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24-03- 2024 Batch : ODD BATCH

Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION ALL UNIT 111 VERSION
Time: 3.10 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
A1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 3. A simple pendulum performs simple

harmonic motion about x=0 with an
Section A (1-35) answer all questions amplitude a and time period T. The
a
1. The density of material in CGS system speed of the pendulum at x  will
2
of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units be:
in which unit of length is 10 cm and
unit of mass is 100g, the value of
density of material will be a 32a
1) 2)
T T
1) 0.4 2) 40

3) 400 4) 0.04 a 3 a 3
3) 4)
T 2T
2. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is
hinged at end P. The rod is kept 4. An electron of mass m and a photon
horizontal by a massless string tied have same energy E. The ratio of de-
to point Q as shown in figure. When Broglie wavelengths associated with
string is cut, the initial angular them is:
acceleration of the rod is
1 1
1  E 2  E 2
1)   2)  
c  2m   2m 

1
1 1  2m  2
3) c  2mE  2 4)  
c E 

5. Which logic gate is represented by the

g following combination of logic gate?
1)
L

2g
2)
L

2g
3)
3L
1) NAND 2) AND
3g
4) 3) NOR 4) OR
2L
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 2

6. The time dependence of a physical 10. The photoelectric work function for a
metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut

quantity p is given by p  p 0 exp t
2
, off wavelength for this surface is
where  is a constant and t is the nearly
time. The constant 
o
1) is dimensionless 1) 4125 A

2) has dimensions T–2

2) 3000 A
o

3) has dimension T2

3) 6000 A
o
4) has dimensions of p

7. A long solenoid carrying a current o

produces a magnetic field B along its 4) 2062.5A
axis. If the current is double and the
number of turns per cm is halved, the 11. A bus is moving with a speed of 10
new value of the magnetic field is ms–1 on a straight road. A scooterist
wishes to overtake the bus in 100s. If
1) 4B 2) B/2 the bus is at a distance of 1km from
the scooterist, with what spee d
3) B 4) 2B should the scooterist chase the bus?

8. Monochromatic radiation emitted 1) 40 ms–1 2) 25 ms–1

when electron in hydrogen atom
jumps from first excited to the ground
state irradiates a photosensitive
material. The stopping potential is
12.
measured to be 3.57V. The threshold
frequency of the material is
1) 4×1015Hz 2) 5×1015 Hz
3) 1.6×1015 Hz 4) 2.5×1015 Hz
3) 10 ms–1 4) 20 ms–1
The density of a newly discovered
planet is twice that of earth. The
acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of the planet is equal to that
at the surface of the earth. If the
radius of the earth is R, the radius of
the planet would be

9. If the velocity of a particle is v=At+Bt2,

where A and B are constants, then 1
1) R
the distance travelled by it between 2
1s and 2s is:
2) 2R
3
1) A  4B 2) 3A  7B 3) 4R
2

3 7 A B 1
A B  4) R
3) 4) 4
2 3 2 3
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 3

13. A coil in the shape of an equilateral 16. A coil of resistance 400 is placed in
triangle of side l is suspended a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux
between the pole pieces of a  (wb) linked with the coil varies with

permanent magnet such that B is in t im e t (sec) as  =50t2+4. The current
the plane of the coil. If due to a in the coil at t=2sec is
current i in the triangle a torque
 acts on it, the side l of the triangle 1) 0.5 A 2) 0.1 A
is
3) 2A 4) 1A
1 1
2    2    2
1)   2) 2   17. The Bohr model of atoms
3  Bi   3Bi 
1) Predicts the same emission spectra
2    1  for all types of atoms
3)   4)
3  Bi  3 Bi
2) Assume s that the angular
momentum of electrons is quantised
1
14. An alpha nucleus of energy mv2
2 3) uses Einste in’s photoe le ctric
bombards a heavy nuclear target of equation
charge Ze. Then the distance of
closest approach for the alpha 4) predicts continuous e mission
nucleus will be proportional to spectra for atoms

1 18. A body is projected for maximum

1) 2) V2
Ze range with an initial velocity of 20
m/s. If g=10m/s 2, the range of the
body is
1 1
3) 4)
m v4
1) 40 m 2) 50 m
15. A particle of mass m is thrown
upwards from the surface of the 3) 60 m 4) 20 m
earth, with a velocity u. The mass
and the radius of the earth are, 19. The approximate depth of an ocean
respectively, M and R. G is is 2700m. The compressibility of
gravitational constant and g is water is 45.4×10–11Pa –1 and density
acceleration due to gravity on the of water is 103 kg/m3. What fractional
surface of the earth. The minimum compression of water will be obtained
value of u so that the particle does at the bottom of the ocean?
not return back to earth, is
1) 1.0×10–2
2GM 2GM
1) 2) 2) 1.2×10–2
R R2
3) 1.4×10–2
2gM
3) 2gR 2 4) 4) 0.8×10–2
R2
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4

20. Intensity o f an e le ctric field (E) 24. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g
depends on distance r, due to a short of water at 10°C. Whe n wate r
dipole, is related as acquires a temperature of 80°C, the
mass of water present will be

1 1
1) E  2) E  [Take spe cific he at of wate r =
r r2 1cal g–1 °C-1 and latent heat of steam
= 540 cal g–1)
1 1
3) E  4) E  1) 24 g 2) 31.5 g
r3 r4
3) 42.5 g 4) 22.5 g
21. An inductor may store energy in
25. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10cm
1) its electric field is charged such that the potential on
its surface is 80V. The potential at
2) its coils the centre of the sphere is

3) its magnetic field 1) Zero

4) both in electric and magnetic fields 2) 80 V

22. The mass number of a nucleus is 3) 800 V

4) 8 V
1) Sometimes less than and
sometimes more than i ts atomic
number 26. In a circuit, L, C and R are connected
in series with an alternating voltage
source of frequency f. The current
2) always less than its atomic number
leads the voltage by 45°. The value
of C is
3) always more than its atomic
number
1
4) sometimes equal to its atomic 
1) f 2fL  R

number

23. When a body moves with a constant 1

speed along a circle? 
2) 2f 2fL  R

1) its velocity remains constant
1
2) no force acts on it 
3) f 2fL  R

3) no work is done on it
1
4) no acceleration is produced in it 
4) 2f 2fL  R

FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5

27. The total power dissipated in watts
in the circuit shown here is
29. Two slits in Young’s experiment have
widths in the ratio 1:25. The ratio of
intensity at the maxima and minima
I max
in the interference pattern,
I min is:

121 49
1) 2)
49 121

4 9
3) 4)
9 4

1) 40 2) 54 30. A wave of frequency 100 Hz is sent

3) 4 4) 16
28. The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its
refracting surfaces is silvered. Light
rays falling at an angle of incidence
2A on the first surface returns back
through the same path after suffering
reflection at the silvered surface. The
refractive index , of the prism is
along a string towards a fixed end.
When this wave travels back after
reflection, a node is formed at a
distance of 10cm from the fixed end
of the string. The speeds of incident
(and reflected) waves are
1) 5 m/s
2) 10 m/s

3) 20 m/s

4) 40 m/s

31. An object is placed in a medium of

refractive index 3. An electromagnetic
wave of intensity 6×10 8 W/m2 falls
normally on the object and it is
absorbed completely. The radiation
pressure on the object would be
(speed of light in free space =3×108
1) 2 sinA m/s)

2) 2 cosA 1) 36 Nm–2

2) 18 Nm–2
1
3) cos A
2
3) 6 Nm–2

4) tan A
4) 2 Nm–2
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 6

32. Three identical spherical shells, 35. The stable nucleus that has a radius
each of mass m and radius r are half that of Fe56
placed as shown in figure. Consider
an axis XX ' which is touching to two 1) Li7
shells and passing through diameter
of third shell. Moment of inertia of 2) Na21
the system consisting of these three
spherical shells about XX ' axis is 3) S16

4) Ca40

Section B(36-50) answer any 10 Qns.

