Test Booklet Code

13-04-2024 Batch : LT-24 SPL

Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION-UNIT-VII+VIII 511 VERSION
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
B1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 4. In a compound microscope, the

intermediate image is
Section A :(1-35) Answer all Questions
1. Light with an energy flux of 1) virtual, erect and magnified
20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting
2) real, erect and magnified
surface at normal incidence. If the
surface has an area of 30 cm2, the 3) real, inverted and magnified
total momentum delivered (for
complete absorption) during 30 4) virtual, erect and reduced
minutes is:
5. If the ground state energy of hydrogen
1) 36 105 kg m / s atom is –13.6 eV, the potential energy
of the electron in this state is
2) 36 104 kg m / s
1) 27.2 eV
3) 108  104 kg m / s 2) –27.2 eV

4) 1.08  107 kg m / s 3) –13.6 eV

2. If the kinetic energy of the particle is 4) 13.6 eV

increased to 16 times, the percentage
change in the de-Broglie wavelength 6. The acceleration of an electron in the
of the particle is first orbit of hydrogen atom (n = 1) is

1) 25% 2) 75% 3) 60% 4) 50%

h2 h2
1) 2)
3. In a photoemissive cell, with exciting 2 m 2 r 3 42 mr 3
wavelength  , the fastest electron has
speed v. If the exciting wavelength is h2 h2
changed to 3 / 4 , the speed of the 3) 4)
4m 2 r 3 8 2 m 2 r 3
fastest electron will be
7. A zener diode, having breakdown
1/ 2
3 voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a
1) v   voltage regulator circuit shown in fig.
4
The current through the diode is
1/ 2
4
2) v  
3

1/ 2
4
3) less than v  
3

1/ 2
4 1) 10 mA 2) 15 mA
4) greater than v  
3
3) 20 mA 4) 5 mA
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 2

8. Match the logic gates given in column 12. Three identical polaroid sheets P1, P2
I with the Boolean expression given in and P3 are oriented so that the pass
column II. axis of P2 and P3 are inclined at 60o
and 90o respectively w.r.t. the pass axis
Column - I Column - II of P 1. If a monochromatic source of
A) OR gate p) YAB intensity I0 is kept in front of P1, the
B) NOT gate q) Y=A+B
intensity of the light transmitted
through P3 will be
C) NAND gate r) YA
D) NOR gate s) Y  A.B I0 I0
1) 2)
2 8
1) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s
2) A - q, B - r, C - s, D - p I0 3I0
3) 4)
3) A - r, B - q, C - s, D - p 32 32

4) A - q, B - r, C - p, D - s 13. The maximum kinetic energy (Kmax) of

9. The r.m.s. value of the electric field of the
light coming from the sun is 720N/C. The
average total energy density of the EM
waveis:
photoelectrons emitted in a photocell
varies with frequency    of the
incident radiation as shown in fig. The
slope of the graph is equal to

1) 6.37  10 9 J / m 3 2) 81.35  10 12 J / m 3

3) 3.3  10 3 J / m 3 4) 4.58  10 6 J / m 3
Kmax
10. In an electromagnetic wave in free
space, the root mean square value of
the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The
peak value of the magnetic field is
v0 v
1) 2.83  10 T8 2) 0.70  10 T 8

1) the charge of electron

3) 4.23  108 T 4) 1.41  108 T
2) the charge to mass ratio of electron
11. Consider an YDSE that has different
slit widths. As a result, amplitude of 3) Planck’s constant
waves from two slits are A and 2A
respectively. If I0 be the maximum 4) work function of the emitter in
photocell
intensity of the interference pattern,
then intensity of the pattern at a point 14. Ratio of longe st wavelengths
where phase difference between waves corresponding to Lyman and Balmer
is  is series in hydrogen spectrum is

10  3 7
1) I0cos2  2) sin 2 1) 2)
3 2 23 29

10 10 9 5
3) [5  4 cos ] 4) [5  6 cos ] 3) 4)
9 9 31 27
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 3

15. To get output 1 for the following circuit, 19. An LED operates under which biasing
the correct choice for the input is condition?

1) Reverse bias

2) Forward bias

3) Can operate both in forward and

reverse bias
1) A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1
4) No biasing is required
2) A = 0, B = 1 and C = 0
20. The focal length of convex lens of glass
3) A = 1, B = 0 and C = 0
   1.5  , is 2 cm. The focal length of
4) A = 1, B = 1 and C = 0 the lens when immersed in a liquid of
refractive index = 1.25 wil be
16. The magnifying power of a telescope is found to
be 9 and the separation between lenses is 20 cm 1) 5 cm 2) 2.4 cm
for relaxed eye. The focal lengths of the
3) 1 cm 4) 4 cm
component lenses are:
21. Two waves having intensities in the
1) 9 cm, 2 cm
ratio 9 : 1 produce interference. The
2) 18 cm, 2 cm ratio of the maximum to the minimum
intensity is
3) 9 cm, 5 cm
1) 10 : 8 2) 9 : 1
4) 18 cm, 1 cm
3) 4 : 1 4) 2 : 1
17. The momentum of electron of
wavelength 1.0 nm is 22. The combination of gates shown in
figure below produces
1) 6.63  1034 kgms 1

2) 6.63  1030 kgms 1

3) 6.63  1028 kgms1

1) NOR gate 2) OR gate

4) 6.63  1025 kgms1
3) AND gate 4) XOR gate
18. The orbital period of electron in nth orbit
of hydrogen atom is proportional to 23. The work function of aluminium is
o
1) n 4.2eV. Light of wavelength 2000 A is
incident on it. The threshold frequency
2) n2 will be

3) n3 1) 1019 Hz 2) 1013 Hz

4) n–3 3) 1015 Hz 4) 1018 Hz

LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 4

24. The energy of hydrogen like atom or 27. A point object O is placed in front of a
ion in its ground state is –54.4 eV. It glass rod having spherical end of
may be radius of curvature 30cm. The image
would be formed at
1) hydrogen

2) deuterium

3) He+

4) Li++

25. Fi gu r e gi ves a syst em of l ogi c gat es. 1) 30 cm left

Fr om t h e st u dy of t r u t h t able it can be
fou n d t h at t o pr odu ce a h igh ou t pu t (1) 2) Infinity
at R, we m u st h ave
3) 1 cm to the right

4) 18 cm to the left

28. A spherical mirror forms an image of

magnification 3. The object distance,
if focal length of mirror is 24 cm may
be

1) 32 cm, 24 cm

2) 32 cm, 16 cm

1) X = 0, Y=1 3) 32 cm only

2) X=1, Y=1 4) 16 cm only

29. Ray diverge from a point source of a

3) X=1, Y=0
wavefront that is
4) X=0, Y=0
1) Cylindrical 2) Spherical
26. A Ge specimen is dope d with 3) Plane 4) Cubical
aluminium. the concentration of
acceptor atoms is  10 21 atoms/m 3 . 30. Two coherent sources have intensity
Given that the intrinsic concentration
of electron hole pairs is  1019/m3 , the 100
in the ratio of . Ratio of (intensity)
concentration o f electrons in the 1
specimen is max/(intensity) min is

