Unit - III - (P+C+B) - 02 - 04 - 24

Name ................................................
TEST ID
Batch.................... Roll No. ............... MODEL EXAMINATION
02-04-2024 UNIT III 511
24V/N/MOD/ PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY +BIOLOGY Batch : LT-24 Special
PHYSICS
1. With rise in temperature, the Young’s modulus of elasiticity
1) changes erratically 2) decreases
3) increases 4) remains unchanged
2. Young’s modulus of material of a wire of length ‘L’ and cross-sectional area A is Y. If
the length of the wire is doubled and cross-sectional area is halved then Young’s
modulus will be :
Y
1) 2) 4Y 3) Y 4) 2Y
4
3. A 100 m long wire having cross-sectional area 6.25×10-4 m2 and Young’s modulus is
1010 Nm-2 is subjected to a load of 250N, then the elongation in the wire will be :
1) 6.25×10-3 m 2) 4×10-4 m 3) 6.25×10-6 m 4) 4×10-3 m
4. An aluminium rod with Young’s modulus Y = 7.0×1010 N/m2 undergoes elastic strain
of 0.04%. The energy per unit volume stored in the rod in SI unit is :
1) 5600 2) 8400 3) 2800 4) 11200
5. Young’s moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1 : 4, while its
area of cross sections are in the ratio of 1 : 3. If the same amount of load is applied
to both the wires, the amount of elongation produced in the wires A and B will be in
the ratio of
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
1) 36 : 1 2) 12 : 1 3) 1 : 36 4) 1 : 12
6. The normal density of a material is  and its bulk modulus of elasiticity is K. The
magnitude of increase in density of material, when a pressure P is applied uniformly
on all sides, will be :
K P K PK
1) 2) 3) 4)
P K P 
7. The length of metallic wire is 1 when tension in it is T1. It is  2 when the tension
is T2. The original length of the wire willbe :
1   2 T2 1  T1 2 T2 1  T1 2 T11  T2  2

1) 2) 3) 4)
2 T1  T2 T2  T1 T2  T1
8. Two wires of same length and radius are joined end to end and loaded. The Young’s
modulii of the materials of the two wires are Y1 and Y2. The combination behaves as
a single wire then its Young’s modulus is :
2Y Y 2Y1Y2 YY Y1Y2
1) Y  3 Y  Y 2) Y  3) Y  2 Y  Y 4) Y 
1 2 1 2
 1 2 Y1  Y2  1 2 Y1  Y2
9. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small droplets of water. The surface energy
will become :
1 1
1) 100 times 2) 10 times 3) th 4) th
100 10
LT24V/TP/NEET/P+C+B [511] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
10. When two soap bubbles of radii a and b (b > a) coalesce, the radius of curvature of
common surface is :
ab ab ba ab
1) 2) 3) 4)
ba ab ab ab
11. Given below are two statements
Statement I : Viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids.
Statement II : Surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble
impurities.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
12. The velocity of a small ball of mass ‘m’ and density d1, when dropped in a container
filled with glycerine, becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine
is d2, then the viscous force acting on the ball, will be :
 d1   d2 
1) mg 1   2) mg 1  
 d2   d1 
 d1   d2 
3) mg   1 4) mg   1
 d2   d1 
13. A small liquid drop of radius R is divided into 27 identical liquid drops. If the surface
tension is T, then the work done in the process will be :
1 2
1) 8R 2 T 2) 3R 2 T 3) R T 4) 4R 2 T
8
14. A small spherical ball of radius r, falling through a viscous medium of negligible
density has terminal velocity ‘v’. Another ball of the same mass but of radius 2r,
falling through the same viscous medium will have terminal velocity :
v v
1) 2) 3) 4v 4) 2v
2 4
15. A small steel ball is dropped into a long cylinder containing glycerine. Which one of
the following is the correct representation of the velocity time graph for the transit
of the ball ?
1) 2) 3) 4)
16. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift vehicles of mass 5000 kg. The area of
cross section of the cylinder carrying the load is 250 cm2. The maximum pressure
the smaller piston would have to bear is [Assume g = 10 m/s2] :
1) 200×10+6 Pa 2) 20×10+6 Pa 3) 2×10+6 Pa 4) 2×10+5 Pa
17. Eight equal drops of water are falling through air with a steady speed of 10 cm/s. If
the drops coalesce, the new velocity is :
1) 10 cm/s 2) 40 cm/s 3) 16 cm/s 4) 5 cm/s
18. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Pressure in a reservoir of water is same at all points at the same level
of water
Statement II : The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions
equally.
options given below.
1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
2) Both statement I and II are true
3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
4) Both statement I and II are false
19. The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped
in liquid A vertically is, 5 cm. If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another
liquid B of surface tension and density double the values of liquid A, the height of
liquid column raised in liquid B would be _______ m.
1) 0.20 2) 0.5 3) 0.05 4) 0.10
20. Surface tension of a soap bubble is 2.0×10 Nm . Work done to increase the radius
-2 -1
 22 
of soap bubble from 3.5 cm to 7 cm will be :  Take  
 7 
1) 0.72×10-4 J 2) 5.76×10-4 J 3) 18.48×10-4 J 4) 9.24×10-4 J
21. For particle P revolving round the centre O with radius of circular path r and angular
velocity  , as shown in below figure, the projection of OP on the x-axis at time t is
 