36. The coe fficient of static fricti on,

 s , between block A of mass 2kg and
the table as shown in the figure is
0.2. What would be the maximum
mass value of block B so that the two
blocks do not move? The string and
the pulley are assumed to be smooth
and massless (g=10m/s2)
16 2
1) 3mr2 2) mr
5

7
3) 4 mr2 4) mr 2
2

33. The work done in turning a magnet

of magnetic moment M by an angle
of 90° from the meridian, is n times
the corresponding work done to turn 1) 0.4 kg 2) 2.0 kg
it through an angle of 60°. The value
of n is given by
3) 4.0 kg 4) 0.2 kg
1) 2 2) 1
37. Certain quantity of water cools from
3) 0.5 4) 0.25 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes
and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes.
34. The electric field in a certain region The temperature of the surroundings
is acting initially outward and is given is:
by E=Aa. A charge contained in a
sphere of radius ‘a’ centred at the 1) 45°C
origin of the field, will be given by
2) 20°C
1) A 0a 2 2) 4 0 Aa 3
3) 52°C

3)  0 Aa 4) 4 0 Aa 2 4) 10°C
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 7

38. A uniform wire of resistance 12 ohm 40. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian

is bent to form a complete circle of
radius 10cm. The resistance between
its two diametrically opposite points.
A and B as shown in the figure is
spherical surface of radius R. If the
radius is doubled, then the outward
electric flux will
1) increase four times

2) be reduced to half

3) remain the same

4) be doubled

41. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage

1) 3 2) 6
e=200 2 sin100t volts is connected
3) 6 4) 0.6 to a capacitor of capacity 1F . The
r.m.s value of the current in the
39. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit is
circuit with two inputs A and B and
the output Y. The voltage waveforms 1) 10 mA 2) 100 mA
of A, B and Y are given
3) 200 mA 4) 20 mA

42. A 25cm long solenoid has radius 2cm

and 500 total number of turns. It
carries a current of 15 A. If it is
equivalent to a magnet of the same

size and magnetization M -(magnetic

moment/volume), then M is

1) 30000Am 1

2) 3Am 1

3) 30000Am 1

4) 300Am 1

The logic gate is 43. A convex lens and a concave lens,

each having same focal length of
1) NAND gate 25cm, are put in contact to form a
combination of lenses. What is power
2) NOR gate in diopters of the combination is

3) OR gate 1) 50 2) infinite

4) AND gate 3) Zero 4) 25

FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 8

44. What will be the e quivalent 47. A ball is projected from the ground with velocity
resistance of circuit shown in figure u such that its range is maximum.
between two points A and D

Column I Column II

Velocity at half of the u

i) a)
maximum height 2

Velocity at the maximum 3

ii) b) u
height
2

Change in its velocity when u 5

iii) c)
it returns to the ground 2 2
1) 10 2) 20 Average velocity when it
iv) reaches the maximum d) u 2
height
3) 30 4) 40

45. In photoelectric effe ct the work 1) i - a; ii - b; iii - c; iv - d

function of a metal is 3.5eV. The
emitted electrons can be stopped by 2) i - b; ii - a; iii - d; iv - c
applying a potential of –1.2 V. Then
3) i - c; ii - a; iii - d; iv - b
1) the energy of the incident photon
is 4.7 eV 4) i - b; ii - d; iii - a; iv - c

2) the energy of the incident photon 48. One mai n scal e di vi si on of a ve rnie r
is 2.3 eV callipers is a cm and nth division of
the vernier scale coincide with (n-
3) if higher frequency photon be used, 1) th division of the main scale. The
the photoelectric current will rise least count of the callipers (in mm)
is
4) when energy of photon is 3.5 eV,
the photoelectric current will be
maximum 10na
1)
 n  1
46. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards
with a velocity of 40m/s, then velocity
of the ball after two seconds will be 10a
(g=10 m/s2) 2)
 n  1
1) 15 m/s
 n 1 
2) 20 m/s 3)  a
 10n 

3) 25 m/s
10a
4)
4) 28 m/s n
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 9

49. Wheatstone bridge principle is used CHEMISTRY

to measure the specific resistance (S1)
of given wire, having length L, radius Section A (51-85) answer all questions
r. If X is the resistance of wire, then

 r 2  51. In which case is the number of

specific resistance is: S1  X   . If molecules of water maximum?
 L 
the length of the wire gets doubled
then the value of specific resistance 1) 18 ml of H 2 O (  )
will be

2) 0.18 g of H 2 O (  )
S1
1)
4
3) 0.00224 L of water vapour at 1 atm
& 273 K
2) 2S1

4) 10–3 mol of water

S1
3)
2 52. A plot of the kinetic energy (½ mv2) of
ejected electrons as a function of the
4) S1 frequency (v) of incident radiation of
four alkali metals (M1, M2, M3, M4) is
50. Given below are two statements: shown below

Statement I: The limiting force of

static friction depends on the area of
contact and independent materials
M1 M2 M3 M4
Statement II: The limiting force of
kinetic friction is independent of the K.E
area of contact depends on materials

In the light of the above statements,

choose the most appropriate answer

from the options given below:

1) Statement 1 is correct bu t
statement incorrect The alkali metals M1, M2, M3 and M4
are respectively
2) Statement 1 is incorrect bu t
statement correct 1) Li, Na, K and Rb

3) Both statement 1 and statement 2) Rb, K, Na and Li

II are incorrect
3) Na, K, Li and Rb
4) Both statement 1 and statement
II are correct
4) Rb, Li, Na and K
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 10

53. Statement I : More is the electron
gain enthalpy, greater is the oxidising
character.
Statement II : Halogens have less
electron gain enthalpy and show
reducing character.
56. Which of the following statements is
not true both for B and Al?
1) They burn in oxygen to give oxides
at high temperature
2) Their halides are Lewis acids

1) Statement I & II are incorrect 3) They combine with nitrogen to form

nitrides
2) Statement II is correct but
Statement I is incorrect 4) The y re act with HCl to form
chlorides
3) Statement I & II are correct
57. Assertion : Alkynes are more reactive
4) Statement I is correct but Statement towards nucleophilic addition reaction
II is incorrect as compared to alkenes.

