MCQs On Intellectual Property Rights Sol

MCQs on Intellectual Property Rights
1. Trade mark Act, came into force on-

(a) 1957
(b) 2000
(c) 1970
(d) 1999
2. Associated trademarks means-

(a) trademarks deemed to be, or required to be, registered as associated trademarks under
this Act
(b) any marks or arrangement or combination
(c) Either A or B
(d) None of the above
3. Trade Marks Registry established under——Act

(a) Trademark Act, 1999
(b) Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958
(c) Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1970
4. Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958 (43 of 1958) was repealed by the—
(a) Merchandise Act, 1958
(b) Trade mark Act, 1958
(c) Trade mark Act, 1999
5. Which of the following is not type of patent –

(a) Utility patents
(b) Copyright
(c) Design patents
(d) Plant patents
6. Which of the following is a ground of Revocation of patents –

(a) that the patent was obtained wrongfully in contravention of the rights of the petitioner
or any person under or through whom he claims
(b) that the invention, so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification, was
claimed in a valid claim of earlier priority date contained in the complete specification
of another patent granted in India
(c) that the invention, so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification, is not
useful
(d) All of the above
7. Copyright Act came into force on-

(a) 1957
(b) 1999
(c) 2000
(d) 1970
8. Which of the following is a right of a Copyright Owner -
(a) Publish their work and Perform their work in public
(b) Translate and Broadcast their work
(c) Prevent others from making unauthorized use of copyrighted work
9. Under Section 13 of the Copyright Act, 1957, which of the following works is not exists –
(a) Literary work (including computer programs, tables, and compilations including
computer literary databases)
(b) Dramatic and Musical work
(c) Cinematograph films and Artistic work
10. Copyright in registered designs -

(a) When a design is registered, the registered proprietor of the design shall, subject to the
provisions of this Act, have copyright in the design during ten years from the date of
registration
(b) If, before the expiration of the said ten years, application for the extension of the
period of copyright is made to the Controller in the prescribed manner, the Controller
shall, on payment of the prescribed fee, extend the period of copy-right for a second
period of five years from the expiration of the original period of ten years
(c) Both A and B
(d) Either A or B
11. Biological Diversity Act came into force on –

(a) 1999
(b) 2002
(c) 2000
(d) 2005
12. Which section of the Patents Act, 1970 deal with Persons entitled to apply for patents?
(a) Section 5 of the Patents Act, 1970
(b) Section 6 of the Patents Act, 1970
(c) Section 8 of the Patents Act, 1970
(d) Section 20 of the Patents Act, 1970
13. Section 7 of the Patents Act, 1970 deals with __?

(a) Provisional and complete specifications
(b) Revocation how made
(c) Form of application.
(d) Publication of applications.
14. Which section of the Patents Act, 1970 deals with Inventions relating to atomic energy
not patentable?
(a) Section 4 of the Patents Act, 1970
(b) Section 5 of the Patents Act, 1970
(c) Section 1 of the Patents Act, 1970
(d) Section 12 of the Patents Act, 1970
15. Section 15 of the Patents Act, 1970 deals with __?
(a) Power of Controller to make orders respecting dating of application.
(b) Revocation how made
(c) Examination of application.
(d) Power of Controller to refuse or require amended applications, etc., in certain cases.
16. When did The Designs Act 2000, come into force?
(a) 01 April 2000
(b) 01 March 2002
(c) 11 May 2001
(d) 23 April 2000
17. Which section of The Designs Act 2000 deals with Certificate of registration?
(a) Section 12 of the Designs Act 2000
(b) Section 9 of the Designs Act 2000
(c) Section 14 of the Designs Act 2000
(d) Section 20 of the Designs Act 2000
18. Which section of the Designs Act 2000 deals with Effect of disclosure on copyright_?
19. Section 25 of the Designs Act 2000deals with_______?

(a) Cancellation of registration
(b) Notice of trust not to be entered in registers
(c) Power of Controller to correct clerical errors
(d) Piracy of registered design
20. Application of certain provisions of the Act as to patents to designs, is provided in

section____ of the Designs Act 2000
21. Section 14 of the Designs Act 2000 provides _?

(a) Rights of proprietor of lapsed design which have been restored
(b) Controller and other officers
(c) Certificate of registration
(d) Copyright on registration
22. Which section of the Payment of wages act deals with Power of Controller to correct
clerical errors?
23. Section 12 of the Designs Act 2000 deals with_______?
(a) Restoration of lapsed designs
(b) Evidence of documents in patent office
(c) Registration to be in respect of particular article
(d) Agency
24. Which section of the Designs Act 2000 deals with Power of Central Government to make
rules?
25. Section 10 of the Designs Act 2000 deals with_______?

(a) Applications and notices by post
(b) Appeals to the High Court
(c) Register of designs
(d) Powers of Controller in proceedings under Act
26. In which article is intellectual property rights outlined?

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 27
(c) Article 13
(d) Article 20
27. How long does intellectual property last? (After the death of the author)
(a) 10 yrs
(b) 30 yrs
(c) 60 yrs
(d) 70 yrs
28. Which of the following can you copyright?

(a) Literary work
(b) Ideas
(c) Choreographic work
(d) Fashion
29. Which of the following identifies as a trademark?

(a) Name, symbol
(b) Symbol, logo
(c) Logo, name
(d) Name, symbol, logo
30. Which is a negative aspect of the trademark?

(a) Consumers are able to identify products quickly
(b) Monopoly power
(c) Brand extension
(d) Distinguishes duplicates
31. What is the subject matter of a patent?
(a) Art
(b) Invention
(c) Goods
(d) Ideas
32. Where is the headquarters of WIPO?
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) London, UK
(c) Delhi, India
(d) Stockholm, Sweden
33. Which of the following is (are) included in Geographical indications of Good?

(a) Handicraft
(b) Foodstuff and handicrafts
(c) Manufactured and foodstuff
(d) Handicraft, foodstuff, and manufactures
34. Design does not include _________

(a) Features of shape
(b) Composition of lines or colours
(c) Mode or principle of construction
(d) Principle of colours
35. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade came into force on ----------
(a) 1st January 1948
(b) 15 January 2020
(c) 7th March 1950
(d) 20th March 1954
36. The IMF, also known as the Fund, was conceived at a UN conference in,
-------------- United States, in July 1944.
(a) Ohio
(b) Alabama
(c) Washington D.C
(d) Bretton Woods, New Hampshire
37. Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights is TRIPS. TRIPS is

an international agreement that ---------- for all World Trade Organization countries.
(a) Maximum Standards for protection of intellectual property
(b) Sets minimum standards for intellectual property protection
(c) Basic standards
(d) Basic Limitations
38. Anti-Counterfeiting Trade Agreement (ACTA) was adopted in 2011, ACTA is a

multilateral trade agreement that --------- counterfeiting, generic medicines, and online
copyright infringement.
(a) Regulates
(b) Governs
(c) Rules
(d) Adapts
39. Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works Written in 1886, the
Berne Convention was the first major multilateral convention on Copyright law. --------
became a party to this treaty in 1989.
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Russia
(d) The United States
40. The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, 1883. The Paris
Convention applies to -------------.
(a) Trademarks, unfair competition, and patents.
(b) Geographical Indications
(c) Wines and Spirits
41. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) is a legal agreement between many
countries, whose overall purpose was to promote international trade by reducing or
eliminating trade barriers such as ----------
(a) Trade embargos
(b) Trade restrictions
(c) Tariffs or quotas
(d) Sanctions
42. "Most favored nation" relationships extend reciprocal bilateral relationships following
both --------------------- of reciprocity and non-discrimination.
(a) GATT and WTO norms
(b) World Intellectual Property Organization
(c) United Nations
(d) International Labour Organization
43. The Doha Round began with a ministerial-level meeting in Doha, Qatar in 2001. The aim
was to focus on the needs of ---------------.
(a) Developed Countries
(b) Developing countries
(c) Least Developed Countries
(d) Countries
44. Disputes in the WTO are essentially about broken promises. WTO members have agreed
that if they believe fellow-members are violating trade rules, they will use the
(a) International trade law principles
(b) Multilateral system of settling disputes instead of taking action unilaterally.
(c) Use Sanctions.
(d) Use Negotiations and Good Offices
45. The term “WIPO” stands for:-

(a) World Investment policy organization
(b) World intellectual property organization
(c) Wildlife Investigation and Policing organization
(d) World institute for Prevention of organized crime
46. Which of the following is an intellectual property as per IPR Laws in India?
(a) Original literary work
(b) Industrial Design of Maruti800 car
(c) Trademark of Tata company
(d) All the above
47. A company has decided to invest in outer shape design of bottle in which they would fill
the perfume produced by them, and which is distinctive, and they wish to ensure that they
have sole use.
(a) Copy rights
(b) Trade mark
(c) Patent
(d) Industrial designs
47. A company decides to use a logo that has the same shape as its competitor but with a
different color
(a) Copy rights
(b) Trade mark
(c) Patent
(d) Industrial designs
48. Which of the following is not an intellectual property law?