1) x  t   r cos  t   2) x  t   r cos  t 
 6
   
3) x  t   r sin  t   4) x  t   r cos   t  
 6  6
22. For a periodic motion represented by the equation Y  sin t  cos t
The amplitude of the motion is
1) 0.5 2) 2 3) 1 4) 2
23. A particle is executing Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM). The ratio of potential energy
and kinetic energy of the particle when its displacement is half of its amplitude will
be :
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 1 : 3
24. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The distance from the mean position when
its kinetic energy becomes equal to its potential energy is :
1 1
1) 2A 2) 2A 3) A 4) A
2 2
25. For a simple harmonic motion in a mass spring system shown, the surface is
frictionless. When the mass of the block is 1 kg, the angular frequency is 1 . When
the mass block is 2 kg the angular frequency is 2 . The ratio 2 / 1 is :
1 1
1) 2 2) 3) 2 4)
2 2
26. In a linear simple harmonic motion (SHM)
A) Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement
B) The acceleration and displacement are opposite in direction
C) The velocity is maximum at mean position
D) The acceleration is minimum at extreme points
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) A, B and C only 2) C and D only
3) A, B and D only 4) A, C and D only
27. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T2) graph for a simple
pendulum executing simple harmonic motion.
1) 2)
3) 4)
28. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = -A and x = +A. If time
A
taken by particle to go from x = 0 to is 2s; then time taken by particle in going
2
A
from x  to A is :
2
1) 3s 2) 2s 3) 1.5 s 4) 4s
29. T is the time period of simple pendulum on the earth’s surface. Its time period
becomes xT when taken to a height R (equal to earth’s radius) above the earth’s
surface. Then, the value of x will be :
1 1
1) 4 2) 2 3) 4)
2 4
30. When a particle executes SHM, the nature of graphical representation of velocity as
a function of displacement is :
1) Circular 2) Elliptical 3) Parabolic 4) Straight line
31. Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of
spring constants K1 and K2 respectively. If the maximum velocities during oscillations
are equal, the ratio of the amplitude of A and B is
K2 K1 K1 K2
1) 2) 3) 4)
K1 K2 K2 K1
32. The displacement of simple harmonic oscillator after 3 seconds starting from its
mean position is equal to half of its amplitude. The time period of harmonic motion
is :
1) 6 s 2) 8 s 3) 12 s 4) 36 s
33. The device which measures the extension of wire in Searle’s apparatus for Young’s
modulus of elasticity is
1) Vernier callipers 2) Screw gauge
3) Spherometer 4) Metre scale
34. The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second. The time of 20 oscillations of a
pendulum is measured to be 25 seconds. The percentage error in the time period is
1) 16% 2) 0.8% 3) 1.8% 4) 8%
35. A wire of length L and radius r is clamped at one end. If its other end is pulled by a
force F, its length increases by l. If the radius of the wire and the applied force both
are reduced to half of their original values keeping original length constant, the
increase in length will become
1) 3 times 2) 3/2 times 3) 4 times 4) 2 times
36. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Steel is used in the construction of buildings and bridges.
Reason R : Steel is more elastic and its elastic limit is high.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2) A is not correct but R is correct.
3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
4) A is correct but R is not correct.
37. Under the same load, wire A having length 5.0 m and cross section 2.5×10-5 m2 stretches
uniformly by the same amount as another wire B of length 6.0 m and a cross section
of 3.0×10-5 m2 stretches. The ratio of the Young’s modulus of wire A to that of wire B
will be :
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 10 4) 1 : 2
38. A mercury drop of radius 10 m is broken into 125 equal size droplets. Surface
-3
tension of mercury is 0.45 Nm-1. The gain in surface energy is :

1) 2.26×10-5 J 2) 28×10-5 J 3) 1.75×10-5 J 4) 5×10-5 J
39. If R is the radius of the earth and the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
earth is g  2 m / s 2 , then the length of the seconds pendulum at a height h = 2R
from the surface of earth will be :
2 1 4 8
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
9 9 9 9
40. A mass m is attached to two springs as shown in figure. The spring constants of two
springs are K1 and K2. For the frictionless surface, the time period of oscillation of
mass m is
1 K1  K 2 1 K1  K 2 m m
1) 2) 3) 2 4) 2
2 m 2 m K1  K 2 K1  K 2

41. The function of time representing a simple harmonic motion with a period of is :

1) sin  t   cos  t  2) cos  t   cos  2t   cos  3t 
 
3) sin  t  4) 3cos   2t 
2
4 
42. A particle is making simple harmonic motion along the X-axis. If at a distance x1
and x2 from the mean position the velocities of the particle are 1 and  2 respectively.
The time period of its oscillation is given as :
x 22  x12 x 22  x12 x 22  x12 x 22  x12

1) T  2 2) T  2 3) T  2 4) T  2
12   22 12   22 12   22 12   22
43. The x-t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the
figure. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is :
2 2 2 2
1)  ms 2 2) ms 2 3)  ms 2 4) ms 2
8 16 16 8
44. A simple pendulum oscillating in air has a period of 3 s . If it is completely immersed
th
1
in non-viscous liquid, having density   of the material of the bob, the new
4
period will be :
2 3
1) 2 3 s 2) s 3) 2s 4) s
3 2
45. The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius 5mm falling through a tank of oil at
room temperature is 10 cm s-1. If the viscosity of oil at room temperature is 0.9 kg m-
1
s-1, the viscous drag force is :
1) 8.48 × 10-3 N 2) 8.48 × 10-5 N 3) 4.23 × 10-3 N 4) 4.23 × 10-6 N
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following conclusions is correct for a certain reaction, whose KC is
2×10-3 at 250C and 2×10-2 at 500C ?
1) H   ve 2) H   ve 3) H  0 4) Both 2 and 3
47. A definite amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask, already containing ammonia
gas at a certain temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. NH4HS decomposes to given
NH3 and H2S and at equilibrium total pressure in flask is 0.84 atm. The equilibrium
constant for the reaction is :
1) 0.30 2) 0.18 3) 0.17 4) 0.11
48. For the reaction equilibrium,
2NOBr  g   2NO  g   Br2  g 
If PBr2  P / 9 at equilibrium and P is total pressure. The ratio K P / P is equal to :
1
1) 1/9 2) 3) 1/ 27 4) 1/3
81
49. High pressure and low temperature are the favourable conditions for the formation
of product for the reaction,
xA  yB  zC, H   x kcal . Hence,
1) x  y  z 2) x  y  z 3) x  y  z 4) None of these
50. Identify the mismatch
1) Urea - non-electrolyte
2) Ammonium hydroxide - weak electrolyte
3) Caustic soda - Strong electrolyte
4) Sodium acetate - non-electrolyte
The molarity of A- ions in 0.01 M HA is  K a  4 10 