54. The bond dissociation energies of X2,Y2 Reason : Alkynes contain two pi bonds,
and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1, while alkenes have only one pi bond.
H for the formation of XY is
–200 kJ/mol. The bond dissociation 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
energy of X2 will be and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
1) 200 kJ/mol 2) 100 kJ/mol
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
3) 800 kJ/mol 4) 400 kJ/mol and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
55. Match the entries of Column I with
appropriate entries of Column II 3) Assertion is true but Reason is
false
Column I Column II
(Compound) (Structure) 4) Both Assertion and Reason are
A) ClF 3 1) Square planar false
B) PCl 5 2) Tetrahedral
58. A 0.02 M solution of pyridinium
Triagonal
C) IF5 3)
bipyramidal
Square hydrochloride has
D) CCl 4 4) Cl
pyramidal
E) XeF4 5) T-shaped N

1) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1 H

pH = 3.44. The ionisation constant of

2) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-1 pyridine in terms of logarithm is

3) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-2 1) –3.52 2) –5.81

4) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1 3) –8.82 4) –6.51

FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 11

59. Match the structures given in List I 61. Which of the following alkenes is most
with the IUPAC name of compounds stable?
given in List II.

List I List II 1) 2)
C2H5
CH3 4-fluoro-1-ethyl
A) p)
3-nitrobenzene

3) 4)
1,1,3-trimethyl
B) q)
cyclohex-2-ene 62. The formula of the compound which
gives violet colour in Lassaigne’s test
for sulphur with sodium nitroprusside
4-ethyl-1-fluoro- is
C) r)
2-nitrobenzene
1) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
OH

NO2 2) Na4[Fe(CN)5NCS]
F 6-ethyl-1-methyl
D) s) 3) Na 4[Fe(CN) 5NOS]
cyclohex-1-ene
C2H5
4) Na 2[Fe(CN) 5NOS]
1,3,3-trimethyl
t)
cyclohex-1-ene
63. CH3  CH  CH  CH2  HBr  A
4,4-dimethyl-
u)
2-cyclohexenol CH3

1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s A (predominantly) is

2) A-u, B-t, C-s, D-r 1) CH3  CH  CH  CH3

3) A-s, B-t, C-u, D-r Br CH3

4) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s

2) CH3  CH  CH  CH3
60. Number of primary alcohols of the CH3 Br
formula C 5 H 12 O are (excluding
stereoisomers)
3) CH3  CH  CH2  CH2  Br
1) 1
CH3
2) 4
Br
3) 5
4) CH3  C  CH2  CH3
4) 3
CH3
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 12

64. Which one of the following compound 67. At same temperature, which pair of
will be most readily dehydrated? the following solutions are isotonic
solutions?
O
1) 0.2 M BaCl2 and 0.2 M area
C CH2 CH2
1) CH3 CH CH2 CH3
2) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl
OH
3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M K2SO4
O
4) 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
C CH2 CH3
2) CH3 CH CH2
68. How many atoms of calcium will be
deposited from a solution of CaCl2 by
OH
a current of 25 mA flowing for 60 s?
O OH
1) 4.68 × 1018 2) 4.68 × 1015
C CH CH3
3) CH3 CH2 CH2 3) 5.34 × 1017 4) 3.8 × 109

OH 69. The increasing thermal stability of the

CH2 hydride s of group 16 foll ows the
CH CH2 CH3
4) CH3 CH2 C sequence

O 1) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te

65. The complex having the highest spin

2) H2Te, H2Se, H2S, H2O
only magnetic moment is
3) H2S, H2O, H2Se, H2Te
1) [Fe(CN)6]3– 2) [Fe(H2O) 6]2+

3) [MnF 6] 4– 4) [NiCl4]2– 4) H2Se, H2S, H2O, H2Te

66. Statement I : HNO2 can act both as 70. Which is the correct statement about
oxidising as well as reducing agent. Cr2O72 structure?

Statement II : The oxidation state of

N in HNO2 is (+3) 1) It has neither Cr–Cr bonds nor O–
O bonds
1) Statement I is inco rrect but
Statement II is correct 2) It has one Cr–Cr bonds and six O–O
bonds
2) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect 3) It has no Cr–Cr bonds and has six
O–O bonds
3) Statement I & II are incorrect
4) It has one Cr–Cr bonds and seven
4) Statement I & II are correct Cr–O bonds
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 13

71. Statement I : Tertiary haloalkanes are 74. Predict the products in the given
more reactive than primary reaction
haloalkanes towards elimination
reactions.
Statement II : The +I effect of the alkyl CHO
groups weakens the C–X bond.
1) Both Statement I & II are correct 
50% NaOH

2) Statement I is correct but Statement Cl
II is incorrect
3) Both Statement I & II are incorrect
4) Statement I is inco rrect but
CH2OH CH2COO
Statement II is correct
1) +
72. Which of the following compound is
most acidic?
1) Cl–CH2–CH2–OH Cl Cl

OH

2)
CH2OH OH
NO2
2) +
OH
3)
Cl OH

OH

4) CH2OH COO
CH3
3) +
73. Which of the following compounds are
capable of produce silver mirror during
Tollen’s test Cl Cl

CHO

i) CH  CH ii) CH2OH COO

4) +

iii) H–CHO iv) CH3–CH2–CHO

OH OH
1) i and iii 2) iii and iv
3) i, ii, iii and iv 4) ii, iii and iv
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 14

75. In a set of reactions, acetic acid yielded 77. In lactose, the reducing part is
product D
1) Galactose 2) Glucose
CH3  COOH 
SOCl2
 A 
Benzene
an. AlCl3
B 
HCN
 C 
HOH
D
3) Fructose 4) Mannose
The structure D would be
78. In the case of noble gases, the
OH
following trend Xe > Kr > Ar > He is
correct for
1) C COOH
i) Boiling point
CH3
ii) Solubility in water

iii)Ionisation enthalpy
COOH
iv) Ease of liquefaction
2) CH2 C CH3
1) i and ii only
OH
2) i and iii only

CN 3) ii, iii and iv only

3) C CH3 4) i, ii and iv only

OH 79. A first order reaction is 50% complete

in 30 minute s at 27 0 C and in
10 minute at 47 0 C. The energy of
OH activation of the reaction is
4) CH2 C CH3
1) 43.84 kJ/mol
CN
2) 34.84 kJ/mol

76. In the Hoffmann bromamide 3) 84 kJ/mol

degradation reaction, the number of
moles of NaOH and Br2 used per mole 4) 30 kJ/mol
of amine produced are
80. The specific conductance (K) of 0.02
1) One mole of NaOH and one mole of
M aqueous acetic acid solution at 298
Br 2
K is 1.65 × 10–4 Scm–1. The degree of
2) Four moles of NaOH and two moles dissociation of acetic acid (Given molar
of Br2 conductance at infinite dilution of H+
= 349.1 Scm2 mol–1 and CH3–COO– =
3) Two moles of NaOH and two moles 40.9 Scm2mol–1)
of Br2
1) 0.021 2) 0.21
4) Four moles of NaOH and one mole
of Br2 3) 0.012 4) 0.12
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 15

81. Which of the following reactions do not 85. The intermediate in Reimer Tiemann
yield an amine reaction is

 

1) R  C  N  H2O 
H
 1) C H3 2) C Cl2

 
2) R  X  NH3  3) C H3 4) C Cl2

Section B (86-100) answer any 10 Qns.