(a) Copyright Act, 1957
(b) Trademark Act, 1999
(c) Patent Act, 1970
(d) Design Act, 2000
(e) Customs Act, 1962
49. Copyright law applies to forms of expression contained in –

(a) Song lyrics and musical compositions
(b) Sculptures and paintings
(c) Dramatic and literary works
50. A trademark is represented by several key characteristics. Which of the following is one
of them?
(a) A trademark identifies a product's origin
(b) Slogans are not covered under trademark law
(c) Trademarks are never an indicator of quality
(d) Trademarks are "shorthand" for retailers to use in determining pricing strategy
51. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Trademark registrations can be renewed for an unlimited number of ten-year periods
(b) Trademark law is intended to protect the owner’s original work
(c) To qualify for federal protection, a mark must be distinctive and have a "secondary
meaning."
(d) Surnames alone can be trademarked
52. Trade in services includes which of the following?
(a) Computer hardware
(b) Textiles
(c) Insurance
(d) Aerospace
53. Trademark law protects………

(a) Words, symbols or devices that differentiate goods or services from one another
(b) Only brand names
(c) Names of specific people and places
(d) Inventions that feature some sort of utility function
54. Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?

(a) A trademark should be distinctive
(b) A trademark should be capable of distinguishing goods or services
(c) A trademark should not cause confusion with previous trademarks
(d) A trademark should not be deceptive
(e) All of the above
55. Why an invention should be patented?

I. It gives protection to a patentable invention.
II. It gives legal recognition to the invention.
III. It makes others aware of the fact as to whom does the invention belong
IV. Patenting one's invention make useful data relating to the invention available to other
inventions for further research and development.
Out of four reasons given above, please identify the correct reasons:-
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) None of the above
56. The rights of a patentee are

(a) Sell or distribute
(b) License
(c) Assign the property to others
57. A policy (or policies) behind the patent system is ……

(a) to encourage an inventor to disclose an invention by granting exclusive rights over the
invention to the inventor
(b) to benefit the public by limiting the scope and term of the exclusive rights granted to
an inventor
(c) to benefit the public through encouraging innovation by publishing a full disclosure of
the technical details of the invention
(d) to benefit the public through guaranteeing that the inventor can commercialize his/her
invention
The correct options are
(a) Only (1) and (2)
(b) (1), (2) and (3) above
(c) (2), (3) and (4) above
58. Read the sentence given below and Tick mark as True or False.
(a) Customs authorities has no role in enforcement of Intellectual property Rights. [F]
(b) Customs law empowers customs officers to take action against IPR infringing goods
at the time of import. [T]
(c) It is responsibility of Customs officers to seize infringing goods at the time of import
even if the IPR right holder is not interested in enforcing his IPR. [F]
(d) Customs holder normally takes action against infringing goods at the initiative of right
holder. [T]
(e) It is only the right holder, who can tell the officer as to whether the particular
imported goods are infringing or not. [T]
(f) If any fake goods are being produced in any factory, the Custom officer can seized
such goods. [F]
(g) If any counterfeit imported goods are being sold at any shop, the jurisdictional
Customs officers can seize such goods. [F]
59. Imagine a footballer sets up his own company to sell his own range of clothes. What type
of intellectual property can he use to show that the clothes are made by his company?
(a) Copyright
(b) geographical indications
(c) patents
(d) registered designs
(e) trademarks
60. How long do patents usually last for?

(a) 10 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 60 years
61. What protects the intellectual property created by inventors?

(a) Copyright
(c) patents
(e) trademarks
62. What protects the intellectual property created by designers?

(a) Copyright
(c) patents
(e) trademarks
63. Statements:
I. The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) assists applicants in seeking patent protection
internationally for their inventions
II. PCT helps patent offices with their patent granting decisions, and
III. PCT facilitates public access to a wealth of technical information relating to those
inventions
(a) Only I is correct

(b) Only III is correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) All are correct
(e) None of these are correct
64. Hague System is related to:

(a) International Registration of Industrial Design
(b) Registration of Industrial Design Nationally
(c) Registration of Trademark
(d) All of these
65. In general, to qualify as a trade secret, the information must be:

(a) commercially valuable because it is secret,
(b) be known only to a limited group of persons, and
(c) be subject to reasonable steps taken by the rightful holder of the information to keep it
secret, including the use of confidentiality agreements for business partners and
employees
(d) Only a and b is correct
(e) a, b, c are correct
66. ________ is intellectual property (IP) rights on confidential information which may be
sold or licensed.
(a) Trade secret
(b) Industrial Design
(c) Trademark
(d) Trade dress
67. ____________ allows modifying, renewing or expanding your global trademark portfolio
through one centralized system.
(a) Hague System
(b) Madrid System
(c) Berne Convention
68. According to UPOV, a breeder can be

I. a farmer
II. a researcher
III. a public institute
IV. a private company

(b) Only I and II is correct
(c) All are correct
69. STATEMENTS
I. The UPOV Convention, the CBD and the ITPGRFA are all international instruments.
II. The objectives of the CBD and the ITPGRFA are the conservation and sustainable use
of genetic resources and the sharing of benefits arising from their use.
III. Both the ITPGRFA and the UPOV Convention aim to support plant breeding
activities and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants.
IV. The ITPGRFA does so by providing a system for facilitated access to plant genetic
resources, while the UPOV Convention does so by establishing a system for plant
variety protection. When implemented by UPOV members, the relevant legislations
dealing with these matters should be compatible and mutually supportive.
(a) Only I, IV are true

(b) Only I is true
(c) Only I, III are true
(d) ALL are true
70. Can hybrid variety be protected under UPOV System?

I. Yes
II. No
III. Depends on the type of hybrid
(a) Only II is correct

(b) II, III is correct
(c) I is correct
(d) All of these
71. The authorization of the breeder is required for the selling of seed of a protected variety
by:
(a) A farmer, but not researcher
(b) A researcher, but not farmer
(c) Both farmer and researcher
(d) Any person
72. India has its own law to protect the interests of farming communities and rejected the
framework of plant breeders’ rights given by the International Union for Protection of New
Plant Varieties (UPOV Convention) because:
The current version of UPOV, which was adopted in 1991, denies the farmers the freedom to
reuse farm-saved seeds and to exchange them with their neighbors.
(a) Reason true but statement false
(b) Statement is true but reason is false
(c) Both false
(d) Both true
73. Can a plant variety be protected under the Patent Law in India?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Can't say
(d) May be
74. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in _________at

___________to implement India's Biological Diversity Act (2002)
(a) 2003, Chennai (1st October, 2003)
(b) 2002, Chennai
(c) 2003, Pusa, New Delhi
(d) 2002, Pusa, New Delhi
75. Main objectives of The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and
Agriculture are:
I. The conservation of biological diversity
II. The sustainable use of the components of biological diversity
III. The fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources
(a) Only I is true