10
51.
1) 2×10-12 M 2) 4×10-12 M 3) 2×10-6 M 4) 1×10-6 M

52. Which of the following solution (having same molar concentration) shall have the
maximum electrical conductance ?
1) H3BO3 2) HOCN 3) HClO4 4) HNO2
M M M
53. 30 ml of HCl , 20 ml HNO3 and 40 ml NaOH solution are mixed and volume
3 2 4
was made up to 1 L. The pH of resulting solution is
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 8
54. The degree of dissociation of NH4 OH is least in
1) KOH solution 2) Water 3) HCl solution 4) NaCl solution
55. How much mass of CH3COONa must be dissolved in 0.3 L of 0.25 M CH3COOH to
produce a solution of pH = 5.10 ? Given :
pK a of CH3COOH = 4.76 ; Antilog of 0.34= 2.188

1) 13.45 g 2) 0.547 g 3) 17.2 g 4) 0.9 g
56. 200 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH is mixed with 200 ml of 0.1 M NaOH. The resulting
solution
1) is acidic buffer
2) contains a salt that shows cationic hydrolysis
3) contains a salt that shows anionic hydrolysis
4) is basic buffer
57. If solubility of a bivalent metal hydroxide is 3 , then its solubility product will be
1) 48 2) 8 3) 12 3 4) 6 3
58. Consider the following reversible chemical reactions :
A2  g   B2  g   2AB  g  K1    1
6AB  g   3A 2  g   3B2  g  K2     2
1
1) K 2  K13 2) K 2  K13 3) K1K 2  3 4) K1K 2 
3
59. Which of the following are Lewis acids ?
1) AlCl3 and SiCl4 2) PH3 and SiCl4
3) BCl3 and AlCl3 4) PH3 and BCl3
60. For the following assertion and reason, the correct option is :
Assertion : The pH of water increases with increase in temperature.
Reason : The dissociation of water into H+ and OH -
is an exothermic reaction.
1) Assertion is not true, but reason is true.
2) Both assertion and reason are false
3) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for
the assertion.
4) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
for the assertion.
61. Arrange the following solutions in the decreasing pOH.
A) 0.01 M HCl B) 0.01 M NaOH
C) 0.01 M CH3COONa D) 0.01 M NaCl
1) B > C > D > A 2) A > C > D > B
3) B > D > C > A 4) A > D > C > B
62. Boron mainly forms covalent compound due to its
1) High ionization energy 2) Large size
3) Lower ionization energy 4) Metallic nature
63. An element with very low melting point but considerably high boiling point is
1) B 2) Ga 3) Al 4) In
64. Which of the following oxides is acidic ?
1) B2O3 2) Al2O3 3) Ga2O3 4) In2O3
65. Effective p  p back bonding is present in
1) BF3 2) BCl3 3) BBr3 4) Bl3
66. The hybridization of Al in an acidified aqueous solution of aluminium chloride is
1) sp3 2) sp3 3) sp3d 4) sp3d2
67. Which one of the following bonds has the highest bond energy ?
1) C-C 2) Si-Si 3) Ge-Ge 4) Sn-Sn
68. Which of the following oxide is acidic as well as solid at room temperature ?
1) SiO2 2) CO2 3) CO 4) N2O
69. Which of the following is an electron deficient species ?
1) SiH4 2) PH3 3) B2H6 4) BF4
70. Which of the following is unknown species ?
3
1) SiCl6  2)  AlF6  3)  B  H 2 O 6 
2 3
4) Both 1 and 3
71. The chloride that cannot be hydrolysed is :

1) SiCl4 2) SnCl4 3) PbCl4 4) CCl4
72. The element that does not show catenation is :
1) Sn 2) Ge 3) Si 4) Pb
73. The element that shows greater ability to form p  p multiple bonds, is :
1) Si 2) Ge 3) Sn 4) C
74. The correct statements among I to III regarding group 13 element oxides are,
I) Boron trioxide is acidic
II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric
III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic
1) I, II and III 2) II and III only 3) I and III only 4) I and II only
75. In the compound,
CH  C  CH 2  CH  CH  CH 3 the C2  C3 bond is of the type
1) sp-sp2 2) sp3-sp3 3) sp-sp3 4) sp2-sp2
CH2CH3
76. CH3CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH CH2 CH CH2 CH3
CH2
CH3 C CH3
CH2 CH3
The corrct IUPAC name of above structure is

1) 5-(2,2-dimethylbutyl)-2-ethyl decane
2) 5-(2-ethylbutyl)-3,3-dimethyl decane
3) 3,3-dimethyl-7-ethyl-5-pentyl nonane
4) 3-ethyl-5-isopentyl decane
77. The correct IUPAC name of the compound given below is
1) 4 - benzyl-5-methylhexanal 2) 2-methyl-3-phenylhexanal
3) 5- isopropyl-5-phenylbutanal 4) 5 - methyl-4-phenylhexanal
78. CH3 CH CH CH2

