Attachment 1

OSHA 30 CONSTRUCTION
FINAL EXAM
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1. An important air test for any confined space is for the presence of oxygen. The concentration of oxygen
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should be:
A. Between 15 and 25%
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B. As high as possible
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C. Between 19.5% and 23.5% - an ideal level is 21% (correct answer)
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D. None of the above
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2. The common forms of crystalline silica include:

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A. Quartz (the most common)

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B. Cristobalite
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C. Both A and B (correct answer)

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3. A permit-required confined space will likely have which of the following hazards?
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A. Exposure to high volumes of traffic

B. It may contain a hazardous atmosphere (correct answer)
C. It will always have rough walls and floors
4. Which of the following industries has the highest fatality rate on an annual basis (1,100 workers per year)?
A. The nuclear industry

B. The oil refining industry
C. The chemical manufacturing industry
D. The construction industry (correct answer)
5. Hazards to be assessed prior to entry include:
A. Chemical hazards
B. Hazards that may entrap/bury
C. Other hazards (stored energy, mechanical hazards, temperature extremes, etc.)
D. All of the above (correct answer)
Licensed to Cloyd Coley Jr, e-mail shahkdahn@aol.com, phone 718 893-5671, order #5165, October 31, 2018. Not
for distribution. Distribution of these materials may lead to cancellation of your account with the training provider,
and revocation of your OSHA 10 certificate and OSHA 10 card.
OSHA 30 Construction Final Exam (v. 1.0) Page 2 of 99
6. A confined space entry permit:
A. Is mandated by OSHA
B. Is a "tool" for safety
C. Is a checklist that identifies the hazards and presents protective measures
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7. The principle means to control silica dust from jackhammer operations is by wetting the dust at the point of
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breaking or chipping. What is the best way to achieve this?
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A. The use of jackhammers
B. Manual and semi-automatic water-feed devices directed at the point of impact (correct answer)
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C. Spray directed behind the operation following a speed dry process
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D. The use of masonry saws
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8. Poisonous plants in the U.S. include poison ivy, poison oak, & poison sumac. These plants can:
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A. Cause allergic reactions if contact with workers' skin

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B. Be dangerous if burned and toxins inhaled by workers

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C. Be eaten because they are not a hazard when ingested

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D. Both A & B above (correct answer)

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9. What is essential in order to modify a scaffold?
A. A medium pipe wrench

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B. A competent person
C. A trained crew
D. B and C (correct answer)
10. Employers are responsible for providing and paying for most personal protective equipment including:
A. Uniforms
B. Logging boots
C. Prescription reading glasses
D. Hard hats (correct answer)
11. Scaffold frames must be pinned or secured together whenever
A. There is the potential for uplift

B. There is a potential for eccentric loading
C. There will be an OSHA inspection that day
D. Scaffolds are installed as a good practice
E. a, b and d above (correct answer)
12. In regards to confined spaces why may a permit be required?
A. Sometimes the boss demands it

B. Provides a checklist that outlines the steps that need to be followed
C. Authorizes entrance into a confined space
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D. Both B and C (correct answer)
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13. The OSH Act covers:
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A. All private sector employees
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B. Manufacturing, construction, longshoring, agriculture, law, medicine and others (correct answer)
C. The self employed
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D. Both a and b above
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14. The "Fat Cat" report refers to:
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A. A catalog of fatal injury potentials
B. A specialized piece of heavy equipment
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C. A table that contains the weekly summaries of fatalities and catastrophes (correct answer)
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15. Regarding OSHA's Hazard Communication standart commonly referred to as "HazCom" or the "Right to
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Know" standart which statement below is true about the hazards of all chemicals?
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A. They are classified and the info transmitted to employers and employees. (correct answer)
B. Assures that chemical hazard information is sent to plaintiff attorneys.
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C. Does not require that containers are labeled and other forms of warning are provided.
D. Assures that SDSs/MSDSs and employee training are a voluntary compliance element.
16. Job site inspections by a competent person must cover the following issues
A. Soil/ground conditions
B. Overhead obstructions
C. Electrical hazards
D. Special protection requirements for scaffolds
E. All of the above (correct answer)
17. An employer that receives an OSHA citation must:
A. Copy and mail the citation to each worker

B. Contest the citation and file the citation with the court
C. Post the citation for 3 days or until the violation is fixed (correct answer)
D. Sign the citation and return it to OSHA
18. Life-threatening symptoms of heat illness include:
A. High body temperature, & hot, dry skin

B. Confusion
C. Convulsions or Fainting
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19. OSHA's mission is to:
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A. Protect the safety and health of the general public
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B. Ensure that workers receive the federal minimum wage
C. Ensure that workers receive the federal minimum wage
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D. Protect the safety and health of America's workers (correct answer)
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20. Which of the following elements is most important when planning the erection of a supported scaffold on a
site?
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A. Who the contact person is at the site.
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B. Soil conditions, open holes and obstructions to safe installation. (correct answer)
C. Height and width of scaffold.
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D. Material delivery limitations

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21. Chronic symptoms usually develop slowly and may result in lung cancer, asbestosis, mesothelioma from
asbestos and silicosis from exposure to cristalline silica. How long can it take?
A. 6 to 9 months
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B. 3 to 5 years
C. 15 to 20 years (correct answer)
22. The OSHA standards for Construction and General Industry are also known as:
A. Construction and GI Registers

B. Part 1915 and Part 1917
C. Part 1926 and 1910 (correct answer)
D. Codes 501 through 1000
23. The CSE Supervisor must:
A. Be an actual supervisor/manager
B. Be a salaried employee
C. Be on site at all times
D. Complete, authorize, sign off on the entry permit and close out the permit (correct answer)
24. Solvents can:
A. Irritate your eyes, nose or throat

B. Make you dizzy, sleepy, give you a headache or cause you to pass out
C. Affect your judgment or coordination
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D. Cause internal damage to your body
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25. Scaffold planks must be removed from service for which of the following reasons:
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A. Cracks in the plank extending 18 inches in a 10 foot span
B. Cuts, notches or saw cuts
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C. Dry rot or chemical damage
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D. Deflection greater than 1 1/2 inches under load in a 7 foot span
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26. When the scaffold reaches ____ times the narrowest base dimension, security of the structure must begin.
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A. 2
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B. 4 (correct answer)
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C. 5
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27. Health hazards to which construction workers may be exposed include:

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A. Chemical Hazards such as dusts, mist, fumes, gases and vapors

B. Physical Hazards such as heat, noise, and vibration
C. Biological Hazards such as plants, insects, animals and microorganisms
28. One of the primary responsibilities that employers have under the OSH Act is to:
A. Immediately notify OSHA of any workplace injury or illness

B. Reduce air pollution in the environment
C. Provide training required by OSHA standards (correct answer)
D. Conduct energy audits
29. The principal health effects of non-ionizing radiation include the following:
A. skin cancer
B. eye damage
C. premature skin aging
30. Ergonomic Hazards can lead to musculoskeletal disorders and injuries including:
A. strains and sprains

B. tendonitis
C. carpal tunnel syndrome
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31. Protection during confined space entry may include blanking, flushing, double blockand bleed and which
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other important action
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A. Lockout and tagout (correct answer)
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B. Double hook and ladder
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C. None of the above
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32. Protection during confined space entry may include blanking, flushing, double block and bleed and which
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other important action?
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A. Lineout and backup
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B. Lockout and tagout (correct answer)

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C. Double hook and ladder

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33. Certain mandatory documentation should be kept on site. Included are:

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A. OSHA consultations
B. Monthly & annual inspection reports for the equipment and wire rope (correct answer)
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C. Before and after photos of all crane operations

D. All of the above
E. None of the above
34. State OSHA plans are plans authorized by Federal OSHA; what is true of these state operated plans?
A. State plans are authorized by Federal OSHA

B. State plans must be at least as stringent as the Federal requirements
C. State plan programs respond to accidents and employee complaints, like Federal OSHA
35. Respiratory protection is required:
A. At all times
B. If dust control measures (e.g., wetting) are insufficient (correct answer)
C. Whenever cutting concrete
36. Crystalline Silica is a health hazard in construction. Which of the following work activities would most likely
not result in an exposure to crystalline silica?
A. Jack hammering, rock/well drilling

B. Concrete mixing, concrete drilling
C. Brick and concrete block cutting and sawing
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D. Concrete sawing using water attachment to suppress dusts (correct answer)
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37. The best method for dust control where crystalline silica exposures is:
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A. Respiratory protection
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B. Wetting to avoid respiratory protection and potential exposures (correct answer)
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C. Blowing dust around with compressed air
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38. Bloodborne pathogens are infectious microorganisms in human blood that can cause disease in humans.
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These pathogens include:
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A. Hepatitis B (HBV), hepatitis C (HCV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) (correct answer)
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B. Hepatitis G (HBG), SARS, Tuberculosis

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C. Chlamydia, Syphillis, Gonorrhea

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D. All of the above

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39. The creation of OSHA provided which important right to workers:
A. The right to privacy

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B. The right to pension benefits

C. The right to a safe and healthful workplace (correct answer)
D. The right to equal employment opportunities
40. Risk controls for hand & arm vibration hazards include:
A. Mechanize or automate the work

B. Make sure equipment selected for tasks is suitable and can do the work efficiently
C. Limit the use of high-vibration tools wherever possible
D. Limit the time exposed to vibration
41. The most common type of construction related injuries is:
A. Overexertion
B. Chemical Exposure
C. Falls (correct answer)
D. Suffocation
42. If you feel that an OSHA inspection is needed to get hazards corrected at your workplace, which is your best
A. File a complaint online

B. Complain to your Supervisor
C. Submit a written, signed complaint with specific hazard information (correct answer)
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D. Submit an unsigned complaint form to OSHA
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43. Which of the following is true?
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A. When access to heights is required a scaffold is always the best choice.
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B. Scissor lifts and boom lifts must always be used before scaffolds.
C. Training for users of all equipment used to gain access to heights is mandatory. (correct answer)
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D. A and C only.
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E. None of the above.
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44. Which of the following conditions would be least harmful to the hearing of an employee?
A. Excessive short term and long term noise exposure above 85 dBA
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B. Prolonged noise over days, weeks, months above OSHA's action level of 85 dBA
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C. Carrying on a normal conversation in a quiet room. (correct answer)

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D. Single exposure to very high noise exceeding 115 dBA and higher
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45. On continuous runs of scaffold planks, which of the following statements is true?
A. The planks must overlap at least 12 inches.

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B. The plank overlap cannot be more than 18 inches.

C. Bearer overlap must be at least 6 inches
D. Bearer overlap doesn't matter if planks overlap
E. A, B and C are true. (correct answer)
46. The space between scaffold planks on a fully planked platform shall be:
A. No more than 1" (correct answer)

B. No more than 6"
C. No less than 1/4"
D. No more than the width of a person's foot
47. Which of the following is a serious lung disease known to be caused by crystalline silica?
A. Silicosis (correct answer)

B. Silican disease
C. Silicitis
48. Tubular Welded Frame Scaffold Frames may be installed without feet or jacks:
A. When they were not delivered.

B. Whenever it is more convenient to leave them off.
C. Never. (correct answer)
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D. When the competent person says it's ok.
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49. It is acceptable to climb the cross braces of Tubular Welded Frame Scaffold:
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A. When no ladder has been installed
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B. When you are only going down one level
C. When it's lunch time
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D. Never (correct answer)
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50. It is acceptable to climb the cross braces of tubular welded frame scaffolds:
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A. When no ladder has been installed
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B. When you are only going down one level

C. When it's lunch time
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D. Never, because they are not designed to take climbing loads (correct answer)
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51. Crane load charts may provide data that separates structural values from stability values. Either way, making a
critical lift increases risk. A critical lift is one which penetrates_____ of the allowable load chart value
A. 50%
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B. 75% (correct answer)

C. 100%
52. A confined space entry permit includes:
A. Identification of all participants, the space to be entered, hazards and emergency resp (correct answer)
B. Equipment, humidity and other contractors in the area
C. The name of the client, the Contractor name, and the annual survey results
D. All of the above
53. Users of scaffolds must be briefed on the following items before work commences
A. Times for breaks, lunch and quitting

B. Locations of toilets and break facilities
C. Load capacities, fall protection, falling object protection, and electrical exposures (correct answer)
D. Nature of work, time required to complete, shortcuts to get around the scaffold rules
54. Symptoms of acute exposures to Hazardous materials may:
A. Appear immediately or within a short time following exposure

B. Death is possible from some hazardous substances
C. Acute effects are typically from sudden, short-term, high concentrations
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55. Regarding Radiation, which statement is true?
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A. Radiation may be defined as energy traveling through time
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B. None-ionizing radiation is essential to life so overexposure won't cause tissue damage
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C. Ionizing radiation has insufficient energy to ionize atoms leading to tissue damage.
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D. Improperly controlled radiation can be potentially hazardous to worker health. (correct answer)
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56. Regarding routes of exposure, chemicals can enter the body through:
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A. Inhalation, Ingestion, Absorption (correct answer)
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B. Only through inhalation
C. Through debrading of the skin
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57. When the employer receives an OSHA citation, it must be:

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A. Contested and filed with the courts

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B. Copied and mailed to each worker

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C. Posted for 3 days or until the violation is fixed (correct answer)

D. Signed and returned to OSHA
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58. The CFR Parts, such as Part 1926 for Construction, are further broken down into ___________, which group
together specific and detailed standards.
A. Bullets
B. Pieces
C. Slices
D. Subparts (correct answer)
59. Which of the following is a type of OSHA violation?
A. Repeat
B. Serious
C. Willful
60. What are two US government agencies that are good resources for safety and health information?
A. DEA and DOJ

B. FBI and CIA
C. IRS and SCOTUS
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D. OSHA and NIOSH (correct answer)
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61. What section of the OSH Act does the Whistleblower Program reference?
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A. Section 7(a)
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B. Section 8
C. Section 11(c) (correct answer)
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D. Section 21
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62. The creation of OSHA provided this important right to workers:
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A. The right to equal employment opportunities
B. The right to pension benefits
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C. The right to privacy

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D. The right to a safe and healthful workplace (correct answer)

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63. When you've been assigned a new job or task, be sure to ask about the:
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A. Additional pay and benefits

B. Time it takes to drive to the nearest OSHA office
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C. Medical expenses that all you co-workers may have

D. Written procedures and any additional training that may be required (correct answer)
64. You can request to remain anonymous when OSHA presents a complaint to your employer.
A. True (correct answer)

B. False
65. Where there is no specific OSHA standard, employers must comply with the OSH Act's:
A. Catch-All Standard
B. Final Notice
C. General Duty Clause (correct answer)
D. General Industry Standard
66. What does OSHA require employers to post for 3 days?
A. Employee of the month recognition

B. Grants received for studies
C. OSHA citations and abatement verification notices (correct answer)
D. VPP
Licensed awards
to Cloyd Coley Jr, e-mail shahkdahn@aol.com, phone 718 893-5671, order #5165, October 31, 2018. Not
67. What type of OSHA inspection is conducted when immediate death or serious harm is likely?
A. Complaint
B. Imminent danger (correct answer)
C. Programmed
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D. Referral
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68. Workers must be trained in which of the following?
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A. Lockout/tagout
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B. Fall hazards
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C. Bloodborne pathogens
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69. Which of the following is a way that an employee can contact OSHA?
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A. Email
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B. In person at a local office

C. Phone
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70. The OSHA standards for Construction and General Industry are found in:
A. Codes 501 through 1000

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B. Construction and GI Registers

C. Parts 1915 and 1917
D. Parts 1926 and 1910 (correct answer)
71. Employers covered by OSHA's standards must display an "It's the Law" poster. What does this poster
address?
A. Employee dress code

B. Hourly wages
C. Hours of operation
D. Safety and health information (correct answer)
72. Which of following would be best to have when consulting a medical professional about possible exposure to
a harmful chemical?
A. Eye witness accounts of the exposure incident

B. Photographs of the chemical
C. Safety Data Sheet for the chemical (correct answer)
D. Sample of the chemical
73. OSHA requires that employers pay for which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A. Hard hats(correct answer)

B. Logging boots
C. Uniforms
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D. Weather-related gear
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74. Among the rights related to OSHA recordkeeping, workers have the right to review:
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A. All first aid treatment forms
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B. All worker's compensation forms
C. Medical and exposure records for all workers
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D. OSHA 300 Logs and OSHA 300A Summaries (correct answer)
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75. What is OSHA's mission?
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A. To prevent injuries
B. To protect the health of America's workers
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C. To save lives
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76. Which groups do NOT come under OSHA's coverage?