(b) I, II is true
(c) I, III is true
(e) None of the above
76. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture was
adopted by the Thirty-First Session of the Conference of the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations on 3 November__________. It is also known as
_______________
(a) 2002, CBD
(b) 2001, Seed Treaty
(c) 2002, Seed Treaty
(d) 2002, CBD
77. Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the Act for conducting experiment
or research. This includes the use of a variety as an initial source of variety for the purpose of
developing another variety but repeated use ________________
(a) Needs prior permission of the registered breeder
(b) Do not need prior permission of registered breeder
(c) Sometimes need permission
(d) Both a and c are correct
78. Farmer has to pay __________ fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or
the Tribunal or the High Court under the PPV&FR Act, 2001.
(a) Rs. 2000
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Variable (Rate depends on the type of variety)
(d) No fee
79. An opposition may be requested soon
I. before the grant of a patent (pre-grant opposition) or,
II. after the grant of a patent (post-grant opposition)
(b) Only II is correct
(c) Both I and II is correct
(d) Once granted, patent cannot be opposed
80. Fill in the blanks:

(a) All plants look alike in an ‘essentially derived’ variety.
(b) The variety distinguishable in at least one character from previously available
varieties is called ‘distinct variety’.
(c) The property that each generation of variety should be similar is known as ‘uniform
variety’.
(d) The novel variety can be used to breed new varieties.
(e) The UPOV Act 1991 does not provide farmers’ exemption. The statement is (true/
false) false.
(f) PBR come into force immediately after registration of the variety.
(g) The unauthorized use of genetic resources of pharma-companies is termed as
biopiracy.
(h) The knowledge held by the communities and people that are indigenous is called
traditional knowledge.
(i) Traditional Knowledge can be protected by positive protection and defensive
mechanism rights.
(j) Seed or planting material synthesized or developed by modifying or altering genetic
composition by means of genetic engineering is called Genetically Modified
Organism (GMO).
(k) ‘Essentially Derived’ variety is developed from an initial variety and having most of
the characters of initial variety but clearly distinguishable from it.
(l) WIPO helps in protection of GI. (True/False) False.
(m) A patent that is granted to inventions that perform useful functions is referred as
utility patent.
(n) Patents that are granted for less than 20 years are called design patent.
81. Statement:
I. Plant patent is granted to newly developed, distinct plant reproducing sexually.
II. These patents are of recent origin
III. Protected for a period of 5 years
IV. Useful in protecting novel plants
(a) Only I is true
(b) I, III, I are true
(c) All are true
(d) I and III are true
82. Consider the following statements, with respect to Geographical Indication Tag
1. GI is governed by the WTO's TRIPS agreement.
2. The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling tea in the year 2004-
05.
3. The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 20 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
83. How a geographical indication is different from a trade mark?

I. A trade mark is a sign which is used in the course of trade and it distinguishes goods or
services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises.
II. A geographical indication is an indication used to identify goods having special
characteristics originating from a definite geographical territory.
(a) both correct
(b) only (I)
(c) only (II)
(d) none of the above
84. Can a registered geographical indication be assigned, transmitted, etc?

(I) No. A geographical indication is a public property belonging to the producers of the
concerned goods.
(II) It shall not be the subject matter of assignment, transmission, licensing, pledge, mortgage
or such other agreement.
(III) When an authorized user dies, his right devolves on his successor in title.
(a) Only (I) & (II)
(b) Only (I)
(c) All of these
(d) None of these
85. When is a registered Geographical Indication said to be infringed?

(I) When an unauthorized user uses a geographical indication that indicates or suggests that
such goods originate in a geographical area other than the true place of origin of such goods
in a manner which mislead the public as to the geographical origin of such goods.
(II) When the use of geographical indication result in an unfair competition including passing
off in respect of registered geographical indication.
(III) When the use of another geographical indication results in false representation to the
public that goods originate in a territory in respect of which a registered geographical
indication relates.
(a) Only (I) & (II)
(b) Only (II) & (III)
(c) Only (I) & (III)
(d) All of these
86. What is the effect if a Geographical Indication if it is not renewed?

If a registered geographical indication is not renewed it is liable to be removed from the
register.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Depends on the governing body
(d) May be
87. Is a registration of a geographical indication compulsory?
(a) Compulsory
(b) Not compulsory
(c) Depends on the governing body
(d) Depends on the type of GI
88. What is a Geographical Indication?

(I) It is an indication
(II) It originates from a definite geographical territory.
(III) It is used to identify agricultural, natural or manufactured goods.
(IV) The manufactured goods should be produced or processed or prepared in that territory.
(V) It should have a special quality or reputation or other characteristics.
(a) Only (I), (II), (III)

(b) Only (I), (III), (V)
(c) Only (I), (II), (IV)
(d) All of these
89. The internationally accepted term for a patent is:

(a) 10 years
(b) 17 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 50 years
90. For registration of a Trade Mark, it must be:

I. Distinctive
II. Novel
III. Creative
IV. Graphically represented
(a) Only I & IV
(b) Only I & III
(c) Only I, II & III
91. Patents are granted for a new:

(a) Product only
(b) Process only
(c) Both for a new product and a new process
(d) None of these
92. Term of a patent in India is:

(a) 20 years from date of grant
(b) 20 years from the date of filing of a provisional application
(c) 20 years from the earliest priority date
(d) 20 years from the date of filing of the complete specification
93. Patent gives the owner the right to:
(a) Make his invention
(b) Commercialize his invention
(c) Publish technical details of his invention
(d) Prevent others from making, selling and vending his invention
94. A patent comes into existence:

(a) On the evolution of an idea
(b) On the first publication in an article
(c) On the unopposed acceptance of an application to the appropriate authority
(d) After the first successful use of the article
95. The following intellectual property rights are protectable in the software related to a
computer program:
(I) Trade Mark
(II) Patent
(III) Copyright
(IV) Design
(a) Only I, II & III
(b) Only II & III
(c) Only III & IV
(d) Only III
96. The following remedies are available in the case of breach of Trade Mark:
(a) Civil action
(b) Criminal action
(c) Damages
97. One of the following cannot be protected by copyright:

(a) Book or a novel
(b) Novel process
(c) Software program
(d) Drama
(e) Piece of architecture
98. A term of a Trade Mark is:

(a) 10 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 20 years
(d) Perpetual
99. An Indian Patent is effective in:

(a) G-8 Countries
(b) All over the world
(c) Commonwealth countries
(d) India only
100. Can a foreign national apply for a patent in India?
(a) Yes
(b) No
101. Can one obtain a 'world patent'?

(a) Yes
(b) No
102. The term of a design registration right is:

(a) 20 years and is extendable to additional 5 years upon application
(b) 20 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 10 years extendable to additional 5 years upon application
103. Can one protect the shape and appearance of the good through copyright and design
registration at the same time?
(a) Yes
(b) No
104. Can a minor file an application for patent?

(a) Yes
(b) No
105. Can one publish one's invention after filing a provisional patent application?
(a) Yes
(b) No
106. Can one commercialize one's invention after filing a provisional patent application?
(a) Yes
(b) No
107. Can one transfer or sell the rights in a patent?

(a) Yes
(b) No
108. Can an individual apply for the registration of a Geographical Indication?

(a) Yes
(b) No
109. Which country possesses maximum number of Patents in the world?

(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) South Korea
(d) China
110. Can a single product be registered under various classes of Trade Mark?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Sometimes
111. Is domain name entitled for Trade Mark protection?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Sometimes
112. Design Registration is conferred for:

(a) Functional aspect
(b) Aesthetic appeal
(c) Label attached to the product
(d) Name of the product
113. Geographical Indication is the property of:

(a) An individual
(b) Group of persons
(c) The community
(d) Country only
114. One of the following is not an example of Geographical Indication:

(a) Mysore Silk
(b) Champagne
(c) Bikaneri Sev
(d) Basmati Rice
(e) Scotch Whisky
115. "Kolhapuri" for chappals is registerable as a:

(a) Trade Mark
(b) Service Mark
(c) Geographical Indication
(d) Well-known Mark
116. After a patent completes its full term of 20 years, it:

(a) Can be renewed for a further period of 10 years
(b) Can be renewed only under special circumstances
(c) Can be extended for a period of 5 years
(d) Becomes public property and, cannot be renewed
117. Trade Mark is registerable in India:

(a) Only if it is used
(b) Even if it is proposed to be used
(c) Only if it is used in India and outside India
(d) Only on the basis of an established user
118. Gandhi can be registered:

(a) As a Trade Mark
(b) As a surname
(c) As a copyright
(d) As a Trade Mark only on the basis of an established user
119. Which of the following International treaties deals with Trademarks?
(a) Berne Convention
(b) Rome Convention
(c) Madrid Convention
(d) WIPO Performances & Phonograms Treaty (WPPT)
120. Which of the following is not essential for a cause of action of passing off?
(a) Reputation
(b) Deception
(c) Damage
(d) Registered Trade Mark
121. Which of the following IPR is NOT territorial in nature?

