic compass is called
B. reduce deviation errors. A. a ring gyro heading indicator.
C. retard precession of the float. B. a flux gate compass.
C. a directional gyro.
10-33 AMA036 10-36 AMA036

Which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic compass Solid state devices containing layered structure that react to
inaccuracies may be compensated for by mechanics? magnetism on a molecular level are called
A. Variation A. magnetrons.
B. Magnetic Compass Current B. flux chambers.
C. Deviation C. magnetometers.

ANSWERS

Gyroscopic instruments are essential instruments used on The main magnets of a compass align not only with the
all aircraft. They provide the pilot with critical attitude and earth’s magnetic field. They align with the composite field
directional information. made up of all magnetic influences around the unit such as
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 42-59] the local electromagnetic influence from metallic structures
near the compass and operation of the aircraft engine
and electrical system. This is called magnetic deviation.
Compensating screws move small magnets within the
compass to correct for this deviation. The process for
adjusting for deviation is know as swinging the compass.

The entire magnetic assembly of the compass is enclosed in An elaborate and very accurate method of direction
a sealed case that is filled with a liquid similar to kerosene. indication has been developed that combines the use of a
This dampens vibration and oscillation of the moving float gyro, a magnetic compass, and a remote indicating system.
assembly and decreases friction. It is called the slaved gyro compass or flux gate compass
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 43] system. It is a gyroscopic indicator augmented by magnetic
direction information from a remotely located compass.

Magnetic deviation is caused by influences around a Solid state magnetometers are used on many modern aircraft.
compass that cause the earth magnetic field to be altered. They have no moving parts and are extremely accurate. Tiny
The compass magnet aligns with the altered field. The result layered structures react to magnetism on a molecular level
is a compass indication called deviation. The technician can resulting in variations in electron activity. These low-power
compensate for deviation by "swinging" the compass. consuming devices can sense not only direction to the earth’s
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 44] magnetic poles, but also the angle of the flux field. They
are free from oscillation that plagues a standard magnetic
compass. They feature integrated processing algorithms and
easy integration with digital systems.

QUESTIONS
10-37 AMA014 10-40 AMA014

The most common type of pump in an aircraft vacuum A gyro spinning at high speed has a unique property called
system is rigidity in space. This means
A. piston. A. it will spin indefinitely if all friction is removed.
B. centrifugal. B. it cannot be moved if a force less than its mass acts
C. vane. upon it.
C. the rotor of a free gyro always points in the same
direction regardless of the positioning of the base.
10-38 AMA013 10-41 AMA014

Which condition would be most likely to cause excessive When a force is applied to a spinning gyroscope, the
vacuum in a vacuum system? gyroscope acts as though the force came from 90 degrees
A. Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted. further around the rotor in the direction it is spinning. This
B. Vacuum pump overspeed. property is known as
C. Vacuum relief valve spring weak. A. rigidity in space.
B. displaced inertia.
C. precession.
10-39 AMA071 10-42 AMA014

When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are displayed on an Which of the following describes the principle upon which a
HSI, the indication is ring laser gyro operates?
A. that function is operating. A. A laser beam will speed up when traveling a
B. that function is inoperative. longer distance.
C. to call attention to deviation from the desired setting, B. The wavelength of a laser beam will compress or
or flight path, or heading, etc. expand when traveling in a plane of rotation.
C. The frequency of a laser beam remains constant
once generated.

ANSWERS

The vane-type engine-driven pump is the most common A gyroscope with two rings plus a mounting bracket is said
source of vacuum for gyros installed in general aviation, light to be a free gyro because it is free to rotate about two axis
aircraft. One type of engine- driven pump is geared to the that are both perpendicular to the rotor’s spin axis. Rigidity
engine and is connected to the lubricating system to seal, in space means that the rotor of a free gyro always points in
cool, and lubricate the pump. Another commonly used pump the same direction no matter which way the base of the gyro
is a dry vacuum pump. It operates without external lubrication. is positioned.

Vacuum system capacity is more than is needed for Precession is a second important characteristic of a spinning
operation of the instruments. An adjustable vacuum regulator gyroscope. By applying force to the horizontal axis of the
is set for the vacuum desired for the instruments. Excess gyro, the applied force is resisted and motion occurs around
suction in the instrument lines is reduced when the spring- its vertical axis.
loaded valve opens to atmosphere pressure. Therefore, if [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 54]
the relief valve is improperly adjusted, it could cause excess
vacuum in the system.

When an electric instrument is not getting sufficient power A ring laser gyro produces laser beams that travel in
such as an electric attitude indicator, an OFF flag will be opposite directions around a closed triangular cavity (the
displayed. Similarly, when power is lost or the VOR signal ring). It is mounted aligned with one of the aircraft’s axis
is weak or interrupted to a CDI, a NAV warning flag is of rotation. The wavelength of the light traveling around
displayed. The display of a flag indicating that a function in the ring is fixed. As the loop rotated due to the aircraft
an instrument is not operative or, perhaps, should not be rotating around the axis with which the ring is aligned, the
trusted, is a convention in aviation. path that the light must travel lengthens or shortens. The
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 52-58] light wavelengths compress or expand to complete travel
around the ring as the ring changes its effective length.
As the wavelengths change, the frequencies also change.
By examining the difference in the frequencies of the two
counterrotating beams of light, the rate at which the path is
rotating can be measured with great accuracy.

QUESTIONS
10-43 AMA014 10-46 AMA025

In a Microelectromechanical Systems (MEMS) The typical analog autopilot system flies the aircraft by using
gyroscopes, what devise replaces the spinning gyro of the electrical signals developed
mechanical gyroscope? A. at the control surface mounted sensors.
A. A vibrating or oscillating piezoelectric device. B. a quadrant position sensors.
B. An electro magnet. C. in gyro-sensing units.
C. A rotating semi conductor.
10-44 AMA013 10-47 AMA025

The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to What are the four basic elements of an auto pilot system?
A. represent the wings of the aircraft. A. Sensing, feedback, control, reset.
B. represent the nose of the aircraft. B. Command, adjustment, control, feedback.
C. align the instrument glass in the case. C. Sensing, computing, output, command.
10-45 AMA014 10-48 AMA025

A turn coordinator instrument indicates A flight director system
A. both roll and yaw. A. is integrated with the turn coordinator instrument.
B. the need for corrections in pitch and bank. B. moves the control surfaces in accordance with
C. the longitudinal attitude of the aircraft during climb computer commands.
and descent. C. moves a command bar in the attitude indicator.

ANSWERS

The basis of operation of tiny MEMS gyroscopes is the The attitude and directional gyros, the turn coordinator, and
same rigidity concept used in mechanical gyroscopes. The altitude control are the autopilot sensing elements. These
difference is that a vibrating or oscillating piezoelectric device units sense the movement of the aircraft. They generate
replaces the spinning, weighted ring of the mechanical gyro. electric signals that are used by the autopilot to automatically
Once set in motion, any out-of-plane motion is detectable by take the required corrective action needed to keep the
the varying microvoltages or capacitances detected through aircraft flying as intended.
geometrically arranged pickups. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 61-64]

On a Directional Gyro (DG), the nose of a small, fixed airplane Most autopilots consist of four basic components, plus
on the instrument glass indicates the aircraft’s heading. various switches and auxiliary units. The four basic
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 58] components are: sensing elements, computing elements,
output elements, and command elements. Many advanced
autopilots contain a fifth element: feedback or follow-up.

The gyroscopic turn coordinator works on the principle Essentially, a flight director system is an autopilot system
of precession. The rotor of a turn coordinator is canted without the servos. All of the same sensing and computations
upwards 30°. As such, it responds not only to movement are made, but the pilot controls the aircraft and makes
about the vertical axis, but also to roll movements about maneuvers by following the command bar positioned by the
the longitudinal axis. flight director in the attitude indicator instrument.

QUESTIONS
10-49 AMA014 10-52 AMA014

In addition to the information given by an attitude The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to
indicator, an Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI) A. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system
typically displays configuration for the current flight situation.
A. ILS approach information and flight director B. display alphanumeric data and representations of
command bars. aircraft instruments.
B. horizontal situation indicator (his) data. C. receive and process input signals from aircraft
C. weather radar information and estimated time of arrival. and engine sensors and send the data to the
appropriate display.
10-50 AMA014 10-53 AMA014

The function of an EHSI is primarily to display The function of a Symbol Generator (SG) in and EFIS is to
information concerning A. receive and process input signals from aircraft
A. aircraft attitude. and engine sensors and send the data to the
B. navigation. appropriate display.
C. aircraft systems. B. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system
configuration for the current flight situation.
C. display alphanumeric data and representations of
aircraft instruments.
10-51 AMA014 10-54 AMA014

Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to
converted into A. display alphanumeric data and representations of
A. digital signals. aircraft instruments.
B. analog signals. B. receive and process input signals from aircraft
C. carrier wave signals. and engine sensors and send the data to the
appropriate display.
C. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system
configuration for the current flight situation.

ANSWERS

The EADI is an advanced version of attitude and electric In an EFIS system, digital processors or symbol generators
attitude indicators. Numerous additional situational flight are used to drive the CRT which displays the information
parameters are displayed. Most notable are those that selected by the pilot with the display controller.
relate to instrument approaches such as the Instrument [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 70]
Landing System (ILS) and the flight director command bars.
Annunciation of active systems, such as the automatic flight
control system and navigation systems, is typical.

The EHSI is an evolved version of the Horizontal Situation In an EFIS system, digital processors or symbol generators
Indicator (HIS), which was born from the gyroscopic direction are used to drive the CRT which displays the information
indicator or Directional Gyro (DG). The HIS incorporates selected by the pilot with the display controller.
directional information to two different navigational aids, [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 70]
as well as the heading of the aircraft. The EHSI does this
and more. Its primary purpose is to display as much useful
navigational information as possible.

Early EFIS systems have analog technology while newer Through a display controller, the pilot can select the various
models are digital systems. mode or screen features available to be displayed.

QUESTIONS
10-55 AMA027 10-58 AMA043

The primary function of an ECAM system is to What is BITE?
A. combine autopilot input with engine power settings to A. Built-In Test Equipment
position the throttles. B. Built-In Test For Engines
B. monitor engine controls to ensure programmed C. Built-In Test Envelope
navigation targets are met.
C. monitor airframe and engine parameters for the pilot.
10-56 AMA027 10-59 AMA027

An Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) What is a Flight Management System (FMS)?
displays full-time engine parameters on the upper screen A. A hand-off auto pilot from throttle up to after touchdown.
of the two-screen, two-computer system. The bottom B. A programmable navigation control system that
screen displays guides the pilot from the starting airport to the
A. flight control position. destination airport.
B. navigational messages related to the programmed C. A master computer system that has control over all
flight plan. other systems.
C. secondary engine parameters and non-engine
system status.
10-57 AMA027 10-60 AMA014

How are ECAM and EICAS system displays controlled? Cases for electrically operated instruments are made of
A. Automatically depending on the position of the throttle. A. iron or steel cases.
B. With touch screen prompts. B. plastic or composite cases.
C. Via a separate control panel. C. aluminum or Bakelite cases.

ANSWERS

The basic concept behind Electronic Centralized Aircraft BITE stands for Built-In Test Equipment. It is standard
Monitor (ECAM) is automatic performance of monitoring for monitoring systems to monitor themselves as well as
duties for the pilot. When a problem is detected or a failure the aircraft systems. ECAM flight warning computers, for
occurs, the primary display, along with an aural and visual example, self test upon startup. The signal generators are
cue, alert the pilot. Corrective action that needs to be taken also tested. Further tests can be initiated manually. EICAS
is displayed as well as suggested action due to the failure. uses BITE for systems and components.
Early ECAM systems only monitored airframe systems, [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 72-73]
however, later model ECAM systems incorporate engine
monitoring as well.

EICAS provides full time primary engine parameters An FMS cab be thought of as a master computer system
(EPR, N1, EGT, etc.) on the top, primary monitor. Advisory that has control over all other systems, computerized and
and warnings are also shown there. Secondary engine otherwise. As such, it coordinates adjustment of flight,
parameters and non- engine system status are displayed engine, and airframe parameters either automatically or by
on the bottom monitor. The lower screen is also used for instructing the pilot how to do so. Literally, all aspects of the
maintenance diagnosis when the aircraft is on the ground. flight are considered, from preflight planning to pulling up to
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 72] the Jet-way upon landing, including in-flight amendments to
planned courses of action.

Display modes are selected via a separate ECAM control Electric instruments usually have a steel or iron alloy case to
panel. The manual mode of an ECAM is set by pressing contain electromagnetic flux caused by current flow inside.
one of the display buttons on the control panel. The display [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 77]
select panel for an EICAS allows the pilot to choose which
computer is actively supplying information. It also controls
the display of secondary engine information and system
status displays on the lower monitor.

QUESTIONS
10-61 AMA088 10-64 AMA066

Which simple device is required on the flight deck of all An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the
IFR certified aircraft? aircraft structure to
A. A flashlight. A. act as a restraint strap.
B. An AM radio. B. provide current return paths.
C. A clock. C. aid in the panel installation.
10-62 AMA013 10-65 AMA066

Which of the following instrument discrepancies would What must be done to an instrument panel that is supported
require replacement of the instrument? by shock mounts?
1. Red line missing A. Bonding straps must be installed across the instrument
2. Case leaking mounts as a current path from the instrument panel to
3. Glass cracked the aircraft structure.
4. Mounting screws loose B. The instrument mounts must be grounded to the
5. Case paint chipped aircraft structure as a current path.
6. Leaking at line B nut C. The instrument mounts must be tightened to the
7. Will not zero out specified torque required by the maintenance manual.
8. Fogged
A. 1, 3, 5, and 8
B. 1, 4, 6, and 7
C. 2, 3, 7, and 8
10-63 AMA066 10-66 AMA018

Instrument panel shock mounts absorb A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition
A. low frequency, high-amplitude shocks. to throttle setting, monitors the position of which of
B. high g‑shock loads imposed by turbulent air. the following?
C. high energy impact shocks caused by hard landings. A. Ailerons, elevators, speed brake, and steerable
nose wheel.
B. Fuselage landing gear.
C. Elevators, speed brake, flaps, and stabilizer trim.

ANSWERS

Whether called a clock or chronometer, an FAA approved Instrument panels are usually made of sheet aluminum
time indicator is required in the cockpit of IFR certified alloy and are painted a dark, nonglare color. Bonding straps
aircraft. Pilots use a clock during flight to time maneuvers are used to ensure electrical continuity from the panel to
and for navigational purposes. The clock is usually mounted the airframe.
near the turn coordinator. It indicates hours, minutes [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 78]
and seconds.

A crack in an airtight instrument case renders it unairworthy. Instrument panels are usually made of sheet aluminum
It follows that a cracked glass would as well since the alloy and are painted a dark, nonglare color. Bonding straps
integrity of the airtight unit has been breached. An are used to ensure electrical continuity from the panel to
instrument that will not zero is not indicating correctly and the airframe.
must be replaced. A fogged instrument may be difficult read [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 78]
and clearly contains moisture and should be replaced.

Instrument panels are usually shock-mounted to absorb During takeoff, the cause of a warning signal activation
low frequency, high amplitude shocks. The mounts absorb can occur when the throttles are advanced and any of the
most of the vertical and horizontal vibration, but permit the following exist: speed brakes are not down, flaps are not in
instruments to operate under conditions of minor vibration. takeoff range, auxiliary power exhaust door is open, stabilizer
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 78] is not in the takeoff setting.

QUESTIONS
10-67 AMA013 10-70 AMA013

How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an 1. Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct attention
instrument panel? to operational ranges and limitations.
A. By four machine screws which extend through the 2. Aircraft instruments range markings are not specified
instrument panel. by Title 14 of the code of Federal Regulations but are
B. By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the standardized by aircraft manufacturers.
panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the
instrument panel. Regarding the above statements,
C. By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the A. Only No. 1 is true.
instrument panel. B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
10-68 AMA013 10-71 AMA090

The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their Which of the following instrument discrepancies could be
respective panel depends on the corrected by an aviation mechanic?
A. instrument manufacturer. 1. Red Line Missing
B. design of the instrument panel. 2. Case Leaking
C. design of the instrument case. 3. Glass Cracked
4. Mounting Screws Loose
5. Case Paint Chipped
6. Leaking At Line B Nut
7. Will Not Adjust
8. Fogged
A. 1, 4, and 6
B. 1, 4, 5, and 6
C. 3, 4, 5, and 6
10-69 AMA013 10-72 AMA090

Aircraft instruments should be marked and graduated in A certificated mechanic may perform
accordance with A. minor repairs to instruments.
A. both the aircraft and engine manufacturers’ specifications. B. instrument overhaul.
B. the instrument manufacturer’s specifications. C. 100-hour inspections of instruments.
C. the specific aircraft maintenance or flight manual.

ANSWERS

To mount a flangeless instrument, a special clamp, shaped Many instruments contain markings on the dial face
and dimensioned to fit the instrument case, is permanently to indicate, at a glance, whether a particular system or
secured to the rear face of the instrument panel. The component is within a range of operation that is safe and
instrument is slid into the panel from the front and into the desirable or if an undesirable condition exists. These
clamp. The clamp’s tightening screw is accessible from the markings are put on the instrument by the original equipment
front side of the panel. manufacturer in accordance with the Aircraft Specifications
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 80] on the FAA Type Certificate Data Sheet.

The method of mounting instruments in their respective Occasionally, the aircraft technician may find it necessary to
panels depends on the design of the instrument case. apply range marking to an instrument. Correcting a "B" nut
Flanged and flangeless instrument cases are employed and leak and tightening mounting screws are not maintenance
mounting systems for each type of instrument case are used. on an instrument. Touching up the paint on the outside of an
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 80] instrument case is permitted. FAA airframe and powerplant
technicians are not qualified to do internal maintenance on
an instrument.

Instrument range markings are put on the instrument by the An FAA airframe and powerplant technician is not
original equipment manufacturer in accordance with the qualified to do internal maintenance on instruments and
aircraft specifications on the type certificate data sheet. related line replaceable units. However, licensed airframe
Data describing these limitations can also sometimes technicians and A&P technicians are charged with a wide
be found in the aircraft manufacturer’s operating and variety of maintenance functions related to instrument
maintenance manuals. systems. Installation, removal, inspection, troubleshooting,
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 81] and functional checks are all performed in the field by
licensed personnel.

QUESTIONS
10-73 AMA013 10-76 AMA090

The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil pressure When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who is
gauge indicates responsible for making sure it is properly marked?
A. minimum engine safe RPM operating range. A. The instrument manufacturer
B. minimum precautionary safe operating range. B. The aircraft owner
C. minimum and/or maximum safe operating limits. C. The instrument installer
10-74 AMA013 10-77 AMA013

Which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the
operated instrument glass loose? best rate of climb speed (one engine inoperative)?
A. Mark the case and glass with a slippage mark. A. A green arc.
B. Replace the glass. B. A blue radial line.
C. Install another instrument. C. A red radial line.
10-75 AMA070 10-78 AMA013

The requirements for testing and inspection of instrument How many of the following instruments will normally have
static systems required by Section 91.411 are contained in range markings?
A. AC 43.13-1B. 1. Airspeed indicator
B. Type Certificate Data Sheets. 2. Altimeter
C. Part 43, Appendix E. 3. Cylinder head temperature gauge
A. Two
B. One
C. Three

ANSWERS

The colors used in range markings are red, yellow, green, An FAA airframe and powerplant technician is not qualified
blue, or white. The markings can be in the form of an arc or to do internal maintenance on instruments and related line
a radial line. Red is used to indicate maximum and minimum replaceable units.
ranges; operations beyond these markings are dangerous However, licensed airframe technicians and A&P technicians
and should be avoided. are charged with a wide variety of maintenance functions
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 81-82] related to instrument systems. Installation, removal,
inspection, troubleshooting, and functional checks are all
performed in the field by licensed personnel. It is also a
responsibility of the licensed technician holding an airframe
rating to know what maintenance is required and to access
the approved procedures for meeting those requirements.

A loose glass on a vacuum operated instrument compromises On an airspeed indicator, a blue radial line is used to indicate
the integrity of the vacuum system. The aircraft technician the best single-engine rate-of-climb airspeed.
is responsible for the prevention or correction of vacuum [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 82]
system malfunctions. Since an FAA airframe and powerplant
technician is not qualified to do internal maintenance on
instruments, another instrument must be installed.

When an aircraft is to be operated under Instrument Flight Altimeters do not have instrument range makings.
Rules (IFR), an altimeter test must have been performed [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 82]
within the previous 24 months. Title 14 of the Code of Federal
Regulations (14CFR) part 91, section 91.411, requires this
test, as well as tests on the pitot‑static system and on the
automatic pressure altitude reporting system. The licensed
airframe or A&P mechanic is not qualified to perform the
altimeter inspection. They must be conducted by either the
manufacturer or a certified repair station. 14CFR part 43,
Appendix E and F detail the requirements for these tests.

QUESTIONS
10-79 AMA077 10-82 AMA096

Instrument static system leakage can be detected by If a static pressure system check reveals excessive leakage
observing the rate of change in indication of the the leak(s) may be located by
A. airspeed indicator after suction has been applied to the A. pressurizing the system and adding leak detection dye.
static system to cause a prescribed equivalent airspeed B. isolating portions of the line and testing each portion
to be indicated. systematically, starting at the instrument connections.
B. altimeter after suction has been applied to the static C. removing and visually inspecting the line segments.
system to cause a prescribed equivalent altitude to
be indicated.
C. altimeter after pressure has been applied to the static
system to cause a prescribed equivalent altitude to
be indicated.
10-80 AMA096 10-83 AMA036

The maximum altitude loss permitted during an An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date the
unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure system compass correction card when?
integrity check is A. The compass is serviced.
A. 200 feet in 1 minute. B. Equipment is added that could effect
B. 100 feet in 1 minute. compass deviation.
C. 50 feet in 1 minute. C. An annual inspection is accomplished on the aircraft.
10-81 AMA096 10-84 AMA036

When an unpressurized aircraft’s static pressure system is The maximum deviation (during level flight) permitted in
leak checked to comply with the requirements of Section a compensated magnetic direction indicator installed on
91.411, what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a an aircraft certificated under Federal Aviation Regulation
pitot-static system tester? Part 23 is
1. Vertical Speed Indicator A. 10°.
2. Cabin Altimeter B. 6°.
3. Altimeter C. 8°.
4. Cabin Rate-Of-Change Indicator
A. 2 or 4
B. 1 or 5
C. 3

ANSWERS

A testing device is connected into the static system at the When leak checking a static system, pressure is reduced
static vent end, and pressure is reduced in the system by the in the system by the amount to indicate 1000 feet on the
amount required to indicate 1000 feet on the altimeter. Then altimeter. Then, the system is sealed and observed for
the system is sealed and observed for one minute. A loss of one minute. A loss of altitude of more than 100 feet is not
altitude of more than 100 feet is not permissible. permissible. If a leak exists, a systematic check of portions of
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 83] the system is conducted until the leak is isolated. Most leaks
occur at fittings.

A testing device is connected into the static system at the Follow the aircraft manufacturer’s for method and frequency of
static vent end, and pressure is reduced in the system by the swinging the magnetic compass. This is usually accomplished
amount required to indicate 1000 feet on the altimeter. Then at flight hour or calendar intervals. Compass calibration is also
the system is sealed and observed for one minute. A loss of performed when a new electric component is installed on the
altitude of more than 100 feet is not permissible. flight deck, such as a new radio. A complete list of conditions
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 83] requiring a compass swing and procedure can be found in
FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 43.13-1 (as revised), Chapter 12-37.

The method of leak testing depends on the type of aircraft, Once a compensated magnetic direction indicator (compass)
its pitot static system, and the testing equipment available. has been swung, the aircraft is returned to alignment with
Essentially, pressure is reduced in the static system by the the North-South radial of the airport compass rose and the
amount to indicate 1000 feet on the altimeter. Then, the indication is recorded. Up to 10° deviation is allowed. The
system is sealed and observed for one minute. aircraft is aligned with radials every 30 degrees around the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 83] compass rose and the compass indications are recorded on
the compass compensation card.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
10-1(O). What are the basic components of an auto pilot system?
10-2(O). Explain the operation of a magnetic compass.
10-3(O). Explain the basic procedure for swinging a compass.
10-4(O). Explain the purpose and operation of a gyroscopic instrument.
10-5(O). How does a pitot and static system operate?
10-6(O). What are the 14 CFR 43 and/or 91 requirements for static system checks?
10-7(O). Describe instrument range markings and their various meanings.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
10-1(O). The four basic components of an autopilot system are: the sensing elements, the computing element, the
output elements, and the command elements. Many advanced autopilots contain a fifth element known
as the feedback, or follow-up element. The sensing elements include the attitude and directional gyro, the
turn coordinator, and an altitude sensing device. These can be instrument mounted or remotely mounted.
The most modern autopilots use solid-state devices rather than gyros. The sensing elements provide input
signals to the autopilot computer. The computing element of an autopilot system may be analog or digital. Its
function is to interpret sensing element data, integrate commands and navigational input, and send signals
to the output element to move the flight controls as required. The output elements are the servos that cause
actuation of the flight control surfaces. Systems are usually electric, electro-pneumatic, or electro-hydraulic in
operation. The command element, often known as the flight controller, is the human interface of the autopilot.
It is the means for the pilot to tell the autopilot system what to do. The feedback or follow-up element provides
signals that slow the adjustment of control surfaces as they reach the position required so that the aircraft
does not continually over correct its position. Transducers on the surface actuators or the autopilot servo units
accomplish the reduction in control surface deflection. In a rate autopilot, control surface pickups cancel error
messages when the surface has been moved to the correct position.
10-2(O). A magnetic compass is comprised of permanent magnets that are free to move. They naturally align
themselves with the earth’s magnetic field. An indicating "lubber line" attached to the magnets displays
direction on a graduated dial which allows 360° of movement and indication. The magnetic compass magnets
are influenced by other magnetic fields in addition to the earth’s. Therefore, precautions must be made during
flight deck installations to guard the compass from these influences that cause deviation. Users must also
note magnetic variation caused by the earth’s magnetic field not being exactly aligned with the geographic
landmarks such as the north and south poles. Dip error also occurs when operating near the poles.
10-3(O). Swinging a compass is performed to reduce magnetic deviation caused by electromagnetic interference from
onboard aircraft equipment. A compass rose, usually painted somewhere on the surface of the airport, is
required or one must be made. Either should be located away from any possible electromagnetic influences
on the compass. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. The aircraft should be placed in normal flight
attitude with normal equipment operating and the engine(s) running. Use a non-ferrous screwdriver to make
adjustments to the compass. Begin by aligning the aircraft with the compass rose facing north (0° or 360°).
Rotate the adjusting screws on the compass so that the indication is 0° or 360°. Then, position the aircraft
so that it is aligned with east on the compass rose. Rotate the adjusting screws on the compass so that
the compass indicates 90°. Reposition the aircraft to be facing south aligned with the compass rose. If the
compass indicates 180°, no adjustment is made. If it does not, rotate the adjusting screws on the compass so
that 2 of the deviation from 180° is removed. Finally, align the aircraft of the compass rose facing west (270°).
Rotate the adjusting crews to removed 2 of any deviation from an indication of 270°. Align the aircraft with
the compass rose radials every 30°. Record the indications on the compass correction card which should be
displayed near the compass on the flight deck. Date and sign the card and ensure it is in full view to the pilot.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
10-4(O). Most gyroscopic instruments are used for direction or attitude indication. They can be driven by air pressure,
vacuum, or electricity since the spinning armature of a motor can act as a gyroscope. When rotating, a
gyroscope possesses unique characteristics. One is rigidity in space. That is, it will continue to rotate in
the same plane of rotation no matter which way its mounting gimbals are moved. This is the basis of the
directional gyro. The directional gyro, or DG, is commonly relied upon more than a magnetic compass to
indicate direction in an aircraft. The gyro spins in the vertical plane and stays aligned with the direction to
which it is set. The instrument case and aircraft move around the rigid gyro. This causes a vertical compass
card geared to the rotor gimbal to rotate. Typically, a small fixed airplane in front of the moving card indicates
the direction in degrees.
10-5(O). A pitot system is designed to capture the impact air pressure caused by the aircraft moving forward through
the atmosphere. Typically, air enters the system through an opening in the end of a pitot tube that is directed
into the relative wind. Airtight tubing conveys this sensed pressure to the airspeed indicator and to the digital
air data computer (if in use). The pressure is used to calculate and display airspeed. The static system is
designed to sense ambient atmospheric pressure. Input air is either from static ports in the pitot tube, or
from dedicated flush-mounted, heated, static ports located on the sides of the fuselage. The pressure is
conveyed through a series of airtight tubes to the instruments that require the use of atmospheric pressure.
This includes the airspeed indicator, the variometer and the altimeter. On a modern more complex aircraft,
the static system conveys ambient air pressure to a digital air data computer. In addition to the instruments
mentioned, the computer processes ambient air pressure outputs for the auto-pilot system, the transponder,
the flight management computers, IRS navigation units and more.
10-6(O). Aircraft static systems must be tested for leaks after the installation of any component parts or when system
malfunction is suspected. It must also be tested every 24 months if on an IFR certified aircraft intended to be
flown as such. This is specified in 14 CFR 91.411. Licensed airframe and A&P technicians may perform this
check. A test unit is used to check the system. It is attached to the static port end of the static system. Air
pressure is then reduced by the test unit until it causes 1000 feet to be indicated on the altimeter. This pressure
is held for 1 minute. A reduction of altitude indication of more than 100 feet is not allowed. Systematic leak
checking must be performed until the leak is located, repaired, and the static system passes the check.
10-7(O). Many instruments contain colored markings on the dial face to indicate, at a glance, whether a particular
system or component is within a range of operation that is safe and desirable or if an undesirable condition
exists. These markings are put on the instrument by the original equipment manufacturer in accordance
with the aircraft specifications in the Type Certificate Data Sheet. Data describing these limitations may also
sometimes be found in the aircraft manufacturer’s operating and maintenance manuals. Occasionally, the
airframe technician may find it necessary to apply these markings. Application must only be in accordance
with approved data. The marks can be in the form of a colored arc, or, as a radial line. Red is used to indicate
maximum and minimum range values. Green indicates normal operating range. Yellow is used to indicate
caution. Blue and white are used on airspeed indicators to define specific conditions.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
necessary, remove and install an aircraft instrument.
necessary, accomplish a magnetic compass swing.
10-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup of an aircraft instrument, determine the range or limit markings.
necessary, remove, inspect, and install a vacuum system filter and record your findings.
necessary, remove, inspect, and install a pressure system filter and record your findings.
necessary, determine the proper setting of a vacuum system.
necessary, determine the proper setting of a pressure system.
necessary, inspect a vacuum operated instrument power system and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a pressure operated instrument power system and record your findings.
necessary, inspect an electrically operated instrument power system and record your findings.
necessary, troubleshoot a vacuum operated instrument power system and record your findings.
necessary, troubleshoot a pressure operated instrument power system and record your findings.
necessary, troubleshoot an electrically operated instrument power system and record your findings.
necessary, inspect the pitot-static system or a portion thereof and record your findings.
10-15(P). Given an altimeter, find the barometric pressure.
necessary, inspect an electrically operated engine temperature instrument and record your findings.
necessary, inspect an electrically operated pressure instrument and record your findings.
necessary, inspect an electrically operated RPM instrument and record your findings.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
necessary, inspect an electrically operated rate of flow instrument and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a mechanically operated rate of flow instrument and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a mechanically operated RPM instrument and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a mechanically operated pressure instrument and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a mechanically operated temperature instrument and record your findings.
10-24(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, verify the proper operation and markings of an indicating system and
10-25(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, replace a temperature-sensing unit and record the maintenance.
10-26(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate publications, remove, inspect, and install fuel flow
transmitter and record your findings.
necessary, troubleshoot an oil pressure indicating system and record your findings.
necessary, locate and inspect a fuel flow component on an engine and record your findings.
necessary, replace an Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) indication probe and record the maintenance.
necessary, troubleshoot a manifold pressure gage that is slow to indicate the correct reading and record
your findings.
necessary, inspect a flap position indication system and record your findings.
necessary, adjust a flap position indicating system and record maintenance.
10-33(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, accomplish an operational check of a flap
indicating and/or warning system and record maintenance and findings, if any.


COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION CHAPTER
Aircraft Communication Systems, Aircraft Navigational Systems, Amplifiers, Electronic
Oscillation, and Types of Navigational Equipment
11
QUESTIONS
11-1 AMA027 11-4 AMA041

Analog electrical representations of real world Diodes, triodes, tetrodes, and pentodes are useful in
phenomenon are A. electron control valves.
A. continuous. B. electronic relays.
B. discontinuous. C. low-power solid-state circuits.
C. incremental.
11-2 AMA027 11-5 AMA041

Is noise more or less of an issue with digitized data An atomic characteristic shared by conductors is
compared to analog representation of the same information? A. a full electron valence shell.
A. More because if the signal contains noise, it cannot B. an electron valence shell with two electrons.
be removed. C. an electron valence shell with one or three electrons.
B. More because of amplification in the final stage.
C. Less because the real world phenomenon is
represented by a series of ones and zeros.
11-3 AMA041 11-6 AMA058

A diode allows Pure silicon is
A. a current to flow during both halves of the AC A. a conductor.
(alternating current) cycle. B. an insulator.
B. a current to flow during half of the AC (alternating C. a semiconductor.
current) cycle.
C. a DC current to flow but blocks AC current.

COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
ANSWERS

Analog representations of real world phenomenon Electron control valves are an essential part of an electronic
are continuous. Some aspect of an electric signal is circuit. Control of electron flow enables the circuit to
modified proportionally to the real world item that is produce the desired outcome. A diode acts as an electron
being represented. Analog signals are continuous voltage check valve. A triode is often used to control a large amount
modified by all external events, including those that are not of current with a smaller amount of current. A tetrode is
desired called noise. used at higher frequencies than a triode. A pentode is
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 3-4] especially useful in high power circuits. All are considered
electron control valves.

Noise is any alteration of the represented real world In atoms with an incomplete valence shell, the electrons are
phenomenon that is not intended or desired. During the bound less strongly to the nucleus. Electrons in incomplete
processing of digitized data, there is little or no signal shells may move freely from valence shell to valence shell
degradation. The real world phenomenon is represented of different atoms or compound. These are known as free
in a string of binary code. A series of ones and zeros are electrons. The movement of electrons is known as electric
electronically created as a sequence of voltage or no current or current flow. When electrons move freely from
voltage and carried through the processing stages. Once atom to atom or compound to compound, the substance
established, it is relatively immune to outside alteration. is known as a conductor. The valence shells of elements
If a signal is close to the set value of the voltage, it is that are common conductors have one or three electrons
considered to be that voltage. If the signal is close to (i.e. Copper-1, Silver – 1, Gold – 1, Aluminum – 3).
zero, it is considered to be no voltage. Small variations or [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 7]
modifications from undesired phenomenon are ignored.

A diode acts as a check valve in an Alternating Current (AC) Pure silicon has 4 electrons in the valence shell of each
circuit. It allows current to flow during half of the AC cycle but atom. As such it combines readily with itself and forms
not the other half. In this manner it creates a pulsating Direct a lattice of silicon atoms in which adjacent atoms share
Current (DC) with current that drops to zero in between pulses. electrons to fill out the valence shell of each to the maximum
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 4] of eight electrons. Once bound together, the valence shells
of each silicon atom are complete. In this state, movement of
electrons does not occur easily. There are no free electrons.
Therefore, silicon in this form is a good insulator.

QUESTIONS
11-7 AMA058 11-10 AMA041

Silicon is doped to create Avalanche current flows when a
A. N-type and P‑type semiconductors. A. diode is forward biased and excessive voltage
B. N-type semiconductors. is applied.
C. P-type semiconductors. B. transistor base electrode receives current flow and
triggers collector – emitter current flow.
C. diode is reversed biased and excessive voltage
is applied.
11-8 AMA058 11-11 AMA041

A semiconductor diode has a junction area between N-type A transistor is
semiconductor material and P- type semiconductor material. A. a reversed biased diode.
When the electrons of the N-type material fill in the valence B. a sandwich of dissimilar semiconductor material.
shells of the P-type material, this junction area is said to be C. a control valve with two terminals.
A. neutralized.
B. depleted.
C. doped.
11-9 AMA041 11-12 AMA015

In a semiconductor diode, what determines whether Which device can be used instead of a resister as a dimmer
electricity can flow for lighting?
A. the type of semiconductor used. A. UJT
B. the width of the depletion area. B. SCR
C. the total resistance of the circuit. C. FET

ANSWERS

When silicon is doped with an element or compound A small amount of current does flow through a
containing five electrons in its valence shell, the result is a semiconductor diode when it is reversed biased. This is
negatively charged material due to the excess free electrons known as leakage current and it is in the micro amperage
and the fact that electrons are negatively charged. This is range. However, at a certain voltage, the blockage of current
known as an N-type semiconductor. Doping silicon can also flow in a reversed bias diode breaks down completely. The
be performed with an element that has only three valence voltage is known as avalanche voltage because the diode
electrons such as boron, gallium, or indium. This results in can no longer hold back the current and the diode fails.
many valence shells where there are only seven electrons. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 11]
This greatly changes the properties of the material and
encourages electron flow. This type of doped silicon is
known as P-type semiconductor material.

When joined, the junction of N-type semiconductor A transistor is little more than a sandwich of N-type
material and P-type semiconductor material exhibits unique semiconductor material between two pieces of P-type
properties. Since there are holes in the P-type material, free semiconductor material or visa versa. The emitter and the
electrons from the N-type material are attracted to fill these collector are on the outside of the sandwiched semiconductor
holes. Once combined, the area at the junction of the two material. The center material is known as the base. A change
materials where this happens is said to be depleted. There in a relatively small amount of voltage applied to the base of
are no longer free electrons or holes. the transistor allows a relatively large amount of current to
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 9] flow from the collector to the emitter. Therefore, the transistor
is a control valve but it has three terminals; one for the
emitter, one for the base, and one for the collector.

The depletion area at the junction of two semiconductors A slight modification to the four-layer Shockley diode
materials constitutes a barrier or potential hill. The intensity of creates a Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR). An additional
the potential hill is proportional to the width of the depletion terminal gate is added. SCR’s can be used to produce
area. A voltage source attached to the diode with the negative variable DC voltages for motors and are found in welding
terminal attached to the N-type material forces electrons power supplies. Often, lighting dimmer switches use SCR’s
towards the junction area. The depletion area narrows and to reduce the average voltage applied to the lights by only
current can flow. A reverse bias (with the negative voltage allowing current flow during part of the AC cycle, this is
source attached to the P-type material) widens the depletion controlled by controlling the pulses to the SCR gate and
area, thus blocking the flow of electricity. eliminating the massive heat dissipation caused when using
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 9-10] resistors to reduce voltage.

QUESTIONS
11-13 AMA041 11-16 AMA041

Which device uses and controls both polarities of an AC The color of a light emitting diode depends on
power source? A. the amount of current applied.
A. SCR B. the size of the PN junction.
B. Triac C. the type of material used.
C. Diode
11-14 AMA041 11-17 AMA041

When enough reversed bias voltage is applied to the gate A rectifier
of a FET? A. changes AC voltage to pulsating DC voltage.
A. The channel widens and current flows. B. changes DC voltage into full wave AC voltage.
B. The gate will burn out. C. eliminates the peaks and valleys in AC voltage.
C. The channel narrows and current flow is cut off.
11-15 AMA041 11-18 AMA027

Which of the following statements are true What is the function of an amplifier?
concerning MOSFET’s? A. To change DC voltage to AC voltage
1. They are analogous to normally open and normally B. To change the amplitude of an electric signal
closed switches. C. To change the frequency of an electric signal
2. They are used in pairs when constructing
integrated circuits.
3. They are used in the construction of digital logic gates.
4. They come in N-channel only.
5. Millions are used to construct integrated circuits.
A. 1, 2, and 5
B. 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 5

ANSWERS

SCR’s are limited to allowing current flow in one direction When a free electron from a semiconductor drops into a
only. To access the voltage in the reverse cycle of an AC semiconductor hole, energy is given off. This is true in all
power source, a triac can be used. A triac is also a 4-layer semiconductor materials. The energy released in certain
semiconductor device. It differs from an SCR in that it materials is in the frequency range of visible light. From these
allows current flow in both directions. A triac has a gate that various materials, LED’s are constructed. Different materials
works the same way as in an SCR; however, a positive or at different voltages produce different colors when the
negative pulse to the gate triggers current flow in a triac. energy is given off.
The pulse polarity determines the direction of the current [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 18-19, Figure 11-41]
flow through the device.

In an FET, the channel is the substrate through which the Rectifier circuits change AC voltage into DC voltage and are
controlled current flows. The polarity and amount of voltage one of the most commonly used type of circuits in aircraft
applied to the gate can widen or narrow the channel due electronics. When the AC voltage cycles below zero, the
to the expansion or shrinking of the depletion area at the diode shuts off and does not allow current to flow until
junction of the semiconductors. This increases or decreases the AC cycles through zero voltage again. The result is
the amount of current that can flow through the channel. pronounced pulsing DC.
Enough reversed biased voltage can be applied to the gate [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 20]
to prevent the flow of current through the channel. This
allows the FET to be used as a switch.

MOSFETS come with N-channels or P-channels. They can An amplifier is a circuit that changes the amplitude of an
be constructed as depletion mode or enhancement mode electric signal. This is done through the use of transistors.
devices. This is analogous to a switch being normally opened [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 21]
or normally closed. Depletion mode MOSFET’s have an open
channel that is restricted or closed when voltage is applied to
the gate (i.e. normally open). Enhancement mode MOSFET’s
allow no current to flow at zero bias but create a channel for
current to flow when voltage is applied to the gate (normally
closed). Millions of enhancement mode MOSFET’s are used
in the construction of integrated circuits. They are installed
in complementary pairs such that when one pair is open, the
other is closed. Through the use of these transistors, digital
logic gates can be formed and digital circuitry is constructed.

QUESTIONS
11-19 AMA041 11-22 AMA041

In a transistor amplifier, Beta (β) refers to A digital logic gate is
A. the amount of output current produced. A. a diode that returns current to the source.
B. the amount of input current capacity. B. used to apply power to an avionics device.
C. the ratio of collector current to base current. C. constructed with transistors.
11-20 AMA041 11-23 AMA041

When creating AC voltage from DC voltage, a ____________ The three basic logic gates are
circuit is used. A. AND, OR, NOR.
A. transformer B. AND, OR, NOT.
B. amplifier C. AND, NAND, OR.
C. oscillator
11-21 AMA090 11-24 AMA071

Maintenance of the interior electronics of most avionics Digital tuners and audio panels
devices is performed A. are integral to the multi-functional display.
A. only by certified repair stations and trained B. create a centralized location for switching from one
avionics technicians. device to another or for changing frequencies.
B. by holders of an airframe certification. C. are found primarily on glass cockpit aircraft.
C. only by the avionics manufacturer.

ANSWERS

Transistors are rated by the ratio of the collector current to Transistors are used in digital electronics to construct
the base current, or Beta (β). For example, a 100 β transistor circuits that act as digital logic gates. The purpose and task
can handle 100 times more current through a collector of an avionics device is achieved by manipulating electric
emitter circuit than the base input signal. So the amplitude of signals through logic gates.
amplification is a factor of the Beta of the transistor and any [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 26]
in-line resistors used in the circuit.

Oscillators function to make AC from DC. They can produce The AND, OR, and NOT gates are the basic logic gates. A
various waveforms as required by electronic circuits. few other logic gates are also useful. They can be derived
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 24] from combining the AND, OR, and NOT gates.

The discussion of semiconductors and semiconductor Numerous communication and navigation devices must be
devices, and circuitry is only an introduction to electronics tuned to the desired frequency and retuned during flight.
found in communication and navigation avionics. In-depth Switching from one piece of equipment to another and
maintenance of the interior electronics of most avionics retuning can occur frequently. An audio panel or digital tuner
devices is performed only by certified repair stations and consolidates various communication and navigation radio
trained avionics technicians. The airframe technician is selection controls into a single unit. The pilot can select and
responsible for installation, maintenance, inspection, and use, or select and tune most of the aircraft’s avionics from
proper performance of avionics in the aircraft. this single control interface.

QUESTIONS
11-25 AMA085 11-28 AMA085

The relationship between radio wave frequency and A carrier wave ______________.
wavelength is A. is the term used for the information being transmitted
A. directly proportional. B. is combined with a secondary wave which carries
B. indirectly proportional. useful information
C. relationship. C. must be modified to contain useful information
11-26 AMA085 11-29 AMA085

What determines the length of an antenna used to transmit Demodulation occurs in the radio receiver. It
and receive a radio signal? A. is the process of amplifying the radio signal so it can be
A. The frequency of the signal. heard.
B. The wavelength of the signal. B. reduces noise so the information signal can be heard.
C. The power of the signal. C. removes the original information signal from the
carrier wave.
11-27 AMA071 11-30 AMA085

VHF radio signals are commonly used in Single Side Band (SSB) transmissions
A. both VOR navigation and ATC communications. A. contain all of the information signal but use less
B. ATC Communications. bandwidth.
C. VOR navigation. B. use less bandwidth but require more power to transmit.
C. cannot be used because they do not contain the entire
information signal.

ANSWERS

The atmosphere is filled with radio waves as well as other The production and broadcast of radio waves does not
types of waves. Each wave occurs at a specific frequency convey any significant information. The basic radio wave
and has a corresponding wavelength. The relationship is known as a carrier wave. To transmit and receive useful
between frequency and wavelength is inversely proportional. information, the carrier wave is altered or modulated by
A high frequency wave has a short wave length and a low an information signal. The information signal contains the
frequency has a long wavelength. unique voice or data information desired to be conveyed.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 31] The modulated carrier wave then carries the information
from the transmitting radio to the receiving radio via their
respective antennas. Two common methods of modulating
carrier waves are Amplitude Modulation (AM) and
Frequency Modulation (FM).

Ideally, the size of the antenna should match the size of the When the modulated carrier wave strikes the receiving
wavelength of the signal with which the antenna will most antenna, voltage is generated that is the same as that which
resonate. However, for practical purposes fractional antenna was applied to the transmitter antenna. However, the signal
lengths are also possible such as 1/2 or 1/4 wavelength. This is weaker. It is amplified so that it can be demodulated.
is especially so at 1/2 wavelengths in which case it is the Demodulation is the process of removing the original
same as half the AC Sine wave or cycle. information signal from the carrier wave. Electronic circuits
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 32-33] containing capacitors, inductors, diodes, filters, etc., remove
all but the desired information signal identical to the original
input signal. Then, the information signal is typically amplified
again to drive speakers or other output devices.

VHF communication radios are the primary communication SSB transmissions are a narrow bandwidth solution. Each
radios used in aviation. They are used for communication sideband represents the initial information signal in its
between aircraft and Air Traffic Control (ATC), as well as entirety. Therefore, in a SSB broadcast, the carrier wave and
air‑to‑air communication between aircraft. VOR navigation either the upper or lower sidebands are filtered out. Only one
also uses VHF radio waves (108 – 117.95MHz). sideband with its frequencies is broadcast since it contains
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 32-43] all of the needed information. This cuts the bandwidth
required in half and allows more efficient use of the radio
spectrum. SSB transmissions also use less power to transmit
the same amount of information over an equal distance.

QUESTIONS
11-31 AMA085 11-34 AMA085

Radio transmitters contain which of the following The ideal radio antenna is
basic elements A. an insulator, an equal length of the wavelength of the
A. oscillator, amplifier, modulator. transmitted frequency.
B. generator, oscillator, modulator. B. a conductor, 1/2 the length of the wavelength of the
C. amplifier, transformer, oscillator. transmitted frequency.
C. an insulator, 1/2 the length of the wavelength of the
transmitted frequency.
11-32 AMA085 11-35 AMA085

Radio receivers contain which of the following An antenna that is 1/4 wavelength
basic elements A. is resonant but is not as effective as a 1/2 wavelength.
A. amplifiers, mixer, local oscillator, demodulator. B. cannot be used in aviation.
B. transceiver, oscillator, bridge circuit, demodulator. C. uses the metal of the fuselage to create a 1/2
C. demodulator, amplifier, rectifier, speaker. wavelength antenna.
11-33 AMA085 11-36 AMA023

A transceiver For the best reception of a radio signal, a receiving antenna
A. sends communication and navigation radio signals. should be polarized
B. uses antennas to lengthen radio coverage area. A. the same as the transmitting antenna.
C. receives and transmits radio signals. B. 90 degrees to the transmitting antenna.
C. parallel to the electromagnetic component of the
radio wave.

ANSWERS

A transmitter consists of a precise oscillating circuit or Antennas are conductors that are used to transmit and
oscillator that creates an AC carrier wave frequency. receive radio frequency waves. When an AC signal is
This is combined with amplification circuits or amplifiers. applied to an antenna, it has a certain frequency. There is a
Other circuits are used in a transmitter to accept the input corresponding wavelength for that frequency. Antenna that
information signal and process it for loading on to the carrier is half the length of this wavelength is resonant. It is able to
wave. Modulator circuits modify the carrier wave with the allow full voltage and full current flow for the positive phase
processed information signal. of the AC signal in one direction. The negative phase of the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 37] full AC signal is accommodated by the voltage and current
changing direction in the conductor.

A common receiver is the superheterodyne receiver. It VHF antennas are relatively long. Antennas ¼ wavelength of
must amplify the desired radio frequency captured by the transmitted frequency are often used. This is possible
the antenna. An oscillator is used to compare and select when mounted on a metal fuselage. A ground plane is
the desired frequency from all of the frequencies picked formed and the fuselage acts as the missing one-quarter
up by the antenna. The local oscillator frequency and the length of a half wavelength antenna.
carrier wave frequency are mixed in the mixer. The sum and [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 39]
difference frequencies contain the information signal. The
detector, or demodulator, is where the information signal
is separated from the carrier wave. Finally, amplification
occurs for the output device.
11-33 Answer C. 11-36 Answer A

A transceiver is a communication radio that transmits Receiving antennas with the same polarization as the
and receives. The same frequency is used for both. When transmitting antenna generate the strongest signal. For
transmitting the receiver does not function. example, a vertically polarized antenna is mounted up
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 38] and down. It radiates waves out from it in all directions. To
receive the strongest signal from the waves, the receiving
antenna should also be positioned vertically so the
electromagnetic component of the radio wave can cross it
at as close to a 90 degree angle as possible for most of the
possible proximities.

QUESTIONS
11-37 AMA085 11-40 AMA071

A dipole antenna commonly used for VOR radio signal If an aircraft is so equipped, which of the following may
is shaped display VOR navigational information?
A. like a "U". 1. ADF
B. in a loop. 2. CDI
C. like a "V". 3. OBS
4. EADI
5. HIS
6. EFIS
7. RMI
A. 1, 5, 6
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
11-38 AMA085 11-41 AMA071

A loop antenna receiving a radio signal produces the An Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) system uses which type
strongest signal of antenna(s)?
A. when the radio signal strikes the loop broadside. A. Sense and loop antennas.
B. when the radio signal strikes the loop in line with the B. V shaped bi-pole antenna.
plane of the loop. C. Marconi antenna.
C. when equal current is caused to flow in both sides of
the loop.
11-39 AMA071 11-42 AMA071

The navigational aid that broadcasts a reference signal and A Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) combines
a rotating variable signal which are compared in the receiver A. ILS, marker beacon and heading indications all in
for phase relationship is called a one gauge.
A. VOR. B. horizontal and vertical situational indications all in
B. ADF. one gauge.
C. ILS. C. a magnetic compass, VOR and ADF all in one gauge.

ANSWERS

A common dipole antenna is the V-shaped VHF navigation Older aircraft are often equipped with a VOR gauge
antenna, known as a VOR antenna, found on numerous dedicated to display only VOR information. This is also
aircraft. Each arm of the V is one-fourth wavelength creating called an Omni‑Bearing Selector (OBS) or a Course
a half wave antenna which is fed in the center. The antenna Deviation Indicator (CDI). A separate gauge for the VOR
is horizontally polarized. For a dipole receiving antenna, this information is not always used. As flight instruments and
means it is most sensitive to signal approaching the antenna displays have evolved, VOR navigational information
from the sides rather than head-on in the direction of flight. has been integrated into other instrument displays,
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 40] such as the Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI), the
Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI), an EFIS display or an
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI).

Used as a receiving antenna, the loop antenna’s properties An Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) operates off of a ground
are highly direction sensitive. A radio wave intercepting signal transmitted from a non-directional beacon (NDB).
the loop directly broadside causes equal current to flow in Using a loop antenna, the direction to or from the broadcast
both sides of the loop. However, the polarity of the current antenna can be determined by monitoring the strength of
flow is opposite each other. This causes them to cancel the signal received. In modern ADF systems, an additional
out and produce no signal. When a radio wave strikes the sense antenna is used to remove the ambiguity concerning
loop antenna in line with the plane of the loop, current is whether the aircraft is heading to or from the transmitter. The
generated first in one side , and then in the other side. This reception field of the sense antenna is omnidirectional.
causes the current flows to have different phases and the When combined with the fields of the loop antenna, it forms
strongest signal can be generated from this angle. a field with a single significant null reception area on one
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 41] side. This is used for tuning and produces an indication in
the direction towards the ADF station at all times.

A VOR terminal produces two signals that a receiver on The RMI combines indications from a magnetic compass,
board the aircraft uses to locate itself in relation to the VOR, and ADF into one instrument. The azimuth card of the
ground station. One signal is a reference signal. The second RMI is rotated by a remotely located flux gate compass.
is produced by electronically rotating a variable signal. The Thus, the magnetic heading of the aircraft is always
variable signal is in phase with the reference signal when indicated. The VOR receiver drives a solid pointer to indicate
at magnetic north, but becomes increasingly out of phase the magnetic position to a tuned VOR station. When the ADF
as it is rotated 180 degrees. As it continues to rotate to is tuned to an NDB, the double or hollow pointer indicates
360 degrees, the signal become increasingly in phase until the magnetic bearing to the NDB.
the two signals are in phase again at magnetic north. The [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 48-49]
receiver in the aircraft deciphers the phase difference and
determines the aircraft’s position in degrees from the VOR
ground based unit.

QUESTIONS
11-43 AMA071 11-46 AMA023

An Instrument Landing System (ILS) includes which of A DME antenna should be located in a position on the
the following? aircraft that will?
1. Marker beacon A. Permit interruptions in DME operation.
2. Localizer B. Not be blocked by the wing when the aircraft is banked.
3. RNAV C. Eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on
4. Glideslope a station.
5. GPS
A. 1. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 2, 4, 5
11-44 AMA071 11-47 AMA071

The purpose of a localizer is to In general, the purpose of an aircraft transponder is to
A. set the airplane on the proper approach angle to A. continually transmit heading, speed, and rate of climb/
the runway. descent, etc., information to Aircraft Tower.
B. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of B. monitor aircraft speed, heading, altitude, and attitude
the runway. whenever the autopilot system is engaged.
C. align the airplane with the center of the runway. C. receive an interrogation signal from a ground station
and automatically send a reply back.
11-45 AMA071 11-48 AMA071

The purpose of a glideslope system is to RNAV allows a pilot to navigate from point to point
A. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of A. by creating intermediate waypoints to which the CDI
the runway. guides the pilot.
B. assist the pilot in making a correct angle of descent to B. by flying over VOR and VORTAC stations using
the runway. CDI guidance.
C. provide for automatic altitude reporting to air C. without the CDI.
traffic control.

ANSWERS

Multiple radio transmissions are used that enable an exact A DME system calculates the distance from the aircraft to
approach to landing with an ILS. A localizer is one of the the DME unit at the VORTAC ground station and displays
transmissions. It is used to provide horizontal guidance it on the flight deck. In most cases, the UHF of the DME is
to the center line of the runway. A separate glideslope transmitted and received via a small blade-type antenna
broadcast provides vertical guidance of the aircraft down mounted to the underside of the aircraft fuselage centerline.
the proper slope to the touch down point. Compass [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 52-54]
locator transmissions for outer and middle approach
marker beacons aid the pilot in intercepting the approach
navigational aid system.

Multiple radio transmissions are used that enable an exact A transponder provides positive identification and location
approach to landing with an ILS. A localizer is one of the of an aircraft on the radar screen of air traffic control (ATC).
radio transmissions. It is used to provide horizontal guidance The ground station transmits a pulse of energy at 1030 MHz
to the centerline of the runway. and the transponder transmits a reply with the assigned code
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 49] attached at 1090MHz. This confirms the aircraft’s location
typically by altering its target symbol on the radar screen. In
the ALT or Mode C mode, the transponder reply is transmitted
with pressure altitude information, which is then displayed
next to the aircraft target symbol on the radar screen.

Multiple radio transmissions are used that enable an exact Area navigation, or RNAV, is a general term used to describe
approach to landing with an ILS. A separate glideslope the navigation from point to point without direct over flight
broadcast provides vertical guidance of the aircraft down the of navigational aids such as VOR stations. VOR/DME and
proper slope to the touch down point. VORTAC stations are used to create phantom waypoints
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 49] that are over flown rather than the actual stations. The RNAV
computer causes the aircraft’s CDI to operate as though
they are actual VOR stations. The computer also uses
basic geometry and trigonometry calculations to produces
heading, speed, and time readouts for each waypoint.

QUESTIONS
11-49 AMA088 11-52 AMA084

All transponders flown into controlled airspace are require to A radar altimeter determines altitude by
be inspected and tested in accordance with 14CFR part 43, A. means of transponder interrogation.
Appendix F every B. receiving signals transmitted from ground
A. 12 months. radar stations.
B. 24 months. C. transmitting a signal and receiving back a
C. occurrence of a recorded hard landing. reflected signal.
11-50 AMA018 11-53 AMA083

Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems (TCAS) A radar altimeter indicates
A. are transponder based systems. A. altitude above ground level.
B. are air to ground units. B. altitude above sea level.
C. use ultra high frequencies for interrogation. C. altitude level (pressure) altitude.
11-51 AMA018 11-54 AMA018

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast (ADS-B) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) uses input
A. uses ground radar and broadcast technology to alert from which of the following?
aircraft of a potential collision. A. Airspeed Indicator
B. is more reliable than ground radar but is B. Pressure Altimeter
more expensive. C. Radar Altimeter
C. combines air-to-air broadcast and air-to- ground
broadcast with GPS positioning to avoid accidents.

ANSWERS

Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 91, Using a transceiver and a directional antenna, a radio
section 91.413 states that all transponders on aircraft flown altimeter broadcasts a carrier wave at 4.3 GHz from the
into controlled airspace are required to be inspected and aircraft directly towards the ground. It strikes the surface
tested in accordance with 14CFR part 43, Appendix F every features and bounces back toward the aircraft where a
24 calendar months. Installation or maintenance that may second antenna receives the return signal. The transceiver
introduce a transponder error is also cause for inspection processes the signal by measuring the elapsed time the
and test in accordance with Appendix F. signal traveled and the frequency modulation that occurred.

TCAS are transponder based air-to-air traffic monitoring and A radar altimeter is used to measure the distance from the
alerting systems. The transponder of an aircraft with TCAS aircraft to the terrain directly beneath it.
is able to interrogate the transponder of other aircraft nearby [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 62]
using SSR technology. This is done with a 1030 MHz signal.

ADS-B OUT combines the positioning information available Large aircraft may incorporate radio altimeter information
from a GPS receiver with on-board flight status information, into a ground proximity warning system (GPWS) which
i.e. location, altitude, velocity, time. It then broadcasts this aurally alerts the crew of potentially dangerous proximity to
information to other ADS-B equipped aircraft and ground the terrain below the aircraft.
stations. Data is transferred without the need for human [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 62]
acknowledgement. ADS-B IN AND TIS-B supplement the
ADS-B OUT information giving the pilot greatly enhanced
situational awareness.

QUESTIONS
11-55 AMA027 11-58 AMA044

What precaution must be utilized when maintaining and How may the battery replacement date be verified for an
operating on-board weather radar? emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?
A. The aircraft airframe must be grounded. A. By activating the transmitter and measuring the
B. Approved paint must be used on the radome. signal strength.
C. The radar must be pointed at a building or other B. By removing the batteries and testing them under a
solid object. measured load to determine if 50 percent of the useful
life remains.
C. By observing the battery replacement date marked on
the outside of the transmitter.
11-56 AMA027 11-59 AMA071

Lightning detectors typically use which type of antenna? Long Range Navigation (LORAN) systems determine aircraft
A. Loop location by
B. Marconi A. measuring the inertial forces acting on the aircraft.
C. Dipole B. means of pulsed signals transmitted from
ground stations.
C. means of signals transmitted to and from
navigation satellites.
11-57 AMA044 11-60 AMA071

The preferred location of an ELT is The user segment of the Global Positioning System (GPS)
A. where it is readily accessible to the pilot or a member of consists of
the flight crew while the aircraft is in flight. A. 24 satellites, the aircraft receiver, and the antenna.
B. as far aft as possible, but forward of the vertical fin. B. the aircraft receiver, antenna, and display unit.
C. as far aft as possible. C. the control center, the satellites, and the
aircraft receiver.

ANSWERS

Special precautions must be followed by the technician ELT inspection must occur within 12 months of the previous
during maintenance and operation of weather radar systems. inspection. Inspection must be recorded in the maintenance
The radome covering the antenna must only be painted with records including the new expiration date of the battery. This
approved paint to allow radio signals to pass unobstructed. must also be recorded on the outside of the ELT unit.
Operation of radar should not take place while the radar is [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 68]
pointed toward a building or when refueling takes place. Note
that physical harm is possible from the high-energy radiation
emitted, especially to the eyes and testes.

Lightning gives off its own electromagnetic signal. The Precisely timed, synchronized pulse signals are transmitted
azimuth of a lightening strike can be calculated by a receiver from towers in a LORAN tower chain. The LORAN receiver
using a loop antenna such as that used in ADF. Some measures the time to receive the pulses from the master
lightning detectors make use of the ADF antenna. The range tower and two other towers. It calculates the aircraft’s
of the lightning strike is closely associated with its intensity. position based on the intersection of parabolic curves
Intense strikes are plotted as being closer to the aircraft. representing elapsed signal times from each of these known
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 65] points. The accuracy and proliferation of GPS navigation has
caused the U.S. Government to cease support for LORAN.
Signals are no longer generated from the tower network.

Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT’s) are typically installed There are three segments of GPS: the space segment, the
as far aft in the fuselage of an aircraft as practicable just control segment, and the user segment. Aircraft technicians
forward of the empennage. Helicopter ELT’s may be located are only involved with user segment equipment such as GPS
elsewhere on the airframe. receivers, displays, and antennas.

QUESTIONS
11-61 AMA071 11-64 AMA028

To determine an aircraft’s position and altitude, a Installation of a modern Technical Standard Order (TSO’d)
GPS receiver must receive signals from a minimum avionics device in an aircraft previously approved for the
of _____________ GPS satellites. installation by the airframe manufacturer is a
A. 3 A. minor alteration.
B. 4 B. major alteration.
C. 5 C. MEL item.
11-62 AMA071 11-65 AMA028

What is used to augment satellite GPS to increase its Installation of new avionics equipment not on the airframe
accuracy in fixing the location of an aircraft? manufacturer’s approved equipment list is a
A. ADS-B IN uploads A. major repair.
B. VOR augmentation B. major alteration.
C. WAAS C. minor alteration.
11-63 AMA071 11-66 AMA028

An Inertial Reference System (IRS) navigation unit What is the purpose of a cable installed between a shock
incorporates which of the following for extreme mounted radio tray to a structural member of the airframe?
navigational accuracy? A. Radio noise suppression.
A. GPS, solid state accelerometers, and laser gyros. B. Protect the radio in the event of lightning strikes.
B. GPS, WAAS, and VOR. C. Provide an electrical grounding.
C. GPS, ADS-B, and WAAS.

ANSWERS

The GPS receiver measures the time it takes for signals Avionics equipment to be installed must be a Technical
to arrive from three transmitting satellites. Since radio Standard Order (TSO’d) device that is approved for
waves travel at 186,000 miles per second, the distance to installation in the aircraft in question. The addition of a
each satellite can be calculated. The intersection of these new piece of avionics equipment and/or antenna is a
ranges provides a two dimensional position of the aircraft. minor alteration if previously approved by the airframe
It is expressed in latitude and longitude coordinates. By manufacturer. A licensed airframe technician is qualified to
incorporating the distance to a fourth satellite, the altitude perform the installation and return the aircraft to service.
above the surface of the earth can be calculated as well. This [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 72]
results in a three dimensional fix. Additional satellite inputs
refine the accuracy of the position.

To increase the accuracy of GPS for aircraft navigation, the The addition of new avionics not on the aircraft’s approved
Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) was developed. equipment list is considered a major alteration and requires
It consists of approximately 25 precisely surveyed ground an FAA Form 337 to be enacted. A technician with an
stations that receive GPS signals and ultimately transmit inspection authorization is required to complete a Form 337.
correction information to the aircraft. A WAAS enabled [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 72]
GPS receiver is required to use the wide area augmentation
system. WAAS is known to reduce position errors to 1-3
meters laterally and vertically.

Modern Inertial Navigation Systems (INS) are known as As most shock mounting material are electrical insulator, a
Inertial Reference Systems (IRS). They are completely bonding wire must be installed so that the avionics gear can
solid state units with no moving parts. Three-ring laser maintain a ground path.
gyros replace mechanical gyros used in the old INS [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 74]
platform systems. The use of three solid-state mechanical
accelerometers also increases accuracy. The accelerometer
and gyro output are input to the IRS computer for continuous
calculation of the aircraft’s position. The most modern IRS
integrate satellite GPS. The GPS is extremely accurate in
itself. When combined with IRS, it creates one of the most
accurate navigation systems available.

QUESTIONS
11-67 AMA086 11-70 AMA023

Radio equipment is bonded to the aircraft When an antenna is installed, it should be fastened
A. in order to provide a low impedance ground A. to the primary structure at the approximate intersection
and to minimize radio interference from static of the three aircraft axes.
electrical charges. B. with a reinforcing doubler on each side of the
B. ensure minimum movement should the attaching aircraft skin.
hardware become loose. C. so that loads imposed are transmitted to the
C. to increase impedance of the antenna(s) to the proper aircraft structure.
value for maximum signal reception.
11-68 AMA085 11-71 AMA023

Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by Doublers are used when antennas are installed to?
A. acting like capacitor for static electricity. A. Prevent oil canning of the skin.
B. grounding static electric build-up to the B. Eliminate antenna vibration.
airframe structure. C. Reinforce the aircraft skin.
C. dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere.
11-69 AMA028 11-72 AMA087

When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured firmly What is the radio transponder code reserved for Visual Flight
along its entire length Rules (VFR) flight not under ATC control?
A. where ever the cable sags. A. 7600
B. at 1 foot intervals. B. 7700.
C. at 2 foot intervals. C. 1200.

ANSWERS

One of the most important measures taken to eliminate Airborne antennas must be mechanically secure. The air
unwanted electrical charges which may damage or interfere loads on an antenna are significant and must be considered.
with avionics equipment is bonding. Bonding provides the Antennas must be mounted in interference free locations
necessary electrical connection between metallic parts of and in areas where signal can be optimally transmitted and
an aircraft to prevent variable resistance in the airframe. received. They must also have the same polarization as the
It provides a low-impedance ground return that minimizes ground station. Reinforcing the antenna mounting area on
interference from static electricity charges. each side of the aircraft skin would not be considered a
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 74] doubler by definition.

Static dischargers, or wicks, are installed on aircraft to After the antenna mounting template has been located and
reduce radio receiver interference. This interference is the holes drilled for the transmission cable and the mounting
caused by corona discharge emitted from the aircraft as a holes, a doubler is installed to reinforce to aircraft skin in the
result of precipitation static. They discharge precipitation area of the antenna mounting.
static at points a critical distance away from avionics [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 76]
antennas where there is little or no coupling of the static to
cause interference or noise.

When installing coaxial cable, secure the cables firmly along Code 7500 is used in a hijack situation and 7600 and 7700
their entire length at intervals of approximately 2 feet. are also reserved for emergency use. Even the inadvertent
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 76] transmission of code 1200 reserved for Visual Flight
Rules (VFR) flight not under ATC direction could result in
evasion action.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
11-1(O). What are the (part 91) maintenance requirements for an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)?
11-2(O). What are the record keeping requirements for a (part 91) Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)?
11-3(O). Name some concerns when inspecting coaxial cable installations on aircraft.
11-4(O). What are the requirements for routing coaxial cable?
11-5(O). Name some communication and navigation systems commonly used in aviation.
11-6(O). What is involved when properly installing a NAV/COM radio in an existing radio rack?
11-7(O). What is the means of identification of commonly used communication and/or navigation antennas?
11-8(O). Describe the function and operation of a static discharger.
11-9(O). What are the maintenance procedures for static dischargers?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
11-1(O). An ELT must be inspected within 12 months of the previous inspection. The inspection includes: proper
installation, battery corrosion, battery life, operation of the controls and the crash sensor, and the presence of
a sufficient signal at the antenna.
11-2(O). A record of the inspection of an ELT must be recorded in the aircraft maintenance logbook including the
expiration date of the battery. This must also be recorded on the outside of the ELT.
11-3(O). Some coax cable used on pulse-type transceivers must be a specified length. Attachment of cable ends must
be secure. Coaxial cable should be secured along its entire run at intervals of approximately two feet. Proper
impedance must exist.
11-4(O). Coax cable should be secured to the aircraft structure approximately every two feet. It should not be tied to
or routed with other wire bundle. When bending coaxial cable, be sure the bend is at least 10 times the size of
the cable diameter. Always follow manufacturer’s instructions.
11-5(O). Communication: VHF, HF, Transponder

Navigation: VOR, ADF, Loran, NDB’s, Marker Beacons, Glideslope, DME, GPS Radar Altimeter,
Doppler NAV (weather radar), ILS, RNAV, TCAS, ADS-B, LORAN, INS, IRS, WAAS
11-6(O). Any installation of radio navigation or communication equipment must only be accomplished with equipment
approved for installation on the aircraft. When this is the case, the installation is considered a minor alteration
and can be accomplished by a technician holding an airframe certificate. Installation of equipment not on the
aircraft manufacturer’s approved equipment list, constitutes a major alteration. It required that a form 337 be
executed. It could be installed under an STC (supplemental type certificate) in which case the hold of the STC
supplies the list of aircraft upon which the installation is approved. Considerations such as space, the size
and weight of the equipment, and previously accomplished alterations are important. Electrical requirements
and power consumption are as well. Maximum continuous electrical load for the aircraft must be maintained.
Provision for easy access for inspection, maintenance, and exchange must also be considered.
11-7(O). The shape and length of an antenna can sometimes be used to reason what type of antenna is under
consideration. The orientation or polarization and location on the aircraft also can give clues. The three basic
types of antenna are: the dipole, the Marconi, and the loop. Dipole antennas, often used for VOR frequencies,
may have a "V" shape. They are commonly located at the empennage or mounted on the underside of the
fuselage. The "V" shape indicates its horizontal polarization that makes the antenna good at receiving signals
that are not coming from head on. The Marconi antenna is simply a straight conductor. It uses the aircraft skin
or, on fabric aircraft, conductive material under the skin, to form a conductor of 2 wavelength of the signals
it is designed to receive or transmit. The Marconi antenna is vertically polarized and creates a field that is
omnidirectional. VHF communication radios can use this type of antenna. The conductor in a loop antenna
forms a loop. Having a loop shape to receive radio signals significantly affects the field characteristics of
the antenna. It is highly sensitive to the direction from which the signal is received. Loop antennas are used
extensively in navigation such as for an ADF radio. Often the loop is enclosed in a housing broad enough to
conceal the entire antenna which is frequently mounted on the underside of the fuselage.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
11-8(O). Static dischargers, or wicks, are installed on aircraft to reduce radio receiver interference. The interference is
caused by corona discharge emitted from the aircraft as a result of precipitation static. Corona occurs in short
pulses that produce noise at the radio frequency spectrum. Static dischargers are normally mounted on the
trailing edge of control surfaces, wing tips, and the vertical stabilizer. They discharge precipitation static at
points a critical distance away from avionics antennas where there is little or no coupling of the static to cause
interference or noise.
11-9(O). Dischargers can be flexible or rigid. They are attached to the aircraft structure with screws, rivets, or epoxy.
These connections should be checked periodically for security. A resistance measurement from the mount
to the airframe should not exceed 0.1 ohm. The condition of the static dischargers should be inspected in
accordance with manufacturer’s instructions.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
11-1(P). Given various communication/navigation cables and connectors identify them and record your findings.
11-2(P). Given various communication/navigation cables and connectors in varying conditions, inspect and record
your findings.
necessary, inspect an ELT and record your findings.
necessary, inspect an ELT installation and record your findings.
necessary, determine ELT battery serviceability or status and record your findings.
necessary, inspect an antenna installation and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a coaxial cable installation and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a communication/navigation radio installation and record your findings.
necessary, inspect a shock mount base and record your findings.
11-10(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, locate and identify the various antennas installed.
necessary, inspect a static discharger for security and resistance and record your findings.