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A. Public workers who are employed by state agencies

B. Self-employed workers
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C. Workers employed by construction companies

D. Both A and B (correct answer)
77. OSHA requires employers to maintain certain records on and report work-related injuries and illnesses. Which
of the following is used for this process?
A. Injury and Illness Report (Form 301)

B. Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (commonly called the OSHA 300 Log)
C. Summary (OSHA Form 300A)
78. Who does OSHA recommend you first bring a workplace safety or health concern to?
A. OSHA
B. The local police department
C. Your employer (correct answer)
D. Your lawyer
79. A worker or worker representative can file a complaint about a safety or health hazard in the workplace.

B. False
80. One of the main responsibilities employers have, as required by OSHA standards, is to:
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A. Conduct energy audits
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B. Notify OSHA of any workplace injury or illness.
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C. Provide training(correct answer)
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D. Reduce air pollution in the environment
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81. What are two US government agencies that are good resources for safety and health information?
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A. DEA and DOJ
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B. FBI and CIA
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C. IRS and SCOTUS
D. OSHA and NIOSH (correct answer)
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82. Typically, how long does an employee have to file a complaint with OSHA, when the employee has been
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discriminated against for reporting a safety or health hazard?

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A. 3 days
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B. 10 days
C. 30 days (correct answer)
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D. 60 days
83. OSHA standards fall into four categories (or Parts): General Industry, Construction, Maritime, and Agriculture.

B. False
84. The right of workers to be safe and healthy while on the job, without fear of punishment is spelled out in:
A. OSHA standards
B. Section 11(c) of the OSH Act (correct answer)
C. State laws
D. The General Duty Clause
85. During an OSHA inspection:
A. Employers determine which workers are interviewed

B. You have the right to talk to the inspector privately (correct answer)
C. You may not describe safety and health concerns you have to the inspector
D. Worker representatives are not permitted to accompany the inspector
86. OSHA standards appear in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).

B. False
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87. IIPP is an acronym for ______________________.
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A. Incident Program Plan
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B. Injury and Impairment Planning Program
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C. Injury and Illness Prevention Program (correct answer)
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88. OSHA recognizes that the implementation of a safety and health program as a way of demonstrating
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____________ in promoting workplace safety and health.
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A. Good faith by an employer (correct answer)
B. Avoidance of an OSHA citation
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C. That money is being spent appropriately

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89. The order of precedence and effectiveness of hazard control is which of the following?
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A. Engineering Controls first, PPE, Administrative/Work Practice Controls

B. Use PPE first following by Administrative/Work Practice Controls
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C. Engineering controls are not required on construction sites

D. Engineering controls, Administrative/Work Practice Controls, PPE (correct answer)
90. The risk assessment code or RAC is used to evaluate:
A. The probability of a hazardous event

B. A degree of hazard severity
C. The same as hazard
D. Both A and B above (correct answer)
91. OSHA's IIPP Proposed Rule includes which of the elements below?
A. Management duties and employee participation

B. Hazard identification, assessment and hazard prevention / control
C. Education, training and program evaluation
92. A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is:
A. A technique that focuses on job tasks as a way to identify hazards

B. It focuses on the relationship between the worker, the task, tools and environment
C. Will always prevent injuries
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93. Incident investigation should focus on:
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A. Assigning blame
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B. Understanding why the accident or near miss occurred
C. What actions can be taken to preclude recurrence.
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D. Both B and C above (correct answer)
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94. Which of the following incidents / accidents require investigation?
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A. Serious injury incidents
B. Lost time injuries and illnesses
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C. Near miss incidents

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D. All of the above should be investigated. (correct answer)

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95. An effective occupational safety and health program will include which of the following elements?
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A. Management commitment and employee involvement

B. Worksite analysis
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C. Hazard prevention and control

D. Safety and health training
E. All the above (correct answer)
96. Regardless of the title (e.g. IIPP, Safety and Health Program, Accident Prevention Program), the common goal
of these approaches is to ________________________?
A. Save money
B. Appease the OSHA inspector
C. Help employers reduce workplace injuries and illnesses through a systematic process
D. Helps employers proactively address workplace safety and health hazards
E. Both C and D (correct answer)
97. The basic causes of accidents/incidents are:
A. Unsafe acts (personnel related)

B. Unsafe conditions (substances and the work environment)
C. Neither A nor B
98. In order to be effective corrective/preventive actions must have:
A. Acceptance by workers
B. Acceptance by managers
C. Actions effective in mitigating/controlling the hazard
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99. Who should be held accountable for meeting safety and health program responsibilities in the workplace?
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A. Employees
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B. Supervisors
C. Managers
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100. Which of the following should be part of an effective Safety and Health Program or IIPP?
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A. Should be in writing
B. Should identify the responsible person(s) for implementing the program
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C. Should be reviewed periodically and updated

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101. Supervisors should receive specific training to ________________.

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A. Familiarize themselves with the hazards in their areas of responsibility

B. Know the hazards his / her workers are exposed to
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C. Know the complete set of OSHA regulations

102. Three major components of a Personal Fall Arrest System (PFAS) include; anchor and the anchorage
connector; full body harness; and:
A. Optional body belt

B. Connecting device (lanyard with shock absorber/retractable lifeline, snap hooks) (correct answer)
C. Anti-jerk cord
D. Any of the above
103. Every supported scaffold and its components must support, without failure, its own weight and at least
_______ the intended load.
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 6 times
104. Examples of fall hazards that have resulted in deaths on the jobsite include:
A. Falls to the ground or lower levels

B. Falls through existing floor or roof openings
C. Falls through the floor or roof surface
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D. Falls on the same level
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105. OSHA requires fall protection at different heights for construction and general industry however, regardless of
.
the fall distance, which of the following is most correct?
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A. Fall protection must be provided when working over dangerous equipment
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B. Fall protection must be provided when working over dangerous machinery
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C. Both A and B are correct (correct answer)
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106. If there are defects found during the inspection of personal fall protection equipment, or if the equipment has
been used in an arrest, it must be:
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A. Fixed on the spot and tested by twisting the fabric or rope and looking for stress
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B. Turned in at the end of the shift

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C. Removed immediately from service (correct answer)

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107. How can YOU prevent a fall from a ladder?

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A. Choose the right ladder for the job

B. Tie the top and bottom of the ladder to fixed points when necessary
C. Don't carry tools or other materials in-hand while climbing the ladder
D. All the above (correct answer)
108. More than 33% of fatalities in construction are from a combination of falls from:
A. Slips and slides

B. Tripping over electrical wires and electrical installations
C. Roofs (correct answer)
109. Preventing fall hazards is a critical part of the construction planning process. Controls to mitigate fall hazards
include installing which of the following?
A. Guardrails
B. Walls
C. Protective covers
D. Parapets
E. All
Licensed to of the above
Cloyd Coley(correct answer)
Jr, e-mail shahkdahn@aol.com, phone 718 893-5671, order #5165, October 31, 2018. Not
110. Employees must not work on scaffold surfaces until:
A. It is determined to have strength and structural integrity to support intended loads (correct answer)
B. OSHA has visited the site and inspected the scaffold
C. The surface is completely dry
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D. All of the above
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111. From your choices below, what would you consider to be a "major" fall hazard in construction?
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A. Roof edges and floor openings
B. Steel erection
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C. Improper scaffold construction
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D. Unsafe use of portable ladders
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112. OSHA requires fall protection when working near the edge of a trench or excavation that is _________or more
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in depth.
A. 4 feet
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B. 6 feet (correct answer)

C. 10 feet
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D. 20 feet
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113. Climbing on the cross braces of scaffolds is allowed:
A. During the assembly of the scaffold

B. When conditions are dry and the climbing can be done safely
C. Never (correct answer)
D. When authorized by the supervisor
114. Horizontal lifelines shall be designed, installed, and used under the supervision of a _______ as part of a
complete personal fall arrest system, which maintains a safety factor of at least two.
A. Registered Engineer
B. OSHA expert
C. Qualified Person (correct answer)
D. Any of the above
115. When using scaffolds, make sure there is which of the following?
A. Safe and compliant access and egress

B. Full planking
C. Stable footing
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D. Guard railing
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116. D-rings and snap-hooks must have a minimum tensile strength of:
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A. 500 pounds
B. 1500 pounds
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C. 5,000 pounds (correct answer)
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D. 25,000 pounds
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117. Lock Out / Tag Out refers to _______.
A. A process for locking tools and equipment to deter theft

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B. A process that eliminates the chance of unauthorized access to critical areas

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C. A process that is designed to protect workers by controlling hazardous energies (correct answer)
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118. For effective Lock Out / Tag Out to occur, at a minimum, all energy sources must be isolated in the off
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position, zero energy verified, and each worker must apply his/her individual lock on the locking device and
keep the keywith ___________.
A. Their Supervisor
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B. Their Foreman
C. Their Safety representative
D. Himself/herself (correct answer)
119. The term electrocution means?
A. Injury by electricity
B. A severe electrical shock that requires hospitalization
C. Death caused by exposure to electricity (correct answer)
120. The three most common types of GFCIs used today are:
A. Circuit Breaker, Circuit Fixer, Circuit Finder

B. Receptacle, Power Unit, Fuses
C. Receptacle, Portable, Circuit Breaker (correct answer)
D. Wet, Dry, Damp
121. Fuses and circuit breakers are intended primarily for the:
A. Protection of conductors and equipment (correct answer)

B. Prevention of electric shock
C. Protection of the public
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122. Underground electrical hazards are _______.
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A. Easy to identify
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B. Hard to find & pose a serious risk to laborers & equipment operators (correct answer)
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C. Always marked exactly where they are located
D. Always buried in red concrete
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123. GFCI is an acronym that stands for ____?
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A. Good For Circuit Installations
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B. Grand Fuse Circuitry Impulse
C. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (correct answer)
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124. Flexible cords must not _______.

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A. Be run through holes in walls, ceilings, or floors

B. Be run through doorways, windows, or similar openings
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C. Be left unprotected in traffic ways

D. Be hidden in walls, ceilings, floors, conduit or other raceways
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125. Some examples of the most common causes of electrocution include:
A. Contact with underground and above ground energized power lines.

B. Failure to properly Lock Out and & Tag Out energized power sources.
C. Failure to use a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) in wet conditions.
D. Failure to maintain a safe distance from energized power sources.
126. A properly installed and used standard GFCI receptacle can prevent _____.
A. Partial Electrocution
B. Electrical Shock (correct answer)
C. Circuit overload
127. Hazards are created when flexible (extension) cords, cord connectors, receptacles, and cord and plug
connected equipment are:
A. Improperly used and maintained. (correct answer)

B. Made in foreign countries.
C. Rolled into a retractable system.
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128. For protection from electrical hazards and arc flash, always use the proper rubber insulating gloves and
ensure they are classified by __________:
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A. The size and shape of the glove
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B. The particular kind of rubber material used
C. The level of voltage and protection they provide (correct answer)
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D. The weather conditions
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129. Electrical burns occur principally because of:
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A. The high energy of electrons
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B. Radiation pulses of the electricity

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C. The heat generated by the flow of electrical current through the body (correct answer)
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130. The sudden release of electrical energy through the air when a high-voltage gap exists and there is a
breakdown between conductors is referred to as an _______________.
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A. Arc Burst
B. Energized Air Blast
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C. Arc Flash (correct answer)

D. Energized Air Flash
131. The best type of ladder to use when working around any electrical systems is ________?
A. A ladder made of conductive material

B. A ladder made from non-conductive material (correct answer)
C. Any ladder, just be careful not to get shocked
132. When the injury is created more as a result of crushing between objects, the event should be recorded as
___________.
A. Caught (correct answer)

B. Draught
C. Struck
D. Rolling
133. Employers must ensure exposed moving parts of power tools, such as belts, gears, shafts, and pulleys:
A. Have signs
B. Are guarded (correct answer)
C. Are lubricated
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D. Working
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134. The majority of the incidents involving contact with running equipment and machinery are due to:
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A. Mechanical failure
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B. Lack of OSHA inspections
C. Unguarded equipment (correct answer)
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135. What major hazard includes incidents where a person or part of a person was injured by being squeezed,
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crushed, pinched or compressed between two or more objects, or between parts of an object?
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A. Struck by hazards
B. Caught in or between hazards (correct answer)
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C. Struck by falling object

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136. Although mechanical failures do occur, most accidents while working on with machinery can be attributed to:
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A. Bad luck
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B. Failure to properly lock and tag out equipment (correct answer)

C. Bad start switch
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D. None the above
137. Trench protective systems include which of the following:
A. Curling, beaching, drilling

B. Sloping, Benching, Shoring, Trench box (correct answer)
C. Dirt jacks and whalers
D. All of the above
138. Improper gloves, loose fitting clothing, jackets, belts, jewelry, hair, or safety equipment such as fall protection
lanyards, can lead to horrible incidents if:
A. Worn improperly
B. Caught in moving parts (correct answer)
C. Not kept clean
139. Amputations can be caused by allowing your hands or limbs to be caught in or between:
A. Operating equipment
B. Objects
C. Materials
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D. All of the above. (correct answer)
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140. Employers are required to do which of the following:
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A. Provide protection for workers during trenching and excavation work.
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B. Provide means to avoid the collapse of structures and scaffolds.
C. Provide effective safety training for workers.
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141. Protect yourself when working in excavations by _____________.
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A. Not working in an unprotected trench that is 5 feet or more deep
B. Only entering a trench or excavation using a ladder, stairs or properly designed ramp.
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C. Never working outside the confines of the protection system

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D. All the above (correct answer)

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142. Working between the frame and dump box of a dump truck is an example of exposure to a:
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A. Struck by hazard
B. Caught in or between hazard (correct answer)
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C. Caught off guard hazard
143. What actions and/or safety equipment can protect equipment operators from being thrown from their
equipment and crushed during a tip over?
A. Rollover Protective Structures (ROPS)

B. Using approved seat belts
C. Keeping all body parts within the protected cab area
144. To protect yourself from being pinned between equipment, materials, or other objects, you should:
A. Be aware at all times of the equipment around you and stay a safe distance from it.
B. Never get between moving materials and a structure, vehicle, or stacked materials.
C. Stay out of the swing radius of cranes and other equipment
D. All are effective protective measures (correct answer)
145. What can be done to prevent caught between accidents involving equipment?
A. Shut down equipment before doing repairs or inspections

B. Chock the wheels on any equipment that can roll
C. Never work under equipment supported only by a hydraulic or mechanical jack
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146. Competent person must be designated by the employer for:
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A. Scaffold erection
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B. Inspections of excavations, adjacent areas, & protective systems
C. Engineering survey before demolition & continuing inspections during demolition
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D. All the Above (correct answer)
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147. To prevent a load from slipping, all loads raised by cranes and other hoisting devices must _______.
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A. Be rigged properly with appropriate rigging (correct answer)
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B. Be less than 5 tons

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C. Be wrapped in netting
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D. Be weighted toward the bottom so gravity will prevent swinging motion

Ph m se
148. The following are examples of struck-by hazards. Which one is an example of a struck-by flying object hazard?
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A. Hit by a nail from a nail gun (correct answer)

B. Hit by a load dropped from a crane
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C. Run over by a vehicle in a roadway work zone
149. One way to minimize crane related struck-by hazards is to:
A. De-rate all cranes by 25%

B. Ensure crane operators are qualified or certified (correct answer)
D. Both A and B
150. Common safety measures that can help you avoid being involved in a struck by incident are:
A. Do not exceed a vehicle's rated load or lift capacity.