(a) Copyright
(b) Trade Mark
(c) Design
(d) Patent
122. 'X' has written an article and wishes to send it for an online essay competition. How
would he copyright it?
(a) It is already protected by the copyright law once he has written it
(b) Registration is compulsory
(c) He has to put a copyright notice below his article
(d) No protection as it would fall in public domain
123. Which of the following is Certification Trademark?

(a) RELIANCE
(b) AGMARK
(c) TATA
(d) DARJEELING TEA
124. Doctrine of Dilution deals with:

(a) Protection of famous trademarks
(b) Defense for a trademark infringement
(c) Excessive use of a trademark
(d) Careless use of a trademark
125. If the owner of a design capable of registration does not register the design:
(a) He does not get any protection for his design
(b) His design falls in the public domain
(c) Copyright protection exists till article on which design is applied is reproduced 50
times
126. Which of the following is patentable in India?

(a) Business methods
(b) Micro-organisms
(c) Topography of integrated circuits
(d) Computer Software
127. What is priority date?
(a) It is the date on which Provisional specification is filed provided the claims are fairly
based on it
(b) It is the date on which patent is granted
(c) It is the date on which the first application is filed
(d) It is the date on which the application is published
128. When are compulsory licenses granted in Patents?

I. On the death of the patentee
II. On declaration by the Government
III. For meeting the reasonable requirements of the public at reasonable prices
IV. On the expiry of the patent monopoly
(a) Only (I) & (II)
(b) Only (II) & (III)
(c) Only (I) & (III)
(d) All of these
129. Which of the following is a Trade Mark infringement?

(a) Cyber-Squatting
(b) Typo-squatting
(c) Framing and mirroring
130. Which of the following is not an absolute ground of refusal of Trade Mark registration?
(a) Trade Mark devoid of distinctive character
(b) Trademark of descriptive Trademark
(c) Customary Trade Mark
(d) Unregistered Trade Mark protected by law of passing off
131. Which of the following is not a defense for an infringement of Trade Mark?
(a) Honest concurrent use
(b) Acquiescence
(c) Innocent infringement
(d) Prior user
132. An application for registration of a Trade Mark shall be advertised in a Trade Mark
Journal ordinarily within:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 9 months
133. The Fourth Schedule of the Trade Mark Rules contains:

(a) 34 classes of goods and 11 classes of services
(b) 38 classes of goods and 7 classes of services
(c) 40 classes of goods and 2 classes of services
(d) 28 classes of goods and 14 classes of services
134. Where a Trade Mark is assigned without the goodwill of the business concerned:
(a) The assignee has to advertise the assignment
(b) The Trade Mark is directly transferred to the assignee unconditionally
(c) The assignee has to wait for the transfer of goodwill
(d) A Trade Mark cannot be assigned without goodwill
135. Who can sue for infringement of a Trade Mark?

I. The proprietor of the registered Trade Mark
II. Legal heirs of the deceased proprietor of a Trade Mark
III. Any one of the joint proprietors of a Trade Mark
(a) All of the above
(b) Only (I) & (III)
(c) Only (I) & (II)
(d) Only (II) & (III)
136. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) A Trade Mark cannot be used unless it is registered, as trademark registration is
statutory
(b) Registration is not necessary to protect a Trade Mark; user is more important
(c) Registration is the only proof of validity of a trademark
(d) User is not important, registration is necessary
137. Which of the following can be classified as a Service Mark?

I. Beauty Parlor
II. Educational institution
III. Computer software development
IV. Restaurants and Hotels
(b) Only (II) and (III)
(c) Only (I) & (IV)
(d) Only (II), (III) & (IV)
138. If my Trade Mark application is pending which symbol will I put on my goods?
(a) ©
(b) ®
(c) TM
(d) SM
139. 'A Trade Mark is perpetual in nature'. Which of the following options is correct with
respect to this statement?
(a) It is subject to renewal every 10 years
(b) A Trade Mark protection lasts till the death of the owner
(c) A Trade Mark becomes publici juris after a period of 10 years
140. The community Trade Mark of Europe covers:

(a) Europe and Asia
(b) 27 Countries
(c) Entire World
(d) 51 countries
141. In case of a Trade Mark infringement of a label in which copyright subsists which of the
following options is most suitable?
(a) A suit for Trade Mark infringement
(b) A suit for copyright infringement
(c) A combined suit for Trade Mark, passing off and Copyright infringement
(d) A civil suit for Trade Mark and passing off and a criminal action for copyright
infringement
142. TM Registry is situated in:

(I) Delhi (II) Chennai (III) Kolkata (IV) Ahmadabad (IV) Mumbai
(b) Only (I) and (III)
(c) Only (II) and (III)
143. Registration of a Trade Mark confers on the proprietor of the Trade Mark, exclusive
right to use of the Trade Mark in relation to:
(a) All goods in the class for which it is registered
(b) Only for the goods for which it is registered
(c) Extends to all goods and services available in a country
(d) If the Trade Mark is a well-known Trade Mark then protection extends to any class of
goods
144. Trans-border reputation applies for:

(a) Well known International Trade Mark
(b) International Trade Marks registered in India
(c) All International Trade Marks
(d) Only goods sold under the respective Trade Mark in India
(e) Only (a) and (c)
145. The period of limitation for filing a suit for infringement of a Trade Mark is:
(a) Three years from the date of on which the owner becomes aware of the infringement
(b) One year from the date of infringement
(c) At any time when the owner becomes aware of the infringement
(d) Within six months of the date of infringement
146. Which of the following is an exception to the general rule that use of the same/similar
mark by more than one proprietor is not permitted?
(a) Honest concurrent use
(b) Innocent infringement
(c) There is no such exception
(d) Acquiescence by the owner of Trade Mark
147. Which of the following offences are met with penalty under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?
I. Falsely representing a Trade Mark as registered
II. Falsifying and falsely applying Trade Marks
III. Falsification of entries in register
IV. Using one’s own name as a Trade Mark
(b) Only (I), (II) & (III)
(c) Only (II) & (III)
148. What is the meaning of “novelty” in relation to a product or a process?

(a) Not used
(b) Not anticipated
(c) Not published
149. The first legislation in India relating to patents was enacted in:
(a) 1856
(b) 1911
(c) 1970
(d) 2005
150. The owner of a patent can grant licenses:

(a) To registered companies only
(b) To individuals only
(c) To anyone
(d) To anyone, but only after taking permission from the Controller General of Patents,
Designs and Trade Marks
151. Recent research has shown that acetylsalicylic acid, along with the already known
benefits, also has beneficial effects against cancer. If an application for a patent is filed in
India for the use of acetylsalicylic acid for treatment of cancer, for
(a) 10 years
(b) 20 years
(c) A term equal to that for the patent of the main invention (use of acetylsalicylic acid
for treatment of fever and pain), or so much thereof as has not expired
(d) None of the above.
152. A patent application was filed in February 2000. The patent was granted in September
2001. In 2012, the inventor wants to file for some improvements in the invention. The patent
on improvement would be valid until:
(a) 2032
(b) 2021
(c) 2020
153. When can an opposition to the grant of a patent be filed in India?