1) 1017/m3
1 1
1) 2)
2) 1015/m3 100 10

3) 104/m3 10 3
3) 4)
1 2
4) 102/m3
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 5

31. A slit of size 0.15 cm is placed at 2.1
m from a screen. On illuminated it
by a light of wavelength 5×10–5 cm. 36.
The width of central maxima will be
1) 70 mm 2) 0.14 mm
3) 1.4 mm 4) 0.14 cm
32. A light wave is incident normally over
a slit of width 24×10 –5 cm. The
angular position of second dark fringe
from the central maxima is 30°. What
is the wavelength of light?
1) 6000Å 2) 5000Å
37.
3) 3000Å 4) 1500Å
33. When the angle of incidence on a
material is 60°, the reflected light is
completely polarized. The velocity of
the refracted ray inside the material
is (in ms–1)
Section B (36-50) answer any 10 Qns.
An electromagnetic wave travels along
z-axis. Which of the following pairs of
space and time varying fields would
generate such a wave?
1) Ex, By
2) Ey, Bx
3) Ez, Bx
4) Ey, Bz
An electromagne tic wave going
through vacuum is described by
E  E 0 sin  kx  t  . Which of the fol-
lowing is/are independent of the
wavelength?
1) k 2) 2

 3  3) k /  4) k2
  10
8
1) 3×108 2) 
 2
38. Match the devices given in column I
with their corresponding applications
3) 3  108 4) 0.5  108
given in column II
34. Radiations of intensity 0.5 W/m2 are
striking a metal plate. The pressure
on the plate is Column I Column II
A) Zener diode (p) Remote
1) 0.166×10–8 N/m2 B) Photo diode (q) controls
Power
2) 0.332×10 –8
N/m 2 electronic
devices in
3) 0.111×10–8 N/m2 satellites
C) Light ( r) Voltage
4) 0.083×10 –8
N/m 2 emitting stabilizer
diode (LED)
35. A large parallel plate capacitor with
D) Solar cell (s) Detects optical
plate area 1m 2 and se paration
signals
between the plates 1mm is charged
at the rate of 25v/s. If the dielectric
between the plates, has a dielectric
constant 10, then the displacement 1) A  r, B  s, C  p, D  q
current is given by:
2) A  r, B  s, C  q, D  p
1) 25A 2) 2.2A
3) A  r, B  p, C  s, D  q
3) 11A 4) 1.1A 4) A  q, B  s, C  p, D  r
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511]
39. The stopping potential as a function
of the frequency of the incident ra-
diation is plotted for two different pho-
toelectri c surfaces A and B. The
graphs show that work function of A
is
1) Greater than that of B
2) Smaller than that of B
3) Equal to that of B
4) No inference can be drawn about
their work functions from the given
graphs
40. Mercury violet light (   4558 Å) is fall-
ing on a photosensitive    2.5eV  .
The speed of the ejected electrons is
in ms–1, about
1) 3×105
2) 2.65×10 5
3) 4×104
4) 3.65×107
41. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube
is incident on the cathode of a photo-
electric cell the work function of the
cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order to
reduce the photocurrent to zero the
voltage of the anode relative to the
cathode must be made
1) –4.2 V
2) –9.4 V
3) –17.8 V
4) +9.4V
6
42. Assertion: In the process of photoelec-
tric emission, all the emitted photo-
electrons have the same kinetic en-
ergy
Reason: The photon transfers its
whole energy to the electron of the
atom in photoelectric effect
1) If both assertion and reason are
true and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are
true and the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is
false
4) If assertion is false but reason is
true
43. If the momentum of an electron is
changed by p, then the de-Broglie
wavelength associate d with i t
changes by 0.5%. The initial
momentum of electron will be
1) 200 p 2) 400 p
p
3) 4) 100 p
200
44. When an electron in hydrogen atom
is excite d, from its 4th to 5th
stati onary orbit, the change in
angular momentum of electron is
(Planck’s constant: h=6.6×10–34 J-s)
1) 4.16×10–34 J-s 2) 3.32×10–34 J-s
3) 1.05×10–34 J-s 4) 2.08×10–34 J-s
45. If the energy of a hydrogen atom in
n th orbit is En, then energy in the nth
orbit of a singly ionized helium atom
will be
1) 4 En 2) En/4
3) 2En 4) En/2
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 7

46. The binding energies per nucleon of 49. The depletion layer in the P-N junction
2
deuteron (1 H ) and helium atom region is caused by
(2He4) are 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV. If two 1) Drift of holes
deuteron atoms react to form a single
helium atom, then the e nergy 2) Diffusion of charge carriers
released is
3) Migration of impurity ions
1) 13.9 MeV 2) 26.9 MeV
4) Drift of electrons
3) 23.6 MeV 4) 19.2 MeV
50. A microscope is focussed on a mark
47. In the following circuit find I1 and I2 on a piece of paper and then a slab of
glass of thickness 3cm and refractive
index 1.5 is placed over the mark.
How should the microscope be moved
to get the mark again in focus:

1) 2 cm upwards

2) 1 cm upwards

3) 4.5 cm upwards

1) 0, 0 2) 5 mA, 5 mA 4) 6 cm downwards

3) 5 mA, 0 4) 0, 5 mA CHEMISTRY
48. Assertion: The following circuit Section A (51-85) Answer all Ques.
represents ‘OR’ gate
51. Consider the following alkyl halides;

I)  CH 3 3 CBr

Reason: For the above
Y  X  AB AB
1) If both assertion and reason are
true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are
true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is
false
4) If both assertion and reason are
false
II) CH3Br
circui t
III) C2H5Br
IV) CH3CHBrCH3
Arrange the se alkyl halides in
decreasing orde r of reactivity in
Williamson reaction
1) I > IV > III > II
2) I > II > III > IV
3) IV > III > II > I
4) II > III > IV > I
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 8

52. Which of the following undergo SN1 at 55. Some statements are given below:
faster rate?
a) Kharasch effect is only applicable
for HI
Cl
b) Wurtz reaction can be used to
1) ascend the alkane series

c) Ease of elimination of R-X is

2) Cl 10  20  30

d) Addition of H + in al kene is an
3) Cl example of positive electromeric effect

Among the above, the corre ct

4) Cl statement(s) is/are

1) only d 2) only a and b

53. Arrange the following compounds in the
decreasing order of their reactivity 3) only c and d 4) only b and d

towards SN 2 reaction : 56. Pick out the correct statement

i) CH3CH2Cl a) The C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene is

shorter than methyl chloride
ii) CH3Cl
b) The C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene has
iii) (CH3)2CHCl some double bond character

iv) (CH3)3CCl c) It is difficult to replace chlorine from

chlorobenze ne than from benzyl
1) iv > iii > i > ii chloride

2) ii > i > iii > iv 1) Only a,b

3) i > ii > iv > iii 2) Only a,c

4) iii > ii > i > iv 3) a,b and c

54. If an organic compound X (C4H9Cl) on 4) Only a

reaction with Na/diethyl ether undergo
Wurtz reaction to give a hydrocarbon 57. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by
which on monochlorination gives only reacting aniline with
one chloro derivative. Then, X is
1) hydrochloric acid
1) t-butyl chloride
2) cuprous chloride
2) s-butyl chloride
3) chlorine in presence of anhydrous
3) iso-butyl chloride aluminum chloride

4) n-butyl chloride 4) nitrous acid followed by heating with

cuprous chloride and HCl
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 9

58. Which of the following compounds are

arranged i n order of decreasing
reactivity towards electrophilic 62. CH2 O on
halogenation?