3) R  CH  N  OH  
Na
C2H5 OH
86. The term ‘P’ in the expression rate =
zPe–Ea/Rt accounts for
4) R  CONH2 
LiAlH4

1) Probability factor

82. The change in potential of the half cell 2) Number of collisons per unit volume
Cu2 |Cu when aqueous Cu2+ solution per second
(aq ) (s)

is diluted 100times at 298 K? 3) Effective collision between reacting

molecules
1) Increases by 120 mV
4) Fraction of molecules having energy
equal to or greater than activation
2) Decreases by 120 mV energy

3) Increases by 60 mV 87. Match the entries of Column I with

appropriate entries of Column II and
4) Decreases by 60 mV choose the correct option out of the
four
83. The increasing order of boiling points
of the compounds Column I Column II
Non-ideal
I) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO solution
n-hexane +
A) showing p)
n-heptane
II) CH3–CH3–CH2–CH2–OH positive
deviation
III) CH3–CH2–CO–CH3 Non-ideal
solution
IV) CH3–CH2–CH 2–CH 3 Ethanol +
B) showing q)
Water
negative
1) I < II < III < IV 2) IV < I < III < II deviation
Ideal CHCl 3 +
3) II < IV < III < I 4) IV < III < I < II C) r)
solution Acetone
84. Paramagnetic and coloured in the 1) A-p, B-q, C-r
following is
2) A-q, B-r, C-p
1) K2Cr2O7 2) (NH4)2TiCl6
3) A-p, B-r, C-q
3) VOSO 4 4) K3[Cu(CN)4] 4) A-q, B-p, C-r
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 16

88. Statement I : Maltose is a reducing 91. Consider the following sequence of

sugar which gives two moles of reactions
D-glucose on hydrolysis.

Statement II : Maltose has a 1, 4 O

 -glycosidic linkage.
CH3  CH 2  NH 2
  X 
LiAlH 4
Y
1) Both Statement I & II are incorrect

2) Statement I is correct but Statement

II is incorrect
The product Y is
3) Both Statement I & II are correct
N C2H5
4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct 1)
89. What is the product obtained at anode
when electrolysis of concentrated
H2SO 4 using inert electrodes? O
1) O2 2) H2 NH C2H5
2)
3) S2 O82  4) S2 O62 

90. Match the entries of Column I with

appropriate entries of Column II and
NH C2H5
choose the correct option out of the
four 3)

Column II
Column I
(Alcohol formed followed
(Reagents) NH C2H5
by hydrolysis)
CH3-CHO + 4)
A) p) CH3-CH2CH2OH
CH3MgI

CH2O + CH3 CH CH2 CH3

B) q)
CH3CH2MgI 92. Which of the following relation is
OH
correct?
(CH3) 2CO+ CH3 CH CH3
C) r)
CH3MgI
OH 1) Cp–Cv = R
CH3-CHO +
D) s) (CH3)3COH
CH3CH2MgI Cp
2) R
Cv
1) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r

2) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s 3) W  H  PV

3) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
H
4) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q 4) G 
S
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 17

93. Given exothermic reaction 96. BCl 3 is more stable as compared to

Tl Cl 3 . Which of the foll owing
statement does not explain this fact?

CoCl24  6H2 O  2
 [Co(H2O)6 ]  4Cl


1) Inert pair effect is minimum in Tl.

Which o ne of the following will As a result, only 6p1 electron take
decrease the equilibrium part in bond formation
concentration of CoCl 24
2) The most stable oxidation state of
Tl is +1 and not +3. Therefore, TlCl
1) Addition of HCl is stable but TlCl3 is unstable

2) Addition of [Co(NO3)2] 3) B does not show inert pair effect and

all the three valence electrons take
3) Addition of AgNO3 part in bond formation and forms
stable BCl3
4) The temperature is increased
4) BCl3 is electron deficient and B has
always tendency to accept a pair of
94. Among the following ions, the p  d electrons to complete its octet. Thus
overlap could be present in BCl3 is unstable

97. The IUPAC name of the following agent

1) NO3 vanillin used in the manufacture of
biscuits having the following structure
2) PO34

HO CHO is
2
3) CO 3
OMe

4) NO2
1) p-hydroxy-m-methoxybenzaldehyde

95. In the following redox reaction 2) m-hydroxy-p-methoxybenzldehyde

x UO2  Cr2O27  y H  a UO22  zCr3  bH2O 3) 4-hydroxy-3-methoxybenzaldehyde

The values of coefficients, x, y and z 4) 3-hydroxy-4-methoxybenzaldehyde

respectively are
98. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of
1) 3, 8, 2 nitrogen present in a soil sample,
ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample
neutralised 10 ml of 1 M H2SO 4. The
2) 3, 8, 7 percentage of nitrogen in the soil is

3) 3, 2, 4 1) 37.33 2) 45.33

4) 3, 1, 8 3) 35.33 4) 43.33
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 18

99. Match the entries of Column I with 102. Hyphae of Aspergillus are
appropriate entries of Column II and
choose the correct option out of the 1) Aseptae and multinucleate
four
2) Septae and coenocytic
Column II
Column I 3) Septate and uninucleate
(formula for
(salt/acid/base)
calculation of pH)
Sodium 4) Aseptae and uninucleate
A) p) pH  ½[pK w  pK b  log C]
nitrite
Anilinium
103. Choose the incorrect match
B) q) pH  ½[pK w  pK a  pK b ]
chloride
1) Gracillaria - phycoerythrin
Ammonium
r) pH  ½[pK w  p a  log C]
K
C)
cyanide
2) Selaginella - heterosporous
Hydrogen
D) s) pH  ½[pKa  log C]
cyanide
3) Cedrus - unbranched stem

1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s 4) Pinus - monoecious

2) A-s, B-p, C-q, D-r 104. Oogamous reproduction can be seen in

3) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s 1) Spirogyra

4) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s 2) Ulothrix

100. (CH3 )3 C  H 

KMnO4

 A, A is 3) Volvox

1) (CH3)2CHCOOH 4) Both 1 and 3

2) (CH 3) 2CH=CH 2 105. Bulliform cells are

3) (CH3) 2CHCHO 1) Generally present in dorsiventral

leaves
4) (CH 3)3COH
2) Meant for the stomatal opening in
BOTANY monocot plants

Section A : (101-135) answer all Qns. 3) Colourless, empty and large cell
present in leaves of grasses
101. Slime moulds are
4) Coloured, empty and small present
1) The members of deuteromycetes in monocot leaves

2) Saprophytic protists 106. Whorled Phyllotaxy can be seen in

3) Included in monera 1) China rose 2) Alstonia

4) Photosynthetic organisms 3) Calotropis 4) Guava

FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 19

107. Hypodermis of dicot stem is composed 113. Who provide d the evidence for
of production of glucose when plants grow
and usually stored as strach?
1) Parenchyma 2) Collenchyma
1) Cornelius Van Niel
3) Sclerenchyma 4) Bast fibres
2) Jan Ingenhouse
108. In gymnosperm cones bearing
megasporophylls with ovules are called
3) Julius von Sachs
1) Male cone
4) T. W. Engelmann
2) Female strobili
114. In which plant, mesophyll cells lack
3) Megasporangium RUBisCO enzyme?