CH2 CH N CH2 CH3
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to above compound ?
1) It is a 30 amine
2) The longest carbon chain has 7 carbons
3) The word root used in its IUPAC name is but
4) There is an unsaturated substituent on N
79. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
1) Acetone according to IUPAC system is named as propanone
2) Principlal functional group present in the compound
O O
CH3 C CH2 C OCH3 is ‘Keto’ group
3) Secondary suffix indicates the nature of functional group present in the organic
compound.
4) The IUPAC nomenclature consists of following parts in the order given as
20 prefix + 10 prefix + word root + 10 suffix + 20 suffix
1 2 3
O OH O O 4
80. N H
Which of the following is correct priority order of different functional groups present
in the above compound ?
1) 5 > 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 2) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2 > 1
3) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 > 5 4) 1 > 4 > 5 > 2 > 3
81. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :
CH3 OH
H3C CH CH CH2 COOH
1) 2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
2) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxy butanoic acid
3) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
4) 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
82. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :
NO2
Cl
CH3
1) 5-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene 2) 2-methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
3) 3-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene 4) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
CH3
H3C CH
CH3
CH2
1) 3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-1-yne
2) 3-methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne
3) 3-methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynyl)-1-heptene
4) 3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yne
OH
NH2
O2N
CHO
1) 2-nitro-4-hydroxymethyl-5-amino benzaldehyde
2) 3- amino-4-hydroxymethyl-5-nitrobenzaldehyde
3) 4-amino-2-formyl-5-hydroxymethyl nitrobenzene
4) 5-amino-4-(hydroxymethyl)-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
85. Statement I : The addition of silver ions to a mixture of aqueous sodium chloride and
sodium bromide solution, will first precipitate AgBr rather than AgCl
Statement II : The value of Ksp of AgCl < Ksp of AgBr.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
86. Match the following.
Column I Column II
Cationic
A) NaCl p)
hydrolysis
Anionic
B) Na2CO3 q)
hydrolysis
C) NH4Cl r) pH = 7 at 250C
D) CH3COONH4 s) pH > 7 at 250C
1) A - r; B - q, s; C - p, s; D - p, q, r 2) A - r; B - q, r; C - q, s; D - r
3) A - r; B - p, s; C - p, r; D - p, q, r 4) A - r; B - q, s; C - p; D - p, q, r
Column I Column II
Conjugate
Bronsted -
A) Acid base P)
Lowry concept
pair
Acid -base
B) Q) Lewis concept
adduct
An acid-base Arrhenius
C) R)
reaction concept
Proton
D) S) Ka . Kb = Kw
donation
1) A- P, S; B -Q; C- P, Q, R; D - P, R 2) A -P, Q; B - R; C-P, Q; D-S

3) A- P, S; B-Q; C-P; D-P 4) A- P, S; B -Q; C- P, R, D- Q
88. Arrange the following in the increasing order of acidity.
HF, H2O, HCl, NH3
1) HF < HCl < H2O < NH3 2) HF < H2O < NH3 < HCl
3) NH3 < H2O < HF < HCl 4) H2O < NH3 < HCl < HF
89. The IUPAC name of the compound ?
NH2
Br
1) 4-Bromoaniline 2) 4-Amino-1-bromobenzene
3) 4- Bromobenzenamide 4) 1-Bromobenzenecarboxamide
90. How many number of compounds below have the same IUPAC name ?
OH
OH
OH
OH
OH
OH
OH OH
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
BOTANY
91. Identify the percentage of lipids and proteins in the plasma membrane of human
RBC:
1) 52% proteins and 40% of lipids
2) 40% proteins and 52% of lipids
3) 42% lipids and 50% proteins
4) 30% lipids and 70% proteins
92. Among the following identify the significance of mitosis
A) Leads to growth
B) Maintains nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
C) Involved in cell repair mechanism
D) Involved in asexual reproduction and multicellularity
E) Involved in regeneration and cell differentiation
1) C only 2) C and D only 3) D only 4) All
93. Which of the following statement is false?
1) ATP synthase complex present only in mitochondria
2) Both mitochondria and chloroplast possess 70s ribosome
3) Chloroplast possess chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments.
4) Mitochondria and chloroplast are semi-autonomous organelles
94. Movement of chaismata towards the end of bivalent is called
1) Terminalisation 2) Diakinesis
3) Interkinesis 4) Synapsis
95. The ability of proteins to move within the cell membrane is measured with its
1) Quasi-fluid nature of lipid
2) Selectively permeable nature
3) Semi-permeable nature
4) Both 2 and 3
96. All of the following statements are correct about plasmids except:
1) They are extra chromosomal DNA
2) They are smaller, circular, double stranded naked DNA that confer certain unique
phenotypic characters to some bacteria like resistance to antibiotic.
3) They are used in genetic engineering
4) It helps in the replication of nucleoid
97. Read the following statements
a) Terminalisation of chaismata
b) Meiotic spindle is assembled
c) By the end nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear
The above statements indicates
1) Zygotene stage 2) Diakinesis stage
3) Metaphase-II 4) Pachytene
98. Which of the following functions are not performed by Golgi-complex?
1) It act as an important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
2) It involved in packaging of materials
3) Modification of protein synthesized by the ER
4) It act as a site for synthesis of steroidal hormone
99. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
Metacentric Middle
a) i)
chromosome centromere
Centromere
Sub-
b) ii) slightly away
metacentric
from the middle
Centromere
c) Acrocentric iii)
close to its end
Terminal
d) Telocentric iv)
centromere
1) a-1, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii,, b-I, c-iii, d-iv