1) Phenol > Toluene > Nitrobenzene

reaction with HI gives
2) Toluene > Phenol > Nitrobenzene

3) Phenol > Nitrobenzene > Toluene CH2 OH and

1) OH

4) Nitrobenzene > Toluene > Phenol

59. tert-Butyl ethyl ether cannot be

prepared by which of the following CH2 I and OH
2)
reactions?

H
1) tert-Butanol + Ethanol  
3) CH2 I only
2) tert-Butyl bromide + sodium
ethoxide 

3) Sodium tert-butoxi de + Ethyl

bromide  CH2 I and COOH
4)
H
4) iso-Butene + Ethanol  
63. Which one of the following is Group
60. Which of the following ions produce zero cation?
black precipitate with lead aceteate in
aqueous medium? 1) Mg2+
1) Cu2+ 2) NH4+
2) NH 4
3) S2- 4) Ca2+
3) Cu2+
61. Assertion:[A] Alcohols and water are
weaker acids than phenols.
4) Pb2+
Reason:[R] The delocalisation of nega-
tive charge makes the phenoxide ion 64. The reaction of a Grignard reagent with
more stable and favour the ionisation a carboxylic acid give
of phenol.
1) Alcohol
1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
2) Aldehyde
2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) 3) Ether

is the correct explanation of (A).
4) Hydrocarbon
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A).
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 10

65. What product will be formed in the 67. Aldol condensation between which of
given reaction ? the following compounds followed by
dehydration gives But-2-enal?
 CH3 2 CHMgI 
i) CO /Dry ether
2

ii) H /H O

2
1) Methanal and ethanal

1)  CH3 2 C  O 2) Two moles of formaldehyde

3) Methanal and propanone

2) (CH3)2C - C (CH3)2
4) Two moles of ethanal
OH OH
68. Identify compound X in the following
sequence of reactions:
3)  CH 3 2 CHCOOH

CH3 CHO
4)  CH 3 2 CHCHO
Cl2/h  H2O
66. Identify ‘ y’ in the following reaction X
373K

O + (CH ) CHCH NH H+ 'y'

32 2 2 CH2Cl
Cl

C(CH3)2 1) 2)
1)

CHO
CHCl2 CCl3
2)
3) 4)

NH2
69. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
acetophenone in presence of dilute
3) NaOH is known as

1) Aldol condensation

2) Cannizzaro’s reaction

4) NCH2CH(CH3)2
3) Cross cannizzaro’s reaction

4) Cross Aldol condensation

LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 11

70. Assertion (A) : Compounds containing 72. Match Column I (name of vitamins)
–CHO group are easily oxidised to with Column II (deficiency disease) and
select the correct option
corresponding carboxylic acids.

Reason (R) : Carboxylic acids can be Column I Column II

reduced to alcohols by treatment with
I) Ascorbic acid A) Beri-beri
LiAlH 4.
II) Retinol B) Cracked lips
1) Assertion is not correct but Reason
is correct III) Riboflavin C) Scurvy
2) Both assertion and reason are
IV) Thiamine D) Night blindness
correct and reason is the corre ct
explanation of assertion 1) I-B;II-A;III-C;IV-D
3) Both assertion and reason are
2) I-A;II-B;III-C;IV-D
correct but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion 3) I-D;II-C;III-B;IV-A
4) Assertion is correct, but reason is 4) I-C;II-D;III-B;IV-A
not correct
73. Two vitamins absorbed from intestine
71. The intermediate compound X in the along with fats are
following chemical reaction is
1) A,D
O
CH3
C
2) A,B
CS2 + H
+ CrO2Cl2 H3 O
X
3) A,C

4) D,B
Cl
CH 74. Which o ne of the following is a
H steroidal hormone?
1)
1)Insulin

2) Androgen
CH(OCrOHCl2)2
2) 3)Endorphine

4) Epinephrine

CH(OCOCH3)2 75. Nucleotides and nucleosides mainly

differ from each other in
3)
1) presence of phosphate units

2) pesence of base units

Cl
CH 3) presence of nucleic acids
4)
Cl
4) presence of sugar unit
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 12

76. Assertion : Ammonolysis of alkyl 79. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic

halide is not a suitable method for the me dium also gives m-nitroanili ne
preparation of pure primary amines. because

Reason : Ammonolysis of alkyl halides 1) inspite of substituents nitro group

yields only secondary amines. always goes to only m-position

1) Assertion is not correct but Reason 2) in electrophilic su bstitution

is correct
2) Both assertion and reason are
correct and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
reactions amino group is me ta
directive
3) in absence of substituents nitro
group always goes to m-position

3) Both assertion and reason are 4) in acidic (strong) medium aniline is

correct but reason is not the correct converted to anilinium ion
explanation of assertion
80. Which of the following represents the
4) Assertion is correct, but reason is anomer of the compound shown?
not correct
HOCH2
77. Which compound gives violet colour O H
with neutral ferric chloride solution?
H H
OH
1) Ethyl alcohol
H
HO OH
2) Acetic acid

3) Methylamine HOCH2
O H
4) Phenol
OH H
1) OH
78. Identify the compound that will react H
H OH
with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a white
solid which dissolves in alkali.

H H
CH2 CH2 O
CH3 N CH3 OH
OH
1) OH
2) HOH2C
CH3
H H

CH2
2) CH NO2
3 HOCH2 OH
O
H OH
CH2 CH3 3) H
H
3) CH3
NH
HO OH

CH2
4) CH3 4) None of these
NH2
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 13
81. Which among the following compounds
gives brisk efferevescence with
NaHCO 3?
1) CH3CH2OH
2) C6H5OH
3) CH3COOH
4) CH3COCH3
82. The difference between amylose and
amylopectin is
1) amylopectin have 1  4   linkage
and 1  6   linkage
2) amylose have 1  4   linkage and
1  6   linkage
3) amylopectin have 1  4   linkage
and 1  6   linkage
4) amylose is made up of glucose and
galactose
83. Statement-I : Aryl halide undergo
electrophilic substitution more readily
than benzene
Statement-II : Aryl halides give a
mixture of ortho and para product on
electrophilic substitution reaction
1) Statement I & II are correct
2) Statement-I is correct, II is incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect, II is correct
4) Statement-I & II are incorrect
84. Assertion : In aliphatic carboxylic acids
presence of strong electron
withdrawing groups on the
hydrocarbon chain increases the
acidity
Reason : Chloroacetic acid is stronger
than acetic acid
1) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is not the corre ct
explanation of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) If assertion is false but reason is
true
85. Which cation among the following forms
rose-red precipitate with dimethyl
glyoxime in ammonical solution?
1) Zn2+ 2) Ni2+
3) Mg2+ 4) NH4+
Section B (86- 100) Answer any 10 Qns.
86. Statement I : Addition reaction of
water to but-1-ene in acidic medium
yields butan-1-ol as major product
Statement II : Addition of water in
acidic medium proceeds through the
formation of primary carbocation.
1) Both statement I and statement II
are correct.
2) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect.
3) Statem en t I is correct but
statement II is incorrect.
4) Statemen t I is incorrect but
statement II is correct.
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 14