B. Do not carry personnel unless there is a safe place to ride with a seat belt.
C. Make sure that all personnel are in the clear before using dumping or lifting device
151. Flying object hazards are especially dangerous when using powder-actuated tools because:
A. The force behind the fastener is low and can fool you
B. The force behind the fastener is high and could go through a worker (correct answer)
C. The force behind the fastener doesn't matter
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152. Falling objects have the potential to cause extreme injuries and may
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A. Crush a worker.
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B. Pin a worker (e.g. to the ground).
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C. All the above (correct answer)
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153. Safe work practices to avoid being struck by heavy equipment include which of the following
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A. Staying away from heavy equipment when it is operating.
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B. Staying clear of lifted loads and never working under a suspended load.
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C. Running quickly to stay out of the way
D. Both A & B (correct answer)
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154. To safely transport cargo, you should use ________ to prevent the load from shifting, slipping, rolling or
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falling.
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A. Military grade HD32C Twine

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B. Straps, chains, webbing or wire rope (correct answer)

C. Duct tape
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D. Both A & C
155. Employers are required to protect employees from struck-by hazards by _________.
A. Hounding them about the hazards

B. Providing hazard awareness training and effective equipment specific training (correct answer)
C. Ensuring adequate breaks to rest up
D. All the above
156. Struck-by injuries are produced by forcible contact or impact between the injured person and:
A. An object
B. A piece of equipment
C. Either A or B (correct answer)
157. Of all the struck-by incidents, being _________ results in the most severe and disabling injuries and accounts
for the highest number of fatalities.
A. Struck by equipment (correct answer)

B. Struck by nails
C. Struck by falling objects
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D. Struck by flying objects
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158. As a load is mechanically lifted, the materials
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A. May strike workers if the load swings, twists, or turns (correct answer)
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B. Will not be affected by windy conditions or bad weather
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C. Can weigh any amount without causing a problem with the equipment
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D. All the above
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159. Potential struck-by hazards include:
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A. Improper rigging and rigging failures (correct answer)
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B. Working on depressurized systems

C. Not wearing gloves when handling sheet metal
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D. All of the above

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160. A struck-by hazard can be described as any time a worker __________.
A. Falls from a height of greater than 10 feet

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B. Is hit by a falling, swinging, flying, or rolling object (correct answer)

C. Can get any part of his/her body caught in or between objects
161. The definition of a Struck-by hazard is:
A. An incident when the impact alone creates an injury (correct answer)

B. When an injury is a result of the crushing force between two objects.
C. Both A & B
D. A fall from elevation where an employee is killed by impact with the ground
162. How can eye injuries be prevented?
A. Always wear effective eye protection.

B. Eye wear must be appropriate for the hazard encountered
C. Eyewear must be properly fitted.
D. Better training and education can assure proper use by employees
163. Regarding Hard Hats and Safety Helmets, which statement (s) below are true:
A. Clean outer shell in hot water, scrub and rinse in clear warm water; inspect.
B. Do not store helmets in direct sunlight and extreme heat (rear deck of an auto).
C. Helmets should be stored in a clean and dry location away from heat, etc.
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D. All are true (correct answer)
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164. According to the BLS survey, most of the workers in selected occupations who suffered foot injuries were
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affected by the fact that:
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A. They were not wearing safety footwear (correct answer)
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B. OSHA does not require safety footwear in construction applications
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C. Most of their employers required them to wear safety shoes
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165. OSHA requires approved head protection. Currently OSHA regulations reference as Compliance ANSI Z-89.2-
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1971 standard.
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A. Class A, B and C (correct answer)

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B. Class G, H and L
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C. Type S, T and Y
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166. Which statement below is true regarding eye wash stations be provided on a job site?
A. OSHA has no requirement for eyewashes on construction job sites

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B. Emergency eyewash or shower facilities must meet ANSI requirements. (correct answer)
C. Emergency eye wash and shower stations must be reachable within 10 minutes.
D. There should be enough cold water to flush exposed surfaces for 45 minutes.
167. Respiratory Protection is required for employees exposed to hazardous materials above the permissible
exposure limit for particular hazardous materials and engineering controls cannot effectively control hazards.
What are the two general types of respirators?
A. Air expelling and Air demanding

B. Cool laminar flow and pressure demand laminar flow
C. Air purifying and Atmosphere supplying (correct answer)
D. PAPR and UAPR
168. To protect eyes and face against flying particles, metal sparks or chemical /biological splashes employees
must wear a ______in addition to safety glasses or chemical goggles?
A. Face Shield (correct answer)

B. Balaclava
C. Respirator
D. Scarf
169. Before doing work requiring use of personal protective equipment, employees must be trained to know:
A. When and what type personal protective equipment is necessary

B. What it is made of
C. What its limitations are, and proper care, maintenance, useful life, and disposal
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D. A and C only (correct answer)
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170. What do we know about the inspection of hard hat components, the shell, suspension, headband, sweatband,
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and any accessories?
A. They should be visually inspected daily to include signs of dents, cracks, etc. (correct answer)
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B. If damage is observed or suspected, helmets should be patched
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C. All of the above
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171. What contributes to eye injuries at work?
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A. Not wearing eye protection.

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B. Wearing the wrong kind of eye protection

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C. Stupidity/Ignorance
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D. All of the above

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E. A & B only (correct answer)
172. The first step in a PPE program is:

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A. Hazard Assessment (correct answer)

B. Hazard awareness training
C. Fitting and maintenance
D. Cleaning and serviceability
173. Regarding Personal Protective Equipment, which statement (s) is correct?
A. PPE is often referred to as the 3rd line of defense or the last line of defense (correct answer)
B. PPE can be used as a substitute for engineering controls
C. PPE should never be used in conjunction with engineering or work practice controls
D. All of the above
174. Head injuries are caused by falling or flying objects, or by bumping the head against a fixed object. Hard hats
must do two things
A. Resist penetration and absorb the shock of a blow (correct answer)

B. Look good and remain clean
C. Control environmental exposures from weather and heat
D. Have an ANSI sticker and an expiration date
175. Regarding hand protection employers should:
A. Determine duration, frequency, degree of exposure to hazards and physical stress.

B. Know glove capability VS hazard anticipated(exposure to chemicals, heat, or flames).
C. Before buying, check manufacturer data that gloves meet appropriate standards.
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176. High Visibility Clothing is now required when working in traffic zones and around heavy equipment. There are
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3 classes of clothing, class 1, 2 and 3. Please identify the correct statement below regarding high visibility
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clothing.
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A. Class 1 clothing provides the highest level of visibility for employees
B. Class 2 clothing must be worn in school zones and at night
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C. Class 3 clothing for inclement weather and heavy traffic conditions. (correct answer)
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D. All of the above
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177. Information and Training topics for the Hazard Communication training should include which of the following?
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A. Methods and observations to detect the presence or release of a hazardous chemical.

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B. Basics of physical and health hazards of common hazardous chemical classes

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C. Measures employees can take to protect themselves from hazards

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D. Details of the employers effective Hazard Communication Program

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178. In most cases, the responsibility for hazardous chemical evaluation belongs to which of the following?
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A. The chemical manufacturer (correct answer)

B. The chemical supplier
C. The employer
D. The employee
179. From the list below, what would be considered a PHYSICAL HAZARD classification?
A. Acute toxin
B. Skin corrosive, irritant
C. Have the potential to cause serious eye damage/eye irritation
D. Flammable (correct answer)
E. Respiratory or skin sensitizer
180. What do we know about GHS?
A. It is a regulation passed by OSHA

B. It is an old standard revived by OSHA
C. It is a system adopted by OSHA under Hazard Communication (correct answer)
181. What do we know about the Hazard Communication Standard label requirements?
A. There is no standard format, just required elements (correct answer)

B. There are 19 required elements
C. There are only 3 required elements
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182. Labels under Hazard Communication:
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A. Are the same as always.
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B. Are standardized and harmonized (correct answer)
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C. Are the same for all sectors/target audiences.
D. Will change significantly in 2017.
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183. Developing a hazardous chemical inventory at the worksite is generally the responsibility of:
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A. The chemical manufacturer
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B. The chemical supplier
C. The employer (correct answer)
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D. The employee
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184. The nine pictograms under the HCS labeling requirements include those for which hazards?
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A. Explosives, carcinogens, irritants, flammables and gas cylinders

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B. Weasels, spiders and snakes

C. Oxidizers, toxicity, environmental toxicity, corrosives
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D. All of the above

E. A and C only (correct answer)
185. Training and information includes training employees on which of the following?
A. Details of the employers Hazard Communication Program

B. Address and phone number of the local OSHA and EPA offices
C. Estimated cost of the hazardous chemical
D. Where to find PPE requirements on an SDS
E. Both A and D (correct answer)
186. Which of the following would be considered an engineering control?
A. Facility, equipment, or process designed to remove the hazard.

B. A hazard enclosed to prevent exposure in normal operations.
C. Local ventilation to reduce exposure to the hazard in normal operations.
E. A and C only
187. An effective Hazard Communication program depends on which of the following?
A. Credibility of management's involvement

B. Inclusion of employees in safety and health decisions
C. Rigorous worksite analysis to identify hazards and potential hazards
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D. Stringent prevention and control measures and training
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188. Training and information includes which of the following:
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A. Use of audiovisuals and interactive video
B. Use of classroom instruction
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C. Opportunity for employees to ask questions to ensure understanding
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E. A and C only
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189. A chemical manufacturer or importer for chemicals is required to classify chemicals. What about employers?
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A. Yes
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B. No, if they choose to rely on the manufacturer or importer classification (correct answer)
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190. Under HAZCOM who is responsible for classifying chemicals manufactured or distributed?
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A. Employers who purchase them

B. Employees who use them
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C. Chemical manufacturers and importers (correct answer)
191. Under OSHA's HCS, there are four fundamental emloyer responsibilities. Which of these is included?
A. Identify and list hazardous chemicals in their workplaces.

B. Prepare labels for containers and more detailed technical bulletins called SDSs.
C. Develop and implement a written hazard communication program.
D. All of the above.
192. Which is not a Hazard Communication label element?
A. Product name or identifier.

B. Color of the product (correct answer)
C. Signal Word.
D. Name and address of user organization
193. Which of the following is not an element of a Hazard Communication Program?
A. Chemical Inventory of hazardous chemicals

B. Written Plan
C. Steps to take in the event of an earthquake or flooding (correct answer)
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D. Labels and Safety Data Sheets-SDSs
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E. Information and Training
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194. Chemicals that are explosive; flammable; self-reactive; pyrophoric are classified in terms of the HCS as a:
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A. Toxic Substance
B. Physical Hazard (correct answer)
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C. Substantially Dangerous Hazard
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D. Public Health Hazard
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195. All HCS changes to Hazard Communication programs must be implemented by:
A. 6/1/2012.
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B. 6/1/2013.
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C. 6/1/2015.
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D. 6/1/2016 (correct answer)

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196. The safety data sheet provides detailed information above and beyond the label so that the user can be
informed about:
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A. The many characteristics of the chemical.

B. What must be done to safely use or apply the chemical.
C. Where to obtain the chemical at the lowest price.
D. A and B (correct answer)
197. Under HCS, signal words on labels include:
A. Danger, Warning & Caution

B. Danger and Caution
C. Danger and Warning (correct answer)
D. Warning and Caution
198. Under HCS, Pictograms for containers:
A. Are the same for all packages.

B. Are required to be on container labels (correct answer)
C. Are required for all containers, hazardous or non-hazardous.
199. Environmental hazards must be evaluated and classified by manufacturers and importers of chemicals.
However, this is not a major issue in OSHA's hcs because:
A. Most chemicals are not a threat to the environment.

B. Physical and health hazards are far more important to regulate.
C. OSHA does not regulate environmental issues (correct answer)
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200. The completed chemical inventory list should be kept where?
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A. At the local OSHA office
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B. In the warehouse
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C. With the written program so it can be amended as new chemicals are purchased (correct answer)
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D. All of the above
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201. Under Hazard Communication (HCS), employees have a right to know:
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A. The identities, hazards and protective measures of chemicals they are exposed to
B. The names of all local OSHA officials
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C. That all workers in all sectors are covered by OSHA's Hazard Communication Standart
D. All of the above
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202. The SDS under the revised HCS:
A. Is exactly the same as OSHA's current MSDS.

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B. Varies significantly and will require updates. (correct answer)

C. Is not intended to replace the MSDS.
203. Revisions OSHA's HCS incorporating GHC guidelines is intended to:
A. Establish a foundation of programs to ensure the safe use of chemicals. (correct answer)
B. Support supervision.
C. Create more citations by OSH
D. Guarantee the hiring of more H&S personnel.
204. Which of the following is considered an element of OSHA's HCS and should be an element of an employer's
written Hazard Communication Program?
A. Hazard Recognition/control, Hazard Analysis, SDSs and Container Storage

B. Hazard Recognition/control, Signs and Signals, SDSs and Information and Training
C. Hazardous Chemical Inventory, Labeling Containers, SDSs and Information and Training (correct answer)
205. Chemical spill, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment would be considered
which of the following?
A. A "Poor Event"
B. Foreseeable Emergency (correct answer)
C. Level 1 Risk Event
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D. Immediate OSHA Reportable Event
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206. What is important for the employee to know or to be familiar with about Hazard Communication?
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A. Understanding of Safety Data Sheets
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B. Understanding of label, signage and warning requirements
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C. How to respond to a hazardous chemical incident (fire, leak, rupture or spill)
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D. Knowing how to acquire SDSs of the product being used
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207. When conducting a chemical inventory, the employer should do which of the following?
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A. Walk around the office, yard and project sites

B. Record the product names of all chemicals
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C. Record the chemical manufacturers' names, addresses and telephone numbers

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D. Identify estimated value and quantity of the hazardous chemicals

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E. A, B and C (correct answer)
208. Section 1 of the SDS is focused on:

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A. Identification of the substance or mixture and of the supplier. (correct answer)

B. The PEL/TLV limits.
C. Whether or not the substance is flammable.
D. First aid measures in case of exposure.
209. "Hazardous chemical" means any chemical which is classified as a physical hazard or a health hazard and
which of the following:
A. A simple asphyxiant, a combustible dust, a pyrophoric gas (correct answer)

B. A fall hazard or a caught between hazard
C. An electrocution hazard
D. All of the above
210. Which of the following are true about unprotected sides and edges?
A. They are areas where there is no stair rail system or wall 36 inches or more in height
B. They are not considered unprotected unless over ten feet above the adjacent surface.
C. They could be the edge of a stairway landing without a wall or guardrail system.
D. Both A and (correct answer)
211. Stairways with ____ or more risers shall be equipped with at least one handrail and one stair rail system on all
unprotected sides. The handrail will be installed at a height of 30 to 37 inches measured from the tread to top
of the handrail.
A. 4 (correct answer)
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B. 5
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C. 6
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D. 8
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212. Job made ladders:
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A. May be built in a manner acceptable to a supervisor on site
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B. Must be built to a specific ANSI standard using quality materials (correct answer)
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C. May never be used on any construction site when manufactured ladders are present
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213. Always inspect a ladder before use. What do you look for?
A. No more than two bent rungs

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B. Only limited amounts oil, grease, and other slipping hazards

C. Are warning stickers clearly affixed? (correct answer)
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D. All of the above

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214. A ladder with the following rating should NOT be used on the construction site?
A. Type IAA
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B. Type IA
C. Type II
D. Type III (correct answer)
215. Which of the following statements about ladders is true?
A. Ladders are complicated and difficult to use.