I. Any time after publication of the application but before the grant of the patent
II. Any time after the grant of the patent
III. Within one year after publication of the grant of the patent
(b) Only I & III
(c) Only II & III
(d) Only I and III
154. A person resident in India wants to obtain a patent only in the US, UK, Germany and
France. What will be your advice?
(a) File a PCT application
(b) Take permission from the Controller before filing an application in the US, UK,
Germany and France
(c) Directly go to these countries and file patent applications
(d) A patent application for the same invention should be made in India at least 6 weeks
prior to filing abroad
(e) Both (b) and (d)
155. After years of research, a scientist grows an entirely new variety of plant which did not
exist earlier. The flowers of the new plant have great medicinal value. Can this new variety of
plant be patented in India?
(a) Yes
(b) No
156. A new variety of plant having flowers with medicinal value, protection can be availed
for the new plant under:
(a) The Indian Patents Act, 1970
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001
(d) The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
157. A scientist gets an idea on how to make biodegradable plastics. How can this idea be
patented by the scientist?
I. By first publishing the process in scientific journals and then filing a patent
application within one year
II. By first demonstrating the process in industrial exhibitions and then filing a patent
application within one year
III. By first filing a provisional specification and then a complete specification within one
year
(a) Both I & III
(b) Both II & III
(c) Both I & II
(d) Only III
158. Is there a worldwide patent?

(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Sometimes
(d) Maybe
159. ‘International application’ means an application for a patent made in accordance with
the:
(a) Budapest Treaty
(b) Berne Convention
(c) Patent Cooperation Treaty
(d) Madrid System
160. The Indian Patent Office is a receiving office for international applications by:
(a) Nationals of India
(b) Residents of India
(c) Anyone
(d) (a) and (b)
161. A resident in India cannot apply for a patent outside India:

(a) Unless an application for a patent for the same invention has been made in India, not
less than six weeks before the application outside India.
(b) Unless a request for permission is made in Form 25 for making a patent application
outside India.
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) Unless he/she is a foreign citizen
162. An international application shall be filed with the appropriate office in triplicate in:
(a) Sanskrit or Hindi
(b) English or Hindi
(c) English or Marathi
(d) English only
163. lnternational publication of the PCT application is handled by the International Bureau
in Geneva:
(a) Always
(b) Sometimes
(c) Never
(d) Optionally
164. The next step after filing an international application is:

(a) Applications are filed automatically in the designated countries
(b) Application is granted by WIPO
(c) National phase applications are to be filed individually in the chosen countries from
the list of designated countries
(d) Applications can be filed individually in any country
165. After filing an international application:

(a) National phase applications can be filed in the chosen countries at any time
(b) National phase applications are to be filed within a period of 30 / 31 months from the
priority date of the international application or date of filing of the international
application, whichever is earlier
(c) National phase applications are to be filed in a time period of 30 / 31 months from the
publication date of the international application
(d) National phase applications are to be filed after a period of 30 / 31 months from the
priority date of the international application or date of filing of the international
application
166. An international application can be withdrawn:
(a) Anytime
(b) Never
(c) Not later than 15 days before the date of publication
(d) Not later than 15 days after the date of publication
167. The international filing fee is for the benefit of:

(a) The International Bureau (IB)
(b) The Receiving Office (RO)
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) The designated countries
168. 1The role of the Trade Mark Registry is to:

(a) Register Trade Marks
(b) Notify the Trade Mark owner in case of infringement of his registered Trademark
(c) Adjudicate Trademark infringement proceedings
169. Which of the following can be registered as a Trademark?

I. Descriptive word (e.g., superior, pure, perfect, etc.)
II. Word indicating a geographical origin
III. Invented or coined word
IV. Used or proposed to be used mark
(b) Only III and IV
(c) Only I & II
(d) I, II, III
170. The registration of a Trade Mark cannot be refused on the ground that:
(a) It is devoid of distinctive character
(b) It is likely to cause confusion to the public
(c) It is similar to a well-known mark
(d) It has not been used at all by the applicant
171. Which of the following statement is false about “well-known Trade Marks”?
(a) It is widely known to a relevant section of the public
(b) It can be registered
(c) It cannot be registered
(d) It is protected under The Trade Marks Act
172. A registered Trade Mark may be removed from the register of Trade Marks on the
ground that:
(a) The proposed to be used trademark was registered without any bona fide intention to
use it
(b) There has been no bona fide use of the trademark for a continuous period of five years
from the date of registration
(c) There has been no use of the trade mark due to the restrictions imposed by any law or
regulation in India
(e) Only (a) and (b)
173. The proprietor of a registered Trade Mark wants to make minor changes in his registered
Trade Mark. He can:
(a) File an application for the registration of the new Trade Mark
(b) File an application for the amendment of his existing Trade Mark
(c) Cannot modify a trademark once it is registered
(d) Both (a) and (b)
174. Which of the following would be a good Trademark?

(a) “Car Rentals” for car rental service “Car Rentals” for car rental service
(b) “Health Drink” for fruit juices
(c) “Krystal” for window cleaner product
(d) “Clean and Fresh” for laundry service
(e) “Rental Homes” for rented apartments
175. A person “Z” registers the mark “Safe for Children”. Two toy manufacturing companies
“X” and “Y” use the same mark (Safe for Children) on their products, after acquiring a
certificate from Z. The companies neither own that mark nor have
(a) Trade Mark
(b) Certification Mark
(c) Collective Mark
176. A person makes a new device for extracting orange juice. He names the new device
“Oranju”, and writes an instruction booklet on how to operate the device. A Trade Mark can
be registered for:
(a) The device for making orange juice
(b) The name “Oranju”
(c) The instruction booklet
177. Two companies “X” and “Y” manufacture different baby foods and sell them under
different trade names that are registered. Both use the same phrase “Extremely delicious and
healthy” on their product labels to describe their product. X file
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Partial relief
178. Which of the following are not covered by Copyrights?

(a) Right to use, modify & distribute
(b) Right to make copies & synchronize
(c) Right to perform & broadcast
(d) Right to share and discuss
179. Who is the first owner of copyright for a musical album?
(a) Composer of Music Album
(b) Distributor of Music Album
(c) Recorder of Music Album
(d) Producer of Film using the Music Album
180. Which of the following are protected by Copyright?

(a) Thoughts
(b) Expressions
(c) Ideas
(d) Slogans
181. Who is the first owner of a Copyright in a work created by an employee in his
employment?
(a) Employer
(b) Employee
(c) Both are joint owners
182. Which of the following qualifies as Fair Use in respect of a work of Copyright?
(a) Use of a small portion of the work
(b) Use of only the most important parts of the work
(c) Use for a nonprofit purpose
183. When a work is said to be in the Public Domain, it can be said that:
(a) The work is sold in the market and is available at all places
(b) You can obtain a copy for free download from the internet
(c) You can make as many copies as you want to
(d) The term of copyright in the work has run out
184. Factors in determining whether a use of a copyrighted work is a Fair Use exclude:
(a) Amount of the work used
(b) Effect on the market
(c) Purpose of the use
(d) Availability of the work used
185. Fair Use is:

(a) The right to copy without permission for personal use
(b) A defense against copyright infringement
(c) The right for schools and teachers to use any copyrighted works without permission
(d) The right to download anything from the internet
186. What is the meaning of “Copyright © 2003-2005”?

(a) Dates on which work was created and/or modified
(b) Copyright was applied for in 2003 and it was registered in 2005
(c) Copyright was applied for in 2003 and it was registered in 2005
187. Which of the following is an infringement of Copyright?
(a) Making copies of a computer program for backup purposes
(b) Making copies of a program since the original is in a compressed format
(c) Installing single licensed software on a laptop and desktop at the same time
(d) Making multiple copies of software having purchased multiple user licenses
188. How many copies of the work are required to be submitted for registration of Copyright?
(a) 2 copies
(b) 4 copies
(c) 3 copies
(d) 6 copies
189. Which of the following is considered to be a punishment for infringement of Copyright?

(a) Damages
(b) Injunction
(c) Imprisonment for 6 to 3 years
(d) Imprisonment for 7 to 10 years
190. The term of Copyright in published Literary, Dramatic, Musical & Artistic work is:
(a) 60 years following the year in which the author dies
(b) 60 years from the date of its creation
(c) 60 years from the date on which application for registration is filed
(d) 60 years from the date on which Copyright is registered
191. Which of the following is considered to be an infringement of Copyright?

(a) Reading & reciting an extract of a work in public without consent of author/owner
(b) Performance for entertainment purposes without consent of the author/owner
(c) Performance for an educational institution without consent of author/owner
(d) Performance for religious purposes without consent of the author/owner
192. Copyright exists in which of the following works?