87. An alcohol of molecular formula, 89. The product formed in the following
C 5 H 11 OH on dehydration gives an chemical reaction is
O
alkene, which on oxidation yields a O
mixture of ketone and an acid. The CH2 C OCH3 NaBH4
?
alcohol is C2H5OH
CH3
OH O
1) CH 3CH 2 CH(OH)CH 2 CH 3
CH2 C OCH3
1)
2) CH3CHCH2CH2CH3 CH3

OH
OH H
CH2 C OCH3
2)
3)  CH3 2 CHCH(OH)CH3
OH
CH3
O
4) all of these CH2 CH2 OH
3)
88. Assertion :Acid catalysed dehydration CH3
of tert-butanol proceeds faster than O H
that of n-butanol.
CH2 C CH3
4)
Reason:The acid catalysed dehydration OH
of an alcohol proceeds via the formation CH3
of a carbocation.
90. Match the following.
Column I Column II
1) Assertion is not correct but Reason (Compound) (Test)
is correct O
||
A) C2 H 5  C  C 2 H 5 1) 2, 4 DNP test
2) Both assertion and reason are O
correct and reason is the correct ||
explanation of assertion B) C2 H 5  C  H 2) Silver mirror test
O
3) Both assertion and reason are ||
C) CH3  C  CH 3 3) Iodoform test
correct but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion O
||
D) C H  C  H 4) Benedict test
6 5
4) Assertion is correct, but reason is A B C D A B C D
not correct 1) 2)
3 4 2 1 1 4 3 2
A B C D A B C D
3) 4)
2 3 4 1 4 3 2 1
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 15

91. Identify X and Y 92. An unknown alkyl halide (A) reacts with
alcoholic KOH to produce a
H3O+ hydrocarbon (C 4 H 8 ) as the major
X
CH3 product. Ozonolysis of the hydrocarbon
1. B2H6/THF
CH CH CH2 2. H2O2/OH
Y gives one mole of propanaldehyde and
CH3
one mole of formaldehyde. Suggest
which organic compound among the
CH3
following has the correct structure of
1) X = CH3 CH CH CH3 , the above alkyl halide (A) is
1) CH3CHBrCH2CH3
OH
2) CH3CH(Br)CH(Br)CH3
CH3 3) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
4) Br(CH2)4Br
Y = CH3 C CH2 CH3,
93. What is the product of the following
OH series of reactions?

NH 2
CH3 Cl
NaNO 2,HCl CuCN (1) CH 3MgBr
2) X = CH3 C CH2 CH3, H 2O,00C (2) H 2O,H +

OH
O C CH3
CH3 Cl
1)
Y = CH3 CH CH2 CH2OH ,

CH3
COOCH3
3) X = CH3 CH CH2 CH2OH , Cl
2)
CH3

Y = CH3 CH CH CH3,
HO CH CH3
OH
Cl
3)
CH3

4) X = CH3 CH CH CH3,

OH CH2CN

CH3 Cl
4)
Y = CH3 CH CH2 CH2OH ,
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 16

94. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic 96. Match the column

compound ‘A’ reacts with sn/HCl,
followed by HNO2 to give an unstable
compound ‘B’. ‘B’, on treatment with
phenol, forms a beautiful coloured
compound ‘C’ with the molecular
formula C12H 10N 2O. The structure of
compound ‘A’ is

NH2
1)

NO2
2)

CN Correct match is :
3) 1) (a)  (q),(b)  (p),(c)  (s),(d)  (r)
2) (a)  (t),(b)  (p),(c)  (s), (d)  (r)

CONH2 3) (a)  (q),(b)  (p),(c)  (t),(d)  (s)

4) (a)  (t),(b)  (q), (c)  (s), (d)  (r)
4)
97. Of the following, which is the product
formed when cyclohexanone undergoes
NH2
aldol condensation followed by heating?

 CH3CO 2 O HNO3 H2O/OH 1)

95.   A   B   C .
Pyridine H2SO4 major

The product C is ,
O
NH2 NH2
2)
NO2
1) 2)
OH

NO2 3)

OH O
NH2 NH2 O
O2N NO2
4)
3) 4)

NO2
NO2 OH
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 17

98. Consider the reaction : 100. Identify X in the give n re action

sequence.
RCHO  NH 2 NH 2  RCH  N  NH 2 CH3

(CH3CO)2O
What sort of reaction is it? A
Br2/CH3COOH
B

1) Electrophilic addition-elimination NH2 H+/H2O

X
reaction

2) Free radical addition-elimination CH3 CH3

reaction Br

3) Electrophilic substitution- 1) 2)
elimination reaction Br
NH2 NH2
4) Nucleophilic addition-elimination
reaction
CH3 CH3
99. In the given reaction, COCH3

O 3) 4)
COCH3
HCN LiAlH4
A B
H2O NH2 NH2

BOTANY
A and B will be respectively
Section A (101-135) Answer all Qns.
101. The salt concentration in ppt of inland
OH OH water
1) CN and CHO 1) >5 2) <5
3) 30-35 4) <10
102. Match the following suitably.
OH OH
Column I Column II
2) CN and CH2NH2
a) B  I  D  E i) ' N ' increases
b) B  I  D  E ii) ' N ' decreases
c) B  I  D  E iii) ' N ' stable
OH
NH2
3) CN and
a b c
1) i ii iii
2) ii i iii
CN
NH2 3) iii ii i
and
4) 4) i iii ii
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 18

103. Which among the following is not an 108. If pre-reproductive age group members
attribute of population ? is less than reproductive age group
members, the population is said to be
1) Birth rate 2) Death rate
1) Expanding
3) Sex ratio 4) Birth
2) Stable
104. Temporary movement of organism from
stressful habitat to hospitable habitat 3) Declining
is :
4) Neither declining nor stable
1) Emigration
109. Population size fluctuates due to :
2) Immigration
1) Natality
3) Migration
2) Immigration
4) Suspend
3) Mortality
105. Basic level of organisation in ecological
study is : 4) All of these

110. Size of the population for any species

1) Population
is not a static parameter. It keeps
2) Organism changing with time to time due to ?