B. Falls from ladders are one of the leading causes of work place fatalities. (correct answer)
C. Ladder use depends on common sense; no instructions are provided by manufacturers.
216. Which of the following are common safety devices for fixed ladders over 24 feet in height?
A. Cages, wells, landing platforms, self-retracting life lines (correct answer)

B. High visibility paint, black & yellow tape on rungs, warning tape, signs
C. Slip-resistant coatings on side rails, access gates, self closing limit switches
D. All of the above
217. What are the four common ladder types?
A. Straight, extension, step, fixed (correct answer)

B. Commercial, industrial, household, hobbyist
C. Light duty, mid-range, heavy duty, step ladder
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D. Short, long, medium, extra long
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E. Fixed, portable, industrial, household
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218. Regarding ladders which statements are true?
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A. Inspect the ladder for damage and defects.
B. Do not use a damaged ladder.
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C. Remove damaged equipment from the work area, and do not leave it for your co-worker
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D. All warning stickers should be clearly affixed to the ladder.
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219. Which of the following statements is true?
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A. Wood ladders may be painted.

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B. Aluminum ladders are appropriate for working around electricity

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C. Fiberglass ladders are susceptible to damage by heat or corrosives (correct answer)

D. Straight ladders are manufactured to support 6 times the maximum intended load
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220. Pan stairs are commonly used in multi-story building construction. Until the pans are filled with finished
concrete they present tripping hazards. Which of the following must be done to control slipping and tripping
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hazards?
A. Fill the pans with straw bales

B. The pans and platforms must be filled with wood or other solid material (correct answer)
C. Delay installing Stair rails because they will be in the way
D. All of the above
221. Which of the following is a common ladder material?
A. Wood
B. Aluminum
C. Fiberglass
222. Temporary stairs built on construction sites must be uniform in run and rise and must also be:
A. Installed at an angle between 30 & 50 degrees

B. Built so riser height and depth variation does not exceed 1/4 "
C. Built Free of hazardous projections
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223. Regarding use of the ladder which statements are true?
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A. Face the ladder and use both hands when climbing
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B. Always use the 3 points of contact and do not carry materials or tools while climbing
C. Secure the ladder to a rigid support.
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D. Do not extend your body beyond the rails.
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224. What is the meaning of the 4 to 1 rule for straight and extension ladders?
A. I must bring 4 ladders on the truck for 1 simple job

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B. For every 4 feet vertical, the base must be 1 foot away from the structure (correct answer)
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C. For every 1 foot up, I must put the base 4 feet away from the structure
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D. That OSHA is interfering in my normal work activities

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225. Hoists shall be:
A. Installed in accordance with appropriate standards.

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B. Be installed and dismantled under the direct supervision of a qualified individual.

C. Operated and maintained in compliance with manufacturers specifications.
D. All of the above. (correct answer)
226. There are many types of cranes, including:
A. Rough terrain, truck mounted, crawler and tower (correct answer)

B. Single operator and multiple operator
D. All of the above
227. The Operator of a hoist may perform other work:
A. At all times.
B. When hoisting equipment is not in operation. (correct answer)
C. Never.
D. None of the above.
228. On board computers on cranes:
A. Will depict boom length, radius angle and capacity

B. Will display the weight of the load
C. Obviates the requirement to be trained and qualified
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229. Minimum clearance distances from power lines include:
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A. Up to 50kV AC = 10 feet
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B. Over 50kV AC to 200 kV = 15 feet
C. All other voltages = 75 feet
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E. All of the above
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230. General requirements for all cranes include which of the following?
A. Operator must stay within the crane's design limits

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B. Always consult the manufacturer's manual

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C. The manufacturer's manual must be kept on each crane

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231. Maintenance on conveyors may occur:
A. Whenever necessary.
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B. At any time.
C. Once all hazardous energies are locked and tagged out. (correct answer)
D. When directed by a supervisor.
232. What is one major risk associated with conveyors?
A. Chemicals.
B. Guarding. (correct answer)
C. Wetness.
233. Modified equipment, repaired/adjusted equipment, and post-assembly prior to each use, must be completed
by:
A. A qualified person (correct answer)

B. A competent person
C. The worksite supervisor
D. All of the above
234. The requirements for riggers include which of these?
A. Maneuvering the load safely when the operator cannot see it

B. Warning workers of overhead exposure
C. Using a spring loaded keeper for the hook
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235. With respect to cranes, which of the following is true?
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A. Each configuration for a crane has a load chart
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B. The load chart must be visible to the operator
C. Load charts need adjusted for older equipment or poor conditions
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236. Hoists should be inspected:
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A. Daily prior to use. (correct answer)
B. At least weekly.
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C. Never.
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D. Monthly
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237. To ensure stability, cranes must:

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A. Be set up on firm, stable ground

B. Utilize outriggers/stabilizers using solid pads
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C. Be verified for level set up

238. Who is responsible for the inspection and certification of cranes?
A. Qualified person
B. Competent person
C. Either A or B depending on the type of inspection (correct answer)
239. Before making modifications to cranes:
A. Approval from the manufacturer is required

B. OSHA must review and approve the modification
C. Modifications must be done by an authorized mechanic or facility
D. Modifications must meet or exceed original strength
E. A, C and D above (correct answer)
240. The leading cause of worker fatality cited in the new OSHA crane standard is:
A. Structural failure
B. Boom failure
C. Struck by load (correct answer)
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D. Low flying planes
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241. Workers must be trained:
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A. To recognize and avoid hazards
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B. In a manner (oral/written) that they understand
C. In a language that they understand
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242. Surrounding hazards during crane operation may include what?
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A. Contact with power lines
B. Contact with other cranes or buildings
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243. Soil can be categorized based on its characteristics. Examples are cemented, cohesive, dry, fissured and
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granular. Soil with a high clay content that does not crumble, can be excavated with vertical side slopes, and
is plastic when moist most likely describes:
A. Cemented soil
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B. Cohesive soil (correct answer)

C. Dry soil
D. Fissured soil
E. Granular soil
244. You are excavating a 10 foot deep trench in soil that has been tested and classified as type You cannot obtain
a trench box because it is being used in another trench. What are your options for protecting yourself and
other workers?
A. Slope the soil by going 3/4 foot wide for each foot deep
B. Slope the soil by going 1 foot wide for each foot deep
C. Slope the soil by going 1 ½ feet wide for each foot deep (correct answer)
D. Use aluminum hydraulic shoring since it is only 10 feet deep
245. Soil can be de-stabilized by:
A. Vibration
B. Changes in loading
C. Weather conditions
246. Which of the following statements is true about trenches and/or excavations?
A. A trench is any cut in the earth which is wider than it is deep.

B. A trench is never wider than 15 feet.
C. An excavation is a cavity in the earth's surface by cutting/digging/removing earth.
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D. The dangers in each are much different and must be treated differently.
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E. Both B and C are correct (correct answer)
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247. Soils may be classified as type:
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A. A, B and C (correct answer)
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B. 1, 2 and 3
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C. All of the above
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248. What are the Major Types of excavation Hazards in Construction?
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A. Unprotected edges and fall hazards

B. Improper sloping, benching or shoring
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C. Properly classifying soils

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D. Spoils mismanagement
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E. A, B and D (correct answer)
249. Which of the following are common test methods used for soil classification?
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A. Ribbon and Thumb Penetration

B. Dry Strength and Sedimentation
C. Wet bulb and finger set spread
E. A and B only (correct answer)
250. What is the minimum distance allowed between a spoils pile and trench's edge?
A. One foot
B. Two feet (correct answer)
C. Three feet
D. Four feet
E. It is determined by the competent person.
251. With regards to soil, a competent person must know:
A. General protection requirements

B. Soil classifications
C. Protective systems
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252. Which of the following is true about trenching?
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A. 37% of all trenching incidents occur at depths less than 5 feet
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B. Most fatalities occur in trenches 5-15 feet deep
C. Employers & Employees are responsible to ensure excavations are safe before entering
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253. As soon as a trench or excavation reaches a depth of _____ or more, fall protection measures must be
implemented.
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A. 3 feet
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B. 6 feet (correct answer)

C. Fall protection does not apply to excavations
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254. Lateral soil pressure is the naturally occurring force that exists in the ground that makes the sides of an
excavation want to move, which leads to cave-ins. This lateral cave-in pressure can be as much as ____
pounds per square foot in non-cohesive or saturated soils.
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A. 200
B. 500
C. 800 (correct answer)
D. 4000
255. A soil appears to be Type A, is cohesive and looks good. What conditions might cause it NOT to be classified
as Type A?
A. None, if it looks like Type A, it is Type A

B. If it is cracked or fissured
C. If it is subject to vibration
D. Both B and C are correct (correct answer)
256. The competent person will classify soil based on what kind of test?
A. Electronic test and visual test

B. Visual and manual tests (correct answer)
C. Manual test and seismic test
257. The belief that a worker can dig himself out of a cave-in is:
A. Not likely true because of the weight of soil

B. Probably true as long as he is conscious
C. Not likely true because of the soil pressing on the chest
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D. Not likely true because of dirt particles clogging the nose, mouth and lungs
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E. All except B (correct answer)
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258. Air monitoring is required in confined spaces, including trenches deeper than 4 feet, because they present
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hazards such as:
A. Methane gas and Flammable vapors
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B. Air
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C. Carbon monoxide and various chemicals
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D. Both A and C are correct (correct answer)
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259. When digging a trench, a gas line hit can lead to an explosion or contact with buried power cables can kill.
Always call your local utility locating service before you dig, and get the utilities marked. What else do we
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know?
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A. A broken water line can fill a trench in seconds.

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B. We must hand dig to locate the lines safely.

C. We can dig with a backhoe but only under careful supervision.
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D. All of the above

260. Aluminum hydraulic shores must be pumped to a minimum of _______ of pressure, but more is recommended.
A. 300 pounds
B. 750 pounds (correct answer)
C. 1000 pounds
261. Federal regulations require that certain excavation activities be designed, inspected or supervised by a
competent person. A competent person in excavations must have certain qualifications. Which of these are
included?
A. Specific training in soils analysis

B. Knowledge about protective systems
C. Authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate hazards
E. B and C only
262. Shoring an excavation or trench is only required if it is
A. 4 feet deep
B. Less than 5 feet deep
C. More than 5 feet deep
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D. All of the above, if conditions warrant (correct answer)
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263. Synthetic slings should be inspected by a competent person for abnormal wear, powdered fiber between
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strands, broken or cut fibers and much more. What should also be permanently affixed to the sling?
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A. Nothing, it should be free of attachments
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B. A calibrated wear indicator
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C. ID tag stating size, grade, rated capacity and manufacturer (correct answer)
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264. When you can't avoid lifting or carrying, which of the following should you do?
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A. Break load into smaller parts or get help (correct answer)
B. Carry full weight above your shoulder
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C. Keep load extended away from the body to avoid foot injuries
D. Get rid of the load as quickly as possible
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265. Structural steel, poles, pipe, bar stock, and other cylindrical materials, unless racked, shall be:
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A. Stacked and blocked to prevent spreading or tilting. (correct answer)

B. Laid only on one level on a firm level surface
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C. Strapped with banding in all cases to prevent rolling

D. Stacked no higher than average man's shoulders
266. Overexertion is the #1 cause of workplace injuries. Overexertion is caused by exerting excessive effort or
force when:
A. Driving a forklift
B. Holding, carrying or Throwing
C. Lifting, pushing or pulling
D. Both B and C (correct answer)
267. Common injuries resulting from handling materials include:
A. Fall from elevation

B. Back Injuries, crushing Injuries, cuts & lacerations (correct answer)
C. Electrocution
D. Struck by motor vehicle
268. There are many reasons and causes that can result in a back injury. One of the most common is:
A. Lifting improperly or too much weight

B. Materials placed on flat concrete
C. Turning upper body while lifting or carrying
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D. Both A and C (correct answer)
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269. Proper rigging is critical for a safe hoisting activity. Who should inspect loads for sharp edges which will
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require padding to prevent cutting of slings?
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A. The operator
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B. The superintendent
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C. The qualified rigger (correct answer)
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D. OSHA
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270. As a rule, grabs, hooks, spreader-bars, or any other rigging attachments should have a lifting capacity ______
of the sling being used.
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A. Equal to or less than that

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B. Equal to or greater than that (correct answer)

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C. Equal to one half

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271. The forklift operator should know weight of materials to be moved, limitations of equipment and load capacity
chart. The operator should also ensure that:
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A. He is outdoors
B. There is no one within 50 feet
C. Surfaces are level, free of hazards, and designed to withstand load (correct answer)
272. When debris cannot be handled by chutes, the material may be dropped into a designated area. What is
needed if this is done?
A. The drop zone shall be enclosed with barricades

B. Warning signs shall be posted at all debris landing areas
C. Warning signs shall be posted at each level exposed to falling debris
273. A clean and organized job site is a safer jobsite. What helps to achieve this?
A. Daily inspections
B. No work in areas of non-compliance
C. Weekly clean up
D. A and B only (correct answer)
274. Conveyor systems present many hazards when in operation. However, when shut down for maintenance, what
is especially important?
A. Sound a warning for anyone around

B. Jam a bar in the conveyor to keep it from moving
C. Lockout and tagout the system (correct answer)
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275. When using hand trucks, dollies, or carts:
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A. Place heavy objects on the bottom
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B. Maintain clear line of vision when moving
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C. Securing load not necessary
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D. Both a & b (correct answer)
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276. When inspecting a wire rope sling, you find that seven wires in one strand are broken. What should you do?
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A. Do not use the sling except for lifts less than 5000 pounds
B. Use the sling but inspect it again after 3 cycles
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C. Dispose of the sling (correct answer)

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277. Which of the following are material handling equipment rules of the road?
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A. No riders unless equipped with approved seat

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B. Drive slowly, with eyes on the road

C. Pedestrians always have the right-of-way!
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278. Scaffold Grade Planks Are nominally 2''x10'' lumber and:
A. Are select lumber

B. Are scaffold grade and bear a lumber grading stamp (correct answer)
C. Say OSHA approved
D. Come brand new off the lumber delivery truck
279. Light trade scaffolds must be built to support loads not exceeding:
A. 30 pounds per square foot