3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-iii
100. Consider the following statements about crossing over
a) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between two non-homologous
chromosomes.
b) Crossing over is an enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved is called
recombinase
c) Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material on the homologous
chromosomes
d) Crossing over occurs in Zygotene stage of prophase-1
e) During crossing over, the bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads
How many of the above statements are incorrect
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
101. Study the following statements on cilium or flagellum and answer the question
a) Cilium/ flagellum contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding
two singlet microtubules.
b) Cilia are smaller structures responsible for the movement of the cells
c) Flagella are comparatively longer and responsible for cell movement.
d) Cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) a and b 2) a, b, c and d
3) a and d 4) b and c
102. Average size of human RBC is :
1) 7 µm 2) 70 µm 3) 7 nm 4) 7Å
103. The following phase represents the phase between two successive M phase
1) Gap phase 2) Synthesis phase
3) Interphase 4) Cytokinesis
104. The micro tubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specialised structure in the
centromere region of each chromosome, called:
1) Kinetochore 2) Nucleosomes
3) Equatorial plate 4) Centrosome
105. In prokaryotes, respiration is associated with:
1) Cell wall 2) Mesosomes 3) Lysosomes 4) DNA
106. DNA synthesis takes place in
1) M phase 2) G1 phase 3) S phase 4) G2 phase
107. Given below are two statements
Statement-I: Chloroplast is double membraneous structure.
Statement-II: Chloroplast contains 80S ribosomes
option given below.
1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
4) Both statement I & II are incorrect
108. Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs during
1) Zygotene 2) Leptotene 3) Pachytene 4) Diakinesis
109. Bacterial flagellum consists of all the following parts, except
1) Filament 2) Microtubules
3) Hook 4) Basal body
110. Cells in G0 stage:
1) Are metabolically more active
2) Are metabolically inactive
3) Remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate in normal condition
4) Metabolically active and continuously grows
111. Which of the following cell organelle is considered to be rich in respiratory enzymes?
1) Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Chloroplast
3) Golgi bodies 4) Mitochondria
112. Which of the following clues would you tell whether a cell is prokaryotic or
eukaryotic?
1) The presence or absence of rigid cell wall
2) Whether the cell is partitioned by internal membranes.
3) The presence or absence of ribosomes
4) Whether the cell carries out cellular metabolism
113 What is common between chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplasts?
1) Presence of pigments
2) possession of thyllakoids and grana
3) Storage of starch, proteins and lipids
4) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process
114. Seggregation of Mendelian factors occurs in
1) Metaphase-I 2) Prophase-I 3) Metaphase -II 4) Anaphase-I
115. The molecules in a membrane that limit its permeability are the:
1) Carbohydrates 2) Phospholipids
3) Proteins 4) Water
116. During anaphase-I of meiosis:
1) Homologous chromosomes separate
2)Non-homologous autosomes separate
3) Sister chromatids separate
4) Non-sister chromatids separate
117. Nucleolus is the site of
1) Protein synthesis 2) Lipid synthesis
3) rRNA synthesis 4) Carbohydrate synthesis
118. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option
Assertion: Centrosome and centrioles are related to each other
Reason: Chromosome usually contains two cylindrical structures called centrioles
1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation
of the assertion.
2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct co
explanation of the assertion.
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
4) If both the assertion and reason are false
119. ER, Golgi bodies, Lysosome and vacuoles are components of endomembrane system
because
1) Their structures are different
2) Their functions are distinct
3) Their functions are coordinated
4) All
120. Mitochondrial cristae are sites of :
1) Kreb’s cycle
2) Oxidation-reduction reaction
3) Protein synthesis
4) Lipid synthesis
121. Number of carbon atoms present in citric acid, oxaloacetic acid pyruvic acid are
respectively :
1) 6, 3 and 3 2) 6, 4 and 3 3) 5, 4 and 3 4) 6, 4 and 2
122. Aerobic respiration of one glucose produces :
1) 12 NADH + 2FADH2 + 38 ATP
2) 12 NADH + 30 ATP + H2O
3) 8NADH + 2FADH2 + 2ATP
4) 10NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 2ATP + 2GTP
123. In aerobic respiration, first CO2 is liberated during :
1) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
2) Decarboxylation of oxalosuccinic acid
3) Decarboxylation of  - ketoglutaric acid
4) Alcoholic fermentation
124. Which is key intermediate compound linking glycolysis to Kreb’s cycle?
1) Malic acid 2) Acetyl Co.A 3) Pyruvic acid 4) Citric acid
125. Number of NADH produced in the glycolytic pathway if the respiratory substrate is
fructose :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
126. Sucrose is converted in to glucose and fructose by the enzyme
1) Maltase 2) Zymase 3) Hexokinase 4) Invertase
127. Energy released by oxidation in respiration is :
1) Not used directly but used to synthesis ATP
2) Used directly to various cellular activities
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None of these
128. Net gain of ATP at substrate level in glycolysis:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
129. Coenzyme taking part in link reaction are :
1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase 2) NAD+
3) FAD 4) Both 2 and 3
130. Complexes in ETC are located in the
1) Inner mitochondrial membrane
2) Outer mitochondrial membrane
3) Matrix
4) Peri mitochondrial space
131. During oxidation of NADH :
1) pH inside the perimitochondrial space decreases
2) pH inside the perimitochondrial space increases
3) pH inside the perimitochondrial space remain same
4) pH in matrix decreases
132. RQ of respiration using tripalmitin is :
1) 0.7 2) 1 3) 2 4) infinity
133. Which of the following statement is true regarding middle lamella ?
1) Mainly consists of Ca-pectate.
2) Holds different neighboring cells together
3) Is formed from cell plate during Cytokinesis
4) All of these
134. The enzymes hexokinase and invertase present in :
1) Cytoplasm 2) Mitochondrial matrix
3) Mitochondrial inner membrane 4) Mitochondrial outer membrane
135. During cell cycle, cytoplasmic growth occur during:
1) Interphase 2) Prophase 3) Metaphase 4) Cytokinesis
ZOOLOGY
136. Read the following statements and find the correct statement
1) Myoglobin content is high in some of the muscle fibres and these muscle fibres
are called White Muscle Fibres.
2) In myosin the head is made of LMM and tail is made up of HMM.
3) Increase in Ca++ level leads to the binding calcium with a subunit of Troponin on
Actin filament
4) During muscular contraction “I” band remains in same length and ‘A’ band get
reduced
137. In a skeletal muscle fibres Ca++ is stored in
1) Sarcoplasm 2) Sarcomere
3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum 4) Sarcolemma
138. ‘H’ zone of sarcomere is :
1) central part of I band with only actin
2) central part of A band with only myosin
3) central part of thick filament with only actin
4) part of A band overlapped by thin filaments
139. Which of the following statement is not true?
1) Skeletal muscles are connected to bones through ligaments.
2) The anatomical and functional unit of striated muscle is sarcomere.
3) ‘Z’ lines are pulled closer in muscle contraction
4) H zone disappears in full contraction
140. The role of Ca2+ in muscle contraction is that :
1) Ca2+ binds to troponin to unmask the active sites on actin for myosin.
2) Ca2+ cause breaking actin - myosin cross bridges.
3) Ca2+ activates Acetyl choline at the motor-end plate
4) Ca2+ releases energy from ATP hydrolysis
141. Read the following statements and select the correct answer regarding muscle
contraction :
a) The ‘Z’ lines come closer in muscle contraction.
b) The ‘H’ lines shorten their length
c) The length of ‘A’ bands remain constant
d) The width of I band increases
e) The length of I band and A band decreases
1) a, b and d are true 2) b, c, d, e are true
3) a, c, d and e are true 4) only a and c are true
142. Smooth muscle fibres are :
1) Spindle shaped, unstriated, uninucleated and voluntary
2) Spindle shaped, striated, multinucleated and involuntary
3) Unbranched, unstriated, uninucleated and involuntary
4) Spindle shaped, uninucleated, involuntary, striated
143. Glenoid cavity of :
1) scapula is for articulation with head of humerus
2) scapula is for articulation with clavicle
3) the head of ulna is for articulation with trochlea
4) pelvis is for articulation with head of femur
144. Find the correct match between joints and their location.
Type of joints Examples
a) Pivot joint p) between humerus and radio-ulna
b) Hinge joint q) between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
c) Gliding joint r) between atlas and axis
d) Saddle joint s) between carpals
1) a-r ; b-q ; c-p ; d-s 2) a-p ; b-r ; c-s ; d-q
3) a-q ; b-p ; c-s ; d-r 4) a-r ; b-p ; c-s ; d-q
145. One half of pectoral girdle consists of :
1) ilium, ischium and pubis 2) scapula and clavicle
3) second to seventh ribs 4) acromion and acetabulum
146. Find the correctly matching set :
Column I Column II
A) Z line p) Thick filament
B) M line q) Thin filament
C) Actin r) I band
D) Myosin s) A band
1) A-s ; B-p ; C-r ; D-q 2) A-p ; B-q ; C-s ; D-r
3) A-r ; B-s ; C-q ; D-p 4) A-p ; B-r ; C-q ; D-s
147. Find the wrong statement.
1) White muscle fibres depend on anaerobic process for energy
2) Human vertebral formula is C7T12L5S1Co1
3) Na+ - K+ pumps pump 2Na+ out for every 3K+ into the cell
4) K+ efflux is the main event in repolarisation
148. Assertion : Knee joint is a type of hinge joint.
Reason : Knee joint has only femur, patella and fibula.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false
4) If both assertion and reason are false
149. When many nuclei are found in a muscle fibre, the condition is known as :
1) Sarcoplasm 2) Syncitium
3) Fascicle 4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
150. Sliding filament theory propounds that:
1) the shortening is due to sliding of thick filaments over thin filaments
2) the striated muscle contracts due to contraction of myosin filaments
3) the actin filaments slide over myosin filaments resulting in shortening of striated
muscle fibre.
4) the contraction of actin and myosin filaments
151. Study the statements regarding human ribs and mark the wrong one.
1) Human beings have bicephalic ribs.
2) All ribs except 11th and 12th pairs are vertebrochondral ribs.
3) The last 2 pairs are not connected ventrally and are called floating ribs
4) 8th, 9th and 10th ribs are connected to 7th with the help of hyaline cartilage.
152. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
1) Storage of minerals 2) Production of body heat
3) Erythropoiesis 4) Locomotion
153. The coxal bones meet ventrally to form:
1) pubic symphysis 2) glenoid cavity
3) acetabulum 4) sternum
154. Statement I : Juxtaglomerular cells produce erythropoietin.
Statement II : Erythropoietin stimulates bone marrow to produce RBC.
1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
155. The ‘dub’ sound is heard at the beginning of ;
1) Ventricular systole 2) Ventricular diastole
3) Atrial systole 4) Atrial diastole
1. Cardiac output a) lub sound