3) Ecosystem 1) Food availability

4) Biome 2) Predation pressure

3) Adverse weather
106. The correct equation for logistic growth
is 4) All the above
1) Log S = Log C + Z Log A 111. Identify ‘X’ in the given digram.

dN K  N
2)  rN 
dt  K 

dN
3)  rN
dt

4) S  CA z

107. In a lotus population 20 lotus are

present and now 8 new lotus are being 1) Migration
added. The birth rate is
2) Emigration
1) 0.1 2) 0.4
3) Birth rate
3) 4 4) 40
4) All of these
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 19

112. Which organism reproduce only once 117. Most common kind of defense
in life-time ? mechanism shown by Acacia and
Cactus ?
1) Mammals 2) Bamboo
1) Physiological
3) All birds 4) All trees
2) Morphological
113. Mycorrhizae are the example of :
3) Behaviour
1) Amensalism 2) Parasitism
4) Both 1 and 2
3) Mutualism 4) Commensalism
118. Which type of interaction is found
114. Find the incorrect one from the between visiting flamingos and resident
following. fish in South American lakes ?

1) Predation
Sl. Species Species Name of
No. A B interaction 2) Competition
A) + + Mutualism
B) + - Competition
3) Parasitism
C) + - Predation 4) Commensalism
D) + - Parasitism
E) + 0 Commensalism 119. Ectoparasites among the following is/
F) + 0 Ammensalism are :

1) A, B, C 2) B, A, C a) Copepodes

3) B, F 4) C, D, E b) Cuscuta

115. Larger, competitively superior Barnacle c) Lice on human

species is :
d) Ticks on dog
1) Chathamalus
1) a only
2) Balanus
2) a, b, c only
3) Flamingos
3) a, d only
4) Zooplankton
4) a, b, c, d only
116. Calotropis is usually not prefered by
herbivores due to the presence of : 120. Brood parasitism between crow and
cuckoo bird can be best seen during
1) Nicotine
1) Winter to spring
2) Cardiac glycoside
2) Spring to summer
3) Curcumin
3) Winter
4) Reserpine
4) Autumn
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 20

121. Interaction in which one species 125. The second trophic level in a food chain
benefited and other neither harmed or is
benefited
1) Phytoplankton
1) Amensalism
2) Zooplankton
2) Commensalism
3) Trees
3) Parasitism
4) Tiger
4) Mutualism
126. Find the correct statement from the
122. Find the correct pair from the following. following.
1) Lichen - Fungus and virus 1) In leaching water soluble organic
nutrients go down to the soil horizon
2 Mycorrhizae - Bacteria and roots of
and get precipitated as available salts.
higher plant

3) Commensalism -Barnacles on whale 2) The accumulation of a dark coloured

4) Competition - Lion and Deer
123. Find the man made aquatic ecosystem.
1) Crop field
amorphous substance is called humus.
3) The humus is further degraded by
some microbes and release of organic
nutrients occur by the process known
as mineralisation.

2) Aquarium 4) Decomposition is largely an

anaerobic process.
3) Grass land
127. The measurement of living mass of an
4) Desert organism in a trophic level is
124. Find the incorrect statement from the 1) Standing state
following ?
2) Standing crop
I) An example for biotic component is
water 3) Productivity
II) Autotrophs prepare food with the 4) Stratification
help of radiant energy by using organic
material 128. Find the correct statement from the
following.
III) Autotrophic components are
phytoplanktons and zooplanktons 1) The base of the pyramid always
narrow.
IV) Energy flow is bidirectional
2) Number of insect feeding on a big
1) I only tree, the pyramid is always upright.
2) I, II and III only 3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
3) I and IV only
4) The pyramid of biomass in a sea is
4) I, II, III and IV generally upright.
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 21

Assertion-Reason Type Question 132. Determining factors of percolation and

water holding capacity of the soil as
1) If both Assertion and reason are true
and the reason is correct explanation 1) Soil composition
of the assertion.
2) Grain size
2) If both assertion and reason are true
3) Aggregation
and reason is no t the correct
explanation of assertion. 4) All of these

3) If assertion is true, but reason is 133. Match the following columns.

false.

4) If assertion is false but the reason Column I Column II

is true.
Competitive
129. Assertion : Expo ne ntial growth is 1) Connel a)
exclusion
considered a more realistic one.
2) Mac Arthur b) Barnacle
Reason : Food web is more realistic
than food chain. 3) Gause c) Warblers

130. Assertion : The relationship experssed

in terms of number, biomass or energy 1) 1- a, 2-b, 3-c
graphically represents ecological
pyramids. 2) 1- c, 2-a, 3-b

Reason : Pyramid of biomass in deep 3) 1- a, 2-c, 3-b

aquatic ecosystem is usually inverted.
4) 1- b, 2-c, 3-a
131. Match the following suitably.
134. Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are

i) Autotrophs
Column I Column II
i) Mortality a) I ii) Heterotrophs

ii) Natality b) B iii) Saprotrophs

iii) Immigration c) E
iv) Chemoautotrophs
iv) Emigration d) D
Choose the correct answer :

1) i (c) ; ii (a) ; iii (b) ; iv (d) 1) i and iii

2) i and iv
2) i (d) ; ii (a) ; iii (b) ; iv (c)
3) ii and iii
3) i (c) ; ii (b) ; iii (a) ; iv (d)
4) i and ii
4) i (d) ; ii (b) ; iii (a) ; iv (c)
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 22

135. Match the following column 137. Read the following statements and
select the correct option.
Column I Column II Statement 1 : The interaction between
Natural sea ane mone and clown fish is
a) terrestrial 1) Crop field commensalism.
ecosystem
Natural Statement 2 : Fish gets protection
b) aquatic 2) Grass land from predators but anemone does not
ecosystem appear to derive any benefit.
Manmade
c) aquatic 3) Biosphere 1) Both Statement I and Statement II
ecosystem are correct
Manmade 2) Both Statement I and Statement II
d) terrestrial 4) Aquarium
are incorrect
ecosystem