B. 75 pounds per square foot
C. 25 pounds per square foot (correct answer)
D. 50 pounds per square foot
280. Scaffold frames may be used as a means of access only if they:
A. Are specifically designed by the manufacturer and constructed for use as ladder rung (correct answer)
B. Have no loose parts that could interfere with climbing
C. Have alignment coupling pins
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D. Have cross braces fully installed
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281. OSHA requires that scaffold users be trained about which hazards:
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A. Electrical exposures, Falling object protection, Fall protection, Load capacities (correct answer)
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B. Rolling resistance, Scaffold height limits, OSHA Regulations, soil classification
C. Engineering standards, inspections, ladders, tiebacks
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282. Makeshift devices such as boxes and barrels shall not be used on top of scaffold platforms to increase the
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working level height of employees because:
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A. It shows lack of planning
B. There is no rental charged for these items
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C. It is unsafe and may cause an accident (correct answer)

D. Good barrels are hard to find
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283. Frame Scaffolds exceeding 125 feet shall be:

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A. Guyed or braced more securely than scaffolds below that height

B. Designed by an engineer (correct answer)
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C. Inspected more frequently

D. Reviewed by a qualified OSHA inspector before use
284. Scaffold plates on which feet or jacks rest must be a minimum of:
A. 4"x4" nominal lumber

B. 10"x10"x 1 1/8 inch plywood or 10"x10xx2" lumber (correct answer)
C. Any material which looks decent
285. Scaffolds must bear on adequate firm foundations such as:
A. Boxes or barrels
B. Bricks or concrete blocks
C. Base plates under each leg (correct answer)
D. Loose materials piled up to reach the level of the upright
286. Scaffolds must be erected:
A. In any fashion to get the work done

B. Plumb, level, &square; secure to structure when higher than 4x narrowest base dimension (correct answer)
C. Under the direction of an OSHA inspector qualified in scaffold erection.
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D. With the consent and approval of all users.
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287. Tubular Welded Frame Scaffold Frames may be installed without feet or jacks:
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A. When they were not delivered
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B. Whenever it is more convenient to leave them off
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D. When the competent person says it's ok
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288. Frame scaffolds which exceed 4 times their narrowest base dimension shall be:
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A. Climbed carefully
B. Secured to the building or structure (correct answer)
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C. Covered to prevent materials from falling off

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D. Equipped with stair towers instead of ladders

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289. Guardrails or fall arrest protection are required on all scaffolds:

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A. 6 feet or higher
B. 7 ½ feet or higher
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C. 8 feet or higher
D. 10 feet or higher (correct answer)
290. Scaffolds and scaffold components must be inspected for visible defects by a competent person
A. Before work shift and after any occurence affecting scaffold's structural integrity (correct answer)
B. At the employer's discretion
C. At least every 30 days
D. At regular intervals
291. Scaffolds and scaffold components must be inspected for visible defects by a competent person before each
A. After any occurrence which could affect scaffold's structural integrity. (correct answer)
B. At the employer's discretion
C. At least every 30 days
D. At regular intervals
292. Scaffold Grade Planks are nominally 2"x10" lumber and:
A. Are select lumber

B. Are scaffold grade and bear a lumber grading stamp (correct answer)
C. Say OSHA approved
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D. Come brand new off the lumber delivery truck
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293. Scaffolds shall be erected, moved, dismantled or altered only under the supervision and direction of:
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A. Foreman
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B. Group of individuals who must work on the scaffold
C. Competent person qualified in scaffold erection, moving, alteration or dismantling (correct answer)
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D. Person who has done it at least once before
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294. Prior to working on equipment:
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A. It must be locked and tagged out (correct answer)
B. It must be dismantled
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C. All of the above

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295. Precast concrete wall units, structural framing, and tilt-up wall panels:
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A. Must be supported until permanent connections are completed (correct answer)

B. Do not require support
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C. All of the above

296. When cutting cement and concrete:
A. Always use dry methods for cutting

B. Always use wet methods for cutting
C. If working dry wear a respirator with a HEPA cartridge
D. All of the above
E. Both b and c above (correct answer)
297. Reinforcing steel (i.e. rebar) protruding from concrete:
A. Must be guarded when employees can fall on them (correct answer)

B. Must be painted yellow
C. Must be approved by a Supervisor
D. All of the above
298. Employees may ride on concrete buckets:
A. Only when authorized

B. At any time
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299. When using concrete pumping equipment:
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A. Discharge pipes must have pipe supports for 100% overload
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B. Discharge pipes must be 6" in diameter
C. Compressed air hoses must have fail-safe joint connectors
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D. Both a and c above (correct answer)
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300. Cement dust, especially when wet and trapped inside clothing can cause burns due to:
A. The presence of granite

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B. The presence of lime (correct answer)

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C. The presence of oil

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301. Allergies/sensitization to cement:
A. Can occur in some workers over a period of time (correct answer)

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B. Never occur
C. Always occur
302. Bulk cement storage:
A. Must be in conical or tapered bottom vessels

B. Must have mechanical or pneumatic means of starting flow
C. Both a and b above (correct answer)
303. Employees may work under concrete buckets that are being raised or lowered:
A. Whenever necessary
B. When properly trained
C. When authorized
D. None of the above (correct answer)
304. Unrolled wire mesh can recoil presenting hazards to workers in the area. What measures can be taken to
prevent the unrolled wire from recoiling?
A. Do not use damaged shoring equipment

B. Secure each end of the roll
C. Turn the roll over so that the recoiling ends turn down
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D. Either B or C (correct answer)
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305. Breathing cement dust can cause:
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A. Chronic bronchitis
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B. Silicosis from crystalline silica or quartz
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C. Laryngitis
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D. All of the above
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E. Both a and b above (correct answer)
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306. To protect yourself from concrete and masonry health hazards:

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A. Read all labels

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B. Read MSDSs
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C. Wear appropriate PPE

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307. Powered concrete troweling machines that are manually guided:

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A. Must be operated only on 120 volt electricity

B. Must operate on pneumatics
C. Must be equipped with a "dead-man" control switch (correct answer)
D. All of the above
308. Cement may contain hazardous substances including:
A. Silica
B. Lime
C. Nickel, cobalt and or chromium compounds
D. Any or all of the above (correct answer)
309. Regarding all hand and power tools, the employer must:
A. Ensure that tools are inspected before use

B. Ensure that proper PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) is used
C. Ensure that guards are in place and in good repair
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D. Ensure that employees are trained in the proper use and safe handling techniques
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310. If you wear gloves when you use a hand tool, you may need:
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A. Glove cleaners
B. A thicker handle (correct answer)
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C. A thinner handle
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D. No handle
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311. Regarding hand tools which of the following statements is true?
A. The employer is responsible for inspection and maintenance of all tools (correct answer)
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B. Employees have limited personal responsibility for all tools they use
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C. If a tool crib is used on the site, the employee accepts responsibility for tools
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312. Regarding hand tool inspections which statement is true?

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A. Daily inspection not needed, but periodic inspections satisfy OSHA/company requirements
B. Damaged hand tools may be reissued if damage is considered minor
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C. If a hand tool is damaged or defective, keep it in your tool kit, you may need it
D. Tools must be immediately repaired or made unusable or be disposed of. (correct answer)
313. What is true about Safeguards?
A. The Safeguard must be Secure and tamper-resistant

B. Guards and safety devices should be made of durable material
C. Safeguards should Create no new hazards or interference
314. Regarding Powder Actuated Tools the three basic ppe requirements for operation are:
A. Gloves, high visibility vests, safety glasses

B. Respirators, chemical splash goggles, hearing protection
C. Ear, eye and face protection (correct answer)
D. Steel-toed boots, fall protection, hearing protection
315. Regarding airless spray guns
A. They atomize paints and fluids at pressures of 1,000 pounds or more per square inch
B. Must have safety devices to prevent trigger from being pulled until the safety released
C. Pneumatic tools require eye protection (head, hearing, face protection recommended)
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316. Electric tools must have a three-wire cord with ground, and be plugged into a grounded receptacle, OR:
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A. Be double insulated
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B. Be powered by a low-voltage isolation transformer
C. Be run on direct current
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D. A or B (correct answer)
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317. To provide adequate protection, PPE selected must always be:
A. Hazard-specific
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B. Maintained in good condition

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C. Properly stored when not in use, to prevent damage or loss

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D. Kept clean and sanitary

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318. To prevent hazards associated with the use of power tools:

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A. Bundle tools and then carry by the cord or hose

B. Yank the cord to disconnect it from the receptacle
C. Disconnect tools when not in use (correct answer)
319. To prevent needless injuries with tools employees need to follow basic safety rules. Which of these is included
in the list of basic safety rules
A. Keep all tools in good condition with regular maintenance.

B. Use the right tool for the Job including PPE
C. Examine each tool for damage before use and do not use damaged tools
D. Follow manufacturer's instructions
320. Before allowing a worker to use a chain saw, employers must:
A. Ensure the worker has appropriate knowledge experience and training

B. Provide eye and hearing protection, hardhat/face shield, cut-resistant chaps, boots.
C. Ensure that saws are maintained and chains kept sharp
321. What is the problem with using an impact tool with a mushroomed head?
A. Exposure to fungus and parasites

B. The head might shatter on impact (correct answer)
C. There is no problem
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322. All hand-held gasoline-powered chain saws must be equipped with:
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A. Smooth, slowly rotating chains
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B. Constant pressure switch (correct answer)
C. Kickout/lockout
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D. All of the above
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323. Which of the following safety precaution statements applicable to powder-actuated tools is true:
ct
A. Tool may be used in an explosive or flammable atmosphere
B. Inspect tool before use to make sure it is clean and all moving parts operate freely (correct answer)
er : h :
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C. Some shields, guards, and attachments may be removed as they are cosmetic
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D. Do not leave a loaded tool unattended for more than 15 minutes

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324. After use portable fire extinguishers:

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A. Must be recharged
B. Must be disposed of
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C. Must be recertified
325. If personnel are going to fight fires:
A. A fire protection program must be developed/implemented

B. Firefighting equipment must be provided
C. Training must be provided
326. OSHA hot work requirements include:
A. Move objects to a safe location or use welding blankets

B. Notify the fire department
C. Ensure that a fire watch is available for 30 minutes after the hot work ends
327. Before you begin to fight a fire:
A. Make sure everyone has left, or is leaving building

B. Make sure fire department has been notified
C. Make sure fire is small and you're trained in PFE use
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D. Make sure you have unobstructed escape route
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328. Leading causes of jobsite fires include:
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A. Please select the best answer
B. Easily ignitable flammable materials (e.g. paint)
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C. Easily ignitable combustible materials (e.g. paper and cardboard)
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D. The use of a hot work permit
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E. Both a and b above (correct answer)
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329. In order to properly address job hazards and controls for fire hazards:
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A. The job should be evaluated by qualified and or competent persons. (correct answer)
O o ail d
B. Ask the Plant Manager

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C. Always avoid fire generating activities

D. All of the above
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330. With regards to chemical storage:

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A. Flammable chemicals should not be stored with oxidizers/corrosives

B. Acids and bases must be appropriately segregated in storage
C. All chemicals may be stored in common containment
D. Both a and b above (correct answer)
331. The site emergency response plan should include:
A. Team members, notification numbers, and roles/duties

B. Shutdown procedures and communication procedures
C. Home addresses for responders
332. The PASS approach to firefighting refers to:
A. Pull, act, screen and spray

B. Pull the pin, aim, squeeze and sweep (correct answer)
C. All of the above
333. Housekeeping:
A. Can create extreme hazards with regards to fires

B. Large amounts of combustibles in rooms and buildings can contribute to large fires
C. Keep waste piles in an area from ignition sources
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334. OSHA and NFPA require the use of a hot work permit- why?
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A. The hot work permit is a good check for operations and the fire watch
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B. The hot work permit can minimize the risk of fire
C. The hot work permit requires issuing someone that examines the worksite
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335. When hot work is performed in enclosed spaces:
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A. Shut off gas supply leading to torches outside of enclosed spaces when not in use
B. Remove torch and hose from the enclosed spaces at the end of the shift
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C. Remove hoses from enclosed spaces when disconnected from the torch
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336. Classes of fire extinguishers include:

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A. A, B, C, D and K (correct answer)

B. B, S, E, and R
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C. All fire extinguishers cover all classes

337. When dealing with oxygen cylinders:
A. The use of oil or grease on oxygen valves should be avoided due to flammability (correct answer)
B. Should always be in the color of yellow
C. Must be stored at temperatures less than room temperature
338. Hot work includes:
A. Welding, Grinding and Soldering

B. Flame cutting and brazing
C. Space heaters and other known ignition sources
339. A positioning device system must limit free fall distance to no more than:
A. 2 feet (correct answer)

B. 3 feet
C. 6 feet
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D. 12 feet
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340. The top rail of a guardrail system must be within plus or minus 3 inches of ____ inches in height.
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A. 30
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B. 36
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D. 49: 5 89 a d
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341. A pre-shift visual inspection of cranes must be performed by:
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A. Any worker
B. A visual inspector
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C. A competent person (correct answer)

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342. Connectors working between _____ and _____ feet high must use fall arrest or restraint devices or systems.
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A. 10,15
B. 10,30
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C. 15,30 (correct answer)

D. 20,40
343. Training associated with steel erection activities must include procedures for ________ fall protection
systems. Please select the best answer
A. Identifying, protecting and reporting

B. Erecting, maintaining, disassembling and inspecting (correct answer)
C. Identifying, buying and selling
D. All of the above
344. During steel assembly, the employer shall ensure that the weight of a bundle of joist bridging shall not exceed
a weight of ____ pounds.
A. 500
B. 700
D. 1200
345. Rigging components must have a ____ to 1 safety factor
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
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D. 5 (correct answer)
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346. During steel floor assembly, shear connectors will be installed _____ metal decking is in place.
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A. Before
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B. Never
C. After (correct answer)
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D. Any of the above
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347. In steel erection activities, OSHA identifies components of a site specific erection plan to include:
ct
A. Daily work hour schedules
B. Sequence of erection activity
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C. Description of steel erection activities and procedures

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E. B and C only (correct answer)

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348. When placing solid web members for beams/columns, the load shall not be released until the members are
secured with at least _____ bolts per connector.
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A. 1
C. 5
D. 7
349. For steel assembly there should not be more than _____ stories between the erection floor and the uppermost
permanent floor:
A. 3
C. 11
D. 19
350. A personal fall restraint system consists of:
A. An anchorage point
B. A body harness appropriate to the worker and their equipment
C. A fall protection lanyard
351. In steel erection activities, for crane selection and placement, the site specific erection plan needs to consider:
A. Crane size and capacity

B. Boom length
C. Work crew size
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D. All of the above
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352. Multiple lift rigging or Christmas tree rigging:
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A. Must follow certain criteria for safety of the lift and personnel
B. Can only use manufactured multiple lift rigging assemblies
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C. Can only be done in December
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D. A and B only (correct answer)
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353. All hoisting operations must be pre-planned to ensure that loads are not hoisted over workers:
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A. Whenever specified for the specific site by OSHA

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B. For all hoisting operations (correct answer)

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C. When required by the Safety Manager

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354. Means of access to barges have which of the following requirements

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A. Provision of ramps for vehicles with adequate strength and side rails
B. Provision of hand rails at the top of bulwark of nominal 33 inched in height
C. Must be adequately illuminated for the full length of access
355. Motor vehicles operating on an off-highway jobsite (other than earthmoving equipment)
A. Must have a service brake system and parking brake system

B. Must have rear view access, a backup alarm or an observer for signaling
C. Must have foglamps
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B above (correct answer)
356. When heavy machinery, equipment or parts thereof are held aloft by slings, hoists or jacks
A. Must be blocked or cribbed (correct answer)