4) Both 1 and 2 1) Bell pepper

109. The structure which monitor bacterial 2) Maize

transformation with foregin DNA
3) Tomato
1) Genomic DNA 2) Inclusion bodies

3) Mesosome 4) Plasmid DNA 4) Both 1 and 2

110. In which year George Palade first 115. In Glycolysis, the ste p in whi ch
observed ribosome under the electron substrate level of phosphorylation is
microscope as dense particles? taking place

1) 1952 2) 1953 1) PGAL  BPGA

3) 1853 4) 1898 2) Glucose  Glucose 6 phosphate

111. In which phase of cell cycle most of

3) Succinyl co.A  Succinic acid
the cell organelle duplication occurs?

1) S phase 2) G2 phase 4) PEP  pyruvic acid

3) G1 phase 4) M phase 116. In ETS during aerobic respiration,

complex IV refers to
112. Cells in G0 Phase
1) cytochrome c oxidase
1) Terminate cell cycle
2) ATP synthase complex
2) Exit the cell cycle
3) cytochrome b-c, complex
3) Metabolically inactive

4) Suspend the cell cycle 4) NADH dehydrogenase

FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 20

117. N 6 furfurylamino purine, 2,4 121. The separated bands of DNA are cut
dichlorophenoxy acetic acid and indole- out from the agarose gel and extracted
3 acetic acid are examples respectively from the gel pieces. This step is known
for as

1) Synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural 1) Sieving 2) Spooling

auxin

2) Gibberellin, natural auxin and 3) Elution 4) Cloning

kientin
122. In which restriction sites ampicillin
3) Natural auxin, kinetin and synthetic resistance gene present in pBR322
auxin vector?

4) Kinetin, synthetic auxin and natural 1) Pst I, Pvu I 2) Sal,BamH I

auxin
3) cla I, Hind III 4) Pst I, Pvu II
118. The simplest expression of arithemetic
growth is exemplified by
123. Expansion of GEAC
1) Living organism growing in a natural
environment 1) Genetically Engineering Approved
Committee
2) Typical for all cells, tissues and
organs of a plant 2) Genetic Engine ering Approval
Committe
3) Root elongation at a constant rate

4) Both 1 and 2 3) Genetic Engineering Approval co-

operation
119. Polyembryony occurs in
4) Genetic Engineering Approved co-
1) Sunflower 2) Grass
operation
3) Citrus 4) Castor
124. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie,
120. Assertion : Most zygotes divide only produced human protein enriched milk
after certain amount of endosperm is with
formed
1) 2.3 grams per litre
Reason : This is an adaptation to
provide assured nu trition to the 2) 24 grams per litre
developing embryo

1) Both Assertion and Reason are true 3) 2.4 grams per litre
but Reason is NOT the correct
explanation of Assertion 4) 2.4 milligrams per litre

2) Assertion is false but Reason is true 125. The interaction between epiphytes and
mango tree is
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false

4) Both Assertion and Reason are true 1) Amensalism 2) Commensalism

and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion 3) Parasitism 4) Competition
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 21

126. Name the scientist who showed that 130. Match the following
five closely related species of warblers
living on the same tree were able to
avoid competition and co-exist due to
behavi oural difference s in their A) Funaria i) Mosses
foraging activities?
B) Equisetum ii) Lycopsida
1) Gause
C) Pteris iii) Sphenopsida
2) Darwin
D) Lycopodium iv) Pteropsida
3) Connell

4) Mac Arthur 1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

127. In an aquatic ecosystem major conduit 2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

for energy flow is
3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
1) GFC
4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
2) DFC
131. Polyadelphous stamen is present in
3) Detritus
1) China rose 2) Pea
4) Both 1 and 2
3) Mustard 4) Citrus
128. Which is the raw material for
decomposition 132. Large and well developed pith is
present in
1) Dead remains of plants
1) Monocot root
2) Dead remains of animals
2) Dicot root
3) Humus
3) Monocot stem
4) Both 1 and 2
4) Both 1 and 2
129. Which feature in Archebacteria is
responsible for the ir survival in 133. Ide ntify incorrect statement with
extreme conditions respect to interkinesis

1) Cell wall structure 1) Generally short lived

2) Peptidoglycan 2) Stage between two meiotic division

3) Presence of nucleiod 3) It is followed by prophase-I

4) Chemosynthetic nature 4) There is no DNA replication

FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
134. Identify incorrect statement
1) Lysosomes are double membraneous
2) Ribosome occur freely in cytoplasm
or are associated with ER
3) Grana in the chloroplast is the site
of light reactions
4) Mitochondria help in oxidative
phosphorylation
135. Which is the most crucial step of
Calvin cycle?
1) Carboxylation
2) Reduction
3) Regeneration
4) Utilization of ATP and NADPH
Section B : (136-150) Answer any 10 Qns
136. Key product of glycolysis
1) ATP 2) NADH2
3) Pyruvic acid 4) Glucose
137. Cells positioned away from root apical
meristems differentiate as
1) Root hair 2) Epidermis
3) Root cap cells 4) Cortex
138. Mature embryo sac is
1) 7 celled 8 nucleate
2) 3 celled 3 nucleate
3) 6 celled 6 nucleate
4) Male gametophyte
22
139. Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of
____________ is able to deliver a piece
of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ to transform
normal cells into tumor
1) Several monocot plants
2) Animals
3) Several dicot plants
4) Several dicot and monocot plants
140. In Bt cotton, control cotton bollworms
by
1) Cryl Ac and Cryll Ab
2) Cryl Ac and Cryl Ab
3) Cryl Ab and Cryll Ab
4) Cryl Ac and Cryll Ab
141. Find odd one from population attributes
1) Birth rate and death rate
2) Sex ratio
3) Age pyramid
4) Birth and death
142. Assertion A : The chromosome are
spread through the cytoplasm of the
cell in the metaphase
Reason R : Complete disintegration of
nuclear membrane is the begining of
metaphse
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
but Reason is NOT the corre ct
explanation of Assertion
2) Assertion is false but Reason is true
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
4) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 23