HYDRAULIC & PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Aircraft Hydraulic Systems, Hydraulic Fluid, Basic Hydraulic Systems,
Hydraulic Power Systems, and Large Aircraft Hydraulic Systems
12
QUESTIONS
12-1 AMA063 12-4 AMA064

Which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems? 1. When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, use the type
1. Minimum maintenance requirements. fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer’s maintenance
2. Lightweight. manual or on the instruction plate affixed to the
3. About 80% operating efficiency (20% loss due to reservoir or unit.
fluid friction). 2. Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a specific color for
4. Simple to inspect. each type of fluid.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4 Regarding the above statements,
C. 1, 3, and 4 A. Only No. 1 is true
B. Only No. 2 is true
12-2 AMA064 12-5 AMA065

Which statement about fluids is correct? If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing
A. All fluids are considered to be highly compressible. materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the system is
B. Any fluid will completely fill its container. A. mineral based oil.
C. All fluids readily transmit pressure. B. phosphate ester based oil.
C. vegetable based oil.
12-3 AMA064 12-6 AMA065

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base hydraulic
Polyalphaolefin hydraulic fluid? fluid, but phosphate ester based hydraulic fluid is used, what
A. It is the most fire resistant type. will be the effect on the system?
B. It has high viscosity at low temperatures. A. System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, and
C. It is the most resistant to oxidation. the seals will fail.
B. No effect.
C. System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, but
there will be no seal problem.

HYDRAULIC & PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

Hydraulic systems combine the advantages of light weight, When adding fluid to a hydraulic system, use the type
ease of installation, simplification of inspection, and specified in the manufacturer’s maintenance manual or on
minimum maintenance requirements. Hydraulic operations the instruction plate affixed to the reservoir being serviced.
are almost 100% efficient with only negligible loss due to Mineral-based hydraulic fluid (5606) is dyed red. Phosphate
fluid friction. ester-based fluid is purple.

Hydraulic system liquids are used primarily to transmit and Appropriate seals, gaskets, and hoses must be specifically
distribute forces to various units to be actuated. Liquids are designed for the type of fluid in use. Skydrol® type V fluid is
able to do this because they are almost incompressible. compatible with natural fibers and a number of synthetics.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 2] Petroleum based (mineral) hydraulic fluid system seals of
neoprene or Buna-N® are not compatible with Skydrol®.

Polyalphaolefin hydraulic fluids have some flammability Due to the differences in composition, petroleum-based
improvements from older fluid types, but their main concern (mineral) hydraulic fluid and phosphate ester-based fluids will
is their unacceptable high viscosity at temperatures below not mix; neither are the seals for any one fluid usable with or
-40, and so its use is limited to small aircraft which do not tolerant of any of the other fluids. Should an aircraft hydraulic
reach very high altitudes. system be serviced with the wrong type of fluid, immediately
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 3] drain and flush the system and maintain the seals in
accordance with the manufacturer’s specifications.

QUESTIONS
12-7 AMA064 12-10 AMA063

1. Paints that are Skydrol® compatible include polyurethane A hydraulic system referred to as a "power pack" system will
and epoxy paints. A. have an engine driven pump for greater pressure.
2. Skydrol® hydraulic fluid is compatible with neoprene and B. have all hydraulic power components located in one unit.
Buna-N® seals. C. have a pressurized reservoir.

C. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
12-8 AMA063 12-11 AMA063

One of the distinguishing characteristics of an open center Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with
selector valve used in a hydraulic system is that a standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure
A. fluid flows through the valve in the off position. emergency supply of fluid. The outlet post with the standpipe
B. a limited amount of fluid flows in one direction and no in it furnishes fluid to the
fluid flows in the opposite direction. A. emergency pump when the fluid supply to the normal
C. fluid flows in three directions in the ON position. system has been depleted.
B. emergency pump at any time it is required.
C. normal system power pump.
12-9 AMA063 12-12 AMA063

Unless specifically stated by the manufacturer, which of What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a
these hydraulic system filter types typically has the longest hydraulic system?
service life? A. Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.
A. Pressure Filters B. Prevent hydraulic fluid from foaming.
B. Return Filters C. Prevent tank collapse at altitude.
C. Case Drain Filters

ANSWERS

Paints that are Skydrol® resistant include epoxies and A hydraulic power pack is a small unit that consists of an
polyurethanes, however, seals of neoprene or Buna-N® are electric pump, filters, reservoir and pressure relief valve.
not compatible with Skydrol® and must be replaced with [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 7]
seals of butyl rubber or ethylene-propylene.

An open center system is one having fluid flow, but no Most aircraft have emergency hydraulic systems that take
pressure, in the system when the actuating mechanisms are over if main systems fail. In many such systems, the pumps
idle. The pump circulates the fluid from the reservoir through of both systems obtain fluid from a single reservoir. Under
the selector valves and back to the reservoir. The system such circumstances, a supply of fluid for the emergency
pressure line goes through each selector valve and back to pump is ensured by drawing the hydraulic fluid from the
the reservoir until one of the selector valves is positioned to bottom of the reservoir. The main system draws its fluid
operate a mechanism. through a standpipe located at a higher level. With this
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 6] arrangement, should the main system’s fluid supply becomes
depleted, adequate fluid is left at the bottom of the reservoir
below the standpipe for operation of the emergency system.

Unless otherwise stated, pressure filters should be replaced Pressurizing a reservoir assures a positive flow of fluid to the
after 3,000 hours of service. Return filters at 1,500 hours, pump at high altitude when low atmospheric pressures are
and Case drain filters every 600 hours. encountered. At high altitude there is not enough pressure
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 5] to move fluid to the pump inlet. Cavitation will occur unless a
pressurized reservoir is used to force fluid to the pump inlet.

QUESTIONS
12-13 AMA065 12-16 AMA063

Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it
paper are normally A. produces an unregulated constant pressure.
A. discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new B. produces a continuous positive pressure.
filtering elements. C. delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.
B. not approved for use in certificated aircraft.
C. cleaned and reused.
12-14 AMA065 12-17 AMA063

Before removing the filter cap of a pressurized What safety device is usually located between the driving
hydraulic reservoir unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft?
A. relieve the hydraulic system pressure. A. Thermal Relief Valve
B. relieve the air pressure. B. Pump Motor Safety Switch
C. actuate several components in the system. C. Pump Drive Coupling Shear Section
12-15 AMA063 12-18 AMA063

What happens to the output of a constant displacement Most variable displacement hydraulic pumps of
hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure current design
regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the reservoir? A. contain a built in means of system pressure regulation.
A. The output pressure and volume remain the same. B. must be driven at a nearly constant speed in order to
B. The output pressure reduces, but the volume practical for use.
remains the same. C. are not practical for use with a closed center
C. The output pressure remains the same, but the hydraulic system.
volume reduces.

ANSWERS

Hydraulic system filters are cleaned or changed at regular Constant-displacement pumps are sometimes called
intervals since a small amount of debris can damage constant volume or constant delivery pumps. They deliver a
components in the system that have close tolerances. The fixed quantity of fluid during each revolution, regardless of
micron hydraulic filter element is made of a specially treated the pressure demands.
paper and is normally thrown away when removed. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 17]

During hydraulic system maintenance, it is necessary to Pump drive couplings are designed to serve as safety devices.
relieve reservoir pressure. A manual bleeder is installed on The shear section of the drive coupling, located midway
most reservoirs with a push button. When the bleeder valve between the engine drive spines and the pump drive spines
push button is pushed, pressurized air from the reservoir is smaller in diameter than the splines. If the pump becomes
flows through the valve to an overboard vent until the air unusually hard to turn or becomes jammed, this section
pressure is depleted. shears, preventing damage to the pump or the drive unit.

A constant displacement pump, regardless of pump rotations A variable displacement pump has a fluid output that
per minute, forces a fixed volume of fluid through the outlet is varied to meet the pressure demands of the system.
port for each revolution. If a pressure regulator is required, the The pump output is changed automatically by a pump
output volume does not change but the pressure is reduced. compensator within the pump.

QUESTIONS
12-19 AMA063 12-22 AMA063

Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs The unit which causes one hydraulic operation to follow
pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and another in a definite order is called a
simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from A. selector valve.
the other end. B. shuttle valve.
A. Sequence C. sequence valve.
B. Shuttle
C. Selector
12-20 AMA063 12-23 AMA065

A sequence valve which is designed to activate a secondary Quick disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide
function after a set pressure has been reached in a primary a means of
function may be found in some aircraft A. easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks
A. flap overload systems. are common.
B. landing gear systems. B. quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines
C. engine cowl flap systems. and eliminate the possibility of contaminates entering
the system.
C. quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines
without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.
12-21 AMA063 12-24 AMA063

The purpose of an orifice check valve is to Some hydraulic systems incorporate a device which is
A. restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in
the other. the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an
B. relieve pressure to a sensitive component. established rate. This device is generally referred to as a
C. relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the A. hydraulic fuse.
other direction. B. metering check valve.
C. flow regulator.

ANSWERS

A selector valve is used to control the direction of movement A sequence valve controls the sequence of operation
of a hydraulic actuating cylinder or similar device. It provides between two branches in a circuit. It enables one unit to
for the simultaneous flow of hydraulic fluid both into and out automatically set another unit into motion. There are various
of the unit. When the selector valve is positioned to connect types of sequence valves. Some are controlled by pressure,
pressure to one port on the actuator, the other actuator some are controlled mechanically, and some are controlled
port is simultaneously connected to the reservoir return line by electric switches.
through the selector valve. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 25]

Sequence valves control the sequence of operation between Quick disconnect valves are installed in hydraulic lines to
two branches in a circuit. After a set pressure has been prevent loss of fluid when units are removed. Such valves are
reached in a primary component actuator, the sequence installed in the pressure and suction lines of the system. Each
valve diverts fluid to a second actuator to do work in another valve section has a piston and poppet assembly that is spring
part of the system. An example is a landing gear actuating loaded in the closed position when the unit is disconnected.
system where the gear doors must open before the landing [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 26-27]
gear starts to extend.

An orifice check valve allows full fluid flow in one direction A hydraulic fuse is a safety device. It detects a sudden
and restricts flow in the opposite direction. Also called a increase in flow, such as from a burst line downstream,
damping valve, it may be included on a hydraulic landing and shuts off the fluid flow. By closing, the fuse preserves
gear actuation system. When the gear is raised, the orifice hydraulic fluid for use by the rest of the system.
check valve allows full fluid flow to lift the heavy gear at [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 27]
maximum speed. When lowering the gear, the orifice in the
check valve prevents the gear from violently dropping by
restricting the fluid flow out of the actuating cylinder.

QUESTIONS
12-25 AMA063 12-28 AMA063

What device in a hydraulic system with a constant delivery The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid
pump allows circulation of the fluid when no demands are on from either the normal source or an emergency source to an
the system? actuating cylinder is called a
A. Pressure Regulator A. bypass valve.
B. Pressure Relief Valve B. crossflow valve.
C. Shuttle Valve C. shuttle valve.
12-26 AMA063 12-29 AMA063

The purpose of the pressure regulator in a hydraulic A fully charged hydraulic accumulator provides
system is to A. positive fluid flow to the pump inlet.
A. prevent failure of components or rupture of hydraulic B. a source for additional hydraulic power when heavy
lines under pressure. demands are placed on the system.
B. regulate the amount of fluid flow to the actuating C. air pressure to the various hydraulic components.
cylinders within the system.
C. maintain system operating pressure within a
predetermined range and to unload the pump.
12-27 AMA063 12-30 AMA063

Unloading valves are used with many engine driven hydraulic In a hydraulic system of a typical large aircraft such as
pumps to a Boeing 777 the nose wheel steering system’s isolation
A. dampen out pressure surges. valve _____________ when it senses that airspeed is below a
B. relieve system pressure. preset point.
C. relieve the pump pressure. A. closes
B. opens
C. bypasses

ANSWERS

A pressure regulator is used in a system that is pressurized The main purpose of a shuttle valve is to isolate the normal
by a constant delivery-type pump. Its purpose is to manage system from the alternate or emergency system. In the
the output of the pump to maintain system operating normal position, fluid from the normal source flows through
pressure within a predetermined range. It permits the pump the valve and out to the actuating unit. When the emergency
to turn without resistance (unloading the pump) when source is selected, fluid pressure allows the emergency
pressure in the system is within normal operating range and source fluid into the valve and out to the actuator. In the
no demands are on the system. process, the emergency fluid pressure moves the shuttle to
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 28] block off flow from the normal system.

A pressure regulator is used in a system that is pressurized One of the function of an accumulator is to aid or supplement
by a constant delivery-type pump. Its purpose is to manage the power pump when several units are operating at once by
the output of the pump to maintain system operating supplying extra power from its accumulated, or stored, power.
pressure within a predetermined range. It permits the pump [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 30]
to turn without resistance (unloading the pump) when
pressure in the system is within normal operating range and
no demands are on the system.

A pressure regulator valve is also known as an unloading A nose gear isolation valve automatically opens when it
valve because it permits the pump to run without resistance senses that the airspeed on the ground is at a point in which
at times when pressure in the system is within normal nose wheel steering is required to control the aircraft. In a
operating range but there are no demands on the system. Boeing 777, that point is 60 knots.

QUESTIONS
12-31 AMA063 12-34 AMA063

Hydraulic system accumulators serve which of the A hydraulic accumulator is charged with an air preload of
following functions? 1,000 PSI. When a hydraulic system pressure of 3,000 PSI is
1. Dampen pressure surges. developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator
2. Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond will be
the pump’s capacity. A. 4,000 PSI.
3. Store power for limited operation of components if the B. 3,000 PSI.
pump is not operating. C. 1,000 PSI.
4. Ensure a continuous supply of fluid to the pump.
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
12-32 AMA065 12-35 AMA063

If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of the A unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear
accumulator is depressed, it is evidence of motion is called
A. leaking check valve. A. an accumulator.
B. a ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals. B. an actuating cylinder.
C. excessive accumulator air pressure. C. a hydraulic pump.
12-33 AMA065 12-36 AMA063

After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some aircraft
chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure gauge hydraulic systems to
will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until A. combat fluid flammability.
A. the fluid side of the accumulator has been charged. B. cool the fluid for braking.
B. at least one selector valve has been actuated to allow C. extend service life of the fluid and components.
fluid to flow into the fluid side of the accumulator.
C. the air pressure has become equal to the fluid pressure.

ANSWERS

Hydraulic accumulators are located on the pressure side of Because of the movable separator between the fluid
the hydraulic system and pump. They function to dampen chamber and the air chamber, system pressure will enter
pressure surges caused by actuation of a unit. They aid the fluid side of the accumulator and push against the
or supplement the power pump when several units are diaphragm, bladder, or piston and move it. As the system
operating at once. Accumulators also store power for limited pressure moves the separator, it reduces the volume of the
operation of a hydraulic unit when the pump is not operating air chamber and raises the pressure in the air chamber.
and they may also supply fluid pressure to compensate for When the force on both sides of the diaphragm, bladder, or
small internal or external leaks that would cause the system piston equalize, movement stops. This occurs at fluid system
to cycle continuously. pressure (3000psi)

A hydraulic accumulator contains two separate chambers, An actuating cylinder transforms energy in the form of fluid
one for hydraulic fluid and one for a nitrogen or air charge. pressure into mechanical force, or action, to perform work.
The chambers are separated by a diaphragm, bladder or It is used to impart powered linear motion to some movable
piston seals (cylindrical type). There is no mixing of the object or mechanism.
hydraulic fluid and the gas charge. If fluid is present in the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 32]
air/nitrogen chamber, the diaphragm is ruptured or the piston
seals are leaking.

The accumulator preload through the gas-servicing valve Transport category aircraft use heat exchangers in their
moves the piston (or diaphragm in a spherical accumulator) hydraulic power supply system to cool the hydraulic fluid
towards to opposite end of the accumulator until it bottoms from the hydraulic pumps. This extends the life of the fluid
out. The pressure indicator on the accumulator will show and the hydraulic pumps.
the preload pressure. The hydraulic fluid pressure indicator [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 32]
will show zero fluid pressure. When the hydraulic pump
is activated, it will develop normal hydraulic system fluid
pressure. As it does so, the piston (or diaphragm) will
be pushed back toward the servicing valve end of the
accumulator by the pump pressure. The space for the gas
charge becomes smaller and pressure in the gas chamber
rises to that equal to the fluid pressure developed by the
pump. At this point the piston (or diaphragm) stops moving.

QUESTIONS
12-37 AMA063 12-40 AMA065

The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using
to transform MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with
A. fluid pressure into useful work. A. one or more white dots.
B. fluid motion into mechanical pressure and back again. B. a blue stripe or dot.
C. energy from one form to another. C. a white and yellow stripe.
12-38 AMA063 12-41 AMA065

A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to What type of packings should be used in hydraulic
A. linear motion. components to be installed in a system containing Skydrol®?
B. rotary motion. A. AN packings made of neoprene.
C. angular motion. B. Packing materials made for ester base fluids.
C. AN packings made of natural rubber.
12-39 AMA065 12-42 AMA063

A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a What is the purpose of using backup rings with O- rings in
A. gasket. high-pressure hydraulic systems?
B. compound. A. To prevent high pressure from extruding the seal
C. packing. between the moving and stationary part.
B. To provide a seal between two parts of a unit which
move in relation to each other.
C. To prevent internal and external leakage of all moving
parts within a hydraulic system.

ANSWERS

An actuating cylinder transforms energy in the form of fluid Color codes that are compatible with MIL-H-5606 fluid
pressure into mechanical force, or action, to perform work. always contain blue.
It is used to impart powered linear motion to some movable [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 36-37]
object or mechanism.

Piston-type motors are the most commonly used in hydraulic Hydraulic system seals of neoprene are not compatible
systems. They are basically the same as hydraulic pumps with Skydrol®. Skydrol® is a phosphate ester-based fluid.
except they are used to convert hydraulic energy into Thus, seals used with it must be compatible and made
mechanical (rotary) energy. for ester based fluids. O-rings are available in individually
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 34] hermetically sealed envelopes labeled with all pertinent
data. When selecting an O-ring for installation, the basic
part number on the sealed envelope provides the most
reliable compound identification.

Seals are divided into three main classes: packings, gaskets Backup rings made of Teflon™ do not deteriorate with age
and wipers. Hydraulic seals used internally on a sliding or and can tolerate temperature extremes in excess of those
moving assembly are normally called packings. Hydraulic encountered in high pressure hydraulic systems. An O-ring
seals used between non-moving fittings and bosses are without a backup ring may extrude into the gap which it is
normally called gaskets. sealing. Backup rings are installed downstream of some
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 35] O-rings to prevent extrusion.

QUESTIONS
12-43 AMA063 12-46 AMA079

Which unit houses multiple filters, bypasses, and bypass 1. Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems as damage
indicators in a single location preventing units.
A. filter panel 2. Check valves are used in both hydraulic and
B. filter module pneumatic systems.
C. filter exchange unit (FEU)
B. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
12-44 AMA065 12-47 AMA079

To protect packing rings or seals from damage when it is Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems
necessary to install them over or inside threaded sections, the A. as damage preventing units.
A. packings should be stretched during installation to B. for one direction flow control.
avoid contact with the threads. C. to reduce the rate of airflow.
B. threaded section should be covered with a
suitable sleeve.
C. threaded section should be coated with a
heavy grease.
12-45 AMA079 12-48 AMA079

A pneumatic braking system on an aircraft derives its air What function does a restrictor perform in the pneumatic
from which source? power system?
A. An onboard compressor such as the APU. A. Regulates the compressor outlet air pressure to
B. Ground-filled pressure bottles. stabilize the system pressure.
C. Engine compressor bleed air. B. Regulates the inlet air to provide a stabilized source of
airflow and pressure.
C. Regulates the pneumatic system pressure to protect
the moisture separator from internal explosion.

ANSWERS

Modern design often uses a filter module that contains Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems to prevent
multiple filters and other components such as temperature damage. They act as pressure limiting units and prevent
and pressure transducers. For example, a return filter module excessive pressures from bursting lines and blowing
may have more than one filter to clean the return flow of out seals. Check valves are used in both pneumatic and
hydraulic fluid from the user systems. It also contains the hydraulic systems. A pneumatic check valve is a one-
filter bypasses and the bypass indicators that pop out to direction flow control valve.
indicate a clogged filter. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 49-50]

When the O-ring installation requires spanning or inserting Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems to prevent
through sharply threaded areas, ridges, slots, and edges, damage. They act as pressure limiting units and prevent
use protective measures such as O-ring entering sleeves. excessive pressures from bursting lines and blowing out seals.
Some of these measures are shown in FAA-H-8083-31-ATB, [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 49]
Page 40, Figure 12-61.

Pneumatic braking systems are typically used as an Restrictors are a type of control valve used in pneumatic
emergency backup in case hydraulic systems failed. To systems. A small outlet port reduces the rate of airflow and
operate pressures of up to 3,000 psi are required. This the speed of operation of an actuating unit.
type of pressure is only available from ground filled high [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 50]
pressure bottles.

QUESTIONS
12-49 AMA079 12-52 AMA063

An aircraft pneumatic system, which incorporates an A hydraulic system operational check during ground run-up
engine‑driven, multistage reciprocating compressor, of an aircraft indicates that the wing flaps cannot be lowered
also requires using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using
A. a surge chamber. the emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause?
B. an oil separator. A. The pressure accumulator is not supplying pressure
C. a moisture separator. to the system.
B. The fluid level in the reservoir is low.
C. The flap selector valve has a severe internal leak.
12-50 AMA079 12-53 AMA065

What aspect of an aircraft pneumatic system must be A pilot reports that when the hydraulic pump is running, the
considered on a daily basis? pressure is normal. However, when the pump is stopped, no
A. Removal of moisture. hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of a
B. Compressor oil. A. leaking selector valve.
C. Leaking air bottles. B. low accumulator fluid preload.
C. leaking accumulator air valve.
12-51 AMA079 12-54 AMA065

What is done with expended air when an actuating unit is When flushing a hydraulic system thought to be
operated in a pneumatic system? contaminated, ______________ should be used.
A. It is returned to the compressor. A. varsol
B. It is exhausted overboard. B. mineral spirits
C. It is returned to a holding tank. C. clean hydraulic fluid that is the same as specified
for the system

ANSWERS

The moisture separator in a pneumatic system is always Many aircraft have emergency hydraulic systems that obtain
located down stream of the compressor. Its purpose is to fluid from the same reservoir as the normal system. This is
remove any moisture caused by the compressor. possible because the normal system draws fluid through a
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 50] standpipe. All fluid remaining below the top of the standpipe
is available for the emergency system pump. In this case,
since the emergency pump functions to deploy the flaps, the
problem is that the normal system pump is not receiving any
fluid (i.e. the fluid level is below the top of the stand pipe but
still high enough for the emergency pump to utilize).

The air compressor’s oil level should be checked daily The accumulator air charge exerts pressure on the hydraulic
according to the manufacturer’s instructions. The fluid through movement of the internal accumulator
components and lines should be drained periodically diaphragm, bladder, or piston. When the hydraulic pump
to eliminate moisture and other containments. When is running, full pump pressure is developed in the system.
reconnecting; all lines, valves, and air bottles must be When it is shut off, the accumulator pressure remains against
checked for leaks. the system fluid. If this is not the case, the accumulator air
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 53] pressure has leaked out – most likely through the air valve.

An advantage of a pneumatic system for component When inspection of the hydraulic filters or hydraulic fluid
actuation is that there need not be any return line(s). For evaluation indicates that the fluid is contaminated, flushing
example, when used for emergency gear actuation, pulling the system may be necessary. This must be done in
the handle fully upward releases compressed nitrogen into accordance with manufacturer’s instructions. In a typical
the landing gear extension system. Pushing the handle fully procedure, connect a ground hydraulic test stand to the
downward closes the outlet valve and allows any nitrogen inlet and outlet test ports of the system. Verify that the
present in the emergency landing gear extension system to ground test unit fluid is clean and contains the same fluid as
be vented overboard. specified for the aircraft. Clean the filters and pump clean
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 51] filtered fluid through the system and subsystems.

QUESTIONS
12-55 AMA063 12-58 AMA063

Which of the following systems would be powered by a To reduce the output of a variable displacement piston
medium pressure pneumatic system? hydraulic pump, make sure
A. Wing Deicing Boots A. the relief valve is opened.
B. Engine Starts B. the yoke angle is reduced.
C. Vacuum Powered Instruments C. the shaft rotation is slowed.
12-56 AMA063 12-59 AMA063

Which type of pump is most commonly use in aircraft A common type of rotary actuator often used on nose wheel
hydraulic systems? steering is
A. Positive Displacement A. grooved vane type.
B. Nonpositive Displacement B. wheel and sprocket.
C. Centrifugal C. rack and pinion.
12-57 AMA063 12-60 AMA063

Hydraulic fluid enters a bent axis piston pump Power transfer units on transport category aircraft
A. through a single intake port at the baseplate. A. allow any pump to operate any hydraulic component.
B. through a check valve in the pistons. B. work at reduced capacity.
C. through the suction action of the pistons while over C. use an operating EDP to drive components in a system
the inlet port. with an inoperative EDP.

ANSWERS

Medium pressure pneumatic systems source air from When system pressure exceeds the preset setting, the
engine bleed air or APU driven pumps. While most deicing pressure-compensating spool moves to admit outlet
equipment operates in this way, deicing boots operate off pressure against the yoke. The yoke is supported inside the
lower pressures of under 10 lbs. Instrument vacuum pumps housing by two bearings. At outlet pressure below maximum,
operate with still less pressure. the yoke is at its maximum angle. As maximum outlet
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 52] pressure is reached the compensator allows outlet pressure
to act on the yoke actuating piston which reduces the angle
of the yoke. This results in a shorter stroke of the pistons and
reduced displacement.

Most pumps used in hydraulic systems are positive Rotary actuators can mount right at the part needing to be
displacement pumps. The output of a non-positive displace moved without taking up the long stroke lengths require by
pump varies as output pressure varies. Centrifugal and linear actuators. An often used type of rotary actuator is the
propeller pumps are examples of non-positive displacement rack and pinion actuator used for many nose steering wheel
pumps. In a positive displacement pump, slippage is mechanisms. In a rack and pinion actuator, a long piston with
negligible compared to the pump’s volumetric output. If the one side machined into a rack engages a pinion to rotate the
output port is plugged on a positive displacement pump, output shaft. One side of the piston receives fluid pressure
pressure would increase instantaneously to the point that the while the other side is connected to the return. When the
pump pressure relief valve opens. piston moves, it rotates the pinion.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 16-17] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 33-34]

At any given moment of operation, three of the pistons The purpose of a Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is to supply
are moving away from the top face of the cylinder block, the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate
producing a partial vacuum in the bores in which these components at a normal rate when the Engine Drive
pistons operate. This occurs over the inlet port so fluid is Pump (EDP) that normally operates those components
drawn into these bores at this time. malfunctions. The PTU consists of a hydraulic motor and a
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 12 Page 19] hydraulic pump connected by a shaft. The hydraulic motor
and connected pump are driven by an operative EDP. The
PTU pump uses the fluid of the system with the inoperative
EDP to drive the components in that system. There is no
transfer of fluid from one system to another.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
12-1(O). What are the components of a basic hydraulic system?
12-2(O). What are the functions of a hydraulic accumulator?
12-3(O). What is the difference between a packing and a gasket and how are hydraulic seals identified?
12-4(O). What are some general maintenance procedures for removing and replacing hydraulic seals?
12-5(O). What type of hydraulic filter is used on aircraft and how does a hydraulic filter operate?
12-6(O). Describe some maintenance procedures used for hydraulic filters?
12-7(O). Describe the purpose of relief valves and pressure regulators in a hydraulic system.
12-8(O). What are some hydraulic system maintenance precautions used to prevent contamination?
12-9(O). What are some common types and characteristics of hydraulic fluids, where are they used, and how can they
be identified?
12-10(O). What are some health and handling factors when using phosphate ester-based hydraulic fluid?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
12-1(O). A basic hydraulic system consists of a pump, reservoir, directional valve, check valve, pressure relieve valve,
and a filter.
12-2(O). Dampen hydraulic system pressure surges; Supplement the hydraulic pump when several units are operated
simultaneously; Store power for limited operation of a hydraulic unit without using the pump; Supply fluid
under pressure to compensate for small internal or external hydraulic fluid leaks.
12-3(O). Hydraulic seals used internally on a sliding or moving assembly are normally called packings. Seals
used between non moving parts are called gaskets. Hydraulic seals are made of different materials to be
compatible various types of hydraulic fluid. They are often color coded by the manufacturer as a means of
identifying with which fluid they are compatible. However, seals come individually packaged in hermetically
sealed envelopes labeled with all pertinent data. The basic part number on the sealed envelope provides the
most reliable compound identification.
12-4(O). When removing and replacing o-rings, special tools may be required. It is important to not scratch or mar
the metallic surface of the hydraulic component or to damage the o-ring itself during installation. Replace
hydraulic seals with new seals from a sealed envelope with the correct part number on the outside. Clean and
inspect the area where the seal is to be installed. Inspect the seal itself for imperfections that may cause it to
not seal properly. An o-ring can be rolled to inspect the internal diameter surface. Use of a magnifying glass
may be helpful. Prior to installation, immerse the new seal in clean hydraulic fluid. Care must be used to not
damage the o-ring on sharp edges, threads, ridges and slots when installing it. A protective sleeve may be
used. Once in place, the o-ring should be gently rolled with a finger to ensure it is not twisted.
12-5(O). Most hydraulic filters used on aircraft are inline micronic filters. They can be located anywhere in the system the
designer feels filtering is needed. The filter assembly contains a head which is bolted to the aircraft structure.
A bowl attaches to the head and contains a filter element inside. Elements may be micronic, porous metal, or
magnetic type. Micron filters are usually paper that trap particles much smaller than the diameter of a human
hair. Fluid enters the filter through a port in the head and must pass through the element to exit the filter.
Should the element be clogged, a bypass in the head will permit unfiltered fluid to flow to the hydraulic system.
Differential pressure indicators are used to alert the technician or crew that the filter is being bypassed.
12-6(O). Hydraulic filters are cleaned or replaced periodically in accordance with the manufacturer’s maintenance
instructions. They are also typically inspected or replaced in the event of a major hydraulic system component
failure. Typically, paper micronic filter elements are discarded and replaced with new elements when
performing maintenance. Porous metal and magnetic filters are cleaned and reinstalled per manufacturer’s
instructions. Replaceable elements should be inspected closely to insure that they are completely undamaged
before reinstallation. When replacing filter elements, it is critical to ensure there is no pressure on the filter
bowl before removing it. Protective gear, especially eye protection, should be used. After the element
installation is complete, the hydraulic system must be pressurized and the filter inspected for leaks before
returning the aircraft to service.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
12-7(O). A relief valve is used to limit the pressure being exerted on a confined liquid. In a hydraulic system, this
protects components from failure due to excessive pressure. The pressure relief valve can be thought of as
the system safety valve. When pressure increased to the value for which the relief valve is set, the valve opens
to relieve the pressure. Relief valves can be installed as protection against failure of the normal pressure
regulating device in a system or as protection against excess pressure due to thermal expansion of the
hydraulic fluid. A pressure regulator is a device used in hydraulic systems that are pressurized by constant-
delivery pumps. One purpose of the pressure regulator is to manage the output of the pump to maintain
system operating pressure within a predetermined range. The other purpose is to permit the pump to turn
without resistance at times when pressure within the system is within normal operating range. This is known
as unloading the pump.
12-8(O). Contamination of the hydraulic system fluid can lead to premature failure of components and the system.
Only the correct, specified fluid must be used to service an aircraft hydraulic system. When performing
maintenance, keep all tools and the work area clean. Use a suitable container for capturing hydraulic fluid.
Before disconnecting hydraulic lines and fittings, clean the fittings and the area around them. Cap or plug
all hydraulic lines and fittings immediately after disconnecting. Before assembly, wash all parts in approved
solvent. Lubricate parts before assembly in accordance with manufacturer’s instructions. Replace all seals
and gaskets with new. Use only seals and gaskets with the correct manufacturer’s part number. Connect
threaded components and fittings with care to prevent stripping metal slivers from threaded areas. Install
and torque all lines and fittings in accordance with manufacturer’s instructions. Ensure all hydraulic system
servicing equipment is clean and in good operating condition.
12-9(O). There are three basic types of hydraulic fluids: mineral-based, polyalaphaolefins, and phosphate esters.
Mineral-based fluid is processed from petroleum. It is dyed red and has an odor similar to penetrating
oil. The most common is MIL-H-5606. It is predominantly used in small aircraft hydraulic systems where
the fire hazard is low. Polyalaphaolefin oil is a more fire resistant type of hydraulic oil sometimes used in
aircraft that normally use MIL-H-5606. It is compatible with the same seals used in mineral-based hydraulic
systems. Phosphate ester-based hydraulic fluid is used in most commercial transport category aircraft. It
is fire-resistant but not fire proof. The most common brand name of phosphate ester-based hydraulic fluid
is Skydrol®. It is purple in color. Due to the differences in composition, mineral-based hydraulic oils and
phosphate ester-based fluids will not mix; neither are the seals for MIL-H-5606 and Skydrol® interchangeable.
Always check the manufacturer’s maintenance information for the correct type of hydraulic fluid to be used in
the aircraft system and ensure the container from which fluid is obtained is clearly labeled as the proper fluid.
12-10(O). Phosphate esters are good solvents and dissolve away some of the fatty materials of human skin. Repeated
and prolonged exposure may cause drying of the skin which, if left unattended, could result in dermatitis or
secondary infection from bacteria. Skydrol® on one’s skin could cause a burning or itching sensation. Always
wear proper gloves and eye protection when handling phosphate ester-based hydraulic fluid or any type of
hydraulic fluid. When vapor exposure is possible, a respirator should be worn. Avoid ingesting any type of
hydraulic fluid. Although small amounts ingested do not seem highly hazardous, any significant amount of
hydraulic fluid ingestion should be followed by medically supervised testing and surveillance in accordance
with the manufacturer’s instructions.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
12-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and appropriate publications, select and install a hydraulic seal.
12-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and appropriate publications, service a pneumatic system filter.
12-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and appropriate publications, service a hydraulic system filter.
12-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and appropriate publications, inspect the components or portion of a
hydraulic system and record your findings.
12-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and appropriate publications, inspect the components or portion of a
pneumatic system and record your findings.
12-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and appropriate publications, locate the fluid servicing instructions and
identify or select a fluid for a particular aircraft.
12-7(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and appropriate equipment and tooling, service
a hydraulic reservoir.
12-8(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and appropriate equipment and tooling,
troubleshoot a hydraulic system and record your findings.
12-9(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and appropriate equipment and tooling,
troubleshoot a pneumatic system and record your findings.
12-10(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and appropriate equipment and tooling, repair a
hydraulic system defect.
12-11(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and appropriate equipment and tooling, repair a
pneumatic system defect.
necessary, remove and install a hydraulic system component, complete an operational check, and record
your findings.
necessary, remove and install a pneumatic system component, complete an operational check, and record
your findings.
12-14(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, appropriate publications, and equipment, service a hydraulic
system accumulator.

AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Landing Gear Types, Landing Gear Alignment, Support, and Retraction, Aircraft Brakes,
Aircraft Tires and Tubes
13
QUESTIONS
13-1 AMA068 13-4 AMA068

The purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and What is the purpose of a hydraulic restrictor on the piston
piston of a landing gear oleo strut is to end of a landing gear shock strut?
A. limit compression stroke. A. Restricts the speed of the extension stroke.
B. maintain correct wheel alignment. B. Limits compression in case of a hard landing.
C. hold the strut in place. C. Dampens oscillation when on rough surfaces.
13-2 AMA068 13-5 AMA068

When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, the The metering pins in hydraulic shock struts serve to
initial shock of landing is cushioned by the A. retard the flow of oil as the struts are compressed.
A. compression of the fluid. B. meter the proper amount of air in the struts.
B. fluid being forced through a metered opening. C. lock the struts in the DOWN position.
C. compression of the air charge.
13-3 AMA069 13-6 AMA068

The purpose of a locking/disconnect pin on a nose gear A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a landing
strut is to gear hydraulic shock strut to
A. manually retract the nose gear when the aircraft is on A. limit the extension stroke.
jacks for maintenance. B. limit the extension of the torque arm.
B. remove the wheel assembly from the axle. C. reduce the rebound effect.
C. disconnect steering when the aircraft is being towed.

AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

Most shock struts are equipped with torque links or torque Upon rebound from compression, the shock strut tends
arms to keep the piston and wheels aligned. One end of to extend rapidly which could result in a sharp impact at
the links is attached to the fixed upper cylinder, other end the end of the stroke and damage the strut. A recoil device
is attached to the lower cylinder (piston) so it cannot rotate. restricts the flow of fluid during this extension which slows
This keeps the wheels aligned. The links also retain the the extension.
piston in the end of the upper cylinder when the strut is [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 8]
extended, such as after takeoff.

In an oleo-shock strut absorber, the initial landing impact is The compression stroke of the shock strut begins as the
absorbed by oil transferring from one compartment in the aircraft wheels touch the ground. As the center of mass of
shock strut into another compartment through a metering the aircraft moves downward, the strut compresses, and
orifice. A cushion of compressed air takes up the shocks the lower cylinder or piston is forced upward into the upper
of taxiing. cylinder. The metering pin is moved up through the orifice.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 8, G-24] The taper of the pin controls the rate of fluid flow from the
bottom cylinder to the top cylinder at all points during the
compression stroke.

Nose gear struts are often equipped with a locking or The snubbing of fluid flow during the extension stroke
disconnect pin to enable quick turning of the aircraft while dampens the strut rebound and reduces oscillation caused
towing or positioning the aircraft when on the ramp or in by the spring action of the compressed air. A sleeve,
a hangar. Disengagement of this pin allows the wheel fork spacer, or bumper ring incorporated into the strut limits the
spindle on some aircraft to rotate 360°, thus enabling the extension stroke.
aircraft to be turned in a tight radius. At no time should the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 12]
nose wheel of any aircraft be rotated beyond limit lines
marked on the airframe.

QUESTIONS
13-7 AMA069 13-10 AMA068

When servicing an air/oil shock strut with fluid, the strut Within an hydraulic landing gear retraction system on a small
should be aircraft at what point in the circuit is an emergency freefall
A. collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening. valve located?
B. partially extended and fluid added at the filler opening. A. Between the shuttle valve and each actuator.
C. fully extended and fluid added at the filler opening. B. Between the high and low pressure control valves.
C. Between the fluid reservoir and pump.
13-8 AMA069 13-11 AMA068

Extension of a shock strut is measured to determine the The purpose of hydraulic restrictors when used in a small
A. physical condition of the strut itself. aircraft nose gear retraction system actuator is to
B. amount of oil in the strut. A. keep the wheel aligned in flight with the direction of
C. proper operating position of the strut. the aircraft.
B. slow the downward motion of the gear leg.
C. dampen the shock of impact with the ground.
13-9 AMA069 13-12 AMA068

When filling a shock strut with hydraulic fluid, fluid is added The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable
when the strut is in its _____________ position? landing gear system is to
A. fully extended A. prevent heavy landing gear from falling.
B. fully compressed B. provide a means of disconnecting the normal source
C. normal service of hydraulic power and connecting the emergency
source of power.
C. ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in
the proper order.

ANSWERS

Efficient operation of the shock struts requires that proper A freefall emergency extension system disconnects each
fluid and air pressure be maintained. To check the fluid level, actuator from the hydraulic system and allows each gear to
most struts need to be deflated and compressed into the freefall into a down and locked position prior to landing.
fully compressed position. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 19]

The correct amount of inflation is measured in psi on some Restrictors are used in the nose wheel actuator inlet and
struts. Other manufacturers specify struts to be inflated outlet ports to slow down the motion of this lighter gear.
until extension of the lower strut is a certain measurement. While hydraulic fluid is pumped to extend the gear, fluid from
Always follow manufacturer’s instructions. the upside of the actuators returns to the reservoir through
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 13] the gear- up check valve. When the gear reach the down
and locked position, pressure builds in the gear-down line
from the pump and the low-pressure control valve unseats to
return the fluid to the reservoir.

When filling a shock strut; fully extend the strut; release Devices used in a hydraulically-operated retraction system
any air pressure in the strut; remove the service valve; fill include actuating cylinders, selector valves, uplocks,
the strut to the service valve port; then attach a bleed hose downlocks, sequence valves, priority valves, tubing, and
to the service port and continue the bleeding operation to other conventional hydraulic system components. These
remove any unwanted air. units are interconnected so that they permit properly
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 14] sequenced retraction and extension of the landing gear and
the landing gear doors.

QUESTIONS
13-13 AMA068 13-16 AMA068

On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some What typically controls the engagement of the centering cam
means must be provided to on a light aircraft nosewheel?
A. extend the landing gear if the normal operating A. Hydraulic pressure during retraction.
mechanism fails. B. Weight on wheels.
B. retract and extend the landing gear if the normal C. An electric solenoid switch.
operating mechanism fails.
C. prevent the throttle from being reduced below a safe
power setting while the landing gear is retracted.
13-14 AMA069 13-17 AMA068

On a large aircraft which uses proximity sensors to indicate Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable
the position of the landing gear, which is the primary task of landing gear systems. The primary purpose of the centering
a mechanic during inspection of this components? device is to
A. To ensure sufficient voltage from the inductor. A. engage the nosewheel steering.
B. To ensure that the target is clean. B. center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel well.
C. To check the spacing between the target and inductor. C. align the nosewheel prior to touchdown.
13-15 AMA068 13-18 AMA069

On an aircraft which is equipped with a squat switch to When inspecting retractable landing gear rigging, always
prevent inadvertent gear retraction, when the aircraft is on check the cylinder piston for over travel. Over travel is
the ground, the squat switch circuit is _____________. A. caused by low fluid levels in the cylinder.
A. open; inserting a lock pin B. a design feature to accommodate rough
B. closed; inserting a lock pin surface operation.
C. open; retracting a lock pin C. a design feature to accommodate the landing gear
latching mechanism.

ANSWERS

The emergency extension system lowers the landing gear A centering cam which is built into the shock strut remains
if the main power system fails. There are numerous ways in engaged due to the lack of compression of the strut when
which this is done depending on the size and complexity of airborne. Once weight is on the wheels and the strut
the aircraft. compressed, the locking cam disengages and allows control
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 22] of the wheel.

The technician is required to ensure that sensor targets Since most aircrafts have steerable nose wheel gear
are installed the correct distance from the sensor; typically assemblies for taxiing, a means for aligning the nose gear
with the use of go-no go gauges. As the sensor works via before retraction is needed. Centering cams built into the
electrical inductance, extreme cleanliness is not required. shock strut structure accomplish this. An upper cam is
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 23] free to mate into a lower cam recess when the gear is fully
extended. This aligns the gear for retraction.

A landing gear squat switch, or safety switch, is found on When landing gear actuating cylinders are replaced and
most aircrafts. This is a switch positioned to open and close when length adjustments are made, over- travel must be
depending on the extension or compression of the main checked. Over-travel is the action of the cylinder piston
landing gear strut. The squat switch is wired into any number beyond the movement necessary for landing gear extension
of system operating circuits. One circuit prevents the gear and retraction. The additional action operates the landing
from being retracted while the aircraft is on the ground. gear latch mechanisms.

QUESTIONS
13-19 AMA069 13-22 AMA069

After performing maintenance on an aircraft’s landing gear Why is dye penetrant inspection typically ineffective when
system that may have affected the system’s operation, it is checking wheel halves for cracks?
usually necessary to A. Wheel cracks tend to close up tightly after
A. conduct a flight test. being formed.
B. re-inspect the area after the first flight. B. Dye penetrant inspection is typically ineffective on
C. make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks. non‑ferrous metals.
C. Wheel heat incurred on a hard landing can refuse the
damaged area.
13-20 AMA069 13-23 AMA068

Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test? When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a tire
A. Red warning light bulb. to deflate
B. Landing gear safety switch. A. it and all additional fusible plugs in that assembly
C. Gear lockdown microswitch. should be replaced.
B. the affected fusible plug and tire should be replaced.
C. the affected fusible plug can be repacked and returned
to service.
13-21 AMA069 13-24 AMA068

When inspecting wheel bearings, which condition is caused The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will
by friction heat from the movement between the bearing and A. melt at a specified elevated temperature.
its mating surface B. prevent over inflation.
A. spalling. C. indicate tire tread separation.
B. brinelling.
C. galling.

ANSWERS

Retraction tests are performed at various times, such Dye penetrant inspection is generally ineffective when
as during annual inspection. Any time a landing gear checking for cracks in the bead area. There is a tendency
component is replaced that could affect the correct for cracks to close up tightly once the tire is dismounted,
functioning of the landing gear system, a retraction test and the stress is removed from the metal. Eddy current
should follow when adjustments to landing gear linkages inspection of the bead seat area is required.
or components that affect gear system performance are [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 41]
made. It may be necessary to swing the gear after a hard
or overweight landing. It is also common to swing the gear
while attempting to locate a malfunction within the system.
For all required retraction tests and the specific inspection
points to check, consult the manufacturer’s maintenance
manual for the aircraft in question as each landing gear
system is unique.

Retraction tests are performed at various times, such Fusible plugs or thermal plugs must be inspected visually.
as during annual inspection. Any time a landing gear These threaded plugs have a core that melts at a lower
component is replaced that could affect the correct temperature than the outer part of the plug. This is to release
functioning of the landing gear system, a retraction test air from the tire should the temperature rise to a dangerous
should follow when adjustments to landing gear linkages level. A close inspection should reveal whether any core
or components that affect gear system performance are has experienced deformation that might be due to high
made. It may be necessary to swing the gear after a hard temperature. If detected, all thermal plugs in the wheel
or overweight landing. It is also common to swing the gear should be replaced with new plugs.
while attempting to locate a malfunction within the system. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 42]
For all required retraction tests and the specific inspection
points to check, consult the manufacturer’s maintenance
manual for the aircraft in question, as each landing gear
system is unique.

Galling is caused by rubbing of mating surfaces. The metal Fusible plugs in the wheels of high-performance airplanes
gets so hot it welds, and the surface metal is destroyed that use tubeless tires. The centers of the plugs are filled with
as the motion continues and pulls the metal apart in the a metal that melts at a relatively low temperature. If a takeoff
direction of motion. is aborted and the pilot uses the brakes excessively, the heat
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 39, Figure 13-64] transferred into the wheel will melt the center of the fusible
plugs and allow the air to escape from the tire before it builds
up enough pressure to cause an explosion.

QUESTIONS
13-25 AMA068 13-28 AMA031

The greatest risk to an aircraft wheel assembly is due to What mostly limits the amount of heat, which can be
A. shock of hard landings or runway FOD. dissipated by carbon brakes?
B. drag pressure caused by an over-torqued axle nut. A. The alloying metal in which the carbon is infused.
C. heat from excessive braking. B. The melting point of adjacent system components.
C. The amount of cooling space between adjacent
carbon rotors.
13-26 AMA031 13-29 AMA031

The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is accomplished What brake component builds up all the pressure required
by compressing a rotating brake disk between two opposite for braking?
brake linings. Equal pressure on both sides of the rotating A. Master Cylinder
disk is assured by allowing the B. Individual Wheel Cylinders
A. brake rotor to float to automatically equalize as C. Expander Tube
pressure is applied to the rotor.
B. brake linings to automatically equalize as pressure is
applied to the rotor.
C. caliper to float to automatically equalize as pressure is
applied to the rotor.
13-27 AMA031 13-30 AMA031

Why are segmented disc brakes typically used on large high What is the purpose of a compensating port or valve in a
performance aircraft? brake master cylinder of an independent brake system?
A. If one disc segment fails, others can still stop A. Permits the fluid to flow toward or away from the
the aircraft. reservoir as temperature changes.
B. For better heat dissipation. B. Prevents fluid from flowing back to the reservoir.
C. A single disc could not withstand the high C. Assists in the master cylinder piston return.
pressure hydraulics.

ANSWERS

The basic operation of brakes involves converting the kinetic Carbon brakes are able to withstand temperatures fifty
energy of motion into heat energy through the creation of percent higher than steel component brakes. The maximum
friction. A great amount of heat is developed and forces on designed operating temperature is limited by the ability of
the brake system components are demanding. adjacent components to withstand the high temperature.

Cleveland brakes are a fixed-disc brake, allowing the brake The master cylinders are used to develop the necessary
caliper to move laterally on anchor bolts to deliver even hydraulic pressure to operate the brakes. This is similar to
pressure to each side of the brake disc. the brake system of an automobile.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 45, Figure 13-81] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 52]

The large amount of heat generated while slowing the Hydraulic fluid expands as temperature increases. Trapped
rotation of the wheels on large and high performance aircraft fluid can cause a brake to drag against the rotor(s). Leaks
is problematic. To better dissipate this heat, segmented rotor may also result. When the brakes are not applied, fluid
disc brakes have been developed. must be allowed to expand safely without causing these
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 47] issues. A compensating port is included in most master
cylinders to facilitate this. In the master cylinder, this port
is opened when the piston is fully retracted. Fluid in the
brake system is allowed to expand into the reservoir, which
has the capacity to accept the extra fluid volume. The
typical reservoir is also vented to the atmosphere to provide
positive pressure on the fluid.

QUESTIONS
13-31 AMA032 13-34 AMA031

A pilot reports that the right brake on an aircraft is spongy If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake system, its
when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The position in the system will be
probable cause is A. in the brake pressure line between the brake pedal and
A. the hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring the brake accumulator.
is weak. B. between the brake control valve and the brake
B. air in the brake hydraulic system. actuating cylinder.
C. the hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking. C. between the pressure manifold of the main hydraulic
system and the power brake control valve.
13-32 AMA031 13-35 AMA031

What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line to Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing
isolate the emergency brake system from the normal power valves that
brake control valve system? A. cannot allow full debooster piston travel without
A. Shuttle Valve fluid from the high pressure side entering the low
B. Bypass Valve pressure chamber.
C. Orifice Check Valve B. allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the
high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber.
C. must be bled separately after brake bleeding has
been completed.
13-33 AMA031 13-36 AMA031

In large aircraft, what area of redundancy provides Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems primarily to
emergency braking in case of a partial system failure A. reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the
A. both pilot and copilot operate independent systems. volume of fluid flow.
B. secondary cylinders and actuators are installed on B. relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive release.
each wheel assembly. C. reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure.
C. inboard and outboard wheels on each assembly are
served separately.

ANSWERS

A common requirement of all braking systems is for there To supply the lower pressure, a brake debooster cylinder is
to be no air mixed in with the hydraulic fluid. Since air is installed downstream of the control valve and antiskid valve.
compressible and hydraulic fluid essentially is not, any air [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 61]
under pressure when the brakes are applied causes spongy
brakes. The pedals do not feel firm when pushed down due
to the air compressing.

Shuttle valves are used to direct flow from optional sources A lockout debooster functions as a debooster and a
of fluid, such as in redundant systems or during the use of hydraulic fuse. If fluid is not encountered as the piston
an emergency brake power source. Some simpler power moves down in the cylinder, the flow of fluid to the brakes
brake systems may use an emergency source of brake is stopped. This prevents the loss of all system hydraulic
power that is delivered directly to the brake assemblies and fluid should a rupture downstream of the debooster occur.
bypasses the remainder of the brake system completely. A Lockout deboosters have a handle to reset the device after it
shuttle valve immediately upstream of the brake units shifts closes as a fuse. If not reset, no braking action is possible.
to accept this source when pressure is lost from the primary [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 61]
supply sources. Compressed air or nitrogen is sometimes
used. A pre-charged fluid source can also be used as an
alternate hydraulic source.

Typically, brake metering valves not only receive hydraulic Debooster valve lowers the pressure of the fluid going to the
pressure from two separate hydraulic systems, they also brake and increases its volume. A debooster valve increases
feed two separate brake assemblies. The inboard wheel the smoothness of brake application and aids in rapid
brake and the outboard wheel brake, located in their release of the brakes.
respective wheel rims, are independent from each other. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 61, G-11]
In case of hydraulic system failure or brake failure, each is
independently supplied to adequately slow and stop the
aircraft without the other. More complicated aircraft may
involve another hydraulic system for back-up or use a similar
alternation of sources and brake assemblies to maintain
braking in case of hydraulic system or brake failure.

QUESTIONS
13-37 AMA031 13-40 AMA031

In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by
is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid control A. a sudden rise in brake pressure.
valve which? B. a discriminator.
A. Relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake. C. an electrical sensor.
B. Acts as a bypass for the debooster cylinders.
C. Equalizes the hydraulic pressure in adjacent brakes.
13-38 AMA031 13-41 AMA031

At what point in the landing operation does normal skid Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by
control perform its function A. the rotation of the wheels above a certain speed.
A. when wheel rotation deceleration indicates an B. a centrifugal switch.
impending skid. C. a switch in the cockpit.
B. anytime the wheel is rotating.
C. when wheel rotation indicates hydroplaning.
13-39 AMA031 13-42 AMA031

1. An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to An antiskid system is
operate just below the skid point. A. a hydraulic system.
2. To operate the anti-skid system, flight deck switches B. an electrical system.
must be placed in the ON position. C. an electrohydraulic system.

B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

ANSWERS

The anti-skid system not only detects wheel skid, it also There are various designs of anti-skid systems. Most contain
detects when wheel skid is imminent. It automatically relieves three main types of components: wheel speed sensors,
pressure to the brake pistons of the wheel in question by antiskid control valves, and a control unit. Wheel speed
momentarily connecting the pressurized brake fluid area to sensors are located on each wheel equipped with a brake
the hydraulic system return line. This allows the wheel to rotate assembly. Wheel speed sensors are transducers. They may
and avoid a skid. Lower pressure is then maintained to the be Alternating Current (AC) or Direct Current (DC).
brake at a level that slows the wheel without causing it to skid. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 62]

The anti-skid system detects when wheel skid is imminent. To operate the anti-skid system, flight deck switches must be
It automatically relieves pressure to the brake pistons of the placed in the ON position.
wheel in question by momentarily connecting the pressurized [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 62]
brake fluid area to the hydraulic system return line. This
allows the wheel to rotate and avoid a skid. Lower pressure
is then maintained to the brake at a level that slows the wheel
without causing it to skid.

The anti-skid system automatically relieves pressure to An antiskid brake system is an electrohydraulic system in an
the brake pistons of the wheel in question by momentarily airplane’s power brake system that senses the deceleration
connecting the pressurized brake fluid area to the hydraulic rate of every main landing gear wheel. If any wheel decelerates
system return line. This allows the wheel to rotate and avoid too rapidly, indicating an impending skid, pressure to that
a skid. An anti-skid system must be turned ON to operate; bake is released and the wheel stops decelerating. Pressure is
this is usually a step within the pilot’s checklists. then reapplied at a slightly lower value.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 61-62] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 64, G-3]

QUESTIONS
13-43 AMA031 13-46 AMA032

In the air with the antiskid armed, current cannot flow to the In brake service work, the term "bleeding brakes" is the
antiskid control box because process of
A. landing gear squat switch is open. A. replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.
B. landing gear down and lock switch is open. B. withdrawing air only from the system.
C. landing gear antiskid valves are open. C. withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of
removing air that has entered the system.
13-44 AMA031 13-47 AMA032

When a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a
closes at liftoff, which system is deactivated? master cylinder brake system?
A. Antiskid System A. By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system
B. Aural Warning System pressure gauge for smooth, full scale deflection.
C. Landing Gear Position System B. By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.
C. By noting the amount of fluid return to the master
cylinder upon brake release.
13-45 AMA032 13-48 AMA031

Brake linings may remain in service until The pressure source for power brakes is
A. the measured wear exceeds 75% of their A. the main hydraulic system.
original thickness. B. a master cylinder.
B. less than .25" of material thickness remains and no C. the power brake reservoir.
damage or a glazed sheen is evident.
C. it exceeds the individual manufacturer’s
wear specifications.

ANSWERS

The landing gear squat switch, or safety switch, is found on Bleeding of brakes is the maintenance procedure of
most aircraft. This is a switch positioned to open and close removing air entrapped in hydraulic fluid in the brakes. Fluid
depending on the extension or compression of the main is bled from the brake system until fluid with no bubbles
landing gear strut. On takeoff, the anti-skid system receives flows out. The brake caliper has the necessary passages
input through a switch located on the gear selector that machined into it to facilitate hydraulic fluid movement and
shuts off the anti-skid system. This allows the brakes to be the application of pressure when the brakes are utilized.
applied as retraction occurs so that no wheel rotation exists The caliper housing also contains a bleed port used by
while the gear is stowed. the technician to remove unwanted air from the system.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 22 & 66] Brake bleeding should be done in accordance with the
manufacturer’s maintenance instructions.

On takeoff, the anti-skid system receives input through The presence of air in the brake system fluid causes the
a switch located on the gear selector that shuts off the brake pedal to feel spongy. The air can be removed by
anti-skid system. This allows the brakes to be applied as bleeding to restore firm brake pedal feel. Brake systems must
retraction occurs so that no wheel rotation exists while the be bled according to manufacturers’ instructions. Brakes
gear is stowed. are bled when the pedals feel spongy or whenever the brake
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 66] system has been opened.

Brake lining material is made to wear as it causes friction Power brakes on aircraft use the main hydraulic system to
during application of the brakes. This wear must be supply fluid for the brake actuation. Aircraft that require a
monitored to ensure it is not worn beyond limits and large amount of fluid for their brake actuation normally use
sufficient lining is available for effective braking. The aircraft power brakes, and the volume of fluid sent to the brakes is
manufacturer gives specifications for lining wear in its increased by the use of deboosters.
maintenance information. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 56, G-27]

QUESTIONS
13-49 AMA032 13-52 AMA097

If it is determined that poor brake action is not caused by What is the purpose of chines on an aircraft tire?
air in the brake system, what is the next most likely cause A. To deflect water away the fuselage.
when hydraulic fluid is found on the floor away from the B. To reduce the possibility of hydroplaning.
landing gear? C. To improve lateral traction for operations in snow.
A. Loose or leaky brake system fittings.
B. Internal leakage in the master cylinder.
C. Worn brake lining.
13-50 AMA032 13-53 AMA097

The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane on How long should you wait after a flight before checking
which no recent brake service work has been performed. tire pressure?
The most probable cause is A. 2 hours after a typical landing.
A. excessively worn brake linings. B. 3 hours after a typical landing.
B. low fluid supply in the brake system reservoir. C. When the wheel and tire are cool to the touch.
C. a weak return mechanism.
13-51 AMA032 13-54 AMA097

A pilot reports that the brakes squeal when applied. What is The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft tires are
the likely cause? A. proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and ground rolls
A. Foreign matter has gotten in between the linings into the wind.
and disk. B. minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and long
B. A brake disk is misaligned or warped. ground rolls.
C. The brake fluid level is low or contains air. C. short ground rolls, slow taxi speeds, minimum braking,
and proper tire inflation.

ANSWERS

Many leaks are found at brake system fittings. While this A chine is a special built-in deflector used on nose wheels
type of leak may be fixed by tightening an obviously loose of certain aircraft, usually those with fuselage-mounted
connection, the technician is cautioned against over- engines. The chine diverts runway water to the side and away
tightening fittings. Removal of hydraulic pressure from the from the intake of the engines.
brake system followed by disconnection and inspection of [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 79]
the connectors is recommended.

A brake may drag when the return mechanism is not When checking tire pressure, allow 3 hours to elapse after
functioning properly. This could be due to a weak return a typical landing to ensure the tire has cooled to ambient
spring, the return pin slipping in the auto adjuster pin grip, or temperature. The correct tire pressure for each ambient
similar malfunction. temperature is typically provided by the manufacturer on a
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 75] table or graph.

Brakes may chatter or squeal when the linings do not ride The most important factor impinging on tire performance
smoothly and evenly along the disc. A warped disc(s) in and wear, as well as resistance to damage is proper inflation.
a multiple brake disc stack produces a condition wherein Taxiing for long distances or at high speeds increase
the brake is actually applied and removed many times per the temperature of aircraft tires. This makes them more
minute. This causes chattering and, at high frequency, it susceptible to wear and damage. Short taxi distances at
causes squealing. Any misalignment of the disc stack out of moderate speeds are recommended. Caution should also be
parallel causes the same phenomenon. used to prevent riding the brakes while taxiing, which adds
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 76] unnecessary heat to the tires. Heavy use of aircraft brakes
introduces heat into the tires. Sharp radius turns do the same
and increase tread abrasion and side loads on the tire. Plan
ahead to allow the aircraft to slow without heavy braking and
make large radius turns to avoid these conditions.

QUESTIONS
13-55 AMA097 13-58 AMA097

Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is A high speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and bead
an indication of may be retread
A. incorrect camber. A. a maximum of three times.
B. excessive toe out. B. only by the tire manufacturer.
C. over inflation. C. an indefinite number of times.
13-56 AMA097 13-59 AMA097

Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire is an A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending onto
indication of the sidewall of a tube type tire is a
A. excessive toe‑in. A. wheel weight reference mark.
B. under inflation. B. wheel-to-tire balance mark.
C. over inflation. C. slippage mark.
13-57 AMA097 13-60 AMA097

When inspecting an aircraft tire you notice multiple small The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel
chevron shaped cuts throughout its tread area. You should assemblies is to
A. remove the tire and inspect for further damage. A. prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
B. replace the tire before further flight. B. reduce excessive wear and turbulence.
C. do nothing; this is an acceptable condition. C. distribute the aircraft weight properly.

ANSWERS

The most important factor impinging on tire performance Tires that are retreaded are marked as such. They are not
and wear, as well as resistance to damage is proper compromised in strength and give the performance of a new
inflation. Over inflation of aircraft tires is another undesirable tire. No limits are established for the number of times a tire
condition. While carcass damage due to overheating does can be retreaded. This is based on the structural integrity of
not result, adherence to the landing surface is reduced. the tire carcass.
Over a long period of time, over inflation leads to premature [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 88-89]
tread wear. Therefore, over inflation reduces the number of
cycles in service before the tire must be replaced. It makes
the tire more susceptible to bruises, cutting, shock damage,
and blowout.

Under inflated aircraft tires wear unevenly, which leads to A slippage mark is a paint mark extending across the edge
premature tire replacement. They may also creep or slip on of an aircraft wheel onto a tube-type tire. When this mark
the wheel rim when under stress or when the brakes are is broken, it indicates the tire has slipped on the wheel, and
applied. Severely under inflated tires can pinch the sidewall there is a good reason to believe the tube has been damaged.
between the rim and the runway causing sidewall and rim [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Glossary Page G-32]
damage. Damage to the bead and lower sidewall area are
also likely. This type of abuse like any over flexing damages
the integrity of the tire and it must be replaced. In dual-wheel
setups, a severely under inflated tire affects both tires and
both should be replaced.

Operation on a grooved runway can cause an aircraft tire Once an aircraft tire is mounted, inflated, and accepted for
tread to develop shallow chevron shaped cuts. These cuts service, it can be balanced to improve performance. Vibration
are allowed for continued service, unless chunks or cuts is the main result of an imbalanced tire and wheel assembly.
into the fabric of the tire result. Deep chevrons that cause a [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 13 Page 93]
chunk of the tread to be removed should not expose more
than 1 square inch of the reinforcing or protector ply. Consult
the applicable inspection parameters to determine the
allowable extent of chevron cutting.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
13-1(O). How are shock struts measured for proper inflation?
13-2(O). What is the purpose of a locking/disconnect pin on a nose gear strut.
13-3(O). What is used to power large aircraft nose wheel steering.
13-4(O). How does the pilot or mechanic control (steer) the aircraft while on the ground?
13-5(O). What device is designed to prevent accidental gear retraction when an aircraft is on the ground?
13-6(O). What should be done if a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a tire to deflate?
13-7(O). Prior to performing an inspection how should the mechanic prepare the area?
13-8(O). How can you detect the wear on a brake assembly?
13-9(O). If a pilot reports that the brakes feel spongy, what might the cause be?
13-10(O). What is the usually repair for a pilot discrepancy that the brakes feel spongy?
13-11(O). How are the typical modern two-piece aircraft wheel constructed.
13-12(O). Name the various classifications of tires.
13-13(O). Why should the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?
13-14(O). How long can brake linings remain in service?
13-15(O). Explain the phrase "bleeding the brakes".
13-16(O). How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system?
13-17(O). What should you look for when inspecting wheel bearings?
13-18(O). How should tires be stored?
13-19(O). What does excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire indicate?
13-20(O). How does over inflation affect tire life?
13-21(O). How is a wheel skid detected by an antiskid system?
13-22(O). How is the antiskid braking system generally armed by the pilot?
13-23(O). What is the purpose of the skid control valve in a brake antiskid system?
13-24(O). What is the purpose of landing gear position indicators and where are they located?
13-25(O). How is the pilot warned that the landing gear is not down and locked?
13-26(O). Explain the general operation of a landing gear warning system.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
13-1(O). The correct amount of inflation is measured in psi on some struts. Other manufacturers specify struts to be
inflated until extension of the lower strut is a certain measurement. Always follow manufacturer’s instructions.
13-2(O). To disconnect steering when the aircraft is being towed or positioned in place.
13-3(O). Hydraulic power predominates.

13-4(O). Control of the steering is from the flight deck through the use of a small wheel, tiller, or joystick.
13-5(O). A landing gear squat switch, or safety switch, is found on most aircraft.
13-6(O). Fusible plugs or thermal plugs must be inspected visually. A close inspection should reveal whether any core
has experienced deformation that might be due to high temperature. If detected, all thermal plugs in the wheel
should be replaced with new plugs.
13-7(O). All surfaces should be cleaned to ensure that no trouble spots are undetected.
13-8(O). Many brake assemblies contain a built-in wear indicator pin. Typically, the exposed pin length decreases as
the linings wear, and a minimum length is used to indicate the linings must be replaced.
13-9(O). The presence of air in the brake system fluid causes the brake pedal to feel spongy.
13-10(O). Trapped air in the lines can be removed by bleeding the breaks to restore firm brake pedal feel.
13-11(O). They are either cast or forged from aluminum or magnesium alloy.
13-12(O). Aircraft tires are classified in various ways including by: type, ply rating, whether they are tube-type or
tubeless, and whether they are bias ply tires or radials. Identifying a tire by its dimensions is also used.
13-13(O). As a safety precaution, in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have been damaged or weakened.
13-14(O). Brake linings can remain in service until they exceed the individual manufacturer’s wear specifications.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
13-15(O). Bleeding the brakes is a maintenance procedure that removes trapped air in hydraulic fluid in the brakes. Fluid
is bled from the brake system until fluid with no bubbles flows out.
13-16(O). After bleeding the brakes, operate the brakes and note their feel; firm brakes have had the air properly
removed, if they feel spongy air is still in the system.
13-17(O). Defects that would render it unserviceable, such as cracks, flaking, broken bearing surfaces, roughness due
to impact pressure or surface wear, corrosion or pitting, discoloration from excessive heat, cracked or broken
bearing cages, and scored or loose bearing cups or cones that would affect proper seating on the axle or wheel.
13-18(O). They should always be stored vertically so that it is resting on its treaded surface. Storage of tires on a tire
rack with a minimum 3–4-inch flat resting surface for the tread is ideal and avoids tire distortion.
13-19(O). That the tire has been over inflated.

13-20(O). Over a long period of time, over inflation leads to premature tread wear, reducing the number of cycles in
service before the tire must be replaced. It makes the tire more susceptible to bruises, cutting, shock damage,
and blowout.
13-21(O). Wheel speed sensors are located on each wheel equipped with a brake assembly.
13-22(O). To arm the anti-skid system, flight deck switches must be placed in the ON position.
13-23(O). It relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake.

13-24(O). They are used to inform the pilot of gear position status, and located on the instrument panel adjacent to the
gear selector handle.
13-25(O). The most common display for the landing gear being down and locked is an illuminated green light. Some
manufacturer’s use a gear disagree annunciation when the landing gear is not in the same position as the
selector system.
13-26(O). A system of lights used to indicate the condition of the landing gear. A red light illuminates when any of the
gears are in an unsafe condition; a green light shows when all of the gears are down and locked, and no light
is lit when the gears are all up and locked. An aural warning system is installed that sounds a horn if any of the
landing gears are not down and locked when the throttles are retarded for landing.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Glossary Page G-21]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
13-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, perform an inspection of an install brake for serviceability and record
your findings.
13-2(P). Given the appropriate documentation, determine the proper lubricant(s) for a specified landing gear.
13-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, perform an inspection of a landing gear and record your findings.
13-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, perform an inspection of a landing gear component(s) and record
your findings.
13-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, service an oleo strut.
13-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, install a brake lining.
13-7(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, install a brake assembly.
13-8(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, clean and inspect wheel bearings.
13-9(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, disassemble, clean as necessary, and
inspect a wheel, record your findings.
13-10(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, select lubricant, and lubricate
wheel bearings.
13-11(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, remove and replace a wheel and tire
assembly on a landing gear.
13-12(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a wheel and tire assembly,
check tire pressure, and service as necessary, record maintenance and any findings.
13-13(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, service a nose wheel shimmy damper,
record maintenance.
13-14(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, accomplish a landing gear retraction/
extension check and record maintenance.
13-15(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, replace a tire, check for leaks, and
record maintenance.
13-16(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, replace a tube valve core, check for
leaks and record maintenance.
13-17(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, complete an operational check of an
anti-skid warning system.
13-18(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a landing gear position switch

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
13-19(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, adjust a landing gear position switch
and record maintenance.
13-20(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, accomplish an operational check of a
landing gear position indicating and/or warning system and record maintenance.
13-21(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation, and an unknown discrepancy
troubleshoot a landing gear warning system.
13-22(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup identify landing gear position/warning system components.
13-23(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, locate the troubleshooting procedures
for an anti-skid system.
13-24(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, locate the troubleshooting procedures
for a landing gear warning system.


AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM CHAPTER
Basic Fuel System Requirements, Types of Aviation Fuel, Aircraft Fuel
Systems, Fuel System Repair, and Fuel System Servicing
14
QUESTIONS
14-1 AMA052 14-4 AMA052

If a piston engine aircraft is fueled with Avgas of an Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling
insufficient octane rating, there will be an increased method, what important precaution should be observed?
danger of A. The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for
A. insufficient combustion. minimum filter pressure.
B. vapor lock. B. The aircraft’s electrical system must be on to indicate
C. detonation. quantity gauge readings.
C. The truck pump pressure must be correct for that
refueling system.
14-2 AMA052 14-5 AMA052

The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a 1. The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow flight
A. place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank personnel to close the valve during any part of the
can collect and be drained. jettisoning operation.
B. positive system of maintaining the design minimum fuel 2. During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must
supply for safe operation. discharge clear of any part of the airplane.
C. reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to land
safely in the event of fuel exhaustion. Regarding the above statements,
A. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
14-3 AMA054 14-6 AMA052

What precautions must be observed if a gravity feed fuel Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because
system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine from more of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes through the filters.
than one tank at a time? What are common methods of preventing this hazard?
A. Each tank must have a valve in its outlet that A. Micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater.
automatically shuts off the line when the tank is empty. B. Anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater.
B. The fuel outlet ports of each tank must have the same C. High-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater.
cross sectional area.
C. The tank airspaces must be interconnected.

AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM
ANSWERS

An octane rating describes a fuel's resistance to detonation, Valves in the aircraft fuel system are controlled at the
meaning a tendency to pre-ignite due to heat and pressure fueling station to direct fuel into the proper tank. Ensure that
too early in the 4 stroke cycle, possibly even before the pressure developed by the refueling pump is correct for the
piston reaches top dead center, and so risking structural aircraft before pumping fuel.
damage to the engine. To raise the octane level in a fuel, [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 6]
certain chemicals such as Tetraethyl lead are added to
increase the critical pressure and temperature of the fuel.

Each fuel tank must have a drainable sump that must allow Fuel jettisoning systems must meet several standards.
drainage of any hazardous quantity of water from any part The fuel must discharge clear of any part of the aircraft
of the tank to its sump with the aircraft in the normal ground and the jettisoning operation must not adversely affect the
attitude. Reciprocating engine fuel systems must have a controllability of the airplane. The fuel jettisoning valve must
sediment bowl or chamber that is accessible for drainage. be design to allow flight crew members to close the valve
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 4] during any part of the jettisoning operation.

High-wing aircraft with a fuel tank in each wing are common. The formation of ice on the filter element blocks the flow of
With the tanks above the engine, gravity is used to deliver fuel through the filter. A valve in the filter unit bypasses fuel
the fuel. The space above the liquid fuel is vented to maintain when this occurs. Use of an anti-icing solution in turbine
atmospheric pressure on the fuel as the tank empties. The fuel tanks helps prevent filter blockage from water that
two tanks are also vented to each other to ensure equal condenses out of the fuel as ice during flight.
pressure when both tanks feed the engine. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 39 & 54]

QUESTIONS
14-7 AMA052 14-10 AMA052

The primary purpose of an aircraft’s fuel jettison system is to What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation fuels?
quickly achieve a A. Results in low fuel volatility.
A. lower landing weight. B. A fuel inter-cooler is required.
B. reduced fire hazard. C. Deteriorates rubber parts.
C. balanced fuel load.
14-8 AMA052 14-11 AMA003

Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished What markings are placed on or near each appropriate fuel
A. by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and filler cover on aircraft?
overboard through a common outlet in each wing. A. The tank capacity.
B. through individual outlets for each tank. B. The correct type of fuel to be used.
C. through a common manifold and outlet in each wing. C. The words "Aviation Fuel".
14-9 AMA033 14-12 AMA052

Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the Which of the following precautions is most important during
following methods refueling operations?
A. ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air. A. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.
B. electrically heating air intake, ethylene glycol spray, or B. All electrical switches must be in the OFF position.
alcohol spray. C. All outside electrical sources must be disconnected
C. heated induction air. from the aircraft.

ANSWERS

If an aircraft’s design landing weight is less than that of the In years past, considerable quantities of aromatic
maximum takeoff weight, a situation could occur in which hydrocarbons were sometimes added to increase the rich
a landing is desired before sufficient fuel has burned off to mixture performance of AVGAS. Special hoses and seals
lighten the aircraft. Fuel jettisoning systems are required on were required for use of aromatic fuels. These additives are
these aircraft so that fuel can be jettisoned in flight to avoid no longer available.
structural damage caused by landing the aircraft when it is [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 8]
too heavy.
14-8 Answer C 14-11 Answer B.

The fuel transfer system (a common manifold) is used to feed Each fuel tank receptacle or fuel cap is clearly marked to
the fuel dump valves that send fuel overboard. Boost pumps indicate which fuel is required.
are used to move the fuel in the transfer system. While the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 57]
exact location of the dump outlets is not given, it is clear that
they are not in each tank since there are only two dump valve
outlets and three tanks.

To combat carburetor icing, air preheated by the exhaust The existence of more than one fuel makes it imperative that
manifold is directed into the carburetor via a push/pull control fuel be positively identified and never introduced into a fuel
on the flight deck. The control changes the position of the air system that is not designed for it.
diverter butterfly valve in the carburetor heat valve box. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 10]

QUESTIONS
14-13 AMA052 14-16 AMA054

Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination On an aircraft with an integral fuel take, the out most
than aviation gasoline? bay of the tank, located near the tip of the wing is used
A. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is more primarily _____________.
easily suspended. A. as an overflow tank
B. Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility B. for extended range
of jet fuels. C. to fill in flight as needed for the purpose of lateral
C. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline. weight and balance
14-14 AMA052 14-17 AMA054

The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large aircraft?
A. lower than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline. A. To facilitate servicing.
B. approximately 20 PSI at 100°F. B. To reduce weight.
C. higher than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline. C. To reduce fire hazards.
14-15 AMA052 14-18 AMA056

What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an Normal fuel cross-feed system operation in
aircraft fuel? multiengine aircraft
A. 7 PSI A. reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during
B. 3 PSI fueling or defueling operations.
C. 5 PSI B. provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel
load condition.
C. calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct
lateral instability.

ANSWERS

The presence of water and fuel-consuming microbes is more For fuel management purposes, a wing may include a surge
prominent in jet fuel, which has different molecular structure tank (or overflow tank) which is normally empty but may hold
than AVGAS and retains water in two principle ways. Some fuel when needed due to overflow from fuel expansion or
water is dissolved in the fuel. Other water is entrained in the over filling of the tanks.
fuel, which is more viscous than AVGAS. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 22]

AVGAS has a relatively low maximum vapor pressure The sealed skin and structure members of an integral fuel
compared to automotive gasoline – only 7 psi. provide the highest volume of space available with the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 13] lowest weight.

AVGAS has a relatively low maximum vapor pressure In-tank fuel boost pumps move fuel into a manifold and,
compared to automotive gasoline – only 7 psi. by opening the fuel valve for the desired tank, the fuel is
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 13] transferred to that tank. Through the use of a fuel feed
manifold and cross-feed valves, some aircraft allow engines
to be run off fuel from any tank as a means of managing
fuel location.

QUESTIONS
14-19 AMA054 14-22 AMA055

The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in
A. resist fuel surging within the fuel tank. order to
B. provide internal structural integrity. A. retard galvanic corrosion.
C. provide an expansion space for the fuel. B. drain off static charges.
C. prevent stray currents.
14-20 AMA055 14-23 AMA055

If a bladder type fuel tank is to be left empty for an extended When routing rigid fuel lines in the proximity of electrical
period of time, the inside of the tank should be coated with wiring, it is considered best practice to _____________.
a film of A. route the fuel line and wiring in a common harness
A. ethylene glycol. B. route the fuel line below the height of the wiring
B. engine oil. C. route the fuel line above the height of the wiring
C. linseed oil.
14-21 AMA055 14-24 AMA054

Which type of fuel valve will likely contain a 2nd thermal Fuel boost pumps are operated
relief valve? A. automatically from fuel pressure.
A. Cone Valve B. primarily for fuel transfer.
B. Gate Valve. C. to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.
C. Poppet Valve

ANSWERS

When an aircraft maneuvers, the long, horizontal nature of Metal fuel lines and all aircraft fuel system components
an integral wing tank requires baffling to keep the fuel from need to be electrically bonded and grounded to the aircraft
sloshing. The wing ribs and box beam structural members structure. This is important because fuel flowing through
serve as baffles and other may be added specifically for that the fuel system generates static electricity that must have a
purpose. Baffle check valves are commonly used. These place to flow to ground rather than build up.
valves allow fuel to move to the low, inboard sections of the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 26]
tank but prevent it from moving outboard.

The soft flexible nature of bladder fuel tanks requires that When routing both rigid or flexible fuel line and electrical
they remain wet. Should it become necessary to store a wiring in close proximity, always route the wiring above the
bladder tank without fuel in it for an extended period of time, level of the fuel line. This ensures if the fuel line leaks, fuel will
it is common to wipe the inside of the tank with a coating of not drip on the wires.
clean engine oil. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 26 & 29]

Simple gate valves are common on large aircraft with large Boost pumps are used to provide fuel under pressure to the
capacity fuel systems and tanks. The thermal relief valve will engine driven pump and during starting when the engine
provide a pressure release should excess pressure build up driven pump is not yet up to speed for sufficient fuel delivery.
against the gate due to fuel temperature increases. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 31]

QUESTIONS
14-25 AMA054 14-28 AMA054

What type of fuel booster pump requires a pressure relief valve? How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a submerged,
A. Centrifugal single speed, centrifugal type fuel pump?
B. Sliding Vane A. By the first check valve downstream from the pump.
C. Concentric B. By the pump’s design and internal clearances.
C. By the engine driven pump’s design and
internal clearance.
14-26 AMA054 14-29 AMA054

To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude, some Where are flapper valves typically located?
aircrafts are equipped with A. In fuel tank partitions.
A. vapor separators. B. Downstream of fuel filters.
B. booster pumps. C. Within vane type fuel pumps.
C. direct injection type carburetors.
14-27 AMA054 14-30 AMA054

What is used in many aircraft to prevent bubbles in the fuel Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to
after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure is lower A. act as check valves.
than fuel vapor pressure? B. reduce pressure.
A. Air Fuel Separators C. prevent a negative pressure.
B. Boost Pumps
C. Anti-foaming Additives

ANSWERS

The constant volume of a vane pump can be excessive. To Some centrifugal fuel pumps operate at more than one
regulate flow, most vane pumps have an adjustable pressure speed. The outlet fuel flow and pressure are controlled by the
relief feature. It uses pressure built up at the outlet of the speed selected by the pilot depending on the phase of the
pump to lift a valve off its seat, which returns excess fuel to flight. A single speed pump outlet pressure is only controlled
the inlet side of the pump. by the pump’s design and internal clearances since the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 35] speed cannot be changed.

Centrifugal boost pumps located in fuel tanks ensure The section of the fuel tank dedicated for pump installation
positive pressure throughout the fuel system regardless may be partitioned off with baffles that contain check valves,
of temperature, altitude, or flight attitude thus preventing also known as flapper valves. These allow fuel to flow
vapor lock. inboard to the pump during maneuvers but does not allow it
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 32] to flow outboard.

Centrifugal boost pumps located in fuel tanks ensure The section of the fuel tank dedicated for pump installation
positive pressure throughout the fuel system regardless may be partitioned off with baffles that contain check valves,
of temperature, altitude, or flight attitude thus preventing also known as flapper valves. These allow fuel to flow
vapor lock. inboard to the pump during maneuvers but does not allow it
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 32] to flow outboard.

QUESTIONS
14-31 AMA055 14-34 AMA053

Why are centrifugal type boost pumps used in fuel systems 1. The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine fuel
of aircraft operating at high altitude? system from ice formation.
A. To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor. 2. An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in the
B. To supply fuel under pressure to engine driven pumps. fuel screen.
C. Because they are positive displacement pumps.
14-32 AMA054 14-35 AMA053

The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane type fuel pump is to 1. Gas turbine engine fuel systems are very susceptible to
A. compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes. the formation of ice in the fuel filters.
B. vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting. 2. A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to warm
C. equalize fuel pressure at all speeds. the fuel.

14-33 AMA052 14-36 AMA054

Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in What are the four general types of fuel quantity gauges?
the fuel system? 1. Sight Glass
A. It filters and traps all micro organisms that may be 2. Mechanical
present in the fuel system. 3. Electrical
B. It provides a drain for residual fuel. 4. Electronic
C. It traps any small amount of water that may be present 5. Bourdon Tube
in the fuel system. 6. Vane Type Transmitter
7. Litmus Indicator
8. Direct Reading Static Pressure Type
A. 2, 3, 5, and 7
B. 1, 3, 6, and 8
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4

ANSWERS

Centrifugal boost pumps located in fuel tanks ensure Fuel heaters are used to warm the fuel so that ice does not
positive pressure throughout the fuel system regardless form. These heat exchangers also heat the fuel sufficiently to
of temperature, altitude, or flight attitude thus preventing melt any ice that has already formed.
vapor lock. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 39]

Compensated vane –type pumps are used when the vane Turbine powered aircraft operate at high altitude where the
pump is the engine-driven primary fuel pump. The relief valve temperature is very low. As fuel in the tanks cools, water in
setting varies automatically to provide the correct delivery of the fuel condenses and freezes. It may form ice crystals in
the fuel as the air inlet pressure of the fuel metering device the tank or as the fuel/water solution slows and contacts the
changes due to altitude or turbocharger outlet pressure. A cool fuel filter element on its way through the fuel filter to
vent chamber above the diaphragm attached to the relief the engines. Fuel heaters are used to warm the fuel so that
valve mechanism is connected to the inlet air pressure ice does not form. These heat exchangers also heat the fuel
source. As air pressure varies, the diaphragm assists or sufficiently to melt any ice that has already formed.
resists the relief valve spring pressure, resulting in proper [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 39]
fuel delivery for the condition at the fuel metering device.

The main fuel strainer is often mounted at a low point on A sight glass is a clear glass or plastic tube open to the fuel
the engine firewall. As with most filters or strainers, fuel tank that fills with fuel to the same level as the fuel in the
is allowed to enter the unit but must travel up through the tank. Simple mechanical fuel indicators are used on light
filtering element to exit. aircraft with fuel tanks in close proximity to the flight deck.
Water, which is heavier than fuel, becomes trapped and Electric fuel quantity indicators are more common than
collects in the bottom of the bowl. Other debris too large to mechanical indicators in modern aircraft. Most of these units
pass through the element also settles in the strainer bowl. operate with direct current and use variable resistance in a
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 37] circuit to drive a ratiometer type indicator. Large and high
performance aircraft typically utilize electronic fuel quantity
system. They have variable capacitance transmitters in the
tanks and thus have no moving parts.

QUESTIONS
14-37 AMA054 14-40 AMA054

What is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter installed One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity
in a fuel tank? indicating systems is that the indicator
A. It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity indicator. A. can be located any distance from the tank(s).
B. It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in B. always measures volume instead of mass.
the tank. C. has no movable devices.
C. It senses the total amount of fuel density.
14-38 AMA054 14-41 AMA054

What type of remote reading fuel quantity indicating system The electronic type fuel quantity indicating system consists
has several probes installed in each fuel tank? of a bridge circuit
A. Direct Read In A. an amplifier, and indicator, and a tank unit.
B. Electromechanical B. a tank, an amplifier, and an indicator.
C. Electronic C. a tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier.
14-39 AMA054 14-42 AMA054

One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel
indicating systems is that quantity indicating system?
A. the indicators are calibrated in gallons, therefore, no A. Capacitor
conversion is necessary. B. Synchro
B. only one transmitter and one indicator are needed C. Selsyn
regardless of the number of tanks.
C. several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.

ANSWERS

The movement of a float in the tank moves a connecting The use of direct reading fuel quantity indicator systems is
arm to the wiper on a variable resistor in the tank unit. only possible on light aircraft in which the fuel tanks are in
The resistor is wired in series with one of the coils of the close proximity to the cockpit. Other light aircraft and larger
ratiometer type fuel gauge in the instrument panel. Changes aircraft require remote indicating quantity systems such as
in current flowing through the tank unit resistor change the electric indicators or electronic capacitance-type indicators.
current flowing through one of the coils in the indicator. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 40]
This alters the magnetic field in which the indicator
pointer pivots across the calibrated dial that indicates the
corresponding fuel quantity.

In an electronic fuel quantity indicating system, variable In an electronic type fuel quantity indication system, the
capacitance transmitter are installed in the fuel tanks capacitance of the tank units is totaled and compared in a
extending from top to bottom of each tank in the usable bridge circuit by a microchip computer in the tanks digital fuel
fuel. Several of these tank units, or fuel probes as they are quantity indicator on the flight deck. An amplifier is needed in
sometimes called, may be installed in a large tank. older units to move the servo motor in analog-type indicators.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 41] [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 41 & 43]

A fuel summation unit is part of the capacitance- type Electronic fuel quantity indication systems use variable
fuel quantity indication system. It is used to add the tank capacitor-type transmitters in the fuel tanks. These units are
quantities from all indicators. This total aircraft fuel quantity also known as probes.
can be used by the crew and by flight management [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 41]
computers for calculating optimum airspeed and engine
performance limits for climb, cruise, descents, etc.

QUESTIONS
14-43 AMA054 14-46 AMA054

What is the dielectric (non-conducting material) in a A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the
capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system? A. total amount of fuel being consumed by all engines.
A. Outer shell of the capacitor. B. amount of fuel in any given tank.
B. Fuel in the tank. C. amount of fuel in all tanks.
C. Fuel and air in the tank.
14-44 AMA054 14-47 AMA054

A capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves
measures fuel in what function
A. pounds per hour. A. transmits an electrical signal to fluid pressure.
B. pounds. B. transmits fluid pressure directly to the indicator.
C. gallons. C. converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal.
14-45 AMA054 14-48 AMA054

In a fuel pressure warning circuit, if insufficient fuel What is indicated when a fuel valve in-transit
pressure occurs, light illuminates?
A. electrical contacts will close. A. A fuel valve is currently in motion.
B. electrical contacts will open. B. Insufficient fuel pressure exists past a fuel valve.
C. a flapper valve will close. C. Fuel is successfully being transferred to its
desired location.

ANSWERS

The capacitance of a tank unit can change if the dielectric A summation unit is part of a capacitance-type fuel
constant of the material separating the plates varies. The indication system. It is used to add the fuel quantities from
material between the plates is either fuel (if the tank is all tanks.
full), air (if the tank is empty), or some ratio of fuel and air [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 43]
depending on how much fuel remains in the tank.

When voltage is induced into the bridge circuit, the Low fuel pressure warning lights can be illuminated through
capacitive reactance of the tank probes and the reference the use of simple pressure switches. The contacts of the
capacitor can be equal or different. The magnitude of the switch will close when fuel pressure against the diaphragm is
difference is translated into an indication of the fuel quantity insufficient to hold them open. This allows current to flow to
in the tank calibrated in pounds. the annunciator or warning light on the flight deck.

Electrical contact points are held open when sufficient fuel An in transit light illuminates when a fuel valve is opening or
pressure exists. If it falls below a preset level, those contacts closing. Contacts in the circuit open and the light goes out
will close, illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. when the valve is fully open or fully closed.

QUESTIONS
14-49 AMA055 14-52 AMA055

What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel pressure What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank
warning limits before welding?
A. fuel pressure relief valve. A. Steam clean the tank interior.
B. fuel flow meter bypass valve. B. Flush the inside of the tank with clean cold water.
C. pressure sensitive mechanism. C. Purge the tank with ambient air.
14-50 AMA055 14-53 AMA055

Fuel leaks are usually classified as a stain, a seep, a heavy What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum tank
seep, or a running leak. As a general rule after welded repair?
A. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards. A. Soft brush and warm water.
B. all fuel leaks, regardless of location or severity, are B. 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
considered a hazard to flight. C. Mild solution of soap and water.
C. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps, (in addition to running
leaks) are considered flight hazards when located in
unvented areas of the aircraft.
14-51 AMA055 14-54 AMA052

When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks, what The absence of particulate contamination of jet fuel in
procedure should be followed? transport aircraft is best maintained by
A. Pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to A. frequent filter replacements.
locate leaks. B. frequent sump drains.
B. Pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy water. C. attentive fuel temperature control.
C. Fill the tank with water and pressurize with air and
brush with soapy water.

ANSWERS

When a pressure switch is used to illuminate a low fuel The tank must be treated to remove any fuel vapors that
pressure warning light, the switch may have on it an remain in the tank before it is welded. This is critical to avoid
adjustment screw that can be set to illuminate the warning serious injury from explosion should the fuel vapor ignite.
light at the correct pressure. The manufacturer usually gives a procedure for doing this.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 48] Some common methods for purging the tank include steam
cleaning, hot water purging, and inert gas purging.

When fuel leaks into an area where the vapors can collect, After a seam or damaged area is welded, you must clean the
the leak must be repaired before flight due to the potential for tank of any flux or debris that may have fallen into the tank.
fire or explosion. Water rinsing and acid solutions are commonly used.

A leak check to ensure a welded repair is sound must follow Because of its higher viscosity, particulates are suspended in
the repair. This can be done by pressurizing the tank with a jet fuel for longer periods of time. Because of this, sumping
specified amount of air pressure and using a soapy solution alone is insufficient. Thus clean and frequently replace filters
on all seams and the repaired area. Bubbles form should the are the best way to trap particulate contamination.
air escape. The amount of air pressure used is very low. One [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 51]
half to 3.5 psi is common.

QUESTIONS
14-55 AMA052 14-58 AMA052

Microbial growth is produced by various forms of micro What can be done to eliminate or minimize the microbial
organisms that live and multiply in the water interfaces of jet growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
fuels. Which of the following could result if microbial growth A. Use antibacterial additive.
exists in a jet fuel tank and is not corrected? B. Keep the fuel tank topped off.
1. Interference with fuel flow. C. Add carbon dioxide as a purgative.
2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators.
3. Engine seizure.
4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank.
5. Lower grade rating of the fuel.
6. Lectrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank.
A. 2, 3, and 5
B. 1, 5, and 6
C. 1, 2, and 4
14-56 AMA052 14-59 AMA054

Pressure fueling of aircraft is usually accomplished through What method is used on turbine powered aircraft to
A. at least one single point connection. determine when the condition of the fuel is approaching the
B. individual fuel tank over wing and/or fuselage danger of forming ice crystals?
access points. A. Fuel Temperature Indicator
C. pressure connections on individual fuel tanks. B. Fuel Pressure Gauge
C. Fuel Pressure Warning
14-57 AMA055 14-60 AMA052

Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank which
leaks on most integral fuel tanks? is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or water, periodic
A. Resealing with proper sealing compound. checks of the aircraft’s fuel tank sumps and system strainers?
B. Brazing A. Are still necessary due to the possibility of
C. Welding contamination from other sources.
B. Can be eliminated except for the strainer check before
the first flight of the day and the fuel tank sump check
during 100 hour or annual inspections.
C. Can be sharply reduced since contamination from other
sources is relatively unlikely and of little consequence
in modern aircraft fuel systems.

ANSWERS

The presence of microorganisms in turbine engine fuel is Since microbes live in free water, the most powerful remedy
a critical problem. There are hundreds of varieties of these for their presence is to keep water from accumulating in the
life forms that live in the free water at the junction of the fuel. The addition of biocides to the fuel when refueling also
water and fuel in the fuel tank. They form a visible slime, helps by killing organisms that are present.
multiply rapidly, and interfere with proper functioning of filter [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 56]
elements and fuel quantity indicators. The microbe/water
layer in contact with fuel tank surfaces provides a medium
for electrolytic corrosion or the tank.

Pressure refueling occurs at the bottom, front, or rear of the Monitoring fuel temperature can inform the pilot when fuel
fuel tank. A pressure refueling nozzle locks on to the fueling temperature approaches that which could cause ice to form
port at the aircraft fueling station. Normally, all tanks can be in the fuel system.
fueled from a single point. Valves in the aircraft fuel system [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 46]
are controlled at the fueling station to direct the fuel into
the proper tank.

Once the location of the leak has been determined, the tank A continuous effort must be put forth by all those in the
sealant is removed and new sealant is applied. After cleaning aviation industry to ensure that each aircraft is fueled only
the area with the recommended solvent, apply new sealant with clean fuel of the correct type. Many contaminants, both
as instructed by the manufacturer. soluble and insoluble, can contaminate an aircraft’s fuel
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 52] supply. They can be introduced with the fuel during fueling
or the contamination may occur after the fuel is on board.
Onboard aircraft fuel systems must be maintained and
serviced according to manufacturer’s specifications.

QUESTIONS
14-61 AMA055 14-64 AMA053

If it is necessary to enter an aircraft’s fuel tank, which A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks on
procedure should be avoided some turbine powered airplanes to tell when the fuel may be
A. conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in an A. about to form rime ice.
air conditioned building. B. getting cold enough to form hard ice.
B. continue purging the tank during the entire work period. C. in danger of forming ice crystals.
C. station an assistant outside the fuel tank access to
perform rescue operations if required.
14-62 AMA052 14-65 AMA054

Aircraft defueling should be accomplished 1. A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft
A. with the aircraft’s communication equipment on and in positive displacement fuel pump.
contact with the tower in case of fire. 2. A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft
B. in a hangar where activities can be controlled. centrifugal fuel boost pump.
C. in the open air for good ventilation.
14-63 AMA052 14-66 AMA054

How may the anti-knock characteristics of a fuel be improved? Low and mid-wing single reciprocating engine aircraft fuel
A. By adding a knock enhancer. systems typically consist of an?
B. By adding a knock inhibitor. A. Engine driven pump and a primer.
C. By adding a fungicide agent. B. Electric fuel pump and an engine driven fuel pump.
C. Electric fuel pump, an engine driven fuel pump,
and a primer.

ANSWERS

Due to the combustible nature of AVGAS and turbine engine Monitoring fuel temperature can inform the pilot when fuel
fuel, the potential for fire while fueling and defueling aircraft temperature approaches that which could cause ice to form
must be addressed. Always fuel and defuel outside, not in a in the fuel system.
hangar that serves as an enclosed area for vapors to build [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 46]
up to a combustible level.

Due to the combustible nature of AVGAS and turbine engine An aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump does not require a
fuel, the potential for fire while fueling and defueling aircraft pressure relief valve since it is a variable displacement pump.
must be addressed. Always fuel and defuel outside, not in a A vane type pump is a positive displacement pump. The
hangar that serves as an enclosed area for vapors to build constant volume can be excessive so, to regulate flow, most
up to a combustible level. vane type pumps have an adjustable pressure relief feature.

A pinging or knocking sound coming from an engine is a sign Fuel from the selector valve flows through the main strainer
of detonation. To increase anti-detonation characteristics of where it can supply the engine primer. Then, it flows
fuel, substances can be added. Adding a substance known downstream to the fuel pumps. Typically, one electric and
to inhibit knocking protects the engine from the damaging one engine-driven fuel pump are arranged in parallel.
effects of detonation. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 14]

QUESTIONS
14-67 AMA054 14-70 AMA054

Some high-wing, high-performance single engine Most aircraft fuel tanks contain baffling to
reciprocating engine aircraft have fuel injection systems. In A. guide impurities to the sump.
these systems the B. provide vent space for the fuel at all attitudes.
A. fuel control delivers fuel to the fuel reservoir tanks. C. subdue the fuel from shifting during flight maneuvers.
B. fuel control delivers fuel to the distributor manifold.
C. auxiliary pump must be on to deliver fuel to the
fuel control.
14-68 AMA054 14-71 AMA054

A "wobble" pump is A fuel selector valve in a single engine or light twin aircraft is
A. an electric primary fuel pump located inside the likely to be what type of valve?
fuel tank. A. Gate
B. a hand operated pump used as a fuel primer on older B. Cone
reciprocating aircraft. C. Bypass
C. used to return excess fuel to reservoir tanks on fuel
injected aircraft.
14-69 AMA054 14-72 AMA054

The appearance of tan or brown tints on the surface of At the core of a pulsating electric pump used as an auxiliary
fuel or in filters is an indication that the fuel has been fuel pump in light reciprocating engine aircraft is a
contaminated by A. centrifugal impeller.
A. surfactants. B. solenoid.
B. microorganisms. C. relay controlled rotating vane.
C. moisture.

ANSWERS

The engine driven fuel pump intakes the pressurized fuel Most aircraft fuel tanks contain some sort of baffling to
from the electrically driven auxiliary pump or from the subdue the fuel from shifting rapidly during flight maneuvers.
reservoir tanks if the electric pump is not running. The fuel [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 22]
control unit meters the fuel according to engine RPM and
mixture control inputs from the cockpit. The fuel control
delivers the fuel to the distribution manifold, which divides it
and provides equal, consistent fuel flow for an individual fuel
injector in each cylinder.

A hand-operated wobble pump located upstream of the There are three basic types of hand-operated valves used
strainer is used to prime the system for starting on the in aircraft fuel systems. The cone-type and the poppet-type
DC-3 and some other older reciprocating transport aircraft. are commonly used in light general aviation aircraft as fuel
Electric pumps on later model aircraft replaced the hand- selector valves. Gate valves are used on transport category
operated wobble pumps. aircraft as shutoff valves.

Surfactants in small quantities naturally occur in fuels. In The pulsating electric pump uses a plunger to draw fuel in and
small quantities they are rarely a problem. Large quantities push fuel out of the pump. It is powered by a solenoid that
as indicated by a tan or brown soapy like liquid on the alternates between being energized and deenergized, which
surface or in filters are problematic as they reduce the moves the plunger back and forth with a pulsating motion.
surface tension between water and fuel, so causing [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 14 Page 34]
particulates to remain suspended longer.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
14-1(O). Where are fuel strainers located and what purpose do they serve?
14-2(O). What are the construction characteristics of the three basic types of fuel tanks?
14-3(O). How is maintenance performed on an integral fuel tank?
14-4(O). What are some general rules for the installation and routing of fuel lines on an aircraft?
14-5(O). What are the hazards of fuel system maintenance?
14-6(O). On many aircraft fuel systems, what is done to ensure positive fuel flow to the engine(s)?
14-7(O). What is the purpose of a fuel jettison system and what are some characteristics of a typical fuel
jettison system?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
14-1(O). A fuel strainer is located at the outlet of each fuel tank or there must be a fuel strainer for each boost
pump. There must also be a fuel strainer, or filter, between the fuel tank outlet and the inlet of either the fuel
metering device or an engine driven positive displacement pump, whichever is nearer to the tank outlet. The
purpose of fuel strainers is to prevent the passage of any object that could restrict fuel flow or damage any
fuel system component.
14-2(O). The three basic types of fuel tanks are the rigid removable tank, the bladder tank, and the integral tank. The
rigid removable tank must be strapped into the aircraft. It is typically made from aluminum alloy or stainless
steel and is riveted and seam welded to prevent leaks. Many early fuel tanks were made from terneplate which
have folded and soldered seams. Some modern rigid removable tanks are made from composite materials.
The ability to remove the tank for repair is an important feature of rigid removable tanks. Bladder type fuel
tanks are also used. They are constructed out of reinforced flexible material. Bladder tanks are also removable
but require a smaller opening in the aircraft structure for installation and removal – a key feature of the bladder
tank. Bladder tanks are seamless except where features are installed such as sumps and vents. They are
repairable by patching and other techniques in accordance with manufacturer’s instructions. Integral fuel
tanks are formed when part of the aircraft wing or fuselage is sealed with a fuel resistant, two-part sealant
and the cavity is used to contain fuel. The sealed skin and structural members provide the highest volume of
space available for fuel storage at the lowest weight. They are repairable by draining, cleaning, and resealing.
All fuel tanks share some common characteristics such as being made of non-corrosive materials, and being
fitted with means for venting. They all have a sump designed as a place for water and sediment to settle and
contain a drain valve. Many tanks have baffles to subdue the fuel from rapid movement during maneuvers and
scuppers are often designed into the fill port area to drain away any spilled fuel.
14-3(O). Maintenance and repair of an integral fuel tank usually requires that the fuel tank be drained and entered by
the technician. When entering and performing maintenance on an integral fuel tank, all fuel must be emptied
from the tank and strict safety procedures must be followed. Fuel vapors must be purged from the tank and
respiratory equipment must be used by the technician who enters it. A full-time spotter must be positioned
just outside of the tank to assist if needed.
14-4(O). Several installation procedures for hoses and rigid fuel lines exist. Hoses should be installed without twisting
and separation should be maintained between all hoses and electric wiring. Never clamp a wire to a fuel
line. When separation is not possible, always route the fuel line below any wiring. Metal fuel lines and all fuel
system components need to be electrically bonded and grounded to the aircraft structure. Special bonded
cushion clamps should be used to secure rigid fuel lines in place. All fuel lines should be supported so that
there is no strain on the fittings. Specific intervals for clamping are require when securing lines depending on
fuel line diameter. Lines should be clamped so that fittings are aligned. Never draw two fittings together by
threading. A wrench should be used only for tightening. A straight length of rigid fuel line should not be made
between two components or fittings rigidly mounted to the airframe. A small bend should be made to absorb
any strain from vibration or expansion and contraction due to temperature changes.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
14-5(O). The primary hazard when working with AVGAS or turbine engine fuel is the potential for fire due to the fuel’s
combustible nature. All precautions taken with combustible liquids must be observed. Another potential
hazard is caused by poor practices when handling fuel and when doing maintenance on the fuel system.
Fuel contamination can be extremely hazardous and all steps must be taken to only introduce clean,
uncontaminated, specified fuel into any aircraft fuel system. Proper inspection, sump draining and filter
maintenance procedures should be strictly followed.
14-6(O). If an aircraft has fuel tanks located above a carburetor (i.e. high-wing reciprocating aircraft), gravity is used to
deliver the fuel to the engine. Vented fuel tanks enable atmospheric pressure to remain on the fuel load forcing
it through the lines to the carburetor. Shifting fuel, high temperatures, and reduced atmospheric pressure as
the aircraft gains altitude are concerns to avoid vapor lock. On low-wing aircraft, aircraft with fuselage tanks,
and transport category aircraft gravity is not able to be used for positive fuel delivery. Often, fuel boost pumps
are used. These pumps are located in the tanks (or at the tank outlet). Boost pumps force the fuel through the
lines leading to the fuel metering device under positive pressure to ensure no interruption of fuel flow. Similarly,
some light aircraft employ pumps that pull the fuel from the tanks in lieu of tank mounted boost pumps.
14-7(O). If an aircraft’s design landing weight is less than that of the maximum takeoff weight, a situation could
occur in which a landing is desired before sufficient fuel has burned off to lighten the aircraft to or below the
acceptable landing weight. Fuel jettisoning systems are required in these aircraft so that fuel can be jettisoned
in flight to avoid structural damage cause by landing the aircraft when it is too heavy. Some characteristics
of fuel jettisoning systems are required. The rate of fuel jettisoning as well as the various attitudes, speeds,
and configurations of the aircraft are taken into consideration. The fuel must discharge clear of any part of
the aircraft. The discharge of fuel must not affect the controllability of the aircraft. There must be enough
redundancy so that the failure of a single component does not prevent the fuel from being jettisoned. Also, the
process of jettisoning fuel must be able to be controlled by a valve and stopped if desired. The amount of fuel
able to be jettisoned is also controlled.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
14-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, service a fuel system strainer and
record maintenance.
14-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, install a fuel quantity transmitter and
record maintenance.
14-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, accomplish an operational check of a
fuel quantity transmitter and record maintenance.
14-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, install a fuel valve and
record maintenance.
14-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, accomplish an operational check on a
fuel valve and record maintenance.
14-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, install a fuel pump and
record maintenance.
14-7(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, accomplish an operational check on a
fuel pump and record maintenance.
14-8(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation for a fuel system with an unknown
discrepancy, troubleshoot the system and record your findings.
14-9(P). Given a specified sized-fuel system leak or seep, determine airworthiness.
14-10(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a fuel system and record
your findings.
14-11(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a fuel system component(s)
14-12(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, check the operation of one or more
fuel system components and record maintenance and any findings.
14-13(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a metal fuel tank and record
your findings.
14-14(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a bladder fuel tank and record
your findings.
14-15(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, locate fuel system operating
instructions.
14-16(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, locate the procedures to inspect the
fuel system.

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION CHAPTER
Ice Control Systems, Wing and Stabilizer Deicing Systems, Propeller
Deice System, Ground Deicing of Aircraft, and Rain Control Systems
15
QUESTIONS
15-1 AMA024 15-4 AMA024

What icing condition may occur when there is no visible The standard method of preventing ice buildup on pitot and
moisture present? static air sensors is with
A. Injector Ice A. thermal systems.
B. Carburetor Ice B. chemical systems.
C. Inlet Ice C. pneumatic systems.
15-2 AMA024 15-5 AMA024

Ice buildup on an aircraft can have which of the The source of hot air for Wing Anti‑Icing (WAI) systems on
following effects? turbine aircraft typically comes from
1. Reduced control surface movement A. electrically operated heaters powered by the
2. Reduced radio reception engine compressor.
3. Reduced range B. bleed air from the compressor section of the engine.
4. Increased fuel consumption C. bleed air from the combustion section of the engine.
5. Reduced stall speed
6. Increased landing distances
A. 4 of these 6 effects
B. 5 of these 6 effects
C. All of these 6 effects
15-3 AMA024 15-6 AMA024

Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating What are the maximum operational temperatures on the
the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is wing leading edge produced by a Wing Anti‑Ice system on
this type of anti ice system usually operated? business and transport jet aircraft?
A. Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or A. 140° at the inboard wing sections and 212° at the
expected to occur. outboard wing sections.
B. In symmetric cycles during icing conditions to remove B. 212° at the inboard wing sections and 350° at the
ice as it accumulates. outboard wing sections.
C. Continuously while the aircraft is in flight. C. 350° at the inboard wing sections and 212° at the
outboard wing sections.

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
ANSWERS

Carburetor ice can occur during warm weather with no Thermal electric anti-ice systems are used on most air
visible moisture present. It is formed inside the carburetor data probes, such as pitot tubes, static air ports, TAT and
of a reciprocating engine. Water in the fuel is vaporized and AOA probes, ice detectors, engine P2/T2 sensors as well
freezes when its temperature and pressures is reduced while as other small components which do not require a high
moving through the venturi. amperage draw.

Choice 5 is incorrect. Stall speed in increased as ice builds The engine compressor provides a satisfactory source of
up on the wings and remainder of the aircraft. This is due anti-icing heat. The bleed air is routed from the compressor
to both the increase in weight from the ice and because section to each leading edge by an ejector in each of
ice buildup will effectively change the shape of the wing the wing’s inboard area and then into piccolo tubes for
thus altering the airflow patterns from its optimum ice distribution along the entire leading edge.
free condition. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 5]

Electric heat emitting ice prevention systems are turned on When the WAI switch is activated and the wing leading edge
before entering icing conditions and are designed to keep ice temperature reaches 140°F, temperature switches turn on the
from forming on critical surfaces. operational light on the WAI control panel. If the temperature
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 3] in the wing leading edge exceeds approximately +212°F
(outboard) or +350°F (inboard), an overheat warning light on
the enunciator panel illuminates.

QUESTIONS
15-7 AMA024 15-10 AMA024

Which of the following deactivates the Wing Anti‑Ice (WAI) What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on
system when the aircraft is on the ground? reciprocating engine aircraft?
A. System shut down by the crew. A. Engine driven air pump.
B. Engine speed sensor. B. Ram air from engine intake.
C. Weight on wheels sensor. C. Electric pump powered by onboard generator.
15-8 AMA024 15-11 AMA024

Which of the following are found in a laminated integral Deicer boots help remove ice accumulations by
electrically heated windshield system? A. allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up.
1. Autotransformer B. preventing the formation of ice.
2. Heat Control Relay C. breaking up ice formations.
3. Heat Control Toggle Switch
4. 24v DC Power Supply
5. Indicating Light
A. 2, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 5
C. 1, 2, 4, and 5
15-9 AMA024 15-12 AMA024

Without touching the pitot/static tube, what is one Which if the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump
check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater to hold the deicing boots tightly against the wing when the
after replacement? system is shut off?
A. Ammeter Reading A. Distributor Valve
B. Continuity Check Of System B. Pressure Regulator
C. Voltmeter Reading C. Vacuum Regulator

ANSWERS

The WAI system is only used in the air, except for ground Reciprocating-engine aircraft typically use a dedicated
tests. Unless overridden for testing, the weight on wheels engine driven air pump mounted on the accessory drive
sensors and/ or airspeed data disarms the WAI system when gearbox of the engine. The suction side of the pump holds
the aircraft is on the ground. the deicer boots tight to the aircraft when not inflated. The
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 6] pressure side inflates the boots.

Whether resistance wires or a laminated conductive film Deicer boots remove ice accumulation by breaking up ice
is used, aircraft window heat systems have transformers formations; during operation, the tubes are inflated and
to supply power and feedback mechanisms, such as deflated in an alternating cycle. This inflation and deflation
thermistors, to provide a window heat control unit with causes the ice to crack and break off.
information used to keep operating temperature within [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 3, 12-13]
acceptable limits. Some systems are automatic while others
are controlled by cockpit switches. Separate circuits for
pilot and co-pilot are common to ensure visibility in case
of a malfunction. Some windshield heating systems can be
operated at two heat levels.

Pitot tube, for example, contains an internal electric element A vacuum regulator connected to the suction side of the
that is controlled by a switch in the cockpit. Use caution pressure pump is set to supply the optimum suction sufficient
checking the function of the pitot heat when the aircraft is on for the aircraft’s gyro instruments and to hold the deice boots
the ground. The tube gets extremely hot. An ammeter or load tightly against the airfoil surfaces when not in use.
meter in the circuit can be used as a substitute to touching [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 13]
the probe, if so equipped.

QUESTIONS
15-13 AMA024 15-16 AMA024

What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer In a deice boot system regulators and relief valves control
boot system? the pressures on both the positive and suction sides of the
A. Cacuum Pump deicing boots. Which is true of those pressures?
B. Shuttle Valve A. Inflation pressures are greater than suction pressures.
C. Distributor Valve B. Suction pressures are greater than inflation pressures.
C. Suction and inflation pressures are
approximately equal.
15-14 AMA024 15-17 AMA024

On a turboprop aircraft, in addition to the wing and stabilizer When installing pneumatic surface bonded type deicer boots?
deice boots, bleed air from a turbine engine is also used for A. Apply a solution of glycerin and water between the
deicing of the rubber and the wing skin.
A. brakes. B. Apply a silastic compound between the boot and the
B. water lines and drains. wing skin.
C. propeller spinner. C. Remove all paint from the area to be covered by the
deicer boot.
15-15 AMA024 15-18 AMA024

When manually operating a pneumatic wing deicing Why are the tubes of deicer boots alternately inflated?
system, why must inflation of the boots be released after A. To minimize the need of bleed air.
approximately 5 seconds? B. To minimize airflow disturbance over the wings.
A. Avoid excessive drain of bleed air. C. To minimize the load on the air pumps.
B. Avoid cooling of the bleed air.
C. Ice may reform on the inflated boots.

ANSWERS

The use of distributor valves is common in pneumatic deicer Typical boot inflation pressures are from 15-20 psi. Suction
boots. A distributor valve is a multi-position control valve pressures are limited to the requirements of gyroscopic
controlled by the timer. It routes air to different deice boots instruments from 4.5‑5.5 "Hg.
in a sequence that minimizes aerodynamic disturbances [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 18]
as the ice breaks of the aircraft. Boots are inflated
symmetrically on each side of the fuselage to maintain
control in flight while deicing occurs. Distributor valves are
solenoid operated and incorporate the deflate valve function
to reconnect the deice boots with the vacuum side of the
pump after all have been inflated.

Besides wing and stabilizer deice books, engine bleed air is When gluing the deice boots to the leading edge of wings
used for deicing of the brakes. Water lines, drains, propeller and stabilizers, the manufacturer’s instruction must be
blades and spinners, and pitot tubes are deiced electrically. strictly followed. Clean, paint- free surfaces are required for
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 4 and 14] the glue to adhere properly.

If held inflated for more than 7-10 seconds, ice may reform on In larger turbo prop aircraft, the boots are installed in
the inflated boots. Drain of the bleed air is never a problem. sections along the wing with the different sections operating
Temperature of the bleed air is not relevant and the boots alternately and symmetrically about the fuselage. This is
inflation causes ice to be shed, not its heat. done so that any disturbance to airflow caused by an inflated
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 14] tube is kept to a minimum by inflating only short sections on
each wing at a time.

QUESTIONS
15-19 AMA024 15-22 AMA024

Which of the following indications occur during a normal What mixture should be used to remove frost from an
operational check of a pneumatic deicer system? aircraft surface?
A. Pressure and vacuum gauges will fluctuate as the A. Methy Ethyl Ketone (MEK) and ethylene glycol.
deicer boots inflate and deflate. B. Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol.
B. Relatively steady readings on the pressure gauge and C. Isopropyl alcohol and naptha.
fluctuating readings on the vacuum gauge.
C. Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and
relatively steady readings on the vacuum gauge.
15-20 AMA024 15-23 AMA024

Unless otherwise stated, which is the proper method for What is Hold-Over Time (HOT) as related to aircraft
removing old deicer boots? deicing procedures?
A. With hot air. A. Time that deicing fluids prevent the reformation of ice
B. With ethylene glycol. on a surface.
C. With solvents. B. The time needed for deicing fluid to react with and
eliminate ice.
C. Amount of time in which deicing fluid must be cleaned
away if accidentally directly sprayed on a sensitive
surface such as tires or instrument sensors.
15-21 AMA024 15-24 AMA024

If the boots of a pneumatic anti-icing system appear to inflate Which of the following is the best means to use when
as an aircraft is climbing, the most likely corrective action is to? removing wet snow from an aircraft?
A. Check for loose or disconnected vacuum lines. A. Hot Air
B. Replace the air pump. B. Warm Water
C. Check deflate valves for dirt and debris around C. A brush or a squeegee.
the diaphragm.

ANSWERS

With the deicer system controls in their proper positions, Frost deposits can be removed by placing the aircraft in a
check the suction and pressure gauges for proper warm hangar or by using a frost remover or deicing fluid.
indications. The pressure gauge fluctuates as the deicer These fluids normally contain ethylene glycol and isopropyl
tubes inflate and deflate. A relatively steady reading should alcohol and can be applied either by spray or by hand.
be maintained on the vacuum gauge. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 25]

When removing old deicer boots, use solvents to soften the Hold‑Over Time (HOT) is the estimated time that deicing/
old cement and peel off. anti-icing fluid prevents the formation of frost or ice and the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 21] accumulation of snow on the critical surfaces of an aircraft.
HOT begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing
fluid commences and expires when the deicing/anti-icing
fluid loses its effectiveness.

If the deice boots appear to inflate while climbing, the Deposits of deep, wet snow when ambient temperatures are
possible causes could be that the vacuum source for boot slightly above the freezing point can be difficult to remove.
holddown is inoperative or the lines running through a This type of deposit should be removed with a soft brush
pressurized cabin are loose or disconnected. Check the or squeegee. Use care to avoid damage to antennas, vents,
operation of the ball check in the deflate valve, if ok then stall warning devices, vortex generators, etc., that may be
check for loose or disconnected vacuum lines. concealed by the snow.

QUESTIONS
15-25 AMA034 15-28 AMA024

Chemical rain repellent should not be used on a dry How many layers of material are pressed together to form a
windshield because it will windshield on a modern transport aircraft?
A. cause glass crazing. A. 3
B. etch the glass. B. 4
C. restrict visibility. C. 5
15-26 AMA024 15-29 AMA024

Under which condition in below freezing temperatures will Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with
deicing fluids have the longest holdover time? electrically heated windshields?
A. Freezing Drizzle A. Embedded in the glass.
B. Snow B. Around the glass.
C. Freezing Fog C. Attached to the glass.
15-27 AMA024 15-30 AMA024

What is the principle characteristic of a windshield pneumatic What type of anti-icing system is used to prevent the
rain removal system? formation of ice in plumbing from lavatories and galleys to
A. An air blast spreads a liquid rain repellent evenly over waste holding tanks?
the windshield that prevents raindrops from clinging to A. Chemical Systems
the glass surface. B. Hot Air Blowers
B. A pneumatic rain removal system is simply a C. Electrical Heater Systems
mechanical windshield wiper system that is powered by
pneumatic system pressure.
C. An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from
striking the windshield surface.

ANSWERS

Chemical rain repellent should only be used in very wet Modern high performance windshields are constructed of
conditions. The rain repellent system should not be operated 5 separate layers including an inner, center, and outer glass
on dry windows because heavy undiluted repellent restricts ply, with vinyl plies in between each. The vinyl ply contacting
window visibility. the outer glass ply contains a conductive coating to provide
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 27] electrically generated heat for fog control.

The longevity of the effectiveness of deicing fluids varies by To ensure enough heating is applied to the outside of the
the current weather condition. In order from the longest to windshield, heating elements are placed on the inside of the
shortest acceptable holdover times it is: frost, freezing fog, outer glass ply.
freezing drizzle, snow, and light freezing rain. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 29]

Pneumatic windshield rain removal systems direct a flow Transport aircraft with water and waste systems on board
of heated air over the windshield. This heated air serves use heat blankets, heater boots, and in-line electric heaters
two purposes: first, the air breaks the rain drops into small to prevent the formation of ice in the water supply lines, drain
particles that are then blown away; and secondly, the air hoses, waste drain lines, and waste tank rinse fittings.
heats the windshield to prevent the moisture from freezing. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 32]
The air can be supplied by an electric blower or by bleed air.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
15-1(O). What icing condition can occur even when there is no visible moisture present?
15-2(O). What effects does ice buildup have on an aircraft?
15-3(O). What is the most common method to prevent ice buildup on pitot and static air sensors?
15-4(O). What is the source of the hot air used in Wing Anti‑Icing (WAI) systems on turbine aircraft and how is this
air distributed?
15-5(O). Which aircraft components do ice and rain protection systems protect?
15-6(O). Explain the differences between a deice system and an anti-ice system.
15-7(O). What fluids are most commonly used as deicing fluids to remove frost from an aircraft surface?
15-8(O). Explain how deicer boots work.
15-9(O). What might cause pneumatic deice boots to inflate while climbing?
15-10(O). How would you check for proper operation of a pitot‑static tube heater after replacement?
15-11(O). What may be used to clean deicer boots?
15-12(O). Explain how a pneumatic windshield rain removal system works.
15-13(O). Name three anti-ice methods for aircraft windshields.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
15-1(O). Carburetor ice.
15-2(O). Reduced control surface movement, reduced radio reception, reduced range, increased fuel consumption,
and increased landing distances.
15-3(O). Thermal electric anti-ice systems are the most common.

15-4(O). Bleed air from the compressor section of the engine. The bleed air is routed from the compressor section to
each leading edge and distributed along the entire leading edge through piccolo tubes.
15-5(O). Wing leading edges, horizontal and vertical stabilizer leading edges, engine cowl leading edges, propellers,
propeller spinner, air data probes, flight deck windows, water and waste system lines and drains, and antenna.
15-6(O). A deice system removes ice after it has formed, while an anti-ice system prevents the formation of ice on an
aircraft structure.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 3, G-3 & G-12]
15-7(O). Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol.

15-8(O). Deicer boots remove ice accumulation by breaking up ice formations; during operation, the tubes are inflated
and deflated in an alternating cycle. This inflation and deflation causes the ice to crack and break off. [Ref: [Ref:
Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 3, 12-13]
15-9(O). The possible causes could be that the vacuum source for boot hold down is inoperative or the lines running
through a pressurized cabin are loose or disconnected.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 15 Page 22, Figure 15-33]
15-10(O). An ammeter reading.

15-11(O). Soap and water.

15-12(O). Pneumatic windshield rain removal systems direct a flow of heated air over the windshield. This heated air
serves two purposes: first, the air breaks the rain drops into small particles that are then blown away; and
secondly, the air heats the windshield to prevent the moisture from freezing.
15-13(O). Electrical, pneumatic, and chemical. Although extreme caution should be used with chemical anti-ice fluids.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
15-1(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, and an unknown discrepancy
troubleshoot a pitot anti-ice system and record your findings.
15-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, check the operation of a pitot-static
anti-ice system and record your findings.
15-3(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect a deicer boot and record
your findings.
15-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, complete an operation check of a
deicer boot and record your findings.
15-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation, adjust the tension of a windshield wiper
blade to specification and record maintenance.
15-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation, inspect an electrically heated windshield.
15-7(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation, complete an operation check of an
electrically heated windshield and record your findings.
15-8(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation and an unknown discrepancy troubleshoot
a pneumatic deicer boot system and record your findings.
15-9(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, service a pneumatic deicer boot,
record maintenance.
15-10(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, repair a pneumatic deicer boot,
record maintenance.


CABIN ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Aircraft Oxygen Systems, Human Respiration and Circulation, Carbon Monoxide Poisoning,
and Composition of the Atmosphere
16
QUESTIONS
16-1 AMA074 16-4 AMA074

The primary difference between aviation breathing oxygen Composite oxygen bottles that conform to DOT-E-8162 have
and other types of commercially available oxygen is that a service life of
A. aviation oxygen has all water vapor removed. A. 10 years or 5,000 filling cycles, whichever occurs first.
B. aviation oxygen has greater purity. B. 5 years or 5,000 filling cycles, whichever occurs first.
C. aviation oxygen has a higher water vapor content. C. 15 years or 10,000 filling cycles, whichever occurs first.
16-2 AMA074 16-5 AMA073

What causes a sodium chlorate oxygen candle to begin to How often should standard weight high pressure oxygen
release oxygen? cylinders be hydro‑statically tested?
A. Breaking a seal exposes it to air. A. Every 4 Years
B. Breaking a seal introduces a catalyst. B. Every 3 Years
C. It is ignited and burns. C. Every 5 Years
16-3 AMA074 16-6 AMA074

What test is used to determine the serviceability of an What type of oxygen system uses the rebreather bag
oxygen cylinder type mask?
A. pressure test with water. A. Demand
B. pressure test with nitrogen. B. Diluter Demand
C. pressure test with manometer. C. Continuous Flow

CABIN ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

Aviator’s breathing oxygen is tested for the presence of Cylinders certified under DOT-E-8162 are tested to the same
water. This is done to avoid the possibility of it freezing in the standard as 3HT cylinders and are now approved under
small passage ways of valves and regulators which could DOT-SP-8162 specifications. They are popular for their
prevent delivery of the oxygen when needed. The water level light weight as they are constructed with an aluminum core
should be a maximum of .02ml per liter of oxygen. wrapped with Kevlar.

An oxygen candle is ignited by a firing pin or electrically. The standard certification time of oxygen cylinders between
Once lit, it can not be extinguished and provides oxygen hydrostatic testing to 5 years (previously 3 years). The
through a mask until it burns out. manufactured date and certification number is stamped on
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 5] each cylinder near the neck. Subsequent hydrostatic test
dates are also stamped there as well.

To ensure serviceability, cylinders must be hydrostatically Allowing oxygen to continuously flow from the cylinder can
tested. A hydrostatic test consists of filling the container be wasteful. Sufficient flow rates are accomplished through
with water and pressurizing it to 166% (5/3rds) of its certified the use of rebreather apparatus. Most continuous flow
rating. It should not leak, rupture, or deform beyond an systems include a rebreather bag.
established limit. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 7-8]

QUESTIONS
16-7 AMA072 16-10 AMA051

What controls the amount of oxygen delivered to a mask in a Tubing containing breathing oxygen for aviation use can be
continuous flow oxygen system? identified by their
A. Calibrated Orifice A. green banded tape with the words
B. Pilot’s Regulator "BREATHING OXYGEN" and a black rectangle on a
C. Pressure Reducing Valve white background.
B. yellow banded tape and the words
"BREATHING OXYGEN" and a white rectangle on a
green background.
C. solid green tape with the words
"BREATHING OXYGEN" in white over a black rectangle.
16-8 AMA072 16-11 AMA073

In the diluter demand oxygen regulator, when does the How do oxygen system shut‑off valves differ from other
demand valve operate? types of shut‑off valves?
A. When the user breathes. A. They contain a Teflon lining to prevent static
B. When the user demands 100% oxygen. electrical build up.
C. When the diluter control is set at normal. B. They are designed with finer pitch threads.
C. They include built in detents to open in increments.
16-9 AMA072 16-12 AMA073

What is used in some oxygen systems to change high When an aircraft’s oxygen system has developed a leak, the
cylinder pressure to low system pressure? lines and fittings should be
A. Pressure reducer valve. A. removed and replaced.
B. Calibrated fixed orifice. B. bubble tested with a special soap solution
C. Diluter demand regulator. manufactured specifically for this purpose.
C. inspected using a special oxygen system
dye penetrant.

ANSWERS

Built-in continuous-flow gaseous oxygen systems Installed oxygen tubing is usually identified with color coded
accomplish a final flow rate to individual user stations tape applied to each end of the tubing, and at specified
through the use of a calibrated orifice in each mask. intervals along its length. The tape coding consists of
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 8] a green band overprinted with the words "BREATHING
OXYGEN" and a black rectangular symbol overprinted on a
white background border strip.

The diluter-demand type regulator holds back the flow of Oxygen system shutoff valves are designed to open slowly
oxygen until the user inhales. The regulator is a diaphragm to prevent the oxygen from flowing into obstructions at high
operated valve which opens with slight suction and closes velocity which could cause its ignition.
when the user exhales. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 15]

In a demand-flow oxygen system, the system pressure Detection of leaks should be performed with an oxygen-
reducing valve is sometimes called a pressure regulator. safe leak check fluid. This is a soapy liquid free from
This device lowers the oxygen pressure from the storage elements that might react with pure oxygen. The leak
cylinder(s) to roughly 60-85 psi and delivers it to individual detection solution is applied to the outside of fittings and
regulators dedicated for each user. mating surfaces. The formation of bubbles indicates the
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 11] location of a leak.

QUESTIONS
16-13 AMA074 16-16 AMA080

The main cause of contamination in gaseous oxygen Which section of a turbine engine provides high pressure
systems is bleed air to an air cycle machine for pressurization and
A. moisture. air conditioning?
B. dust and other airborne particulates. A. C-D inlet compressor duct.
C. other atmospheric gasses. B. Inlet compressor.
C. Compressor section of the turbine engine.
16-14 AMA080 16-17 AMA080

The purpose of pressurizing aircraft cabins is to: Regarding the below statements,
1. Create the proper environment for prevention of hypoxia. 1. Usually bleed air from a gas-turbine engine compressor
2. Permit operation at high altitudes. can be safely used for cabin pressurization.
2. Independent cabin condition air machines (air cycle
Regarding the above statements, machine) can be powered by bleed air from an aircraft
A. Both no. 1 and No. 2 are true. turbine engine compressor.
B. Only No. 2 is true. A. Only No. 1 is true.
C. Only no. 1 is true. B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
16-15 AMA080 16-18 AMA080

Which best describes cabin differential pressure? On an turbine aircraft pressurization system, a jet pump
A. Difference between the ambient and internal multiplier is positioned _____________.
air pressure. A. at the outflow valve in the aircraft cabin
B. Difference between cabin pressure controller setting B. between the outside air inlet and the bleed air outflow
and actual cabin pressure. C. between the bleed air inlet and the aircraft cabin
C. Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and
Mean Sea Level pressure.

ANSWERS

The main cause of contamination in an oxygen system Bleed air from the compressor section of the turbine engine
is moisture. In cold weather, moisture in the oxygen can is relatively free of contaminants. As such, it is a great source
condense. With repeated charging, a significant amount may of air for cabin pressurization.
collect. Additionally, systems that are opened contain the [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 26]
moisture from the air that has entered.

A cabin pressurization system must accomplish several Bleed air from the compressor section of a turbine engine
functions to ensure passenger safety. It must be capable of is relatively free of contaminants. As such, it is a great
maintaining a cabin pressure altitude of 8,000 feet or lower source of air for cabin pressurization and other cabin air
regardless of the altitude of the aircraft in order to ensure conditioning systems.
that enough oxygen is present at sufficient pressure to [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 26]
facilitate full blood saturation. It must be designed to prevent
rapid changes of cabin pressure which can be injurious to
passengers and crew. Additionally, it must circulate air from
inside the cabin to the outside quickly enough to eliminates
odors and to remove stale air.

Cabin differential pressure is the difference between the air The venturi shaped jet pump multiplier creates a low
pressure inside the cabin and the air pressure outside the pressure area within the air distribution lines to help draw
cabin. Cabin pressure (psi) - ambient pressure (psi) = cabin additional outside air to supplement the airflow from the
differential pressure. engine compressor bleed air ports.

QUESTIONS
16-19 AMA080 16-22 AMA080

A cabin pressure controller operates by measuring The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by
and comparing modulation of the
A. barometric pressure, cabin altitude, and cabin rate A. outflow valve.
of change. B. safety valve.
B. bleed air pressure, outside air temperature, and cabin C. safety and outflow valves.
rate of climb.
C. cabin rate of climb, bleed air volume, and
cabin pressure.
16-20 AMA080 16-23 AMA080

The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at the The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence
selected altitude by upon the
A. controlling the air inflow rate. A. outflow valve opening.
B. controlling the rate at which air leaves the cabin. B. pneumatic system pressure.
C. inflating door seals and recirculating conditioned C. inflow valve opening.
cabin air.
16-21 AMA080 16-24 AMA072

What controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator? In a high-pressure system, if the pressure reducer fails,
A. Cabin Altitude what prevents high pressure oxygen from entering the
B. Bleed Air Pressure system downstream?
C. Compression Air Pressure A. Manifold Control Valve
B. Check Valve
C. Pressure Relief Valve

ANSWERS

With functions and appearance similar to an altimeter the Controlling cabin pressurization is accomplished through
cabin pressure controller is located in the pressurization regulating the amount of air that flows out of the cabin. A
panel in the cockpit. It may be adjusted for desired cabin cabin outflow valve opens, closes, or modulates to establish
pressure with additional options to input barometric pressure the amount of air pressure maintained in the cabin.
and the desired rate of cabin altitude change. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 30]

Control of cabin pressure is accomplished through A cabin outflow valve opens, closes, or modulates to
regulating the amount of air that flows out of the cabin. establish the amount of air pressure maintained in the cabin.
A cabin outflow valve opens and closes to establish the They operate pneumatically in response to the settings on
amount of air pressure maintained. The valve operates the cockpit pressurization panel that balances between
pneumatically in response to the settings on the cockpit cabin and ambient air pressure.
pressurization panel that adjusts the balance between cabin [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 30]
and ambient air pressure.

Cabin air pressure and the pressure regulator is based on An additional safety valve is a pressure relief valve set to
a cabin altitude as selected on the pressurization control open at a predetermined pressure differential. It allows air
panel. Once set, no other input is needed from the crew. to flow from the cabin to prevent internal pressure from
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 30] exceeding design limitations. Figure 16-56 in the Airframe
Textbook • p. 16-32, shows cabin air pressure safety valves
on a large transport category aircraft. On most aircraft,
safety valves are set to open between 8 and 10 psi.

QUESTIONS
16-25 AMA080 16-28 AMA080

The purpose of the dump valve in a pressurized aircraft is On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the
to relieve ground is restricted by the
A. a negative pressure differential. A. main landing gear operated switch.
B. pressure in excess of the maximum differential. B. negative pressure-relief valve.
C. all positive pressure from the cabin. C. cabin pressure regulator.
16-26 AMA080 16-29 AMA080

What component of a pressurization system prevents the One purpose of a jet pump in a pressurization and air
cabin altitude from becoming higher than airplane altitude? conditioning system is to
A. Negative pressure relief valve. A. produce high pressure for operation of the
B. Cabin rate of descent control. outflow valve.
C. Positive pressure relief valve. B. provide for augmentation of airflow in some areas of
the aircraft.
C. assist in the circulation of Freon.
16-27 AMA080 16-30 AMA005

If the desired cabin pressure is not being maintained as the What type of oil is suitable for use in a vapor cycle
aircraft climbs, the control should be adjusted to cause the cooling system?
A. cabin compressor speed to decrease. A. Low viscosity engine oil with the inability to
B. outflow valve to close slower. absorb water.
C. outflow valve to close faster. B. Highly refined synthetic oil, free from impurities with
special water absorbing additives.
C. Special high grade refrigeration oil.

ANSWERS

Some aircraft are equipped with pressurization dump A weight-on-wheels (WOW) switch attached to the landing
valves. These essentially are safety valves that are operated gear are integral parts of many pressurization control
automatically or manually by a switch in the cockpit. They systems. During ground operations the WOW switch controls
are used to quickly remove air pressure from the cabin, in an the position of the pressurization safety valve, which is held
abnormal, maintenance, or emergency situation. in the open position until the aircraft takes off.

A negative pressure relief valve is found on pressurized Compressor air is directed through a jet pump venturi
aircraft to ensure that air pressure outside the aircraft does creating low pressure. This low pressure area draws outside
not exceed cabin air pressure. The spring-loaded relief valve air which mixes with bleed air from the compressor, and then
opens inward to allow ambient air to enter the cabin if this through a ducting system to various areas of the cabin.
situation arises. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 34]

Closing the outflow quicker valve causes the cabin to The aircraft or cooling system manufacturer’s maintenance
pressurize quicker. Thus, if the outflow valve closes faster, manual will state the amount and specific type of oil to be put
cabin pressure will be more able to keep up with the into the system when filling. These are typically highly refined
airplane’s climb rate. mineral oils that are free from wax, sulfurs, or moisture.

QUESTIONS
16-31 AMA012 16-33 AMA006

Which is considered a good practice concerning the The Air Cycle Machine (ACM) removes water from the
inspection of heating and exhaust systems of aircraft utilizing conditioned cool air with a
a jacket around the engine exhaust as a heat source? A. heat exchanger.
A. Supplement physical inspections with periodic B. fiberglass sock.
operational carbon monoxide detection tests. C. isolation valve.
B. All exhaust system components should be removed
periodically, and their condition determined by the
magnetic particle inspection method.
C. All exhaust system components should be removed
and replaced at each 100-hour inspection period.
16-32 AMA002 16-34 AMA035

Which statement is true regarding air-condition vapor The combustion chamber on a combustion heater uses
cycle system? air from
1. There are two sides to a vapor cycle system, low A. bleed air from the gas-turbine engine compressor.
and high. B. ambient air scooped from outside the aircraft.
2. The low side is at high pressure and temperature. C. air-cycle machine.
3. The low side is at low pressure and temperature.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1and 3
C. 1, 2, and 3

ANSWERS
16-31 Answer A. 16-33 Answer A

A major concern of exhaust shroud heat systems is the A water separator is used to remove the water from the
possibility that exhaust gases could be drawn into the cabin. saturated air before it is sent to the aircraft cabin. The
Even the slightest crack in an exhaust manifold could send separator operates with no moving parts. Foggy air from
enough carbon monoxide into the cabin to be fatal. The use the Air Cycle Machine (ACM) enters and is forced through a
of an in-cabin Carbon Monoxide detector as well as strict fiberglass sock that condenses and coalesces the mist into
inspection procedures of all related components must be larger water drops. The water collects on the sides of the
routinely carried out to minimize this threat. separator and drains down and out of the unit, while the dry
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 59] air passes through. A bypass valve is incorporated in case
of a blockage.