2. Stroke volume b) dub sound
3. Haemoglobin / 100ml of blood c) 5 litres
4. First heart sound d) 70 ml
5. Second heart sound e) 12 - 16 gms
12345 12345 12345 12345

1) 2) 3) 4)
cdeba dceab edcab cdeab
157. The blood corpuscle with kidney shaped nucleus and is found to be highly motile
and phagocytic is
1) Neutrophil 2) Eosinophil
3) Basophil 4) Monocyte
158. Which one of the following is not true about lymph?
1) It has same mineral distribution as that in plasma
2) Helps for the exchange of nutrients and gases between blood and cells
3) Lymphatic vessels collects this fluid and drains it back to the major arteries
4) Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients, hormones etc.
159. Which one of the following will cause the closure of semilunar valves?
1) Increase in ventricular pressure
2) Decrease in atrial pressure
3) Decrease in ventricular volume
4) Fall in ventricular pressure
160. In a standard ECG the T-wave represents the,
1) depolarisation of ventricles
2) return of the ventricles from excited to normal state
3) electrical excitation of atria
4) repolarisation of atria
161. Statement I : Leucocytes are also known as white blood cells as they are colourless
due to the lack of nucleus.
Statement II : Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are different types of
agranulocytes, while lymphocytes and monocytes are the granulocytes.
162. Assertion : ABO grouping is based on the presence or absence of two surface antigens
in the blood plasma namely A and B.
Reason : Persons with ‘O’ blood group can accept blood from person with ‘O’ as well
as other groups of blood
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false
4) If both assertion and reason are false
163. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takesplace in the DCT of
nephron.
Statement II : DCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3 and selective secretion