143. Basal placentation with inferior ovary 147. Identify the stage
present in

1) Sunflower, Rice

2) Marigold, Sunflower

3) Wheat, Rice

4) Maize, Marigold

144. All tissue on the i nnerside of 1) Early prophase

endodermis is known as
2) Metaphase
1) Bark
3) Late prophase
2) Stele
4) Transition to metaphase
3) Periderm
148. Creeping, green, branched and
frequently filamentous stage of mosses
4) Duramen
1) Prothallus 2) Sporophyte
145. NPP is the available biomass for the
consumption to
3) Protonema 4) Leafy stage

1) Herbivores 149. Conjuctive tissue present

2) Carnivores 1) Between vascular bundles of stem

3) Producers 2) Between cortex and pith

4) Both 1 and 2 3) Between xylem and phloem of stem

146. Certain region of plant shows 4) Between xylem and phloem of root
tumourous growth. This is a result of
150. The major limiting factor in
photosynthesis is
1) Differentiation

1) CO2
2) Dedifferentiaition
2) H2O
3) Redifferentiation
3) Light
4) Maturation
4) Mesophyll content
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
ZOOLOGY
Section A : (151-185) Answer all Qns.
151. Following is the sequence of amino
acids coded by a mRNA. Predict the
nucleotide sequence in the RNA
Met–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe
1) UAG–UUU–UUU–UUC–UUC–UUA–
UUC
2) UGA–UUA–UUU–UUU–UUC–UUC–
UUA
3) AUG–UUU–UUA–UUC–UUU–UUU–
UUC
4) AUG–UUU–UUC–UUU–UUC–UUU–
UUC
152. In prokaryotes, gene expression is
regulated at :
1) Formation of primary transcript
2) Level of transcription initiation
3) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to
the cytoplasm
4) All of these
153. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying
differences in some specific regions in
DNA sequence called
1) Repetitive DNA
2) Recombinant DNA
3) Bulk DNA
4) All of these
24
154. Genetic material is chemically and
structurally stable, this property is
evident from which experiment?
1) Transformation experiment
2) Hershey and chase experiment
3) Meselson and Stahl experiment
4) Marshall Nirenberg experiment
155. How many base pairs of DNA are
present in a nucleosome
1) 100 bps
2) 200 bases
3) 200 bps
4) 400 bps
156. Which among the following bioactive
molecule is used as blood cholesterol
lowering agent
1) Cyclosporin
2) Sterptokinase
3) Statin
4) Lipase
157. In which chromosomal disorder,
karyotype of 47 is present
1) Down syndrome
2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
3) Turnor’s syndrome
4) Both 1 and 2
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 25

158. Assertion : Dominance is not an

autonomous feature of a gene. 161.

Reason : It depends much on gene

product and the phenotype that we
choose to examine.

1) Assertion is correct but Reason is

not correct.

2) Both Assertion and Reason are

incorrect.

3) Both Assertion and Reason are If the pedigree is regarding autosomal

correct and Reason is the correct dominant trait, find the genotypes of
explanation of Assertion. all shaded circle

4) Both Assertion and Reason are 1) Aa, Aa, Aa 2) AA, AA, AA

correct but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion 3) aa, aa, aa 4) Aa, aa, Aa

159. Read the following statements 162. Identify the incorrect match

Independent pairs segregate

independently o f each other, this Column A Column B
statement is related to N-Acetyl
1) Modified sugar
Galaclosamine
1) Gene
2) Lectin Concanavalin A
2) Pair of allele
Most abundant
3) Water
chemical in cell
3) Chromosome
Sulphate and Acid insoluble
4)
4) Both 1 and 2 phosphate Fraction

160. A diploid organism is heterozygous for

163. Carbonic unhydrase can increase the
4 loci, how many types of gametes can
reaction rate as compared to a reaction
be produced
without carbonic unhydrase

1) 4
1) 1 million times

2) 8
2) 10 million times

3) 16
3) 1 billion times

4) 32
4) 10 billion times
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
164. Father of Indian ecology
1) Ramdeo Misra
2) Edward Wilson
3) Robert May
4) David Tilman
165. Loss of biodiversity in a region may
lead to
1) Decline in plant production
2) Lowered resistance to environmental
perturbation
3) Increase in plant production
4) Both 1 and 2
166. Consider the following equation
log S = log C + z log A, Z represents
1) Area
2) Species richness
3) y-intercept
4) Slope of the line
167. Select the wrong match with regad to
wheat
1) Family : Poaceae
2) Order : Sapindales
3) Genus : Triticum
4) Class : Monocotyledon
168. Biodiversity refers to
1) Total variations found in the earth
2) Variety of single species
3) The total number and types of
organisms present on earth
4) The total number of non living things
found on earth
26
169. First triploblastic animals with
acoelom, bilateral symmetry and organ
level of organisation are found in;
1) Gorgonia, Pennatula, Ctenoplana
2) Taenia, Fasciola, Planaria
3) Sycon, Taenia, Fasciola
4) Taenia, Fasciola, Adamsia
170. Excretion in Taenia is through
1) Malpighian body
2) Flame cells
3) Green gland
4) Nephridia
171. In which of the following reptile four
chambered heart is present?
1) Lizard 2) Snake
3) Turtle 4) Crocodile
172. Which of the following statement is
correct regarding Urochordata?
1) Notochord extends from head to tail
2) Notochord present throughout their
life
3) Notochord seen only in larval tail
4) Notochord appear only in adult stage
173. Which of the following statement is
correct regarding epithelial tissue?
1) Cells are compactly packed with
little intercellular matrix
2) Cells are loosely packed with large
intercellular space
3) They are richly supplied with blood
vessels
4) They connect different parts of the
body
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 27

174. Tendon is an example of which of the 177. Male frog croaks louder than female
following connective tissue? because of the presence of

1) Loose connective tissue 1) Copulatory pad

2) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Vocal sacs

3) Larynx
3) Specialized connective tissue
4) Pharyngeal gill slits
4) Dense irregular connective tissue
178. Select the true statement from the
175. In male cockroaches, spe rms are given options
stored in which part of the reproductive
system? 1) Frogs have 12 pairs of cranial nerves

1) Seminal vesicles 2) When in water frogs drink a lot of

water
2) Spermatheca
3) Heart is thre e chambered with
incomplete double circulation
3) Testis
4) Frogs have a pair of salivary glands
4) Vas deferens
179. Conducting part of the respiratory
176. With reference to cockroach, match system comprises
the following columns
1) External nostrils upto the terminal
bronchioles
Column I Column II
4th - 6th 2) Internal nostril upto trachea
A) Anal cerci 1) abdominal
segment 3) Epiglottis upto trachea
B) Tegmina 2) 10th segment
4) Larynx upto bronchi
C) Testis 3) Forewings
D) Ommatidia 4) Sclerites 180. Approximately 70% of carbon dioxide
in the blood will be transported to the
E) Exoskeleton 5) Visual unit
lungs