There are two sides to the vapor cycle air-conditioning The air used in the combustion process is ambient air
system. One accepts heat and is known as the low side. scooped from outside the aircraft, or from the compartment
The other gives up heat and is known as the high side. in which the combustion heater is mounted.
Refrigerant on the low side is characterized as having low [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 16 Page 60]
pressure and temperature. Refrigerant on the high side has
high pressure and temperature.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
16-1(O). How does an exhaust heat exchanger function to heat the cabin of an aircraft and what are the major
concerns with this system during inspection?
16-2(O). What is a combustion heater and describe any criterion for inspection of a combustion heater that may be
particularly important?
16-3(O). Briefly describe the vapor cycle of a vapor cycle air conditioning system.
16-4(O). Briefly describe how an air cycle air conditioning system provides cool air to the aircraft cabin.
16-5(O). Explain the two basic modes of cabin pressurization and name the single component that modulates to
control the pressure of the air in the cabin during both modes of operation.
16-6(O). What type(s) of oxygen system is typically used on light, general aviation aircraft and what type(s) is used on
transport category aircraft?
16-7(O). Name some precautions to be taken when performing maintenance on aircraft oxygen systems.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
16-1(O). Used mostly on single-engine light aircraft, the exhaust shroud heater system directs ambient air into a metal
shroud that encases part of the engine’s exhaust system. The air is warmed by the exhaust pipes or muffler
and is ducted through a firewall heater valve into the cabin. The major concern during inspection of this type of
system is that the air routed to the cabin could be contaminated by exhaust gases. Even a small crack in the
exhaust system could send enough carbon dioxide into the cabin air to be fatal. Typically during inspection,
the exhaust system is pressurized and checked for leaks to ensure that there are no cracks.
16-2(O). A combustion heater is an independent heat source from the aircraft’s engine(s). It is used on small to medium
sized aircraft. The combustion heater is similar to an exhaust shroud heater in that ambient air is heated
and ducted into the cabin. The source of heat is an independent combustion chamber located inside the
cylindrical outer shroud of the heater unit. The correct amount of aircraft fuel and air are ignited in the air-tight
inner chamber. The exhaust from this combustion is directed overboard. The ambient air is directed between
the combustion chamber and the outer shroud. It absorbs the combustion heat by convection and is ducted
into the cabin. Since the source of heat of a combustion heater is burning fuel, it is essential during inspection
that close observation for fuel leaks or cracks in the combustion chamber be made so the warmed ambient air
is not contaminated by fuel vapor or carbon monoxide.
16-3(O). Vapor cycle air conditioning is a closed system used solely for the transfer of heat from inside the cabin to
outside of the cabin. Heat energy is moved from the cabin air into a liquid refrigerant by blowing the cabin air
over a heat exchanger containing the refrigerant. Due to the additional energy, the liquid changes into a vapor.
The vapor is then compressed and becomes very hot. The very hot vapor refrigerant is routed into a different
heat exchanger where the heat from the refrigerant is transferred to the outside air. In doing so, the refrigerant
cools and condenses back into a liquid where it is used to begin the cycle described again. The routing of
refrigerant through the vapor cycle air conditioning components is as follows: Evaporator ? compressor ?
condenser ? receiver dryer ? expansion valve ? evaporator. Be prepared to discuss the function of each
component with the examiner. See the referenced pages for this information.
16-4(O). Turbine engine bleed air is conditioned for use in the cabin during air cycle air conditioning. It is let into the
system where it is routed to a heat exchanger that cools the bleed air with ambient air. The cooled bleed air is
directed into the compressor of the air cycle machine (ACM). There, it is compressed before flowing through
a secondary heat exchanger that again cools the bleed air with ambient air. The bleed air flows back into the
ACM where it drives an expansion turbine. This cools the bleed air even further. Water is then removed and
the bleed air is mixed with bypassed hot bleed air and sent to the cabin at the temperature requested by the
crew. Be prepared to discuss the function of each component of the air cycle air conditioning system with the
examiner. See the referenced pages for this information.
16-5(O). The two modes of pressurization are the isobaric mode and the differential pressure mode. In the isobaric
mode, the pressurization system works to maintain a single pressure inside the cabin, known as cabin
altitude, despite the altitude of the aircraft or the pressure of the ambient air outside of the aircraft. In the
differential pressure mode, the system controls the cabin pressure to maintain a constant pressure difference
between the air inside the cabin and the air outside of the aircraft regardless of altitude changes. The single
device that opens, closes, or modulates to control the air exiting the cabin, and thus, the air pressure in the
cabin is the outflow valve.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
16-6(O). Many light general aviation aircraft may not have an oxygen system if the aircraft is not designed to fly at
altitudes where oxygen is required. For those that carry oxygen, general aviation aircraft may have simply a
portable oxygen bottle to be used by the crew when desired. Or, a built in system may exist that uses approved
containers of pressurized, gaseous oxygen. Both are typically delivered through regulated, continuous flow
systems where oxygen is supplied at a steady rate when the valve of the oxygen container is opened. However,
electronic pulse demand oxygen delivery systems are currently available for general aviation aircraft. These
deliver timed pulses of oxygen, essentially creating a demand-type system where oxygen is only delivered
when the crew inhales. Oxygen is carried on transport category aircraft for emergency purposes only. The
pressurization of the cabin provides enough oxygen for the passengers and crew under normal circumstances.
Gaseous and solid oxygen are used. The gaseous oxygen is stored in remote, pressurized tanks and routed to
the users through a system of tubes. Solid oxygen generators produce gaseous oxygen for use when ignited.
Passengers receive the oxygen from either source through a continuous flow delivery system. Most crew
oxygen is delivered via demand flow or pressure-demand flow type regulators.
16-7(O). When working around oxygen and oxygen systems, cleanliness enhances safety. Clean, grease-free hands,
clothes, and tools are essential. A good practice is to use only tools dedicated for work on oxygen systems.
There should be absolutely no smoking or open flames within a minimum of 50 feet of the work area. Always
use protective caps and plugs when working with oxygen cylinders, systems components, or plumbing.
Do not use any kind of adhesive tape. Oxygen cylinders should be stored in a designated, cool, ventilated
area in the hangar away from petroleum products or heat sources. Oxygen system maintenance should not
be accomplished until the valve on the oxygen supply cylinder is closed and pressure is released from the
system. Fittings should be unscrewed slowly to allow any residual pressure to dissipate. All oxygen lines
should be marked and should have at least 2 inches of clearance from moving parts, electrical wiring, and all
fluid lines. Adequate clearance must also be provided from hot ducts and other sources that might heat the
oxygen. A pressure and leak check must be performed each time the system is opened for maintenance. Do
not use any lubricants, sealers, cleaners, etc., unless specifically approved for oxygen system use.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
troubleshoot an exhaust heat exchanger cabin heat and record your findings.
16-2(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect an exhaust heat exchanger
cabin heat system and record your findings.
troubleshoot an exhaust heat exchanger cabin heat component and record your findings.
16-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect an exhaust heat exchanger
cabin heat component and record your findings.
troubleshoot a combustion air heater system and record your findings.
16-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect a combustion air heater
system and record your findings.
troubleshoot a combustion air heater component and record your findings.
16-8(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect a combustion air heater
component and record your findings.
16-9(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, select proper solution and leak test
oxygen system component and record your findings.
troubleshoot an oxygen system and record your findings.
16-11(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect an oxygen system component
troubleshoot an oxygen system component and record your findings.
16-13(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, complete an operation check of an
oxygen system and record your findings.
16-14(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, service an oxygen system and record
maintenance.
16-15(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, purge an oxygen system and record
maintenance.
troubleshoot a vapor cycle cooling system and record your findings.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
16-17(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect a vapor cycle cooling system
troubleshoot a vapor cycle cooling component and record your findings.
16-19(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect a vapor cycle cooling
troubleshoot a cabin pressurization system and record your findings.
16-21(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect a cabin pressurization system
16-22(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation, and an unknown discrepancy troubleshoot
a cabin pressurization system component and record your findings.
16-23(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect a cabin pressurization system
troubleshoot an air cycle machine system and record your findings.
16-25(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect an air cycle machine system
troubleshoot an air cycle machine system component and record your findings.
16-27(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, inspect an air cycle machine system
16-28(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, locate the procedures for protecting a
vapor-cycle system from contamination during component replacement.
16-29(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, locate the procedures for servicing a
vapor-cycle cooling system.
16-30(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, and the appropriate documentation, locate the procedures for inspecting a
cabin outflow valve.


FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Fire Detection and Overheat Systems, Smoke, Flame, and Carbon Monoxide Systems,
Extinguishers, Cargo Fire Detection, and Maintenance
17
QUESTIONS
17-1 AMA048 17-4 AMA046

Which class of fire requires an electrically non‑conductive When used in fire detection systems having a single indicator
extinguishing agent? light, thermal switches are wired in
A. Class A A. series with each other and parallel with the light.
B. Class B B. parallel with each other and in series with the light.
C. Class C C. series with each other and the light.
17-2 AMA046 17-5 AMA046

Which fire detection system measures temperature rate of As a metal’s temperature increases, its resistance to electric
rise compared to a reference temperature? current decreases. This is the basic principle behind which of
A. Lindberg Continuous Element the below fire detection system(s).
B. Fenwall Continuous Loop 1. Fenwal system
C. Thermocouple 2. Kidde system
3. Meggitt Safety system
4. Thermocouple system
5. Thermal switch system
6. Lindberg System
A. 1, 2, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 6
C. All of the above systems.
17-3 AMA046 17-6 AMA046

A thermocouple fire warning system is activated by When a fire has been extinguished, a Fenwall fire
A. certain temperature. detection system
B. core resistance drop. A. automatically returns to standby status.
C. rate of temperature rise. B. must be reset by an operator to continue service.
C. must have the sensing element replaced before
returning to service.

FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment where As used in many older model aircraft, thermal switches are
a non-conductive extinguishing agent is important such as heat sensitive units that complete electrical circuits at a
carbon dioxide, dry chemicals or Halon. Water or specialized certain temperature. They are connected in parallel with each
Class D dry powders are not appropriate for an electrical fire. other but in series with the indicator lights. If the temperature
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 2] rises above a set value the thermal switch closes, completing
the light circuit to indicate a fire or overheat condition.

On a thermocouple system several active thermocouples are Each of these are thermo electric systems which read the
placed around the potential fire zone to be monitored and current variation which occur when metals increase in
are connected to each other in series and with an additional temperature. Numbers 3 and 4 are pressure sensitive which
referenced thermocouple outside the fire zone. When an measure the expansion of a gas as it heats up.
active thermocouple sharply increases in temperature over [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 3-6]
the reference thermocouple, that change creates a voltage
which completes the circuit to a warning light giving a visual
fire warning in the cockpit.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 3] ]

A thermocouple depends on the rate of temperature rise and When the fire has been extinguished and the critical
does not give a warning of a gradual overheating condition temperature lowered below the set point, the electrical
when temperatures rise rapidly, the thermocouple produces resistance of the sensor returns to normal and reduces
a voltage because of the temperature difference between the current flow. The Fenwal system then automatically returns
reference junction and the hot junction. If both junctions are to standby alert, ready to detect any subsequent fire or
heated at the same rate, no voltage results. overheat condition.

QUESTIONS
17-7 AMA047 17-10 AMA046

When performing a system test of a continuous loop fire Class B fire zones in powerplant compartments are
detection system, a test switch switches one end of the A. areas of no airflow such as wheel wells.
sensing loop from its control circuit to B. areas of low airflow such as an accessory compartment.
A. ground. C. area of heavy airflow past aerodynamically
B. a power source. clean obstructions.
C. a test circuit built into the control unit.
17-8 AMA047 17-11 AMA095

Maintenance of fire detection systems includes the An ionization type lavatory smoke detector
A. repair of damaged sensing elements. A. is powered by the aircraft’s DC electrical system.
B. removal of excessive loop or element material. B. is powered by the aircraft’s AC electrical system.
C. replacement of damaged sensing elements. C. is powered with its own battery.
17-9 AMA046 17-12 AMA095

In a pneumatic type continuous loop fire detection system What occurs when a light refraction type smoke detector
A. expanding hydrogen gas measures average is activated?
temperatures; quantities of released helium gas A. A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically.
indicate when a localized area is heated. B. The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is
B. expanding helium gas measures average temperatures; provided automatically.
quantities of released hydrogen gas indicate when a C. A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically.
localized area is heated.
C. average measurement of both gasses provide for
system redundancy and reduce false warnings.

ANSWERS

Actuating a test switch from the flight deck switches one Included in class B zones are heat exchanger ducts,
end of the sensing element loop from its control circuit to exhaust manifold shrouds, and areas where the inside of
a test circuit built into the control unit which simulates the the enclosing cowling or other closure is smooth, free of
resistance change due to heat. The other end of the loop pockets, and adequately drained so leaking flammables
stays in place. cannot puddle.

Continuous loop sensing elements come in pre- made Both the sensing device and warning horn of an ionization
lengths and calibrations and cannot be altered in any way. smoke detector is connected to the aircraft’s 28 volt DC
Sensing elements are easy to replace. Do not attempt to electrical supply.
repair them. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 8]

In a pneumatic fire detection system helium gas inside The light refraction type of smoke detector contains
a sensing element expands when heated and increases a photoelectric cell that detects light refracted by
pressure on an activation switch thus measuring average smoke particles. Smoke particles refract the light to the
temperature within an observed area. Hydrogen gas within photoelectric cell and, when it senses enough of this light, it
the core of the sensor is released in large quantities when a creates an electrical current that sets off a light.
small section of the tube reaches a preset temperature. The [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 8-16]
outgassing increases pressure further inside the sensor and
activates the alarm.

QUESTIONS
17-13 AMA046 17-16 AMA048

What causes the fire extinguishing system in the waste The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft
compartment of an aircraft lavatory to discharge? brake fire is
A. An optical sensor detects flames. A. dry powder chemical.
B. Excess temperature. B. water.
C. Smoke is detected. C. carbon dioxide.
17-14 AMA046 17-17 AMA048

When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable The types of fire extinguishing agents for aircraft interior
carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will fires are
turn what color? A. water and halon 1211.
A. Blue B. water and chlorobromomethane.
B. Dark Gray C. water, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical.
C. Red
17-15 AMA048 17-18 AMA048

Halon (halogenated hydrocarbon) type fire extinguishing Which fire extinguishing agent is considered to be the
agents are recommended only for which of the following least toxic?
fire types? A. Bromochloromethsane (Halon 1011)
1. Class A B. Carbon dioxide
2. Class B C. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301)
3. Class C
4. Class D
A. All of the above
B. Type A&B only
C. Type A, B, and C only

ANSWERS

A Halon type fire extinguisher system is located in the Brake components are often constructed with magnesium
waste compartment of aircraft lavatories. It is designed which cannot be extinguished with water or carbon dioxide
to discharge at approximately 170ºF when a solder seal type extinguishers.
enclosing the extinguisher bottle melts. Burning magnesium is considered a class D fire which must
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 18] be extinguished with special dry power chemicals.

On portable carbon monoxide detectors, the presence of All materials used in the cockpit and cabin must conform to
carbon monoxide will turn the yellow or tan colored silica strict standards to prevent fire. In case of a fire, several types
gel into darker shades of gray, or in extreme cases, even of portable fire extinguishers are available to fight the fire. The
black. The speed and the intensity of this color change is an most common types for this purpose are Halon 1211 water.
indication of the concentration and duration of exposure. [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 11]

Do not use Halon extinguishers on class D fires as Halon The most common agent used today is Halon 1301 because
agents react vigorously with burning metal. of its relatively low toxicity. Noncorrosive Halon 1301 does
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 10] not affect material it contacts and requires no cleanup
when discharged. Halon 1301 cannot be produced anymore
because it depletes the ozone layer. It will be used until a
suitable replacement is developed.

QUESTIONS
17-19 AMA048 17-22 AMA048

Built in aircraft fire extinguishing systems are ordinarily When the engine fire switch is activated. The engine shuts
charged with down due to
A. sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen. A. fuel flow being cut off.
B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen. B. ignition being cut off.
C. halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen. C. fire retardant agent displacing air (oxygen) flow.
17-20 AMA048 17-23 AMA048

What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a Which of the following are true regarding the complete
built in fire extinguishing system? requirements for a fire detection system within a cargo or
A. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the thermal baggage compartments on transport category aircraft?
discharge line. 1. Fire must be detected at a temperature less than what
B. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal would cause structural damage to the aircraft.
discharge line. 2. Fire must be visually indicated to the flight crew within
C. The thermal plug missing from the side of the bottle. 1 minute of its start.
3. The flight crew must be able to check prior to flight for
the proper functioning of each fire detector circuit.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. All three requirements exist on the fire detection
system of transport aircraft and are applicable to each
individual cargo and baggage compartment on board.
17-21 AMA048 17-24 AMA048

In some fire extinguishing systems, evidence that the Cargo compartments are classified by their accessibility
system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the for flight crew members to detect and extinguish the fire.
absence of a The classification of a cargo compartment on an aircraft
A. red disk on the side of the fuselage. used only for cargo in which cockpit displays and controls
B. yellow disk on the side of the fuselage. provide the flight crew with the means to detect and
C. green disk on the side of the fuselage. extinguish a fire is
A. Class E.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.

ANSWERS

Fire extinguisher containers store a liquid halogenated When an engine fire switch is activated;
extinguishing agent, also known as Halon along with nitrogen 1. the engine stops because the fuel control shuts off,
as a pressurizing gas. Nitrogen which is both inert and non- 2. the engine is isolated from the rest of the aircraft and,
corrosive pushes the Halon through the discharge port. 3. the fire extinguishing system is activated.

The thermal discharge indicator is connected to the fire While choice 3 is in fact correct, the complete requirement is
container relief fitting and ejects a red disk to show when that the flight crew also have the ability to check the function
container contents have discharged due to excessive heat. of each fire detector circuit while in the aircraft is in flight.
This gives an indication that the fire extinguisher container [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 14-15]
needs to be replaced before next flight.

If the flight crew activates the fire extinguisher system, a Additional class E requirements are that controls to shut
yellow disk is ejected from the skin of the aircraft fuselage. off ventilated air to the compartment are accessible to
This is an indication for the maintenance crew that the fire the flight crew, that means exist to exclude flame and
extinguishing system was activated and the fire extinguishing hazardous smoke from the crew compartment, and that
container needs to be replaced before next flight. emergency exits exist for the crew under any cargo loading
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 14] condition. Class B compartments are those in which a
crew member while in flight may reach the fire with a hand
held extinguisher. Class C compartments are similar in
requirements to Class E, except on passenger configured
transport aircraft.

QUESTIONS
17-25 AMA048 17-28 AMA047

A cargo bay smoke detector system works through the When inspecting the sensing elements of a continuous loop
principle of fire detection system, you find a section of tubing which has
A. "sniffing" for the chemical presence of smoke. been dented. The proper corrective action is to
B. measuring an increase in light intensity due to the A. repair the section with a bullet tool or splice in a
reflectivity of smoke particles. new section.
C. measuring a decrease in light intensity due to the B. fabricate a new section.
absorption of light by smoke particles. C. replace the section.
17-26 AMA048 17-29 AMA047

What type of fire extinguishing agent is used in built in cargo On a periodic check of a fire extinguisher container, the
compartment extinguishing systems? pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits.
A. Halon 1301 or equivalent. What procedure should be followed?
B. Carbon dioxide or equivalent. A. Release pressure if above limits.
C. Dry Powder chemicals or equivalent. B. Replace the extinguisher container.
C. Increase pressure if below limits.
17-27 AMA095 17-30 AMA047

When a lavatory smoke detector senses smoke on aircraft If a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge
with passenger capacity of 20 or more, it valve for any reason, it
1. provides a visual or audible warning to the pilot. A. cannot be used again.
2. may provide a visual or audible warning at the lavatory B. must be pressure checked.
and flight attendant station. C. may be used only on the original discharge
3. may automatically discharges a built in fire extinguisher. valve assembly.
A. 1
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 1 or 2, plus 3

ANSWERS
17-25 Answer B. 17-28 Answer C

Inside the smoke detection chamber, air flows between a If dents or kinks in sensing element sections are found which
source (LED) and a detector photodiode. If the air has smoke are beyond the manufacturer’s stated tolerance, the section
in it, the smoke particles reflect more light on the scatter should be replaced with a preformed section from the
detector. This causes an alarm signal. manufacturer. No attempt should be made to straighten any
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 16] acceptable dent or kink, since stresses may be set up that
could cause tubing failure.

The fire extinguishing bottles contain Halon 1301 or Fire extinguisher containers are checked periodically to
equivalent fire extinguishing agent pressurized with nitrogen, determine that the pressure at ambient temperatures fall
which is suitable for class A, B, and C type fires. within prescribed limits. Service manuals provide acceptable
A = Common combustible material readings. If the pressure does not fall within limits, the
B = Petroleum based fires container is replaced.
C = Electrical fires [Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 20]

Airplanes with a passenger capacity of 20 or more are If a cartridge is removed from a discharge valve it should
equipped with a smoke detector system that monitors the not be used in another discharge valve assembly, since
lavatories. Smoke indications provide a warning light in the the distance the contact point protrudes may vary with
cockpit or provide a light or audible warning at the lavatory each unit. Continuity might not exist if a used plug that had
and flight attendant stations. Each lavatory also has a built-in been indented with a long contact point were installed in a
fire extinguisher that discharges automatically. discharge valve with a shorter contact point.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
17-1(O). What types of fire detection systems may be found on a large turbine powered aircraft?
17-2(O). What fire extinguishing agents are used in aviation?
17-3(O). Compare thermal switch type fire detection operational characteristics to those of a continuous loop type fire
detection systems.
17-4(O). Compare the operating characteristics of a halogenated hydrocarbon type fire extinguisher to that of an inert
cold gas fire extinguisher.
17-5(O). How does one determine the proper container pressure for an installed fire extinguisher system?
17-6(O). What are some maintenance procedures for fire extinguishing systems?
17-7(O). For what items should a continuous loop fire detection system be periodically inspected?
17-8(O). How does a carbon monoxide detector indicate the presence of CO?
17-9(O). What are some common faults and troubleshooting techniques used on a fire detection system?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
17-1(O). Rate of temperature rise detectors; radiation sensing detectors; smoke detectors, overheat detectors; carbon
monoxide detectors; combustible mixture detectors; optical detectors; observation of crew and passengers.
17-2(O). Halogenated hydrocarbons; inert cold gases; dry powders; Water.

17-3(O). Thermal switches are heat sensitive units that complete electric circuits at a certain temperature. These
circuits warn the crew of a fire hazard by illuminating a light or creating an aural tone. A thermal switch is
spot detector that only responds to temperature in the specific location of the switch. Continuous loop fire
detectors also close an indicating electric circuit at a certain temperature. However, lengths of the sensing
loop provide superior detection coverage over a wide area. Anywhere the loop is run, a rise in temperature can
cause the electric warning circuit to close and provide an indication to the crew.
17-4(O). A halogenated hydrocarbon (Halon) type fire extinguisher is designed to dilute the atmosphere with an inert
agent that does not support combustion. It is forced out of the container by pressurized nitrogen. An inert
cold gas type fire extinguisher, primarily CO2, provides its own pressure for discharge from the storage
vessel. The agent is heavier than air and non-combustible. It replaces the air above burning surfaces and
maintains a smothering atmosphere. It dilutes the air and reduces oxygen content so that combustion is no
longer supported.
[Ref: Airframe Handbook H-8083-31A-ATB, Chapter 17 Page 10, 11, 16]
17-5(O). Determining the proper pressure for an installed fire extinguisher system container involves reading the gauge
mounted on the container. Since pressure varies with atmospheric temperature, the gauge indication must be
compared to values presented on a temperature compensation graph to ensure it is within serviceable limits.
17-6(O). Regular maintenance of fire extinguisher systems typically includes the inspection and servicing of the
extinguisher containers and removal and installation of discharge cartridges which have a limited service life.
Discharge tubing is tested for routing and leakage and electrical wiring continuity tests may be performed.
17-7(O). Cracked, broken, or crushed sections; abraded sections; condition of rubber grommets and clamps; dents
and kinks in the detection element; security and safety of connection joint nuts; integrity of braided wire
shielding; routing and clamping security of sensing element – proper support and bend radius; interference
with cowling; proper grommet installation.
17-8(O). Chemical color-change types of CO detectors are common. The chemical is applied to the visible surface of
the detector. Normally, the color is tan but in the presence of carbon monoxide, the color of the chemical turns
gray. A higher concentration of CO will turn the chemical dark gray or black.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
17-9(O). Intermittent alarms most often caused by loose wires can often be found by moving the wires to recreate the
fault. Alarms and warnings of a fire when there is no fire present can be located by disconnecting the sensors
from the control unit. If the alarm stops when a sensor is disconnected, the problem is in that sensor. If all
sensors are disconnected and the alarm continues, the problem is likely in the control unit. Kinks and sharp
bends in a sensing element can cause a short inside the sensing element. The fault can be located by checking
the sensing element with an ohm-meter while tapping the suspected areas to produce the short. Failure to
obtain an alarm when a detection system is tested is often caused by a defective test switch or control unit,
lack of electric power, inoperative indicator lamp, or an opening in a sensing element or connecting wire. Check
for power to the test circuit and replace the lamp. The continuity of sensing loop can be determined by opening
the loop and measuring the resistance. Replacement of the test switch or control unit may be required if no
other faults are discovered. Occasionally moisture can cause a false alarm. This is detected in a sensor loop
when disconnected from the control unit. Replacement of the sensor solves the problem.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
17-1(P). Given a fire extinguisher container and the appropriate documentation inspect and determine if the pressure is
within limits and record your findings.
17-2(P). Given a fire extinguisher, determine the hydrostatic test date of a fire extinguisher container and record
your findings.
troubleshoot a fire detection system and record your findings.
17-4(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation, install or replace a smoke detection
system component and record maintenance.
17-5(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation, install or replace a fire detection system
component and record maintenance.
17-6(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup, the appropriate documentation install or replace a fire extinguishing
system component and record maintenance.
17-7(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a smoke detection system and
record findings.
17-8(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect fire extinguishing system and
record findings.
17-9(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a fire detection system and
record findings.
17-10(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a smoke detection system
component and record findings.
17-11(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect fire extinguishing system
17-13(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, inspect a fire detection system
17-14(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, locate the inspection procedures for
the carbon monoxide detectors.
17-15(P). Given an actual aircraft or mockup and the appropriate documentation, locate the procedures for checking a
smoke detection system.


Mechanics
2023 - POWERPLANT TEST GUIDE
MECHANICS
POWERPLANT TEST GUIDE

FOR USE WITH
FAA-H-8083-32A & FAA-H-8083-32A-ATB

2023 EDITION

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Chapter 01 - Aircraft Engines Chapter 08 - Engine Removal and Replacement
Chapter 02 - Fuel and Metering Systems Chapter 09 - Engine fire Protection Systems
Chapter 10 - Engine Maintenance and Operation

Chapter 03 - Induction and Exhaust Systems Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
Chapter 11 - Light‑Sport Aircraft Engines

Chapter 04 - Ignition and Electrical Systems Written questions, answers, explanations, oral question samples,
Chapter 05 - Engine Starting Systems

Chapter 06 - Lubrication and Cooling Systems

Chapter 07 - Propellers
8083-32A-ATB Powerplant Test Guide iii


by an employer.

your testing.


iv 8083-32A-ATB Powerplant Test Guide

Learning Statement Codes A&P Mechanic — Powerplant
training. The learning statement corresponding to the learning statement code is on the test report.
AMP001 Aircraft Alternators - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics

AMP002 Aircraft Batteries - Capacity / Charging / Types / Storage / Rating / Precautions
AMP003 Aircraft Carburetor - Icing / Anti-Icing
AMP004 Aircraft Component Markings
AMP005 Aircraft Cooling System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP006 Aircraft Electrical System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP007 Aircraft Engine - Inspections / Cleaning
AMP008 Aircraft Engines - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP009 Aircraft Engines - Indicating System
AMP010 Aircraft Fire Classifications
AMP011 Aircraft Hydraulic Systems - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP012 Aircraft Instruments - Types / Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics / Markings
AMP013 Airflow Systems - Bellmouth Compressor Inlet
AMP014 Airframe - Inspections
AMP015 Altitude Compensator / Aneroid Valve
AMP016 Anti-Icing / Deicing - Methods / Systems
AMP017 Auxiliary Power Units - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP018 Auxiliary Power Units - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP019 Axial Flow Compressor - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP020 Basic Physics - Matter / Energy / Gas
AMP021 Carburetor - Effects Of Carburetor Heat / Heat Control
AMP022 Carburetors - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP023 Carburetors - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP024 Data - Approved
AMP025 DC Electric Motors - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP026 Electrical System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP027 Engine Cooling System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP028 Engine Cooling System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP029 Engine Lubricating Oils - Function / Grades / Viscosity / Types
AMP030 Engine Lubricating System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP031 Engine Lubricating System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP032 Engine Operations - Thrust / Thrust Reverser
AMP033 Engine Pressure Ratio - EPR
AMP034 Fire Detection System - Types / Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP035 Fire Detection Systems - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP036 Fire Extinguishing Systems - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP037 Float Type Carburetor - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP038 Float Type Carburetor - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP039 Fuel - Types / Characteristics / Contamination / Fueling / Defueling / Dumping
AMP040 Fuel / Oil - Anti-Icing / Deicing
AMP041 Fuel System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP042 Fuel System - Install / Troubleshoot / Service / Repair
AMP043 Fuel System - Types
AMP044 Generator System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP045 Information On An Airworthiness Directive
AMP046 Magneto - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP047 Magneto - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP048 Maintenance Publications - Service / Parts / Repair
AMP049 Piston Assembly - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP050 Powerplant Design - Structures / Components
AMP051 Pressure Type Carburetor - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP052 Propeller System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP053 Propeller System - Types/ Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP054 Radial Engine - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
8083-32A-ATB Powerplant Test Guide v

AMP055 Radial Engine - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP056 Reciprocating Engine - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP057 Reciprocating Engine - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP058 Regulations - Maintenance Reports / Records / Entries
AMP059 Regulations - Privileges / Limitations Of Maintenance Certificates / Licenses
AMP060 Regulations - Privileges Of Approved Maintenance Organizations
AMP061 Rotor System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP062 Sea Level - Standard Temperature / Pressure
AMP063 Starter / Ignition System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP064 Starter / Ignition System - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP065 Starter System - Starting Procedures
AMP066 Thermocouples - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP067 Thermocouples - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service
AMP068 Turbine Engines - Components / Operational Characteristics / Associated Instruments
AMP069 Turbine Engines - Install / Inspect / Repair / Service / Hazards
AMP070 Turbocharger System - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP071 Turbojet - Components / Operating Principles / Characteristics
AMP072 Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) / Supplemental
AMP073 Welding Types / Techniques / Equipment
vi 8083-32A-ATB Powerplant Test Guide

AIRCRAFT ENGINES CHAPTER
Types of Engines, Connecting Rods, Piston Rings, Firing Order,
Valves and Valve Operating Mechanisms, Bearings, Propellers, and Efficiencies
01
QUESTIONS
1-1 AMP008 1-4 AMP008

Based on the criteria of efficiency of an engine’s weight The cylinders of an aircraft engine are mounted on cylinder
to the power it produces, which type of engine is the best pads that are machined onto the crankcase. The common
choice for an aircraft operating at speeds of 300 mph at method of attachment of the cylinders to the crankcase is
altitudes between 20,000-25,000 feet? A. by studs mounted in threaded holes in the crankcase.
A. Reciprocating Engines B. by bolts into locking helicoils mounted in the crankcase.
B. Turbofan Engines C. by heating the crankcase and cooling the cylinder for
C. Turboprop Engines an interference fit.
1-2 AMP021 1-5 AMP008

An aircraft engine has 9 cylinders. From this information The crankpin is
alone we can deduce that A. used to ensure the crankshaft does not shift in
A. it contains both master and articulating rods. the crankcase.
B. its firing order is 1-3-5-7-9-2-4-6-8. B. a solid, heavy journal to withstand crankshaft
C. it is water cooled. shock loads.
C. hardened by nitriding and is hollow to reduce weight.
1-3 AMP008 1-6 AMP054

The crankcase of an aircraft engine Which statement is correct about radial engine crankshafts?
A. houses the valve operating mechanism and the A. Movable counterweights serve to reduce the torsional
engine cylinders. vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating engine.
B. is lightweight and primarily used as a reservoir for the B. Movable counterweights serve to reduce the dynamic
engine oil. vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating engine.
C. is the foundation of the engine containing crankshaft C. Movable counterweights are designed to resonate at
bearings and cylinder pads. the natural frequency of the crankshaft.
8083-32A-ATB Powerplant Test Guide 1-1

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

In the cruising speed range of 180‑300 mph, the Several studs are installed into the crankcase around the
turboprop engine delivers more power per weight than circumference of each machined cylinder pad.
the reciprocating engine. Below this speed and altitude These are used to mount the cylinders securely to the
reciprocating engines provide the greatest efficiency based crankcase with nuts. The inner portion of a cylinder pad
on cost. At higher speeds and altitudes, the turbofan engine may be chamfered or tapered to permit the installation of
provides the greatest efficiency. Turbo jet engines and a large rubber o-ring around the cylinder skirt. This seals
low bypass turbofans are the only type capable of speeds the joint between the cylinder and the crankcase pad
higher than Mach 1. against oil leakage.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 3-4] [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 7]

All radial engines contain an odd number of cylinders with Crankpins are the machined journals on the crankshaft to
firing orders starting with consecutive odd number cylinders which the piston connecting rods are attached. They are
followed by consecutive even cylinders. Articulated rods off center from the main journal. The two crank cheeks
exist only on multiple row radial engines. This would not be and the crankpin together make a "throw". When the force
possible with a 9 cylinder engine. Generally, radial engines of combustion is applied to the crankpin, it causes the
are air cooled. crankshaft to rotate. Crankpins are hardened by nitriding
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 5, 16] to resist wear and are hollow to keep the total weight of the
crankshaft as light as possible. The hollow crankpin also
permits the passage of oil as it turns in the crankcase.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 9]

The cast or forged crankcase is the foundation of the Vibration occurs as the crankshaft rotates due to the forces
aircraft engine. It contains the bearings which support the of combustion acting on the pistons, connecting rods, and
crankshaft. Cylinders are bolted to the crankcase and the crankpins. These power impulses cause even a statically
crankcase provides the attach points for the engine to be balanced crankshaft to vibrate. Movable counterweights are
secured to the airframe. As such it must be very strong to dynamic dampeners are located in the counterweight lobes
receive the many variations of mechanical loads and forces of the crankshaft. Using pendulum motion, the dampeners
from these components while keeping the crankshaft stable. oscillate out of time with the crankshaft vibration thus
The crankcase does act as a reservoir for the engine oil, reducing overall vibration.
but with all of its other functions and relatively heavyweight [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 10]
construction, this is not the crankcase’s primary function.
1-2 8083-32A-ATB Powerplant Test Guide

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-7 AMP054 1-10 AMP049

Master rod bearings are generally what type of bearing? How is oil collected by the piston oil ring returned to
A. Plain the crankcase?
B. Roller A. Down vertical slots cut in the piston wall between the
C. Ball piston oil ring groove and the piston skirt.
B. Through holes drilled in the piston oil ring groove.
C. Through holes drilled in the piston pin recess.
1-8 AMP049 1-11 AMP056

Cam ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines to Which is the primary factor in ensuring a gas tight joint
A. provide a better fit at operating temperatures. between a cylinder barrel and the cylinder head?
B. act as a compensating feature so that a compensated A. An initial precision fit.
magneto is not required. B. Cylinder head gaskets.
C. equalize the wear on all pistons. C. Proper torque procedures.
1-9 AMP049 1-12 AMP056

Full-floating piston pins are those which allow motion Which is the typical firing order on an 4 cylinder opposed
between the pin and aircraft engine?
A. the piston. A. Opposed cylinders from the rear to the front.
B. the piston and the large end of the connecting rod. B. Opposed cylinders from the front to the rear.
C. the piston and the small end of the connecting rod. C. Opposed cylinders and opposed diagonal.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

The master rod bearings refer to the bearing located on the Oil control rings are located just below the compression
crankpin end and the piston end of the master connecting rings but above the piston pin on the typical aircraft piston.
rod commonly found in radial engines. Whether of solid They regulate the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder
or split design, plain bearings are used to mate with the wall. This keeps excessive oil from entering the combustion
crankpin journal of the crankshaft. The piston pin end of the chamber past the compression rings. To allow the surplus
master rod uses a plain bearing usually called a bushing to oil to return to the crankcase, holes are drilled in the bottom
mate with the piston pin. of the oil control piston ring grooves or in the lands next to
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 23] these grooves.

Modern engines use cam ground pistons that have a larger While all three play a role in producing a gas tight fit,
diameter perpendicular to the piston pin. This larger diameter ensuring a perfect and tight fit upon construction plays
keeps the piston straight in the cylinder as the engine warms the greatest. At initial assembly, a heated cylinder head is
up from initial start. As the piston heats up during warm up, joined to a chilled cylinder body. When the head then cool
the part of the piston in line with the piston pin has more (contracts) and the cylinder warms (expands) a gas tight fit
mass. It expands more than the piston area perpendicular is created.
to the piston pin making the piston completely round at [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 15]
operating temperature.

The piston pins used in modern aircraft engines are the full- To minimize vibration, cylinders fire from one side to the
floating type, so called because the pin is free to rotate in other from rear to the front. Typically 1-4-2-3 or 1-3-2-4.
both the piston and in the connecting rod piston pin bearing [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 16]
which is the small end of the connecting rod. As such, full
floating piston pins must be held in place to prevent the pin
ends from scoring the cylinder walls. This is accomplished
with soft aluminum plugs on each end of the piston pin.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-13 AMP056 1-16 AMP056

What is an advantage of using metallic sodium filled exhaust Cam rollers, cam rings, and cam tracks are a part of the
valves in aircraft reciprocating engines? valve operating mechanisms of which engine type(s)?
A. Increased strength and resistance to cracking. A. Radial engines.
B. Reduced valve operating temperature. B. Opposed engines.
C. Greater resistance to deterioration at high C. Both Radial and Opposed engines.
valve temperature.
1-14 AMP056 1-17 AMP056

What is the purpose of the stem keys installed on the Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine
valve stems? A. increases valve overlap.
A. To hold the valve guide in position. B. increases valve opening time.
B. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in position. C. decreases valve overlap.
C. To prevent valves from falling into the
combustion chamber.
1-15 AMP056 1-18 AMP057

What is the purpose of installing two or more springs on each Valve clearance changes on opposed-type engines using
valve in an aircraft engine? hydraulic lifters are accomplished by
A. To equalize side pressure on the valve stem. A. adjusting the rocker arm.
B. To eliminate valve spring vibration or surging. B. replacing the rocker arm.
C. To help equalize valve face loading. C. replacing the push rod.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

Some intake and exhaust valves are hollow and partially filled The geometry and so the number of moving parts are greater
with metallic sodium. This material is used because it is an on a radial type engine than an opposed engine. On an
excellent heat conductor. The sodium melts at 208˚F. The opposed engine, the pushrod is in direct contact with the
reciprocating motion of the valve circulates the liquid sodium, camshaft lobe.
allowing it to carry heat away from the valve head and into [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 19-20]
the stem, where the heat is dissipated through the valve
guide to the cylinder head and the cooling fins. Operating
temperature of a sodium filled valve may be reduced as
much as 300˚F to 400˚F.

The valve stem acts as a pilot for the valve head and rides Reciprocating aircraft engines that use solid lifters or tappets
the valve guide installed in the cylinder head. The stem is generally require that the clearance between the rocker arm
surface-hardened to resist wear. A machined groove near and the valve tip is adjusted to ensure that the valve can
the tip of the valve stem opposite the valve head receives the fully close. If the clearance is too great, the valve operating
split-ring stem keys. These stem keys form a lock ring to hold mechanism must span this distance which causes the valve
the valve spring retaining washer in place. timing to be late. The valve will open late and close early.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 18] Valve overlap refers to the time period when both the intake
and exhaust valve are open. Late opening and early closing
of the valves reduces valve overlap.

Valve springs which slip over the stem of the valves are held Hydraulic lifters are normally adjusted at the time of overhaul.
in place by the valve spring retaining washer and stem key. They are assembled dry (no lubrication), clearances
The springs hold the valves closed when not forced open via checked, and adjustments made by using pushrods of
the valve operating mechanism. Any single spring will surge different lengths. A minimum and maximum valve clearance
at certain engine speeds, allowing a less that tight seating of is established in this dry condition. Any measurement
the closed valve. By using two or more valve springs on each between these extremes is acceptable, but a pushrod that
valve stem, while one spring may be surging at a certain creates a clearance halfway between the minimum and
engine RPM, the other(s) will not, due to variation in mass maximum extremes is desired. Once assembled with the
and construction. Thus oscillations are dampened with the engine running, the hydraulic lifters are filled with oil; this
added protection of one or more extra springs should one of removes the clearance and provides a quiet, lubricated, low
the springs break. maintenance valve operating mechanism.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 22] [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 22]

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-19 AMP054 1-22 AMP056

Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust bearing During the power stroke of a four stroke engine, which are
used in most radial engines? correct positions of the valves?
A. Tapered Roller A. Intake valve is open, exhaust valve is closed.
B. Double-Row Ball B. Intake valve is closed, exhaust valve is open.
C. Deep-Grooved Ball C. Both the intake and exhaust valves are closed.
1-20 AMP053 1-23 AMP056

What is the primary advantage of using propeller On which stroke are both valves on a four-stroke cycle
reduction gears? reciprocating engine open?
A. To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without an A. Power and exhaust.
accompanying increase in engine RPM. B. Intake and compression.
B. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with C. Intake and exhaust.
an accompanying increase in power and allow the
propeller shaft to remain at a lower RPM. One complete actual cycle of a four-stroke cycle reciprocating engine
C. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an lap

75° bot
h valves o
pen
ver
accompanying increase in propeller RPM. eo
V alv
Finish cycle 25° ATC
Exhaust valve closed
ition
Ign
Po
ke
Int
w
ust stroke
ression stro
er str
Start cycle 50° BTC

ke s
Intake valve opens

oke
troke
Intake valve
Exha
closes 30° ABC

mp
Co
Exhaust valve opens

30° BBC
BTC = before top center

1-21 AMP053 ATC = after top center
ABC = after bottom center
BBC = before bottom center
On a smaller aircraft engine with a keyed propeller shaft,
to what is the keyway aligned with during installation of Valve timing chart.
the propeller?
A. Number 1 cylinder at bottom dead center.
B. Number 1 cylinder at top dead center.
C. The magneto firing point for the number one cylinder.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

Special deep-grooved ball bearings are used to transmit The four-strokes plus the ignition event are the five events of a
propeller thrust and radial loads to the engine nose section four-stroke cycle engine. In order of occurrence, the 5 events
of radial engines. This type of bearing can accept both radial are: The Intake Stroke, The Compression Stroke, Ignition,
and thrust loads with minimal friction. The Power Stroke and The Exhaust Stroke. During the intake
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 23] stroke, the crankshaft rotates and the piston moves down
away from the top of the cylinder. As it does, it draws in a
gaseous fuel/air charge through an open intake valve. As the
piston nears the bottom of the cylinder, the intake valve closes
and the piston reverses direction to begin the compression
stroke. The fuel/air charge, trapped between the piston and
the cylinder walls, compresses as the piston moves upward
toward the cylinder head. Just before top center of the stroke,
the spark plug fires which lights off the compressed charge.
The energy released by the burning of the fuel air mixture
forces the piston down toward the bottom of the cylinder
during the power stroke--the heat energy is thus transferred to
the crankshaft. The exhaust valve opens and the burnt gases
1-20 Answer B. are forced out of the cylinder as the piston returns to the top of
Increased brake horsepower of an engine results partially the cylinder during the exhaust stroke.
from increased crankshaft RPM. However, increasing [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 26]
crankshaft RPM without regard to propeller speed can cause
propeller inefficiency-as propeller tip speed approaches the
speed of sound, the prop becomes less efficient. Reduction 1-23 Answer C.
gearing allows the engine RPM to be increased to extract The valve timing chart below (Figure 1-37 of FAA‑H‑8083‑32)
maximum power while rotating the propeller at a slower illustrates when the valves open during the four stroke of the
speed than the crankshaft. engine and upon what strokes both valves are open at the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 24] same time, which is known as valve overlap. On a typical
reciprocating engine, the intake valve opens just before the
piston reaches TDC (top dead center) on the exhaust stroke.
The exhaust valve opens just before the exhaust stroke
begins and stays open until a little after the exhaust stroke is
complete. This means the exhaust valve is open as the intake
stroke begins, so both valves are open during a part of the
exhaust stroke and a part of the intake stroke.
One complete actual cycle of a four-stroke cycle reciprocating engine

1-21 Answer B.
h valves o
75° bot pen
The propeller shaft of most low power engines is tapered ver
lap
eo
and with a milled slot so that the propeller hub can be keyed V alv
Finish cycle 25° ATC
to the shaft. The keyway position is in relation to the top Exhaust valve closed
ition
dead center position of the number 1 cylinder. Ign

Po
ke
Int
w
ust stroke
ression stro
er str
Start cycle 50° BTC

ke s
Intake valve opens

oke
troke
Intake valve
Exha
closes 30° ABC

mp
Co
Exhaust valve opens

30° BBC
BTC = before top center

ATC = after top center
ABC = after bottom center
BBC = before bottom center
Valve timing chart.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-24 AMP056 1-27 AMP056

If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the During a 4 stroke cycle, which of the following event occurs
combustion process should be completed at about 60º BDC?
A. 20˚ to 30˚ before top center at the end of the A. The exhaust valve opens.
compression stroke. B. Ignition occurs.
B. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the C. The intake valve closes.
power stroke.
C. just after top center at the beginning of the
power stroke.
1-25 AMP056 1-28 AMP056

The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft How many of the following are factors in establishing the
engine is called maximum compression ratio limitations of an aircraft engine?
A. friction horsepower. 1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used.
B. brake horsepower. 2. Design limitations of the engine.
C. indicated horsepower. 3. Degree of supercharging.
4. Spark plug reach.
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
1-26 AMP056 1-29 AMP056

The compression ratio of an engine is equal to The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a reciprocating
A. the volume of the cylinder multiplied by the engine is known as the
manifold pressure. A. shaft horsepower.
B. the volume of the combustion chamber multiplied by B. indicated horsepower.
the manifold pressure. C. brake horsepower.
C. the volume of the cylinder with the piston at BDC
divided by the volume of the cylinder at TDC.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

The time of ignition varies from 20˚ to 30˚ before TDC The intake valve is timed to close at about 50-75º past BDC
(depending upon the requirements of the specific engine) to on the compression stroke to allow the momentum of the
ensure complete combustion of the charge by the time the incoming gasses to charge the cylinder more completely.
piston is slightly past the TDC position. The exhaust valve opens at about 135º on the exhaust
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 27] stroke. Ignition occurs at approximately 20º before TDC of
the compression stroke.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 26-27]

Indicated horsepower is the term used to describe the Manifold pressure is the average absolute pressure of
theoretical output of an engine. The total horsepower lost in the air or fuel air charge supplying the engine. Combined
overcoming friction (friction horsepower) must be subtracted with the compression ratio, the total pressure inside the
from the indicated horsepower to arrive at the actual combustion chamber of the engine is determined. Design
horsepower delivered to the propeller by the engine. This is limitations prevent unlimited pressure inside the engine.
known as brake horsepower. Since supercharging affects manifold pressure and fuels
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 28] have various characteristics which affect their ability to be
compressed without exploding, these three factors limit
the maximum compression ratio that can be developed
by an engine. The reach of the spark plug will affect the
ignition of the compressed charge in an engine that has
already been designed with the other three factors taken
into consideration, however it does not affect maximum
compression ratio.

All internal combustion engines must compress the fuel/ The indicated horsepower produced by an engine is the
air mixture to receive a reasonable amount of work from horsepower calculated from the indicated mean effective
each power stroke. The fuel/air charge in the cylinder can be pressure and other factors which affect the power output
compared to a coil spring. The more it is compressed, the of an engine. Indicated horsepower is the power developed
more work it is potentially capable of doing. A comparison in the combustion chambers without reference to frictional
of the volume of the cylinder at Bottom Dead Center (BDC) losses of the engine. This horsepower is calculated as a
and at Top Dead Center (TDC) of a stroke describes the function of the actual cylinder pressure recorded during
amount of compression developed. Compression ratio is a engine operation.
controlling factor in the maximum horsepower developed [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 31]
by an engine.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-30 AMP008 1-33 AMP056

Friction horsepower Which of the following will decrease volumetric efficiency in a
A. is insignificant when considering the actual power reciprocating engine?
output of an engine. 1. Full throttle operation.
B. is not included in the calculation of brake horsepower. 2. Low cylinder head temperature.
C. may be as high as 10-15% of the indicated horsepower 3. Improper valve timing.
on a modern aircraft engine. 4. Sharp bends in the induction system.
5. High carburetor air temperatures.
A. 2, 4, and 5
B. 3, 4, and 5
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
1-31 AMP056 1-34 AMP053

What is defined by the equation: Propulsive efficiency
______________ = PLANK/33,000 A. can be maximized through the use of a fixed pitched prop.
A. Brake Horsepower B. is a ratio of thrust horsepower to the length of the prop.
B. Indicated Horsepower C. is maximized through the use of a constant-speed prop.
C. Thrust Horsepower
1-32 AMP008 1-35 AMP068

The thermal efficiency of an engine Most modern airliners that fly in the .8 mach speed range are
A. affects the fuel consumption of an engine. fitted with
B. is a fixed amount directly related to the heat energy A. turbofan engines.
of the fuel. B. turboprop engines.
C. results in less of the heat energy in the fuel being used. C. turboshaft engines.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

Friction horsepower is the indicated horsepower minus Volumetric efficiency is a ratio expressed in terms of
brake horsepower. It is the horsepower used by an engine percentages. It is a comparison of the volume of the fuel/
in overcoming friction of moving parts, drawing in fuel, air charge inducted into the cylinder to the total piston
expelling exhaust, driving oil and fuel pumps, and other displacement of the engine. Since piston displacement is
engine accessories. On modern engines, this power loss unaffected by external factors, volumetric efficiency is a
through friction may be as high as 10 to 15 percent of the measure of external factors that reduce the total volume of
indicated horsepower. the fuel/air charge inducted into the engine. Some of these
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 33] factors are: part throttle operation, long intake pipes of
narrow diameter, sharp bends in the induction system, high
carburetor air temperature, high cylinder head temperature,
incomplete scavenging, and improper valve timing. Full
throttle operation and low cylinder head temperatures would
increase the volume of the induction charge.

Indicated horsepower is the power developed in the Propeller efficiency affects propulsive efficiency which
combustion chamber without deducting friction losses in the is defined as the ratio of thrust horsepower to brake
engine. The acronym PLANK refers to those variables within horsepower. A constant-speed propeller maximizes propeller
the basic construction of the engine as: efficiency by changing the propeller blade angle to the most
P = mean effective pressure in psi efficient angle for the power produced by the engine. This
L = length of the stroke in feet increases thrust horsepower which, by definition, increases
A = area of the piston head in square inches propulsive efficiency.
N = power strokes per minute : RPM/2 [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 37]
K = number of cylinders
33,000 foot/pounds is the constant used to define horsepower

Each quantity of fuel contains a finite amount of heat energy Differently constructed turbine engines are suited for
which can be extracted by the engine for mechanical work. various aircraft and flying conditions. Most modern airliners
The ratio of useful work done by an engine to the heat energy use turbofan engines that have at the front of the engine a
of the fuel it uses, expressed in work or heat units, is called relatively large diameter fan section. This accounts for the
the thermal efficiency of the engine. High thermal efficiency name – turbofan. This type of engine is relatively quiet and
results in an engine producing the greatest amount of power has better fuel consumption at the average cruising speed
with minimal excess heat reaching the valves, cylinders, of airline flight. Turboprop engines have greater efficiency at
pistons and cooling system of the engine. It also means low 300-400mph. Turboshaft engine are found on helicopters
specific fuel consumption, therefore less fuel for a flight of a and Auxiliary Power Units (APUs).
given distance at a given power setting. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 37]

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-36 AMP011 1-39 AMP019

Accessories such as electric generators and hydraulic What is the primary purpose of stator vanes in the
pumps on turbine powered aircraft are compressor of an axial flow turbine engine?
A. Driven directly off the turbine shaft. A. Increase air velocity.
B. Driven at the same speed as the engine using a B. Create swirl of the oncoming air ahead of the
tower shaft. compressor rotors.
C. Driven at reduced speed from the high pressure C. Increase air pressure.
compressor via a reduction gear box.
1-37 AMP068 1-40 AMP019

The primary function of the compressor on a gas turbine What is the function of the inlet guide vane assembly on an
engine is to axial-flow compressor?
A. cool the engine. A. Directs air onto the first stage rotor blades at the
B. supply air in sufficient quantity for combustion. proper angle.
C. supply the pressure for cabin environmental purposes. B. Converts velocity energy to pressure energy.
C. Converts pressure energy to velocity energy.
1-38 AMP068 1-41 AMP019

What is meant by a double entry centrifugal compressor? Which component of a centrifugal flow compressor performs
A. A compressor that has two intakes. the most similar work as does the rear stator vanes in an
B. A two-stage compressor independently connected to axial flow compressor?
the main shaft. A. Diffuser
C. A compressor with vanes on both sides of the impeller. B. Impeller
C. Guide Vanes

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

The accessory section of a gas turbine aircraft has various The stationary stator vanes increase the pressure of air
functions. One of these includes driving accessories between each compressor stage and also help control the
concerned with the operation of the aircraft such as direction of air to each rotor stage to obtain the best possible
electrical generators and hydraulic pumps. The rotational compressor blade efficiency.
speeds of a turbine engine and its shafts are much greater [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 41]
than the optimum speed for driving rotating accessories.
Therefore, turbine engine accessory sections incorporate
a series of gears to reduce the speed of the various drives
provided for accessories. The gear train is driven by the
engine’s high pressure compressor through an accessory
drive shaft gear coupling.

The compressor section of a gas turbine engine has many The first stage rotor blades on an axial-flow compressor
functions. Its primary function is to supply air in sufficient can be preceded by an inlet guide vane assembly that can
quantities to satisfy the requirements of the combustion be either fixed or variable. The guide vanes help direct the
burners. Specifically, to fulfill its purpose, the compressor airflow into the first stage rotor blades at the proper angle
must increase the pressure of the mass of air received from and establish a swirling motion for the air entering the
the air inlet duct, and then discharge it to the burner section compressor. This preswirl, in the direction of engine rotation,
in the quantities and pressures required. Cooling the engine improves the aerodynamic characteristics of the compressor
and supplying air for cabin environmental functions are by reducing drag on the first stage rotor blades. The inlet
secondary purposes of the compressor. guide vanes are curved steel vanes usually welded to steel
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 39] inner and outer shrouds.

The impeller in an engine with a centrifugal compressor may Both the rear stator vanes of an axial flow compressor
be of two types – single entry or double entry. The principal and the diffuser of a centrifugal flow compressor have the
differences between the two types of impellers are size and job of stabilizing the direction of airflow prior to entering
ducting arrangement. The double entry type has a smaller the combustion chamber. Guide vanes are not a part of a
diameter and is usually operated at higher rotational speed centrifugal flow compressor.
to ensure sufficient airflow. Its impeller has vanes on both [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 40-41]
sides (i.e. front and back) but requires more complex ducting
to have intake air reach both sides. The single entry impeller
has simple, conventional inlet ducting but the impeller is of
a larger diameter, which increases the overall dimensions of
the engine.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-42 AMP019 1-45 AMP019

The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system, the
function of the first stage turbine drives the
A. number of compressor stages. A. N1 and N2 compressors.
B. rotor diameter. B. N2 compressor.
C. air inlet velocity. C. N1 compressor.
1-43 AMP068 1-46 AMP068

What is referred to as blade profile of a turbine engine What is the purpose of the diffuser section of a turbine engine?
compressor blade? A. To increase air pressure and decrease its velocity.
A. The leading edge of the blade. B. To decrease air pressure and increase its velocity.
B. A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness. C. To straighten the airflow prior to its entrance to the
C. The curvature of the blade root. combustion chamber.
1-44 AMP019 1-47 AMP068

What is the primary advantage of an axial-flow compressor What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of
over a centrifugal flow compressor? the fuel and air?
A. High frontal area. A. Combustion Section
B. Less expensive. B. Compressor Section
C. Greater pressure ratio. C. Diffuser Section

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

In an axial flow compressor, each consecutive pair of rotor A spool in a split spool or twin spool engine refers to
and stator blades constitutes a pressure stage. The number a turbine section, the compressor it drives, and the
of rows of blades (stages) is determined by the amount of air interconnecting shaft between the two. Each spool is
and total pressure rise required. The compressor pressure independent of the other. The first stage turbine wheel
ratio increases with the number of compression stages. Most is located immediately downstream of the combustion
large engines use 16 stages or more. section of the engine--it receives the most energy from the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 41] combusted gases and, therefore, drives the high pressure
compressor which is known as the N2 compressor. The
second stage turbine is behind or downstream of the first
stage turbine--it receives less energy from the combusted
gases since the gases have already passed through the
first stage turbine. The second stage turbine drives the low
pressure compressor, which is known as the N1 compressor.

Compressor blade tips are reduced in thickness by cutouts, The diffuser is the divergent section of the engine after the
referred to as blade profiles. These profiles prevent serious compressor but before the combustion section. Its function
damage to the blades or housing should the blades contact is to increase air pressure at a slower velocity. This prepares
the compressor housing. Profiling also allows tighter the air for the combustion section of the engine where it is
clearances between the blade tips and the compressor mixed with fuel and burned. A continuous burn is desired
case and requires the case interior surface to be lined with a and the slower velocity air allows the flame to persist without
relatively soft material to allow the blades to rub the surface being extinguished and prevents the combustion process
without blade damage. from moving forward into the compressor.

In an axial flow engine, at each stage of compression, the The primary function of the combustion section of a gas
air is compressed at a ratio of approximately 1.25 to 1. Each turbine engine is to burn the fuel/air mixture, thereby adding
consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades constitutes a heat energy to the air. To do this efficiently, the combustion
pressure stage. The compressor pressure ratio increases chamber must provide the means for proper mixing of the
with the number of compression stages. Large engines fuel and air to ensure good combustion.
utilize up to 16 stages of compression (or more), and at [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 44]
each stage compression is increased by a ratio of 1.25 to
1 above the previous stage. This gives an axial flow engine
the ability to have a much higher overall compression ratio
than a centrifugal engine which typically has one stage of
compression at approximately an 8 to 1 pressure increase.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-48 AMP068 1-51 AMP068

The air passing through the combustion chamber of a turbine The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine
engine is engine is to
A. used to support combustion and to cool the engine. A. collect the exhaust gases and act as a
B. entirely combined with fuel and burned. noise suppressor.
C. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. B. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single
exhaust jet.
C. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid
exhaust jet.
1-49 AMP068 1-52 AMP068

The highest heat to metal contacts in a jet engine are the The oil dampened also known as hydraulic main bearing
A. burner cans. utilized in some turbine engines is used to
B. turbine inlet nozzle vanes. A. provide lubrication of the bearings from the
C. turbine blades. beginning of starting rotation until normal oil pressure
is established.
B. provide an oil film between the outer race and the
bearing housing in order to reduce vibration tendencies
in the rotor system, and to allow for slight misalignment.
C. dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings.
1-50 AMP068 1-53 AMP068

Why are turbine blades generally more susceptible to Main bearing oil seals used in turbine engines are usually
operating damage than compressor blades? what type?
A. The high probability of carbon deposits. A. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
B. Exposure to high temperatures. B. Teflon® an D synthetic rubber.
C. Less exposure to solutions during engine C. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
pressure washes.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

The air entering the combustion chamber is divided into two The exhaust cone collects the exhaust gases discharged
main streams – the primary and the secondary. The primary from the turbine section and gradually converts them into
or combustion air is directed inside the liner at the front end, a solid flow of gases. In performing this, the velocity of the
where it mixes with the fuel and is burned. Secondary or gases is decreased slightly and the pressure is increased.
cooling air passes between the outer casing and the liner [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 51]
and joins the combustion air gases through larger holes
toward the rear of the liner, cooling the combustion gases
from about 3500˚F to below what the turbine section can
withstand (near 1500˚F on earlier engines).

The turbine inlet nozzle vanes are located directly aft of the The gas turbine rotors are supported by ball and roller
combustion chamber and immediately forward of the turbine bearings, which are antifriction bearings. Many newer
wheel. This is the highest or hottest temperature that comes engines use hydraulic bearings, in which the outside race
in contact with metal components in the engine. The turbine is surrounded by a thin film of oil. This reduces vibrations
inlet temperature must be controlled or damage will occur to transmitted to the engine and allows for slight misalignment.
the turbine inlet nozzle vanes. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 52]

Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating The oil seals for turbine engines are generally labyrinth
damage than compressor blades due to the exposure of or carbon rubbing-type seals. Labyrinth type seals are
high temperatures, extreme temperature gradients between pressurized to minimize oil leakage along the compressor
the disk rim and inner portions of the disk, and the added shaft. Carbon seals are usually spring loaded and are similar
rotational stresses. in material and application to the carbon brushes found in
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 48-49] electric motors.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-54 AMP068 1-57 AMP068

The energy to turn the propeller on a turboprop engine is Within the Brayton cycle of a turbine engine, in which
typically produced by section does air pressure remain constant and air volume
A. additional compressor stages. greatly increases?
B. additional turbine stages. A. Exhaust duct.
C. use of a flow-through combustion chamber. B. Combustion chamber.
C. Turbine assembly.
1-55 AMP068 1-58 AMP068

A turboshaft engine can be defined as What is described by the formula:
A. a gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft FORCE = (MASS × ACCELERATION) ÷ GRAVITY?
to operate something other than a propeller. A. The Brayton Cycle
B. a free turbine engine. B. Horsepower
C. a full bypass turbofan engine. C. Thrust
1-56 AMP068 1-59 AMP068

What is meant by a free turbine as it relates to turboprop and The most important factors affecting thermal efficiency in a
turboshaft engines? turbine engine are
A. The compressor wheel is free turning and unconnected A. compressor speed and exhaust gas temperature.
from the rest of the engine. B. total air temperature and compressor speed.
B. The turbine wheel is not physically connected to the C. turbine inlet temperature, compression ratio, and the
reduction gears and shaft. component efficiencies of the compressor and turbine.
C. The turbine wheel is not physically connected to the
compressor wheel.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

Turboprops are, fundamentally, gas turbine engines that have During intake, air enters at ambient pressure and leaves
a compressor, combustion section, turbine, and exhaust with increased pressure and decreased volume. In the
nozzle (gas generator), all of which operate in the same compressor, pressure is increased and volume is decreased.
manner as any other gas engine turbine engine. However, the In the combustion chamber, pressure remains constant
difference is that the turbine in the turboprop engine usually with a large increase in volume. In the turbine assembly the
has extra stages to extract energy to drive the propeller. expanding gasses are converted from velocity to mechanical
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 54] energy. In the convergent exhaust duct volume expands and
pressure decreases yielding the final high velocity.

A gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft to The formula shown F = MA/G defines thrust. Horsepower
operate something other than a propeller is referred to as a is defines as ft-lb of force per second/550. The Brayton
turboshaft engine. The output shaft may be coupled directly Cycle refers to the continuous combustion as an operating
to the engine turbine, or the shaft may be driven by a turbine principle of turbine engines and does not have a formula.
of its own (free turbine). The turboshaft engine’s output [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 59]
is measured in horsepower instead of thrust because the
power output is turning a shaft.

A fixed turbine has a mechanical connection between Thermal efficiency is a prime factor in gas turbine
each engine component and the reduction gear box. The performance; it’s the ratio of net work produced by the
free turbine has only an air link between the compressor/ engine to the chemical energy supplied in the form of fuel.
combustion chamber and the turbine wheel. The turbine The three most important factors affecting the thermal
wheel is powered only by air pressure as the fast moving air efficiency are turbine inlet temperature, compression ratio,
enters its inlet nozzle. and the component efficiencies of the compressor and
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 56] turbine. Other factors that affect thermal efficiency are
compressor inlet temperature and combustion efficiency.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
1-60 AMP068 1-61 AMP061

An engine’s thrust output temporarily decreases as aircraft Which of the following acts as a diffuser in a turbine engine
speed increases from static. This is overcome at higher and converts velocity to pressure?
speeds by A. Impeller
A. turbine efficiency. B. Manifold
B. ram air effect. C. Stators
C. exhaust nozzle pressure.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

A rise in pressure above ambient pressure at the engine inlet With an axial flow type compressor, the stator blades act as
as a result of forward velocity of an aircraft is referred to diffusers at each stage, partially converting high velocity air
as ram pressure. Since any ram effect causes an increase flow to pressure. Each consecutive pair of rotor and stator
in compressor entrance pressure over atmospheric, the blades constitutes a pressure stage. Compressor pressure
resulting pressure rise causes an increase in the mass airflow increases with the number of stages. Most engines utilize up
and gas velocity, both of which tend to increase thrust. to 16 such stages.
An engine’s thrust output temporarily deceases as aircraft [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 01 Page 41]
speed increases from static, but soon ceases to decrease.
Moving toward higher speeds, thrust output increases again
due to the increases pressure of ram recovery.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
Applicants for Powerplant Certification are required to answer oral examination questions before, after, or in conjunction
with the practical examination portion of the airman certification process. The oral examination is used to establish
knowledge. The practical examination is used to establish skill, which is the application of knowledge. Use the following
questions to prepare for the oral examination. The questions are examples aligned with Practical Test Standards subject
matter from which the examiner will choose topics for oral examination.
1-1(O). What is the reciprocating engine theory of operation?
1-2(O). What is the basic radial engine design and how does it operate?
1-3(O). What is firing order and how is it determined?
1-4(O). Why are valves adjusted on a radial engine?
1-5(O). What is the purpose of a master rod and articulating rods?
1-6(O). What is the purpose, function, and operation of multiple springs on a valve?
1-7(O). What is propeller reduction gearing and why is it used?
1-8(O). What is the basic theory of operation of a gas turbine engine?
1-9(O). What are some causes for turbine engine performance losses?
1-10(O). What is the purpose of a turbine engine diffuser?
1-11(O). What type of engine is a typical Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)? What is its function and how does it operate?

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
1-1(O). A reciprocating engine is an internal combustion device that converts the energy in fuel into mechanical
energy. A compressed fuel/air charge is burned in each cylinder of the engine. The energy released pushes
the piston down in successive cylinders so that the crankshaft, which is attached to the pistons via connecting
rods, develops a rotational motion (force). This force is transferred to a propeller geared off of the end of the
crankshaft to produce thrust. A camshaft is geared to the crankshaft to enable valves to open and close at
precise times. The valves let the fuel/air mixture into each cylinder and, after the charge is burned, the valves
let the exhaust gases out. Magnetos develop a high-tension current that is distributed to successive cylinders
at the precise time it is advantageous to ignite the fuel air mixture. Most reciprocating aircraft engines are
4 stroke cycle engines. A stroke is the movement of the piston in the cylinder from top to bottom or from
bottom to top. The 4 strokes are labeled to indicate their function in the cycle. They are in order of occurrence:
the intake, compression, power, and exhaust strokes. Ignition of the fuel/air mixture via spark plugs in each
cylinder occurs just before the piston reaches the top of the compression stroke. The force created by burning
the fuel is then transmitted by the piston to the crankshaft on the power stroke.
1-2(O). Radial engines are simply reciprocating engines with the cylinders arranged radially around a central
crankcase and crankshaft. It operates like any other 4-stroke cycle reciprocating engine.
1-3(O). The firing order of an engine is the sequence in which the power event occurs in the different cylinders. Firing
order is designed to provide for balance and to eliminate vibration. It is set by the engineers of the engine.
Cylinder firing order in opposed reciprocating aircraft engines is usually listed in pairs of cylinders as each
pair fires across the center main bearing. On single row radial engines, the firing order is the sequential odd
numbered cylinders followed by the sequential even numbered cylinders (from low number to high number
each). Double row radials can be calculated by using a pair of firing order numbers that are either added or
subtracted to the number of the cylinder previously fired as is possible.
1-4(O). Reciprocating engines with solid lifters or cam followers generally require the valve clearance to be adjusted
manually by adjusting a screw and locknut. Valve clearance is needed to assure that the valve has enough
clearance in the valve train to close completely. This adjustment (or inspection thereof) is a continuous
maintenance item except on engines with hydraulic lifters. Hydraulic lifters automatically keep the valve
clearance at zero.
1-5(O). The master rod serves as the connecting link between the piston pin and the crankpin. The crankpin end
contains the master rod bearing. Flanges around the large end of the master rod provide for the attachment of
articulating rods. They are attached to the master rod with knuckle pins which are pressed into the holes in the
master rod flanges. The master and articulating rod assembly is commonly used on radial engines. In radial
engines, the piston in one cylinder in each row is connected to the crankshaft by the master rod. All other
pistons in the row are connected to the crankshaft through the master rod via the articulating rods.
1-6(O). The function of the valve springs is to close the valve and to hold the valve securely on the valve seat. The
purpose of having two or more valve springs on each valve is to prevent vibration and valve surging at certain
speeds. The springs are arranged one inside the other and vibrate at different engine speeds. The result is
rapid damping of all spring-surge vibrations. Two or more springs also reduce the danger of weakness and
possible failure by breakage due to heat and metal fatigue.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
1-7(O). For an engine to develop high power, an increase in crankshaft rotational speed is required. However as propeller
tip speed approaches the speed of sound, efficiency is greatly reduced. Propeller reduction gearing is used to
allow the engine to turn at a high RPM while keeping the propeller speed lower and efficient. The propeller is
geared to the engine crankshaft in such a way as to make the propeller not turn as fast as the engine. There are
three common types of reduction gearing: spur planetary, bevel planetary, and spur and pinion.
1-8(O). A gas turbine engine is an internal combustion engine. Like a reciprocating engine, the functions of intake,
compression, combustion, and exhaust are all required. The difference is that, in a turbine engine, these
functions happen in dedicated sections of the engine and they happen continuously. Air is taken in at the
front of the engine and is compressed in the compressor section, either axially or centrifugally. From there it
is sent through a diffuser to the combustion section where fuel is discharged and combustion takes place.
The energy in the fuel is released and is directed into the turbine section. Turbine wheel(s) extract the energy
in the burning fuel. Depending on the engine type, the energy is converted into rotational mechanical energy
to operate the engine and create thrust by turning a fan, propeller, or rotor. In turbojet engines, just enough
energy is extracted to operate the engine and the remainder is directed out of the exhaust of the engine to be
used as thrust.
1-9(O). The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine engine is a prime factor in performance. This is the ratio of the net
work produced by the engine to the chemical energy supplied in the fuel. The turbine inlet temperature,
compression ratio, and component efficiencies are the three most important factors affecting thermal
efficiency. Other factors are compressor inlet temperature and combustion efficiency. A high turbine inlet
temperature will result in higher efficiency and more power. However, temperature limits must be adhered to or
the turbine section can be overheated and destroyed. If the efficiency of the engine components is reduced,
then engine performance will reduce. So, damaged or worn components will produce performance losses.
Also, if the stagnation density (a combination of airspeed, altitude, and ambient temperature) is reduced, the
performance is reduced. This results from the reduced mass of air flowing through the engine.
1-10(O). The diffuser is the divergent section of the engine after the compressor and before the combustion section.
It functions to reduce the velocity of the compressor discharge air and increase its pressure so that it can
be combined with fuel and burned in the combustion section. The lower velocity of the gases aids in the
continuous burning process. If the gases pass through the combustion section at too high of a velocity, the
flame could extinguish.
1-11(O). A typical APU is a turboshaft gas turbine engine that is made to transfer horsepower to a shaft. The shaft turns
the engine compressor from which bleed air for the aircraft is obtained. It also drives an accessory gearbox
that rotates a generator. The generator supplies the aircraft with electrical power on the ground and in the air.
The APU is often operated with no personnel on the flight deck.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 58, Chapter 09 Page 19, Chapter 01 Page 38]

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
Applicants for powerplant certification are required to demonstrate the ability to apply knowledge by performing
maintenance related tasks for the examiner. The Practical Test Standards (PTS) list the subject areas from which the skill
elements to be performed by the applicant are chosen. The following examples resemble tasks an examiner may ask an
applicant to perform. The Performance Level required to be demonstrated for each skill element is listed. Consult the
PTS for Level descriptions.
1-1(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, measure the valve clearance with the lifters deflated
and record your findings. [Level 2]
1-2(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, accomplish a compression test, and record all
findings. [Level 3]
1-3(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, inspect engine control cables for proper rigging and
record your findings. [Level 3]
1-4(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, inspect engine push-pull tubes for proper rigging and
1-5(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, inspect ring gap and record your findings. [Level 3]
1-6(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, install piston rings on a piston and record
maintenance. [Level 3]
1-7(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, install an aircraft engine cylinder and record
1-8(P). Given an aircraft engine component and appropriate publications, inspect dimensionally and record your
findings. [Level 3]
1-9(P). Given an actual aircraft reciprocating engine or mockup, component, and appropriate publications, install the
component and record the maintenance. [Level 3]
1-10(P). Given a turbine engine compressor blade and appropriate publications, complete a repair by blending and
record maintenance. [Level 3]
1-11(P). Given an actual aircraft turbine engine or mockup, component, and appropriate publications, install the
component and record the maintenance. [Level 3]
1-12(P). Given the required information, calculate the cycle life remaining between overhaul of a turbine engine life
limited component. [Level 2]
1-13(P). Given an actual aircraft turbine engine or mockup and appropriate publications, check the rigging of a turbine
engine inlet guide vane system and record your findings. [Level 3]
1-14(P). Given an actual aircraft turbine engine or mockup and appropriate publications, measure a compressor or
turbine blade clearance and record your findings. [Level 3]
1-15(P). Given an actual aircraft turbine engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and an unknown discrepancy,
troubleshoot a turbine engine and record your findings. [Level 3]

AIRCRAFT ENGINES
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
1-16(P). Given an actual aircraft turbine engine or mockup, locate and identify various turbine engine components.
[Level 2]
1-17(P). Given an aircraft turbine component and appropriate publications, inspect turbine engine component and
NOTE: AUXILIARY POWER UNITS may be tested at the same time as TURBINE ENGINES. No further testing of
auxiliary power units is required.

AIRCRAFT ENGINES

FUEL AND METERING SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Basic Fuel Systems, Fuel Metering Devices, Carburetor Fuel Systems,
Fuel System Maintenance, and Turbine Engine Fuel Systems
02
QUESTIONS
2-1 AMP042 2-4 AMP041

If a pilot suspects the onset of vapor lock, which of the 1. The mixture used at rated power in air cooled
following procedures might be helpful? reciprocating engines is richer than the mixture used
A. Enrich the mixture. through the normal cruising range.
B. Increase throttle until roughness clears. 2. The mixture used at idle in air cooled reciprocating
C. Turn on the auxiliary fuel pump. engines is richer than the mixture used at rated power.