e)
Global
5) Estuary
ecosystem
1) a : 3, b : 4, c : 1, d : 2, e : 5
2) a : 2, b : 3, c : 4, d : 1, e : 5
138. Study the four statements given below
3) a : 1, b : 4, c : 3, d : 2, e : 5
4) a : 2, b : 5, c : 4, d : 1, e : 3
Section B (136-150) Answer any 10 Qns.
136. The shape of the pyramids reflects
the growth status of the population.
The structures A, B, C represents:-
139. A population growing in a habitat with
1) A - Stable population; B - Declining
population; C - Expanding population
2) A - Stable population, B - Expanding
population, C - Declining population
3) A - Fluctuating population, B -
Declining population, C - Increasing
population
4) A - Expanding population; B - Stable
population, C - Declining population
3) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
4) Stateme nt I is incorre ct but
Statement II is correct
and select the incorrect option :
1) A Lion eating a Deer and a sparrow
feeding on grain are ecologically
similar in being consumers
2) Predator starfish Pisaster helps in
maintaining species diversity in some
invertebrates
3) Predators ultimately lead to the
extinction of prey species
4) Production of chemicals such as
nicotine, strychnine, quinine, caffeine
and opium etc actually acts as defence
against grazers and browsers.
limited resources shows phases of
growth in the following sequence:
1) Acceleration  deceleration  Lag
phase  Asymptote
2) Log phase  Acceleration  Lag
phase  Deceleration
3) Lag phase  Acceleration 
deceleration  Asymptote
4) Acceleration  Log phase  Lag
phase
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 23
140. Which of the following sentence is/are
correct :
1) Ecological effects of any factors on a
population are generally reflected in
its size (population density) which may
be expressed in differe nt ways
(number, biomass, per cent cover etc.)
depending on the species.
2) The intrinsic rate of natural increase
(r) is a measure of the inherent
potential of a population to grow
3) Predation is a very important process
through which trophic energy transfer
is facilitated and predators help in
controlling their prey populations
4) All statements are correct
141. The rate of conversion of light energy
into chemical energy of organi c
molecules in an ecosystem is
1) Secondary productivity
2) Standing state
3) Net primary productivity
4) Gross primary productivity
142. Find out the correct statement from
the following :
1) Measurement of biomass in terms
of fresh weight is more accurate than
dry weight
2) Low temperature, acidity and low
humidity favours decomposition
3) Plants capture only 1 -5% of the
solar energy and sustain the entire
living world
4) In some terrestrial ecosystems the
secondary productivity is higher than
the primary productivity
143. Which of the following statement about
productivity is true?
1) Primary productivi ty of all
ecosystems is constant
2) GPP depends upon the plant species
inhabiting a particular area
3) Annual Gross Primary productivity
of the whole biosphere is 17 million
tons
4) NPP is the available biomass for
consumption of carnivores
144. In nature, a given habitat has enough
resources to support a maximum
possible number, beyond which no
further growth is possible . This
characteristic feature of nature is
known as :
1) Biotic potential
2) Carrying capacity
3) Natural selection
4) Homeostasis
145. Secondary producers are
1) Herbivores
2) Carnivores
3) Producers
4) None of the above
146. Which one of the following has the
largest population in a GFC?
1) Producers
2) Primary consumers
3) Secondary consumers
4) Tertiary consumers
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 24

147. The process o f decomposition of ZOOLOGY

detritus in which microbial enzyme
involved is : Section A (151-185) answer all Qns.

1) Fragmentation 151. If the base sequence of one strand of

DNA is GAT TAG CAT GAC, what shall
2) Leaching be the sequence of its complementary
strand?
3) Catabolism

4) Both 1 and 2 1) CAT CTG ATC GTA

148. Carnivores are : 2) GTA ATC CTG GTA

1) Usually primary consumers
3) ATC GTA CTG GTA
2) Usually primary producers

3) Usually secondary or tertiary 4) CTA ATC GTA CTG

consumers depending on food chain.
152. Chargaff rule is applicable to:
4) Usually decomposers rather than
consumers
1) ssRNA
149. Which of these are true about humus ?
2) ss DNA
1) Dark coloured amorphous substance
3) ds DNA
2) Colloidal in nature
4) All of these
3) Reservoir of nutrient

4) All of these 153. Mark the mismatched pair

150. Match the following columns.

1) E-coli 48502 bp

Colum n I Colum n II 2) Nucleosome 200 bp of DNA Helix

a) Produce r 1) F ungi 3) QB bacteriophage RNA genetic material
b) He rbivore s 2) De e r
4) 174 bacteriophage 5386 nucleotides
Prim ary
c) 3) F rog
carnivore s
154. If there are 10,000 base pairs in DNA,
d) Saprotrophs 4) Algae
then its length will be

1) 340 nm
1) a : 1, b : 2, c : 3, d- 4

2) a : 4, b : 2, c : 3, d- 1 2) 3400 nm

3) a : 4, b : 3, c : 2, d- 1 3) 34000 nm

4) a : 4, b : 1, c : 3, d- 2 4) 340000 nm
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 25

155. The following diagram i s the 157. M eselson and Stahl’s Experiment
polynucleotide chain. Identify a, b, c, proved that:
d and e
1) DNA as genetic material

2) RNA as genetic material

3) DNA replication is semi conservative

4) Base pairing rule

158. The mRNA sequence is as follows:

5  CCA AGC AUG CUU UAC  3

The sequence of coding strand of DNA

would be

1) 5  CAT TTC GTA CGA ACC  3

2) 5  CCA AGC ATG CTT TAC  3

3) 5  CAU UUC GUA CGA ACC  3

a b c d e
1) Hydrogen Hexose
Pyrimidine Purine 4) 5  GGT TCG TAC GAA ATG  3
bonds (deoxyribose) 5 end
base base
sugar
2) Hydrogen Hexose 159. In a Sea Urchin DNA, the amount of
Purine Pyrimidine
bonds (deoxyribose) 3 end adenine was found to be 17%. Then
base base
sugar the percentage of cytosine will be;
3) Hydrogen Pentose
bonds
Purine
(deoxyribose) 5 end
Purine 1) 33% 2) 50% 3) 17% 4) 75%
base base
sugar
160. Which of the following mRNA is
4) Hydrogen translated competely?
Purine Purine Purine
bonds 5 end
base base base
a) 5  AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA  3

156. RNA is not a better genetic material b) 5  AUG AUA UUG CCC UGA  3
because
c) 5AUG UCC AGA CUC UAA 3
1) It is able to express itself in the form
of mendelian characters.
d) 5AUG UAC AGU AAC UAG 3
2) It has 5-methyl uracil in place of
thymine. 1) a and b

3) 2OH group in nucleotides makes it 2) b,c and d

labile and easily degradable. 2) c and d
4) RNA is able to generate its replica 3) a and d
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 26

161. In the lac ope ron system, 164. Evidence that the evolution of life
transacetylase is coded by forms took place on earth has come
from
1) a gene 2) i gene
1) Fossil studies (palaeontological
3) y gene 4) z gene evidences)

162. The last human chromosome which 2) Morphological and comparative

was completely sequenced in May 2006 anatomical studies
is
3) Biochemical studies
1) Chromosome 22
4) All of the above
2) Chromosome 14
165. Among the following sets of examples
3) Chromosome 1 for divergent evolution, select the
incorrect option
4) Chromosome X and Y
1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
163. The given diagram represents Miller’s
experiment. Choose the correct 2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
combination of labelling for A,B,C and
D. 3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

4) Eye of Octopus, bat and man

166. Evidence for evolution from fossils

belongs to

1) Biogeography 2) Embryology

3) Paleontology 4) Anatomy

167. M arsupi al Tasmanian wolf and

placental mammal wolf in Australia
shows

1) A  Electrodes, B  NH 3  H 2  H 2 O  CH 4 , 1) Convergent evolution

C  Condensor, D  trap 2) Divergent evolution

3) Parellel evolution
2) A  Electrodes, B  NH 4  H 2  CO 2  CH 3 ,
C  Vacuum pump, D  U  trap 4) Inheritance of acquired characters

168. Industrial melanism is an example of

3) A  Electrodes, B  NH 3  H 2 O,
C  Condensor, C  Vacuum pump 1) Neo Darwinism

2) Natural selection
4) A  Electrodes, B  NH3  H 2O  CH 4 ,
3) Mutation
C  Boiling water, D  Vaccum pump
4) Neo Lamarckism
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 27

169. According to Darwin, the organic
evolution is due to the
1) Intraspecific competition
2) Interspecific competition
3) Competition within same species
4) Reduced feeding efficiency in one
species due to the presence of
interfering species.
173. Asserti on (A): Ernst Haecke l
supported the embyological similarities
as an evidence of evolution.
Reason (R): The e mbryos of al l
vertebrates including humans develop
a row of vestigial gill slits which are
absent in adult vertebrates.
1) If both A and R true and R is the
correct explanation of A

170. Change in the frequency of alleles in
a population results in evolution,
proposed by
1) Hary-Weinberg principle
2) If both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false

2) Mutation theory 4) If A is false, but R is true

3) Recapitulation theory 174. Match column I with column II and

select the correct option from the given
4) Theory of Lamarck codes.