1) As bicarbonate ions
1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-4
2) In the form of dissolve d gas
2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-1 molecules

3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-2, E-1 3) By binding to RBCs

4) As carbamino haemoglobin
4) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 28

181. The first heart sound ‘lub’ is associated 185. The system that transmits impulse
with from the CNS to skeletal muscles is –

1) Sympathetic neural system

1) Closure of semilunar valves
2) Parasympathetic neural system
2)Simultaneous closure of bicuspid and
tricuspid valves 3) Somatic neural system

3) The release of cardiac impulses 4) Autonomic neural system

Section B : (186-200) Answer any 10 Qns

4) The beginning of ventricular diastole
186. For the maintenance of ionic gradient
182. The normal blood pressure of a healthy across the resting membrane, the
man is sodium -potassium pump transports-

1) 3Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell

1) 70mmHg / 140 mm Hg
2) 2Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell
2) 120 mmHg/ 80mmHg
3) 3Na+ inwards for 2 K+ out of the
3) 80mmHg / 120 mm Hg cell

4) 2Na+ inwards for 2 K+ out the cell

4) 140 mmHg/70mmHg
187. Match the following column 1 with
183. Which o f the foll owing re mains column 2 and choose the correct
unchanged during the contraction and option?
relaxation of skeletal muscle?
Column I Column II
1) I Band
Prepares
A) FSH I) endometrium
2) H Zone
for implantation

3) A Band Develops female

secondary
4) Z Line B) LH II)
sexual
characters
184. Ribs that are attached to the thoracic
vertebrae and directly connected to Maturation of
C) Progesterone III)
the sternum with the help of hyaline Graafian follicle
cartilage are called – Maintenance of
D) Estrogen IV)
corpus luteum
1) True ribs
1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2) False ribs
2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) Floating ribs
3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4) Vertebrochondral ribs 4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 29

188. Grave’s disease is caused due to: 193. After ovulation, ruptured Graafian
follicle reorganizes to form a hormone
1) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland producing structure called-
2) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
1) Corpus luteum
3) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland
2) Corpus albicans
4) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
3) Corpus callosum
189. Conditional reabsorption of sodium and
water occurs in –
4) Corpora quadrigemina
1) PCT
194. Carcinoma refers to
2) Loop of Henle
1) Malignant tumor of lymph nodes
3) DCT

4) Bowman’s capsule 2) Malignant tumor of conne ctive

tissues
190. Normal glomerular filtration rate is
about – 3) Malignant tumor of e pithelial
tissues
1) 125ml/min

2) 180ml/day 4) Malignant tumor of glial cells

3) 125ml/day 195. Which of the following group shows only

bacterial diseases?
4) 180ml/min

191. Which of the following cells present in 1) Tuberculosis, Polio, Pneumonia

mammalian testis speci alized to
provide nourishment for the developing 2) Rabies, Cold, Mumps
sperms?
3) Diphtheria, Plague, Tetanus
1) Leydig cells
4) Leprosy, Cholera, Measles
2) Granulosa cells

3) Sertoli cells 196. In Malaria, shivering and high fever

occurs when
4) Interstitial cells
1) Female anopheles mosquito bites a
192. During spermatogenesis which stage man
is the first to contain haploid number
of chromosomes? 2) Sporozoites enter human body
1) Spermatogonium
3) During the rupture of infected RBCs
2) Primary spermatocyte and release of haemozoin

3) Spermatid 4) During the se xual phase of

plasmodium in female anopheles’
4) Secondary spermatocyte
mosquito
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 30

197. Surgical method of permanent birth
control technique in males is called-
1) Vasectomy
2) Oophorectomy
3) Tubectomy
4) Hysterectomy
198. In IVF, zygote with more than 8
blastomeres transferred into the
female body is called-
199. Darwin’s finches in Galapagos and
marsupial mammals in Australia are
examples for...…...
1) Adaptive radiation
2) Convergent evolution
3) Divergent evolution
4) Both 1 and 3
200. Factor which does not affect Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium

1) IUT 1) Genetic recombination

2) GIFT 2) Mutation

3) ZIFT 3) Genetic drift

4) ICSI 4) Random mating

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
 Batch : ODD BATCH TEST ID

111
24-03-2024
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION ALL UNIT
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA BOOKLET CODE
P + C + B - Key with Hints
A1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS

1. 2

2. 4

3. 3

4. 1

5. 2

6. 2
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 2

7. 3

8. 3

9. 3

10. 2

11. 4

12. 1
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 3

13. 2

14. 3

15. 1

16. 1
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4

17. 2

18. 1

19. 2

20. 3

21. 3

22. 4

23. 3

24. 4
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5

25. 2

26. 4

27. 2

28. 2

29. 4

30. 3
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 6

31. 3

32. 3

33. 1

34. 2
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 7

35. 1

36. 1

37. 1

38. 1
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 8

39. 1

40. 3

41. 4

42. 3

43. 3

44. 3
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 9

45. 1

46. 2

2 1
u2 sin2  u 2 u2
47. 2 i)   45 , H 
0  
2g 2g 4g

H u2 u2 u2 u4 u4 u
h  v
; y
2
 u 2
y  2a s
y y  v y  2g   ; v x  ux 
2 8g 2 8g 2 2 2

1 1 u
v  v 2x  v 2y u  3 i  a 
2 4 2

2u
ii) v x 
u
ii  b  ; iii) v  v y  v y   2u  iii  c 
2 2

2 2

   u2   u2  u2
2
iv) s  H  R 2      
2
5
 4g   2g  g4

T u s u 5 u 5
2

2g
; uavg   2; iv  d
t 4 2 2

48. 4

49. 4
50. 2
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 10

CHEMISTRY

18 0.18
51. 1 18 m l H 2O = 18 g  1 mol ; 0.18 g H2O =  0.01 mol
18 18

0.00224
0.00224 L of water vapour   0.0001 mol
22.4

10–3 mol of water = 0.001 mol

52. 2 Intercept on y axis gives 0 or h0 . As we move down the group of alkali metals,
tendency to lose valence electrons increases. Hence their work functions are
in the order Rb < K < Na < Li. Thus M1, M2, M3, M4 will be Rb, K, Na and Li.
53. 4
54. 3 Let the bond dissociation energy of X2 = a kJ/mol
then B.E (X2) = a
B.E (Y2) = 0.5 a
B.E of XY = a kJ/mol

1 1
X2  Y2  XY H   200 kJ / mol
2 2

 r H  B.E (Reactants) – B.E (products)

1 1 
  BE(X 2 )  BE(Y2 )  BE (XY)
2 2 

a 0.5 a
200    a  0.5 a  0.25 a  a   0.25 a
2 2

200
a  800 kJ / mol
0.25

55. 2
56. 4 Boron does not react with HCl but Al does.
57. 2
58. 3 Pyridinium hydrochloride is a salt of weak base and strong acid.