Typical F/A Mixture Curve—Float-type Carburetor
Rich
Idle
2-2 AMP041
Takeoff
When the stoichiometric mixture a fuel/air ratio changes from
15:1 to 16:1, Climb
Maximum cruise
A. the energy produced by combustion increases. F/A Minimum cruise
B. the energy produced by combustion decreases. Rich
C. the temperature produced by combustion decreases. Manual
Lean
Lean
Low Airflow in lb/hr High
Typical F/A Mixture Curve—Pressure Injection Carburetor
Rich
Idle
Takeoff
Climb
2-3 AMP022
Maximum cruise
On a carburetor without an automatic mixture control, as you F/A
ascend to altitude, the mixture will Auto rich
A. be enriched. Auto lean

B. be leaned.
C. not be affected. Minimum cruise
Lean
Figure 2-1. Fuel/air mixture curves.

FUEL AND FUEL METERING
ANSWERS

Vapor lock is typically caused by low fuel pressure, high The graphic below displays the fuel air mixtures for a typical
fuel temperatures, and excess agitation of the fuel. Low air air cooled reciprocating engine. Notice that the mixture is
pressure at higher altitudes lowers fuel pressure. Aggressive most rich at idle. At rated power during climb and takeoff,
maneuvering or turbulence introduces vapor into the fuel, the mixture is higher than at minimum and maximum cruise.
lowering pressure. The auxiliary fuel pump increases fuel The mixture must be enriched more than the stoichiometric
pressure in the fuel line where vapor lock can form. mixture at high power setting to lower the temperature of
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 2] combustion and keep cylinder head temperature within
limits. At idling speed, some air or exhaust gas is drawn into
the cylinder through the exhaust port during valve overlap.
The mixture that enters the cylinder through the intake port
must be must be rich enough to compensate for this gas or
additional air.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 5, Figure 2-1]
Typical F/A Mixture Curve—Float-type Carburetor
Rich
2-2 Answer B. Idle
The perfect mixture of air to fuel in a reciprocating engine
Takeoff
is 15:1. At this mixture all the fuel and oxygen is completely
burned up, so producing the greatest amount of heat and Maximum cruise
Climb
energy. If the ratio of air to fuel is increased to 16:1, there
F/A Minimum cruise
will be slight loss of power and temperature, but a more Rich
significant gain in economy of operation. Manual
Lean
Lean
Typical F/A Mixture Curve—Pressure Injection Carburetor
Rich
Idle
Takeoff
Climb
2-3 Answer A. Maximum cruise

F/A
Typically, air density decreases as altitude increases. A Auto rich
normally aspirated engine has a fixed volume of air that it can Auto lean
draw in during the intake stroke. Therefore, less air is drawn
into the engine as altitude increases because of the lower Minimum cruise
air density. Less air results in the fuel air mixture being more Lean
rich as you ascend in altitude. A mixture control is provided Low Airflow in lb/hr High
on some aircraft to lean the mixture during climbs. On some
aircraft this is done manually. On other, it is automatic. Figure 2-1. Fuel/air mixture curves.

QUESTIONS
2-5 AMP022 2-8 AMP041

What carburetor component measures the amount of air Which of the following best describes the function of an
delivered to the engine? altitude mixture control?
A. Economizer Valve A. Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge entering
B. Automatic Mixture Control the engine.
C. Venturi B. Regulates air pressure above the fuel in the
float chamber.
C. Regulates the air pressure in the venturi.
2-6 AMP037 2-9 AMP037

Where on a float type carburetor is the throttle What is the basic function of the accelerator system of
valve positioned? a carburetor?
A. Between the air inlet and the discharge nozzle. A. Increases fuel flow during rapid throttle movements.
B. Between the discharge nozzle and the venturi. B. Increases air flow in high density altitude conditions.
C. Between the venturi and the engine. C. Increases fuel flow for sustained high power operations.
2-7 AMP037 2-10 AMP037

The fuel metering force of a conventional float-type The economizer system in a float-type carburetor
carburetor in its normal operating range is the difference A. keeps the fuel/air ratio constant.
between the low air pressure acting on the discharge nozzle B. functions only at cruise and idle speeds.
located within the venturi and the atmospheric pressure C. increases the fuel air ratio at high power settings.
A. acting on the fuel in the float chamber.
B. of the fuel as it enters the carburetor.
C. air as it enters the venturi (impact pressure).

ANSWERS

As the velocity of air increases to get through the narrow The mixture control system determines the ratio of fuel to
portion of the venturi, pressure drops. This pressure drop is air in the mixture. This can be done manually with a cockpit
proportional to the velocity and is therefore a measure of the control, or, an automatic mixture control can be built into the
airflow. The basic operating principle of most carburetors carburetor. As an aircraft climbs, the atmospheric pressure
depends on the differential pressure between the inlet and decreases. There is also a corresponding decrease in the
the venturi throat. weight of the air passing through the induction system.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 6] The volume, however, remains constant. It is the volume of
air that determines the pressure drop across the venturi.
Therefore, regardless of altitude, the same amount of fuel
is metered into the engine from the discharge nozzle. Thus,
with less air weight due to lower air density at altitude, the
mixture tends to become too rich. The automatic or manual
mixture control decreases the rate of fuel discharge to
compensate for the decrease in air density.

The throttle valve is located between the venturi and the During rapid throttle increases, the instant rate of acceleration
engine. Mechanical linkage connects this valve with the of incoming air is greater than can be matched by incoming
throttle lever in the cockpit. By means of the throttle, airflow fuel. Until the rate of fuel flow can catch up, the accelerator
to the cylinders is regulated and controls the power output pump inserts additional fuel so that the engine’s rate of
of the engine. As the throttle is opened, more air is admitted acceleration can be steady.
to the carburetor which automatically supplies enough [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 8]
additional fuel to maintain the correct fuel air ratios. As
the volume of airflow increases, the velocity in the venturi
increases, lowering the pressure and allowing more fuel to be
forced into the airstream.

The discharge nozzle is located in the throat of the venturi The economizer system in a float-type carburetor is also
at the point where the lowest drop in pressure occurs as known as the power enrichment system. It increases the
air passes through the carburetor to the engine cylinders. richness of the mixture during high power operation. At
There are two different pressures acting on the fuel in the cruising speeds, a lean mixture is desirable for economy
carburetor – the low air pressure at the discharge nozzle reasons, while at high power output, the mixture must be rich
and a higher atmospheric pressure at the float chamber. The to obtain maximum power and to aid in cooling the engine
higher pressure in the float chamber forces the fuel through cylinders. Essentially, the economizer is a valve that is closed
the discharge nozzle into the airstream in the venturi. at cruising speed and opened to supply extra fuel to the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 7] mixture during high power operation.

QUESTIONS
2-11 AMP037 2-14 AMP037

When does refrigeration icing occur in carburetors? When idling, from what source is sufficient pressure available
A. When humidity surrounding the fuel freezes. to feed fuel into the idle circuit?
B. When moisture within the fuel freezes. A. From the engine.
C. When water (rain or snow) present in the B. Through the venturi.
atmosphere freezes. C. From the idle air bleed.
2-12 AMP038 2-15 AMP022

The fuel level within the float chamber of a properly adjusted Which of the following best describes the function of an
float-type carburetor will be altitude mixture control?
A. slightly higher than the discharge nozzle outlet. A. Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge entering
B. slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet. the engine.
C. at the same level as the discharge nozzle outlet. B. Regulates the air pressure above the fuel in the
float chamber.
C. Regulates the air pressure in the venturi.
2-13 AMP037 2-16 AMP041

One purpose of an air bleed in a float-type carburetor is An aircraft carburetor is equipped with a mixture control in
A. increase fuel flow at altitude. order to prevent the mixture from becoming too
B. meter air to adjust the mixture. A. lean at high altitudes.
C. decrease fuel density and destroy surface tension. B. rich at high altitudes.
C. rich at high speeds.

ANSWERS

There are three general types of icing: fuel evaporation With the throttle valve closed at idling speeds, air velocity
ice, throttle ice, and impact ice. All three can form through the venturi is so low that it cannot draw enough
at temperatures between 30 and 40˚F, however, fuel fuel from the main discharge nozzle. However, low pressure
evaporation ice can form during ambient air temperature of caused by piston suction exists on the engine side of the
up to 100˚F. When fuel evaporates in the venturi of a float- throttle valve. To allow the engine to idle, a fuel passageway
type carburetor, temperature decreases. Any water vapor is incorporated to discharge fuel from an opening in this
present can freeze onto the fuel discharge nozzle, throttle low pressure area near the edge of the throttle valve. This is
valve, or inside the venturi if the temperature drops below called the idling jet or idle discharge nozzle. With the throttle
32˚F. Throttle ice is formed typically when air makes its way open enough so that the main discharge nozzle is operating,
around a partially closed throttle valve. A pressure differential fuel does not flow out of the idling jet. As soon as the
is formed around the obstruction and ice can form on the throttle is closed far enough to stop the spray from the main
back side of the throttle when moisture is present. This discharge nozzle, fuel flows out of the idle discharge nozzle.
condition is usually limited to temperature below 38˚F. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 12]
Impact ice occurs when water, snow, ice, etc., is present
in the atmosphere and it contacts a cold surface of the
aircraft. The carburetor screen is an especially susceptible
and dangerous area for impact ice to form but it can also
form inside the carburetor. This type of ice forms when
temperature of the aircraft structure is below 32˚F.

A float chamber is provided between the fuel supply and As altitude increases, the air becomes less dense. Because
the main metering system of the carburetor. This chamber the same volume of fuel is discharged through fuel nozzle
provides a nearly constant level of fuel to the main discharge regardless of altitude, the less dense air at altitude results
nozzle which is usually about 1/8" below the holes in the in a rich mixture being delivered to the engine at higher
main discharge nozzle. The fuel level must be maintained altitudes. It is the function of the altitude mixture control to
slightly below the discharge nozzle outlet holes to provide reduce the richness of the fuel/air charge entering the engine
the correct amount of fuel flow and to prevent leakage from at altitude. This provides the correct amount of fuel for air of
the nozzle when the engine is not operating. varying densities.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 10-11] [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 12-13]

Air bleed into the main metering fuel system decreases the The action of the venturi draws the same volume of fuel
fuel density and destroys surface tension. This results in through the discharge nozzle at high altitudes as it does at
better vaporization and control of fuel discharge, especially low altitudes. Therefore, the fuel mixture becomes richer
at lower engine speeds. See Figure 2-13 in FAA-H-8083-32- as altitude increases due to the low air density. This can
ATB and associated description in paragraph of same page. be overcome by either a manual or an automatic mixture
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 12] control.

QUESTIONS
2-17 AMP037 2-20 AMP051

Mixture control systems in float type carburetors On an engine equipped with a pressure type carburetor, fuel
A. use a needle or back-suction type arrangement. supply in the idling range is ensured by the inclusion in the
B. are directly connected to the throttle lever. carburetor of
C. are independent of the idle system. A. a spring in the unmetered fuel chamber to supplement
the action of the normal metering forces.
B. an idle metering jet that bypasses the carburetor in the
idle range.
C. a separate boost venturi that is sensitive to the reduced
airflow at start and idle speeds.
2-18 AMP037 2-21 AMP042

Float-type carburetors which are equipped with economizers On a pressure injection carburetor, what will happen if the
are normally set for vapor vent float losses its buoyancy and sinks deeper in
A. their richest mixture delivery and leaned by means of its chamber?
the economizer system. A. The amount of fuel returning to the fuel tank from the
B. the economizer system to supplement the main system carburetor will be increased.
supply at all engine speeds above idling. B. The engine will continue to run after the mixture control
C. their leanest practical mixture delivery at cruising is placed in IDLE CUTOFF.
speeds and enriched by means of the economizer C. A rich mixture will occur at all engine speeds.
system at high power settings.
2-19 AMP051 2-22 AMP051

In a pressure injection carburetor, there is no float chamber. What is the relationship between the accelerating pump and
Fuel to the discharge nozzle is controlled by a diaphragm the enrichment valve in a pressure injection carburetor?
that uses a comparison of A. No relationship since they operate independently.
A. venturi air pressure and throttle body air pressure. B. Unmetered fuel pressure affects both units.
B. fuel pump pressure and venturi air pressure. C. The accelerating pump actuates the enrichment valve.
C. venturi air pressure and carburetor inlet air pressure.

ANSWERS

On float-type carburetors, two types of purely manual or Under low power settings (low airflows), the difference in
cockpit controllable devices are in general use for controlling pressure created by the boost venturi is not sufficient to
fuel air mixtures. They are the needle-type and the back- accomplish consistent regulation of the fuel. Therefore,
suction type. Both types are operated in the cockpit by an idle spring is incorporated in the regulator unit. As the
an independent mixture control lever. On the needle type, poppet valve moves toward the closed position, it contacts
pulling the lever full aft into the idle cutoff position seats the idle spring. The spring holds the poppet valve off its seat
a needle in the float chamber and all fuel is cut off. On far enough to supply more fuel than is needed for idling. This
the back-suction type, the idle cutoff position of the lever potentially over rich mixture is regulated by the idle valve.
connects the air in the float chamber to the extreme low At idling speeds, the idle valve restricts the fuel flow to the
pressure of the piston suction side of the throttle valve which proper amount. At higher speeds, it is withdrawn from the
causes fuel flow to stop. fuel passage and has no metering effect.

For an engine to develop maximum power at full throttle, the If the vapor vent valve sticks open or the vapor vent float
fuel mixture must be richer than for cruise. An economizer becomes filled with fuel and sinks, a continuous flow of fuel
is essentially a valve that is closed at throttle settings below and vapor occurs through the vent line. It is important to
approximately 60 - 70 percent of rated power. This system detect this condition, as the fuel flow from the carburetor to
is operated by the throttle control. At cruise speed, the the fuel tank may cause an overflowing tank with resultant
economizer valve is closed. Through linkages, as the throttle increased fuel consumption.
is advanced, the valve opens and supplies more fuel at [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 17]
higher power settings.

In a pressure injected carburetor, venturi air pressure is The power enrichment valve in a pressure injected carburetor
used on one side of a diaphragm in the pressure regulator is completely independent of the acceleration pump. The
unit. This venturi pressure drop is compared to air pressure power enrichment valve is the poppet-type which begins to
at the carburetor inlet which is ported to the other side open at the beginning of the power range. It is opened by the
of the diaphragm. As the throttle valve is opened, the unmetered fuel pressure overcoming metered fuel pressure
corresponding pressure drop through the venturi as the and spring tension. The power enrichment valve continues to
volume of air increases causes the diaphragm move. It open wider during the power range until the combined flow
is connected to a valve that controls the amount of fuel through the valve and auto-rich jet exceeds that of the power
supplied to the discharge nozzle from the fuel pump. Thus, enrichment jet. At this point, the power enrichment jet takes
the difference in pressure proportional to the airflow through over and meters fuel throughout the power range. This action
the carburetor is met with the proper fuel flow. occurs in the fuel control unit and is independent of any
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 16] accelerating pump.

QUESTIONS
2-23 AMP051 2-26 AMP041

The function of the automatic mixture control on a pressure The primary purpose of the air bleed openings used with
injection carburetor is continuous flow fuel injector nozzles is to
A. to increase the amount of fuel delivered to the A. provide for automatic mixture control.
discharge nozzle at high power settings. B. lean out the mixture.
B. to compensate for changes in air density due to C. aid in proper fuel vaporization.
temperature and altitude changes.
C. to provide the correct fuel/air ratio during idle and slow
engine speeds.
2-24 AMP051 2-27 AMP042

Which of the following causes a single diaphragm An aircraft engine continuous cylinder fuel injection system
acceleration pump to discharge fuel? normally discharged fuel during which strokes?
A. An increase in venturi suction when the throttle is open. A. Intake
B. An increase in manifold pressure that occurs when the B. Intake and Compression
throttle is open. C. All (Continuously)
C. A decrease in manifold pressure that occurs when the
throttle is opened.
2-25 AMP041 2-28 AMP041

The purpose of the fuel metering section of the Bendix/ A fuel discharge nozzle on a fuel injected reciprocating
Percision fuel injection system is to engine is marked with the code 312B. What, in part, does
A. regulate the flow of fuel into the airflow section. this number mean?
B. meter and control the fuel flow to the flow divider. A. The cylinder for which this nozzle is designated.
C. return excess fuel to the tank. B. The manufacturer’s part number.
C. The date of its next required service.

ANSWERS

The purpose of the automatic mixture control is to The fuel discharge nozzles are of the air bleed configuration.
compensate for changes in air density due to temperature Each nozzle incorporates a calibrated jet. The fuel is
and altitude changes. The automatic mixture control unit discharged through this jet into an ambient air pressure
consists of a bellows assembly, calibrated needle, and chamber within the nozzle assembly. Before entering the
seat located at the carburetor inlet. The expansion and individual intake valve chambers, the fuel is mixed with air to
contraction of the bellows in response to pressure changes aid in the atomizing of the fuel.
moves the tapered needle in the atmospheric line which [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 24]
controls pressure in the "A" chamber of the pressure
regulator and the small bleed holes in the diaphragm therein.
The result is that fuel mixture is automatically adjust as
the aircraft experiences pressure changes associated with
altitude and/or temperature changes.

A single diaphragm accelerator pump such as one in a The continuous fuel injection system injects fuel into the
Stromberg PS carburetor, is a spring loaded diaphragm intake valve port in each cylinder head. The fuel system
assembly located in the metered fuel channel. The opposite consists of a fuel injector pump, a control unit, a fuel
side of the diaphragm is vented to the engine side of the manifold, and a fuel discharge nozzle. It is a continuous-
throttle valve. With this arrangement, opening the throttle flow type which controls fuel flow to match engine airflow.
results in a rapid decrease in suction (increase in manifold This permits the use of a rotary vane pump which does not
pressure). This permits the spring to extend and move the require timing to the engine.
acceleration pump diaphragm which displaces the fuel in the [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 25]
acceleration pump and forces it into the discharge nozzle.

The fuel metering section is attached to the air metering This first digit of the code 312B (#3) which is stamped on the
section and contains an inlet fuel strainer, a manual mixture hex shape of the nozzle body indicates which cylinder this
control valve, an idle valve and the main metering jet. The nozzle is for. The next group of two numbers (12) indicate
purpose of the fuel metering section is to meter and control the nozzles size. The final letter (B) indicates the range
fuel flow to the flow divider where it is kept under pressure of calibration.
and divided for delivery to the various cylinders at all [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 28-29]
engine speeds.

QUESTIONS
2-29 AMP023 2-32 AMP068

Prior to checking the idle mixture setting on a carbureted It is necessary to control acceleration and deceleration rates
piston engine, the propeller control should be placed in turbine engines in order to
A. in its increased RPM setting. A. prevent blowout or die-out.
B. in its decreased RPM setting. B. prevent over-temperature.
C. in its normal taxi speed setting. C. prevent friction between turbine wheels and the case
due to expansion and contraction.
2-30 AMP023 2-33 AMP043

When a new carburetor is installed on an engine, Which type of fuel control is used on most of today’s
A. warm up the engine and adjust the float level. turbine engines?
B. do not adjust the idle mixture setting; this was A. Electromechanical
accomplished on the flow bench. B. Mechanical
C. and the engine is warmed up to normal operating C. Hydromechanical or Electronic
temperature, adjust the idle mixture and then the
idle speed.
2-31 AMP014 2-34 AMP071

Fuel system inspection and maintenance Which of the following influences the operation of an
A. does not include operation of the boost pumps to automatic fuel control on a turbojet engine?
prevent flooding of the carburetor. A. Burner Pressure
B. includes the complete system except for the fuel tanks B. Mixture Control Position
which are considered airframe components. C. Exhaust Gas Temperature
C. consists of an examination of the system for conformity
to design requirements and functional tests to prove
correct operation.

ANSWERS

Before checking the idle mixture on any engine, the propeller If the quantity of fuel becomes excessive in relation to mass
should be placed in its lowest thrust fine pitch position, thus airflow through the engine, it could produce compressor
yielding idle power, with no additional load on the engine. stall and a condition referred to as rich blowout. If there is
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 31] not enough fuel for the mass airflow, a lean flame-out or
die-out can occur. Thus, a balanced amount of fuel and air
must occur in the engine for combustion to be sustained.
Rapid acceleration of deceleration are instances where fuel
adjustments must be made by the fuel control to match the
extreme airflow changes to prevent blowout or die-out.

Before checking the idle mixture on any engine, warm up the There are 3 basic types of fuel controls used on turbine
engine until oil and cylinder head temperatures are normal. engines: Hydromechanical, Hydromechanical/Electronic,
The idle mixture adjustment is made on the idle mixture fuel and Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC).
control valve. It should not be confused with the adjustment Hydromechanical controls are the original type of fuel
of the idle speed. Excessively rich idle mixture results in control. An improvement over the standard Hydromechanical
incomplete combustion and spark plug fouling. Excessively fuel control occurred when electronic sensing was added.
lean idle mixture results in faulty acceleration. After adjusting FADEC fuel controls are a further improvement with
idle mixture, reset the idle stop to the idle RPM specified in electronic inputs and outputs governing the system. So,
the aircraft maintenance manual. regardless of how advanced the turbine engine fuel control
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 31] in question, it will be Hydromechanical, Electronic, or a
combination of both.

The inspection of a fuel system installation consists basically Regardless of the type, all fuel controls schedule the fuel flow
of an examination of the system for conformity to design to match the power required by the pilot. Some sense more
requirements together with functional tests to prove correct engine variables than others. Fuel controls can sense many
operation. It is important that the manufacturer’s instructions different inputs, such as power lever position, engine RPM
for the aircraft concerned be followed when performing for each spool, compressor inlet pressure and temperature,
inspection and maintenance functions. Boost pumps and burner pressure, compressor discharge pressure and more.
fuel tanks are part of the aircraft fuel system and should be There is no mixture control selector in the cockpit of aircraft
fully inspected and tested for operation when performing powered by turbine engines as the fuel control automatically
system inspection and maintenance. schedules the correct fuel flow given input parameters.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 32] Exhaust gas temperature is monitored on most turbine
engines but more as feedback to ensure proper operation
than as an input for fuel scheduling.

QUESTIONS
2-35 AMP041 2-38 AMP041

In a supervisory electronic engine control EEC, any fault in A significant pilot controlled input into the EFCU for
the EEC that adversely affects engine operation controlling fuel metering is the
A. causes redundant back-up systems to take over and A. power lever angle through a pedestal mounted
continue normal operation. potentiometer.
B. usually degrades performance to the extent that B. indicated airspeed control interconnect.
continued operation can cause damage to the engine. C. fuel/air sensor throughput.
C. causes an immediate reversion to control by the
hydromechanical fuel control unit.
2-36 AMP041 2-39 AMP068

Within a hydromechanical fuel control system on a turbine An Electronic Engine Control (EEC) in a Full Authority Digital
engine, what pressure is measured by the EFCU to ultimately Engine Control (FADEC) aircraft
determine the quantity of fuel to be sent to the engine? A. requires a second computer as back-up should
A. Compressor Inlet Pressure the EEC fail.
B. Compressor Discharge Pressure B. relies on crosstalk between channels for the best
C. Fuel Pump Outlet Pressure engine control output.
C. eliminates the need for a fuel metering unit.
2-37 AMP041 2-40 AMP068

A Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC) After control signals are sent from the Electronic Engine
A. uses the hydromechanical fuel control as a back-up. Control (EEC) to regulate fuel flow to the engine,
B. combines electronic inputs with mechanical input for A. feedback from several systems in the engine is sent
full control of fuel delivery. back to the EEC.
C. has no hydromechanical fuel control back-up. B. the fuel pump output is increased or decreased
as instructed.
C. rotary differential transformers position the metering
devices as directed.

ANSWERS

A supervisory EEC uses electronic control to adjust fuel flow Much of the operation of the EFCU is automatic guided by
through a hydromechanical fuel control unit. It uses numerous parameters automatically sensed and input into the EFCU.
inputs of engine parameters to issue commands. An EEC can The pilot does need to request a power setting which is
be thought of as the computer which calculates the correct accomplished by positioning the throttle lever on the flight
fuel metering for the engine and then issues outputs for the deck. The Power Lever Angle (PLA) is converted to an
Hydromechanical fuel control to follow. If the EEC fails, the electronic input by a potentiometer mounted in the throttle
hydromechanical portion of the fuel control will take over. quadrant. The transmitted signal to the EFCU represents
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 35] engine thrust demand in relation to the throttle position.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 36-38,
Figure 2-51]

Fuel is supplied to the fuel control through a 200‑micron The EEC is a two channel computer that controls every
inlet filter screen and is metered to the engine by the aspect of engine operation. Each channel, which is an
servo-operated metering valve. It is a fuel flow/compressor independent computer, can completely control the operation
discharge pressure (Wf/P3) ratio device that positions the of the engine. The processor(s) do all of the control
metering valve in response to engine compressor discharge calculations and supply all the data for the control signals
pressure (P3). Fuel pressure differential across the servo to torque motors and solenoids. Cross-talk logic compares
valve is maintained by a servo-operated bypass valve in data from channels A and B and uses the cross-talk to
response to commands from the EFCU. find which EEC channel is best to control the output driver
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 36] for a torque motor or solenoid bank. The EEC controls the
metering valve in the FMU (fuel metering unit) to supply fuel
flow for combustion.

A Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC) controls The EEC controls the metering valve in the fuel metering unit
fuel flow on most new turbine engine models. A true FADEC to supply fuel flow for combustion. The EEC also sends a
system has no hydromechanical fuel control back-up. The signal to the minimum pressure and shutoff valve in the fuel
system uses electronic sensors that feed engine parameter metering unit to start or stop fuel flow. The EEC receives
information into the Electronic Engine Control unit. The position feedback for several engine components by using
EEC is a computer that gathers the needed information to rotary differential transformers and linear variable differential
determine fuel flow. The fuel metering valve simply reacts to transformers. It also receives thermocouple signal inputs.
the commands from the EEC. These sensors feed engine parameters information from
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 37] several sources back to the EEC.

QUESTIONS
2-41 AMP068 2-43 AMP069

On a FADEC system aircraft, the EEC (Figure 2-56) Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to
A. manages only engine parameters and fuel flow. A. turn all accessory bleed air off.
B. lacks the mechanical outputs to control the variable B. turn all accessory bleed air on.
stator vanes. C. make adjustments (as necessary) for all engines on
C. controls many engine subsystems as well as the FMU. the same aircraft with accessory bleed air settings the
same – either on or off.
2-42 AMP033 2-44 AMP043

When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to The main engine-driven fuel pump on a turbine engine
A. produce as much power as the engine is capable A. is a variable displacement pump.
of producing. B. produces adequate capacity at all operating conditions
B. set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR. and has excess capacity over most of the range
C. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without of operation.
regard to power output. C. is a single stage pump.
PROG PLUG
FOC bypass
valve
FMU 2.5 bleed TAC
valve valve
ENG AOC
valve
PMA VSV TCC valves
IDG AOC
valve
Sensors 2.9 bleed NAC zone

valve vent valve
BU GEN
AOC valve
Figure 2-56. Systems controlled by EEC.

ANSWERS

The EEC uses a torque motor driver to control the position After the engine has started and run until stabilized, a check
of the metering valve in the fuel metering unit. The EEC uses should be made to ensure that the compressor air bleed
solenoid drivers to control the other functions of the FMU. valves have fully closed. All accessory drive air bleed for
The EEC also controls several other subsystems of the which the trim curve has not been corrected must be turned
engine through torque motors and solenoids as shown in off. Then, a comparison can be made of the observed and
Figure 2-56. Some of these subsystems are: fuel and air oil computed turbine discharge pressure Pt7 (or EPR) to trim as
coolers, bleed valves, variable stator vanes, turbine cooling necessary. The engine fuel control is then adjusted to obtain
air valves, and the turbine case cooling system. the target turbine discharge pressure Pt7 or EPR.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 40-42, Figure [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 42]
2-56]

During engine trimming, the fuel control is checked for idle Main fuel pumps deliver a continuous supply of fuel at the
RPM, maximum RPM, acceleration and deceleration. In proper pressure and at all times during operation of the
general, the procedure consists of obtaining the ambient air aircraft engine. They are positive displacement pumps so,
temperature and the field barometric pressure immediately often, when fuel requirements are low during a flight segment,
preceding the trimming of the engine. Using these readings, a pressure relief valve bypasses excess fuel back to the
the desired turbine discharge pressure or EPR reading, pump inlet. A centrifugal, variable displacement pump often
computed from charts published in the maintenance manual, discharges into the inlet of the positive-displacement second
should be attained. stage pump which produces the pump outlet fuel flow.
PROG PLUG
FOC bypass
valve
FMU 2.5 bleed TAC
valve valve
ENG AOC
valve
PMA VSV TCC valves
IDG AOC
valve
Sensors 2.9 bleed NAC zone

valve vent valve
BU GEN
AOC valve
Figure 2-56. Systems controlled by EEC.

QUESTIONS
2-45 AMP041 2-48 AMP041

The temperature of turbine engine fuel is often kept above 32˚F What is the purpose of a dump valve as used with fuel on a
A. by fuel heaters located in the wing and main gas turbine engine?
fuselage tanks. A. It cuts off the fuel flow to the engine fuel manifold and
B. to ensure rapid combustion in the engine. dumps the manifold fuel into the combustor to burn just
C. so that ice crystals do not form in the filter and block before the engine shuts down.
fuel flow. B. It drains the engine manifold lines to prevent fuel boiling
and subsequent deposits in the lines as a result of
residual engine heat (at engine shutdown).
C. It dumps extra fuel into the engine in order to
provide for quick acceleration during rapid
throttle advancement.
2-46 AMP042 2-49 AMP040

Hot spots can burn a hole in the combustion section liner on Which of the following types of heat exchangers is used
a turbine engine. This is caused by to regulate the fuel temperature?
A. a misaligned fuel nozzle resulting in a flame that is not A. The bleed air type is called an air-to-liquid exchanger
centered in the flame area. and the oil type is known as a liquid-to-liquid
B. insufficient fuel flow to the fuel nozzles. heat exchanger.
C. excessive fuel flow to the fuel nozzle which cannot be B. The bleed air type is called an air-to-air exchanger
fully combusted. and the oil type is known as a liquid-to-liquid
heat exchanger.
C. The bleed air type is called an air-to-liquid
exchanger and the oil type is known as a liquid-to-air
heat exchanger.
2-47 AMP041
What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine
duplex fuel nozzle system?
A. Allows an alternative flow of fuel if the primary flow
clogs or is restricted.
B. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.
C. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the
atomization of fuel.

ANSWERS

Gas turbine engine fuel systems are every susceptible to the Drain valves are units used for draining fuel from the various
formation of ice in the fuel filters. When fuel inside the aircraft components of the engine where accumulated fuel is most
fuel tanks cools to 32˚F or below, residual water in the fuel likely to present operating problems. The possibility of
tends to freeze, forming ice crystals. These ice crystals combustion chamber accumulations with the resultant fire
can become trapped in the fuel filter and block fuel flow to hazard is one problem. A residual problem is the deposit of
the engine. lead and/or gum, after evaporation, in such places as fuel
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 43] manifolds and nozzles. In some instances, fuel manifolds are
drained by an individual unit known as a drip or dump valve.
This type of valve may be operated by pressure differential or
it may be solenoid operated.

The fuel nozzles inject fuel into the combustion area in a One method of regulating fuel temperature is to use a fuel
highly atomized, precisely patterned spray so that burning heater which operates as a heat exchanger to warm the fuel.
is completely even, in the shortest possible time, and in the The heater can use engine bleed air or engine lubricating oil
smallest possible space. It is very important that the fuel as a source of heat. The bleed air type is called an air-to-
be evenly distributed and well centered in the flame area liquid exchanger and the oil type is known as a liquid-to-
within the liners. This is to preclude the formation of any hot liquid heat exchanger.
spots in the combustion chambers and to prevent the flame [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 43]
burning through the liner.
2-47 Answer B.
Fuel nozzle types vary considerably between engines,
although for the most part, fuel is sprayed into the
combustion area under pressure through small orifices in
the nozzles. The two types of fuel nozzles generally used are
the simplex and the duplex configuration. The duplex nozzle
usually requires a dual manifold and a pressurizing valve
or a flow divider for dividing primary and secondary (main)
fuel flow. A flow divider creates primary and secondary fuel
supplies that are discharged through separate manifolds,
providing two separate fuel flows.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
Applicants for powerplant certification are required to answer oral examination questions before, after, or in conjunction
2-1(O). Name two maintenance or inspection tasks performed during routine fuel system inspection and maintenance.
2-2(O). What checks of a fuel system can be made to verify proper operation?
2-3(O). What is the function and operation of a fuel boost (booster) pump?
2-4(O). What is the function of a fuel selector valve?
2-5(O). What is done to inspect an engine driven pump for leaks and security?
2-6(O). What is the function and operation of engine fuel filters on a turbine engine fuel system?
2-7(O). What is vapor lock and how can it be avoided or remedied?
2-8(O). What is a possible reason for fuel running out of a carburetor throttle body?
2-9(O). What are some indications that the mixture is improperly adjusted?
2-10(O). What is the procedure for checking idle mixture adjustment on a reciprocating engine?
2-11(O). What are possible causes of poor engine acceleration, engine backfiring or missing when the throttle
is advanced?
2-12(O). What are three types of fuel metering systems used on reciprocating engine and how do they operate?
2-13(O). Name the fuel metering system components in a float type carburetor.
2-14(O). What is the purpose of the part power stop on some engines when accomplishing engine trim procedure?
2-15(O). Explain the operation of a fuel flow indicating system and where it is connected into the engine.
2-16(O). What is the operation of a manifold pressure gauge?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
2-1(O). Drain sumps, change or clean filters, check linkages for smooth stop-to-stop operation, check fuel lines for
cracks and hoses for deterioration, leak check, check pump operation and motor brush wear, check selector
valve for wear, check fuel tanks for corrosion and leaks, check fuel quantity and pressure gauges for proper
operation, check vents for obstruction, check function of warning system.
2-2(O). A fuel system should have no external leaks. Make sure all units are securely attached. Drain plugs and
valves should be opened to clear any water or sediment. The same is true for the filter, screen, and sump.
Filter screens and auxiliary pumps must be clean and free from corrosion. Fuel system controls should move
freely, lock securely, and should not rub or chafe. Fuel vents must be in the correct position and free from
obstruction. Overall engine performance checks give insight into proper fuel system operation. If engine input
(manifold pressure) results in the correct power output (engine RPM), the engine performance is acceptable
and it is likely the fuel system is operating properly. Check all fuel system related gauges for indications of
fuel system operation. Carburetor air temperature, fuel flow, fuel pressure, and cylinder head temperature
indications can all indicate potential fuel system problems. An idle mixture check can also be performed.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 31-32, Chapter 10 Page 22-24, Chapter 10 Page 39]
2-3(O). A fuel boost pump is designed to provide positive fuel pressure to the engine fuel system. The boost pump
forces fuel through the selector valve to the main line strainer. During starting, the boost pump forces fuel
through a bypass in the engine-driven fuel pump to the carburetor or fuel injection system. Once the engine
driven pump is up to speed, it takes over and delivers the fuel to the metering device.
2-4(O). A fuel selector valve is controlled on the flight deck to select the tank from which tank fuel will be delivered to
the engine.
2-5(O). If booster pumps are installed, they should be energized to check the fuel system for leaks. (During this check,
an ammeter can be used to insure all boost pumps pull roughly the same amperage.) The drain lines of the
engine drive pump should be free of traps, bends, or restrictions. Check for leaks and the security of the
engine driven pump mounting bolts. Check the vent and drain lines for obstructions.
2-6(O). The function of the engine fuel filters is to remove micronic particles that may be in the fuel so they do not
damage the fuel pump or the fuel control unit. Typically, a low-pressure filter is installed between the supply
tanks and the engine fuel system. An additional high-pressure fuel filter is installed between the fuel pump and
the fuel control. Three kinds of filters are used: micron, wafer screen, and screen mesh. The micron has the
smallest particle filtering capability. It requires a bypass valve because it could be easily clogged. Many filters
have a bypass indicator. Periodic servicing and replacement of filter elements is imperative. Daily draining of
fuel tank sumps and low pressure filters eliminates much filter trouble and undue maintenance of fuel pumps
and fuel control units.
2-7(O). Fuel should be in the liquid state until it is discharged in the intake air stream for combustion. Under certain
conditions, the fuel may vaporize in the lines, pumps, or other units. The vapor pockets formed restrict fuel
flow through the units to the fuel-metering device. The partial or complete interruption of fuel flow is called
vapor lock. The three general causes of vapor lock are low pressure on the fuel, high fuel temperatures, and
excessive fuel turbulence. Fuel systems are designed to avoid vapor lock. The most significant remedy for
vapor lock is the use of boost pumps which pump the fuel from the storage tank to the metering devise under
pressure so it cannot vaporize prematurely.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
2-8(O). The float level and fuel level in the float chamber of the carburetor must be below the level of the discharge
nozzle or fuel will leak from the nozzle when the engine is not operating.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 7, 10-11]
2-9(O). Carbon deposits on the spark plugs and spark plug fouling are signs that the idle mixture is not properly set.
Also, faulty acceleration may be an indication of an excessively lean mixture.
2-10(O). To check the idle mixture on a warmed up engine, move the mixture control slowly toward the idle cutoff
position. Observe the tachometer for a slight RPM rise (10 – 50 RPM) before the engine cuts out. If this does
not occur, adjust the idle mixture until it does.
2-11(O). A lean mixture is the most like likely cause. A cracked distributor block or high-tension leak between two
ignition leads can also cause these symptoms and backfiring.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 31, Chapter 10 Page 37-39]
2-12(O). Float-type carburetors, pressure carburetors, and fuel injection systems are all used on reciprocating aircraft
engines. A float type carburetor uses the volume of air moving through a venturi to cause a suction that meters
the fuel. A pressure carburetor uses a closed, pressurized fuel system. The venturi serves only to create
pressure differentials that control the quantity of fuel to the metering jet in proportion to the airflow to the
engine. The fuel is discharged under positive pressure. A fuel injection system is a continuous flow system that
measures engine air consumption and uses airflow forces to control the fuel flow to the engine. Fuel is injected
into the airstream on a float type carburetor just before the throttle valve, just after the throttle valve on a
pressure carburetor and directly into the cylinder head on a fuel injection system.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 10-15, 22]
2-13(O). The main metering system components include the throttle, the venturi, the discharge nozzle, and the float
and float valve in the float chamber. The idling system components include the idling jet and the idle mixture
adjustment. The mixture control system includes either a needle valve or a back-suction line, the acceleration
system including a piston/pump and the economizer system including the economizer needle valve.
2-14(O). The engine is operated at full power or at the part power control trim stop for a sufficient amount of time to
ensure it has completely stabilized. This is usually at least 5 minutes. Follow all manufacturer’s instructions.
2-15(O). A fuel pressure gauge, calibrated in pounds per hour fuel flow, is used as a fuel flow meter with the Bendix/
RSA fuel injection system for reciprocating aircraft engines. This gauge is connected to the flow divider and
senses the pressure being applied to the discharge nozzles. This pressure is in direct proportion to the fuel
flow and indicates engine power output and fuel consumption.
2-16(O). The manifold pressure gauge indicates the pressure in the induction system of a reciprocating aircraft engine.
The pressure is measured in the intake manifold downstream of the throttle valve. It is displayed on the flight
deck in inches of mercury (Hg) and is directly proportional to the power output of the engine.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 02 Page 1, Chapter 10 Page 39]

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
2-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, complete an operational check of a fuel selector valve and record
your findings. [Level 3]
2-2(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect an engine fuel filter assembly for leaks and record your
findings. [Level 3]
2-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect a repair to an engine fuel system and record your findings.
[Level 3]
2-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, complete an operational check of a fuel boost pump and record
2-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, repair a fuel selector valve
and record maintenance. [Level 3]
2-6(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect a main fuel filter assembly for leaks and record your
findings. [Level 3]
2-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, complete an operational check of a remotely located fuel valve and
2-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, locate and identify a turbine engine fuel heater. [Level 2]
2-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment, and materials service an
engine fuel strainer and record maintenance. [Level 3]
2-10(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect an engine driven fuel pump for leaks and security and
2-11(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup and appropriate publication, complete an operational check of the
engine fuel pressure and record your findings. [Level 3]
2-12(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling repair an engine
fuel system. [Level 3]
2-13(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling repair an engine
fuel system component. [Level 3]
2-14(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, appropriate testing equipment, if necessary
and an unknown discrepancy, troubleshoot a fuel pressure system and record your findings. [Level 3]
2-15(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling remove and install
the accelerating pump in a float-type carburetor and record maintenance. [Level 3]
2-16(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling remove and install
the accelerating pump in a float-type carburetor and record maintenance. [Level 3]
2-17(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling check and adjust
the float level of a float-type carburetor and record maintenance. [Level 3]

TITLE
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
2-18(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling check the needle
and seat in a float-type carburetor for proper operation and record your findings. [Level 2]
2-19(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling check a fuel
injection nozzle for proper spray pattern and record your findings. [Level 2]
2-20(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling install a fuel
injector nozzle and record maintenance. [Level 3]
2-21(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling check and adjust
the idle mixture and record maintenance. [Level 3]
2-22(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment and tooling install a turbine
engine fuel nozzle and record maintenance. [Level 3]
2-23(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, locate and identify various fuel metering system components.
[Level 2]
2-24(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment, and tooling service a
carburetor fuel screen and record maintenance. [Level 3]

INDUCTION AND EXHAUST SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Carburetor Induction Systems, Turbine Engine Inlet Systems,
Reciprocating Engine Exhaust Systems, and Exhaust Vectoring
03
QUESTIONS
3-1 AMP022 3-4 AMP022

Where on a reciprocating engine is manifold The action of a carburetor air scoop is to supply air to the
pressure measured? carburetor, but it may also
A. As the air/fuel mixture flows past the throttle plate. A. cool the engine.
B. As the airflow mixture enters one or more cylinders. B. keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock.
C. At a pre-calibrated point within a manifold tube. C. increase the pressure of the incoming air by ram effect.
3-2 AMP021 3-5 AMP021

One source commonly used for carburetor air heat is During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it will
A. turbocharger heated air. A. increase air to fuel ratio.
B. alternate air heat. B. increase engine RPM.
C. warm ducted air from around the exhaust system. C. decrease air density to the carburetor.
3-3 AMP022 3-6 AMP021

On an airplane equipped with an alternate air door in the The use of carburetor heat when it is not needed causes
carburetor air box, when the main air duct air filter becomes A. a very lean mixture.
blocked or clogged, the B. excessive increase in manifold pressure.
A. system will automatically allow warm, unfiltered air C. a decrease in power and possible detonation.
to be drawn into the engine through a spring loaded
alternate air valve.
B. the carburetor heat door will automatically open to
supply the engine.
C. alternate air must be selected in the cockpit to continue
induction into the engine.

INDUCTION AND EXHAUST SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

Filtered air enters the fuel metering device (carburetor or fuel The carburetor air filter is installed in the air scoop in front
injector) where the throttle plate controls the amount of air of the carburetor air duct. The air duct provides passage for
flowing into the engine. The air coming out of the throttle is outside air to the carburetor. Air enters the duct through the
referred to as manifold pressure which is the primary control scoop. The intake opening is located in the slipstream so air
of engine output power. is forced into the induction system giving ram air effect to the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 1] incoming airflow (raises pressure).

The carburetor heat valve admits air from the outside air Improper or careless use of carburetor heat can be just as
scoop for normal operation and it admits warm air from the dangerous as the most advanced stage of induction system
engine compartment for operation during icing conditions. ice. Increasing the temperature of the air causes it to expand
The carburetor heat is operated by a push‑pull control in the and decrease in density. This action reduces the weight of
cockpit. When selected, warm ducted air from around the the charge delivered to the cylinder and causes a noticeable
exhaust system is directed into the carburetor. This raises loss in power because of decreased volumetric efficiency.
the intake air temperature. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 4]

On a basic carburetor induction system found on a light Improper or careless use of carburetor heat can be just as
aircraft with reciprocating engine, an induction air box allows dangerous as the most advanced stage of induction system
air to be drawn from a scoop mounted in the nose cowling ice. Increasing the temperature of the air causes it to expand
or, when selected, from inside the cowling for the purpose and decrease in density. This action reduces the weight of
of warming the carburetor by ducting air past the exhaust the charge delivered to the cylinder and causes a noticeable
system. However, an alternate air door can be opened loss in power because of decreased volumetric efficiency.
by engine suction if the normal route of airflow should be Also, high intake air temperature may cause detonation as
blocked by something. The valve is spring loaded closed and cylinder head temperature increases and engine failure is
is sucked open by the engine if needed. possible especially during takeoff and high power operation.

QUESTIONS
3-7 AMP021 3-10 AMP070

When starting a piston engine equipped with a carburetor What concern is common among all internally driven
air heater, in what position should the carburetor heat reciprocating supercharger systems
control be placed? A. overheated fuel air mixture.
A. Always in its hot position. B. difficulty of cooling the supercharger mechanism.
B. Always in its cold position. C. difficulty of inspection and maintenance.
C. Adjusted for ambient temperature and humidity.
3-8 AMP062 3-11 AMP070

Ground boosted engine manifold pressure is generally What directly regulates the speed of a turbocharger?
considered to be any manifold pressure above A. Turbine
A. 14.7 inches Hg. B. Waste Gate
B. 50 inches Hg. C. Throttle
C. 30 inches Hg.
3-9 AMP070 3-12 AMP070

What is used to drive a supercharger? If the turbocharger waste gate is completely closed,
A. Exhaust gasses. A. none of the exhaust gases are directed through
B. Gear train from the crankshaft. the turbine.
C. Belt drive through a pulley arrangement. B. the turbocharger is in the OFF position.
C. all the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine.

ANSWERS

When there is no danger of icing, the carburetor heat control An internally mounted supercharger system compresses the
is normally kept in the COLD position. To prevent damage air at a point in between the carburetor and intake ports. This
to the heater valve in the case of backfire, carburetor heat compression causes the air to be heated resulting in lost
should not be used while starting the engine. Also during efficiency and detonation. An externally driven supercharger
ground operation, only enough carburetor heat should be (turbocharger) compresses air before entering the carburetor,
used to give smooth engine performance. giving more time and distance for it to cool.

A true supercharged engine, called a ground boosted engine, The turbine wheel, driven by exhaust gasses, drives the
can boost the manifold pressure above 30 inches Hg. In compressor impeller. The turbocharger housing collects and
other words, a true supercharger boosts manifold pressure directs the exhaust gases onto the turbine wheel. The waste
above ambient pressure which is 29.92 inches Hg. So in gate regulates the amount of exhaust gases directed to
general, boost manifold pressure or "boost pressure" when the turbine. As such, it regulates the speed of the rotor (the
discussing manifold pressure is manifold pressure above turbine and impeller on the common shaft). By regulating the
30 inches Hg. speed of the turbocharger rotor, the amount of compression
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 6] applied to the engine induction air is controlled.

A fuel distribution impeller is connected directly to the If the waste gate is completely closed, all the exhaust gases
crankshaft to aid in even fuel distribution. Since it operates are "backed up" and forced through the turbine wheel. If the
at the same speed as the crankshaft, this is accomplished waste gate is partially closed, a corresponding amount of
without materially increasing boost or increasing the exhaust gas is directed to the turbine. When the waste gate
pressure on the fuel/air mixture flowing into the cylinders. is fully open, nearly all of the exhaust gases pass overboard
A supercharger, or blower impeller, is designed to increase providing little or no boost.
the pressure on the charge delivered to the cylinders. It is [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 10]
driven through a gear train from the crankshaft so that it can
rotate at a higher speed than the crankshaft to compress
the charge.

QUESTIONS
3-13 AMP070 3-16 AMP070

What is the purpose of a normalized turbocharger system What is the purpose of the density controller in a
used on a small reciprocating aircraft engine? turbocharger system?
A. Compresses the air to hold the cabin pressure constant A. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
after the aircraft has reached its critical altitude. produced at other than full throttle conditions.
B. Maintains constant air velocity in the intake manifold. B. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
C. Compresses air to maintain manifold pressure constant produced at full throttle.
from sea level to the critical altitude of the engine. C. Maintains constant air velocity at the carburetor inlet.
3-14 AMP070 3-17 AMP070

What are the three basic regulating components of a What is the purpose of an after‑cooler on a turbocharged
sea level boosted turbocharger system? reciprocating engine?
1. Exhaust Bypass Assembly A. To cool the exhaust gases before entering
2. Compressor Assembly the turbodrive.
3. Pump And Bearing Casing B. To cool the turbocharger bearings.
4. Density Controller C. To cool turbocharged air entering the induction system.
5. Differential Pressure Controller
A. 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 4, and 5
C. 1, 2, and 3
3-15 AMP070 3-18 AMP068

To what altitude will a turbocharger maintain sea The purpose of the engine inlet on a turbine engine is to
level pressure? A. provide a well-mixed volume of air to the inlet of
A. Critical Altitude the compressor.
B. Service Ceiling B. provide a uniform and steady airflow to avoid
C. Pressure Altitude compressor stall.
C. reduce the speed of the incoming air and direct it at the
correct angle toward the compressor blades.

ANSWERS

A normalizing turbocharger system found on a small aircraft The density controller is designed to limit the manifold
engine compensates for the power lost due to pressure drop pressure below the turbocharger’s critical altitude. A
resulting from increased altitude. It is designed to operate nitrogen-filled bellows reacts to temperature and density
only above the altitude at which the engine can no longer changes. It repositions the oil bleed valve which changes
develop full power. As such, it is not a true "supercharger" the pressure sent to the exhaust vent valve to move it to
because it does not provide a pressure boost of the the correct position at full throttle. In this way, the density
induction air above 30 inches Hg. controller prevents over‑boost of the engine.

A sea level boosted turbocharger system is regulated by When the turbocharger compresses air for induction, the
the position of the oil controlled exhaust bypass assembly. temperature of the air increases. If the air is too hot, it can
The density controller which is designed to limit the exceed maximum throttle inlet temperature which can
manifold pressure below the turbocharger’s critical altitude, lead to detonation of the fuel air charge in the combustion
repositions the oil bleed valve that sends the controlling oil chamber. The after‑cooler cools the compressed air from
to exhaust gas bypass assembly. The differential pressure the turbocharger compressor which increases the charge air
controller functions during all positions of the exhaust density resulting in better engine performance.
bypass valve except the fully open position. It compares [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 15]
pressure on both sides of the throttle valve and adjusts oil
bleed return to the crankcase which affects the position of
the exhaust bypass valve.

When the waste gate of a turbocharger system is fully The engine inlet of a turbine engine is designed to provide
closed, the maximum volume of exhaust gases flow into a relatively distortion-free flow of air in the required quantity
the turbocharger turbine. This provides the maximum to the inlet of the compressor. Many engines use inlet guide
pressurization of the induction air. Critical altitude is the vanes to help straighten the airflow and direct it into the
altitude above which, even with the waste gate fully closed, first stages of the compressor. A uniform steady airflow is
maximum power (manifold pressure) cannot be maintained. necessary to avoid compressor stall and excessive internal
Since air is most dense at sea level, power developed at sea temperatures in the turbine section.
level is the same as that developed at the critical altitude. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 17]
Above critical altitude, only power less than that which can
be developed at sea level can be achieved.

QUESTIONS
3-19 AMP068 3-22 AMP016

Ram recovery refers to Which statement is true concerning inlet icing of
A. increasing pressure and airflow to make up for thrust turbine engines?
loss at high speeds. A. Turboprops rely on propeller anti-icing to keep the
B. conversion of drag to useful air velocity. inlet(s) free from ice.
C. the use of inlet air doors to guide the air into the inlet. B. Most turbofan inlets use AC powered electric anti-icing.
C. Most turboprop engines rely on electrical anti-icing.
3-20 AMP068 3-23 AMP068

A divided-entrance inlet air duct on a turbine powered aircraft Turbofan engine inlets
A. is found on newer designs because it reduces the A. divert air away from the center of the fan blades.
frontal area of the inlet duct. B. contain sound reducing materials.
B. has better flow characteristics than a single opening. C. have unconventional air inlets to eliminate Foreign
C. presents difficulty to designers due to the amount of Object Damage (FOD).
drag produced.
3-21 AMP013 3-24 AMP057

The purpose of a bellmouth compressor inlet is to Which is an advantage of a collector type exhaust system of
A. provide an increase in ram air effect at low airspeeds. a reciprocating engine?
B. maximize aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet. A. Superior noise reduction.
C. provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet. B. Most efficient in minimizing power loss.
C. Simplest for inspection and maintenance.

ANSWERS

As aircraft speed increases, thrust tends to decrease The inlet for many types of turboprop engines are anti-iced
somewhat. As the aircraft speed reaches a certain point, by using electrical elements in the lip opening of the air
ram recovery compensates for the losses caused by the intake area. Deflector doors are sometimes used to deflect
increases in speed. The inlet must be able to recover as ice or dirt away from the intake as well. Warm bleed air is
much of the total pressure of the free airstream as possible. drawn from the compressor and circulated on the inside of
As air molecules are trapped and begin to be compressed in the inlet lip for anti-icing on turbofan engines.
the inlet, much of the pressure loss is recovered. This added [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 21]
pressure at the inlet of the engine increases the pressure and
airflow to the engine. This is known as ram recovery or total
pressure recovery.

The divided air duct can be either a wing-root inlet or a Inside the inlet of a turbofan engine, sound reducing
scoop at each side of the fuselage. The inlet scoops are materials lower the noise generated by the large diameter
generally placed as far forward as possible to permit a fan. The fan permits the use of a conventional air inlet duct,
gradual bend toward the compressor inlet for smoother resulting in low inlet duct loss. The fan also reduces engine
air flow. Two entrances present more problems to the damage from the ingestion of foreign material because
aircraft designer than a single-entrance duct because of much of any material that may be ingested is thrown radially
the difficulty of obtaining sufficient air scoop area without outward and passes through the fan discharge rather than
imposing prohibitive amounts of drag. The divided-entrance through the core of the engine.
turbine engine inlet duct is found primarily on military aircraft. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 22]

A bellmouth inlet is usually installed on a turbine engine Either short stack or collector type exhaust systems are
undergoing testing in a test cell. The bellmouth is designed found on reciprocating aircraft engines. Short stack is the
with the single objective of obtaining very high aerodynamic simplest method, but only suitable on small engines when
efficiency. Essentially, the inlet is a bell-shaped funnel noise reduction is not a major factor.
having carefully rounded shoulders which offer practically [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 25]
no air resistance. Duct loss is so slight that it is considered
to be zero.

QUESTIONS
3-25 AMP057 3-28 AMP073

Gray streaks found on an exhaust system is most often the Reciprocating engine exhaust systems that have repairs
result of or sloppy weld beads which protrude internally are
A. a crack in the exhaust pipes or fittings. unacceptable because they cause
B. misalignment of exhaust system components. A. base metal fatigue.
C. carbon monoxide leakage. B. localized cracks.
C. local hot spots.
3-26 AMP057 3-29 AMP068

How may reciprocating engine exhaust leaks be detected? The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to
A. An exhaust trail of the tailpipe on the airplane exterior. A. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.
B. Fluctuating manifold pressure indication. B. increase temperature, therefore increase velocity.
C. Signs of exhaust soot inside the cowling and on C. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing
adjacent components. the pressure.
3-27 AMP057 3-30 AMP068

When an exhaust system on a turbocharged engine is In a convergent exhaust nozzle, the diameter of the outlet
operated at high altitude, it is more susceptible to damage A. doesn’t affect exhaust gas velocity.
and failure; mostly because of B. must not be too large or energy will be wasted.
A. increased power demands. C. is as small as possible without stalling the engine.
B. lower ambient cooling.
C. lower external pressure.

ANSWERS

An exhaust leak is indicated by a flat gray or sooty When welded repairs are necessary, the original contours
black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak and is should be retained. The exhaust system alignment must not
usually the result of poor alignment of two mated exhaust be warped or otherwise affected. Repairs or sloppy weld
system members. beads that protrude internally are not acceptable as they
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 25] cause local hot spots and may restrict exhaust gas flow.

An exhaust leak is indicated by a flat gray or a sooty black On turbine engines, through the use of a convergent exhaust
streak on the pipes, on the cowling in the area of the leak, or nozzle, the exhaust gases increase in velocity before they are
on adjacent components. discharged from the exhaust nozzle. Increasing the velocity
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 25] of the gases increases their momentum and increases the
thrust produced (15-20 percent of total engine thrust is
typical on a turbofan engine). The exception to this is the
turboshaft engine in which all possible energy produced
by the engine is designated for rotating the shaft and a
divergent duct may be used.

During high pressure altitude operation on a turbocharged The restriction of the opening of the outlet of the exhaust
aircraft, the exhaust system pressure is maintained by the nozzle is limited by two factors. If the nozzle opening is too
engine at near sea level conditions. However the opposing big, thrust is being wasted. If it is too little, the flow is choked
ambient pressure is less. Because of these pressure in the other components of the engine. In other words, the
differentials, any leaks in the system will be accentuated exhaust nozzle acts as an orifice the size of which determines
and thus hot air escaping gasses can expand those leaks or the density and velocity of the gases as they emerge from the
cracks and cause damage to nearby components. engine. This is critical to thrust performance.

QUESTIONS
3-31 AMP032 3-34 AMP068

Engines using cold stream or cold and hot stream Noise suppressors on turbine engines work by ______________.
reversing include A. Converting low frequency noise into high
A. high bypass turbofan engines. frequency noise.
B. turbojets. B. Converting high frequency noise into low
C. turbojets with afterburners. frequency noise.
C. Converting noise energy into heat.
3-32 AMP032 3-35 AMP068

The purpose of cascade vanes in a thrust reversing system Turbine engine emissions
is to A. are caused by high combustion temperatures.
A. form a solid blocking door in the jet exhaust path. B. are caused by low combustion temperatures.
B. turn the exhaust gases forward just after exiting the C. account for so little of all emissions into the atmosphere
exhaust nozzle. that they are of little concern.
C. turn the fan airstream in a forward direction.
3-33 AMP032 3-36 AMP015

Turbojet and turbofan thrust reverser systems are generally What devise will allow an automatic speed and output of the
powered by turbocharger requiring no pilot action up to critical altitude?
A. electricity or exhaust gases. A. Absolute pressure controller.
B. hydraulics or pneumatics. B. Differential pressure controller.
C. hydraulics only. C. Atmospheric pressure controller.

ANSWERS

Mechanical blockage thrust reversing is accomplished by Low frequency sounds travel the furthest from their point of
placing a removable obstruction in the exhaust gas stream generation and are thus of the greatest concern. By breaking
rear of the exhaust nozzle. This type is generally used up the single stream of exhaust flow into several smaller
with ducted turbofan engines where the fan and core flow streams, the frequency of the noise is increased as will be its
mix in a common nozzle before exiting the engine. In the rate of dissipation.
aerodynamic blockage type of thrust reverser, used mainly [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 32]
with unducted turbofan engines, only fan air is used to slow
the aircraft. Therefore, turbofan engines may use cold stream
or cold and hot stream obstruction for thrust reversing. Note:
turbojets do not have cold stream airflow. All air passes
through the core of the engine (hot stream).

In the aerodynamic blockage type of thrust reverser, used Lowering exhaust emission from gas turbine engines,
mainly with unducted turbofan engines, only fan air is used especially oxides of nitrogen (NOx), continues to require
to slow the aircraft. A modern aerodynamic thrust reverser improvement. Most advanced designs rely on a method of
system consists of a translating cowl, blocker doors, and premixing the fuel/air before it enters the combustion burner
cascade vanes that redirect the fan airflow to slow the area. High energy swirlers adjacent to the fuel nozzles create
aircraft. If the thrust levers are at idle position and the aircraft a more thorough and leaner mix of fuel which burns at lower
has weight on wheels, moving the thrust levers aft activates temperatures than in previous gas turbine engines. The NOx
the translating cowl to open. This closes the blocker doors levels are higher if the burning fuel/air mixture stays at high
and stops the fan airflow from going aft. It redirects the air temperatures for a longer time.
through the cascade vanes which direct airflow forward to [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 33]
slow the aircraft.

A thrust reverser systems consist of several components One device used to control the speed and output of the
that move either the clam shell doors or the blocker doors turbocharger, but controls the system only at maximum
and translating cowl. Actuating power is generally pneumatic output, is the absolute pressure controller. The absolute
or hydraulic and uses gearboxes, flex-drives, jackscrews, pressure controller contains an aneroid bellows that
control valves, and air or hydraulic motors to deploy or stow is referenced to upper deck pressure. It operates the
the thrust reverser systems. wastegate, which diverts, more or less, exhaust gas over
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 29] the turbine. As an absolute pressure setting is reached, it
bypasses oil, and relieves the pressure on the waste gate
actuator. This allows the absolute pressure controller to
control the maximum turbocharger compressor discharge
pressure. The turbocharger is completely automatic,
requiring no pilot action up to the critical altitude.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
3-1(O). What are some indications of a leak in the induction system?
3-2(O). What are some inspection procedures for ice control systems?
3-3(O). Describe the automatic and manual operation of the alternate air valve.
3-4(O). What can be done to troubleshoot ice control systems?
3-5(O). Explain how a carburetor heat system operates and the procedure to verify proper operation.
3-6(O). What is the cause and effect of one kind of induction system ice?
3-7(O). Explain the function and operation of one type of supercharging.
3-8(O). Name some indicators of an exhaust leak or methods of detecting exhaust leaks.
3-9(O). Explain thrust reverser system operation and some of the main components.
3-10(O). Explain the differences between a cascade and a mechanical blockage door thrust reverser.
3-11(O). What are the hazards of exhaust system failure?
3-12(O). What are the effects of using improper materials to mark on exhaust system components?
3-13(O). What is the function and operation of a turbine engine exhaust nozzle?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
3-1(O). Leaks in the induction system can cause an engine to idle improperly, run rough, or overheat. In severe cases,
the engine may not start or may cut out. It also could fail to develop full power. A visual inspection for cracks
and leaks should occur during all regularly scheduled engine inspections including ensuring the security of
mounting of all components.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 03 Page 5, Chapter 10 Page 34-38]
3-2(O). Controlling ice in the induction system of a reciprocating aircraft engine is primarily accomplished by raising
the temperature of the induction air. This is done with what is known as carburetor heat. The air intake ducting
is equipped with a valve controlled from the flight deck. When opened, warm air that has been circulated
around the exhaust system is diverted into carburetor. Carburetor heat should only be used when needed.
An excessively hot fuel air charge can result in a loss of power, detonation, and engine failure. Therefore,
inspection procedures for this ice control system must include the integrity and free motion of this valve
and its control cable. It must fully open and fully close to ensure safe operation. Follow the manufacturer’s
instruction for lubricating the cable and valve hinge.
3-3(O). An engine may be fitted with an alternate induction system air inlet that incorporates a dust filter. This type
of air filter system normally consists of a filter element and a door that is electrically operated from the flight
deck. The pilot opens the door manually with the electric actuator when operating in dusty conditions. Some
installations have a spring loaded filter door that automatically opens when the filter is excessively restricted.
This prevents the air from being cut off when the filter is clogged with dirt or ice.
3-4(O). An ice control system like carburetor heat is very simple and relatively trouble free. Regular inspection of the
ducting, valve, and operating mechanism should reveal any operational problems. When the carburetor heat
valve is fully opened, it should only be a matter of a few minutes until the ice is cleared. If this is reported
as not being the case, then, if application of the heat was timely, it is likely that the valve is not opening all
the way. Check the cable and the valve itself for unrestricted movement and full travel. Any report of low
power could be the result of the carburetor heat valve not closing fully. Again, inspect the cable and the valve
for proper operation.
3-5(O). Eliminating ice in the induction system of a reciprocating engine is primarily accomplished by raising the
temperature of the induction air. This is done with a carburetor heat system. The air intake ducting is equipped
with a valve controlled from the flight deck. When opened, warm air that has been circulated around the
exhaust system is diverted into the carburetor. This carburetor heat should only be used when needed.
An excessively hot fuel air charge can result in a loss of power, detonation, and engine failure. Therefore
inspection procedure for this ice control system must include the integrity and free motion of this valve and its
control cable. It must fully open and fully close to ensure safe operation. Follow the manufacturer’s instruction
for lubricating the cable and valve hinge. If running up the engine on the ground, application of full carburetor
heat should be accompanied by a reduction in manifold pressure because the intake air becomes less dense.
3-6(O). Fuel evaporation ice is formed because of the decrease in temperature resulting from the evaporation of fuel
when it is introduced into the intake airstream at the fuel discharge nozzle. The temperature of the air and
components around the evaporating fuel reduces to below freezing and any moisture present becomes ice
that settles on the discharge nozzle and nearby structure. This ice builds up and can interfere with fuel flow,
affect mixture distribution and lower manifold pressure.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
3-7(O). A turbosupercharger or turbocharger system functions to increase manifold pressure on a reciprocating
engine. It is an externally driven supercharger that compresses the intake air before it is delivered to the fuel
metering device. Engine exhaust gases are directed against a turbine that drives an independent impeller
mounted on the same shaft. The impeller compresses the intake air and sends it to the fuel metering device.
A controller modulates a wastegate valve in the exhaust stream. The amount of gases directed against the
turbine is varied by the position of the wastegate. Thus, the amount of intake air compression is controlled
which directly affects the power output of the engine.
3-8(O). An exhaust leak is indicated by a flat gray or sooty black streak on the pipes near the leak. Misaligned exhaust
system pipes or components are an indicator that a leak may exist.
3-9(O). Without any adverse effect of the engine, a thrust reverser system prevents continued forward thrust of the
engine by not allowing the engine fan and/or exhaust airflow to flow aft. Typically, a mechanical blockage or
redirection of the air occurs through the use of hydraulic or pneumatic power. When the thrust lever on the
flight deck is moved aft of idle, and the aircraft has weight on wheels, a control valve diverts the power to
a motor. Through the use of jackscrews, flex-drives, and gear boxes, the reverser mechanism unlocks and
deploys to change the direction of the engine outflow. When the aircraft has slowed, the power lever is moved
forward and the thrust reverser mechanism stows.
3-10(O). The two types of thrust reverser systems are the mechanical blockage and the aerodynamic blockage
systems. The mechanical blockage system places a removable obstruction in the exhaust gas stream. This is
usually done rear of the exhaust nozzle. The exhaust gases therefore are mechanically blocked and diverted
at a suitable angle in the reverse direction. The obstruction can be cone-shaped, clamshell-like in appearance
or a half-sphere. Since it is directly in the path of the hot exhaust gases, the mechanical blockage type thrust
reverser must be able to withstand high temperatures. The aerodynamic blockage type of thrust reverser is
used on turbofan engines. Since 80 percent of the forward thrust comes from the fan of a turbofan engine,
the aerodynamic thrust reverser redirects the fan air to slow the aircraft. Typically, a translating cowl slides aft
and as it does so, blocking panels are deployed into the fan airstream. These redirect the air through cascade
vanes that further direct the air forward to slow the aircraft. Since the aerodynamic thrust reverser system
deflects fan air, it does not have to be particularly resistant to heat.
3-11(O). Any exhaust system failure should be regarded as a severe hazard. Depending on the location and type of
failure, it can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers, partial or complete loss of engine
power, or an aircraft fire.
3-12(O). Exhaust systems marked with a lead pencils as well as the use of galvanized or zinc-plated tools must be
avoided. The lead, zinc, or galvanized mark is absorbed by the metal of the exhaust system when heated. This
creates a distinct change in the molecular structure of the metal. This change softens the metal in the area of
the mark causing cracks and eventual failure.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
3-13(O). A turbine engine exhaust nozzle directs the exhaust gases. While doing so, it aids in the extraction of power
from the engine. A converging nozzle will speed up the gases and extract more thrust. A divergent nozzle
will slow the gases and reduce thrust. A nozzle can also help straighten the gases when they exit the turbine
or reduce turbulence. A turboprop or turboshaft engine extracts most of the energy for rotating a propeller,
rotor blades, or driving accessories such as in an APU. The exhaust nozzle on these engines does little more
than direct the gases clear of the aircraft structure since no directional thrust is required. They typically use
divergent nozzles or tailpipes. Turbofan engines gain 15 to 20 percent of thrust from the exhaust gases.
Therefore convergent exhaust nozzles are common on turbofan engines. Unducted turbofans use two
nozzles – one for the fan air and one for the engine core exhaust gases. The fan air exhaust nozzle and the
engine core cowling combine to direct fan air aft with as little disturbance as possible using a convergent
nozzle shape. The engine core exhaust gases also use a convergent nozzle to extract as much thrust from
these gases as possible. Note that the length and opening size of an exhaust nozzle are calculated to ensure
the correct gas volume, velocity, and pressure at the rear of the engine.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
3-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect an engine ice control system and record your findings.
[Level 3]
3-2(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect the induction manifolds and record your findings. [Level 3]
3-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, repair a defective condition
in a carburetor heat box and record maintenance. [Level 3]
3-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, complete an operational check of an engine anti-ice system and
3-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, rig a carburetor heat box and
3-6(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect an induction system and record your findings. [Level 3]
3-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, replace an induction system
manifold gasket and record maintenance. [Level 3]
3-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, replace an induction tube
3-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment, and supplies service an
induction system air filter and record maintenance. [Level 3]
3-10(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, required tooling, equipment, and an
unknown discrepancy troubleshoot an engine malfunction resulting from a defective induction system and
unknown discrepancy troubleshoot an engine malfunction resulting from a supercharging system and record
3-12(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect an exhaust system and record your findings. [Level 3]
3-13(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, inspect a turbocharger system and record your findings. [Level 3]
3-14(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, determine if components of the exhaust system are serviceable
and record your findings. [Level 2]
3-15(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup and the appropriate publications demonstrate the procedures to
accomplish a pressurization check of an exhaust system. [Level 2]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
3-16(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, repair an exhaust system
component and record maintenance. [Level 3]
3-17(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, complete an operational check of an engine exhaust system and
3-18(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, replace an exhaust gasket
3-19(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, install an engine exhaust and
3-20(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, complete an operational check of a turbocharger and waste gate
system and record your findings. [Level 3]
3-21(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, appropriate testing equipment, if
necessary and an unknown discrepancy, troubleshoot a turbine engine thrust reverser system and record your
findings. [Level 3]
3-22(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, appropriate testing equipment, if
necessary and an unknown discrepancy, troubleshoot a turbine engine thrust reverser component and record
3-23(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, repair a turbine engine thrust
reverser and record maintenance. [Level 3]
3-24(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, repair a turbine engine thrust
reverser component and record maintenance. [Level 3]

ENGINE IGNITION AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Magneto-Ignition Systems, FADEC Systems, Spark Plugs, Timing Devices,
Powerplant Electrical Systems, and Cable Stripping
04
QUESTIONS
4-1 AMP063 4-3 AMP046

In a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine, when does the ignition Which components make up the magnetic system of
event take place? a magneto?
A. Before the piston reaches TDC on the A. Pole shoes, the pole shoe extensions, and the
compression stroke. primary coil.
B. At the moment the piston reaches TDC on the B. Primary and Secondary coils.
compression stroke. C. Rotating magnet, the pole shoes, the pole shoe
C. After the piston reaches TDC on the extensions, and the coil core.
compression stroke.
4-2 AMP046 4-4 AMP046

Which of the following are distinct circuits on a What is the radial location of the two North poles of a
high‑tension magneto? four‑pole rotating magnet in a high tension magneto?
1. Magnetic (Figure 4-3)
2. Primary A. 180˚ Apart
3. E-gap B. 270˚ Apart
4. P-lead C. 90˚ Apart
5. Secondary
A. 1, 2, and 5
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 2, 4, and 5
A Flux To Right B No Flux C Flux To Left
Coil core
N
N S S N
Pole shoe
S S
S N N S
N
0° 45° 90°
Figure 4-3. Magnetic flux at three positions of the rotating magnet.