B. Are safe for workers to work under or between them
C. Need no special handling
357. Motor vehicles in use
A. Must be equipped with fenders or mud flaps (for rubber tired equipment)
B. Must be inspected prior to use to ensure safe operation
C. Must have defects identified corrected prior to operation
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D. Both A and B
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E. All of A, B and C (correct answer)
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358. The minimum clearance between power lines and any part of a crane or load is
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A. 10 feet for lines rated 50 kV or below
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B. 5 feet for lines rated 50 kV or below
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C. 10 feet plus 0.4 inches for each 1 kV over 50 kV
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E. All of the above
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359. Proper battery use, handling and charging requires

rd ne : s to
A. Appropriate ventilation
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B. The use of personal protective equipment including face shields, aprons and gloves
Ph m se
C. Immediately available eyewash equipment

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360. Earthmoving equipment must be equipped with seat belts and they must be used
Li
A. When the safety manager decides that it is needed

B. When directed by the Site Foreperson
C. On all covered equipment (correct answer)
D. All of the above
361. When working on barges employees are not permitted to:
A. Smoke on deck
B. Maintain and clean the decks
C. Pass fore and aft, over or around deck-loads without safe passage (correct answer)
362. Protection for workers when pile driving include
A. Overhead protection and stop blocks (correct answer)

B. Rubber gloves
C. Medical monitoring
D. All of the above
363. Powered industrial trucks may only be operated by currently certified operators or by a trainee under direct
supervision of a person who:
A. Is not related to them

B. Has the knowledge, training, and experience to train and evaluate their competence (correct answer)
C. Was a former operator
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364. Haulage vehicles (cranes, shovels, loaders, etc.)
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A. Must be painted yellow
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B. Must be owned by the contractor
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C. Must have a cab shield or canopy to protect the operator (correct answer)
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365. For equipment that is left unattended, adjacent to a highway or construction are
ct
A. Must have appropriate lights
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B. Must have appropriate reflectors

C. Must have barricades with lights or reflectors
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D. Any of the above (correct answer)

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366. Bulldozer, scraper blades, end-loader buckets and similar equipment, when being repaired or when not in use
A. Should be left off the ground so as to avoid rust

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B. Should be fully lowered

C. Should be blocked
D. Either B or C (correct answer)
367. Accident prevention tags
A. Must be used temporarily to warn employees of hazards

B. Are seldom required
C. Must not be used in place of accident prevention
D. Both A and C above (correct answer)
E. All of the above
368. When performing site clearing operations
A. Workers need to be protected from toxic plants

B. Consideration must be given to feral animals, insects and homeless people
C. Equipment must be equipped with roll over guards
D. Both A and B above
369. Light hazards may exist when welding which could include:
A. Infrared light (radiation) which may damage skin tissue

B. Ultraviolet light (radiation) which cause severe burns and damage the eyes
C. Visible light (intense) which can damage the eyes
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370. Unless routinely utilized, oxygen and acetylene must be stored:
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A. At least 20 feet apart
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B. Separated by a noncombustible barrier at least five feet height
C. Be stored on an oxygen/acetylene welding rack
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D. Either a or b (correct answer)
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371. When transporting, moving or storing gas cylinders:
ct
A. Make certain that the cylinder cap is in place
B. Always move cylinders in a vertical position
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C. When stored cylinders should be properly chained/secured

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372. The primary hazards related to the handling of gas cylinders used in welding include:
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A. Cylinders are subject to DOT inspection on a periodic basis

B. Heat, fire, or tough handling can detonate gas cylinders with extreme force (correct answer)
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C. Labeling is not required

373. Welding:
A. Is commonly used to join various metal parts

B. Uses high heat to fuse metals in a permanent bond
C. Includes various types of welding dependent on the types of metals and other conditions
374. Other hot work includes the use of arc, plasma and oxy-gas cutters which:
A. Use heat from an arc, ionized gas (plasma) or gases to cut and trim metal (correct answer)
B. Are an alternative to welding
C. Are an alternative to soldering and brazing
375. Prior to welding or hot work the work area should be:
A. Be cleared of flammable and or combustible materials for a 25 foot radius

B. Be cleared of flammable and or combustible materials for a 35 foot radius (correct answer)
C. Be inerted with nitrogen
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D. All of the above
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376. Welding hazards include which of the following?
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A. Fire, explosions, welder's flash, shock and noise
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B. Radiation and burns
C. Exposure to lead, fumes, gases and other respiratory contaminants
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377. The most significant hazard(s) when welding in confined spaces is/are:
ct
A. A build up of fumes, gases and heat
B. Oxygen deficiency due to carbon dioxide generation
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C. The darkness in the confined space

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378. Types of ventilation for welding/hot work include:

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A. Natural ventilation, mechanical local exhaust ventilation, forced ventilation

B. Use of an air-purifying respirator
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C. General air mechanical ventilation

379. Welding, cutting and brazing should only occur when authorized by a:
A. Confined Space Entry Permit

B. Safe Driver's Permit
C. Hot Work Permit (correct answer)
380. Welding includes:
A. Directly fusing two pieces of metal

B. Using additional metal to make the weld
C. Both a and b above (correct answer)
381. Welding, cutting or heating of metals coated with lead-bearing paint can create harmful lead fumes. What is
one preventive action to take to reduce the hazard?
A. Flush the area with cold water

B. Strip paint back at least 4 inches from the area of heat application (correct answer)
C. Use the special bead-laying technique
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D. All of the above
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382. For arc welding and cutting:
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A. Never use damaged cables (correct answer)
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B. Utilize electrical tape to fix damaged cables
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C. Double ground the equipment until it can be repaired
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D. All of the above
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383. Soldering and brazing:
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A. Are the same as welding
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B. Differ in that the metal added is the only metal melted (correct answer)
C. Are used predominantly to attach heavy steel to steel
O o ail d

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384. Communications system equipment to be used in confined spaces may include which of the following?
A. Hand signals, walkie talkies, radios, and pagers (correct answer)

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B. Satellite phones
C. Photo ion detectors
D. All of the above
385. Which of the following might be a found in a permit space?
A. Hazardous atmosphere
B. Engulfment hazard
C. Obstacles that interfere with any attempt to exit the space
D. Both A and B
E. All three, A, B, and C (correct answer)
386. A hazardous atmosphere may be detected by:
A. Specially trained dogs

B. Supervisors only
C. Entrants only
D. Any member of the CSE team (correct answer)
387. For occupancy of a confined space, when must hazard evaluation tests be conducted?
A. Before entry
B. During occupancy
C. Within 30 minutes after exit
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E. All three, A, B, and C
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388. The CSE attendant remains outside the space until:
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A. The end of shift
B. Relieved by another attendant (correct answer)
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C. Nightfall
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D. All of the above
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389. Before work begins, the competent person:
A. Contacts OSHA
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B. Identifies all confined spaces where employees may work (correct answer)
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C. Flushes the confined spaces

Ph m se
D. All of the above

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390. A confined space rescue team may consist of:
A. Outside contractor
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B. Internal team
C. Community fire and rescue emergency responders
391. Each year, how many confined space deaths and injuries occur?
A. None or very few

B. About ten
C. Hundreds (correct answer)
D. About four million
392. Controls for a confined space physical hazard may include blanking, double block and bleed, and
____________________.
A. Lineout and backup

B. Lockout and tagout (correct answer)
C. Double hook and ladder
393. PPE should be considered for use before using engineering or work practice controls.
A. True
B. False (correct answer)
394. What two inert gases are often used to purge flammable or explosive vapors from a confined space?
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A. Pure oxygen or hydrogen
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B. Carbon dioxide or nitrogen (correct answer)
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C. Hydrogen sulfide or carbon gas
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er
395. Which of the following is an example of a confined space?
: 5 89 a d
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A. Pipeline
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B. Sewer
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C. Manhole
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396. The attendant:

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A. Has a vital role

B. Must be trained
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C. Must recognize possible effects of exposure

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397. According to OSHA standards in Subpart AA, 1926.1204, when must a written permit space program be made
available to employees or their representatives?
A. Prior to operations (correct answer)

B. Only after operations have ceased
C. After submittal to OSHA
D. When authorized by OSHA
398. Permit-required confined space work is potentially hazardous:
A. Usually
B. Never
C. At times
D. Always (correct answer)
399. Which of the following is a reason why a confined space permit is required ?
A. Sometimes the boss demands it

B. Provides a checklist that outlines the steps that need to be followed
C. Authorizes entrance into a confined space
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D. Both and (correct answer)
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400. What is an employer required to do when a permit space is present at a worksite, even though employees do
31
16 3- hn Co
not need to enter the space?
A. Notify OSHA of the employees' presence
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: 5 89 a d
B. Take steps to prevent employees from entering the space (correct answer)
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C. Test for atmospheric hazards
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D. Both A and B
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401. The entrant should notify the attendant whenever the entrant:
O o ail d
A. Recognizes warning sign of exposure

Ph m se
B. Detects a prohibited condition

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C. Sees someone becomes confused or lose control

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402. Why are confined space accidents rarely preventable?
A. Confined spaces usually comprise a large part of the jobsite

B. Confined spaces always involve complicated situations
C. Actually, confined space accidents are mostly preventable (correct answer)
D. Both A and B
403. Which of the following should be considered when choosing a communications system?
A. Lighting (correct answer)

B. Cost
C. Confusion
D. Training
404. Employer-approved rescue services must be informed of hazards in advance by:
A. CSE entrants
B. OSHA
C. Email
D. The employer (correct answer)
405. A permit-required confined space will often have which of the following hazards?
A. Exposure to high volumes of traffic

B. Hazardous atmosphere (correct answer)
C. Rough walls and floors
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D. All three A, B, andC
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406. A confined space entry permit is:
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A. Mandated by OSHA
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B. A safety tool
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C. A checklist that identifies hazards with protective measures
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D. Both A and B
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E. E. All three, A, B, and C (correct answer)
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407. The key distinction between supplied-air and air-purifying respirators is:
rd ne : s to
A. One supplies air with oxygen, the other filters out contaminants (correct answer)
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B. One supplies oxygen, the other removes it

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C. One is approved by OSHA, the other is not

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408. CSE permit equipment includes:

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A. Air testing and monitoring equipment

B. Ventilation and lighting
C. Appropriate PPE
409. In a confined space, hot work may be performed, but __________________.
A. Requires a special permit (correct answer)

B. Does not require a special permit
C. Is restricted to cool areas only
410. The attendant may leave the opening of the confined space:
A. To use the restroom

B. To perform other duties
C. In order to accept a cell phone call
D. Only when relieved by another attendant (correct answer)
411. The attendant may leave the opening of the confined space:
A. They need to use the restroom

B. They need to perform other duties
C. In order to accept a cell phone call
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D. Only when relieved by another attendant (correct answer)
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412. Additional training is required whenever there is evidence that permit space entry procedures have changed.
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B. False
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413. Which of the following is an employer responsibility with regard to training employees?
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A. Training records must be submitted to OSHA within 30 days of completion
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B. Training records must be available to employees during their employment (correct answer)
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C. Training is optional, but highly recommended
D. Both A and B
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414. Which of the following is a specific element included in a confined space permit?
Ph m se
A. Supervisor experience, in years

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B. Testing requirements (correct answer)

C. Name of OSHA representative
D. All of the above
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415. The list of hazards to assess prior to entry into a confined space includes:
A. Air contamination
B. Engulfment
C. Stored energy
D. Temperature extremes
416. Excavations involving vapors and storage tanks are examples of a permit-required confined space because
both have ____________________.
A. The potential for claustrophobia

B. The potential for animal infestation
C. The potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere (correct answer)
D. No potential hazard
417. Which of the following is true about confined spaces?
A. Large enough to perform work with restricted entry or exit

B. Not designed for ongoing occupancy
C. Weather proof
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418. For confined space operations, off-site emergency rescue services:
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A. May not be used at any time
B. May be used but are not required to respond quickly
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C. May be used if qualified and trained (correct answer)
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419. What does blanking mean?
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A. Erasing evidence of any hazard
B. Disconnecting or capping lines that may empty into the permit space (correct answer)
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C. Forgetfulness resulting from exposure to a confined space

O o ail d

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420. When may the attendant enter a confined space?

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A. Only after it has been blanked

B. When the entrant is having a problem
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C. When it appears that there are no hazards present

421. Who is required to provide an entry permit for a permit-required confined space?
A. Competent person
B. Employee representative
C. Employer (correct answer)
D. OSHA
422. Who may enter a permit space?
A. In the case of an emergency, anyone in the area

B. Those authorized by the entry supervisor (correct answer)
C. If it's a permitted confined space, anyone physically able may enter
D. Both A and B
423. The confined space permit is:
A. A way to guarantee the safety of every worker

B. An authorization and a checklist to identify hazards and precautions (correct answer)
C. Only needed if hot work is required
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D. All of the above
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424. The term IDLH refers to:
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A. Immediately dangerous to life or health values (issued by NIOSH)
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B. Exposure that may cause irreversible, adverse health effects
C. A dangerous atmosphere that may impair an individual's ability to escape
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425. Changing conditions in a permit-required confined space may require:
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A. A new permit
B. Reclassification as a non-permit space
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C. Reclassification for new conditions

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426. Monitoring equipment in confined spaces must measure which of the following hazards?
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A. Vibration
B. Oxygen, flammable gases and vapors, toxic and other air contaminants (correct answer)
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C. Smell
D. Size
E. All of the above
427. The confined space entry team includes which of the following?
A. Entry supervisor, entrant and attendant

B. OSHA inspector
C. Emergency response personnel
D. All of the above
428. Even if an employee is not part of a CSE team, the employee may enter a confined space on some occasions.
When?
A. When it is apparent that something is wrong in the space

B. When the employee has previous experience on a CSE team
429. The CSE supervisor must:
A. Be an actual supervisor or manager

B. Be a salaried employee
C. Be on site at all times
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D. Authorize and sign the entry permit (correct answer)
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E. All of the above
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430. Even though the employer is responsible for providing confined space training, the cost of the training is paid
.
by the employee.
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A. True
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B. False (correct answer)
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431. An employer must ensure the following for entry into a permit space:
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A. Air space coordination
B. Informed "time over flammability"
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C. Safe methods for entering and exiting the space (correct answer)
D. All of the above
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432. Which of the following is considered a confined space hazard?