1 Kb 1 1 1
pH  7  p  log C ; 3.44  7  pKb  log (2  102 )
2 2 2 2

log Kb = –8.82
59. 3
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 11

60. 2 CH 3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

CH3

CH3  CH  CH2  CH2  OH

CH3 CH3

CH3  CH2  CH  CH2  OH , CH3  C  CH2OH

CH3

61. 1 Exocyclic double bond is less stable than the endocyclic double bond.
62. 3

 
63. 4 CH3  CH  CH  CH2 
H
 CH3  CH  C H  CH3

CH3 CH3

 
 CH3  C  CH2  CH3   Hydride

Br
Shift

CH3

Br

CH3  C  CH2  CH3

CH3

64. 3  -hydroxy ketone readily undergo dehydration to give ,  -unsaturated ketone.

O
O OH
C CH CH3
C CH CH3  
 CH3 CH
 H2O CH2
CH3 C CH2
H H

65. 3 Mn2  3d5 , F  is weak field ligand. n  5   5(5  2)  35 BM

66. 4
67. 4 Two solutions are isotonic if they have same molar concentration of particles.

0.1M Ba(NO3 )2  0.3 M

0.1M Na 2SO4  0.3 M
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 12

68. 1 CaCl2  Ca 2  2Cl 

Q = 0.0025 × 60 = 1.5 C (25 mA = 0.0025 A)

2 × 96500 C deposit Ca = 1 mole

1.5 1.5
1.5 C will deposit Ca  mole   6.02 1023
2  96500 2  96500

 4.68 1018 atoms

69. 2 As the size of the central atom M in H2M increases from O to Te, the H–M bond
becomes weaker and breaks easily on heating. Thus H2O is most stable and
H2Te is least stable.

2
O
O O
O Cr Cr
70. 1 O
O
O

71. 1
72. 2 Presence of e– withdrawing group increases the acidic character of phenol.

73. 4 CH  CH contain acidic hydrogen but it react with Tollen’s reagent to produce
white ppt.
74. 3

75. 1 CH3  COOH 

SOCl2
 CH3  COCl 
Benzene
an AlCl3 C CH3

HCN

OH OH

C CH3 
HOH
C CH3

COOH CN


76. 4 R  CONH2  Br2  4NaOH  R  NH2  2NaBr  Na 2CO3  H2O

77. 2 In lactose, the reducing sugar is glucose.

FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 13

78. 4 Boiling point, solubility in water and ease of liquefication decreases from Xe to
He as the size of atoms of noble gases decreases in that order. However ionisation
enthalpy increases in the order Xe < Kr < Ar < Ne < He.

0.693 0.693 K 470 C

79. 1 K 270 C  K 470 C  ; 3
30 10 K 270 C

K 470 C Ea  20
log  log 3 
K 270 C 2.303  8.314(300  320)

0.4771  2.303  8.314  300  320

Ea   43.84 kJ / mol
20

80. 1  0CH3COOH  0CH COO   0H  40.9  349.1  390

3

K 1000 1.65 10 4 1000  CH COOH 8.25

 CH3COOH    8.25 ;   0 3   0.021
Molarity 0.02  CH3COOH 390


81. 1 R  C  N  H2O 
H
 R  COOH
Partial
hydrolysis

R  CONH2

82. 4 Cu2  2e   Cu

(aq ) (s)

0.0591 1 0.0591
ECu2  /Cu  E0Cu2 /Cu  log i.e. ECu2  /Cu  ECu2  /Cu 
0
log [Cu2 ]
2 [Cu2 ] 2

2 [Cu2 ]
After dilution, [Cu ] 
100

0.0591 [Cu2 ] 0.0591 0.0591

ECu2  /Cu  E0Cu2 /Cu  log  E0Cu2  /Cu  log [Cu2 ]  log 100
2 100 2 2

0.0591 0.0591 0.0591

 E0Cu2 /Cu  log [Cu2 ]   2  E0Cu2  /Cu  log [Cu2 ]  0.0591 (V)
2 2 2
i.e. 59.1 mV  60 mV decreases from the initial value.
83. 2

84. 3 VOSO4  VO2  SO24

In VO2+, V in +4 oxidation state V4+ – [Ar]18 3d14s0
Due to the presence of one unpaired electron, it is paramagnetic and it has
blue colour.
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 14

85. 4 Dichlorocarbene is the intermediate compound in Reimer Tiemann reaction.

86. 3

87. 2

88. 2 M alt ose h as 1,4-  glycosidic linkage.

89. 3

90. 4

91. 3

92. 1

93. 3 AgCl precipitates.

94. 2 In PO34 P is sp3 hybridised. It forms four P–O  bonds by overlap of sp3 orbitals of
P with p orbital of O. The  bond is however formed by overlap of p orbital of O
and d orbital of P.

N and C on the other bond, cannot form p  d bond since they do not have d
orbitals.

95. 1 3 UO2  Cr2O72  8H  3UO22  2Cr 3  4H2O

Hence the value of x, y and z are respectively 3, 8 and 2.

96. 4

97. 3

1.4  M  B  V 1.4 1 10  2

98. 1 % M   37.33
Mass of thesubs tance taken 0.75

99. 3 NaNO2 is a salt of weak acid - strong base.

1
pH  pKw  pKa  log C ;
2

C6 H5 N H3 Cl  is a salt of wak base - strong acid.

1 Kw
pH  p  pKb  log C  , NH4CN is a salt of weak acid and weak base.
2

pH  ½[pKw  pKa  pKb ] ; HCN is weak acid. pH  ½[pKa  log C]

100. 4 (CH3 )3 C  H  [O] 

KMnO4

 (CH3 )3 COH
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 15

BOTANY

101. 2 126. 4

102. 3 127. 1

103. 3 128. 4

104. 3 129. 1

105. 3 130. 2

106. 2 131. 4

107. 2 132. 1

108. 2 133. 3

109. 4 134. 1

110. 2 135. 1

111. 3 136. 3

112. 4 137. 3

113. 3 138. 1

114. 2 139. 3

115. 4 140. 1

116. 1 141. 4

117. 4 142. 4

118. 3 143. 2

119. 3 144. 2

120. 4 145. 1

121. 3 146. 2

122. 1 147. 4

123. 2 148. 3

124. 3 149. 4

125. 2 150. 1
FT24G/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 16

ZOOLOGY

151. 4 176. 1
152. 2 177. 2
153. 1 178. 3
154. 1 179. 1
155. 3 180. 1
156. 3 181. 2
157. 4 182. 2
158. 3 183. 3
159. 4 184. 1
160. 3 185. 3
161. 1 186. 1
162. 4 187. 1
163. 2 188. 4
164. 1 189. 3
165. 4 190. 1
166. 4 191. 3
167. 2 192. 4
168. 3 193. 1
169. 2 194. 3
170. 2 195. 3
171. 4 196. 3
172. 3 197. 1
173. 1 198. 1
174. 2 199. 4
175. 1 200. 4