ENGINE IGNITION AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

All ignition systems must deliver a high-tension spark The magnetic circuit consists of a permanent multi-pole
across the electrodes of each spark plug in each cylinder rotating magnet, a soft iron core which is called the coil
of the engine in the correct firing order. The piston in the core, and pole shoes which are shaped with extension that
No. 1 cylinder must be in a position a prescribed number of protrude to the area when the rotating magnet passes. The
degrees before top dead center on the compression stroke. primary and secondary coils are separate systems of the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 1] magneto which make the other answers incorrect.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 2-3 Figure 4-3]

The high-tension magneto system can be divided for The poles of the magnet are arranged in alternate polarity
purposes of discussion into three distinct circuits: magnetic, so the flux can pass out of the north pole through the coil
primary electrical, and secondary electrical circuits. The core and back to the south pole of the magnet. On a 4-pole
magnetic circuit consists of a permanent multi-pole rotating magnet, this results in the north poles being opposite each
magnet, a soft iron core, and pole shoes. The primary other, and the south poles being opposite each other, or
electrical circuit consists of a set of breaker contact points, radially 180˚ apart. (See Figure 4-3)
a condenser, and the primary windings of the coil. The [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 2-3]
secondary circuit contains the secondary windings of the
coil, distributor rotor, distributor cap or block, ignition leads
and spark plugs.
A Flux To Right B No Flux C Flux To Left
Coil core
N
N S S N
Pole shoe
S S
S N N S
N
0° 45° 90°
Figure 4-3. Magnetic flux at three positions of the rotating magnet.

QUESTIONS
4-5 AMP046 4-7 AMP046

The greatest density of flux lines in the magnetic circuit of a What is the approximate position of the rotating magnet in a
rotating magnet-type magneto occurs when the magnet is in high-tension magneto when the points first close?
what position? A. Full register.
A. Full alignment with the field shoe faces. B. Neutral.
B. A certain angular displacement beyond the neutral C. A few degrees after neutral.
position referred to as E-gap angle or position.
C. The position where the contact points are open.
4-6 AMP046 4-8 AMP046

What is the electrical location of the primary capacitor in a The E-gap angle is usually defined as the number of
high tension magneto? (Figure 4-5) degrees be tween the neutral position of the rotating magnet
A. In parallel with the breaker points. and position
B. In series with the breaker points. A. where the contact points close.
C. In series with the primary and secondary windings. B. where the contact points open.
C. of greatest magneto flux density.
Primary coil
Condenser
Breaker contact points
4-9 AMP047
Figure 4-5. Primary electrical circuit of a high-tension magneto. At what point must magneto breaker points be timed
to open?
A. When the rotating magnet is a few degrees
before neutral.
B. When the greatest magnetic field stress exists in
the circuit.
C. When the rotating magnet is in the full register position.

ANSWERS

When the north pole is aligned with one of the coil core pole The primary breaker points close at approximately full
shoes and the south pole is aligned with the other coil core register position. When the breaker points are closed, the
pole shoe, the number of magnetic lines of flux through the primary electrical circuit is completed and the rotating
coil is maximum because the two magnetically opposite magnet induces current flow in the primary circuit. This
poles are perfectly aligned with the pole shoes. This position current flow generates its own magnetic field which is in a
of the magnet is called the full register position. When the direction that opposes any change in the magnetic flux of the
magnet is moved away from the full register position, the permanent magnet’s circuit.
amount of flux passing through the coil core begins to [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 4]
decrease because some lines of flux take a shorter route
from pole to pole through the pole shoe extensions.

The primary electrical circuit consists of a set of breaker The current flowing in the primary circuit holds the flux in the
contact points, a condenser (capacitor), and an insulated core at a high value in one direction until the rotating magnet
coil. The capacitor is wired in parallel with the breaker points. has time to rotate through the neutral position to a point
The capacitor prevents arcing at the points when the circuit a few degrees beyond neutral. This position is called the
is opened and hastens the collapse of the magnetic field E-gap position (E stands for efficiency). A very high rate of
about the primary coil. (Figure 4-5) flux change can be obtained by opening the primary breaker
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 4 Figure 4-5] points in this position.
Primary coil
Condenser
Breaker contact points 4-9 Answer B.

Without current flowing through the primary coil, the flux in
the coil core gradually decreases to zero as the magnet rotor
Figure 4-5. Primary electrical circuit of a high-tension magneto. turns to neutral and flux starts to increase in the opposite
direction. However, it is the rate of change of the flux lines
that controls the magnitude of the current flow induced in the
coil(s). When the primary coil is added to the magnet and coil
core, the electromagnetic action of the primary coil prevents
the gradual change in flux in the coil core. It temporarily
holds the field in place even though the magnet has rotated
past the pole shoe. The breaker points are timed to open
when the magnetic field stress is the greatest because it
causes the flux field to rapidly collapse thus inducing the
greatest amount of voltage in the coils.

QUESTIONS
4-10 AMP046 4-13 AMP046

To which two points are the secondary coil windings of an What is a result of "flash‑over" in a distributor?
ignition system connected? A. Intense voltage at the spark.
A. Primary coil and distributor cap. B. Reversal of current flow.
B. Primary coil and distributor rotor. C. Conductive carbon trail.
C. Primary coil and breaker assembly.
4-11 AMP046 4-14 AMP046

What is the relationship between the distributor and Aircraft magneto housings are usually ventilated in order to
crankshaft speed of an aircraft reciprocating engines? A. prevent the entrance of outside air which may
A. The distributor turns at one-half crankshaft speed. contain moisture.
B. The distributor turns at one and one half B. allow heated air from the accessory compartment to
crankshaft speed. keep the internal parts of the magneto dry.
C. The crankshaft turns at one-half distributor speed. C. provide cooling and remove corrosive gases produced
by normal arcing.
4-12 AMP046 4-15 AMP063

What are the parts of a distributor in an aircraft engine Shielding is used on spark plug and ignition wires to
ignition system? A. protect the wires from short circuits as a result of
1. Coil chafing and rubbing.
2. Block B. prevent outside electromagnetic emissions from
3. Stator disrupting the operation of the ignition system.
4. Rotor C. prevent interference with radio reception.
5. Transformer
A. 2 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 5

ANSWERS

The secondary circuit consists of turns of fine insulated wire. The high-voltage current that normally arcs across the air
One end of this wire is electrically grounded to the primary gaps of the distributor can flash across a wet insulating
coil or coil core. The other is connected to the distributor surface to ground, or the high-voltage current can be
rotor. This electrical force then moves to the distributor rotor misdirected to some spark plug other than the one that
which is then sent to each point on the cap and onto the should be fired. This condition is known as flash‑over and
appropriate cylinder. usually results in cylinder misfiring. Flash‑over can lead to
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 6-7] carbon tracking. The carbon trail results from the electric
spark burning dirt particles that contain hydrocarbon
materials. The water in the hydrocarbon material is
evaporated during flash‑over leaving carbon to form a
conductive path for current.

It is the function of the distributor to send a spark to each Magnetos cannot be hermetically sealed to prevent moisture
cylinder in the engine. Therefore it contains the same number from entering a unit because the magneto is subject to
of contacts as there are cylinders in the engine. The engine pressure and temperature changes in altitude. Adequate
crankshaft, however, must rotate twice to have all of the drains and proper ventilation reduce the tendency of
cylinders travel to TDC on the compression stroke in order flash‑over and carbon tracking. Good magneto circulation
to combust the fuel air mixture. Therefore, the distributor also ensures that corrosive gases produced by normal arcing
rotates at one-half of the crankshaft speed so that each across the distributor gap, such as ozone, are carried away.
cylinder receives a spark in one revolution of the distributor [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 8]
during two revolutions of the crankshaft.

The high-voltage induced in the secondary coil is directed The ignition harness leads serve a dual purpose. It provides
to the distributor which consists of two parts; revolving and the conductor path for the high-tension voltage to the spark
stationary. The revolving part is called the distributor rotor plug. It also serves as a shield for stray magnetic fields
and the stationary part is called a distributor block. that surround the wires as they momentarily carry high-
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 7] voltage current. By conducting these magnetic lines of
force to ground, the ignition harness cuts down electrical
interference with the aircraft radio and other electrically
sensitive equipment.

QUESTIONS
4-16 AMP063 4-19 AMP063

How does the high tension ignition shielding tend to reduce Which of the following are distinct circuits of a high
radio interference? tension magneto?
A. Prevents ignition flash‑over at high altitudes. 1. Magnetic
B. Reduces voltage drop in the transmission of high- 2. Primary
tension current. 3. E‑gap
C. Receives and grounds high frequency waves coming 4. P‑lead
from the magneto and high‑tension ignition leads. 5. Secondary
A. 1, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 2, 4, 5
4-17 AMP046 4-20 AMP063

To which two points are an ignition switch connected? Which of the following is correct regarding FADEC
A. Primary electrical circuit and ground. engine systems?
B. Secondary electrical circuit and ground. A. FADEC is a solid state ignition and fuel control system
C. Secondary electrical circuit and the condenser. on reciprocating engines.
B. FADEC only applies to ignition systems on
reciprocating engines.
C. FADEC only applies to fuel control systems on
turbine engines.
4-18 AMP046 4-21 AMP063

What component of a dual magneto is shared by both Which statement is true regarding the coil packs of a FADEC
ignition systems? Powerlink ignition system?
A. High‑Tension Coil A. Low voltage coils are mounted above the Electronic
B. Rotating Magnet Control Unit (ECU).
C. Capacitor B. High voltage units are triggered from the
crankshaft position.
C. An individual coil for each spark plug is located on each
cylinder head.

ANSWERS

A magneto is a high frequency radiation emanating (radio The high tension magneto circuit can be divided into three
wave) device during its operation. If the magneto and ignition distinct circuit; the magnetic circuit, the primary circuit,
leads are not shielded, they would form antennas and and the secondary circuit. The E-gap is associated with the
transmit the random frequencies from the ignition system. primary circuit. The P-lead connects the magneto’s primary
By conducting the magnetic lines of flux associated with the circuit to the engine starter.
high frequencies to ground, ignition harness and magneto [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Pages 3-7]
radio interference are reduced.

The type of ignition switch used varies with the number of A FADEC is a modern solid state digital electronic ignition
engines on the aircraft and the type of magnetos used. All and electronic, sequential, port fuel injection system with
switches, however, turn the system ON and OFF in much the only one moving part that consists of the opening and
same manner. The ignition switch is different in at least one closing of the fuel injector. FADEC continually monitors and
respect from all other type of switches: when the ignition controls ignition, timing, and fuel mixture/delivery/injection,
switch is in the OFF position, a circuit is completed through and spark ignition as an integrated control system.
the switch to ground. In other switches, the OFF position [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 12]
normally breaks or opens the circuit.

High-tension system magnetos used on aircraft engines The PowerLink ignition system of a reciprocating engine
are either single or dual type magnetos. The dual magneto FADEC unit consists of the high voltage coils atop of the
incorporates two magnetos contained in a single housing. ECU, the high voltage harness, and spark plugs. One end of
One rotating magnet and a cam are common to two sets of each ignition lead on the high voltage harness attaches to a
breaker points and coils. Two distributor units are mounted spark plug and the other end of the lead wire attaches to the
in the magneto. spark plug towers on each ECU. Each coil pack generates
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 10] a high-voltage pulse for two spark plug towers. The ignition
spark is timed to the engine’s crankshaft position. The timing
is variable throughout the engine’s operating range.

QUESTIONS
4-22 AMP063 4-25 AMP063

A booster coil on a radial engine Iridium and platinum fine wire electrode spark plugs
A. uses battery power to boost the magnet in the magneto A. produce a hot spark but are not as durable as
during starting. massive electrodes.
B. uses three coils windings to achieve a hotter spark for B. are gapped with a smaller gap due to the reduced
starting than the magneto. amount of electrode material.
C. operates off of battery power and a trailing finger in C. provide a more intense spark but cost more than
the distributor. massive electrode plugs.
4-23 AMP046 4-26 AMP063

What is the purpose of an impulse coupling with a magneto? A spark plug’s heat range is the result of
A. To absorb impulse vibrations between the magneto and A. the area of the plug exposed to the cooling airstream.
the engine. B. its ability to transfer heat from the firing end of the
B. To compensate for backlash in the magneto and the spark plug to the cylinder head.
engine gears. C. the heat intensity of the spark.
C. To produce a momentary high rotational speed of
the magneto.
4-24 AMP063 4-27 AMP064

In a light reciprocating engine aircraft a retard The term reach as applied to spark plug design and/or type
breaker magneto eliminates the need for a(n) indicates the (Figure 4-35)
_____________ when starting. A. linear distance from the shell gasket seat to the end of
A. condenser the threads on the shell skirt.
B. impulse coupling B. length of the center electrode exposed to the flame
C. vibrator of combustion.
C. length of the shielded barrel.
Reach
Figure 4-35. Spark plug reach.

ANSWERS

The booster coil is separate from the magneto and can Fine wire iridium and platinum spark plug electrodes have a
generate a series of sparks on its own. During the start cycle, very high melting point and are considered precious metals.
these sparks are routed to the trailing finger on the distributor Therefore, the cost of this type of plug is higher than massive
rotor and then to the appropriate cylinder ignition lead. electrode spark plugs but they have a longer service life. The
The primary winding has one end grounded at the internal iridium electrode allows for a larger spark gap which creates
grounding strip and its other end connected to the moving a more intense spark that increases performance.
contact point. The stationary contact is fitted with a terminal [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 21-22]
to which battery voltage is applied when the magneto switch
is placed in the start position, or automatically applied when
the starter is engaged.

Many opposed engines are equipped with an impulse The heat range of a spark plug is a measure of its ability to
coupling as the auxiliary starting system. An impulse transfer the heat of combustion to the cylinder head. The
coupling gives one of the magnetos attached to the engine, length of the nose core is the principle factor in establishing
generally the left, a brief acceleration that produces a the plug’s heat range. Hot plugs have a long insulator nose
more intense spark for engine starting. Without an impulse that creates a long heat transfer path; cold plugs have a
coupling or other starting aid, the intensity of magneto relatively short insulator to provide a rapid transfer of heat to
spark magneto sparks produced during start is low because the cylinder head.
of the slow rotation speed of the engine and, therefore, [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 22]
the magneto.

During the start cycle, the spark must be both strong and A spark plug with the proper reach ensures that the
occur earlier as the piston just reaches top dead center electrode end inside the cylinder is in the best position to
(retarded). This is basically the function of an impulse achieve ignition. The spark plug reach is the length of the
coupling. A high tension retard breaker vibrator serves this threaded portion that is inserted in the spark plug bushing
need without the inherent problems of an impulse coupling of the cylinder. (Figure 4-35)
by providing multiple sparks during this cycle by changing [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 22 Figure 4-36]
the DC from the battery into a pulsating DC through a
vibrator coil to the primary coil.
Reach
Figure 4-35. Spark plug reach.

QUESTIONS
4-28 AMP047 4-31 AMP047

When installing a magneto on an engine, the In what position should the ignition switch be placed when
A. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a prescribed attempting to use a timing light to time the magneto to
number of degrees before top center on the the engine?
compression stroke. A. OFF
B. magneto breaker points must be just closing. B. Left
C. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a prescribed C. Both
number of degrees after top center on the intake stroke.
4-29 AMP047 4-32 AMP064

What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either LEFT or
rotation in degrees? RIGHT during an engine ground check, normal operation is
A. Dial Indicator usually indicated by a
B. Timing Disk A. large drop in RPM.
C. Prop Protractor B. momentary interruption of both ignition systems.
C. slight drop in RPM.
4-30 AMP046 4-33 AMP047

When internally timing a magneto, the breaker points begin When a magneto is operating, what is the probable cause for
to open when a shift in internal timing?
A. the piston has just past TDC at the end of the A. The rotating magnet loses its magnetism.
compression stroke. B. The distributor gear teeth are wearing on the rotor
B. the magnet poles are a few degrees beyond the gear teeth.
neutral position. C. The cam follower wear and/or the breaker points
C. the magnet poles are fully aligned with the pole shoes. wear or pitting.

ANSWERS

The ignition timing requires precise adjustment and When using a timing light to check a magneto in a complete
painstaking care so that the following four conditions occur ignition system installed on the aircraft, the ignition switch
at the same instant: 1. The piston in the No. 1 cylinder must for the engine must be turned to BOTH. Otherwise, the lights
be in a position a prescribed number of degrees before do not indicate when the breaker points will open. In the OFF
top dead center on the compression stroke. 2. The rotating position, the primary circuit will be grounded so current will
magnet of the magneto must be in the E-gap position. 3. flow to ground not through the points or to the timing light. In
The beaker points must be just opening on the No. 1 cam the LEFT or RIGHT position of the ignition switch, one or the
lobe, and, 4. The distributor finger must be aligned with the other of the left or right breaker points will be grounded so
electrode serving the No. 1 cylinder. only one light will illuminate when the breaker points open.

Most timing disk devices are mounted to the crankshaft The ignition system has checks performed on it during
flange and use a timing plate. The markings vary according the aircraft engine run-up before flight. At a manufacturer
to the specifications of the engine. This plate is temporarily specified RPM, the ignition switch is moved from the BOTH
installed on the crankshaft flange with a scale numbered position to the LEFT position. The drop in RPM is noted and
in crankshaft degrees and the pointer attached to the the switch is returned to the BOTH position. After the engine
timing disk. RPM stabilizes, the switch is moved to the RIGHT position
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 24] and the RPM drop is noted. The magneto drop should be
even for both magnetos and is generally slight, in the area
of 25-75 RPM for each magneto. This RPM drop is because
operation on one magneto is not as efficient as it is with two
magnetos providing sparks in the cylinder.

When replacing or preparing a magneto for installation, the Buildup results from the transfer of contact material by
first concern is with the internal timing of the magneto. For means of the arc as the point separate. This condition may
each magneto model, the manufacturer determines how result from excessive breaker point spring tension that
many degrees beyond the neutral position a pole of the rotor retards the opening of the points.
magnet should be to obtain the strongest spark at the instant [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 37]
of breaker point separation. This angular displacement from
the neutral position, known as the E-gap angle, varies with
different magneto models.

QUESTIONS
4-34 AMP064 4-37 AMP064

A spark plug is fouled when What will be the effect of a spark plug that is gapped
A. its spark grounds by jumping electrodes. too wide?
B. it causes preignition. A. Insulation Failure
C. its spark grounds without jumping electrodes. B. Hard Starting
C. Lead Damage
4-35 AMP064 4-38 AMP064

Upon inspection of the spark plugs in an aircraft engine, Which is the likely cause if when removing a spark plug
the plugs were found caked with a heavy black soot. a high amount of torque is required to remove it from
This indicates a cylinder?
A. worn oil seal rings. A. Warpage may have occurred to overly hot operations.
B. a rich mixture. B. Corrosion may have formed within the spark
C. a lean mixture. plug threads.
C. Excess carbon may have resulted by overly
rich operation.
4-36 AMP063 4-39 AMP064

Spark plug fouling caused by lead deposits occurs To obtain the correct gap setting on a spark plug before it is
most often installed in an aircraft engine
A. during cruise with rich mixtures. A. a feeler gauge must be used.
B. when cylinder head temperatures are relatively low. B. a wire thickness gauge should be used.
C. when cylinder head temperature are relatively high. C. a sight gauge is recommended.

ANSWERS

Spark plug operation can often be a major source of engine As the air gap of a spark plug increases, the resistance
malfunctions. Many spark plug failures can be minimized that the spark plug must overcome in jumping the gap also
by good operational and maintenance practices. A spark increases. This means that the magneto must produce a
plug is considered to be "fouled" if it has stopped allowing higher voltage to overcome the higher resistance. Wide spark
the spark to bridge the electrode gap either completely or plug gap settings raise the coming in speed of the magneto
intermittently. and therefore cause hard starting.

A rich fuel/air mixture is detected by soot or black smoke If excess carbon deposits have occurred as byproducts of
coming from the exhaust and by an increase in RPM when an overly rich combustion, some of those deposits may have
idling fuel/air mixture is leaned to best power. The soot that worked their way into the threads of the cylinder head and
forms as a result of overly rich idle fuel/air mixture settles on spark plug, and so requiring excess torque for its removal.
the inside of the combustion chamber because the heat of This is typically not a problem for the spark plug so long as
the engine and turbulence in the combustion chamber are the wrench is held straight and torque evenly applied.
slight. The heavy black soot on the spark plug is known as [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 33]
carbon fouling.

Lead fouling may occur at any power setting but perhaps the Spark plug electrode gap setting should be checked with
power setting most conducive to lead fouling is cruising with a round wire-thickness gauge. A flat type gauge gives an
lean mixtures. At this power, the cylinder head temperature incorrect clearance indication because the massive ground
is relatively low and there is more oxygen than needed electrodes are contoured to the shape of the round center
to consume all the fuel in the fuel air mixture. When all of electrode. When using a wire-thickness gauge, insert the
the fuel is consumed, some of the excess oxygen unites gauge in each gap parallel to the centerline of the center
with some of the lead in the fuel and forms lead/oxygen electrode. If the gauge is tilted slightly, the indication is
compounds that solidify and build up in layers as they incorrect. Do not install a plug that does not have an air gap
contact the relatively cool cylinder walls and the spark plugs. within the specified clearance range.

QUESTIONS
4-40 AMP064 4-43 AMP047

Aircraft engine spark plugs should be installed What is commonly used to clean accessible condensers and
A. in the exact same position as they were in the engine coil cases in a magneto?
when removed. A. Acetone
B. finger tight and torqued with a torque wrench. B. MEK
C. be installed finger tight and then 1/4 rotation farther to C. Mineral Spirits
crush the copper shoulder gasket for a gas tight fit.
4-41 AMP047 4-44 AMP063

What would be the result if a magneto breaker point Which statement is correct regarding the ignition system of a
mainspring did not have sufficient tension? turbine engine?
A. The points will stick. A. The system is normally de-energized as soon as the
B. The points will not open to the specified gap. engine starts.
C. The points will float or bounce. B. It is energized during starting and warm-up
periods only.
C. The system generally includes a polar
inductor‑type magneto.
4-42 AMP047 4-45 AMP063

Which of the following breaker points characteristics is The capacitor type ignition system is used almost universally
associated with a faulty capacitor? on turbine engines primarily because of its high voltage and
A. Crowned A. low amperage.
B. Fine Grained B. long life.
C. Coarse Grained C. high heat intensity spark.

ANSWERS

To install a spark plug, start it into the cylinder without using A phase of magneto inspection is the dielectric inspection.
a wrench of any kind and turn it until the spark plug is seated This inspection is a visual check for cleanliness and cracks.
on the gasket. If high torque is needed to install the plug, If the inspection reveals that the coil cases, condensers,
dirty or damaged threads on either the plug or plug bushing distributor rotor, or blocks are oily or dirty or have any trace
is indicated. This should be remedied before installing the of carbon tracking, they require cleaning and possibly waxing
plug. After a spark plug has been seated with the fingers, use to restore their dielectric qualities. Clean all accessible
a torque wrench and tighten to the specified torque. condensers and coil cases by wiping them with a lint-free
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 35] cloth moistened with acetone. Do not dip, submerge, or
saturate the parts in any solution because the solution used
may seep inside the condenser and short out the plates.

If the breaker contact points are spread wider than Since turbine engine ignition systems are operated mostly
recommended, the mainspring (the spring carrying the for a brief period during the engine starting cycle, they are,
movable contact point) is likely to take a permanent set. If as a rule, more trouble free than the typical reciprocating
the mainspring takes a permanent set, the movable contact engine ignition system. The turbine engine ignition system
point loses some of its closing tension and the points then does not need to be timed to spark during an exact point
either bounce or float, preventing the normal induction in the operational cycle. It is used to ignite the fuel in the
buildup of the magneto. combustor and then it is switched off.

The condition caused by a faulty capacitor or an opened The fuel in turbine engines can be ignited readily in ideal
circuit capacitor is easily recognized by the coarse, atmospheric conditions but, since they often operate in the
crystalline surface and the black "sooty" appearance of the low temperature of high altitudes, it is imperative that the
sides of the points. The lack of effective condenser action system be capable of supplying a high heat intensity spark.
results in an arc of intense heat being formed each time the [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 40]
points open. This, together with the oxygen in the air, rapidly
oxidizes and erodes the platinum surface of the points,
producing a coarse, crystalline, or frosted appearance.

QUESTIONS
4-46 AMP063 4-49 AMP064

The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft For safety purposes, to eliminate the possibility of the
engines is technician receiving a lethal shock; when removing a turbine
A. high resistance. engine igniter plug, what is done in addition to turning off the
B. low tension. ignition switch?
C. capacitor discharge. A. The ignition switch is disconnected from the
power circuit.
B. Disconnect the low voltage lead from the exciter,
then wait 1 minute before disconnecting the high
voltage lead.
C. Disconnect the high voltage lead from the exciter, then
wait 1 minute before removing the igniter.
4-47 AMP063 4-50 AMP026

Why are turbine engine igniter's less susceptible to fouling Which electrical wire size gauge number offers the least
than reciprocating engine spark plugs? amount of heat produced with a given voltage per length
A. The high intensity spark cleans the igniter. of conductor?
B. The frequency of the spark is less for igniter's. A. #1 gauge wire.
C. Turbine igniter's operate at cooler temperatures. B. #00 gauge wire.
C. #40 gauge wire.
4-48 AMP063 4-51 AMP006

Which of the following are included in a turbine engine In which circumstance would aluminum be a preferred
exciter unit? conductor in an aircraft environment?
1. Two Igniter Plugs A. When the intensity of corona is a concern.
2. Two Transformers B. When the wire will be subject to increased vibration.
3. Two Storage Capacitors C. When soldered connections are used.
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2, and 3 only
C. 3, only

ANSWERS

Most gas turbine engines are equipped with a high energy, First disconnect the low voltage lead. With it disconnected,
capacitor-type ignition system and are cooled by fan energy stored in the ignitor will dissipate in about 1 minute.
airflow. Some gas turbine engines may be equipped with an It is then safe to handle the high voltage components of
electronic-type ignition system, which is a variation of the the igniter.
simpler capacitor type system. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 44]

The employment of a high-frequency triggering transformer, Wire gauge numbers range from #0000 being the largest to
with a low-reactance secondary winding, holds the time #40 being the smallest. The greater diameter the conductor,
duration of the discharge for the igniter spark to a minimum. the least electrical resistance it offers and so the least
The concentration of maximum energy in minimum time amount of heat produced and so the least amount of voltage
achieves an optimum spark across the igniter electrodes drop in a comparable length.
capable of blasting carbon deposits. The spark is of great [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 45-47]
heat intensity which burns away any foreign deposits on the
electrodes. Thus, electrode fouling is minimized by the heat
of the high intensity spark.

Typical turbine engine ignition systems vary in construction Comparing aluminum to copper wiring; aluminum reduces
but most include a dual ignition exciter unit which prepares corona for a given degree of conductivity, has greater
electricity for the igniter plug. The energy is stored in discharge to a given gauge, is lighter, and cheaper. Copper
the capacitors inside the unit. Each discharge circuit offers greater conductivity, is more ductile, has a higher
incorporates two storage capacitors. The voltage across the tensile strength and is more easily soldered.
capacitors is stepped up by transformer units. The exciter [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 47]
is a dual unit that produces sparks at each of the two igniter
plugs. The igniter plugs are located in the combustion
section of the engine.

QUESTIONS
4-52 AMP026 4-54 AMP026

In general, the two most common materials for conductors in In a 28 volt system, what is the maximum continuous current
aircraft applications are that can be carried by a single No. 10 copper wire 25 feet
A. copper and silver. long, routed in free air? Refer to the graph Figure 4-79.
B. nickel and aluminum. A. 20 Amperes
C. copper and aluminum. B. 30 Amperes
C. 40 Amperes
4-53 AMP026 4-55 AMP004

The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft The wire identification code of aircraft wire is
is always considered negligible, provided the A. the choice of the manufacturer.
A. voltage drop across the circuit is checked. B. standardized throughout the industry.
B. generator is properly grounded. C. labeled only at each end of the wire near the terminal.
C. structure is adequately bonded.
Figure 4-79. Conductor graph—continuous flow.

ANSWERS

Although silver is the best conductor, its cost limits its use to In the table on the left side of the illustration, find the column
special circuits where a substance with high conductivity is that represents 28 volts. This becomes the vertical scale for
required. The two most generally used conductors are copper the graph on the right side of the illustration. The vertical
and aluminum. Each has advantages and disadvantages. scale is the length of the wire to be used so locate 25 on
Copper has higher conductivity per cross sectional area, is the vertical scale and follow that across the graph until it
more ductile, can be drawn out, has relatively high tensile intersects with the vertical line drawn upward from wire size
strength, can be easily soldered, and has fewer issues with No. 10 found on the horizontal scale of the graph. The two
corrosion. However, it is more expensive than aluminum. intersect on a diagonal red line which represents the amount
Pound for pound, aluminum is a better conductor and its of amps able to be carried with a 1 volt drop (30 amps). Note:
use can save weight on an aircraft. larger diameters used to be sure you are referencing the correct chart for continuous
match conductivity also reduce corona. However, aluminum versus intermittent current flow when making calculations
is prone to high resistance connections due to its natural using this kind of graph. (Figure 4-79)
tendency to form a protective oxide coating which requires [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 48-49
more attention to details when crimping or bonding. Figure 4-79]

The resistance of the current path through the aircraft may There is no standard procedure for marking and identifying
not be negligible if the aircraft is not properly bonded. A wiring; each manufacturer develops its own identification
resistance measurement of 1.5 ohms from ground point of code. Most manufacturers mark the wires at intervals not
the generator or battery to ground terminal of any electrical more than 15 inches lengthwise and within 3 inches of each
device is considered acceptable. junction or terminating point.
Figure 4-79. Conductor graph—continuous flow.

QUESTIONS
4-56 AMP006 4-59 AMP006

It is recommended that wire bundles contain no more than Splicing of individual aircraft electrical wires (Figure 4-86)
A. 75 wires. A. must be staggered so that the bundle does not become
B. 50 wires. excessively large.
C. 25 wires. B. is allowed but the splice must be located within 12" of
the wire end.
C. is not allowed.
Figure 4-86. Staggered splices in wire bundle.
4-57 AMP006 4-60 AMP006

When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, the When using hand crimped wire terminals,
wiring should be A. copper is preferred and should be used on aluminum or
A. in metal conduit. copper wires.
B. in a non-conductive fire-resistant sleeve. B. only aluminum terminals should be used on
C. above the fuel line. aluminum wire.
C. aluminum is preferred and should be used on aluminum
or copper wires.
4-58 AMP006 4-61 AMP006

Aircraft wire groups or bundles should be tied where Which of the following are true concerning emergency solder
supports are more than 12 inches apart using repairs of broken wires?
A. nylon tie-wraps. 1. Solder repair of broken wires is only allowed on
B. Teflon® tie-wraps. aluminum wires.
C. waxed cotton cord, nylon cord, or fiberglass cord. 2. A permanent crimped splice connector is preferred to a
solder repair.
3. A solder repair is preferred to a terminal splice.
4. Some manufacturers prohibit splicing.
5. Potting compound and a sleeve are used to complete a
soldered wire repair.
A. 1, 3, and 5
B. 2, 4, and 5
C. 3, and 5 only

ANSWERS

Grouping or bundling certain wires such as electrically Splicing of aircraft cable should be kept to a minimum and
unprotected power wiring and wiring to duplicate vital avoided entirely in locations subject to extreme vibrations.
equipment should be avoided. Wire bundles should generally Individual wires in a group or bundle can usually be spliced
be limited in size to 75 wires, or approximately 2" in diameter if the completed splice is where it can be inspected
where practicable. periodically. The splices should be staggered so that the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 51] bundle does not become excessively large. (Figure 4-86)
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 52 Figure 4-86]

When wiring must be routed parallel to combustible fluid Aluminum wire is being used increasingly in aircraft systems
or oxygen lines for short distances, as much separation because of its weight advantage over copper. However,
as possible should be maintained. The wires should be on bending aluminum causes work hardening of the metal
a level with or above the plumbing lines. Clamps should making it brittle. Only aluminum terminals should be used on
be spaced so that, if a wire is broke at a clamp, it will not aluminum wire. To counter the formation of aluminum oxide,
contact the fluid line. aluminum terminal lugs are filled with petrolatum‑zinc dust
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 54] compound. This removes the oxide film from the aluminum
by a grinding process during the crimping operation.

All wire groups or bundles should be tied where supports Broken wires can be repaired by means of crimped splices
are more than 12 inches apart. Ties are made using or by soldering together and potting broken strands. These
waxed cotton cord, nylon cord, or fiberglass cord. Some repairs are applicable to copper wire. Aluminum wire must not
manufacturers permit the use of pressure-sensitive vinyl be temporarily spliced. Some manufacturers prohibit splicing.
electrical tape. When permitted, the tape should be wrapped The applicable manufacturer’s instruction should always be
around the bundle and the ends heat sealed to prevent consulted. A sleeve is installed on one piece of the broken
unwinding of the tape. Whether lacing or tying, bundles wire so when soldering is complete, it can be pulled over the
should be secured tightly enough to prevent slipping but not repair, filled with potting compound and tied securely.
so tightly that the cord cuts into or deforms the insulation. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 60-61]
Figure 4-86. Staggered splices in wire bundle.

QUESTIONS
4-62 AMP006 4-65 AMP044

Terminal lugs When more than one generator is used in parallel, the total
A. are too small to be torqued with a torque wrench and rated output
must be finger tight plus 1/4 turn. A. can be 100% of a single generator.
B. cannot be aluminum if used with on a copper B. must be 80% of both generator outputs combined.
terminal block. C. is the combined output of both generators.
C. should be installed so they are locked against
movement in the direction of loosening.
4-63 AMP026 4-66 AMP026

Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in such a Automatic reset circuit breakers
manner that they A. reduce the load on the pilot.
A. are not subject to flexing by relative motion of airframe B. reset themselves periodically and should not be used
or engine components. on aircraft.
B. provide a low electrical resistance in the ground circuit. C. reset after the initial surge of current has passed.
C. prevent build-up of a static electrical charge between
the airframe and the surrounding atmosphere.
4-64 AMP006 4-67 AMP006

In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting the Regarding the following statements about ON/OFF
circuits when the connectors are separated for maintenance, two‑position engine electrical switches, which of the
the AN and MA electrical connectors should be installed following statements is true?
with the 1. The toggle should move in the same direction as the
A. socket section on the ground side of the electrical circuit. desired motion of the unit controlled.
B. pin section on the ground side of the electrical circuit. 2. Inadvertent operation of a switch can be prevented by a
C. pin section on the positive side of the electrical circuit. guarded switch.
3. The ON position is reached by a forward or upward motion.
A. 2 and 3 are correct.
B. 1 and 3 are correct.
C. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

ANSWERS

Terminal lugs should be installed on terminal blocks in such When more than one generator is used in parallel, the
a manner that they are locked against movement in the total rated output is the combined output of the installed
direction of loosening. Aluminum and copper lugs can be generators. The results in the requirement for quickly coping
used on the same block as long as washers of the specified with sudden overloads which could be caused by a generator
material are installed between each. As a general rule, use failure when the total connected system load exceeds the
a torque wrench to tighten nuts to ensure sufficient contact rated output of one generator. A quick load-reduction system
pressure. Manufacturer’s instructions provide installation can be employed or a specified procedure must be followed
torques for all types of terminals. for reducing the total load to a quantity that is less than the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 62] rated output of the remaining functional generators.

Bonding is the electrical connecting of two or more All resettable circuit breakers should open the circuit in
conducting objects not otherwise connected adequately. which they are installed when an overload or circuit fault
Bonding jumpers should be made as short as practicable exists. This should occur regardless of the position of the
and installed so that the resistance of each connection does operating control. This is known as a "trip-free" circuit
not exceed 1.3 ohm. The jumper should not interfere with breaker. This means one cannot hold the control switch in
the operation of movable aircraft elements, such as surface the ON position and obtain current flow if there is something
controls; normal movement of these elements should not wrong in the circuit. Automatic reset circuit breakers
result in damage to the bonding jumper. automatically reset themselves periodically. They should not
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 62] be used as circuit protection devices in aircraft.

Connectors (plugs and receptacles) facilitate maintenance Hazardous errors in switch operation can be avoided by
when frequent disconnection is required. When replacing logical and consistent installation. Two position ON-OFF
connector assemblies, the socket-type insert should be switches should be mounted so that the ON position is
used on the half of the connector that is "live" or "hot" which reached by an upward or forward movement of the toggle.
means that the pin section of the connector should be on When the switch controls movable aircraft elements, such
the ground side of the circuit. Thus, after the connector is as landing gear or flaps, the toggle should move in the
disconnected, unintentional grounding will not occur if an same direction as the desired motion of the element. Also,
exposed pin of the connector touches a conductive surface. inadvertent operation of a switch can be prevented by
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 65] mounting a suitable guard over the switch.

QUESTIONS
4-68 AMP006 4-69 AMP010

When installing a conventional aircraft electrical switch, for What type of fireproof connector is used in areas where it is
which application should a switch which is derated from its vital that the electric current is not interrupted, even though
nominal current rating be chosen? the connector may be exposed to continuous open flame?
A. DC motor circuits. A. Class C connector.
B. Capacitive circuits B. Class K connector.
C. Conductive circuits. C. Class D connector.

ANSWERS

The nominal current rating of the conventional aircraft Class K—a fireproof connector should be used in areas
switch is usually stamped on the switch housing. This rating where it is vital that the electric current is not interrupted,
represents the continuous current rating with the contacts even though the connector may be exposed to continuous
closed. Switches should be derated from their nominal open flame. Wires are crimped to the pin or socket contacts
current rating for high rush-in circuits such as incandescent and the shells are made of steel. This class of connector is
lamp circuits. Inductive circuits, which release magnetic normally longer than other connectors.
energy when the switch is opened, should employ derated [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 04 Page 66]
switches as should DC motor circuits. Motors draw several
times their rated current during starting. Magnetic energy
stored in the armature and field coils is released when the
control switch is opened.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
4-1(O). If the ignition switch is place in the OFF position but the aircraft engine continues to run, what is the probable
cause of the problem?
4-2(O). During an engine run-up magneto check, what is the range of RPM drop considered to be normal when the
mag switch is placed in the LEFT or RIGHT position?
4-3(O). A reciprocating engine either fails to start, fails to idle properly, or has low power and runs unevenly. All of
these conditions could be caused by what common defective ignition system part(s)?
4-4(O). What can be done to verify if a turbine engine igniter is firing?
4-5(O). What precautions need to be taken when removing an igniter plug from an engine?
4-6(O). What is the purpose of checking the "P" lead for a proper ground?
4-7(O). What are two types of spark plug fouling and what causes each?
4-8(O). What are the components in the primary electrical circuit of a magneto?
4-9(O). What is "E" gap?
4-10(O). How is the p-lead circuit related to the production of a spark in a magneto?
4-11(O). What is the difference between a low-tension and a high-tension ignition system?
4-12(O). What is the procedure for locating the correct electrical cable/wire size needed to fabricate a
replacement cable/wire?
4-13(O). What are some installation practices for wires running close to exhaust stacks or heating ducts?
4-14(O). What procedures must be adhered to when operating electrical system components.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
4-1(O). The "P" lead is not grounded.
4-2(O). 25-75 RPM.

4-3(O). Defective or improperly gapped spark plugs.

4-4(O). The igniter can be heard snapping while rotating the engine or the igniter can be removed from the engine and
the spark can be observed while activating the start cycle.
4-5(O). The low voltage lead to the exciter box should be disconnected and wait one minute (minimum) before
removing the ignition lead from the plug.
4-6(O). A grounded "P" lead disables the ignition and the magneto will not fire. An ungrounded "P" lead results in the
ignition being "hot" and movement of the propeller could cause the engine to start.
4-7(O). Carbon fouling – fuel/air mixtures too rich to burn or extremely lean.
Oil fouling – oil past the rings and valve guides into the cylinder.
Lead fouling – when using leaded fuel, lead oxide forms during combustion when cylinder temperature is low.
Graphite fouling – excessive application of anti-seize compound on spark plug threads.
4-8(O). The breaker contact points, a condenser, and an insulated coil.

4-9(O). The rotational position of a permanent magnet a few degrees past the neutral position where the breaker
points are opened.
4-10(O). Current is induced in the p-lead circuit by a rotating magnet. This creates a magnetic field. When the breaker
points open the p-lead circuit, the field collapses across the secondary coil windings. This produces a high-
voltage current that is directed to the spark plug to jump the electrode gap.
4-11(O). The low-tension ignition system creates a low-voltage that is distributed to a transformer coil near each spark
plug where it is changed to high voltage to fire the plug. A high-tension ignition system uses a secondary coil
inside the magneto to create the high voltage which is distributed to every spark plug.
4-12(O). Wire size considerations take into account allowable power loss, permissible voltage drop, and the current
carrying capability of the conductor. Allowance must also be made for the influence of external heating on the
wire. Replacement wire can be the same wire as the original wire. Wire can be measured with a wire gauge. It
can also be found by consulting a table produced by the American Wire Gauge if the circuit load information is
known. Additionally, wires often contain identification markings. Consulting the manufacturer’s data can reveal
exactly which wire is required by deciphering the markings which are typically coded.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
4-13(O). If possible, wires should be kept separate from high-temperature equipment. When wires must be run through
hot areas, the wires must be insulated with high-temperature rated material such as asbestos, fiberglass or
Teflon®. Running coaxial cables through hot area should be avoided. To guard against abrasion, asbestos
wires should be in a conduit lined with a high temperature rubber liner or they can be individually enclosed in
high temperature plastic tubes before being installed in the conduit.
4-14(O). The maximum load from the operation of electrical equipment should not exceed the rated limits of the wiring
or protection devices. If loads can exceed the output limits of the alternator or generator, the load should be
reduced so that an overload does not occur. If a battery is part of the electrical power system, it should be
continuously charged in flight except for momentary intermittent heavy loads such as the operation of a landing
gear motor or flaps, etc. Placards should be used to alert flight crews concerning operations that may cause
an overload. The total continuous load should be held to 80% of the rated generator or alternator output when
assurance is needed that the battery power source is being charged in flight. When two generators are in use, a
specified procedure for quick load-reduction should be employed if, for whatever reason, only one generator is
functioning and the load must be reduced to that which the single generator can handle without overload.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
4-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, flash a generator field. [Level 3]
4-2(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install an engine driven
generator or alternator and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-3(P). Given an engine electrical wiring schematic and an unknown discrepancy, explain the schematic’s layout and
symbols and demonstrate how it can be used to troubleshoot for the cause of the discrepancy. [Level 2]
4-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install a tachometer generator
4-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling fabricate an
electrical system cable. [Level 3]
4-6(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling repair damaged
engine electrical system wire and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling replace and check
a current limiter and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling complete a
functional or operational check of one or more specified engine electrical system components and record
4-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling service one or
more specified engine electrical system components and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-10(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling complete an
adjustment on one or more specified engine electrical system components and record maintenance. [Level 3]
unknown discrepancy troubleshoot an engine electrical system component and record your findings. [Level 3]
4-12(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a turbine engine
ignition system for proper installation and record your findings. [Level 3]
4-13(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a starter/generator for
proper installation and record your findings. [Level 3]
4-14(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect magneto points and

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
4-15(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling perform a functional check of
the engine timing and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-16(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling perform an operational check
of a magneto switch and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-17(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install a magneto, set the
timing and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-18(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling, repair an engine
starter system and record maintenance. [Level 3]
ignition system and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-20(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling, complete the
following: remove and inspect turbine engine igniter plugs and record findings, install turbine engine igniter
plugs, perform a functional check of the igniter system, and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-21(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling, inspect generator
or starter-generator brushes and record findings. [Level 3]
4-22(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install brushes in a starter or
starter-generator and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-23(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install breaker points in a
magneto, internally time the magneto, and record maintenance. [Level 3]
direct drive electric starter and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-25(P). Given an ignition harness with a high-tension lead tester, appropriate publications, materials, equipment, and
tooling, inspect and test the harness and record your findings. [Level 3]
4-26(P). Given an aircraft spark plug(s), appropriate publications, materials, equipment, and tooling, inspect them and
4-27(P). Given an aircraft spark plug(s), appropriate publications, materials, equipment, and tooling, service and install
them and record maintenance. [Level 3]
4-28(P). Given an ignition system component, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling, bench test the
component and record your findings. [Level 2]


ENGINE STARTING SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Reciprocating Engine Starting Systems, Gas Turbine Engine Starters,
Electric Starting Systems, and Air Turbine Starters
05
QUESTIONS
5-1 AMP063 5-4 AMP063

In older reciprocating aircraft inertia starting systems, energy What assists the starter jaw in retracting after the
for cranking the engine is stored in the starter motor is disengaged on a typical direct cranking
A. flywheel. reciprocating engine starter?
B. battery. A. Centrifugal Force
C. generator. B. Return Spring
C. Oil Pressure
5-2 AMP025 5-5 AMP065

What type of electric motor is used with a direct-cranking Reciprocating engine starters
engine starter? A. are capable of continuous cranking for up to five minutes.
A. Direct current shunt-wound motor. B. have starting limits which restrict continuous cranking
B. Direct current series-wound motor. to one minute.
C. Synchronous motor. C. use a two minute ON, two minute OFF cranking cycle.
5-3 AMP063 5-6 AMP063

The starter gear section on the typical direct cranking starter In automatic starting systems on small reciprocating
used for starting a large reciprocating aircraft engine engine aircraft,
A. converts the low starter motor speed into low torque to A. a starter solenoid is energized to allow current to flow
crank the engine. to the starter motor.
B. uses oil pressure to engage and disengage with B. current flows through the ignition switch directly to
the flywheel. the starter.
C. uses a sun and planetary gear reduction system C. starter current passes through the induction vibrator to
to transfer the energy of the starter motor to the ensure a hot spark is available before cranking.
engine flywheel.

ENGINE STARTING SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

In the inertia starter, energy is stored slowly during an When the engine starts, the rapidly moving engine jaw teeth
energizing process by a manual hand crank or electrically (of the starter ring gear), striking the slower moving starter
with a small motor. During the energizing of the starter, all jaw teeth hold the starter jaw disengaged. As soon as the
movable parts within it, including the flywheel, are set in starter comes to rest, the engaging force is removed and
motion. When the starter is engaged, or meshed, flywheel the small return spring throws the starter jaw into its fully
energy is transferred to the engine through sets of reduction retracted position where it remains until the next start.
gears and a torque overload release clutch. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 5]

The most widely used starting system on all types of All starting systems have operating time limits because of
reciprocating engines utilizes the direct cranking electric the high energy used during cranking or rotating the engine.
starter. The direct cranking electric starter consists of an These limits are referred to as starting limits and must be
electric motor, reduction gears, and an automatic engaging observed or overheating and damage to the starter occurs.
and disengaging mechanism. The typical starter motor is a After energizing the starter for 1 minute, it should be allowed
12 or 24-volt, series-wound motor that develops high starting to cool for at least one minute. After a second or subsequent
torque. cranking period of one minute, it should cool for five minutes.

The starter gear section consists of an external housing with A small aircraft automatic starting systems, or remote
an integral mounting flange, planetary gear reduction, a sun solenoid engaged starting system, employs an electric
and integral gear assembly, a torque-limiting clutch, and a starter mounted on an engine adapter. A starter solenoid is
jaw and cone assembly. The torque developed in the starter activated by either a push‑ button or by turning the ignition
motor is transmitted to the starter jaw through the reduction key on the instrument panel. When the solenoid is activated,
gear train and clutch. The starter gear train converts the its contacts close and electrical energy energizes the starter
high speed low torque of the motor to the low speed high motor. Initial rotation of the starter motor engages the starter
torque required to crank the engine. A sun gear drives three to the engine via the starter adapter and reduction gears.
planetary gears which transmit torque to the starter jaw. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 7]

QUESTIONS
5-7 AMP064 5-10 AMP065

If a starter commutator on a reciprocating engine is found The purpose of the undercurrent relay in a starter‑generator
with a glazed surface system is to
A. the contacting surface should be cleaned A. provide back-up for the starter relay.
with sandpaper. B. disconnect power from the starter-generator and
B. the contacting surfaces should be cleaned with an ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.
approved solvent. C. keep current flow to the starter‑generator under the
C. the commutator should be replaced. circuit capacity maximum.
5-8 AMP064 5-11 AMP065

What is used to polish commutators or slip rings? In a typical starter-generator system, under which of the
A. Very fine sandpaper. following starting circumstances may it be necessary to use
B. Crocus cloth or fine oilstone. the stop-start switch?
C. Aluminum oxide or garnet paper. A. Hung Start
B. Hot Start
C. Contacts Stick Open
5-9 AMP063 5-12 AMP063

What is the purpose of the second set of windings in a At which point does the drive coupling of a turbine engine air
turbine engine starter‑generator? starter stop turning?
A. As a backup for the primary winding. A. When the sprag clutch disengages.
B. One winding is for starting, the second is for B. When the starter reaches its overrun speed.
generator applications. C. When the engine is shut down.
C. To add additional torque for starting.

ANSWERS

A glazed or dirty starter commutator can be cleaned with a In a starter‑generator system, as the starter motor builds
strip of double-0 sandpaper or a brush seating stone. Do not up speed, the current draw of the starter decreases. As it
use Emery cloth or a carbon based sandpaper, as this could decreases to less than 200 amps, the undercurrent relay
cause electrical shorting. opens. This action breaks the circuit from the positive bus to
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 7] the coils of the motor, ignition and battery cutout relays. The
de‑energizing of these relay coils halts the start operation.

A glazed or dirty starter commutator can be cleaned by On a normal start on an engine with a starter‑generator
holding a strip of double 0 sandpaper or a brush seating system, once the starter speed reaches a speed due to the
stone against the commutators as it is turned. The engine having started, the undercurrent relay opens and the
sandpaper or stone should be moved back and forth across starter (and ignition) is taken off line. The engine should be
the commutators to avoid wearing a groove. Emery paper operating efficiently and ignition should be self sustaining.
and carborundum should never be used for this purpose If the engine fails to reach sufficient speed to halt starter
because of their possible shorting action. operation (hung start), the start-stop switch can be used to
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 8] break the circuit from the positive battery bus to the main
circuit of the undercurrent relay.

The starter‑generator is a shunt generator with an additional When an air starter reaches its overrun speed, the sprag
C field winding. During normal generation, a shunt winding, clutch allows the gear train to coast to a halt. However, the
compensating wing and commutating windings are used. For output shaft and drive coupling continue to turn for as long
starting a C field winding is engaged and the shunt winding as the engine is running.
disengaged as it serves no practical use. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 14]

QUESTIONS
5-13 AMP063 5-15 AMP064

Which is the basic component of pneumatic starter? Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians
A. An axial flow turbine. usually includes checking the
B. A centrifugal flow compressor. A. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.
C. Dual rotor turbine. B. stator and rotor blades for FOD.
C. rotor alignment.
5-14 AMP063 5-16 AMP063

Pneumatic starters contain a turbine which is driven by air On many turbine powered aircraft, the start valve works in
and rotates the reduction gear train through a sprag clutch. conjunction with what other valve to supply the correct flow
The clutch is of air to the pneumatic starter?
A. manually engaged and automatically disengaged. A. Starter outflow valve.
B. automatically engaged and manually disengaged. B. Bleed air backflow regulator valve.
C. automatically engaged and automatically disengaged. C. Pressure-regulating and shutoff valve.

ANSWERS

The typical air turbine starter consists of an axial flow Normal maintenance for air turbine starters includes
turbine that turns a drive coupling through a reduction gear checking the oil level, inspecting the magnetic chip detector,
train and a starter clutch mechanism. The air to operate and checking for leaks. The starter housing incorporates a
the starter is supplied from either a ground source or an sight gauge that is used to check the oil quantity. A magnetic
onboard source (i.e., APU, bleed air from another engine). drain plug in the transmission drain opening attracts any
Only one source of 30-50 psi air is used at a time to start ferrous particles that may be in the oil. The starter uses
the engine. The starter is operated by introducing air into the turbine oil, the same as the engine, but starter oil does not
starter inlet. The air passes into the starter turbine housing circulate through the engine.
where it is directed against the axial flow turbine blades [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 14]
causing the starter to rotate.

As the rotor of a pneumatic clutch turns, it drives the The starting air path is directed through a combination
reduction gears and carrier, sprag clutch assembly, output Pressure-Regulating and Shutoff Valve (PRSOV) that controls
shaft assembly, and drive coupling. The sprag clutch all duct pressure flowing to the starter inlet ducting. This
assembly engages automatically as soon as the rotor starts valve regulates the pressure of the starter operating air
to turn but disengages as soon as the drive coupling turns and shuts off the supply of operating air when required.
more rapidly than the rotor side of the starter. When the Downstream of the PRSOV, the start valve, usually mounted
starter reaches this overrun speed, the action of the sprag at the inlet to the starter, opens and closes to control the
clutch allows the gear train to coast to a halt. airflow into the starter.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 13] [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 05 Page 14-16]

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
5-1(O). Name two possible causes of a starter motor that drags.
5-2(O). Name two starter maintenance procedures to keep a starter in proper operational condition.
5-3(O). What is the purpose for the undercurrent relay in a starter-generator circuit?
5-4(O). What are the sources of air for a pneumatic starter as used on a gas turbine engine?
5-5(O). Why is an air turbine starter cut out after engine self-accelerating speed?
5-6(O). Explain the inspection and replacement criterion for brushes on a starter-generator.
5-7(O). Explain the operation of a turbine engine starter-generator.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
5-1(O). Low battery, starter switch or relay controls burned or dirty, defective starter, and inadequate brush
spring tension.
5-2(O). Replacing brushes and brush springs, surfacing or turning down the commutator, checking the security of
the mounting bolts, ensuring the drive gear and the flywheel ring gear are in good condition, and checking the
electrical connection for security and corrosion.
5-3(O). To open the circuit causing current flow to the motor for its use as a starter so that it can be used as a generator.
5-4(O). A ground operated cart, an APU, or cross-bleed from a running engine on the aircraft.
5-5(O). To prevent overspeed since the engine turns at a higher RPM.

5-6(O). Inspection of starter-generator bushes and brush springs is standard starting system maintenance. Typically,
brushes are replaced when worn to approximately one-half the original length. Brush spring tension should be
sufficient to give brushes a good, firm contact with the commutator. The brush leads should also be inspected
to ensure that they are unbroken and that the lead terminal connection is tight.
5-7(O). A starter-generator is a shunt generator with an additional heavy series winding. This series winding is
electrically connected to produce a strong field and results in high torque for starting. The starter-generator is
engaged with the engine at all times. The two-in-one configuration saves both space and weight. To engage
the starter, the master switch must first be closed. Then, closing the battery and start switch energizes the
starter portion of the unit through an undercurrent relay. As the motor builds up speed, the current draw or
the motor begins to decrease. As it decreases to less than 200 amps, the undercurrent relay opens and thus
the circuit from the positive bus to the series winding of the starter motor is interrupted. This halts the start
operation and the shut generator comes on line.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
5-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a starter for proper
installation and record findings. [Level 3]
starter system and record maintenance. [Level 3]
5-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a starter‑generator
and record findings. [Level 3]
5-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install brushes in a starter
5-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install brushes in a starter-
generator and record maintenance. [Level 3]
direct drive electric starter and record maintenance. [Level 3]

ANSWERS

LUBRICATING AND COOLING CHAPTER
Reciprocating Engine Lubrication Systems, Lubrication System Maintenance,
Changing Oil and Turbine Engine Lubricants
06
QUESTIONS
6-1 AMP029 6-4 AMP029

In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between moving If the flash point of an aviation oil is too low, during
parts), engine oil performs what functions? operations at elevated temperatures, it will
1. Cools A. produce flammable vapors.
2. Seals B. ignite.
3. Cleans C. lose its minimum viscosity.
4. Prevents corrosion
5. Cushions impact (shock) loads
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
C. 1, 3, and 4
6-2 AMP030 6-5 AMP029

What is the source of most of the heat that is absorbed by Which of the following factors helps determine the proper
the lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine? grade of oil to use in a particular engine?
A. Crankshaft and main bearings A. Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
B. Exhaust valves B. Positive introduction of oil to the bearings.
C. Pistons and cylinder walls C. Operating speeds of bearings.
6-3 AMP029 6-6 AMP029

The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil is its
A. resistance to flow. viscosity index based?
B. rate of change of internal friction with change A. Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature
in temperature. as compared to high grade paraffin-base oil at the
C. weight, or density. same temperature.
B. Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature change.
C. Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard temperature.

LUBRICATING AND COOLING
ANSWERS

In addition to reducing friction, the oil film acts as a cushion At its flash point, the oil begins to emit ignitable
between metal parts. This is particularly important for such vapors. Those vapors are then capable of flashing and
parts as crankshaft and connecting rods which are subject supporting a fire.
to shock loads. Oil cools by absorbing heat from the pistons [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 3]
and cylinder walls and also provides the sealing between
the piston and the cylinder wall. Oil cleans the engine by
reducing abrasive wear. It picks up foreign particles and
carries them to a filter where they are removed. Oil also
prevents corrosion on the interior of the engine by leaving a
coating of oil on parts when the engine is shut down.

As oil circulates through the engine, it absorbs heat from Several factors must be considered in determining the
the pistons and cylinder walls. In reciprocating engines, proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine, the most
these components are especially dependent on the oil for important of which are the operating load, rotational speeds,
cooling. Crankshafts and main bearings are not exposed and operating temperatures. The grade of the lubricating oil
to the high temperature of the combustion chamber. to be used is determined by the operating conditions to be
Exhaust valves have no significant contact with the oil in a met in the various types of engines.
reciprocating engine. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 3]

While there are several important properties that satisfactory The viscosity index is a number that indicates the effect of
reciprocating engine oil must possess, its viscosity is most temperature changes on the viscosity of the oil. When oil has
important in engine operation. The resistance of an oil to flow a low viscosity index, it signifies a relatively large change of
is known as viscosity. Oil that flows slowly is viscous or has viscosity across temperature variations. The oil becomes thin
high viscosity; if it flows freely, the oil has low viscosity. at high temperatures and thick at low temperatures. Oils with
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 2] a high viscosity index have small changes in viscosity over
a wide temperature index. The best oil for most purposes
is one that maintains a constant viscosity throughout
temperature changes (high viscosity index).

QUESTIONS
6-7 AMP029 6-10 AMP030

Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a substance Engine oil lubricating systems on aircraft reciprocating
to the weight of an equal volume of engines are
A. oil at a specific temperature. A. splash type or spray type.
B. distilled water at a specific temperature. B. pressure type or a combination of pressure and
C. mercury at a specific temperature. splash type.
C. pressure type only.
6-8 AMP029 6-11 AMP030

What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recommend An oil tank having a capacity of 5 gallons, must have an
for new reciprocating engine break-in? expansion space of
A. Ashless-dispersant oil. A. 2 quarts.
B. Straight mineral oil. B. 4 quarts.
C. Semi-synthetic oil. C. 5 quarts.
6-9 AMP029 6-12 AMP004

What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recommend Oil tank fillers on reciprocating engines are marked with
after new reciprocating engine break-in? the word
A. Metallic ash detergent oil. A. 'oil' type, and grade, in accordance with
B. Ashless-dispersant oil. 14 CFR part 33.
C. Straight mineral oil. B. 'oil' and tank capacity, in accordance with
14 CFR part 45.
C. 'oil' in accordance with 14 CFR part 23.

ANSWERS

Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a The lubricating oil is distributed to the various moving
substance to the weight of an equal volume of distilled parts of a typical internal combustion engine by one of the
water at a specified temperature. As an example, water following methods: pressure, splash, or a combination of
weighs approximately 8 pounds to the gallon. Oil with a pressure and splash. The pressure lubricating system is
specific gravity of .9 would weigh 7.2 pounds to the gallon the principle method. Usually, the pressure type lubricating
(8 × .9 = 7.2). system combined with splash lubrication is used.

Oil grades 65, 80, and 120 are straight mineral oils blended Each oil tank used with a reciprocating engine must have
from select high viscosity index base oil. These oils do not expansion space of not less than the greater of 10 percent of
contain any additives except for very small amounts of pour the tank capacity or .5 gallons. A 5 gallon tank has a 20 quart
point depressant, which helps improve fluidity at very low capacity. 10 percent of 20 quarts is 2 quarts (.1 × 20 = 2).
temperatures and an antioxidant. This type of oil is used Since this is the same as .5 gallons, neither is larger, so the
during the break-in period of a new aviation piston engine required expansion space is 2 quarts.
or those recently overhauled. The additives in some of the [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 5]
ashless dispersant oils may retard the break in of the piston
rings and cylinder walls causing high oil consumption.
This condition can be avoided by the use of mineral oil
until normal oil consumption is obtained, then change to
ashless dispersant oil.

The ashless-dispersant grades of oil are recommended Each filler cap of an oil tank that is used with an aircraft
for aircraft engines subject to wide variations of ambient reciprocating engine must provide an oil‑tight seal. The filler
temperature, particularly the turbocharged series engines cap or cover is marked with the word "OIL".
that require oil to activate the various turbo controllers. The [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 5]
ashless dispersant grades contain additives which extend
operating temperature range and improve cold weather
starting. They permit flight through wider ranges of climactic
changes without the necessity of changing oil.

QUESTIONS
6-13 AMP030 6-16 AMP030

Why is an aircraft reciprocating engine oil tank on a dry sump On a gear type oil pump consisting of a drive gear and an
lubricating system equipped with a vent line? idler gear
A. To prevent pressure buildup in the reciprocating A. both gears turn clockwise.
engine crankcase. B. both gears turn counter clockwise.
B. To eliminate foaming in the oil tank. C. one gear turns clockwise, and the other turns
C. To prevent pressure buildup in the oil tank. counter clockwise.
6-14 AMP055 6-17 AMP030

What is the primary purpose of the hopper located in the oil A Bourdon tube type oil pressure gauges measures the
supply tank of some dry sump engine installations? difference in oil pressure between a location
A. To reduce the time required to warm the oil to A. after the oil pump and the atmosphere.
operating temperature. B. before and after the oil pump.
B. To reduce surface aeration of the hot oil and thus C. after the oil pump and that of a factory preset value.
reduce oxidation and the formation of sludge
and varnish.
C. To impart a centrifugal motion to the oil entering the
tank so that the foreign particles in the oil will separate
more readily.
6-15 AMP030 6-18 AMP030

In what location (flow sequence) on a reciprocating engine is Where is the oil temperature bulb located on a dry sump
the main oil filter located? reciprocating engine?
A. Just after the scavenge pump. A. Oil inlet line
B. Just before entering the oil pressure pump. B. Oil cooler
C. Just after exiting the oil pressure pump. C. Oil cooler outlet line

ANSWERS

Oil tank vent lines are provided to ensure proper tank Both the drive and the idler gear turn in opposite directions
ventilation in all altitude of flight. These lines are usually allowing oil to flow under pressure in the space wear the
connected to the engine crankcase to prevent the loss of gears mesh in between them. While is is typical for the driven
oil through the vents. This indirectly vents the tanks to the gear to turn counter clockwise, it will work either way, as long
atmosphere through the crankcase breather. as both turn in the center in the direction of the oil flow.

To help with engine warm up, some oil tanks have a built-in A Bourdon tube gauge measures the difference between
hopper or temperature accelerating unit. This well extends the oil pressure in the system and cabin or atmospheric
from the oil return fitting on top of the oil tank to the outlet pressure. The oil system location is measured in line after
fitting in the sump in the bottom of the tank. By separating being boosted by the oil pump. The gauge is similar to all
the circulating oil from the surrounding oil in the tank, less oil other Bourdon tube devices except for the small size of the
is circulated. This hastens the warming of the oil when the oil opening to prevent pressure surges from the pump from
engine is started. Very few of these tanks are still in use and damaging the gauge.
most are associated with radial engines installations. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 9]

Full flow oil filters are the most widely used oil filters on In dry sump lubricating systems, the oil temperature bulb
aircraft reciprocating engines. The filter is positioned may be anywhere in the oil inlet line between the supply tank
between the oil pump and the engine bearings which filters and the engine. The bulb is located so that it measures the
the oil of any contaminants before they pass through the temperature of the oil before it enters the hot sections of
engine bearing surfaces. the engine.

QUESTIONS
6-19 AMP030 6-21 AMP030

In order to relieve excess pump pressure in an engine’s A floating control thermostat is used on some
internal oil system, most engines are equipped with a reciprocating aircraft engines. How does this device help to
(Figure 6-6) regulate oil temperature?
A. vent. A. It controls oil flow through the oil cooler.
B. bypass valve. B. It controls valves which recirculates hot oil back
C. relief valve. through the sump.
C. It controls air flow through the oil cooler.
6-20 AMP030 6-22 AMP030

If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket becomes Cylinder walls are usually lubricated by
congealed, what unit prevents damage to the cooler? A. splashed or sprayed oil.
A. Oil pressure relief valve B. a direct pressure system fed through the crankshaft,
B. Airflow control valve connecting rods, and piston pins to the oil control ring
C. Surge protection valve groove in the piston.
C. oil that is picked up by the oil control ring when the
piston is at bottom center.
Relief valve Oil pressure passage to engine
Bypass valve
Oil valve
Oil filter
Gear-type oil pump
Figure 6-6. Engine oil pump and associated units.

ANSWERS

An oil pressure regulating valve limits oil pressure to a One of the most widely used automatic oil temperature
predetermined value, depending on the installation. This control devices is a floating control thermostat that provides
valve is sometimes called a relief valve but its real function is manual and automatic control of the engine oil inlet
to regulate the oil pressure at a preset pressure level. temperatures. With this type of control, the oil cooler air exit
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 7 Figure 6-6] door is opened and closed. This regulates the amount of air
flowing through the cooler and thus the temperature of the oil
that passes through the cooler on its way to the engine.

When oil in the system is congealed, the scavenger pump The engine cylinder surfaces receives oil sprayed from the
may build up a very high pressure in the oil return line. To crankshaft and also from the crankpin bearings. Since oil
prevent this high pressure from bursting the oil cooler or seeps slowly through the small crankpin clearances before
blowing off the hose connections, some aircraft have surge it is sprayed on the cylinder walls, considerable time is
protection valves in the engine lubricating systems. One type required for enough oil to reach the cylinder walls, especially
of surge valve is incorporated in the oil cooler flow control on a cold day when oil flow is more sluggish.
valve; another type is a separate unit in the oil return line. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 13]
Relief valve Oil pressure passage to engine
Bypass valve
Oil valve
Oil filter
Gear-type oil pump
Figure 6-6. Engine oil pump and associated units.

QUESTIONS
6-23 AMP056 6-26 AMP031

The oil temperature regulator is usually located between Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal engine
which of the following on a dry sump reciprocating engine? components. However, high oil pressure
A. the engine oil supply pump and the internal A. should be limited to the manufacturer’s
lubrication system recommendations.
B. the scavenge pump outlet and the oil storage tank B. has a negligible effect.
C. the oil storage tank and the engine oil supply pump C. will not occur because of pressure losses around
the bearings.
6-24 AMP030 6-27 AMP029

The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry sump Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of oils used
aircraft engine’s lubrication system in turbine engines
A. is greater than the capacity of the oil pressure pump. A. are required to carry and disperse a higher level of
B. is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump. combustion by-products.
C. is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply pump B. may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon
in order to maintain constant oiling conditions. formation in the engine.
C. have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke.
6-25 AMP031 6-28 AMP029

What is the primary purpose of changing aircraft engine In regards to using a turbine engine oil analysis program,
lubricating oils at predetermined periods? which of the following is NOT true?
A. The oil becomes diluted with gasoline washing past the A. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made
pistons into the crankcase. after an engine’s first oil sample analysis.
B. The oil becomes contaminated with moistures, acids, B. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an engine
and finely divided suspended solid particles. when it is new.
C. Exposure to heat and oxygen causes a decreased C. A successful oil analysis program should be run over an
ability to maintain a film under load. engine’s total operating life so that normal trends can
be identified.

ANSWERS

Oil collected in the sump is picked up by the scavenge pump The oil pressure must be high enough to ensure adequate
as quickly as it accumulates On dry sump engines, this oil lubrication of the engine and accessories at high speeds and
leaves the engine, passes through the oil cooler and returns power settings. On the other hand, the pressure must not be
to the supply tank. too high, since leakage and damage to the oil system may
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 13] result. The oil pressure reading should be between the limits
prescribed by the manufacturer at all throttle settings.

Oil collected in the sump is picked up by the scavenge pump The many requirements for lubricating oils are met in the
as quickly as it accumulates. These pumps have a greater synthetic oils developed specifically for turbine engines.
capacity than the pressure pump. This is needed because Synthetic oil has principle advantages over petroleum
the volume of the oil has generally increased due to foaming oil. It has a lower tendency to deposit lacquer and coke
(mixing with air). (solids left after solvents from the oil have been evaporated)
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 13] because it does not evaporate the solvents from the oil at
high temperature.

Oil in service is constantly exposed to many harmful Oil analysis programs allow an oil sample to be analyzed
substances that reduce its ability to protect moving parts. and searched for the presence of minute metallic elements.
The main contaminants are: gasoline, moisture, acids, dirt, The analyzed elements can be grouped into categories
carbon, and metallic particles. Because of the accumulation such as wear metals and additives. Expert analysis can
of these harmful substances, common practice is to drain use this information to determine engine condition. If the
the entire lubrication system at regular intervals and refill amount of wear metals increase beyond a normal rate, a
with new oil. repair or maintenance can be ordered before engine failure
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 17-18] occurs. Thus, it is best to start an oil analysis program on
an engine when it is new and continue it throughout its total
operating life to be able to distinguish normal and abnormal
trends and conditions.

QUESTIONS
6-29 AMP030 6-32 AMP030

What type of oil system is found on turbine engines? What is the purpose of the relief valve installed in the venting
A. wet sump system of a turbine engine oil tank?
B. dry sump A. Prevent oil pump cavitations by maintaining positive
C. wet or dry pump depending on design pressure on its inlet.
B. Maintain tank pressure at ambient atmospheric levels.
C. Maintain tank pressure upon engine shutdown to
prevent oil pump cavitations on start-up.
6-30 AMP068 6-33 AMP030

Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine The type of oil pump most commonly used on turbine
engine components? powered engines are classified as
A. rotor coupling A. positive displacement.
B. exhaust turbine bearing B. variable displacement.
C. compressor bearing C. constant speed.
6-31 AMP027 6-34 AMP030

Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat What is the purpose of a last chance oil filter?
exchanger on a turbojet engine? A. to prevent damage to the oil pump gears
A. Aerates the fuel. B. to prevent clogging of the oil spray nozzles that spray
B. Emulsifies the oil. the main bearings
C. Increases fuel temperature. C. to assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication system

ANSWERS

Both wet and dry-sump lubrication systems are used in gas In most oil tanks, a pressure buildup is desired within the
turbine engines. Wet-sump engines store the lubricating oil in tank to ensure a positive flow of oil to the oil pump inlet. The
the engine proper, while dry-sump engines utilize an external pressure buildup is made possible by running the vent line
tank mounted on the engine or somewhere in the aircraft through an adjustable check relief valve. The check relief
structure near the engine. valve is usually set to relieve at about 4 psi, keeping positive
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 12-14] pressure on the oil pump inlet.