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A. Entrapment or engulfment
B. Fire or explosion
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C. Starvation
433. Which of the following is required before entering a confined space?
A. Water testing
B. Atmospheric testing (correct answer)
C. Soil testing
D. All of the above
434. To safely use air monitoring equipment in a confined space, an operator must ________________.
A. Be in the safest part of the confined space

B. Be OSHA trained and certified
C. Absolutely guarantees entrant safety (correct answer)
D. Use instinctual senses
E. All of the above
435. A permit does each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Lists confined space hazards

B. Establishes conditions for safe entry
C. Absolutely guarantees entrant safety (correct answer)
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D. Establishes rescue procedures
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436. Each person serving as an attendant must be listed on the confined space permit.
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B. False
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437. Each member of the confined space emergency rescue team must practice emergency skills:
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A. Daily
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B. As needed
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C. No more than once annually
D. At least annually (correct answer)
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438. Excavations with sloughing walls, grain silos, and trenches are examples of permitrequired confined spaces
O o ail d
because each contains materials that:

Ph m se
A. May have a bad odor

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B. Have the potential for caving-in or engulfment (correct answer)

C. May involve quicksand
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439. What is required when a confined space job is completed?
A. Secure space, cover plates, and doors (correct answer)

B. Leave flagging and barriers in place
C. Disband the CSE team permanently
D. Conduct a site visit regularly
440. Which of the following is true for a CSE entrant?
A. Enters confined space and must be trained in CSE (correct answer)

B. May only leave the space when relieved
C. Maintains a written account of other entrants
D. Leaves only with supervisor permission even if hazard arises
441. Which of the following is a requirement prior to entry into a permit space?
A. Atmospheric test for flammable gases and vapors

B. Atmospheric test for oxygen
C. Elimination of any hazard making it unsafe to remove an entrance cover
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D. Both A and B
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E. All three, A, B, and C (correct answer)
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442. Aside from chemical, oxygen, and entrapment hazards, confined spaces may be hazardous due to:
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A. Stored energy hazards
B. Noise/temperature hazards
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C. Animal hazards
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443. If self-evacuation of an entrant is not possible, the attendant should:
A. Call for help

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B. Use an extraction device (correct answer)

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C. Enter the confined space to size up situation

Ph m se
D. Do nothing
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444. Which of the following is a duty of the CSE supervisor?
A. Remains outside space at all times

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B. Ensures safe entry conditions are met and completes/signs entry permit
C. Coordinates rescue services
D. B and C (correct answer)
445. PPE protects the:
A. Head
B. Respiratory System
C. Feet
446. Confined spaces are dangerous because:
A. They can appear deceptively harmless

B. Gases and vapors may not be seen or smelled
C. In an emergency, exiting quickly may be difficult
447. In addition to posting danger signs on a permit space, an employer must inform employee representatives and
the controlling contractor of the locations of any permit space.

B. False
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448. An example of a confined space structure in which someone can become trapped or suffocate is:
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A. A storage tank with inward-sloping walls (correct answer)
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B. A building with many floors
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C. An open excavation
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D. All of the above
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449. A permit-required confined space may have an interior shape that could:
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A. Cause shingles
ct
B. Trap or asphyxiate (correct answer)
C. Keep an entrant awake
er : h :
rd ne : s to

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450. Confined space entrants may exit a space when approved by the CSE supervisor. However, they must exit a
Ph m se
space whenever:
A. There are no warning signs or symptoms of exposure

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B. They detect prohibited conditions (correct answer)

C. Work is nearly completed
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D. All is normal
451. Testing for the presence of oxygen is important for any confined space. The concentration of oxygen in a
confined space should be:
A. Between 15% and 25%, ideally 15.5%

B. As high as possible
C. Between 19.5% and 23.5%, ideally 21% (correct answer)
452. Authorizes entrance into a confined space
A. Hazards in the confined space

B. Emergency rescue procedures
C. Equipment, humidity, and other contractors in the area
453. A confined space:
A. Has limited means of access and exit

B. Is large enough to allow entry
C. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy
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D. Occurs only below ground
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E. A, B, and C above (correct answer)
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454. A confined space:
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A. Is large enough to allow entry
B. Has limited access and egress
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C. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy
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D. Occurs only below ground
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E. All of a, b and c above (correct answer)
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455. Bleeding, ventilation, and flushing are all examples of:
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A. Medical safeguards
O o ail d
B. Confined space hazard controls (correct answer)

Ph m se
C. Confined space emergencies

D. Compressed space protocols
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456. Emergency rescue personnel for confined spaces may:

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A. Be an internal group of personnel that are appropriately trained

B. Be an external group with previous arrangements
C. Not be required for permit confined space entry
457. An employer must provide the opportunity for anyone affected by a permit space to observe monitoring of the
permit space.

B. False
458. Most back disorders caused by _________.
A. An acute short term injury

B. Chronic exposures or long term injury (correct answer)
C. Osteoporosis
459. Which statement below is accurate for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) controls?
A. Should be considered only after engineering and / or administrative controls (correct answer)
B. Are always the best control strategy
C. Are always the most cost effective and long lasting
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D. All of the above
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460. This illness / injury occurs when the blood vessels of the hand are damaged as a result of repeated exposure
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to vibration for long periods of time?
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A. Raynaud's Syndrome
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B. "White Fingers"
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C. Jacksons Disease
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D. Trigger finger
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E. Both A and B (correct answer)
ct
461. Musculoskeletal injuries currently account for about _____ of all occupational injuries and illnesses reported
to the BLS.
er : h :
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A. 10%
O o ail d
B. One quarter
Ph m se
C. One third (correct answer)

E- cen
D. Very few
462. You have an increased risk ergonomic related injury/illness if you often:
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A. Carry heavy loads, work on your knees and twist your hands or wrists (correct answer)
B. Usually work at chest level
C. Use well designed tools
D. All of the above
463. Body movement where "energy is exerted to cause movement"?
A. Motion
B. Force (correct answer)
C. Kinetics
464. Which statement below is most accurate when discussing awkward postures?
A. Are created by the loss of calcium in the body

B. Can always be prevented by the use of back belts
C. Create stress and fatigue on the musculo-skeletal system (correct answer)
D. All of the above
465. Effects of Ergonomic Injuries may include:
A. Pain, Aches, Numbness, Tingling

B. Restricted movement
C. Both of the above (correct answer)
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466. These type controls include designing work stations, tools, and equipment to minimize repetition, forces and
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posture problems.
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A. Engineering Control (correct answer)
B. Administrative Control
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C. MSD Work Practice control
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D. Personal Protective Equipment Control
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467. Workers who must do which of the following are at greatest risk from experiencing work related
musculoskeletal disorders?
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A. Lift, stoop and kneel

B. Twist, grip and stretch
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Ph m se
C. Reach overhead
D. Work in other awkward positions
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468. Good ergonomics attempts to ___________.
A. Fit or adapt the job to the worker (correct answer)

B. Force the worker to fit the job
C. Shorten the workday so employees can leave when the work is done
469. Which statement below is most accurate when discussing awkward postures?
A. Are created by the loss of calcium in the body

B. Can always be prevented by the use of back belts
C. Create stress and fatigue on the musculo-skeletal system (correct answer)
D. All of the above
470. Breaking up the work schedule to minimize repetitive tasks, which involves doing different things with
different muscles is an example of what type of control?
A. Engineering Control
B. Administrative Control (correct answer)
C. MSD Work Practice control
D. Personal Protective Equipment Control
471. Back disorders are frequently caused by the cumulative effects of faulty body mechanics such as which of the
following?
A. Excessive twisting
B. Bending and reaching
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C. Carrying, moving, or lifting loads that are too heavy or off-balance
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E. A and B only
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472. Ergonomic-related disorders principally include which of the following?
A. Musculoskeletal Disorders (MSDs)
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B. Cumulative Trauma Disorders
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C. Repetitive Motion Injuries
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D. Back injuries and strains / sprains
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473. Many factors play a role in ergonomics. Which of the following is most correct?
O o ail d
A. Body posture
Ph m se
B. Movement
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C. Environmental factors
D. Athletes generally don't need to improve their ergonomics
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474. The scheduling of maintenance and other high exposure operations for times when few workers are present
(such as evenings, weekends) is an example of:
A. Engineering controls
B. Hazard elimination
C. Administrative control (correct answer)
D. PPE
475. Federal OSHA requires contractors to initiate and maintain safety and health programs to ensure a safe and
healthful place of employment.
A. Federal OSHA does not have this authority

B. for state funded contracts only.
C. for governmental agencies only.
476. JHA is an acronym for which of the following
A. Justified Health Assessment

B. Joint Hazard Assessment
C. Job Hazard Analysis (correct answer)
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D. Any of the above
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477. Necessary training topics for employees include the workplace plan in case of a fire or other emergency,
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general site hazards and hazards unique to a workers activity, when and where PPE is required and:
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A. Company budgeting techniques
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B. Chemicals used in the workplace (correct answer)
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C. Operational readiness factors
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D. All of the above
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478. Safety and health programs require which of the following?
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A. Frequent and regular inspections and training

B. Prohibiting the use of unsafe machinery, tools, materials, or equipment
O o ail d
C. Provision of personal protective equipment (PPE) to ensure safety at the jobsite

Ph m se

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479. Hierarchy of controls for hazard mitigation follow a determined sequence for maximum effectiveness. After
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elimination and substitution, which sequence below should be followed?
A. Engineering Controls first, PPE, Administrative/Work Practice Controls

B. Use PPE first following by Administrative/Work Practice Controls
C. Engineering controls are not required on construction sites
D. Engineering controls, Administrative/Work Practice Controls, PPE (correct answer)
480. An effective safety and health program will investigate which of the following incidents to uncover the "root
cause"?
A. First aid cases and serious injury incidents

B. Petty theft
C. Near miss incidents
481. Which of the following are desirable characteristics of an effective Safety and Health Program?
A. Start with rules and end with policy statement

B. In writing and identify the responsible person(s) for implementing the program (correct answer)
C. Reviewed every 3 years by a registered PE
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D. All of the above
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482. An effective occupational safety and health program will include which of the following elements?
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A. Management commitment and employee involvement
B. Worksite analysis
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C. Hazard prevention and control
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D. Safety and health training
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E. All of the above. (correct answer)
ct
483. Complexity of training depends on which of the following?
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A. The number of standards that apply

O o ail d
B. Characteristics of the hazards and potential hazards at the site (correct answer)
Ph m se
C. The training budget

D. All of the above
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E. Both A and B
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484. Training for Employees, Supervisors and Managers should include which of the following?
A. Training on specific safe work practices before an employee begins work

B. Safety training within 30 days of starting the job
C. Safety and health training for new work processes
D. Safety and health training when accidents and near misses occur
E. All except B above. (correct answer)
485. OSHA recommends that top management be involved in implementing the safety and health program so that
____________.
A. They can better avoid an OSHA citation

B. They can ensure money is being spent appropriately
C. Employees understand that management's commitment is serious (correct answer)
486. In an effective safety and health program, management regards worker safety and health as which of the
following?
A. An overhead expense that is a wasteful part of doing business

B. A fundamental value of the organization (correct answer)
C. An impedance to business
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487. Who should be held accountable for meeting safety and health program responsibilities in the workplace?
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A. Employees, supervisors and managers (correct answer)
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B. Employees and Supervisors
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C. Supervisors and Managers
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488. What is good source of information on your state's Safety and Health Program requirements?
ct
A. The local health department
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B. OSHA Consultation (correct answer)

C. The IRS
O o ail d
D. All of the above

Ph m se
E- cen
489. An event that is unplanned undesired and results in personal injury, property damage or an impact to the
environment.
A. Incident
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B. Accident (correct answer)

C. Injury
D. Illness
490. A positive safety culture is the result of which of the following?
A. Management and employee attitude

B. Policies and procedures
C. Supervisory responsibility and accountability
D. Safety planning
491. In the workplace, regulatory liability exists in the form of:
A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. State OSHA programs, Local, City and County ordinances
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492. As a supervisor, you are responsible for:
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16 3- hn Co
A. Expectations of the corporation
B. Regulatory liability
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C. Personal liability
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D. Taking little short-cuts to bring the project in on time.
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E. A, B and C above (correct answer)
ct
493. Who is legally responsible for the safety and health of employees on a work team?
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A. OSHA inspector
O o ail d
B. Building inspector
Ph m se
C. Union representative
D. The supervisor (correct answer)
E- cen
494. If you cannot fix a serious hazard immediately, you should:

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A. Complain to management
B. Hide it
C. Prevent employee exposure
D. Communicate the hazard to the crew and subs, use signs and barricades
E. Both C and D (correct answer)
495. Cold Stress, heat stress, vibration, ionizing radiation, noise and laser hazards are examples of what category
of hazard?
A. Physical safety hazards

B. Physical health hazards (correct answer)
C. Biological hazards
D. Ergonomic type hazards
496. OSHA citations must be posted where?
A. On the windshield of the field truck

B. At or near the work area involved (correct answer)
C. Inside the supervisors work truck
D. None of the above is applicable.
497. Accident investigation should be which of the following?
A. Fact finding (correct answer)

B. Fault finding
C. Both fact and fault finding
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498. Which of the following would be a way to protect yourself from liability?
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A. Follow all company policies
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B. Control all potentially serious and non serious hazards immediately
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C. Notify higher up managers of hazardous situations
: 5 89 a d
D. Ensure employees are trained properly
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499. The expectations of a corporation usually include:
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A. Following only those corporate health and safety policies that do not cost money
B. Protecting the project budget at any and all cost
O o ail d
C. Notifying managers of hazardous situations (correct answer)

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D. Taking little short cuts are most often no big deal when it comes to safety
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500. Back disorders, strains and sprains, and carpal tunnel syndrome are examples of what type injury?
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A. Chemical exposures
B. Ergonomic related injuries (correct answer)
C. Biological hazards
501. Tools used to communicate and warn employees of potential hazards include which of the following?
A. Cablegrams and memos

B. Radios, phones and Ipads
C. Color codes, posters, labels and signs (correct answer)
D. All of the above
502. The employer is required to report to the nearest OSHA office within __ any fatalaccident or one that results in
the hospitalization of three or more employees.
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours (correct answer)
C. 24 hours
D. 40 hours
503. Employees have the right of access to which of the following?
A. The exposure records for all employees on the project

B. Their own employee medical and exposure records (correct answer)
C. The medical records for all employees on the project
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504. An explanation of the project safety requirements and "zero tolerance" details should take place when?
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A. These details not required by OSHA so they realy don't need to be explained
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B. These details should be part of the offer letter
C. Within 30 days after the start of the project when things have slowed down
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D. During initial and periodic safety training (correct answer)
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505. A thorough look around the jobsite for unsafe conditions, behaviors, equipment, and processes is an example
of which of the following?
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A. Harm Evaluation
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B. Risk Assessment (correct answer)

C. Injury categorization process
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506. Recognizing safe behaviors on a project ______________.
A. Is required by OSHA regulation

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B. Is an effective tool to promote safety and improve the safety culture (correct answer)
C. Not recommended as studies have shown recognition programs to be ineffective
E. All of the above
507. One way to mitigate risk is with a thorough risk assessment of the jobsite for unsafe ___________.
A. Conditions, behaviors, equipment and processes

B. Work methods
C. Supervisors
508. A risk is:
A. A combination of hazard and probability (correct answer)

B. Never preventable
C. Both of the above
509. OSHA's "General Duty Clause" requires _______________ a safe work environment free from recognized
hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees.
A. Property owners to maintain

B. OSHA to maintain
C. Employers to maintain (correct answer)
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D. Employees to maintain
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E. All of the above
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510. Successful safety leaders generally possess which of the following characteristics?
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A. Stubborn personality
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B. Advanced college degree
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C. Good communication skills, vision and passion (correct answer)
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D. Ability to consistently beat budget
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E. All of the above
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511. A key element in recognizing and preventing unsafe behaviors is understanding which of the following?
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A. The environmental code for the project

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B. All of OSHA's construction regulations

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C. How you personally perceive risk (correct answer)

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512. Managing risk effectively is dependent on following a simple, 5 step process. These 5 steps include which of
the following?
A. Inspect, arrange, pursue, manage, report

B. Identify, assess, evaluate, implement and measure (correct answer)
C. Accumulate, inform, report, follow-up
D. Report and find fault
E. All of the above
513. The requirement that "each employee shall comply with occupational safety and health standards and all
rules, regulations, and orders issued pursuant to this Act which are applicable to his own actions and
conduct" comes from what?
A. The Presidential Order

B. OSHA's General Duty Clause (correct answer)
C. International Labor Referendumq
D. All of the above
514. Employees can make an impact in promoting safety on the jobsite by which of the following?
A. Participate in safety committees