(a) Cinematographic films
(b) Books
(c) Sound recordings
(d) Photographs
193. From when are the Copyrights conferred on the author of a work?
(a) When the work is created
(b) When the work is registered with the Copyright office
(c) When the work is published and becomes available to the public
(d) When the work is copied with or without permission from the author
194. Under the Berne Convention, what is the duration of Copyright for a literary work?
(a) 20 years from the creation of the work
(b) 50 years from the creation of the work
(c) Life of the author plus 20 years from death
(d) Life of the author plus 50 years from death
195. How long does Copyright last for cinematograph films and sound recordings?
(a) 50 years from the year of first publication
(b) 60 years from the year of first publication
(c) 60 years from the end of the calendar year in which the last of the director dies
(d) 60 years from the end of the calendar year in which the last of the director, writer or
musical composer dies
196. After the economic rights have been transferred, which rights remain with the author?
(a) Performance rights
(b) Moral rights
(c) Reproduction rights
(d) No rights remain with the author
197. What happens once the term of Copyright expires?

(a) The Copyright term may be renewed for a further period of time
(b) The work may be copied with permission of the copyright owner
(c) The work may be copied without permission of the copyright owner
(d) The work may be copied without permission of the copyright owner and published as
your own work
198. Mr. ‘A’ gets an idea of a novel story and immediately narrates it to his friend Mr. ‘B’. B
publishes the story as his own. Can A sue B for infringement of Copyright?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Maybe
199. Is the following statement true or false: “Since all the work published on the internet is
publicly accessible, it is in public domain and free to use.”
(a) True
(b) False
200. Is the following statement true or false?

“The works which are accompanied with a Copyright notice are protected and the works
without such notice are not protected.”
(a) True
(b) False
201. Mr. “A” makes some changes in an article in which Copyright subsists, and thereafter
publishes the modified article as his own. Would that amount to Copyright infringement?
(a) Yes
(b) No
202. The term 'Geographical Indications' could be used for:

(a) Agricultural goods
(b) Natural goods
(c) Manufactured goods
203. Geographical Indications are used to indicate:
(a) A geographical place
(b) A link between some characteristic of the good and the particular region where it is
produced
(c) The place where the goods are manufactured/produced
(d) The origin of goods
204. The sign used for a Geographical Indication may be:
(a) A name of a geographical place
(b) A symbol
(c) A map
(e) Only 1 and 2
205. Who can apply for registration of a Geographical Indication?

(a) An association of persons
(b) An organization of producers
(c) An individual
(e) Only 1 and 2
206. Who can use a registered Geographical Indication?

(a) A person having interest in goods to which the Geographical Indication relates
(b) A person residing in the area to which the Geographical Indication relates
(c) A producer of the goods in respect of which a Geographical Indication has been
registered
(d) An authorized user
207. Who can be considered a ‘producer’ in relation to goods under the Geographical
Indications of Goods Act?
(a) A person who produces, processes or packages agricultural goods
(b) A person who uses natural goods in making or manufacturing products
(c) A person who makes or manufactures handicrafts or industrial goods
208. What is the term of Geographical Indication protection?

(a) Unlimited period
(b) Twenty years but may be renewed from time to time for an unlimited period
(c) Fifteen years but may be renewed from time to time for an unlimited period
(d) Ten years but may be renewed from time to time for an unlimited period
209. If a T-shirt contains a label of “Made in India”, is it a Geographical Indication?

(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Maybe
(d) Can’t say
210. Which one of the following is not a Geographical Indication?
(a) Goa Feni
(b) Nagpur orange
(c) Indian Neem tree
(d) Kolhapuri chappal
211. Who can initiate an action for the infringement of a Geographical Indication?
(a) The government
(b) The registered proprietor
(c) The authorized user
(d) An individual having interest
(e) Only 2 and 3
(f) All of the above
212. When did Biological Diversity Act, 2002, come into force?
(a) 01 April 1966
(b) 01 March 1967
(c) 01 May 1960
(d) 1 October 2003
213. Which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 deals with the Establishment of the
National Biodiversity Authority?
(a) Section 12 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(b) Section 08 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(c) Section 14 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(d) Section 20 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002
214. Which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 deals with Functions and powers of
National Biodiversity Authority?
215. Section 22 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 deals with_______?

(a) Budget, accounts, and audit.
(b) Establishment of State Biodiversity Board.
(c) Biodiversity heritage sites
(d) Constitutions of Biodiversity Management Committees
216. Constitution of Local Biodiversity Fund, is provided in section____ of Biological

Diversity Act, 2002
217. Section 16 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 provides _?
(a) Delegation of powers
(b) Transfer of biological resource or knowledge
(c) Functions of State Biodiversity Board.
(d) Power of Central Government to designate repositories
218. Which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 deals with Meetings of National
Biodiversity Authority?
219. Section 52A of Biological Diversity Act, 2002deals with_______?

(a) Appeal to National Green Tribunal
(b) Grants to Local Biodiversity Fund
(c) Functions of State Biodiversity Board
(d) Transfer of biological resource or knowledge
220. Which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 deals with the Transfer of
biological resource or knowledge?
221. Section 10 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002deals with_______?

(a) Delegation of powers
(b) Committees of National Biodiversity Authority
(c) Chairperson to be Chief Executive of National Biodiversity Authority
(d) Establishment of State Biodiversity Board
222. Following person/persons are entitled to apply for patents

(a) A person claiming to be first inventor of the invention
(b) A Legal representative of the first inventor of the invention (If he deceased)
(c) Any person who is the assignee of the first inventor of the invention
223. Every application for a patent shall be for _ invention only

(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
224. How long is a patent valid in India?

(a) 30 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 60 years
225. What cannot be patented in India?
(a) a computer program
(b) scientific theory
(c) mathematical method
(d) All of the Above
226. What can be patented under Patent Act 1970?

(a) Playing a game
(b) An Invention
(c) A scheme
(d) an aesthetic creation
227. How many types of compulsory licenses are provided for under the Indian Patent Act?
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
228. Which section of the patent act, 1970 deals with the falsification of entries in the
register?
(a) Section 100 of the patent act, 1970
(b) Section 110 of the patent act, 1970
(c) Section 109 of the patent act, 1970
(d) Section 119 of the patent act, 1970
229. Section 25 of the Patent Act.1970 deals with___?

(a) Form, extent and effect of patent
(b) Unauthorised claim of patent rights
(c) Opposition to the patent
(d) Powers of Controller in case of potential infringement
230. Which section of the patent act, 1970 deals with the Register of patents and particulars
to be entered therein?
231. Which section of the patent act, 1970 deals with the Definition of “patented articles” and
“patentee?
232. When did Designs Act 2000, come into force?

(a) 01 April 2000
(b) 01 March 2001
(c) 11 May 2001
(d) 23 April 2000
233. Which section of Designs Act 2000 deals with the Rights of proprietor of lapsed design
which have been restored?
(a) Section 12 of Designs Act 2000
(b) Section 9 of Designs Act 2000
(c) Section 14 of Designs Act 2000
(d) Section 20 of Designs Act 2000
234. Which section of Designs Act 2000 deals with the Publication of particulars of
registered design?
235. Section 25 of Designs Act 2000 deals with_______?

(a) Inspection of registered designs
(b) Piracy of the registered designs
(c) Designs to bind Government
(d) Notice of trust not to be entered in registers
236. Provisions as to exhibitions, is provided in section____ of Designs Act 2000

237. Section 16 of Designs Act 2000 provides _?

(a) Effect of disclosure on copyright
(b) Provisions as to exhibitions
(c) Notice of trust not to be entered in registers
(d) Piracy of the registered design.
238. Which section of Designs Act 2000 deals with the Report of the Controller to be placed
before Parliament?
239. Which section of the Designs Act 2000 deals with the Evidence of documents in the
patent office?
240. When was Copyright Act enacted in India?
(a) 1955
(b) 1959
(c) 1957
(d) 1960
241. Copyright is __.?

(a) Negative right
(b) Positive right
(c) Exclusive right
(d) Both B and C
242. Registrar of Copyrights appointed by __?

(a) The Central Government
(b) The State Government
(c) Parliament
243. What is not eligible for copyright?