of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the pH and sodium - potassium
balance in blood.
164. Find out the wrong statement
1) Erythrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes are collectively called formed elements
of blood
2) Small amounts of glucose, aminoacid and lipids are present in plasma
3) RBCs have a red coloured, iron containing complex protein called haemoglobin
4) Neutrophils are the most abundant agranulocytes
165. Which is not true of cardiac functioning?
1) It consists of systole and diastole of both the atria and ventricles
2) During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 ml of blood
3) The AV valves open in ventricular systole
4) Duration of a cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds
166. Stroke volume is :
1) Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute
2) Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle in a cardiac cycle
3) Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
4) Heart beats/minute
167. In a blood group testing, the given blood sample agglutinated with Anti-Rh and
Anti-A, but not with Anti-B, Hence the blood sample is identified as;
1) B positive 2) AB positive 3) A positive 4) O positive
168. In which way aldosterone will increase blood pressure and GFR of persons?
1) By constricting blood vessels
2) By increasing the reabsorption of Na+ and H2O from distal part of the tubule
3) By decreasing the reabsorption of Na+ and H2O from filtrate
4) By dilating the glomerular capillaries
-1
169. What is the osmolarity (in mOsmolL ) in the outer cortex and inner medulla region
of kidney.
1) 300 and 1400 respectively 2) 600 and 300 respectively
3) 1200 and 300 respectively 4) 300 and 1200 respectively
170. Match the terms given in column I with their physiological processes given in column
II and choose the correct answer
Column I Column II
a) Proximal 1) Reabsorption is
convoluted tubule minimum
b) Distal
2) Filtration of blood
convoluted tubule
3) Reabsorption of
c) Ascending limb
70-80% of
of Henle's loop
electrolytes
d) Counter current
4) Ionic balance
mechanism
5) Maintenance of
e) Renal corpuscle concentration
gradient in medulla
1) a  3,b  5,c  4,d  2,e  1 2) a  3, b  4,c  1,d  5,e  2

3) a  1,b  3,c  2,d  5,e  4 4) a  3, b  1,c  4,d  5,e  2
171. Match the column I and column II. Choose the correct combination from the option
Column I Column II
A) Water
1) Vasodilation
reabsorption
B) ANF 2) Adrenal cortex
C) Dialysing
3) ADH
membrane
D) Aldosterone 4) Cellophane tubes
A BC D A BC D A BC D A BC D
1) 3 2 1 4 2) 3 1 4 2 3) 3 1 2 4 4) 3 4 1 2
172. Find out the false statements

a) An adult human excretes on an average 1- 1.5L of urine per day
b) Our lungs remove about 200ml of CO2 per minute
c) Human kidneys can produce urine nearly six times more concentrated than the
initial filtrate formed
d) Sebaceous glands eliminate certain substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and
waxes through sebum
e) Decrease in blood flow to the atria of the heart cause the release of ANF
1) a,b and e are false 2) b only is false
3) b, d and e are false 4) c and e are false
173. A loop of capillary running parallel to the Henle’s loop is
1) Afferent arteriole 2) Efferent arteriole
3) Vasa recta 4) Renal artery
174. Descending limb of Henle’s loop is (a) to NaCl whereas the ascending limb is (b) to
it. The correct option of “a” & “b” are
1) a-impermeable; b-impermeable
2) a-permeable; b-impermeable
3) a-permeable; b-permeable
4) a-impermeable; b-permeable
175. Human erythrocytes are :
i) enucleated biconcave cells
ii) the most abundant of all the cells in blood
iii) nonnucleated cells and biconvex in shape
iv) involved in the transport of O2 only
1) ii and iii are correct
2) i and ii are correct
3) Only i is correct
4) i and iv are correct
176. Choose the schematic diagram which properly represents systemic circulation in
humans:
oxygenated Deoxygenated
1) Left atrium   Lungs  Right ventricle
blood blood
Deoxygenated
2) Left atrium 
blood
Oxygenated
Lungs  Right ventricle
blood
Deoxygenated
3) Left ventricle 
blood
Oxygenated
Body parts  Right atrium
blood
Oxygenated
4)Leftventricle 
blood
Deoxygenated
Bodyparts  Right atrium
blood
177. What is blood pressure?
1) The pressure of blood on the heart muscle
2) The pressure of blood exerted on the walls of arteries
3) The pressure of blood on the walls of veins only
4) The pressure of blood on the walls of capillaries
178. Which statement is correct about veins?
1) They carry deoxygenated blood only
2) They carry blood from all organs to heart
3) They carry oxygenated blood only
4) They carry blood from heart to different organs
179. When the filtrate, moves upward through ascending loop of Henle, it becomes
1) Hypertonic
2) Hypotonic
3) More concentrated
4) Isotonic
180. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
1) Medullary zone of kidney is differentiated to form medullary pyramids.
2) Inside kidney the cortical regions extend in between medullary pyramids as
columns of Bellini
3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called Malpighian body.
4) Renal corpuscles, PCT and DCT of the nephrons are situiated in the cortex.
Name ................................................
TEST ID
Batch.................... Roll No. ............... MODEL EXAMINATION
02-04-2024 UNIT III 511
24V/N/MOD/ PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY +BIOLOGY Batch : LT-24 Special
PHYSICS
1. 2
2. 3 Young’s modulus depends on the material not length and cross sectional area.
So Young’s modulus remains same.
3. 4
4. 1 ;
5. 2
6. 2 ;
7. 3
8. 2
9. 4
10. 1
11. 2
12. 2
13. 1
14. 1
15. 2
16. 3
17. 2 ; ; ;
;
18. 2
19. 3 ; ;
20. 3
21. 1
22. 2
23. 4
24. 3
25. 2
26. 1
27. 3
28. 4
29. 2
30. 2
31. 4
 A
32. 4 X  A sin t  t  3, X   ;
 2
A
  A sin 3
2
1
 sin 3 
2
  2
 3     T  36 s
6 18 T
33. 3
t t T t 0.2
34. 2 T T  or  100   100   100  0.8%
n n T t 25
F
Y  r
2
stress 
35. 4 Y ;  ; F  Yr 2      i 
strain L
L
F/ 2
Y  r / 4
2
 r 2
 ; F  Y  2
L 4
L
  r 2
From (i) Yr 2  Y   2
L L 2
36. 3
37. 2
38. 1
39. 2
40. 3
41. 4
42. 4 v2  2  A 2  x 2 
v12 v 22
A 2  x12   x 2
2 
2 2
v2  v2
2  22 12
x1  x 2
x12  x 22
T  2
v 22  v12
dx dv
43. 3 x  A sin  t   v  A cos  t   a  2 A sin  t 
dt dt
2
 2   a     sin    2
2
 2 
a      1sin   2    a m / s2
 8   8  16 2 16
44. 3
45. 1
CHEMISTRY
46. 1 KC increasse with temperature for endothermic reactions.
47. 4 NH 4I HS  s   NH 3  g   H 2S  g 
I  0.5 atm 0
C x  x atm  x atm
E   0.5  x  atm x atm
0.5 + x + x = 0.84 atm
x = 0.17 atm
K P  PNH3  PH2S   0.5  0.17    0.17 
= 0.67 × 0.17 = 0.1139 atm2
48. 2 2NOBr  g   2NO  g   Br2  g 
P P P
Eqbm 6  2
9 9 9
6P 2P P
Total =   P
9 9 9
6P 2P
So NOBr should have and NO should have pressure at equilibrium
9 9
2
 2P   P 
2
PNO  PBr2    
   2 
9 9
KP  4P P K 1
2
PNO  6P  ; KP    P 
Br
  36  9 81 P 81
 9 
49. 1 High pressure favours the reaction, so reaction should have leser number of
gaseous products than gaseous reactants ie., x > y +z
50. 4
51. 3 H   A   Ka  C ;  A    4  1010  0.01  2  106 M