B. Develop new safety programs
C. Provide feedback on areas for improvement
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D. Removing safety devices that slow the job down
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515. Our "safety paradigms" can be a result of
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A. Our previous teachings
B. Our coaching and training
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C. Our experiences
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516. Which of the following make up OSHA's Focus Four, highest risk hazards?
A. Falls, flying rocks, nail guns, lifting

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B. Electrocution, chemical exposures, heat illness, noise

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C. Falls, electrocution, struck-by, caught between (correct answer)

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D. Heat illness, radiation, motor vehicle, lifting

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517. Negative motivators that can cause us to make poor safety decisions may include which of the following?
A. Peer pressure and macho attitudes

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B. Good safety training and toolbox meetings

C. Jobsite pressures
D. Taunting by co-workers
E. All except answer B (correct answer)
518. OSHA's "General Duty Clause" requires __________ to comply with occupational safety and health standarts
and rules, regulations and orders issued pursuant to the OSH Act
A. Property owners
B. OSHA
C. Employers only
D. Employees (correct answer)
E. All of the above
519. You can get valuable information from benchmarking with which of the following organizations?
A. Competitors
B. Trade organizations and unions
C. Government agencies (e.g. Fed & State OSHA, WORKSAFE BC)
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D. Safety and Industrial Hygiene Consultants
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520. Some forward thinking companies have created safety cultures that ___________________.
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A. Don't accept injuries as a cost of doing business
B. Are based in the belief that every injury and incident is preventable.
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C. Believe that incentive programs always result in the best safety outcome.
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521. To change a stagnant or poor construction safety culture is likely to involve positive role models, coaches and
mentors, standardized and effective training programs and:
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A. Draconian discipline programs

B. Generous incentives for not having any accidents
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C. Safe work procedures (correct answer)

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D. All of the above

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522. Effective safety training should:

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A. Include feedback mechanisms for employees

B. Address the needs of employees
523. Most safety professionals agree that the most critical element in the prevention of injuries and incidents is
_________________.
A. How much money is available for personal protective equipment

B. The support of management (correct answer)
C. Frequent OSHA inspections
524. When establishing an injury free culture one must understand that Injuries and incidents are not accepted as a
cost of doing business, but are, in fact preventable. A key requirement requires:
A. Employees to be engaged through holistic safety systems (correct answer)

B. A rigorous punishment policy for violators
C. A drug testing program equal to DOT requirements
525. Which of the statements below is true?
A. Most worker fatalities occur on the job

B. 9 out of 10 worker deaths occurred off the job (correct answer)
C. Worker fatalities occur about 50% at home and 50% on the job
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526. Coaching and mentoring:
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A. Requires giving positive coaching as needed or requested
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B. Requests solicitation of feedback
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527. The National Safety Council estimates that every hour:
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A. 15 people will die due to injuries every hour
B. 4,440 people will require medical treatment every hour for injury
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D. Both A and B are correct (correct answer)

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528. In order to change the safety culture we need positive role models, coaches and mentors, safe practices and:
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A. OSHA inspections
B. Standardized training requirements (correct answer)
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C. Shortcuts to success
529. Which of the following must be a top priority with respect to new workers?
A. It is important to train, coach and mentor positive safety behaviors (correct answer)
B. Make sure they do exactly what you tell them
C. Ensure they bring their own tools to the job
D. All of the above
530. The statement "Taking the time to educate your family in safety will pay huge dividends down the road!"
means ________.
A. It's important to you and your family to learn & practice safety at home, work and play (correct answer)
B. Safety education is expensive
C. There is no association between workplace safety and off the job safety
531. These types of Injuries & Incidents must be investigated and analyzed to determine root cause and prevention
strategies.
A. Amputations
B. Burns and disfiguring incidents
C. All injuries and incidents (correct answer)
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532. Although workplace safety is the employers responsibility, safety leadership is not only a management
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function, but a basic humanistic principal that shows you care and _______________.
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A. Are willing to make a difference (correct answer)
B. Take care of yourself at your fellow employees expense
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C. Should stay quiet when you recognize a hazard
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533. It is important to remember that OSHA regulations are ___________________.
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A. The maximum standards an employer can adopt

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B. The minimum standards an employer must comply with (correct answer)

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C. Super expensive to comply with and cutting corners to save costs is important
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534. When should energized electrical work be considered?
A. When feasible alternatives are not available

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B. When testing and trouble-shooting when absolutely necessary

C. When financial reasons force it
D. All of the above
E. Both a and b (correct answer)
535. A flash hazard analysis:
A. Is a complex process
B. Is only required for very high voltages
C. Requires specialized training and education
E. Both A and C above (correct answer)
536. In order to work on energized electrical equipment you must be:
A. An electrical engineer
B. A supervisor
C. A qualified person (correct answer)
D. All of the above
537. Molten metal droplets from an ARC flash:
A. Are caused by methyl hydrates

B. Can be as hot as 35,000 degrees (correct answer)
C. Are mostly harmless due to their small size
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D. All of the above
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538. General electrical safety includes:
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A. Never reaching blindly into areas with energized conductors
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B. Using rubber handled tools with exposed steel shafts
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C. Ensuring that adequate lighting is available
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D. Both A and C(correct answer)
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539. What best describes the training required under NFPA 70E?
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A. Will be in classroom and on the job

B. Must cover safe work practices and procedures for specific jobs or tasks (correct answer)
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540. Arc flash hazards include:
A. A low pressure wave with forces of about 200 lbs/square ft

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B. A high pressure wave with forces above 2,000 lbs/square ft & noise of 140 decibels (correct answer)
C. Possible earthquake
D. All of the above
541. What is required in order to cross the Limited Approach Boundary and the Restricted Boundary?
A. Supervisor authorization
B. A confined space permit
C. Qualified Person status for Limited/Qualified Person and PPE for shock for Restricted (correct answer)
542. A qualified person must have:
A. Skills, experience and knowledge critical for effective hazard training

B. Training meeting the needs and requirements of the tasks performed
C. Ability to recognize all electrical hazards in the workplace
E. A and B only
543. What best describes an arc flash?
A. Sudden release of electrical energy

B. A release of heat and light, temperatures as high as 35,000 degrees
C. Creation of a blast effect due to heating of air
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E. A and C only
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544. Voltage rated gloves must be inspected prior to use and tested and certified every:
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A. 30 days
B. 12 months
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C. 6 months (correct answer)
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D. Never
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545. Prior to electrical hot work:
A. The electrical utility must be contacted

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B. Power must be shut down at the nearest substation

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C. Energy sources controls must be discussed (LOTO) (correct answer)

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D. All of the above

E. A and C only
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546. The three types of shock boundaries are:

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A. Limited, structured & restricted

B. Structured, restricted & common
C. Limited, restricted & prohibited (correct answer)
D. Common, prohibited & special
547. Warning labels on electrical equipment must specify:
A. Arc flash boundaries, shock hazard boundaries and type of PPE that must be used. (correct answer)
B. Tables for emergency exit times
C. Ozone levels in the vicinity
D. All of the above
548. Pre-work for electrical work includes
A. Engineering inspection for structural stability.

B. Examination of as-built drawings for the installation.
C. Electrical hazard analysis, flash hazard analysis and shock hazard analysis. (correct answer)
D. All of the above
549. Something that can cause injury or illness in people, or damage to property through a practice, behavior,
condition or situation, or a combination of these is called a:
A. Risk
B. Serious condition
C. Hazard (correct answer)
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D. Poor work practice
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550. Which below cause the greatest number of workplace fatalities in the construction industry?
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A. Struck-By
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B. Falls (correct answer)
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C. Caught-In/Between
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D. Electrocutions
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E. All the above cause an equal amount of workplace fatalities
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551. Hazards can be divided into two major group types. These are?
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A. Biological and Physical

B. Health and Safety (correct answer)
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C. Construction and General industry

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552. The accident investigation process generally follows what sequence?

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A. Notify appropriate people, report, investigate, secure the scene

B. Secure the scene, report, notify people, investigate
C. Secure the scene, Notify the appropriate people, Investigate, Report (correct answer)
D. The sequence does not really matter at all.
553. Typical workplace records to examine to aid in hazard recognition include which of the following?
A. Financial reports
B. Incident reports and worker's compensation claims
C. Inspection reports
D. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
E. B, C and D above (correct answer)
554. Which of the items below may require testing and metering to better understand a hazard or potential hazard?
A. Chemical hazards
B. Electrical hazards
C. Soils evaluation
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D. Noise
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555. Workplace _________ is a regular and common method of recognizing hazards.
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A. Organization
B. Cleanliness
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C. Inspection (correct answer)
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D. All of the above
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556. In general there are Four Steps to Effective Investigations. These include: Secure and manage the scene;
Notify the appropriate people; Investigate and:
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A. Minimize
B. Substitute
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C. Report (correct answer)

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E. A and B above
557. One common hazard recognition tool is the use of ______:

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A. Guardrails
B. Investigations (correct answer)
C. Lawsuits
558. What is the most effective means of hazard mitigation or control?
A. Elimination (correct answer)

B. Substitution
C. Engineering
D. Work practice
E. PPE
559. Five steps for making sure hazards are recognized in your workplace include setting standards,
communicating, training, evaluating and follow-up and:
A. Avoid confrontation
B. Punish offenders
C. Acknowledge success and make improvements (correct answer)
560. Which below are steps in effective inspections?
A. Always use experts with degrees in safety

B. Ensure you have funding for the inspection then gather your inspection team
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C. Establish procedures, prepare, conduct, report findings, follow-up (correct answer)
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D. Don appropriate PPE, read Safety Data Sheet, conduct inspection
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561. What is the point of preventive maintenance?
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A. Comply with OSHA regulations
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B. Save money
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C. Get the work done before repairs or replacement is needed (correct answer)
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562. The information gained from examining records can be used to:
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A. identify injuries and illnesses and trends

B. measure the effectiveness of your health and safety program
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C. raise awareness and support decisions affecting health and safety

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D. help to make recommendations and priorities

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563. A test often conducted to initially identify and evaluate potential worker safety and health risks is:
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A. Mobilization survey
B. Baseline survey (correct answer)
C. Mechanical test
564. The general duty clause imposes requirements on:
A. Employers only
B. Employees only
C. Employers and Employees (correct answer)
565. OSHA applies to employees as well as employers. Employees:
A. Must comply with all OSHA standards and rules

B. Are encouraged but not required to comply with OSHA requirements
C. Can be held accountable for not complying with established requirements
566. "To furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized
hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees" is a statement
from:
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. The "General Duty Clause", Section 5 of Federal OSHA requirements (correct answer)
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C. The National Labor Relations Board motto
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567. What is the definition of a near miss?
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A. Something narrowly avoided; a lucky escape (correct answer)
B. Something avoided as a consequence of my actions
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C. Something avoided as a result of training
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568. Who is responsible for your safety?
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A. The Safety Manager

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B. Your Supervisor
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C. The Owner of the Company

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D. Everyone, especially yourself (you) (correct answer)

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569. To have the best chance at being effective, training must:
A. Address needs of employees and explain Safety Requirements

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B. Require testing and solicit feedback from trainees

570. What are the most commonly used terms to describe the "cause" of incidents & injuries?
A. Unrelated simultaneous events

B. Multi-dimensional cause and effect events
C. Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions (correct answer)
D. All of the above
571. An unsafe act is an:
A. Undesirable behavior that precedes an injury or incident (correct answer)

B. Unsatisfactory condition that exists and contributes to an injury or incident
C. Unplanned event that results in negative consequences
572. An incident is defined as an:
A. Undesirable behavior that precedes an injury or incident

B. Unplanned event that results in negative consequences (correct answer)
C. Unplanned event that, except for luck, could have resulted in death, injury or damage
573. What are the four basic elements for correcting unsafe conditions?
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A. See, think, feel and do.
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B. Recognize, evaluate, eliminate or control & re-evaluate (correct answer)
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C. Engineering, architectural, work practice and PP
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574. The primary causes of incidents and injuries are:
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A. Lack of training and off-hours activities
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B. Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions (correct answer)
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C. Worker's desires to take "safety shortcuts"
D. Unsafe acts and lack of training
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575. Keys for Safety Leadership include:

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A. Individuals with great communication skills

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B. Individuals work to gain trust and respect of others

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C. The overall sharing of vision and passion

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576. What are the steps for preventing unsafe conditions?
A. Recognize the conditions

B. Evaluate the conditions and related hazards
C. Eliminate and/or control the hazards
D. Re-evaluate as the situation changes
577. A change in safety culture requires:
A. Management Leadership & Behavior and Employee Behavior & Engagement (correct answer)
B. A strong disciplinary program
C. A heavy focus on incentive programs
D. Increased OSHA regulations
578. We know that many workers take risks in the workplace. Many exhibit unsafe behaviors because over the
years these behaviors have been:
A. Learned and applied.

B. Borrowed from out-of-state workers
C. Allowed, Encouraged or Ignored. (correct answer)
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579. Unsafe acts are:
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A. Totally under your control (correct answer)
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B. Prescribed by your supervisor
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C. Due to the company
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D. Not preventable
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OSHA 30 CONSTRUCTION

A. Between 15 and 25%

2. The common forms of crystalline silica include:

A. Quartz (the most common)

C. Both A and B (correct answer)

D. None of the above

A. Exposure to high volumes of traffic

A. The nuclear industry

5. Hazards to be assessed prior to entry include:

6. A confined space entry permit:

A. Cause allergic reactions if contact with workers' skin

B. Be dangerous if burned and toxins inhaled by workers

C. Be eaten because they are not a hazard when ingested

D. Both A & B above (correct answer)

9. What is essential in order to modify a scaffold?

A. A medium pipe wrench

11. Scaffold frames must be pinned or secured together whenever

A. There is the potential for uplift

12. In regards to confined spaces why may a permit be required?

A. Sometimes the boss demands it

17. An employer that receives an OSHA citation must:

A. Copy and mail the citation to each worker

18. Life-threatening symptoms of heat illness include:

A. High body temperature, & hot, dry skin

D. Material delivery limitations

A. Construction and GI Registers

23. The CSE Supervisor must:

24. Solvents can:

A. Irritate your eyes, nose or throat

E. All of the above (correct answer)

27. Health hazards to which construction workers may be exposed include:

A. Chemical Hazards such as dusts, mist, fumes, gases and vapors

A. Immediately notify OSHA of any workplace injury or illness

A. strains and sprains

other important action?

B. Lockout and tagout (correct answer)

C. Double hook and ladder

D. None of the above

33. Certain mandatory documentation should be kept on site. Included are:

C. Before and after photos of all crane operations

A. State plans are authorized by Federal OSHA

35. Respiratory protection is required:

A. Jack hammering, rock/well drilling

B. Hepatitis G (HBG), SARS, Tuberculosis

C. Chlamydia, Syphillis, Gonorrhea

D. All of the above

39. The creation of OSHA provided which important right to workers:

A. The right to privacy

B. The right to pension benefits

A. Mechanize or automate the work

41. The most common type of construction related injuries is:

A. File a complaint online

C. Carrying on a normal conversation in a quiet room. (correct answer)

A. The planks must overlap at least 12 inches.

B. The plank overlap cannot be more than 18 inches.

A. No more than 1" (correct answer)

A. Silicosis (correct answer)

A. When they were not delivered.

B. When you are only going down one level

B. 75% (correct answer)

52. A confined space entry permit includes:

A. Times for breaks, lunch and quitting

54. Symptoms of acute exposures to Hazardous materials may:

A. Appear immediately or within a short time following exposure