(a) Books
(b) Music
(c) Mere variations of typographic ornamentation
(d) Painting
244. Which Section of the Copyright Act contains the meaning of copyright /
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 10
245. Which Section of the Copyright Act recognised the concept of joint authorship?
(a) Section 2(k)
(b) Section 2(l)
(c) Section 2(f)
(d) Section 2(z)
246. Which of the following is not a fair use of a copyrighted work?

(a) Use for research
(b) Use for Criticism
(c) Use for review
(d) Use for commercial purposes
247. What is the punishment for copyright infringement?

(a) Imprisonment 9 months to 3 years + fine of Rs. 1 lakh to 2 lakhs
(b) Imprisonment 6 months to 3 years + fine of Rs. 50,000 to 2 lakhs
(c) Imprisonment 1 year to 3 years + fine of Rs. 50,000 to 3 lakhs
(d) Imprisonment 6 months to 2 years + fine of Rs. 40,000 to 2 lakhs
248. In India, for copyright infringement, the Copyright Act 1957 provides the following
remedies –
(a) Administrative remedies
(b) Civil remedies
(c) Criminal remedies
249. Which Section of the Copyright Act the performers right?

(a) Section 31
(b) Section 22
(c) Section 38
(d) Section 29
250. What is PBR?

(a) Plant breeding right
(b) Plant breeders’ rights
(c) Plants breed rights.
(d) All of the above.
251. By what name is PBR also known as?

(a) Plant Species Rights.
(b) Pant Variety Rights.
(c) Plant Development Rights.
252. PBR gives exclusive control to a plant breeder over which one of the following
material?
(a) Seeds.
(b) Cuttings.
(c) Harvested products.
253. What should be the qualification for the right to be exclusive?

(a) A variety must be new.
(b) A variety must be distinct.
(c) A variety must have uniformity.
254. When will be a variety new?

(a) No commercialization for more than one year in the country of origin.
(b) No commercialization for more than 6 months in the country of origin.
(c) No commercialization for more than 3 months in the country of origin.
(d) No commercialization for more than 1 month in the country of origin.
255. Consider about a new plant variety

1. A plant variety will be distinct if it differs from all other known varieties by height,
colour or maturity.
2. It will be uniform if the plant characteristics are consistent within plant to plant.
3. It will be stable if the plant characteristics are genetically fixed from generation to
generation.
(a) Only 1 is true.
(b) Only 2 is true.
(c) Only 3 is true.
(d) All are true.
256. For how many years is an exclusive right given for a plant variety?
1) 30-40 years.
2) 20-25 years.
3) 15-20 years.
4) None of the above.
257. Which one is a criterion for the registration of a new variety?

(a) Market demand.
(b) Distinctiveness.
(c) Customer acceptance.
(d) Insect-pests resistance.
258. What type of right is IPR under PPV & FR Act, 2001?
(a) Single right.
(b) Dual right.
(c) Triple right.
259. What is the dual right under PPV & FR Act, 2001?
(a) One is for the variety and the other is for the denomination.
(b) One is for the variety and the other is for breeder.
(c) One is for the variety and the other is for farmer.
(d) One is for the farmer and the other is for breeder.
260. What is EDV?

(a) Essentially Designed Varieties.
(b) Essentially Developed Varieties.
(c) Essentially Derived Varieties.
261. Period of protection under section 5 of Seeds Act, 1956.

1. Field crop: 15 years.
2. Trees and vines: 18 years.
3. Notified varieties: 15 years
Which is true?
(a) Only 1 is true.
(b) Only 2 is true.
(c) Only 3 is true.
(d) All are true.
262. What is seed sovereignty?

(a) The right “to breed and exchange diverse open-sourced seeds”.
(b) The right “to breed and sale diverse open-sourced seeds”.
(c) The right “to breed and store diverse open-sourced seeds”.
263. Who is a farmer?
(a) The one who cultivates crops by cultivating the land himself.
(b) The one who cultivates crops by directly supervising the cultivation.
(c) The one who adds value to wild species or local varieties through selection and
identify their useful properties.
264. When did The Forest Conservation Act 1980, come into force?
(a) 01 April 1980
(b) 25 October 1980
(c) 01 May 1980
(d) 23 April 1980
265. Which section of The Forest Conservation Act 1980 deals with the Penalty for
contravention of the provisions of the Act?
(a) Section 3 of The Forest Conservation Act 1980
(b) Section 3A of The Forest Conservation Act 1980
(c) Section 4 of The Forest Conservation Act 1980
(d) Section 2 of The Forest Conservation Act 1980
266. Which section of The Forest Conservation Act 1980 deals with Offences by authorities
and Government department?
(a) Section 3 of the Forest Conservation Act 1980
(b) Section 5 of the Forest Conservation Act 1980
(c) Section 3B of the Forest Conservation Act 1980
(d) Section 2 of the Forest Conservation Act 1980
267. Constitution of Advisory Committee., is provided in section____ of The Forest

Conservation Act 1980
(b) Section 2 of The Forest Conservation Act 1980
268. Which section of The Forest Conservation Act 1980 deals with the Restriction on the de-
reservation of forests or use of forest land for non-forest purposes?
(b) Section 3A of The Forest Conservation Act 1980
269. Which section of The Forest Conservation Act 1980 deals with Repeal and saving?
(b) Section 4 of The Forest Conservation Act 1980
270. The rights of performers, phonogram producers and broadcasting organizations are
certainly covered, and are internationally protected by the
(a) Berne Convention
(b) Rome Convention
(c) Geneva Phonogram Convention
(d) Convention Relating to the Distribution of Programme - Carrying Signals Transmitted
by Satellite. (Brussels Convention, 1974)
271. The Conventions (Art. 14 Rome; Art. 4 Geneva) set a minimum term of protection of
producers' rights of twenty years from the end of the year in which the
(a) The phonogram was first published (or from its creation for unpublished recordings)
(b) The first date on which the phonogram was transmitted
(c) The first date on which the phonogram was displayed
272. The _____ protects literary works, dramatic works, musical works, artistic works,
cinematograph films and sound recordings.
(a) International Law
(b) Indian copyright law
(c) Global Trade laws
(d) International Labour Laws
273. The civil remedies are provided under _______ and the remedies provided include
injunctions, damages and account of profits
(a) Chapter V of the Copyright Act 1957
(b) Chapter XII of the Copyright Act 1957
(c) Chapter II of the Copyright Act 1957
274. The author of a work may ________ all or any of the rights comprised in the copyright
in the work by giving notice in the prescribed form to [the Registrar of Copyrights or by way
of public notice] and thereupon such rights shall, subject to the provisions of subsection (3),
cease to exist from the date of the notice.
(a) Relinquish
(b) Surrender
(c) License
(d) Transfer
275. The _______ are provided under Chapter XIII of the statute and the remedies provided
against copyright infringement include imprisonment (up to 3 years) along with a fine (up to
200,000 Rupees).
(a) criminal remedies
(b) judicial remedies
(c) Juridical Remedies
(d) Quasi-Judicial Remedies
276. The term “publication” under The Copyright Act of 1957 means making a work
available to the public by issue of copies or by ________ the work to the public.
(a) Transmitting
(b) Transferring
(c) Communicating
(d) Forwarding
277. In India, the registration of copyright is _________ as the registration is treated as mere
recordal of a fact. The registration does not create or confer any new right and is not a
prerequisite for initiating action against infringement.
(a) Not exclusive
(b) Not mandatory
(c) Not compulsory
278. Copyright of "works" of foreign nationals, whose countries are member of Convention
Countries to which India is a signatory, are protected against any infringement of their
"works" in India through ________.
(a) The International Copyright Order, 1999
(b) The International Copyright Order, 2004
(c) The International Copyright Order, 2006
(d) The International Copyright Order, 2008
279. In the case of original literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works, the duration of
copyright is the lifetime of the author or artist, and ______ counted from the year following
the death of the author.
(a) 60 years
(b) 70 Years
(c) 75 years
(d) 50 years
280. Geographical Indications can be registered in India for