171. Potato and sweet potato have edible

parts which are

1) Analogous organs
Column I Column II
2) Homologous organs
A. Amoebiasis i. STD
3) Divergent species
Houseflies as
4) Parrellelly evolved species B. Diphtheria ii.
mechanical carriers
172. Assertion (A): Theory of chemical C. Malaria iii. DPT vaccine
evolution proposed that life came from
pre -existing non-living organi c D. Syphilis iv. Haemozoin
molecules.

Reason (R): Primitive earth conditions

led to the production of organi c 1) A  ii, B  i, C  iii, D  iv
molecules.

1) If both A and R true and R is the 2) A  ii, B  iii, C  iv, D  i

correct explanation of A
3) A  i, B  ii, C  iii, D  iv
2) If both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A
4) A  ii, B  iv, C  i, D  iii
3) If A is true, but R is false

4) If A is false, but R is true

LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 28

175. All the following diseases are caused 178. Which of the following statements
by bacteria except, regarding different barriers of innate
immunity is not correct?
1) Plague 1) Acid present in the stomach, saliva
in the mouth and tears from the eyes
2) Amoebiasis prevent the growth of microorganisms
and constitute physiological barriers
3) Leprosy of our body.

2) Mucous membrane lining the

4) Whooping cough respi ratory, gastrointestinal and
urinogenital tracts helps in trapping
176. Which of the following pairs correctly the microbe s and constitute
matches a disease and a pathogen physiological barriers of our body
causing it?
3) Certain types of leucocytes such as
polymorpho nuclear leucocytes (PMNL-
1) Typhoid Trichophyton neutrophils) and lymphocytes such as
natural killer cells, constitute cellular
2) Pneumonia Haemophilus influenzae barriers of our body.

3) Malaria Ascaris lumbricoides 4) Virus-infected cells secrete proteins

called interferons which protect non-
4) Ringworm Entamoeba histolytica infected ce lls from furthe r viral
infection and constitute cytokine
barriers of our body.
177. Match column I with colum II and
select the correct option from the given 179. Which of the following components
codes. does not participate in i nnate
immunity?
Column I Column II
1) Neutrophils
Infectious form of
A. Sporozoites i.
Plasmodium 2) Macrophages
B. Filariasis ii. Aedes mosquitoes
3) B-lymphocytes
C. Typhoid iii. Wuchereria
4) Natural killer cells
D. Chikungunya iv. Widal test
180. Humoral immunity is associated with

1) A  iv, B  ii, C  i, D  iii 1) PMNL

2) B-cells
2) A  iii, B  iv, C  ii, D  i
3) Macrophages
3) A  ii, B  iii, C  i, D  iv
4) Interferon
4) A  i, B  iii, C  iv, D  ii
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 29

181. Statement 1: The exaggerate d 184. The addictive chemical present in

response of the immune system to tobacco is
certain antigens prese nt in the
environment is called as allergy 1) Caffeine
Statement 2: The allergic tendency is 2) Nicotine
genetically passed from the parent to
the offspring and is characterised by 3) Catechol
the presence of large quantities of lgG
antibodies in the blood. 4) Carbon monoxide
1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
185. The term biodiversity was popularised
2) Statement 1 i s correct bu t by:
statement 2 is incorrect
3) Statement 1 is incorrect bu t 1) Ramdeo Misra
statement 2 is correct
2) Edward Wilson
4) Both statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
3) Robert May
182. The human immuno deficiency virus
is 4) David Tilman
1) An unenvelope d, RNA genome
Section B (186-200) Answer any 10 Qns.
containing retrovirus
2) An enveloped, RNA genome 186. India has only ................ per cent of
containing retrovirus the world’s land; its share of the global
3) An enveloped, DNA genome species dive rsity is an
containing retrovirus impressive................ per cent.

4) An enveloped, RNA genome 1) 4.2, 1.8 2) 2.4, 8.1

containing rheovirus
183. The chemical compound whose 3) 2.4, 13 4) 4.2, 13
chemical structure is given below is
obtained from which plant? 187. Select the correct statements

a) India has more than 50,000

genetically different strains of rice.

b) India has 1000 varieties of mango

c) The genetic variation in Rauwolfia

vomitoria can be in terms of
concentrati on and potency of
reserpine

d) The tropical rainforest initially

1) Papaver somniferum covered 14% of the land area.
2) Erythroxylum coca 1) a and b 2) a, b and c
3) Atropa belladonna
3) b, c and d 4) a, b, c and d
4) Cannabis sativa
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 30

188. From the following statements select 191. Match the major causes of biodiversity
the right o ption that mentions losses given in column I with the
observations shown by David Tillman correct examples given in column II

a) Plots with more sepcies showed less

year-to-year variation in total biomass
b) Plots with less species showed less Column I Column II
year-to-year variation in total biomass Extinctin of
Habitat loss
c) Increased diversity contributed to a) i) Steller's sea
and fragmentation
higher productivity. cow
Carrot grass
d) Plots with more species showed
year-to-year variation in total rainfall. b) Over-exploitation ii) and
Eicchornia
1) a and c 2) a and d
Affects animal
3) b and d 4) a, c and d Alien-species
c) iii) with migratory
invasion
189. Match the following Column I (recently habits
extinct animals) with Column II (places Plant-
from where they are extinct) and select
d) Co-extinctions iv) pollinator
the correct option
mutualism

Column I Column II
a) Dodo i) Mauritius
1) a  i, b  ii, c  iii, d  iv
b) Quagga ii) Africa
c) Thylacine iii) Australia
2) a  iii, b  i, c  ii, d  iv
Steller's
d) iv) Russia
sea cow
3) a  iv, b  i, c  ii, d  iii

1) a  i, b  ii, c  iii, d  iv
4) a  iii, b  i, c  iv, d  ii
2) a  i, b  ii, c  iv, d  iii
192. Select the incorrect match
3) a  ii, b  i, c  iii, d  iv