The exhaust turbine bearing is the most critical lubricating Turbine engine oil pumps may be one of several types, each
point in a gas turbine engine because of the high having certain advantages and limitations. The two most
temperature normally present. In some engines, air cooling is common oil pumps are the gear and gerotor, with the gear-
used in addition to oil cooling of the turbine bearings. type being the most commonly used. Both gear and gerotor
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 21] pumps are constant displacement pumps since they deliver
a fixed volume of oil with each rotation of the gears.

When an oil cooler is required on a gas turbine engine, a Main oil filters strain the oil as it leaves the pump before
greater quantity of oil is required to provide for circulation being piped to the various points of lubrication in the engine.
between the cooler and the engine. To ensure proper In addition to main oil filters, there are also secondary filters.
temperature, oil is routed through either an air-cooled or fuel- Fine-mesh screens called last chance filters are used to
cooled oil cooler. The fuel-cooled system is also used to heat strain the oil just before it passes from spray nozzles onto
(regulate) the fuel to prevent ice in the fuel. the main bearing surfaces. These filters are located at each
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 22] bearing and help screen out contaminants that could plug
the oil spray nozzles.

QUESTIONS
6-35 AMP030 6-38 AMP031

What is the primary purpose of the oil breather pressurization Turbine engine lubrication system maintenance intervals are
system that is used on turbine engines? A. set by the operator.
A. Prevents foaming of the oil. B. set by the manufacturer.
B. Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because C. every 100 hours.
of the air/oil mist.
C. Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main
bearing oil jets.
6-36 AMP030 6-39 AMP027

Which type of valve prevents oil from entering the main The greatest portion of heat generated by combustion in a
accessory case when the engine is not running? typical aircraft reciprocating engine is
A. bypass A. converted into useful power.
B. relief B. carried out with the exhaust gases.
C. check C. dissipated through the cylinder walls and heads.
6-37 AMP031 6-40 AMP027

What is used on most turbine engines to monitor engine What is the function of a blast tube as used on aircraft
wear possibly providing notification in advance of an internal reciprocating engines?
engine problem? A. a means of cooling the engine by utilizing the
A. sight gauges at the bearings and accessory housing propeller backwash
B. magnetic chip detectors at key oil scavenge locations B. a tube used to load a cartridge starter
C. oil conductivity transmitters in the sump or oil reservoirs C. a device to cool an engine accessory

ANSWERS

Breather subsystems are used to remove excess air from the Maintenance of gas turbine lubrication systems consists
bearing cavities and return the air to the oil tank where it is mainly of adjusting, removing, cleaning and replacing various
separated from any oil mixed in the vapor of air and oil by the components. Oil filter maintenance and oil change intervals
deaerator. Then, the air is vented overboard. This allows air for turbine engines vary widely from model to model,
free oil to be pumped to engine lubrication points to provide depending on the severity of the oil temperature conditions
the required lubrication. imposed by the specific airframe installation and engine
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 26] configuration. The applicable manufacturer’s instructions
should be followed.

Check valves are sometimes used in the oil supply lines About one-fourth of the heat released by combustion in a
of dry-sump oil systems to prevent reservoir oil from reciprocating aircraft engine is converted into useful power.
seeping (by gravity) through the oil pump elements The remainder of the heat must be dissipated so that it is
and high pressure lines into the engine after shutdown. not destructive to the engine. In a typical powerplant, half
Check valves, by stopping flow in an opposite direction, of the heat goes out with the exhaust and the remainder is
prevent accumulations of undue amounts of oil in the absorbed by the engine to be redistributed by the oil or the
accessory gearbox, compressor rear housing, and the cooling air.
combustion chamber. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 33]

Magnetic chip detectors are used in the oil system to detect Blast tubes are built into the engine compartment baffles to
and catch ferrous (magnetic) particles present in the oil. direct jets of cooling air onto engine accessories to prevent
Chip detectors are placed in several locations but generally overheating. Most often the tubes route air to areas with heat
are in the scavenge lines for each scavenge pump, oil tank, sensitive components that may not receive adequate cooling
and in the oil sumps. If metal is found on a chip detector, an air. Rear spark plug elbows are often the focus of blast tube
investigation should be made to find the source of the metal air as are alternators.
on the detector. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 33]

QUESTIONS
6-41 AMP027 6-43 AMP027

The primary purpose of baffles and deflectors installed 1. Some exhaust systems include an augmenter system to
around cylinders of air-cooled aircraft engines is to draw additional air over the engine for cooling.
A. create a low pressure area aft of the cylinders. 2. Augmenter systems are used to create a low pressure
B. force cooling air into close contact with all parts of area at the lower rear of the aircraft engine cowling.
the cylinders.
C. increase the volume of air used to cool the engine. Regarding the above statements,
Deflector
6-44 AMP027
Where are cooling fins located on the outside of air-cooled
engines?
A. crankcase and oil sump
Air baffle
B. cylinder heads and cylinder barrels
C. cylinder barrels and engine cowl baffles
Figure 6-50. Cylinder baffle and deflector system.
6-42 AMP027 6-45 AMP056

During climb, cowl flaps are left Which of the following defects would likely cause a hot spot
A. fully open. on a reciprocating engine cylinder?
B. partially open. A. too much cooling fin area broken off
C. fully closed. B. a cracked cylinder baffle
C. cowling air seal leak

ANSWERS

Cowling and baffles are designed to force air over the Some aircraft use augmenters to provide additional cooling
cylinder cooling fins. The baffles direct the air close around airflow. The exhaust gas mixes with air that has passed
cylinders and prevent air from forming hot pools of stagnant over the engine and heats it to form a high temperature,
air while the main streams rush by unused. The air baffle low pressure, jet like exhaust. The low pressure area in the
blocks the flow of air and forces it to circulate between the augmenters draws additional cooling air over the engine.
cylinder and the deflector. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 34]
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 33 & 38]
Deflector
6-44 Answer B.
The cylinder fins radiate heat from the cylinder walls and
heads. As the air passes over the fins, it absorbs this heat,
carries it away from the cylinder, and is exhausted overboard
through the bottom rear of the cowl.
Air baffle
Figure 6-50. Cylinder baffle and deflector system.
6-42 Answer B. 6-45 Answer A

The function of cowl flaps is to regulate (increase) cooling. If total fins broken on any cylinder head exceed a certain
However, they incur a penalty of increased drag on number of square inches of area, the cylinder is removed and
the airframe. In flight, during high powered climb, cowl replaced. The reason for removal is that missing fin area of a
flaps are opened just enough to keep the engine below large size would cause a hot spot on the cylinder since very
red line temperatures. little heat transfer would occur. Applicable manufacturer’s
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 34] instructions should be consulted when determining allowable
fin area missing or damaged.

QUESTIONS
6-46 AMP012 6-48 AMP027

Cylinder head temperatures are measured by means of an What air is used to cool the exterior and nacelle of a
indicator and a turbofan engine?
A. resistance bulb sensing device. A. compressor bleed air
B. Wheatstone bridge sensing device. B. conditioned air from the air cycle machine
C. thermocouple sensing device. C. fan air
6-47 AMP027 6-49 AMP005

How are combustion liner walls cooled in a gas Reciprocating engine cooling system consist of
turbine engine? A. engine cowling, cylinder baffles, cylinder fins, and some
A. by secondary air flowing through the combustion chamber use a type of cowl flaps.
B. by the pattern of holes and louvers cut in the B. engine cowling, cylinder baffles, cylinder fins, and
diffuser section cooling fan.
C. by bleed air vented from the engine air inlet C. cylinder baffles, cylinder fins, and cooling fan.

ANSWERS

Cylinder temperature indicating systems usually consist Internal bleed air from the engine compressor section is
of an indicator, electrical wiring , and a thermocouple. The vented to the bearings and other parts of the engine for
thermocouple connects to the cylinder head and is either cooling. The engine exterior and the engine nacelle are
the bayonet-type or the gasket type. They are inserted or cooled by passing fan air around the engine and the nacelle.
installed on the hottest cylinder of the engine as determined [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 39-40]
in the block test.

The secondary air passing through the engine cools the The engine cooling system of most reciprocating engines
combustion chamber liners. The liners are constructed to usually consists of the engine cowling, cylinder baffles,
induce a thin, fast-moving film of air over both the inner and cylinder fins, and some use a type of cowl flaps.
outer surfaces of the liner. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 35]

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
6-1(O). Name two items to be inspected to ensure adequate cooling of a reciprocating aircraft engine.
6-2(O). In what position should cowl flaps be placed for ground operation and why?
6-3(O). How is the combustion section of a turbine engine cooled?
6-4(O). What cools the bearings on a turbine engine?
6-5(O). What would be the effect of removing the engine baffles and seals from around a reciprocating air‑cooled
aircraft engine and why?
6-6(O). What are the two common types of heat exchangers used to cool engine oil on turbine engine aircraft?
6-7(O). What is the function and operation of an augmenter cooling system?
6-8(O). What is the difference between straight mineral oil, ashless-dispersant oil, and synthetic oil?
6-9(O). What types of oils are used for different climates?
6-10(O). What are the functions of engine oil?
6-11(O). How can the technician identify and select the proper lubricants?
6-12(O). Name two maintenance actions that are part of servicing an aircraft engine lubrication system.
6-13(O). What is the reason for changing engine oil at specified intervals?
6-14(O). What are two reasons for excessive oil consumption on a reciprocating engine that shows no signs of oil leakage?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
6-1(O). Cowling, cowling seals, cowl flaps, cylinder fins, cylinder baffles, and deflector system.
6-2(O). Fully OPEN because in this position they provide for the greatest amount of airflow over the engine and thus
the greatest amount of cooling.
6-3(O). Using air that has been drawn through the compressor which is routed through combustion chamber liners
that provide a thin, fast-moving film of air that carries the heat away. Air is also routed to join with the burned
gases aft of the burners to cool the hot gases before they enter the turbines.
6-4(O). Air that is bled from the compressor section of the engine and sometimes air that is drawn from outside
the engine for cooling purposes is routed to the bearings. Heat is also transferred to the oil that lubricates
the bearings.
6-5(O). The engine would overheat because the baffles and seals are designed to route cooling air close by and past
the engine cylinders and thus draw away heat from the engine.
6-6(O). Fuel oil heat exchangers and air oil heat exchangers.
6-7(O). The function is to draw ambient air through the engine compartment for better cooling. It is accomplished
with augmenter tubes or ejector tubes into which the exhaust gas is directed. This causes a low pressure and
increases the flow of ambient air through augmenter and, thus, through the nacelle.
6-8(O). Straight mineral oil is blended from specifically selected petroleum based stocks. It has no additives except
small amounts of pour point depressant and an antioxidant. It is used during the break-in period of a new or
recently overhauled engine. Ashless dispersant oil is straight mineral oil with non-metallic, non-ash forming
polymeric additives such as viscosity stabilizers. It extends operating temperature range and improves cold
engine starting and lubrication during warm-up. It permits flight through a wide range of climactic changes
without having to change oils. Synthetic oil is specially formulated and is used in turbine engines. It is more
viscous than ashless or straight mineral oil and has a lower tendency to deposit lacquer and coke. It also
resists oxidation and has superior load carrying ability. It provides long service life and prevents seal wear.
6-9(O). Ashless dispersant grades of oil are recommended for aircraft engines subject to wide variations of ambient
temperatures. However, below 20°F, preheating the engine and oil supply tank is normally required regardless
of the type of oil used. In all cases, refer to the manufacturer’s specifications.
6-10(O). Engine oil acts as a cushion between metal parts and reduces friction. It cools the engine, seals, cleans, and
reduces abrasive wear. Oil also prevents corrosion on the inside of the engine.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
6-11(O). Aircraft oils are classified by a numbering system that is an approximation of their viscosity. There are different
systems in use such as SAE and MIL-spec. Letters, such as a W, are also used to describe the oil or its
characteristics. Many factors are considered when determining the proper oil for a particular engine including
operating load, rotational speeds, and operating temperatures. In all cases, refer to the engine manufacturer’s
information when oil type or time in service is being considered.
6-12(O). Periodic oil changes, oil filter change, inspection of oil filter contents, inspection and cleaning of oil screen(s),
checking and adjustment of oil pressure relief valve, cleaning oil cooler of obstructions.
6-13(O). Oil in service accumulates contaminants such as gas, moisture, acids, dirt, carbon, and metallic particles
which reduce the ability of the oil to protect moving parts. Replacing the oil periodically ensure the oil can do
what it is designed to do.
6-14(O). Low grade oil or improper oil such as ashless dispersant oil used in a new or overhauled engine, failing or
failed crankshaft bearing(s).
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 06 Page 4 & 20]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
6-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect an engine lubrication
system to ensure continued operation and record your findings. [Level 3]
6-2(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect oil lines and filter/
screen for leaks and record your findings. [Level 3]
6-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling replace a defective oil cooler
6-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling replace a defective oil cooler
component and record maintenance. [Level 3]
6-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling replace a gasket in the oil
system, accomplish a leak check, and record maintenance. [Level 3]
6-6(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling replace a seal in the oil
system, accomplish a leak check, and record maintenance. [Level 3]
6-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling adjust the oil pressure and
6-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, equipment, tooling and supplies
complete the following: change engine oil, inspect screen(s) and/or filter, leak check the engine, and record
6-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, and appropriate publications, pre-oil an engine. [Level 2]
6-10(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect an engine cooling
system and record your findings. [Level 3]
6-11(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling check cowl flap operation,
inspect rigging and record maintenance. [Level 3]
6-12(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, materials, and tooling, repair one or more
cylinder cooling fins and record maintenance. [Level 3]
pressure baffle plate and record maintenance. [Level 3]
6-14(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a heat exchanger and

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
6-15(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, tooling, equipment and an unknown
discrepancy troubleshoot an engine cooling system and record your findings. [Level 3]
6-16(P). Given an actual rotorcraft engine or mockup, locate and identify specified rotorcraft cooling system
components. [Level 3]


PROPELLERS CHAPTER
Propeller Aerodynamics, Propeller Placement, Types of Propellers, Propeller Governors,
Vibration and Balancing, Servicing and Overhaul
07
QUESTIONS
7-1 AMP053 7-4 AMP053

The angle of attack of a propeller blade is the difference The actual distance a propeller moves forward through the
between its air during one revolution is known as the
A. chord line and the relative wind. A. effective pitch.
B. relative wind and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. B. geometric pitch
C. chord line and pitch angle. C. slip.
Slip
Effective
pitch
Geometric pitch
Figure 7-4. Effective pitch and geometric pitch.
7-2 AMP053 7-5 AMP053

A propeller typically produces its greatest amount of thrust Blade angle is an angle formed by a line perpendicular to the
at which pitch angle? crankshaft and a line formed by the
A. 85º A. relative wind.
B. 12º B. chord of the blade.
C. 30º C. blade face.
Thrust
Rotational velocity
blaPitch o
de r
A angle
of ngle
att
7-3 AMP053 ack
Geometric pitch of a propeller is defined as Chord line
Relative wind
A. effective pitch minus slippage.
B. effective pitch plus slippage. Angle of relative wind Forward velocity
C. angle between the blade chord and the plane

of rotation. Figure 7-5. Propeller aerodynamic factors.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

The angle of attack is the difference between the chord line Propeller slip is the difference between geometric pitch of
and the relative wind. This measurement changes as the the propeller and its effective pitch. Geometric pitch is the
aircraft pitches up or down or as the propeller blade moves distance the propeller should advance in one revolution with
from fine to course pitch. Pitch angle compares the chord no slippage; effective pitch is the distance it actually advances.
line to the longitudinal axis. Thus, geometric pitch is based on no slippage. Effective (or
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 2] actual) pitch recognizes propeller slippage in the air.
Slip
Effective
pitch
Geometric pitch
Figure 7-4. Effective pitch and geometric pitch.

A propeller’s forward flight power range occurs between Although blade angle and propeller pitch are closely
20º and 35º depending upon if it is a climb or cruise mode. related, blade angle is the angle between the chord of a
10‑12º is a flight idle setting used on descent or for fast taxi. blade section and the plane in which the propeller rotates.
85º is a feather position, producing no thrust and used only Therefore, blade angle, usually measured in degrees, is the
in emergency conditions. angle between the chord line of the blade and the plane
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 3] of rotation. Note that the plane of rotation is perpendicular
to the crankshaft.
Thrust
Rotational velocity
7-3 Answer B. blaPitch o

de r
A angle
Pitch is not the same as blade angle but pitch is largely of ngle
att
determined by blade angle. Geometric pitch is the distance ack
the propeller should advance in one revolution with no Chord line
Relative wind
slippage. Effective pitch is the distance the propeller actually
advances. Thus, geometric pitch is theoretical. It is the Angle of relative wind Forward velocity
effective pitch plus the slippage. Geometric pitch is usually
expressed in inches. Figure 7-5. Propeller aerodynamic factors.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
7-6 AMP053 7-8 AMP053

Propeller blade station numbers increase from What operational force causes propeller blade tips to lag in
A. hub to tip. the opposite direction of rotation?
B. tip to hub. A. Thrust Bending
C. leading edge to trailing edge. B. Aerodynamic Twisting
C. Torque Bending
Tip section 6"
6"
42" Station
6"
6"
6"
6" 42"
18" Station
6"
12" Station
Blade shank 6"

7-9 AMP053
6" What operational force tends to bend the propeller blades
forward at the tips?
A. Torque Bending Force
Blade butt Center of hub B. Centrifugal‑Twisting Force
C. Thrust Bending Force
Figure 7-6. Typical propeller blade elements.
7-7 AMP053 7-10 AMP053

The physical force which creates the largest amount of stress How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect operating
on a propeller is absorbed by which section of the propeller? propeller blades?
A. The blade root section. A. It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle.
B. The propeller hub. B. It tends to bend the blades forward.
C. The blades trailing edge. C. It tends to turn the blades to a low blade angle.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

For purposes of analysis and maintenance, a propeller blade Torque bending force, in the form of air resistance, tends
can be divided into segments that are located by station to bend the propeller blade in the direction opposite that
numbers in inches from the center of the blade hub. Thus, of rotation.
the station numbers increase from hub to tip. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 4]
Tip section 6"
6"
42" Station
6"
6"
6"
6" 42"
18" Station
6"
12" Station
7-9 Answer C.
Blade shank 6" Thrust bending force is the thrust load that tends to bend
6" propeller blades forward as the aircraft is pulled through
the air.
Blade butt Center of hub
Figure 7-6. Typical propeller blade elements.

The largest operational force on a propeller is centrifugal Aerodynamic twisting force tends to turn the blades to a high
force, trying to pull the blades from the hub. Thus the blade angle.
component of the propeller which requires its greatest [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 4]
strength and significant scrutiny during inspection is the hub.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
7-11 AMP053 7-13 AMP053

The centrifugal twisting force of an operating propeller The thrust produced by rotating a propeller is a result of
tends to (Figure 7-8)
A. increase the pitch angle. A. an area of low pressure behind the propeller blades.
B. reduce the pitch angle. B. an area of decreased pressure immediately in front of
C. bend the blades in the direction of rotation. the propeller blades.
C. the angle of the relative wind and rotational velocity of
the propeller.
7-12 AMP053 7-14 AMP053

The angle of attack of a rotating propeller blade is measured Which of the following best describes the blade movement
between the blade chord or face and which of the following? of a feathering propeller that is in the HIGH RPM position
A. Plane of blade rotation. when reversing?
B. Full low-pitch blade angle. A. Low pitch directly to reversing.
C. Relative airstream. B. Low pitch through high pitch to reverse pitch.
C. Low pitch through feathering position to reverse pitch.
Center of rotation
Center of pressure
Centrifugal Torque bending Thrust bending Aerodynamic Centrifugal
A force B force C force D twisting force E twisting force
Figure 7-8. Forces acting on a rotating propeller.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

Centrifugal twisting force, being greater than aerodynamic The shape of the propeller blade creates thrust because
twisting force tends to force the blades towards a lower it is shaped like a wing. As the air flows past the propeller,
blade angle and thus a reduced pitch. the pressure on one side is less than that on the other. As
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 4] in a wing, this difference in pressure produces a reaction
force in the direction of the lesser pressure. The area above
a wing has less pressure and the force, lift, is upward. The
area of decreased pressure is in front of a propeller which is
mounted in a vertical instead of horizontal position. Thus, the
force, thrust, is in a forward direction.

The angle at which the air, the relative wind, strikes the Regardless of which aircraft it is mounted on, a propeller
propeller blade is called the Angle Of Attack (AOA). that can change blade position (blade angle) to match the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 5] flight conditions is known as a constant speed propeller.
The available blade angles range from feathered, when the
angle is between 85˚ and 90˚ to the plane of rotation, to
reverse pitch when the blade angle is -2˚ to -8˚ to the plane of
propeller rotation. A HIGH RPM position is one in which the
blade angle is low. To reverse the propeller, the blade angle
moves directly from a low blade angle, through zero degrees
blade angle to a negative blade angle.
Center of rotation
Center of pressure
Centrifugal Torque bending Thrust bending Aerodynamic Centrifugal
A force B force C force D twisting force E twisting force
Figure 7-8. Forces acting on a rotating propeller.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
7-15 AMP053 7-17 AMP053

What are the rotational speed and blade pitch angle Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are generally
requirements of a constant-speed propeller during takeoff? used to aid in
(Figure 7-3) A. increasing blade angle.
A. Low speed and high pitch angle. B. decreasing blade angle.
B. High speed and low pitch angle. C. un-feathering the propellers.
C. High speed and high pitch angle.
7-16 AMP053 7-18 AMP053

A constant-speed propeller provides maximum efficiency by In case of an engine failure, what hold a feathering propeller
A. increasing blade pitch as the aircraft speed decreases. in the feathered position while in flight?
B. adjusting blade angle for most conditions encountered A. Centrifugal Force
in flight. B. Counter Weights
C. increasing the lift coefficient of the blade. C. Aerodynamic Force
Feather Power Flight idle Locks Ground idle Reverse
85 to 90° 20 to 35° 10 to 12° 1 to 2° 0° −2 to −8°
Typical propeller blade positions from feather position through the reverse position. Normal sequence of blade
travel is feather, high pitch, low pitch, locks/ground idle, reverse pitch, and then back following the same path.
Fixed turboprop engines are shut down on the locks to prevent load on the engine during restart.
Figure 7-3. Propeller range positions.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

During takeoff, when maximum power and thrust are Each constant-speed propeller has an opposing force that
required, the constant-speed propeller is at low propeller operates against oil pressure from the governor. Flyweights
blade angle or pitch. The low blade angle keeps the AOA (counterweights) mounted to the blades move the blades in
small and efficient with respect to the relative wind. This light the high pitch direction as the propeller turns. Other forces
load allows the engine to turn at high speed, and convert used to move the blades toward the high pitch direction
the maximum amount of fuel into heat energy. The high include air pressure (contained in the front dome), springs,
RPM also creates maximum thrust. The mass of air handled and aerodynamic twisting moment.
per revolution of the propeller is small due to the low blade [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 8]
angle, however, with high RPM, the slipstream velocity is
high and, combined with the low speed of the aircraft, thrust
is at maximum. (Figure 7-3)
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 2 Figure 7-3]

To provide an efficient propeller, the engine speed is kept When a feathered propeller stops turning, the blades are
as constant as possible. If the throttle setting is changed, held in position by aerodynamic forces. In normal operation,
instead of changing the speed of the aircraft by climbing or oil pressure holds the blades in a low pitch position, and
diving, the blade angle increases or decreases as required counterweights or springs hold it in a high pitch positions.
to maintain a constant engine RPM. The power output, not [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 8]
the RPM, changes in accordance with changes in throttle
setting. The constant-speed propeller changes the blade
angle automatically keeping engine RPM constant.
Feather Power Flight idle Locks Ground idle Reverse
85 to 90° 20 to 35° 10 to 12° 1 to 2° 0° −2 to −8°
Typical propeller blade positions from feather position through the reverse position. Normal sequence of blade
travel is feather, high pitch, low pitch, locks/ground idle, reverse pitch, and then back following the same path.
Fixed turboprop engines are shut down on the locks to prevent load on the engine during restart.
Figure 7-3. Propeller range positions.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
7-19 AMP053 7-22 AMP053

How do small feathering propellers prevent feathering when During the on‑speed condition of a propeller, the
the engine is shut down? A. centrifugal force acting on the governor flyweights is
A. Latches lock the propeller in low pitch to prevent greater than the tension of the speeder spring.
excess load on the engine at start-up. B. tension on the speeder spring is less than the
B. Oil pressure is held against the pitch centrifugal force acting on the flyweights.
change mechanism. C. centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is equal to
C. Aerodynamic twisting movement prevents feathering. the speeder spring tension.
7-20 AMP053 7-23 AMP023

Reverse pitch propellers When the centrifugal force acting on the propeller governor
A. turn in the opposite direction than that of the crankshaft. flyweights overcomes the tension on the speeder spring, a
B. produce a negative blade angle to slow the aircraft propeller is in what speed condition?
after touchdown. A. On‑speed.
C. go beyond feathering position to provide thrust B. Under-speed.
for stopping. C. Over-speed.
7-21 AMP053 7-24 AMP053

The propeller governor cockpit control A fixed pitch metal propeller is stamped with the model
A. adjusts tension on the speeder spring. number 1B50-CM-71-44. What does the CM stand for?
B. opens and closes the pilot valve. A. The type of hub to which it may be mounted.
C. adjusts the position of counter weights. B. The manufacturer designation.
C. Its vibration characteristics.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

Almost all small feathering propellers use oil pressure to take In an on-speed condition, the centrifugal force acting on
the propeller to low pitch and blade flyweights, springs and the flyweights is balanced by the speeder spring and the
compressed air to take the blades to high pitch. Since the pilot valve is neither directing oil to or from the propeller
blades would go to feather position during shutdown, latches hydraulic cylinder.
lock the propeller in the low pitch position as the propeller [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 10]
slows down at shutdown. The latches are needed to prevent
excess load on the engine at start up.

The purpose of the reversible pitch feature is to produce a In an over-speed condition, the centrifugal force acting
negative blade angle that produces thrust opposite to the on the flyweights is greater than the speeder spring force.
normal forward direction. Normally, when the landing gear is Therefore, the flyweights tilt outward. This raises the pilot
in contact with the runway after landing, the propeller blades valve and allows oil to flow to the piston so as to increase
can be moved to negative pitch (reversed), which creates blade pitch and reduce RPM.
thrust opposite of the aircraft direction and slows the aircraft. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 10]
Engine power can be applied to increase the negative thrust.

A governor is set to a specific RPM via the cockpit propeller CM represents the physical shape of the hub (to what type
control which compresses or releases tension on the of hub it will attach and tip shape (square or elliptical).
governor speeder spring, thus regulating oil flow into a 1B50 represents the manufacturer’s model number or basic
hydraulic cylinder. design number. 71 represents its diameter. 44 represents its
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 9] pitch angle at .75 radius.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
7-25 AMP053 7-28 AMP016

What normally prevents a constant speed feathering Propeller deicer boots are
propeller from going into feather when the engine is shut A. "ON" continuously in icing conditions.
down on the ground? B. used to prevent ice before it builds on the
A. Counterweight springs propeller surfaces.
B. Latching mechanisms C. energized for short periods by a cycling timer.
C. Residual oil pressure
7-26 AMP016 7-29 AMP053

The proper operation of an electric deicing system and What is the function of the automatic propeller synchronizing
its timers may be monitored onboard with the use of system on multiengine aircraft?
a(n) ___________________. A. To control the tip speed of all propellers.
A. amp meter B. To control engine RPM and reduce vibration.
B. ohm meter C. To control the power output of all engines.
C. volt meter
7-27 AMP016 7-30 AMP052

Propeller fluid anti-icing systems generally use which of How can a steel propeller hub be tested for cracks?
the following? A. By anodizing.
A. Ethylene Glycol B. By magnetic particle inspection.
B. Isopropyl Alcohol C. By etching.
C. Ethyl Alcohol

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

In order to prevent feathering spring and counterweights Electric deicing systems are usually designed for intermittent
from feathering the propeller when the engine is shut down application of power to the heating elements to remove ice
and the engine stopped, automatically removable high‑pitch after formation but before excessive accumulation. Cycling
stops were incorporated in the design. These consist timers are used to energize the heating element circuits for
of spring-loaded latches fastened to the stationary hub periods of 15 to 30 seconds, with a complete cycle time of 2
that engage high-pitch stop plates bolted to the movable minutes. A cycling timer is an electric motor driven contactor
blade clamps. that controls power contactors in separate sections
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 17] of the circuit.

An ammeter or load meter allows each circuit to be Most multiengine aircraft are equipped with propeller
monitored for when it is operational and drawing current. The synchronization systems. Synchronization systems
gauge can be seen to fluctuate as the timer cycles as each provide a means of controlling and synchronizing engine
circuit is turned on and off. RPM. Synchronization reduces vibration and eliminates
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 20] the unpleasant beat produced by unsynchronized
propeller operation.

Isopropyl alcohol is used in some anti-icing systems because The inspection of steel blades may be accomplished by
of its availability and low cost. Phosphate compounds are either visual, fluorescent penetrant, or magnetic particle
comparable to isopropyl alcohol in performance and have inspection. The full length of the leading edge (especially
reduced flammability, however, they are more expensive. near the tip), the full length of the trailing edge, the grooves
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 18] and shoulders on the shank, and all dents and scars should
be examined with a magnifying glass to decide whether
defects are scratches or cracks.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
7-31 AMP052 7-34 AMP052

If a delamination is suspected on a composite propeller Which of the following functions requires the use of a
blade, the extent of damage propeller blade station?
A. can be confirmed by a coin tap test. A. Measuring Blade Angle
B. can be confirmed by eddy current inspection. B. Indexing Blades
C. can be confirmed by ultrasonic inspection. C. Propeller Balancing
7-32 AMP052 7-35 AMP052

If an apparent propeller vibration occurs only at cruise RPM Propeller aerodynamic (thrust) imbalance can be largely
ranges, the problem is most likely caused by eliminated by
A. incorrect propeller for the engine. A. correct blade contouring and angle setting.
B. an out of track propeller. B. static balancing.
C. an out of balance propeller. C. keeping the propeller blades within the same plane
of rotation.
7-33 AMP052 7-36 AMP052

Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining An out of balance propeller is typically corrected by
A. the plane of rotation of the propeller with respect to the A. lightening the weight of the heavy side.
aircraft longitudinal axis. B. adding weight on the light side.
B. that the blade angles are within the specified tolerance C. modifying its aerodynamic aspects to compensate for
of each other. the imbalance.
C. the positions of the tips of the propeller blades relative
to each other.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

A suspected delamination may be observed through a coin Due to the twist of most propellers, blade angle must be
tab test. If this occurs, a confirmation of this damage and its measured at the same blade station on each blade to ensure
severity may be confirmed by ultrasound inspection. Once comparable readings. The manufacturer’s instructions are
conformed, only the propeller manufacturer or a certified used to obtain the blade angle setting and the station at
propeller repair station may perform the repair. which the blade angle is checked.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 21‑22] [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 22]

If a propeller vibrates due to balance, angle, or track Dynamic imbalance of a propeller resulting from improper
problems, the vibration usually occurs at all RPM settings. mass distribution is negligible provided the track tolerance
Particularly with metal propellers, if the apparent vibration requirements are met. Aerodynamic unbalance, however,
is limited to only certain RPM ranges, then the problem is results when the thrust (or pull) of the blades is unequal. This
typically a mismatch of the wrong propeller for the engine it type of unbalance can be largely eliminated by checking
is installed on. blade contour and blade angle setting.

Blade tracking is the process of determining the positions A propeller weight imbalance is corrected by adding weights
of the tips of the propeller blades relative to each other to the side of the propeller hub of the lighter blade up to a
(blades rotating in the same plane of rotation). An out of track maximum weight as stated by the manufacturer.
propeller may be due to one or more of the blades being [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 26]
bent, a bent propeller flange, or propeller mounting bolts that
are improperly torqued.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
7-37 AMP052 7-40 AMP053

When lubricating a Hartzell® propeller blade with grease, to How is a propeller controlled in a large aircraft with a
prevent damage to the blade seals, the service manual may turboprop installation?
recommend on some models to A. Independently of the engine.
A. pump grease into both zerk fittings for the blade B. By varying the engine RPM except for propeller
simultaneously. feathering and propeller reverse pitch.
B. remove the seals prior to greasing and reinstall C. By the engine power lever.
them afterwards.
C. remove one of the two zerk fittings for the blade and
grease the blade through the remaining fitting.
7-38 AMP052 7-41 AMP053

Which of the following determines oil and grease On a typical Pratt and Whitney PT-6 turboprop engine, oil for
specifications for lubrication of propellers? the propeller governor is supplied by
A. Airframe Manufacturers A. a separate reservoir from the main engine oil supply.
B. Engine Manufacturers B. the aircraft hydraulic system.
C. Propeller Manufacturers C. the engine oil supply.
7-39 AMP052 7-42 AMP053

Cold straightening of a bent aluminum propeller blade In what way do hydromatic propeller systems differ from
A. may be accomplished by any certified other constant speed propeller systems?
powerplant mechanic. A. The hydromatic system does not
B. requires specialized tooling and precision include counterweights.
measuring equipment. B. Oil pressure is applied on only one side of the
C. renders it unairworthy. propeller piston.
C. The hydromatic system has a limited blade angle range
compared to others.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS

Redistribution of grease may result in voids in the blade The turboprop engine produces thrust indirectly because
bearing area where moisture can collect. Remove one of the compressor and turbine assembly furnish torque to
the lubrication fittings for each blade hub. Pump grease into a propeller producing the major portion of the propulsive
the fitting located nearest the leading edge of the blade on force that drives the aircraft. The turboprop fuel control
a tractor propeller installation, or nearest the trailing edge and the propeller governor are connected and operate in
on a pusher installation, until grease emerges from the coordination with each other. The power lever directs a signal
hole where the fitting was removed. Always follow specific from the cockpit to the fuel control for a specific amount of
manufacturer’s instructions for the specified model propeller power from the engine. The fuel control and the propeller
undergoing maintenance. governor together establish the correct combination of
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 28] RPM, fuel flow, and propeller blade angle to create sufficient
propeller thrust to provide the desired power.

Proper propeller lubrication procedures, with oil and Engine oil is supplied to the propeller governor from the
grease specifications, are usually published in the propeller engine oil supply. A gear pump mounted at the base of the
manufacturer’s instructions. The greasing schedule must be governor increases flow and pressure as demanded.
followed to ensure proper lubrication of moving parts and [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 32]
protection from corrosion.

Occasionally, blade straightening is required during propeller A Hydromatic propeller has a double acting governor that
overhaul. The manufacturer’s specifications dictate certain uses oil pressure on both sides of the propeller piston.
allowable limits within which damaged blades can be In the pitch changing mechanism, no counterweights are
straightened and returned to airworthy condition. Specialized used. Engine oil pressure on one side of the piston is used
tooling and precision measuring equipment permit pitch against propeller governor oil on the other side of the piston
changes or corrections of less than one-tenth of one degree. to change blade angle or pitch. Hydromatic propellers can
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 07 Page 29] be found on some older radial engines but also on large
new turboprop systems.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
7-1(O). How does a propeller function?
7-2(O). Why are constant speed propellers used?
7-3(O). What are the components of a propeller governor and how does it operate?
7-4(O). What is a test club propeller? When and why is it used?
7-5(O). What is the maximum interval between lubrication of a propeller and where does the technician find the proper
procedures for lubrication of a particular propeller?
7-6(O). How is the angle of a propeller blade measured while the propeller is mounted on the engine?
7-7(O). In general, what is the procedure for removing a propeller?
7-8(O). What is the function of a typical propeller synchronization system and how does it operate?
7-9(O). Explain why is ice a problem for propeller operation. Then, name a means for anti-icing and a means of
deicing aircraft propellers.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
7-1(O). A propeller is essentially a rotating wing. As the engine turns it, the air moving past the curved forward surface
of the propeller causes a low pressure when compared to the area on the aft side of the propeller, which is
relatively flat. As in a wing, the difference in pressure causes a reactive force in the direction of the lesser
pressure. On a wing, this force is upward and is called lift. On a propeller, this force is forward and is called
thrust. It is this force that moves the aircraft.
7-2(O). To obtain maximum efficiency from the propeller by rotating it at a constant speed and to keep the engine
RPM constant while adjusting the power output with the throttle lever.
7-3(O). A typical propeller governor consists of a drive gear to engage the engine, an oil pump, a pilot valve controlled
by flyweights, a relief valve system, a piston connected mechanically to the blades, a speeder spring, and an
adjusting rack for control from the flight deck. The governor senses the RPM of the engine/propeller assembly
via the flyweights. The force of the flyweights is counterbalanced against the force of the speeder spring that is
set via the adjusting rack. If the speed of the engine and propeller increase, the flyweight force increases and
they move outward. This opens the pilot valve and oil is pumped against the piston. The piston motion transmits
the force to the blades which increase pitch angle. At a higher pitch angle, the force of the air striking the blades
increases. This increases the load on the engine and serves to suppress engine RPM and keep it constant.
7-4(O). A test club propeller is a four-bladed, fixed pitch propeller used during ground testing or break-in of a
reciprocating engine. The blades are short and designed to put the correct amount of load on the engine
during the test break-in period. The multi-blade design also provides additional cooling airflow.
7-5(O). Propellers must be lubricated every 100 hours or at 12 calendar months, whichever occurs first. If annual
operation is significantly less than 100 hours, calendar lubrication intervals should be reduced 6 months. Also,
if the propeller is exposed to adverse atmospheric conditions, such as high humidity and, salt air, the calendar
interval should be shortened to 6 months. The manufacturer’s instructions should be consulted for the proper
propeller lubrication procedures as well as oil and grease specifications.
7-6(O). Propeller blade angle is measure at a blade station(s) specified by the manufacturer. Blade stations are
measured in inches from the base of the blade toward the tip. Using a propeller or universal protract placed at
the correct blade station, follow the manufacturer’s instruction. The angle between the plane of rotation and
the propeller blade face at the specified station is what is being measured.
7-7(O). Always follow manufacturer’s instruction. In general, remove the spinner dome. Then cut and remove the
safety wire on the propeller mounting studs. Support the propeller assembly with a sling. Make an alignment
mark on the hub and engine flange to maintain dynamic balance during reinstallation. Unscrew the four
mounting bolts from the engine bushings. Unscrew the two mounting nuts and the attached studs from the
engine bushings. If the propeller is removed between overhauls, mounting studs, nuts, and washers may be
reused if not damaged or corroded. Using care and supporting the weight of the propeller assembly with the
sling, remove the propeller from the mounting flange.

PROPELLERS
ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
7-8(O). Propeller synchronization is used to eliminate the unpleasant beat produced by unsynchronized propeller
operation. A typical synchrophasing system is an electronic system. It functions to match the RPM of both
engines and establish a blade phase relationship between the left and right propellers to reduce cabin noise.
A switch on the flight deck controls the system. When in the "ON" position, pick-ups on each propeller send
a signal to a control box. The control box sends a command signal to an RPM trimming coil on the propeller
governor of the slow engine to adjust the RPM to equal that of the other propeller.
7-9(O). Ice formation on a propeller blade in effect produces a distorted blade airfoil section and makes the propeller
inefficient. Ice collects asymmetrically and produces propeller unbalance resulting in destructive vibration
and increased blade weight. A typical propeller anti-icing system includes an on-board reservoir of anti-icing
fluid that is pumped to a slinger ring mounted on the rear of the assembly and distributed to the blades by
centrifugal force. A typical propeller de-icing system includes electric heating elements adhered to the leading
edge of each blade. Power is transferred to the propeller elements through brushes and a slip ring. A timer
cycles the elements on and off in sequence or this can be controlled by the pilot.

PROPELLERS
QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
7-1(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a propeller
installation and make a minor repair on an aluminum propeller and record maintenance. [Level 3]
7-2(P). Given an appropriate type certificate data sheet determine what minor propeller alterations are acceptable.
[Level 2]
7-3(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling service a constant speed
propeller with lubricant and record maintenance. [Level 2]
7-4(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, a propeller protractor determine
correct blade angle and record findings. [Level 3]
7-5(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling leak check a constant
speed propeller installation and record findings. [Level 3]
7-6(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling install a fixed pitch
propeller and check the tip tracking and record maintenance. [Level 3]
7-7(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a spinner/bulkhead
for defects and proper alignment and installation and recording findings. [Level 3]
7-8(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and dye-penetrant complete an
inspection the propeller to determine the amount of any damage and record findings. [Level 2]
7-9(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a propeller
governor and record findings. [Level 3]
7-10(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling adjust a propeller governor
7-11(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a wood propeller
and record findings. [Level 3]
7-12(P). Given an actual aircraft propeller or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling troubleshoot a propeller
system and record findings. [Level 3]

ENGINE REMOVAL AND REPLACEMENT CHAPTER
General Procedures, Inspection and Replacement of External Systems,
Mounting Engines for Replacement, Rigging and Adjustments
08
QUESTIONS
8-1 AMP024 8-4 AMP007

What is the responsibility of the FAA in determining the If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an inspection,
TBO (Time Before Overhaul) number of hours of a particular A. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the
aircraft engine? particles are nonferrous.
A. The FAA requires a minimum number of TBO hours of B. the cause should be identified and corrected before the
which the manufacturer’s design team must comply. aircraft is released for flight.
B. The FAA determines TBO hours based on the C. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the
manufacturer’s specifications and historical data. deposit exceeds a specific amount.
C. The FAA ensures that the manufacturer has determined
this number.
8-2 AMP007 8-5 AMP008

If following a sudden reduction in engine speed due to a prop A Quick-Engine Change Assembly (QECA) is
strike, small filings of metal are found in the oil screen, where A. mostly used during unexpected engine changes.
is the most likely damaged? B. mostly used during scheduled engine changes for the
A. The crankshaft. greatest efficiency of the operation.
B. The crankshaft bearings. C. must be used only in the presence of an A&P mechanic
C. A connecting rod. with Inspection Authorization.
8-3 AMP048 8-6 AMP050

A ground incident that results in propeller sudden stoppage In addition to its primary purpose of confining a potential fire
may require a crankshaft run-out inspection. What publication to the engine compartment, the engine firewall also
would be used to obtain crankshaft run-out tolerance? A. provides mounting surfaces for the engine and
A. current manufacturer’s maintenance instructions accessories.
B. type certificate data sheet B. acts as a heat sink for the engine nacelle.
C. AC43.13-1A Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and C. is used as a ground plain for radio antenna reception.
Practices Aircraft Inspection and Repair

ENGINE REMOVAL AND REPLACEMENT
ANSWERS

Engine life is dependent upon such factors as operational Metal particles in the engine oil screens is generally an
use, the quality of manufacture or overhaul, the type of indication of partial internal failure of the engine. Before
aircraft in which the engine is installed, the kind of operation removing an engine for suspected internal failure, determine
being carried out, and the degree to which maintenance is the probable extent of any internal damage. For example,
accomplished. Thus, the engine manufacturer sets engine if only small particles are found that are similar to filings,
removal times. Based on service experience, it is possible drain the oil system and refill it. Ground-run the engine and
to establish a maximum expected Time Before Overhaul re-inspect the oil screens and magnetic chip detectors. If no
(TBO) or span of time within which an engine needs to be further evidence of foreign material is found, continue the
overhauled. Regardless of condition, an engine should engine in service or per manufacturer’s instructions. Engine
be removed when it has accumulated the recommended performance should be closely observed for any indication of
maximum allowable time since the last overhaul difficulty or internal failure.
or since new. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 3]

Following a sudden slowdown, if there are no heavy metal After the decision has been made to remove an engine,
particles found in the oil, restart the engine and then check the preparation of the replacement engine must be
for particles in the oil screen. If these are now found, the considered. Commercial operators, whose maintenance
likely source are failing crankshaft bearings. requires the most efficient and expeditious replacement of
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 2] aircraft engines, usually rely on a system that utilizes the
quick‑engine-change-assembly, also sometimes referred
to as the engine power package. The QECA is essentially a
powerplant and the necessary accessories installed with the
engine.

When sudden stoppage occurs, the engine usually The engine firewall also provides a mounting surface for units
requires replacement or disassembly and inspection as per within the engine nacelle and a point of disconnect for lines,
manufacturer’s instructions. When a crankshaft or propeller linkages, and electrical wiring that are routed between the
drive shaft run-out is performed, consult the applicable engine and aircraft.
manufacturer’s instructions for permissible limits. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 4]

QUESTIONS
8-7 AMP057 8-10 AMP057

When depreserving an opposed cylinder engine, after When mounting an engine to an airframe; after all mounting
draining corrosion prevention compound you notice that bolts have been installed and properly torqued, what is
small amounts remain clinging to the cylinder walls. What typically the next step?
must be done? A. Install intake components.
A. Wash out the remaining compound with Avgas. B. Install the propeller.
B. Nothing; small quantities are acceptable. C. Install bonding strips.
C. Remove the cylinder head and clean it off manually.
8-8 AMP057 8-11 AMP057

If a reciprocating engine has suffered a major internal failure When tightening the exhaust system clamps,
and must be replaced, which of the following appliances A. torque the clamp nuts, run the engine, and then torque
must always also be replaced, rather than simply cleaned the nuts again.
and inspected? B. tapping the clamps with a rawhide mallet
A. Oil cooler and propeller governor. prevents binding.
B. Alternator and starter. C. tighten the nuts, back them off and tighten them again.
C. Carburetor or fuel injection system components.
8-9 AMP042 8-12 AMP057

When preparing to remove an engine, fuel valves must be Upon an engine installation, when adjusting the throttle
A. removed first. linkage and other controls, set the control travel
B. fully opened. to _____________.
C. fully closed even if they are solenoid operated. A. precisely match the movement of the throttle arm stops
B. slightly exceed the movement of the throttle arm stops
C. be slightly less than the movement of the throttle
arm stops

ANSWERS

While less critical than with radial engines, drain as much as After all mounting bolts are secured and safetied, bonding
possible. If larger puddles of compound exist, remove with strips should be installed across each engine mount to
a hand pump. Otherwise light coatings or small droplets provide an electrical path from the mount to the airframe.
remaining are not an issue and will quickly burn out when the Beyond this, there are no specific rules for the order in which
engine is started. components should be installed. It is typically determined
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 5] for each specific installation by checklists, experience,
and convenience.

If an engine has been removed for internal failure, usually During assembly of the exhaust system, the nuts should be
some units in the oil system must be replaced and others gradually and progressively tightened to the correct torque.
thoroughly cleaned and inspected. The oil cooler and The clamps should be tapped with a rawhide mallet as they
temperature regulator must be removed and sent to a repair are being tightened to prevent binding at any point.
facility for overhaul. The propeller governor and feathering [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 11]
pump mechanism must also be replaced if these units are
operated by oil pressure. There is a high probability that
contaminants from the internal engine failure may have
lodged in these parts.

When preparing to remove an engine, check to see that Set control movements so there is a slight cushion between
all fuel selectors or solenoid operated fuel shutoff valves the control stop and the actuator stop. The presence of
are closed. The fuel selector valves are either manually or this cushion ensures that the travel of the throttle valve is
solenoid operated. If solenoid operated fuel shutoff valves not limited by the travel of the throttle control and that they
are installed, it may be necessary to turn the battery switch are fully opened or closed when the control is at its stop.
ON to close the valves. These valves close the fuel line at the On multi engine aircraft, be sure this amount of cushion
firewall between the engine and the aircraft. After ensuring is equal for each engine so that each is aligned with any
all fuel to the engine is shut off, disconnect the battery to specific setting chosen.
eliminate the possibility of a hot wire starting a fire. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 12]

QUESTIONS
8-13 AMP057 8-16 AMP018

How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine with a When evaluating the results of a spectrometric oil analysis,
dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently? which of the following is of the greatest concern?
A. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate normal A. an indicator which is above normal
oil pressure B. an indicator which has risen since the last analysis
B. Oil will flow from the engine return line or indicator port C. an indicator which has risen at a faster rate than in its
C. When the quantity of oil specified by the manufacturer last analysis
has been pumped into the engine
8-14 AMP052 8-17 AMP069

Once an engine has been installed satisfactorily, the After a turbofan engine has been replaced, it must be
propeller can be installed. It should be trimmed. What other actions or conditions mandate that a
A. tested before, during, and after the engine has been turbofan engine be re-trimmed?
ground operated. A. annual inspection or replacement of the fuel control
B. mounted with the blades in the feathered position. B. replacement of the fuel control or after an in-flight
C. a low pitch test propeller during ground test operation shutdown
of the engine. C. replacement of fuel control, engine not developing
maximum thrust, or excessive throttle stagger
8-15 AMP057 8-18 AMP069

Typical engine mounts on a reciprocating engine When trimming a turbine engine, from what point on the
A. bolt firmly to the frame so vibration is kept to engine are measurements taken?
a minimum. A. Fuel flow sensor.
B. are studs mounted in the rear of the engine and bolts B. Turbine inlet temperature sensor.
used in the front of the engine. C. Turbine discharge pressure line.
C. utilize a rubber shock mount to reduce vibration.

ANSWERS

In using some types of pre-oilers, the oil line from the inlet The existence of wear metals in oil is normal, and some
side of the engine oil pump must be disconnected to permit engines will exhibit this wear at a greater rate than others.
the pre-oiler tank to be connected at this point. Then, a line While all abnormal indications are cause for concern, an
must be disconnected, or an opening made in the oil system accelerated rate of change between one analysis and the
at the nose of the engine to allow oil to flow out of the engine. next indicates that something in the engine's operation has
Oil flowing out of the engine indicates the completion of the changed which is then likely to accelerate further until an
pre-oiling operation since the oil has now passed through the engine failure occurs.
entire system. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 21]

The propeller must be checked before, during, and after The fuel control of the engine is adjusted to trim the engine
the engine has been ground operated. The propeller should to obtain maximum thrust output of the engine when desired.
be checked for proper torque on the mounting bolts, The engine must be re-trimmed after a fuel control unit is
leaks, vibration, and for correct safety. A propeller whose replaced, the engine does not develop maximum thrust,
pitch-changing mechanism is electrically actuated may be engine change, or excessive throttle stagger.
checked before the engine is operated. Propellers whose [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 15]
pitch-changing mechanisms are oil actuated must be
checked during engine operation after the normal operating
temperature of the oil has been reached. In addition to
checking the increase or decrease in RPM, the feathering
cycle of the propeller should also be checked.

Most reciprocating engines are bolted to the engine mount With the aircraft faced into the wind and the exhaust area
with the use of rubber engine mount pads. This helps clear, install an engine trim gauge to the T-fitting in the
dissipate the vibration developed by the engine. turbine discharge pressure line. Then run the engine for 5+
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 17] minutes to stabilize and refer your measurements to the
manufacturer’s correct trim values.

QUESTIONS
8-19 AMP069 8-22 AMP068

For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control The engine mounts on a turbofan engine
unit trimmed? A. are solid steel due to the weight of the engine.
A. to obtain maximum thrust output when desired B. isolate the aircraft structure from adverse
B. to properly position the thrust levers engine vibrations.
C. to adjust idle RPM C. block the centrifugal force of the rotating fan mass.
8-20 AMP069 8-23 AMP056

Which two atmospheric factors must be primarily Engines that are not flown regularly may not achieve normal
considered when checking and performing trim adjustments service life due to corrosion
of a turbine engine? A. of the interior parts of the carburetor.
A. Ambient temperature and airport elevation. B. of the crankshaft and bearing journals.
B. Ambient temperature and barometric pressure. C. in and around the cylinders.
C. Ambient temperature and humidity.
8-21 AMP008 8-24 AMP056

A characteristic of Dyna-focal engine mounts as applied to An aircraft engine having at least one continuous hour of
aircraft reciprocating engines is that the operation with an oil temperature of at least 165˚F within 30
A. shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing of days is said to be in
the powerplant. A. temporary storage.
B. engine attached to the shock mounts at the engine’s B. active storage.
center of gravity. C. indefinite storage.
C. shock mounts point towards the engines center
of gravity.

ANSWERS

All of the above are accomplished when trimming an engine. Vibration isolator engine mounts are used on turbofan
However, the primary purpose the fuel control unit of the engines. They isolate the airplane structure from adverse
engine is adjusted to trim the engine is to obtain maximum engine vibrations. Vibration isolators consist of a resilient
thrust output of the engine when desired. material permanently enclosed in a metal case. As an engine
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 15] vibrates, the resilient material deforms slightly, thereby
dampening the vibrations before they reach the airplane
structure. If complete failure or loss of the resilient material
occurs, the isolators will continue to support the engine.

An actual trim check is done based on barometric pressure An engine must receive daily care and attention to detect
and temperature. For given temperatures and pressures, and correct early stages of corrosion.
target parameter values vary slightly. A chart is developed Engines that are not flown regularly may not achieve normal
by the manufacturer for use during the trim check and the service life because of corrosion in and around the cylinders.
values are checked against the tolerances given on the chart. The normal combustion process creates moisture and
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 15] corrosive byproducts that attack the unprotected surfaces of
the cylinder walls, valves, and any other exposed areas that
are unprotected.

Dyna-focal engine mounts, or vibration isolators, are units There are three types of engine storage: active, temporary
that give directional support to the engines. Dyna-focal and indefinite. Active storage is defined as having at least
engine mounts have the mounting pad angled to point to the one continuous hour of operation with an oil temperature
CG (Center of Gravity) of the engine mass. of at least 165˚F to 200˚F and storage time not to exceed
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 17] 30 days. Temporary storage describes an aircraft and engine
that is not flown for 30 to 90 days. Indefinite storage is for an
aircraft not to be flown for over 90 days or is removed from
the aircraft for extended time.

QUESTIONS
8-25 AMP057 8-28 AMP008

Light corrosion preventative compounds Which is considered as the most critical function of a
A. are intended to preserve an engine for less than 30 shipping or storage container for an aircraft engine?
days and to spray cylinders. A. Proper ventilation.
B. can be used to dip metal parts in for long-term storage. B. Filtering of dust and debris.
C. do not mix with the oil but cover surfaces where oil has C. Elimination of humidity.
been removed.
8-26 AMP008 8-29 AMP002

To prevent moisture from aiding in corroding engine cylinders Before removing a fuel hose from an engine, a solenoid
when stored or shipped, spark plugs are remove and operated fuel valve is placed in the closed position by
dehydrator plugs installed. When the dehydrator plugs are A. moving the fuel selector to fuel cut off position.
blue, it is an indication B. Switching off all fuel pumps.
A. of high humidity with corrosion likely. C. Closing the solenoid fuel valves with battery power and
B. of low humidity with corrosion unlikely. then disconnecting battery.
C. the limited life of the desiccant has been reached.
8-27 AMP008
When preparing an engine for indefinite storage
A. replace the oil with a corrosion prevention mixture; then
run the engine at normal operating temperatures for
one hour.
B. run the engine until reaching normal operating
temperatures; then drain and replace the oil with
the manufacturer’s recommended corrosion
prevention mixture.
C. drain and replace the engine oil with a corrosion
prevention mixture without starting the engine.

ANSWERS

Corrosion preventative compounds are petroleum‑based When lowering a wooden shipping case cover into position,
products that form a wax-like film over metal to which they be sure the humidity indicator card is placed so it can be
are applied. Several types are manufactured according to seen through the inspection window. Engines in wooden
different specifications to fit various aviation needs. The shipping containers typically have an envelope that is
type mixed with engine oil is a relatively light compound that vacuumed to remove excess air. Metal shipping containers
readily blends with the oil when the mixture is heated. The are sealed and pressurized to about 5 psi with dehydrated
light mixture is intended for use when a preserved engine air. However, a humidity indicator should be fastened inside
is to remain inactive for less than 30 days. It is also used to the container at the inspection window provided.
spray cylinders and other designated areas. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 22]

Cobalt chloride is added to the silica gel used in dehydrator The fuel selector valves are either manually or solenoid
plugs. This makes it possible for the plugs to indicate operated. If solenoid-operated fuel shutoff valves are
moisture content in the cylinders. The cobalt chloride installed, it may be necessary to turn the battery switch on
treated silica gel remains a bright blue color with low relative before the valves can be closed, since the solenoid depends
humidity. As humidity increases, the shade of blue becomes on electricity for operation.
progressively lighter, becoming lavender at 30 percent [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 7]
humidity and fading through various shades of pink until at
60 percent humidity, the dehydrator plug is natural or white in
color. When humidity is less than 30 percent, corrosion does
not normally take place.
8-27 Answer A.
Before an engine is placed in temporary or indefinite storage,
it should be operated and filled with a corrosion-preventative
oil mixture added in the oil system to retard corrosion
by coating the engine’s internal parts. Drain the normal
lubricating oil from the sump or system, and replace with
a preservative oil mixture according to the manufacturer’s
instructions. Operate the engine until normal operating
temperatures are obtained for at least one hour.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
8-1(O). What procedures are required after the installation of a turbine engine?
8-2(O). What are the reasons a turbine engine would require a trim check?
8-3(O). What is the procedure required to adjust (trim) a fuel control unit (FCU)?
8-4(O). Name three reasons for removal of an engine and what are the required inspections after a potentially
damaging event occurs.
8-5(O) Prior to removing a turbofan engine from an aircraft, what are the 6 component groups that must first be
removed or disconnected?
8-6(O) Prior to starting a new reciprocating engine for the first time, name 4 steps which must be taken?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
8-1(O). After installation, an engine run-up should be performed. On newer engines with electronic engine controls,
verification of correct engine instrument indications is required. On engines with hydromechanical fuel
controls, the engine must be manually trimmed. This is the process of adjusting the idle and maximum RPM
and EPR settings in accordance with temperature and pressure adjusted values provided by the manufacturer.
8-2(O). It has a hydromechanical fuel control and the engine or fuel control has just been changed. Also, if the engine
is not developing maximum thrust or if there is excessive throttle stagger the engine should be trimmed.
8-3(O). Ideally, trimming an engine should be done under conditions of no wind and clear, moisture-free air. Never
trim when icing conditions exist because of the adverse effect on trimming accuracy. If there is wind, face
the engine intake into the wind to avoid re-ingestion of the exhaust gases. Accurate ambient temperature and
pressure readings need to be taken. These are used to compute the desired EPR indication(s) from charts in
the maintenance manual. Idle RPM and maximum speed adjustments are made as well as acceleration and
deceleration checks according to the specific instructions provided by the manufacturer.
8-4(O). Reasons for removal of an engine include: Engine or components lifespan exceeded; sudden stoppage;
sudden reduction in speed; metal particles in oil; negative spectrometric oil analysis; operational problems
such as excessive vibration; low power output caused by low compression or internal engine deterioration
or damage; turbine engine parameters exceeded; and, turbine engine condition monitoring program trends.
A sudden reduction does not automatically result in an engine change. Additional test such as a complete
visual inspection should be performed - especially of the engine mounts and the nose section of the engine,
crankshaft run-out, and oil filter, sump, and screen checks for metal in the oil. If these all prove negative, the
engine may be able to stay in service. Also, just the presence of metal in the oil does not mean the engine
has to be removed. The quantity and type of metal particles must be further analyzed. Any ferrous metal in an
oil screen is cause for concern. Small non-ferrous particles could be normal. A complete oil and filter/screen
change should be performed and the engine should be ground-run and filters and screens rechecked.
8-5(O). (A) Engine mount access plates; (B) Pneumatic ducts; (C) Electrical connections; (D) Thermocouple leads;
(E) Fuel lines; (F) Hydraulic lines.
8-6(O). (A) A thorough ground check is performed; (B) Pre-oil the engine by rotating it with the starter with a spark
plug removed from each cylinder; (C) Bleed the fuel system to eliminate air bubbles and traces of preservative
oil; (D) Check propeller bolt torque and electrical operation or oil flow if applicable.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 08 Page 14, 34]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
8-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, perform a crankshaft run-out
on a reciprocating engine installation and record findings. [Level 3]
8-2(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect a reciprocating
aircraft engine as though it had experienced a sudden reduction in speed during operation and record
findings. [Level 3]
8-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect a reciprocating
engine for suspected internal engine damage and record findings. [Level 3]
8-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect an engine mounting
frame assembly and mounting bolts for serviceability and record findings. [Level 3]
8-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and required tooling, prepare an engine
for removal. [Level 3]
8-6(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect the intake ducting
and exhaust system of an aircraft engine and record findings. [Level 3]
8-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, disconnect and inspect the
engine controls including control rods, cables, pulleys, bell cranks, and linkages. Record findings. [Level 3]
8-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, properly remove an aircraft
engine from the aircraft or test stand. [Level 3]
8-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, properly mount an aircraft
engine to the aircraft or a test stand. [Level 3]
8-10(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, properly connect the engine
controls to a newly mounted engine and record the maintenance activity. [Level 3]
8-11(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect and connect electrical
wiring to engine mounted components on a newly mounted engine and record maintenance activity. [Level 3]
8-12(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, properly connect all fluid
lines to a newly mounted engine and record the maintenance activity. [Level 3]
8-13(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, properly connect all intake
ducting and the exhaust system to a newly mounted engine and record the maintenance activity. [Level 3]
8-14(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, perform the final inspection
and preparation of a newly installed engine for run-up and record the maintenance activity. [Level 3]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
8-15(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, run-up a newly installed
engine. Check and record all performance parameters per manufacturer’s data . [Level 3]
8-16(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, perform a post run-p
inspection of a newly installed engine and record findings. [Level 3]
8-17(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, perform fuel control rigging,
adjustments, and trimming of a turbine engine. Record the maintenance activity. [Level 3]

ENGINE FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS CHAPTER
Engine Fire Detection, Extinguishers, Troubleshooting, Fire Detection System Maintenance
09
QUESTIONS
9-1 AMP034 9-4 AMP066

In a thermal switch type fire detection system, heat sensitive Which of the following fire detection systems measure
switches are placed in _______________ with each other, and in temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
_______________ with the flight deck indicator lights. A. Thermocouple
A. parallel; series B. Thermal Switch
B. series; parallel C. Lindberg Continuous Element
C. series; series
9-2 AMP034 9-5 AMP034

Which of the following are features of an ideal fire Optical fire detection systems
detection system? A. can be infrared or ultraviolet.
1. Illuminates a light on the flight deck which indicates the B. must be used out of the way of direct sunlight.
location of the fire. C. give a false alarm if not disarmed before an
2. Sets off an audible alarm. incandescent light strikes the sensor.
3. Low number or no false alarms.
4. Resettable when the fire is out.
5. Minimum electrical current requirements.
A. 1, 3, 5
B. 2, 3, 4, and 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
9-3 AMP034 9-6 AMP034

What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in A fire detection system operates on the principle of a buildup
a fire detection system? of gas pressure within a tube proportional to temperature.
A. Resistant core material that prevents current flow at Which of the following systems does this statement define?
normal temperatures. A. Kidde Continuous-Loop System
B. If conventional thermocouple that produces a B. Lindberg Continuous-Element System
current flow. C. Thermal Switch System
C. A bimetallic thermal switch that closes when heated to
a high temperature.

ENGINE FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS
ANSWERS

A thermal switch has one or more heat sensitive switches A thermocouple depends on the rate of temperature rise and
energized by the aircraft power system which close when the does not give a warning when an engine slowly overheats or
temperature reaches a certain point. They are connected in a short circuit develops. The thermocouple is constructed
parallel to each other for independent operation, but in series of a junction of two dissimilar metals that produce current
with the flight deck warning lights. flow when heated. In addition to the thermocouple sensors,
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 2-3] there is a reference junction of dissimilar metals enclosed
in a dead air space between two insulation blocks. This
reference junction box is in the engine nacelle. Current flow
of the thermocouple sensor(s) is compared to the current
flow at the reference junction. Only the sensor temperature
increasing a faster rate than the reference junction
temperature produces enough resultant current flow to close
the fire warning indicator circuit.

There are many desirable features of a fire detection Optical sensors are often referred to as flame detectors.
system. A system that does not cause false warnings They are designed to alarm when they detect the presence
under any flight or ground condition is important as is rapid of prominent, specific radiation emissions from hydrocarbon
indication that there is a fire and where it located. Good flames. The two types of optical sensors available are
fire detection systems set off audible and visual alarms to infrared (IR) and ultraviolet (UV), based on the specific
notify flight crew of the fire. Accurate indication that the fire emission wavelengths they are designed to detect. A window
is out and the ability to indicate that a fire has reignited are in the unit allows light to strike a detector. The processing
also desired features. Low electrical requirements for the electronics are tailored exactly to the time signature of all
detection system are also desirable so when aircraft power is known hydrocarbon flame sources and ignores false alarms
compromised, reliable fire indication is still available. sources such as incandescent lights and sunlight.

Thermal switches are heat sensitive units that complete Pneumatic detectors are based on the principle of gas laws.
electrical circuits at a certain temperature. They are The sensing element consists of a closed helium-filled tube
connected in parallel with each other, but in series with connected at one end to a responder assembly. As the
the indicator lights. If the temperature rises above a set element is heated, the gas pressure inside the tube increases
value in any area where a thermal switch is located, the until the alarm threshold is reached. An internal switch in
switch closes completing the light circuit to indicate a fire the responder closes and an alarm is reported on the flight
or overheat condition. deck. Thermal switches are spot detectors and the Kidde
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 3] continuous-loop system consists of two wires embedded in
an inconel tube with a thermistor core material. Therefore, the
gas-filled continuous element, sometimes called Lindberg
from the name of its long-time manufacturer, is the answer.

QUESTIONS
9-7 AMP034 9-10 AMP036

What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire In the event of a fire caused by a false start of a turbine
detection system sensor? engine which is not blown out by continued starting
A. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures. attempts, which agent is first used as an extinguishant?
B. Core resistance material which prevents current flow at A. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
normal temperatures. B. Halon 1301
C. A bimetallic thermo-switch which closes when heated C. HCL-125
to a high temperature.
9-8 AMP036 9-11 AMP035

Which of the following is the safest fire‑extinguishing agent A common visual check of fire detection elements includes
to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion hazards? A. the contact points in the control box.
A. Dibromodiflouromethane (Halon 1202) B. cracked or broken sections.
B. Bromochlorodiflouromethane (Halon 1211) C. the color of missing blowout disks.
C. Bromotriflouromethane (Halon 1301)
9-9 AMP036 9-12 AMP035

How is the fire extinguishing agent distributed in the If a continuous-loop fire detection system is giving a false
engine section? alarm, how can it be determined if the problem is in the
A. Spray nozzles and fluid pump. control unit or in the sensing loop?
B. Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings. A. By disconnecting the loop from the control box and
C. Spray nozzles and perforated tubing. observing if the false alarm stops.
B. By connecting a voltmeter across the connected
loop terminals.
C. By resetting the warning lights and timing the interval
until the next false alarm.

ANSWERS

In the Kidde continuous-loop system, two wire conductors Halon 1301 is the current extinguishing agent for commercial
are embedded in an inconel tube filled with a thermistor aircraft. Never use CO2 as its cooling effect can damage
core material. One conductor has a ground connection to the engine. HCL-125 is currently experimental for military
the tube, the other conductor connects to the fire detection use only.
control unit. As the temperature of the core increases, [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 9]
electrical resistance of the thermistor core decreases.
Current can flow to ground completing the overheat or fire
warning circuit which warns the crew on the flight deck.

The most common extinguishing agent still used An inspection and maintenance program for all types of
today is Halon 1301 because of its effective firefighting continuous-loop systems should include the following visual
capability and relatively low toxicity. Noncorrosive Halon checks and others. 1) Inspect for cracked or broken sections
1301 does not effect the material it contacts and requires no caused by crushing or squeezing between inspection
clean-up when discharged. plates, cowl panels, or engine components, 2) Inspect for
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 8] abrasion caused by rubbing of the element on the cowling,
accessories, or structural members, 3) Check the condition of
rubber grommets in mounting clamps which may be softened
from exposure to oils or hardened from excessive heat, 4)
Look for dents and kinks in sensing element sections.

Many systems use perforated tubing or discharge nozzles Fire alarms and warning lights can occur when no engine
to distribute the extinguishing agent. High rate of discharge fire or overheat condition exists. Such false alarms can
(HRD) systems use open-end tubes to deliver a large most easily be located by disconnecting the engine sensing
quantity of extinguishing agent in 1 to 2 seconds. loop from the control unit. If the false alarm ceases when
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 8] the engine sensing loop is disconnected, the fault is in the
disconnected sensing loop.

QUESTIONS
9-13 AMP036 9-16 AMP036

Generally speaking, as air temperature increases, the Within an engine fire extinguisher system what causes the
allowable pressure range inside a fire extinguisher container extinguishant to be transported to the fire?
A. goes up. A. An explosive charge.
B. goes down. B. Pressurized gas.
C. remains constant. C. Pressure differentials caused by the fire.
9-14 AMP036 9-17 AMP036

Using the chart below(Figure 9-18) what are the How is the engine fire extinguishing agent discharged on the
fire extinguisher container pressure limits when the Boeing 777 and most other transport category aircraft?
temperature is 40°F? A. By pulling the fire handle.
A. 448 psi minimum and 598 psi maximum. B. By pulling the fire handle and rotating it to the
B. 405 psi minimum and 560 psi maximum. mechanic stop.
C. 477 psi minimum and 650 psi maximum. C. By pressing the extinguisher discharge button on the
fire control panel.
Figure 9-18. Fire extinguisher container pressure-temperature chart.
9-15 AMP034 9-18 AMP017

Engine fire detection on a Boeing 777 aircraft is Fire protection systems are mandatory on
accomplished with two loops which are monitored by the fire A. general aviation reciprocating single engine.
detection card file. When is a BITE test performed? B. general aviation reciprocating twin engine.
A. When one of the loops fails to have continuity and the C. auxiliary power unit.
other one has continuity.
B. Before starting the engine and before it is shut down.
C. When power is applied, after a power interrupt, and
every 5 minutes of operation.