(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) both goods and services
(d) none of the above
281. Which of the following can be constituents of a design under Designs Act, 2000?
(a) shape or configuration
(b) composition of lines or colours
(c) pattern or ornament
(d) all of the above
282. As per Designs Act, 2000, the features of a design upon its application to a finished
article can appeal to and are judged solely by the
(a) Nose
(b) Ear
(c) Eye
(d) Tongue
283. The period for which protection to a design is granted by registration under Designs Act,
2000 is
(a) ten year, extendable once by another ten years
(b) ten years, extendable once by another five years
(c) ten years, extendable indefinite number of times by five years at each time
(d) ten years, extendable indefinite number of times by ten years at each time
284. Upon expiry of registration of a design under Designs Act, 2000 it becomes
(a) property of the central government
(b) property of the state government
(c) public property
(d) property of municipal authorities
285. Which of the following Geographical Indications are not prohibited from registration in
India?
(a) the use of which would be likely to deceive or cause confusion
(b) which relate to goods produced with traditional knowledge
(c) which comprises or contains scandalous or obscene matter
(d) which would otherwise be disentitled to protection in a court
286. Which of the following acts in relation to a semiconductor integrated circuit layout
design does not amount to commercial exploitation?
(a) lease of semiconductor integrated circuit
(b) sale or offer or exhibition for sale of semiconductor integrated circuit
(c) distribution for commercial purpose of semiconductor integrated circuit
(d) lien on semiconductor integrated circuit
287. For the purposes of Semiconductor Integrated Circuit Layout Design Act, 2000, the
Central Government may appoint a person as
(a) Registrar of Semiconductor Integrated Circuit Layout Design
(b) Controller of Semiconductor Integrated Circuit Layout Design
(c) Controller-General of Semiconductor Integrated Circuit Layout Design
(d) Commissioner of Semiconductor Integrated Circuit Layout Design
288. Which of the following attributes is not necessary for a piece of information to qualify
as a trade secret?
(a) it should be commercially valuable
(b) it should be known only to a limited number of persons
(c) it should be subject to reasonable steps taken by the rightful holder of the information
to keep it secret
(d) it should be in writing
289. Which of the following information may constitute a trade secret?

(a) manufacturing processes
(b) distribution methods
(c) list of suppliers and clients
(d) all of the above
290. What does the TRIPS Agreement stand for?
(a) Trade-Related Agreement on Intellectual Property
(b) Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(c) Trade-Related Agreement on Industrial Property
(d) Trade-Related Agreement on Copyright and Related Rights
291. Which organization oversees the implementation of the TRIPS Agreement?

(a) World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
(b) United Nations (UN)
(c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(d) International Labour Organization (ILO)
292. Which type of intellectual property rights does the TRIPS Agreement not cover?
(a) Patents
(b) Trademarks
(c) Copyrights
(d) Geographical indications
(e) None of these
293. Which article of the TRIPS Agreement deals with the protection of plants?
(a) Article 22
(b) Article 27 (27.3(b))
(c) Article 30
(d) Article 40
294. What is the minimum term of copyright protection under the TRIPS Agreement?
(a) 20 years
(b) 50 years (Art. 12 & 14)
(c) 70 years
(d) 100 years
295. Which provision of the TRIPS Agreement allows for compulsory licensing of
pharmaceuticals?
(a) Article 27
(b) Article 31 (31(f))
(c) Article 40
(d) Article 44
296. Which provision of the TRIPS Agreement allows for the use of patented inventions for
non-commercial purposes?
(a) Article 30
(b) Article 31
(c) Article 40
(d) Article 44
297. Which provision of the TRIPS Agreement deals with the enforcement of intellectual
property rights?
(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part V
298.Which provision of the TRIPS Agreement requires member countries to provide for
criminal procedures and penalties for intellectual property infringement?
(a) Article 61
(b) Article 62
(c) Article 63
(d) Article 64
299.Which provision of the TRIPS Agreement deals with the relationship between the TRIPS
Agreement and other international agreements?
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 2
(c) Article 3
(d) Article 4
300. Every application for a patent shall be for one invention only and shall be filed in Form-
1 at an appropriate office
(a) One invention- one application
(b) Up to four connected inventions are permissible
(c) Multiple inventions can be clubbed in one application and special fees to be
charged for it
(d) One major invention and one minor invention are permissible
301.Types of Patent Applications permissible in India

I. Ordinary Application i.e., an application which has been filed directly in the
Indian Patent Office without claiming priority of any foreign application.
II. Convention Application claiming the priority of a country which is a member to
Paris Convention.
III. PCT National Phase Application.
IV. Divisional Application, i.e., a further application divided out of the first-
mentioned patent application.
V. Patent of Addition i.e. an application for patent in respect of any improvement in
or modification of the invention for which the patent application has already been
filed or patent has been granted.
The correct answer will be
(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only I
302.An application for patent shall be filed with the Patent Office having appropriate
jurisdiction. The territorial jurisdiction of patent office in respect of a patent application
is decided based on any of the following:
I. Place of residence, domicile or business of the applicant (first mentioned applicant in
case of joint applicants) or,
II. Place from where an invention actually originated or,
III. Address for service in India given by the applicant, when the Applicant has no place
of business or domicile in India (Foreign applicants).
The correct answer will be
(a) All are true
(b) Only (I)
(c) Only (I) and (II)
303.As per Section 77(1)(c) of the Act and Rule 126 of the Patents Rules, the Controller has
the power to receive evidence on affidavits which shall be duly sworn in.
(a) Yes
(b) Evidence through affidavit is not permissible for granting Patent.
(c) No
(d) Only a self-declaration signed before the Controller, who is legally empowered to
receive the evidence, may also be considered as admissible evidence in any
proceeding before the Controller under the Patents Act if the Controller so allows.

MCQs On Intellectual Property Rights Sol

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MCQs On Intellectual Property Rights Sol

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MCQs on Intellectual Property Rights

1. Trade mark Act, came into force on-

2. Associated trademarks means-

3. Trade Marks Registry established under——Act

5. Which of the following is not type of patent –

6. Which of the following is a ground of Revocation of patents –

7. Copyright Act came into force on-

10. Copyright in registered designs -

11. Biological Diversity Act came into force on –

13. Section 7 of the Patents Act, 1970 deals with __?

19. Section 25 of the Designs Act 2000deals with_______?

20. Application of certain provisions of the Act as to patents to designs, is provided in

21. Section 14 of the Designs Act 2000 provides _?

25. Section 10 of the Designs Act 2000 deals with_______?

26. In which article is intellectual property rights outlined?

28. Which of the following can you copyright?

29. Which of the following identifies as a trademark?

30. Which is a negative aspect of the trademark?

33. Which of the following is (are) included in Geographical indications of Good?

34. Design does not include _________

37. Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights is TRIPS. TRIPS is

38. Anti-Counterfeiting Trade Agreement (ACTA) was adopted in 2011, ACTA is a

45. The term “WIPO” stands for:-

48. Which of the following is not an intellectual property law?

49. Copyright law applies to forms of expression contained in –

51. Which of the following statements is true?

53. Trademark law protects………

54. Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?

55. Why an invention should be patented?

56. The rights of a patentee are

57. A policy (or policies) behind the patent system is ……

60. How long do patents usually last for?

61. What protects the intellectual property created by inventors?

62. What protects the intellectual property created by designers?

(a) Only I is correct

64. Hague System is related to:

65. In general, to qualify as a trade secret, the information must be:

68. According to UPOV, a breeder can be

(a) Only I is correct

(a) Only I, IV are true

70. Can hybrid variety be protected under UPOV System?

(a) Only II is correct

74. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in _________at

(a) Only I is true

80. Fill in the blanks:

83. How a geographical indication is different from a trade mark?

84. Can a registered geographical indication be assigned, transmitted, etc?

85. When is a registered Geographical Indication said to be infringed?

86. What is the effect if a Geographical Indication if it is not renewed?

88. What is a Geographical Indication?

(a) Only (I), (II), (III)

89. The internationally accepted term for a patent is:

90. For registration of a Trade Mark, it must be:

91. Patents are granted for a new:

92. Term of a patent in India is:

94. A patent comes into existence:

97. One of the following cannot be protected by copyright:

98. A term of a Trade Mark is:

99. An Indian Patent is effective in:

101. Can one obtain a 'world patent'?

102. The term of a design registration right is:

104. Can a minor file an application for patent?

107. Can one transfer or sell the rights in a patent?