52. 3
M M
53. 1 30 ml × HCl + 20 ml  HNO 3 = 20 mmol H+
3 2
M
40 ml × NaOH = 10 mmol OH-
4
Mixing gives 90 ml solution containing 10 mmol H+. when volume is made upto
1L using water, we have 10 mmol H+ in 1000 mL solution.
10 m mol
Molarity of H+ =  0.01M H 
1000 mL
pH =  log  H    log 10   2

 2
54. 1 NH4OH dissociates least in KOH solution, due to the presence of common ion.
55. 1
56. 3
57. 3
58. 2
59. 3
60. 2
61. 4
62. 1
63. 2
64. 1
65. 1
66. 4
67. 1
68. 1
69. 3
70. 4
71. 4
72. 4
73. 4
74. 1
75. 3
76. 2
77. 4
78. 2
79. 2
80. 3
81. 3
82. 4
83. 4
84. 4
85. 3
86. 4
87. 1
88. 3
89. 1
90. 1
BOTANY
91. 1 100. 2 109. 2 118. 3 127. 1
92. 4 101. 2 110. 3 119. 3 128. 1
93. 1 102. 1 111. 4 120. 2 129. 2
94. 1 103. 3 112. 2 121. 2 130. 1
95. 1 104. 1 113. 4 122. 4 131. 1
96. 4 105. 2 114. 4 123. 1 132. 1
97. 2 106. 3 115. 2 124. 2 133. 4
98. 4 107. 2 116. 1 125. 2 134. 1
99. 1 108. 1 117. 3 126. 4 135. 1
ZOOLOGY
136. 3 145. 2 154. 2 163. 2 172. 4
137. 3 146. 3 155. 2 164. 4 173. 3
138. 2 147. 3 156. 4 165. 3 174. 4
139. 1 148. 3 157. 4 166. 2 175. 2
140. 1 149. 2 158. 3 167. 3 176. 4
141. 4 150. 3 159. 4 168. 2 177. 2
142. 3 151. 2 160. 2 169. 4 178. 2
143. 1 152. 2 161. 3 170. 2 179. 2
144. 4 153. 1 162. 4 171. 2 180. 2

Unit - III - (P+C+B) - 02 - 04 - 24

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Unit - III - (P+C+B) - 02 - 04 - 24

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1   2 T2 1  T1 2 T2 1  T1 2 T11  T2  2

tension of mercury is 0.45 Nm-1. The gain in surface energy is :

x 22  x12 x 22  x12 x 22  x12 x 22  x12

2NOBr  g   2NO  g   Br2  g 

If PBr2  P / 9 at equilibrium and P is total pressure. The ratio K P / P is equal to :

The molarity of A- ions in 0.01 M HA is  K a  4 10 

1) 2×10-12 M 2) 4×10-12 M 3) 2×10-6 M 4) 1×10-6 M

pK a of CH3COOH = 4.76 ; Antilog of 0.34= 2.188

58. Consider the following reversible chemical reactions :

71. The chloride that cannot be hydrolysed is :

The corrct IUPAC name of above structure is

78. CH3 CH CH CH2

83. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

1) A- P, S; B -Q; C- P, Q, R; D - P, R 2) A -P, Q; B - R; C-P, Q; D-S

1) a-1, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii,, b-I, c-iii, d-iv

1. Cardiac output a) lub sound

12345 12345 12345 12345

Statement II : DCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3 and selective secretion

1) a  3,b  5,c  4,d  2,e  1 2) a  3, b  4,c  1,d  5,e  2

172. Find out the false statements

51. 3 H   A   Ka  C ;  A    4  1010  0.01  2  106 M

pH =  log  H    log 10   2

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