ANSWERS

Fire extinguisher containers are checked periodically to When a fire extinguishing system is activated an explosive
insure that the pressure is between the prescribed minimum device called a squib is electrically activated, braking
and maximum limits. Changes of pressure with ambient the seal of a pressurized bottle containing nitrogen. The
temperatures must also fall within prescribed limits. escaping nitrogen sends the extinguishant to the fire.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 13, Figure 9-18] [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 15]
9-14 Answer A.
To find the answer on the chart, locate the temperature
on the bottom (horizontal) scale: 40˚F. Go straight up the
40˚F line until you intersect with the green arc. Follow this
intersection point across to the vertical scale to obtain
the minimum pressure reading (448 psi). Now continue up
the 40˚F line until it intersects with the blue arc. This is the
maximum pressure allowed in the extinguisher bottle at
40˚F. From this intersection point, move horizontally to the 9-17 Answer B.
vertical scale to obtain the maximum psi allowed in the bottle When the fire switch is pulled, the push-pull switch contacts
(598 psi). So on a day where the temperature is 40˚F, the operate electrical circuits that stop the engine and isolate it
pressure in the fire extinguisher bottle should between 448 from the airplane systems. With the switch pulled, it can be
psi and 598 psi. If it is not, the bottle should be replaced. rotated to left or right to a mechanical stop at the discharge
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 09 Page 13] position. The rotary switch contacts close and operate the
fire extinguishing system (discharges the agent).
9-18 Answer C.
Figure 9-18. Fire extinguisher container pressure-temperature chart. In accordance with Title 14 of the Code of Federal
Regulations (14 CFR) parts 23 and 25, engine fire protection
systems are mandatory on: multiengine turbine powered
9-15 Answer C. airplanes, multiengine reciprocating engine powered
The 777 has continuous fault monitoring of the fire detection airplanes incorporating turbochargers, airplanes with
loops. Built-In-Test-Equipment (BITE) performs a test of the engine(s) located where they are not readily visible from the
engine fire detection system for these conditions: 1) when cockpit, all commuter and transport category airplanes, and
the system first gets power, 2) after a power interrupt, and 3) the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) compartment of any airplane
every 5 minutes of operation. incorporating an APU.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
9-1(O). How would a technician verify proper operation of a fire extinguishing system?
9-2(O). How would a technician troubleshoot an engine fire detection system?
9-3(O). What are the basic inspection requirements for an engine fire extinguisher squib and the safety practices and
precautions to be followed?
9-4(O). What are the components of a typical fire detection system?
9-5(O). Maintenance procedures for fire detection systems include extensive visual inspection of the components.
Name three common items to look for on a visual inspection of a fire detection system.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
9-1(O). By inspection and good maintenance practices. The fire extinguishing system contains agent containers that
must be verified as fully charged by checking the pressure gauge mounted in each bottle against a chart
containing temperature-adjusted values. The extinguisher bottle squib, which fires to discharge the agent, has
a limited service life and must be changed if the date on the squib has been exceeded. The pressure switch
mounted on the bottle sends a signal for an indication on the flight deck when low pressure exists in the bottle
due to leakage or discharge. This indication should not be illuminated. An electrical wiring continuity check can
also be performed to ensure that power will arrive at the squib when the switch on the flight deck is closed.
9-2(O). A push-to-test button is provided on most fire detection systems. It should light all warning lights and sound
the aural alarms. Failure to do so requires further investigation. A faulty test switch or control unit is possible.
Also, lack of electric power, an inoperative indicator light, or opening in the sensor element or connecting
wiring are possible. Continuity of the sensing element can be checked by measuring the resistance.
Intermittent alarms can be traced by visual inspection and moving wires and the sensors in suspected areas
to recreate the fault. Also, by disconnecting the sensing elements from the control unit, the fault can be
isolated to the sensing elements if the false alarm stops.
9-3(O). The squib must be inspected to insure it is within its serviceable life. It must be replaced if it is not. The date
is stamped on the outside of the squib. Power to the discharge valve assembly should be disconnected when
disassembled to access the squib. A discharge cartridge (squib) removed from an assembly should not be used
in another discharge valve assembly. The distance that the contact points protrude may vary. The wrong length
of protrusion could result in a loss of electrical continuity required to fire the squib and discharge the agent.
9-4(O). There are different types of fire detection systems. All types have some sort of detection device and indication
devices on the flight deck. Thermal switch systems are simple and typically will also contain a test switch,
test relay, and a dimming relay for the indicator light(s). Thermocouple detection systems contain a control
box with relays and a thermal test unit. Optical fire detection systems contain an amplifier and comparative
circuits to decipher sensing data. Continuous loop systems also contain control boxes which decipher the
analog signal from the sensor loops and signal warnings or supply the Aircraft In-flight Monitoring System. The
most sophisticated systems contain a control module that uses control cards with various interpretive circuitry
to decipher signals from each area where sensors are located. Some systems will initiate extinguishing
automatically from the control module.
9-5(O). Cracked or broken loop sections, abrasion of elements by rubbing, loose metal that might short a spot detector,
condition of rubber grommets and mounting clamps, dents and kinks in loop elements, secure connections at
the end of the sensing elements, integrity of shielded leads, and, proper routing and support of elements.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
9-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling check an engine fire detection
system for proper operation and record findings. [Level 2]
9-2(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling check an engine fire
extinguishing system for proper operation and record findings. [Level 2]
9-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling accomplish a weight and
pressure inspection of an engine fire bottle, verify hydrostatic inspection date and record findings. [Level 2]
9-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling repair an engine fire detector
heat sensing loop malfunction and record maintenance. [Level 3]
9-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling check operation of firewall
shut-off valve after a fire handle is pulled and record findings. [Level 2]
9-6(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling troubleshoot an engine fire
detection and record findings. [Level 2]
9-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling troubleshoot an engine fire
extinguishing system and record findings. [Level 2]
9-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect an engine fire
detection and record findings. [Level 3]
9-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect an engine fire
extinguishing system and record findings. [Level 3]


ENGINE MAINTENANCE AND OPERATION CHAPTER
Inspection Process, Disassembly, Cleaning, Reassembly, Installation and Testing,
and Troubleshooting, Maintenance
10
QUESTIONS
10-1 AMP059 10-4 AMP007

A certified technician with only a powerplant rating What type of defect is most likely to be found on a ball
may NOT perform or supervise a major overhaul of an bearing assembly?
engine _____________. A. Burnishing
A. if it is operated for commercial purposes B. Fretting
B. if it has been operated beyond its scheduled TBO time C. Galling
C. if it is equipped with a supercharger
10-2 AMP007 10-5 AMP007

In the sequence tasks to be performed in a major engine Which component of a piston engine would be the most
overhaul, which is done first? susceptible to the defect known as "pitting"?
A. Clean the engine. A. Bearing races.
B. Drain all fluids. B. The piston dome.
C. Visually inspect the engine. C. An exhaust valve.
10-3 AMP007 10-6 AMP007

Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads During visual inspection while overhauling an engine, the
are known as piston heads were depressed. This is a sign that
A. fretting. A. the engine was running normally.
B. brinelling. B. preignition had occurred.
C. galling. C. detonation had occurred.

ENGINE MAINTENANCE AND OPERATION
ANSWERS

A certified technician with a powerplant rating may perform Ball bearing assemblies should be inspected for roughness,
or supervise a major engine overhaul in all cases except if flat spots, and pitting. In addition the journals should be
the engine contains a supercharger or a propeller reduction inspected for galling, scores, and misalignment. Fretting
system other than with spur type gears. is caused by slight movement in rigidly attached surfaces.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 2] Burnishing is resembles polishing caused by movement of
surfaces of differing hardness.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 3 and 4]

The first step of an engine overhaul is known as a receiving Pitting is the result of chemical or electrochemical corrosion
inspection. This inspection includes a check of all paper which can be found in areas closely separated only by
work, AD compliance, log books, cleaning of the exterior and thin films of an electrolyte such as moisture or various
mounting it on an overhaul stand. The disassembly process hydrocarbons such as oil. Damage to piston domes and
follows which includes draining all fluids, and then followed exhaust valves are most likely caused by physical stresses
by a visual, structural (NDT) and dimensional inspection. like burning or cracking.
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 2] [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 3 and 4]

Several terms are used to describe defects detected in When applicable, check for flatness of the piston head
engine parts during inspection. One common term is using a straight edge and thickness gauge. If a depression
brinelling. Brinelling is one or more indentations on bearing is found, check for cracks on the inside of the piston. A
races, usually caused by high static loads or application of depression in the top of the piston usually means that
force during installation or removal. Indentations are rounded detonation has occurred within the cylinder.
or spherical due to the impression left by the contacting balls [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 5]
or rollers of the bearings.

QUESTIONS
10-7 AMP007 10-10 AMP007

When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally operating
it is inadvisable to soak them in solutions containing engine will the greatest amount of wear occur?
soap because A. At the interface of the piston rings.
A. some of the soap will become impregnated in the B. Near the top of the cylinder.
surface of the material and subsequently cause engine C. Near the bottom of the cylinder.
oil contamination and foaming.
B. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing them
to become more susceptible to corrosion.
C. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal
electrolytic action if they are placed together in the
solution for more than a few minutes.
10-8 AMP030 10-11 AMP007

What is always the final step when degreasing a metal engine During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are
part with a soap and water or chemical solution? checked for stretch (Figure 10-8)
A. Respray the part with oil. A. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
B. Dry the part with clean rag to remove residue. B. using a manufacturer’s contour or radius gauge or by
C. Rewash the part with clean water. the stem diameter just behind the head.
C. by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring
its length with a vertical height gauge.
10-9 AMP007
Which of the following are true concerning structural
inspection of engine parts during an engine overhaul?
1. Dye penetrant can be used on aluminum, stainless,
and titanium.
2. Eddy current inspection requires bare metal surfaces to
be effective.
3. Resonance ultra-sound inspection is primarily used for
thickness measurement.
4. Magnetic particle inspection requires fluorescent
developer to see the results.
5. X-rays can be used to check the structural integrity of an
engine component. Figure 10-8. Checking valve stretch with a manufacturer’s gauge.
A. 1, 2, and 4
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 1, 3, and 5

ANSWERS

Degreasing can be done by spraying or immersing the part The cylinder is usually worn larger at the top than at the
in a suitable commercial solvent. Extreme care must be used bottom. At the top of the piston stroke (top of the cylinder),
if any water-mixed degreasing solutions containing caustic the piston is subjected to greater heat and pressure and
compounds or soap are used. Such compounds, in addition more erosive environment than at the bottom of the stroke.
to being potentially corrosive to aluminum and magnesium, Also there is a greater freedom of movement at the top of the
may become impregnated in the pores of the metal and stroke. Under these conditions, the piston wears the cylinder
cause oil foaming when the engine is returned to service. more at the top of the cylinder.

Regardless of the method or type of degreasing solution Inspect a valve for stretch using a micrometer or a valve
used, always immediately respray the part with lubricating oil radius gauge. If a micrometer is used, stretch is found as a
to prevent future corrosion. Washing with water is a middle smaller diameter of the valve stem near the neck of the valve.
step following the degreasing process. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 10 Figure 10-8]
10-9 Answer C.
All of the answers contain a type of inspection that
is used on aircraft engines. Eddy current inspection,
however, can frequently be performed without removing
the surface coatings, such as primer, paint, and anodized
film. In magnetic particle inspection, tiny ferrous particles Figure 10-8. Checking valve stretch with a manufacturer’s gauge.
align with discontinuities in a material. Fluorescent developer
is not used.

QUESTIONS
10-12 AMP007 10-15 AMP057

Why is it improper to attempt to straighten a Checking the valve seat to valve face fit can be done with
bent crankshaft? A. Prussian blue or by gently lapping the valve to the seat
A. Proper tolerances can rarely be restored. and examining the valve seat afterwards.
B. Damage will result to the hardened surfaces. B. gasoline by checking for leaks around the interface
C. The original bending and straightening will result in while the two surfaces are mated.
work hardening of the steel. C. a strong light held behind the valve head while examining
the seat to valve interface from the other side.
10-13 AMP048 10-16 AMP057

In general, welding of engine parts is During overhaul, in order to obtain a more positive seal
A. not acceptable. (and thus less leakage) between a valve and its valve
B. only allowed when approved by the manufacturer. seat _____________.
C. can be accomplished if listed in 14 CFR, Part 43. A. a narrower contact surface area is ground into the
valve seat
B. a wider contact surface area is ground into the
valve created
C. a narrower contact surface area is ground into the valve
10-14 AMP057 10-17 AMP057

When overhauling a certified reciprocating aircraft engine Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a feathered
A. only steel valve seats can be used. edge is likely to result in
B. new valve seats are required to be installed. A. normal operation and long life.
C. steel valve seats can be wet or dry grinded. B. excessive valve clearance.
C. preignition and burned valves.

ANSWERS

A bent crankshaft should not be straightened. It must be Prussian blue is used to check for contact transfer from one
discarded. Any attempt at straightening will result in a surface to another. To check the fit of the seat, spread a thin
rupture and stresses of the nitride surfaces of the bearing coat of Prussian blue evenly on the seat. Press the valve
journals, a condition which will lead to eventual failure. onto the seat. The blue transferred to valve indicates the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 10] contact surface. The contact surface should be one-third to
two-thirds the width of the valve face and in the middle of
the face. The same check may be made by lapping the valve
lightly to the seat. Lapping is accomplished by using a small
amount of lapping compound placed between the valve face
and seat. The valve is then moved in a rotary motion back
and forth until the lapping compound grinds slightly into the
surface. After cleaning the lapping compound off, a contact
area can be seen.

In general, welding of highly-stressed parts can be The interference fit is used to obtain a more positive seal
accomplished only when approved by the manufacturer. by means of a narrow contact surface between the valve
However, welding may be accomplished using methods that face and the valve seat. Theoretically, there is a line contact
are approved by the engine manufacturer, and if it can be between the valve and the seat. With this line contact, the
reasonably expected that the weld repair will not adversely load that the valve exerts against the seat is concentrated
affect the airworthiness of the engine. in a very small area, thereby increasing the unit load at any
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 12] one spot. The interference fit is especially beneficial during
the first few hours of operation after an overhaul because the
positive seal prevents a burned valve or seat that a leaking
valve might produce. Note that the interference angle is
always cut into the valve and not the valve seat.

The valve seat inserts of an aircraft engine are usually in need After grinding, check the valve margin to be sure that the
of refacing at engine overhaul. They are refaced to provide valve edge has not been ground too thin. A thin edge is
a true, clean, and correct size seat for the valve. Steel valve called a feathered edge and can lead to preignition. The
seats are refaced by grinding equipment. It can be either wet valve edge would burn away in a short period of time and the
or dry valve seat grinding equipment. The wet grinder uses a cylinder would have to be overhauled again.
mixture of soluble oil and water to wash away the chips and [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 17]
to keep the stone and seat cool. This produces a smoother,
more accurate job than the dry grinder. The grinding stones
may be either silicon carbide or aluminum oxide.

QUESTIONS
10-18 AMP056 10-21 AMP028

Which is an advantage of a rough finish of the cylinder walls? When an overhauled engine is test run before being put into
A. Allows improved lubrication of oil. service, a club propeller is used
B. Allows better ring seating. A. for proper cooling and the correct load on the engine.
C. Allows improved cooling. B. because the propeller to be installed is rarely available.
C. to ensure maximum RPM can be achieved and the
carburetor properly adjusted.
10-19 AMP057 10-22 AMP009

Once an aircraft cylinder wall is ground to an oversize, Prior to starting a piston engine, which instrument can best
during overhaul, suggest the amount of priming which should be used for a
A. it must be resurfaced or honed to the desired finish. successful start?
B. it is measured and installed on the engine. A. The fuel pressure indicator.
C. a chemical finish is imparted to the cylinder walls. B. The manifold pressure gauge.
C. The carburetor air temperature gauge.
10-20 AMP057 10-23 AMP009

After a piston engine is overhauled and reassembled, it must Where in an oil system is the oil temperature
undergo a run-in procedure before being placed into service. measurement taken?
What are primary purposes of this procedure? A. At the engine outlet.
A. Valve seating and crankshaft run-in. B. At the engine inlet.
B. Seating the piston rings and burnishing the C. At the oil pump outlet.
crankshaft bearings.
C. Oil pressure leaks, checks, and adjustments.

ANSWERS

Some engine manufacturers specify a rough finish on the A test club (propeller) should be used when running in an
cylinder walls that allows the rings to seat even though they engine after overhaul instead of a flight propeller. The club
are not lapped to the cylinder. Others desire a smooth finish propeller provides more cooling airflow and the correct
to which a lapped ring seats without much change in the amount of load.
ring or cylinder dimension. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 21]

The type of finish desired in the cylinder is an important The carburetor air temperature gauge should be noted
consideration when ordering a regrind. Some engine before starting and just after shutdown. The temperature
manufacturers specify a fairly rough finish on the cylinder before starting is the best indication of the temperature of
walls that allows the rings to seat even if they are not lapped the fuel in the carburetor body and tells whether vaporizing
to the cylinder. Other manufacturers desire a smooth finish is sufficient for the initial firing or whether the mixture must
to which a lapped ring seats without much change in ring or be augmented by priming. If the engine has been shut down
cylinder dimensions. Hones and deglazing hone are used to for only a short time, the residual heat in the carburetor may
prepare the surface of the cylinder wall. Hones that remove make it possible to rely on the vaporizing heat in the fuel and
material and change the dimension of the cylinder must be powerplant. Priming would then be unnecessary.
chosen before the cylinder is ground so that after it is honed [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 22]
the final dimension is correct.

Engine run-in is as vital as any other phase of engine The oil temperature gauge line in the aircraft is connected at
overhaul for it is the means by which the quality of a new the oil inlet to the engine. However, during initial testing of an
or newly overhauled engine is checked and it is the final overhauled engine, engine oil temperature readings are taken
step in the preparation of an engine for service. Thus, at the oil inlet and the oil outlet. From these readings, it can
the reliability and potential service life of an engine is in be determined if the engine heat transferred to the oil is low,
question until it has satisfactorily passed the test cell. The normal, or excessive.
test serves a dual purpose. First, it accomplishes piston ring [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 23]
run-in and bearing burnishing. Second, it provides valuable
information that is used to evaluate engine performance and
determine engine condition.

QUESTIONS
10-24 AMP009 10-27 AMP065

Fuel flow on many light aircraft with reciprocating engines When a reciprocating aircraft engine is started, what is the
is measured maximum time period to wait for an indication of oil pressure?
A. with a turbine sensor-based indicating system. A. 15 Seconds
B. using direct flow meters. B. 30 Seconds
C. with a pressure-based flow meter. C. 1 Minute
10-25 AMP009 10-28 AMP057

A manifold pressure gauge is designated to What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating
A. maintain constant pressure in the intake manifold. aircraft engine?
B. indicate differential pressure between the intake A. To check magneto drop.
manifold and atmospheric pressure. B. To determine satisfactory performance.
C. indicate absolute pressure in the intake manifold. C. To determine if the fuel air mixture is adequate.
10-26 AMP067 10-29 AMP023

If only one cylinder is to be continuously monitored for An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been
cylinder head temperature, what determines which cylinder obtained occurs when the mixture control is moved to IDLE
is to monitored? CUTOFF and manifold pressure
A. The engine manufacturer’s maintenance manual. A. decreases momentarily and RPM drops slightly before
B. The airframe manufacturer’s maintenance manual. the engine ceases to fire.
C. The cylinder seen as the hottest during previous tests. B. increases momentarily and RPM drops slightly before
engine ceases to fire.
C. decreases and RPM increases momentarily before the
engine ceases to fire.

ANSWERS

Reciprocating engines on light aircraft use a fuel pressure During warm-up, watch the instruments associated with
gauge that is also used for the fuel flow meter. This is because engine operation. This aids in making sure that all phases of
the fuel flow is proportional to the fuel pressure in these engine operation are normal. Engine oil pressure should be
systems. Fuel flow is normally measured in gallons per hour. indicated within 30 seconds after the start. Furthermore, if the
By calibrating the fuel pressure indicator in gallons per hour an oil pressure is not up to or above normal within one minute
acceptable, reliable measurement of fuel flow is obtained. after the engine starts, the engine should be shut down.

The preferred type of instrument for measuring the manifold Specific RPM and manifold pressure relationship should be
pressure on reciprocating engine is a gauge that records checked during each ground check. This can be done at the
the pressure as an absolute pressure reading. Absolute time the engine is run-up to make the magneto check. The
pressure takes into account the atmospheric pressure plus purpose of the power check is to measure the performance
the pressure in the intake manifold. of the engine against an established standard.

While monitoring CHT on all cylinders is advised in order to When performing an idle speed and mixture check, as
observe if a particular cylinder is failing, if only one cylinder the mixture control lever is moved into IDLE CUTOFF, and
is to monitored, the one selected is a result of testing on that before normal drop off, the engine speed may increase. An
particular installation of which one runs the hottest. increase in RPM, but less than that recommended by the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 24] manufacturer (usually 20 RPM), indicates proper mixture
strength. A greater increase indicates that the mixture is
too rich. If the engine speed does not increase or drops
immediately when the mixture control lever in moved into
IDLE CUTOFF, the mixture is too lean.

QUESTIONS
10-30 AMP056 10-33 AMP022

Which of the following statements are true regarding Which statement relating to fuel/air ratios is true?
combustion problems in piston engines? A. The mixture ratio which gives the best power is richer
1. Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing. than the mixture ratio which gives maximum economy.
2. Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion B. A rich mixture is faster burning than a normal mixture.
chamber becomes too hot and ignites the fuel/air C. The mixture ratio which gives maximum economy may
mixture in advance of proper timing. also be designated the best power mixture.
A. Only statement #1 is true.
B. Both statements are true.
C. Both statements are false.
10-31 AMP023 10-34 AMP056

Which of the following would most likely cause a Which of the following will be the result of an induction
reciprocating engine to backfire through the induction system leak near a cylinder?
system at low RPM? A. Backfiring
A. Idle mixture too rich. B. A lean mixture
B. Clogged derichment valve. C. A rich mixture
C. Lean mixture.
10-32 AMP022 10-35 AMP056

One cause of after firing in an aircraft engine is Excessive valve clearance will cause the duration of valve
A. an excessively rich mixture. opening to
B. an excessively lean mixture. A. increase for both intake and exhaust valves.
C. sticking intake valve. B. decrease for both intake and exhaust valves.
C. decrease for intake valves and increase for
exhaust valves.

ANSWERS

Preignition means that combustion takes place within the For a given RPM, the power output of an engine is less with
cylinder before the timed spark jumps across the spark the best-economy setting (auto lean) than with the best-
plug terminals. Do not confuse preignition with the spark power mixture.
that occurs too early in the cycle. Preignition is caused by [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 33]
a hot spot in the combustion chamber and not by incorrect
ignition timing. Detonation is the spontaneous combustion of
the unburned charge ahead of the flame fronts after ignition
of the charge.

When a fuel air mixture does not contain enough fuel to Any leak in the induction system has an effect on the mixture
consume all of the oxygen, it is called a lean mixture. An reaching the cylinders. This is particularly true of a leak at
extremely lean mixture either does not burn at all or burns the cylinder end of an intake pipe. At manifold pressures
so slowly that combustion is not complete at the end of below atmospheric pressure, such a leak leans out the
the exhaust stroke. The flame lingers in the cylinder and mixture. This occurs because additional air is drawn in from
then ignites the contents in the intake manifold or the the atmosphere at the leaky point. The affected cylinder may
induction system when the intake valve opens. This causes overheat, fire intermittently, or even cut out altogether.
an explosion known as backfiring which can damage the [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 34]
carburetor and other parts of the induction system.

Overly rich mixtures are also slow burning, therefore charges Valve operation is only correct if valve clearances are
of unburned fuel are present in the exhaust gases. Air from set and remain at the value recommended by the engine
outside the exhaust stacks mixes with this unburned fuel manufacturer. If valve clearances are set wrong, the valve
that ignites. This causes an explosion in the exhaust system. overlap period is longer or shorter than the manufacturer
After firing is perhaps more common where long exhaust intended. Where there is too much valve clearance, the
ducting retains greater amounts of unburned charges. As in valves do not open as wide or remain open as long as they
the case of back firing, the correction for after firing is the should. This reduces the valve overlap period.
proper adjustment of the fuel/air mixture. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 35]

QUESTIONS
10-36 AMP057 10-39 AMP007

At any given RPM, a change in power output can be noted by When performing a compression check, if low compression
which engine monitoring instrument? is obtained on a cylinder,
A. Manifold Pressure Gauge A. the cylinder must be removed and replaced.
B. Fuel Pressure Gauge B. a logbook entry must be made and the value accessed
C. Cylinder Head Temperature at the next 100 hour inspection.
C. rotate the engine with the starter or restart and run the
engine and check the compression again.
10-37 AMP007 10-40 AMP057

A hissing sound coming from the carburetor when the Staking a valve
propeller is pulled through manually indicates A. should not be attempted on aircraft engines.
A. worn piston rings. B. is an attempt to dislodge foreign material from the valve
B. an induction leak. face/seat interface.
C. intake valve blow-by. C. should be accomplished only by a qualified
repair station.
10-38 AMP007 10-41 AMP007

As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating engine If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or oil
compression check using a differential pressure tester, what filler during a differential compression check, what is this an
would a movement of the propeller in the direction of engine indication of?
rotation indicate? A. Exhaust Valve Leakage
A. The piston was on the compression stroke. B. Intake Valve Leakage
B. The piston was on the exhaust stroke. C. Piston Ring Leakage
C. The piston was positioned past top dead center.

ANSWERS

The cylinders of an engine, along with any type of Obtaining low compression on the first check of
supercharging, form an air pump. The power developed compression check is not automatically grounds for rejection
in the cylinders varies directly with the rate that air can of the cylinder. Debris between the valve face and the
be consumed by the engine. Therefore, a measure of air seat, for example, could be causing the low reading. If low
consumption into the engine is a measure of power input. compression is obtained on any cylinder, turn the engine
Together, the manifold pressure gauge and the tachometer through with the starter, or restart, and run the engine to
provide a measure of engine air consumption. For any takeoff power and recheck the cylinder. If the compression is
given RPM, any change in power input is reflected by a within limits, continue the cylinder in service.
corresponding change in manifold pressure. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 41]

Valve blow-by is indicated by a hissing or whistle when If low compression on a cylinder found during a compression
pulling the propeller through prior to starting the engine. It check is not corrected by cranking the engine with the
is caused by the valve not seating properly and should be starter or re-running the engine, the rocker box cover should
corrected immediately to prevent valve failure and possible be removed and valve clearance should be checked. If
engine failure. clearance is within limits, stake the valves by placing a fiber
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 40] drift on the rocker arm immediately over the valve stem and
tapping it with a 1 to 2 pound hammer several times. This
is an attempt to dislodge any foreign material that may be
between the valve and the valve seat. After staking, rotate
the engine with the starter and recheck compression.

When performing a differential compression test, turn Cylinders having compression below minimum specified
the engine over by hand in the direction of rotation until should be further checked to determine whether leakage
the piston is at top dead center. This can be detected by is past the exhaust valve, intake valve, or piston. Excessive
a decrease in force required to move the propeller. If the leakage can be detected (during compression check) past
engine is rotated past top dead center, the 15 to 20 psi from the piston rings by escaping air at the engine breather outlets
the differential tester tends to move the propeller in the or oil filler port.
direction of rotation. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 41]

QUESTIONS
10-42 AMP049 10-45 AMP069

1. Cast iron piston rings may be used in Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed
chrome‑plated cylinders. primarily in order to
2. Chrome plated rings may be used in plain A. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent
steel cylinders. engine bearing wear or damage.
B. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and
Regarding the above statements, compressor areas for defects or FOD.
A. Only No. 1 is true. C. prevent engine performance degradation, increased fuel
B. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path surfaces.
10-43 AMP057 10-46 AMP069

When removing a cylinder from an engine, one must first A nick in the metal is found during inspection of an axial flow
remove the pushrods. At what position within the cylinder compressor blade. When assessing whether the damage
should the piston be to allow the pushrods to be removed? is repairable, you must consider the location on the blade
A. Top dead center following the compression stroke. where it is present. Which section of the blade offers the
B. Bottom dead center following the power stroke. greatest tolerance for damage repair?
C. Bottom dead center following the intake stroke. A. Inboard section, trailing edge.
B. Outboard section, leading edge.
C. Fillet section.
10-44 AMP007 10-47 AMP069

Which of the following problems could be detected by a Turbine engine parts can be cleaned with
cold cylinder check? A. emulsion-type cleaners or chlorinated solvents.
A. A defective sparkplug lead. B. mineral spirits.
B. An out of time magneto. C. soapy water and rinsed with clean water.
C. A carburetor blockage.

ANSWERS

In some instances, air-cooled engines are equipped with Accumulation of dirt on the compressor blades reduces
chrome-plated cylinders. When installing a chrome-plated the aerodynamic efficiency of the blades with resultant
cylinder, do not use chrome-plated rings. The matched deterioration in engine performance. The efficiency of the
assembly (piston, piston rings, cylinder, cylinder head blades is impaired by dirt deposits in a manner similar to that
assembly, etc.) includes the correct piston rings for the of an aircraft wing under icing conditions. Unsatisfactory
cylinder. However, if a ring is needed, check the cylinder acceleration and high exhaust gas temperature can result
marking to determine which ring, chrome-plated or from foreign deposits on compressor components. An
otherwise, is correct for replacement. end result of foreign particles, if allowed to accumulate in
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 42] sufficient quantity, would be [fuel] inefficiency and damage to
the gas path surfaces of the engine.

When removing a cylinder from an engine, pushrods are While compressor blade damage repair limits are specified
removed by depressing the rocker arm. Before removing the by the manufacturer, in all cases it is the outboard sections
pushrods, turn the crankshaft until the piston is at top dead (leading or trailing edges) where the greatest amount of
center on the compression stroke. This relieves pressure on repair and blending may occur. The inboard stations are
both the intake and exhaust rocker arms. more restrictive and the fillet area where typically, only light
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 42] sanding is allowed.

A cold cylinder check will expose problems unique to that Turbine engine parts can be degreased by using emulsion-
particular cylinder such as worn or broken rings, an intake type cleaners or chlorinated solvents. The emulsion-type
leak, sparkplugs, spark plug leads, valve clearances, etc. cleaners are safe for all metals since they are neutral and
Components which service all cylinders such as magnetos or non-corrosive. Cleaning parts by the chlorinated solvent
carburetors, or fuel pumps, would affect all cylinders evenly method leaves the parts absolutely dry. If they are not to
and would not show up by inspecting individual cylinders. be subjected to further cleaning operations, they should be
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 44] sprayed with a corrosion preventative solution to protect
them against rust or corrosion.

QUESTIONS
10-48 AMP069 10-51 AMP068

Turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating
generally may NOT be marked with damage than compressor blades because of
1. layout dye. A. higher centrifugal loading.
2. commercial felt tip marker. B. exposure to high temperatures.
3. wax or grease pencil. C. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.
4. chalk.
5. graphite lead pencil.
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 3 and 5
C. 4 and 5
10-49 AMP069 10-52 AMP069

When cleaning turbine engine fuel nozzles, loosen When the leading edge of a first stage turbine blade is found
carbon deposits to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following should
A. only with a stainless steel implement or wire brush. be suspected?
B. before exposing to manufacturer recommended A. Faulty Cooling Shield
cleaning fluid. B. Over-Temperature Condition
C. with an approved cleaning product and remove C. Overspeed Condition
softened deposits with a soft bristle brush.
10-50 AMP068 10-53 AMP069

Where do stress rupture cracks on a turbine engine usually Initially upon the construction of a 54 blade turbine rotor,
appear on turbine blades? blade numbers 1 and 2 are placed in slots
A. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree. A. adjacent to each other on the rotor.
B. Along the leading edge or trailing edge at right angle to B. 90º apart from each other on the rotor.
the edge length. C. 180º apart from each other on the rotor.
C. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge.

ANSWERS

Always refer to manufacturer’s information for marking parts. Turbine blades are usually inspected and cleaned in the
However, in general, layout dye (lightly applied) or chalk same manner as compressor blades. However, because of
may be used to mark parts that are directly exposed to the the extreme heat under which the turbine blades operate,
engine’s gas path, such as turbine blades and discs, turbine they are more susceptible to damage.
vanes, and combustion chamber liners. A wax marking [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 51]
pencil may be used for parts not directly exposed to the gas
path. Do not use a wax marking pencil on a liner surface
or turbine rotor. The use of carbon alloy or metallic pencils
is not recommended because of the possibility of causing
intergranular corrosion attack that could result in a reduction
in material strength and cracking.

Clean all carbon deposits from the nozzles by washing with Do not confuse stress rupture cracks or deformation of the
a cleaning fluid approved by the engine manufacturer and leading edge with foreign material impingement damage or
remove the softened deposits with a soft bristle brush. It with blending repairs to the blade. When any stress rupture
is desirable to have filtered air passing through the nozzle cracks or deformation of the leading edges of the first stage
during the cleaning operation to carry away deposits as turbine blades are found, an over-temperature condition
they are loosened. Because the spray characteristics of the must be suspected. Check the individual blades for stretch
nozzle may become impaired, no attempt should be made and the turbine disc for hardness and stretch.
to clean the nozzles by scraping with a hard implement or by [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 51]
rubbing with a wire brush.

Stress rupture cracks usually appear as minute hairline Prior to assembly, all turbine blades are accurately weighed
cracks on or across the leading or trailing edge at a right and then numbered 1-54 in order of each blade’s total
angle to the edge length. Visible cracks may range in length weight/moment. As blades 1 and 2 are the heaviest, in
from 1/16th inch upward. order to balance the rotor, they are placed in opposing slots
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 51] 180º apart.

QUESTIONS
10-54 AMP069 10-57 AMP033

Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine exhaust The engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicator is a direct
A. indicate a problem in the combustion section of indication of
the engine. A. engine thrust being produced.
B. can glow red hot and light off any remaining fuel in the B. pressure ratio between the front and aft end of
exhaust stream. the compressor.
C. may indicate damage to the turbine blades or C. ratio of engine RPM to compressor pressure.
malfunctioning fuel nozzle.
10-55 AMP009 10-58 AMP019

Which instrument on a turbine engine will provide a What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial-
proportional indication to the turbine inlet temperature to compressor turbine engine?
determine the energy available to produce thrust? A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.
A. Exhaust gas temperature gauge. B. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing
B. Engine pressure ratio indicator. thrust settings under all conditions.
C. Fuel flow indicator. C. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate
overspeed conditions.
10-56 AMP068 10-59 AMP009

Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine In what units are turbine engine tachometers calibrated?
engine operation? A. Percent of engine RPM.
A. Compressor inlet air temperature. B. Actual engine RPM.
B. Turbine inlet temperature. C. Percent of engine pressure ratio.
C. Burner can pressure.

ANSWERS

The exhaust section of a turbine engine should be inspected Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is an indication of the thrust
for cracks, warping, buckling or hotspots. Hotspots on the being developed by a turbofan engine and is used to set
tail cone are a good indication of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle power for takeoff on many types of turbine powered aircraft.
or combustion chamber. It is instrumented by total pressure pickups in the engine
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 55] inlet (Pt2) and in the turbine exhaust (Pt7). The indication is
displayed on the flight deck by the EPR gauge which is used
in making engine power settings.

The turbine inlet temperature is proportional to the energy Turbofan engines with two spools or separate shafts, high
available to turn the turbine. This means that the hotter the pressure and low pressure spools, are generally referred to
gasses entering the turbine section of the engine, the more as N1 and N2, with each having its own indicator. The main
power is available to turn the turbine wheel(s). The exhaust purpose of the tachometer is to be able to monitor RPM
temperature is proportional to the turbine inlet temperature. under normal conditions, during engine start, and to indicate
Regardless of how or where the exhaust temperature an overspeed condition, if one occurs.
is taken on the engine for the flight deck indication, this [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 56]
temperature is proportional to the temperature of the exhaust
gases entering the first stage of the turbine inlet guide vanes.
A higher EGT corresponds to a larger amount of energy to
the turbine so it can turn the compressor faster.

The hotter the gasses entering the turbine section, the more Turbine engine tachometers are usually calibrated in percent
power is available to turn the turbine wheel. This increases RPM so that various types of engines can be operated on
engine output. However, a point exists when the turbine the same basis of comparison. Also, turbine speeds are
inlet guide vanes start to be damaged. The turbine inlet generally very high and the large numbers of RPM would
temperature and, thus, engine operation is limited by this. make it confusing.

QUESTIONS
10-60 AMP068 10-63 AMP065

Which of the following is used to monitor the mechanical What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be
integrity of the turbines, as well as to check engine operating monitored to minimize the possibility of a "hot" start?
conditions of a turbine engine? A. RPM Indicator
A. Engine Oil Pressure B. Turbine Inlet Temperature
B. Exhaust Gas Temperature C. Torquemeter
C. Engine Pressure Ratio
10-61 AMP033 10-64 AMP065

The abbreviation Pt7 is used in turbine engine Which are the three primary instruments to monitor when
terminology means starting a turbine engine?
A. the total inlet pressure. A. Exhaust gas temperature, tachometer, oil pressure.
B. pressure and temperature at station No. 7. B. Exhaust gas temperature, fuel flow, tachometer.
C. the total pressure at station No. 7. C. Fuel flow meter, tachometer, engine pressure ratio.
10-62 AMP065 10-65 AMP065

What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if
start of a turbine engine? the engine
A. A rise in the engine fuel flow. A. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
B. A rise in oil pressure. B. fails to reach idle RPM.
C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature. C. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.

ANSWERS

Temperature is an engine operating limitation and is used During the start of a turbine engine, if the exhaust gas
to monitor the mechanical integrity of the turbines as well temperature limit is exceeded, a hot start will occur. Exhaust
as to check engine operating condition. Temperature of gas temperature is used in many turbine engines instead of
the gases entering the first stage of turbine inlet guide turbine inlet temperature. It is proportional to turbine inlet
vane is the important consideration but it is impractical to temperature and, although lower, it provided surveillance
measure at this point in the engines. Rather, turbine outlet over the engine’s internal operating conditions. So while it is
temperature, which is the Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT), the EGT gauge that is monitored in engines without turbine
is measured and monitored since it is directly proportional to inlet temperature gauges, it is the turbine inlet temperature
turbine inlet temperature. that is of concern. Adhere to the manufacturer’s start check
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 56] list and limitations when operating any aircraft engine.

The EPR gauge is instrumented by total pressure pickups While all engine readings are important, those critical during
since it is a ratio of the pressure at the inlet of the engine the starting process are the tachometer to guard against
compared to the pressure at the outlet. On an actual turbine a hung start, the EGT to guard against a hot start, and oil
engine, it compares Pt2 (inlet pressure) with Pt7 (pressure at pressure as this is always critical to any engine’s health.
the turbine exhaust). Therefore, Pt7 is used to mean the total [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 58]
pressure at station No. 7 which is in the turbine exhaust area
of the engine.

A successful start is noted first by a rise in exhaust gas A hung start is when the engine lights off but the engine will
temperature. If fuel does not start to burn inside the engine not accelerate to idle RPM. Therefore, EGT and turbine inlet
within a prescribed period of time, or if the exhaust gas temperature gauges will show elevated levels but the engine
starting temperature limit is exceeded (a hot start), the tachometer will not indicate idle RPM.
starting procedure should be aborted. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 58]

QUESTIONS
10-66 AMP065 10-69 AMP065

What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches fire A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is
when starting? accomplished in order to
A. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with A. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case
the starter. contracts around it.
B. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire B. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.
extinguisher into the intake. C. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
C. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the fire.
10-67 AMP065 10-70 AMP068

What is the proper starting sequence of a turbojet engine? Which two engine parameters on a turboprop engine are
A. Ignition, Starter, Fuel used to compute takeoff power from the ambient pressure
B. Starter, Ignition, Fuel and temperature prevailing at the time of takeoff?
C. Starter, Fuel, Ignition A. EGT and fuel flow.
B. RPM and EGT.
C. EGT and torquemeter pressure.
10-68 AMP068 10-71 AMP068

What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the What results if a turbine engine is operated with excessively
operation of a jet engine? high EGT?
A. Decreases engine pressure ratio. A. Damage to the turbine section and/or reduced turbine
B. Decreases compressor and turbine RPM. component life.
C. Has little or no effect. B. Compressor overspeed and associated compressor
blade damage.
C. Lubricating oil vaporization and possible scoring of the
main bearings.

ANSWERS

Initially, move the fuel shutoff lever to the OFF position if When an engine has been operated at high power levels
an engine fire occurs or if the engine fire warning light is for extended periods, a cool down time should be allowed
illuminated during the starting cycle. Continue cranking or before shut down. It is recommended the engine be operated
motoring the engine until the fire has been expelled from the at below a low power setting, preferably at idle for a period of
engine. If this initial action does not extinguish the fire, on 5 minutes to prevent possible seizure of the rotors. The mass
the ground, CO2 can be discharged into the engine inlet duct of the turbine rotor is much greater that the turbine case and
while the engine is being cranked. the turbine case is exposed to cooling air from both inside
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 58] and outside the engine. Consequently, the case and rotor(s)
lose their residual heat at different rates after the engine is
shut down. Without a cool-off period before shutdown, the
case, cooling faster, tends to shrink upon the turbine wheels
that are still rotating. Seizing is possible.

Always follow the manufacturer’s starting checklist step by On a turboprop engine, torquemeter pressure is
step when starting a turbine engine. However, the general approximately proportional to the total power output and,
starting sequence is: 1) Rotate the compressor with the thus, is used as a measure of engine performance. The
starter; 2) Turn ON the ignition; and 3) Open the engine fuel torquemeter pressure gauge reading during the takeoff
valve, either by moving the throttle to idle or by moving a engine check is an important value. It is usually necessary
fuel shutoff lever to OPEN, or by turning a switch. Thus, to compute the takeoff power in the same manner as is
STARTER, then IGNITION, then FUEL is the usual starting done for a turbojet engine. This computation is to determine
sequence of a turbojet engine. the maximum allowable exhaust gas temperature and the
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 10 Page 58] torquemeter pressure that a normally functioning engine
should produce for the ambient air temperature and
barometric pressure prevailing at the time.

Relative humidity, which affects reciprocating engine power Some of the most important factors affecting turbine engine
appreciably, has a negligible effect on turbine engine thrust. life are EGT, engine cycles, and engine speed. Excess EGT of
Therefore, relative humidity is not usually considered when a few degrees reduces turbine component life. The exhaust
computing thrust for takeoff or determining fuel flow and gas temperature needs to be as high as possible without
RPM for routine operation of a jet engine. damaging the turbine section of the engine.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
10-1(O). What is the probable cause of hydraulic lock and how is it remedied?
10-2(O). What checks are necessary to verify proper operation of a reciprocating engine?
10-3(O). Explain the checks necessary to verify proper operation of propeller systems.
10-4(O). What is involved with the correct installation of piston rings and what results if the rings are incorrectly
installed or are worn?
10-5(O). What are some procedures for inspecting various engine components during overhaul?
10-6(O). What are the procedures for reciprocating engine maintenance as they pertain to overhauling an engine?
10-7(O). What are some checks necessary to verify proper operation of a turbine engine?
10-8(O). What are some turbine engine troubleshooting procedures?
10-9(O). What are some turbine engine maintenance procedures?
10-10(O). What is the possible problem with an engine that indicates high Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) for a
particular Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR)?
10-11(O). What are the typical parameters sought for oil pressure when starting a reciprocating aircraft engine?
10-12(O). Explain the operation of a temperature indicating system on a turbine engine.
10-13(O). What is the operation of a turbine engine tachometer?
10-14(O). How is an EGT System checked for proper operation?
10-15(O). What is EPR and how is it instrumented on a gas turbine engine?
10-16(O). What can be done to check the accuracy of a turbine engine tachometer?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
10-1(O). Whenever a radial engine remains shut down for more than a few minutes, oil or fuel may drain into the
combustion chambers or intake pipes of the lower, downward extending cylinders. This is known as hydraulic
lock. As the piston moves toward top center in these cylinders, it will collide with these incompressible liquids.
Severe damage can be caused. The liquid must be removed to remedy the hydraulic lock and make it safe
to start the engine. This is done by removing either the front or rear spark plugs of the affected cylinders and
pulling the engine through by hand in the normal direction of rotation. Then the spark plugs are reinstalled and
the engine is started.
10-2(O). A ground check or power check is performed to evaluate the functioning of the engine by comparing power
input as measured by manifold pressure with power output as measured by RPM (or torque) and comparing
these to known acceptable values. It also includes checking the powerplant and accessory equipment by
ear, visual inspection, and by proper interpretation of instrument readings, control movements, and switch
reactions. Fuel pressure and oil pressure checks must verify that these pressures are within established
tolerances. A cylinder compression test can be performed if it is suspected that there is a problem with valves,
pistons or piston rings. A magneto safety check exposes problems with the ignition system. Idle speed and
idle mixture checks can also be performed although these relate more to the proper functioning of the fuel
system than the engine itself just as the magneto check focuses more on ignition system integrity.
10-3(O). The propeller must be checked to ensure proper operation of the pitch control and pitch change mechanism.
The operation of a controllable pitch propeller is checked by the indications of the tachometer and manifold
pressure gauge when the proper governor control is moved from one position to another. Each propeller
requires a different procedure. The applicable manufacturer’s instructions should be followed.
10-4(O). Piston rings prevent leakage of gas pressure from the combustion chamber while lubricating the cylinder walls
and reducing to a minimum the seepage of oil into the combustion chamber. Worn or broken piston rings can
cause excessive oil consumption and loss of compression. Oil blow-by into the combustion chamber can
lead to sticking valves, spark plug misfiring, as well as detonation or preignition due to carbonization of the
oil. During installation, the rings are place in the proper grooves facing the correct direction according to the
engine manufacturer’s instructions. The ring gaps are staggered around the piston. They are compressed with
a ring compressor to the diameter of the piston as the cylinder is slid down around the piston making sure that
the cylinder and piston plane remain the same. As the cylinder is lowered around the piston with a straight,
even motion, it displaces the ring compressor as the rings slide into the bore. Rocking or forcing the cylinder
over the piston and rings could cause a ring to escape from the ring compressor and expand or it could crack
or chip a ring or damage the ring land.
10-5(O). There are 3 basic categories of inspection during overhaul: visual, structural Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)
and dimensional. The first inspection to be done is the visual inspection. A preliminary visual inspection
should be performed before cleaning the parts since indications of failure may often be detected from the
residual deposits of metallic particles in some recesses of the engine. Then, parts can be cleaned and
visually inspected. Structural inspections can be performed on parts by methods such as magnetic particle
inspection, dye penetrant, eddy current, ultra sound, and x-ray as specified by the manufacturer. Finally, using
very accurate measuring equipment, each engine component can be dimensionally evaluated and compared
to the service limits and tolerances set by the manufacturer.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
10-6(O). Aircraft engine maintenance practices, including overhaul, are performed at specified intervals established
by the manufacturer. For an overhauled engine to be as airworthy as a new engine, worn and damaged parts
must be detected and replaced. This is done by completely disassembling the engine. Visual, non-destructive,
and dimensional inspections are performed. The manufacturer publishes inspection criterion and a new
minimum and serviceable dimension for all critical component parts. Parts that do not meet these standards
must be rejected for use in the engine. A major overhaul of an engine consists of the complete reconditioning
of the powerplant. This includes disassembly of the crankcase for access and inspection/rework of the
crankshaft and bearings. It is not a major repair and can be performed or supervised by a certified powerplant
technician as long as the engine does not contain an internal supercharger or propeller reduction other than
spur-type gears. At the time of an engine overhaul, all accessories are removed, overhauled, and tested in
accordance with the accessory manufacturer’s instructions.
10-7(O). The manufacturer’s operating instructions should be consulted before attempting to start and operate any
turbine engine. Checking turbofan engines for proper operation consists primarily of simply reading the engine
instruments and then comparing the value with those known to be correct for a particular operating condition.
Be sure the engine and instrument indications have stabilized. Idling speed must be checked (tachometer) as
well as oil pressure and Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT). Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) measures thrust and
is used to set takeoff power. It varies with ambient temperature and pressure. Takeoff thrust is checked by
adjusting the throttle to obtain a single, predicted, indication on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) gauge. This
can be computed from the takeoff thrust setting curve in the operations manual. It can be done at full power
or when the throttle is set at the part power stop. If an engine develops the predicted thrust and if all the other
engine instruments are indicating within their proper ranges, engine operation is considered satisfactory. On
newer aircraft, performance is a function of the onboard computer. FADEC engines have means for checking
the engine and displaying the results on the flight deck.
10-8(O). Turbine engine troubleshooting should be performed in accordance with the engine manufacturer’s
instructions. Trouble shooting charts exist to guide the technician. Engine analyzers are manufactured that
can assist with calibration and the accuracy of important engine parameter indicators such as RPM and EGT.
Follow the analyzer manufacturer’s instructions.
10-9(O). The detailed procedures recommended by the engine manufacturer should be followed when performing
inspections or maintenance on a turbine engine. Some common functions include periodic inspection,
cleaning and repair of compressor components which can have performance reduction due being dirty
and Foreign Object Damage (FOD). Compressor blades, inducers, and guide vanes all may be damaged.
The extent of the damage must be ascertained. Repairable damage limits set by the manufacturer must be
adhered to and various NDT methods may need to be employed. The possibility exists to rework or blend
out damage using stones usually blending parallel to the length of the component. Combustion section
inspection and cleaning is very important since the serviceability of the combustion section is a controlling
factor in the service life of a turbine engine. Inspection for hot spots, exhaust leaks and distortions can be
done without opening the case. After the case has been opened, inspection for localized overheating, cracks,
and excessive wear are important. Evidence of FOD can be found even in the combustion section. Hot section
inspections, which include the turbine section components, usually are required at regular intervals. Follow
the manufacturer’s instructions for procedures and damage limits. This is applicable for fuel nozzles, turbine
disks, blades, and guide vanes as well as the exhaust section components.

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM
10-10(O). The engine is likely out of trim. The accuracy of the EGT gauge/sensors could also be in question and should
be checked.
10-11(O). Oil pressure indication should occur within 30 seconds of start-up. Normal oil pressure indication should
occur within 1 minute of start-up or the engine should be shut down.
10-12(O). Temperature of turbine engine gases entering the first stage turbine inlet guide vanes is the most critical of all
engine variables. In many engines, it is impractical to measure the temperature exactly at this point. Relative
temperatures that are proportional to this temperature are measured instead. EGT, TGT, TOT, and TIT are all
such indications. Accuracy of temperature indication in this portion of the engine is critical because if it is too
high, the engine could be destroyed. If is too low, insufficient power will be developed. A series of individual
thermocouple probes located around the engine section where the temperature is measured are connected
to a gauge on the flight deck. The gauge shows the average temperature measured by the thermocouples.
This assists in producing an accurate indication. This indication is so important that testing of the individual
thermostats, the indicator, and the entire indicating system is done periodically. An analyzer test box capable
of measuring the accuracy of all thermocouple components and the entire system is used.
10-13(O). Gas turbine engine speeds are measured by the RPM of each turbine-compressor spool and are displayed
on the flight deck. Percent of RPM is used rather than the actual RPM so that various types of engines can
be operated on the same basis of comparison. Also, turbine engine speeds are very high and percent RPM
simplifies monitoring. Some tachometers measure RPM using a rotating tachometer generator that is geared
to the engine. The frequency of the generator output is proportional to the engine speed. Another (newer) type
of tachometer uses a magnetic pickup that counts passing gear teeth edges, which are seen electrically as
pulses of electrical power as they pass by the pick-up. By counting the number of pulses, the shaft RPM is
obtained. Clearance between the gear teeth and the magnetic pickup must be maintained for accuracy.
10-14(O). A calibrated test analyzer unit is used to check the EGT system and components for proper operation. The unit
contains heater probes and built-in thermocouples against which the accuracy of the aircraft thermocouples is
compared. The analyzer also is capable of checking the continuity of the system and the accuracy of the EGT
indicator on the flight deck. Resistance and insulation checks are also made. Follow the instructions that come
with the test analyzer unit being used.
10-15(O). EPR stands for Engine Pressure Ratio. It is an indication of thrust developed by a turbofan engine and is used
to set power for takeoff on many types of aircraft. It is instrumented by total pressure pickups located in the
engine inlet (P2) and in the turbine exhaust (P7). The indication is displayed on the flight deck on the EPR
gauge, which is used in making engine power settings.
10-16(O). A calibrated test analyzer unit can be used to check the tachometer of a turbine engine. The scale of the RPM
check circuit is calibrated in percent RPM to correspond to the aircraft tachometer indicator. The aircraft
tachometer and the RPM check circuit are connected in parallel and both are indicating during engine run-
up. The RPM check circuit indication is compared with the aircraft tachometer indication to determine the
accuracy of the aircraft instrument.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
10-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a reciprocating
engine installation and record findings. [Level 3]
installation and record findings. [Level 3]
10-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and a bore scope inspect a turbine
engine and record findings. [Level 3]
10-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling determine the proper
crankshaft flange run-out and record findings. [Level 3]
10-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, an airworthiness directive, and required tooling inspect an engine
in accordance with the airworthiness directive and record findings. [Level 2]
compressor section and record findings. [Level 3]
10-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a crankcase for
cracks and record findings. [Level 3]
10-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling inspect a crankshaft oil seal
for leaks and record findings. [Level 3]
10-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling complete an engine
conformity inspection and record findings. [Level 3]
10-10(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling complete an engine
airworthiness inspection and record findings. [Level 3]
10-11(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling perform an inspection on a
mechanical and/or electrical temperature system and record findings. [Level 3]
mechanical and/or electrical pressure system and record findings. [Level 3]
mechanical and/or electrical RPM system and record findings. [Level 3]
mechanical and/or electrical rate of flow system and record findings. [Level 3]
10-15(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling verify the proper operation
and marking of an indicating system and record findings. [Level 2]

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
10-16(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling replace a temperature
sending unit and record maintenance. [Level 3]
10-17(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling troubleshoot an oil pressure
indicating system and record findings. [Level 3]
10-18(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling locate and inspect fuel flow
components on an engine and record findings. [Level 2]
10-19(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling replace an Exhaust Gas
Temperature (EGT) indication probe and record maintenance. [Level 3]
10-20(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling troubleshoot a manifold
pressure gage that is slow to indicate the correct reading and record findings. [Level 2]
10-21(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling remove, inspect, and install
fuel flow transmitter and record maintenance and findings. [Level 3]

LIGHT-SPORT AIRCRAFT ENGINES CHAPTER
Types of Light-Sport and Experimental Engines, Opposed Engines, Direct Drive VW Engines,
Maintenance, Lubrication, and Preservation
11
QUESTIONS
11-1 AMG087 11-4 AMP056

A Light‑Sport Aircraft (LSA) means an aircraft, other than Of the following, which are true of small, in-line, light-sport
rotorcraft or power-lift, that aircraft engines?
A. has a maximum occupancy of no more than 1. Water-cooled only.
four people. 2. Most are 2 cycle engines.
B. is powered by a single reciprocating engine if powered. 3. They have constant speed propellers.
C. has a maximum takeoff weight not exceeding 4. Use a single crankshaft.
1000 pounds. 5. Are radial in design.
A. 1, 2, and 5
B. 2, 4, and 5
C. 2 and 4
11-2 AMG066 11-5 AMP063

Which of the following statements is true regarding the The Rotax 447, 503, and 582 engines all have breaker-less
certification of light‑sport aircraft engines? magneto capacitor discharge ignition systems, however, the
A. All light‑sport aircraft engines are certified by FAA. larger engines have
B. Some, but not all, light‑sport aircraft engines are A. dual ignition for each cylinder.
certified by FAA. B. a standby secondary ignition that uses breaker ignition
C. By definition, light‑sport aircraft engines are not should the primary fail.
certified by FAA. C. have a single ignition system with a higher power output.
11-3 AMP059 11-6 AMP027

Who may perform an annual condition inspection on a A liquid cooling system is employed on the Rotax 582 series
light‑sport aircraft? engine. Circulation of the coolant is accomplished by
A. Only an FAA certificated airframe and A. a ram air driven pump.
powerplant mechanic. B. the external oil/water dual pump.
B. The owner of the light‑sport aircraft who has completed C. an integrated engine water pump.
the FAA approved training course for the aircraft
in question.
C. Only an FAA certified airframe and powerplant
mechanic with an inspection authorization.

LIGHT-SPORT AIRCRAFT ENGINES
ANSWERS

A light‑sport aircraft is an aircraft that has a single Light-sport/ultralight aircraft engines can be classified by
reciprocating engine if it is a powered aircraft. Its maximum several methods, such as by operating cycles, cylinder
seating capacity is no more than two people. The maximum arrangement, and air or water cooled. An inline engine
takeoff weight of a light‑sport aircraft is no more than 1320 generally has two cylinders, is two cycle, and is available in
pounds for an aircraft not intended for operation on water; or several horsepower ranges. These engines may be either
1430 pounds for an aircraft intended for operation on water. liquid cooled, air cooled, or a combination of both. They have
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 2] only one crankshaft that drives the reduction gear box or
propeller directly. Most of the other cylinder configurations
used on light‑sport aircraft are larger, horizontally opposed,
ranging from two to six cylinders from several manufacturers.
The engines are either gear reduction or direct drive.

The manufacturer of a light‑sport aircraft engine ensures The typical ignition system on the Rotax 447 and 503 is a
the reliability and durability of the product by design, breaker-less ignition with a dual ignition system used on the
research and testing. Although most of these engines are 503, and a single ignition system used on the 447 engine
not certified by the FAA, close control of manufacturing and series. Both systems are of a magneto capacitor discharge
assembly procedures is generally maintained. Normally, design. The larger Rotax 582 also has a dual ignition using
each engine is tested before it leaves the factory and meets breaker-less magneto capacitor discharge design.
certain American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 5]
standards. Some engines used on light‑sport aircraft are
certified by the FAA and these engines are maintained as per
the manufacturer’s instructions and Title 14 of the Code of
Federal Regulations (14 CFR).

The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) The cooling system of a Rotax 582 engine is in a two circuit
with an inspection rating, may perform the annual condition arrangement. The cooling liquid is supplied by an integrated
inspection on a light-sport aircraft that is owned by the pump in the engine through the cylinders and the cylinder
holder, has been issued an experimental certificate for head to the radiator. An expansion tank, radiator, and
operating a light-sport aircraft under 14 CFR part 21, section overflow bottle work together to remove vapor and allow for
21.191(i), and is in the same class of light‑sport aircraft for expansion of the coolant.
which the holder has completed the required training. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 5-6]

QUESTIONS
11-7 AMP030 11-10 AMP063

Two-stroke cycle engines, light-sport aircraft engines operate Which statement describes the maintenance requirements of
on a mix of oil and gasoline that is delivered to the carburetor the breakerless capacitor discharge ignition systems as used
via gravity feed, or on most Rotax light‑sport aircraft engines?
A. use an oil-free piston design. A. The system must be checked for clearances and
B. use an oil injection system. capacitor output every 100 hours.
C. mix the oil and gas in the carburetor. B. The system is completely maintenance free.
C. The charging coils and capacitors must be replaced
every 100 hours.
11-8 AMP039 11-11 AMP050

The typical fuel to oil ratio for a two-stroke cycle light-sport A unique manufacturing feature of the Jabiru light-sport
aircraft engine is engines is
A. 50 to 1. A. most parts are machined from solid material.
B. 25 to 1. B. mostly titanium is utilized.
C. 10 to 1. C. that a great amount of aluminum is used to keep weight
to a minimum.
11-9 AMP027 11-12 AMP057

The Rotax 914 engine is a lightweight, four cylinder opposed If scheduled maintenance of a light sport aircraft engine is
engine that specified at every 100 hours, and the maintenance is actually
A. is water cooled. performed at the 10 hour legal tolerance (110 hours) when is
B. is air cooled. the next scheduled maintenance due?
C. has water cooled heads and air cooled cylinder barrels. A. 210 hours
B. 200 hours
C. 220 hours

ANSWERS

Some light-sport aircraft engines use oil injection systems Most Rotax engines are equipped with a dual ignition unit
that use an oil pump driven by the crankshaft via the that uses breaker-less, capacitor discharge design with an
pump gear that feeds the engine with the correct amount integrated generator. The ignition unit is completely free of
of fresh oil. The oil pump is a piston-type pump with a maintenance and needs no external power. Two independent
metering system. Diffuser jets in the intake inject pump charging coils located on the generator stator supply one
supplied two-stroke oil with the exact proportioned quantity ignition circuit each. The energy is stored in capacitors of
needed. The oil quantity in the oil tank must be checked the electronic modules. At the moment of ignition, two each
before operating the engine as the oil is consumed during of the four external trigger coils actuate the discharge of the
operation and needs to be replenished regularly. capacitors via the primary circuit of the dual ignition coils. A
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 6] fifth trigger coil is used to provide a revolution counter signal.

Generally, smaller two-cycle engines are designed to run Jabiru engines use the latest manufacturing techniques. All
on a mixture of gasoline and 2 percent oil that is premixed Jabiru engines are manufactured, assembled and run on a
before supplying the fuel tank. Therefore, the engines are dynamometer, and calibrated before delivery. The crankcase
planned to run on a gasoline/oil mixture of 50:1. halves, cylinder heads, crankshaft, starter motor housing,
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 6-7] gearbox cover, together with many smaller components are
machined from solid material. The sump (oil pan) is the only
casting. The cylinders are machined from bar 4140 chrome
molybdenum alloy steel as are the crankshaft and camshaft.

The cooling system of the Rotax 914 is designed for liquid Scheduled maintenance of a light sport aircraft engine offers
cooling of the cylinder heads and ram-air cooling of a +/- 10 hour tolerance for when that maintenance is actually
the cylinders. performed. However a delay to the limit of that tolerance
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 7] does not further delay the next scheduled maintenance.
Thus, if a 100 hour limit is required, each maintenance
remains at that schedule (100 hours, 200 hours, 300 hours,
etc,) +/- the 10 hour tolerance.

QUESTIONS
11-13 AMP056 11-16 AMP058

When performing inspections and maintenance on Maintenance and inspections on light-sport aircraft
light‑sport aircraft engines, whose guidance should be most A. are set up by the owner operator.
regarded? B. are less detailed than with certified aircraft.
A. General mechanical standards such as described C. must be recorded in the aircraft maintenance logbook.
in FAA‑H‑8083‑32A‑ATB are the primary source
of guidance.
B. Published FAA advisory circulars are the primary
source of guidance.
C. The manufacturer’s manuals are the primary source
of guidance.
11-14 AMP060 11-17 AMP023

Great Plains engines for light‑sport aircraft are On a light-sport aircraft with two carburetors, carburetor
A. completely assembles in the manufacturer’s facility. synchronization must be performed as follows:
B. assembled in the field from manufacturer kits or by A. Pneumatic synchronization first, then
the manufacturer. mechanical synchronization.
C. are certified by the FAA. B. Mechanical synchronization first, then
pneumatic synchronization.
C. Perform mechanical and pneumatic synchronization
with the compensating tube connected.
11-15 AMP056 11-18 AMP023

In addition to its FAA certified engines, Lycoming Engines In addition to idle speed adjustment during synchronization,
produces an experimental, non-certified version of its O-233 A. full takeoff RPM must be able to be obtained.
series engine for light‑sport aircraft. It features B. mixture must be checked with full carburetor heat ON.
A. capability of running on AVGAS or unleaded C. cruise RPM and mixture must be verified.
automotive fuel.
B. breaker ignition.
C. high performance but lower time between overhaul.

ANSWERS

Always refer to the current manufacturer’s information Most light-sport aircraft engines require a definite time
as the primary source when operating, inspecting, or interval between overhauls. This is specified or implied by
performing maintenance on any aircraft engine, including for the engine manufacturer. Checks and maintenance that are
light‑sport aircraft. performed should be accomplished in accordance with a
[Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 10-17] maintenance checklist and all actions should be recorded in
the aircraft maintenance logbook by the person or company
performing the work.

Great Plains is a company that specializes in the conversion Mechanical synchronization always is performed first when
of Volkswagen® automobile engines for use in aircraft. synchronizing carburetors. Then, the two carburetors are
They offer kits with instructions for the aviator to build up adjusted to equal flow rates at idle by use of a suitable flow
an engine in the field. They will also build the engine for the meter or vacuum gauges. The compensating tube between
customer if so chosen. Great Plains offers engine kits for the carburetors is typically removed to install the gauges.
all Type One Volkswagen® engines ranging from 1600cc up [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 18]
through 2276cc (cubic centimeters).

The Lycoming 0-233 series light‑sport aircraft engine is light Once the proper idling speed has been established, it is
and capable of running on Avgas or unleaded automotive necessary to check the operating range above the idle
fuel. It features dual CDI spark ignition, an optimized oil speed. First, establish that the engine is developing full
sump, a streamlined accessory housing, hydraulically takeoff performance or takeoff RPM when selected on the
adjusted tappets, a lightweight starter, and a lightweight flight deck. Then, the setting of the operating range (idle to
alternator with integral voltage regulator. It has proven a very full throttle) can be checked or adjusted.
reliable engine with a TBO of 2400 hours. [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 19]

QUESTIONS
11-19 AMP031 11-21 AMP001

Prior to an oil level check on a dry sump engine, In a Jabiru light‑sport aircraft engine, what is the integral
A. motor the engine with the starter to ensure alternator driven by?
even distribution. A. A drive belt.
B. disconnect the ignition switch. B. The reduction gear box.
C. turn the propeller by hand several times to pump the oil C. A flywheel driven by the crankshaft.
from the engine to the oil tank.
11-20 AMP057
If a 2 stroke light‑sport aircraft engine continues to run with
the ignition OFF, a probable cause is
A. insufficient octane fuel.
B. an overly lean mixture.
C. the engine has overheated.

ANSWERS

Before checking the engine oil level, make sure that there is An integral alternator provides AC rectification for
not excess residual oil in the crankcase. battery charging and electrical accessories. The alternator
Prior to oil level check, turn the propeller several times by is attached to the flywheel and is driven directly by
hand in the direction of engine rotation to pump all of the the crankshaft.
oil from the engine to the oil tank. This process is complete [Ref: Powerplant Handbook H-8083-32-ATB, Chapter 11 Page 11]
when air flows back to the oil tank.
11-20 Answer C.
An overheated 2 cycle engine may continue to run once the
ignition is shut off. A failed ignition switch may also be to
blame. An over-lean mixture or insufficient octane will likely
be the cause of knocking or rough operations at high loads.

QUESTIONS
ORAL EXAM
Note: The FAA has not yet released PRACTICAL TEST STANDARDS for light-sport aircraft engines. The following
questions are anticipated to satisfy such standards once released by the FAA.
11-1(O). Name some characteristics and types of light-sport aircraft engines.
11-2(O). How is maintenance recording accomplished on a light-sport aircraft?
11-3(O). What type of oil system is often found on light-sport aircraft engines and what should be done before
checking the oil level?
11-4(O). In what way does the certified technician deviate from manufacturer’s instructions when maintaining a
light-sport aircraft engine?

ANSWERS
ORAL EXAM PRACTICAL EXAM

11-1(O). Light‑sport aircraft engines can be classified in many ways. They are usually in-line or opposed in cylinder
configuration. Both two-cycle and four-cycle engine are used. Cooling can be liquid-cooled or air‑cooled or a
combination of both. There is only one crankshaft. Fixed pitch or ground adjustable propellers are used with
the exception of an auto-feathering propeller being allowable on a glider. The engines for light-sport aircraft
come in various sizes. They utilize various fuels from automobile gas to 100LL– the manufacturer specified fuel
is required. Ignition is usually breaker-less capacitor-discharge type. Turbo charging is possible. Some engine
are converted automobile engines.
11-2(O). Maintenance requirements and recording on light-sport aircraft is very similar to that of aircraf. certified in
the standard aircraft category. Manufacturer’s checklists and instructions are always used and required.
Checklists and work orders for inspections and work accomplished must be recorded and kept in the
maintenance records as well as recorded in the logbook. The technician must sign these records. It is the
responsibility of the owner operator to store and maintain these records. Execution of service bulletins must
also be entered in the logbook.
11-3(O). Dry sump oil systems are common on light-sport aircraft engines. Two-cycle engines are often used on light-
sport aircraft. These engines use oil mixed with the fuel to lubricate the engine. On some models, the oi. is
mixed with the fuel before it is poured into the fuel tank. However, on other models, the dry sump reservoir
feeds an oil injection system that supplies the engine with the required lubrication oil. Usually, oil metering is
directed in relation to throttle position supplying more oil when engine speed is high. By turning the engine
through by hand before checking the oil quantity in the reservoir, residual oil in the system can be returned to
establish an accurate quantity level.
11-4(O). The powerplant technician must not deviate from the manufacturer’s instructions for maintenance of a
light-sport aircraft engine. The technician should maintain the aircraft according to manufacturer’s schedules
and specifications.

QUESTIONS
PRACTICAL EXAM
11-1(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect a light-sport aircraft
engine installation and record findings. [Level 3]
11-2(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect the automatic
lubrication system on a light-sport aircraft engine. [Level 3]
11-3(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect excess pressure
valve operation and the cooling system for proper operation and cooling on a light-sport aircraft engine and
record findings. [Level 3]
11-4(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling determine the proper
crankshaft flange run-out on a light-sport aircraft engine and record findings. [Level 3]
11-5(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, an airworthiness directive, and required tooling inspect a light-
sport aircraft engine installation in accordance with the airworthiness directive and record findings. [Level 2]
11-6(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling check and adjust carburetor
synchronization of a light-sport aircraft engine and record findings and maintenance performed. [Level 3]
11-7(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect Bowden cables for
proper routing, actuation and lubrication on a light-sport aircraft engine and recording record findings and
maintenance performed. [Level 3]
11-8(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, perform an oil change on a
light-sport aircraft engine and record findings and maintenance performed. [Level 3]
11-9(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect the magnetic plug on
a light-sport aircraft engine for accumulation of metallic chips and record findings. [Level 3]
11-10(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, inspect the fuel system
pressure control and return lines on a light-sport aircraft engine for proper operation and record findings.
[Level 3]
11-11(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, perform a frictional torque
check in free rotation of the overload clutch on a light-sport aircraft engine and record findings. [Level 3]
11-12(P). Given an actual aircraft engine or mockup, appropriate publications, and tooling, perform a cylinder
compression check on a light-sport aircraft engine system and record findings. [Level 3]


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FOR USE WITH FAA-H-8083-30A-ATB

Airframe & Powerplant

GENERAL TEST GUIDE

FOR USE WITH

FAA-H-8083-30A & FAA-H-8083-30A-ATB

Printed and Published by

HOW TO ACCESS SKYPREP

Chapter 06 - Aircraft Weight and Balance

Chapter 07 - Aircraft Materials, Hardware,

Chapter 08 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control

Chapter 09 - Fluid Lines and Fittings

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide iii

WHERE THE QUESTIONS COME FROM:

PRACTICAL TEST STANDARDS (PTS) AND

Practical Test Standards (PTS)

Airman Certification Standards (ACS)

iv 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

AMG001 Ability To Draw/Sketch Repairs/Alterations

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide v

vi 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

1-1 AMG045 1-3 AMG045

1-2 AMG042 1-4 AMG045

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide 1-1

1-1 Answer B. 1-3 Answer C.

1-2 Answer C. 1-4 Answer A.

1-2 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

1-5 AMG045 1-8 AMG045

1-6 AMG045 1-9 AMG045

1-7 AMG045 1-10 AMG045

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide 1-3

1-5 Answer A. 1-8 Answer B.

1-6 Answer A. 1-9 Answer B.

1-7 Answer C. 1-10 Answer C.

1-4 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

1-11 AMG045 1-14 AMG094

1-12 AMG045 1-15 AMG094

1-13 AMG045 1-16 AMG045

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide 1-5

1-11 Answer A. 1-14 Answer A.

1-12 Answer C. 1-15 Answer A.

1-13 Answer A. 1-16 Answer B.

1-6 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

1-17 AMG045 1-20 AMG045

1-18 AMG094 1-21 AMG045

1-19 AMG094 1-22 AMG094

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide 1-7

1-17 Answer C. 1-20 Answer C.

1-18 Answer A. 1-21 Answer B.

1-19 Answer B. 1-22 Answer C.

1-8 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide

1-23 AMG094 1-26 AMG094

1-24 AMG094 1-27 AMG094

1-25 AMG094 1-28 AMG045

8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide 1-9

1-23 Answer C. 1-26 Answer A.

1-24 Answer B. 1-27 Answer A.

1-25 Answer C. 1-28 Answer C.

1-10 8083-30A-ATB General Test Guide