4) a  ii, b  i, c  iv, d  iii

1) Aravalli hills Gujarat
190. Number of biosphere reserves, national
parks and wild life sactuaries in India
2) Khasi and Jaintia hills
Meghalaya
are, respectively, 3) Sarguja Madhya pradesh
1) 90, 14 and 448 Karnataka,
4) Western Ghats
2) 14, 90 and 448 Maharashtra
3) 90, 448 and 14
4) 14, 448 and 19
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 31
193. Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting is a
very useful identification tool in
forensic applications.
Reason (R): DNA from every tissue
from an individual show the same
degree of polymorphism
1) If both A and R true and R is the
correct explanation of A
2) If both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false
4) If A is false, but R is true
194. Statement I : The secondary structure
of tRNA has been depicted as inverted
L tRNA?
Statement II : In the actual structure
the tRNA is a compact molecule which
looks like a clover leaf.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct
195. Which among the following is an
example for ex-situ conservation?
1) National parks
2) Biosphere reserve
3) Sancturies
4) Zoological parks
196. Malignant turmors.................
1) Not confined to their original location
2) Can spread from tissue to tissue
3) Characterized by metastasis
4) All
197. Convergent evolution can be seen in
1) Analogous structures
2) Artificial selection
3) Homologous structure
4) Vestigial organs
198. Which of the following codon has no
1) UAG 2) AUG
3) GGG 4) UUU
199. AIDS is due to
1) Reduction in number of helper T-
cells
2) Reduction in number of killer T-cells
3) Reduction in number of suppressor
T-cells
4) Reduction in number of memory T-
cells
200. Darwin’s finches in Galapagos islands
and marsupial mammals in Australia
is a very good example for..............
1) Adaptive radiation
2) Convergent evolution
3) Parallel evolution
4) Co-evolution
 TEST ID
Batch : LT-24 SPL
511
13-04-2024
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION-UNIT-VII+VIII
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA BOOKLET CODE
P + C + B - Key with Hints
B1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS

U PAt
1. 2 Momentum delivered  
c c

20W / cm 2  30cm 2  30  60s

 36  104 kg ms1
3  108

h
2. 2 
2mE

 E E 1 
    or  
 E 16E 4 4

   3
 % change in    100%   100%  75%
 4

1 2 hc
3. 4 mv   0
2 

4hc
2  0
1 2 4hc v 3 4
 0 ;  v 2  hc 
1
Now mv1  3
2 3  0


1/ 2
4
or v1  v  
3

4. 3
5. 2 P.E.  2E  2  13.6eV  27.2eV

mv 2 1 e2 e2
6. 2  or mv 
2
--- (1)
r 4 0 r 2 4 0 r

 h  h h2
Also mvr  n    or m v r 
2 2 2
(n = 1) ------- (2)
 2  2 4 2

mv 2 h2 v2 h2
Dividing both sides by r3, we get  2 3 or  2 3
r 4 r r 4 mr

2 h2
Since  a , therefore, a  2 3
r 4 mr
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 2

7. 4

8. 2
9. 4

E0 2 E rms 1.41  6
10. 1 B0     2.82  108 T
c c 3  108

11. 3 I  A12  A 22  2A1A 2 cos 

 A 2   2A   2  A  2A cos   5A 2  4A 2 cos 
2

I0
 A 2  5  4cos     5  4cos 
9

12. 4
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 3

13. 3 K max  hv  hv 0

 Slope of the graph = h

14. 4

15. 1

f0
16. 2 m  9 or f 0  9f e
fe

f 0  f e  20 or 10f e  20 or f e  2cm

and f 0  9  2cm  18 cm

h 6.63  1034
17. 4 p   6.63  1025 kg ms 1
 1  109

2rn 1
18. 3 Tn  Now, rn  n and vn 
2
vn n

 Tn  n 3

19. 2

f1 
 g  1  f a 
0.5  1.25  2cm
 5 cm
20. 1
g    0.25

Imax  3  1
2

21. 3  4
I min  3  12

22. 2 YABAB  OR gate 

LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 4

0
23. 3  hv0
h

0 4.2  1.6  1019

v0    1015 Hz
h 6.63  1034

13.6Z2
24. 3  E n HLA   eV
n2

13.6Z2
or 54.4eV   eV
1

54.4
or Z  or 4 or Z  2
2

13.6

25. 3

n 2 1019 
2

26. 1 n e n h  n or n e  i 
2
i  1017 m 3
nh 1021

27. 1
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 5

28. 2

29. 2

30. 4

31. 3

32. 1

33. 3
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 6

34. 1

35. 2

36. 1

37. 3

38. 1

39. 2

40. 2

41. 2

42. 4 On ly t h e ph ot oel ect r on em it t ed fr om t h e su r face of t h e m et al h ave m axim u m

k in et ic en er gy. Th ose em it t ed fr om in si de t h e m et al loses par t of t h ei r en -
er gy in collision wit h t h e ot h er at om s in side t h e m et al
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 7

h
43. 1 de-Broglie wavelength  
p

 p 0.5 p
Here  ;  ; pi  100 p ; p  200p
 p 100 pi 0.5 i

44. 3

45. 1

46. 3

47. 4
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 8

48. 1

49. 2

 1
50. 2 Shift  t  1  
 

 2
 3 1    1cm
 3

CHEMISTRY

51. 4

52. 1 More stable benzyl carbocation formed as intermediate

Cl OH
CH CH3 CH CH3

H2O

53. 2

CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 Mono
54. 1 CH3 C Cl
Na/ C C CH3 C C
Diethyl chlorination Cl
CH3
ether CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3

55. 4

56. 3

57. 4
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 9

OH CH3 NO2

58. 1
> >

+M(+R) or hyperconjugation enhance electrophilic substitution reaction

59. 2 Ethoxide (CH3-CH2-O-) s a strong base, therefore it abstract proton from 30 alkyl
halide and favours elimination reaction.

CH3 CH3
Elimination
CH3 C Br + CH3 CH2 ONa CH3 C CH2 + NaBr + CH3 CH2 OH
CH3

60. 3

61. 3

I
CH2 O OH
62. 2
HI
+

63. 2

64. 4 Grignard reagent can act as strong base, so it can abstract H+ (active hydrogen)
to give hydrocarbon.

CH3      
Dry
65. 3 CH Mg I + O C O
CH3 ether

O MgI OH
H+/H2O
O C O C
CH(CH3)2 CH(CH3)2
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 10

66. 4

67. 4

68. 3

69. 4 Cross aldol condensation

70. 3

71. 2

72. 4

73. 1

74. 2
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 11

75. 1

76. 4

77. 4

78. 4 Benezene sulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO 2Cl), which is also known as Hinsberg’s
reagent, reacts with primary amines to form sulphonamides. The hydrogen at-
tached to nitrogen in sulphonamide is strongly acidic due to the presence of
strong electron withdrawing sulphonyl group. Hence, it is soluble in alkali.

79. 4

80. 3

81. 3 CH3COOH gives CO2with NaHCO3

82. 1 Amylose is a linear polymer of   D-glucose held by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage

whereas amylopectin is branched chain polymer of   D glucose units in which
chain is held by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage while branching occurs by C1-C6 glyco-
sidic linkage.

83. 3

84. 2

85. 2 Nickeldimethylglyoxime complex is rose-red in colour

86. 2
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 12

CH3

87. 3 CH CH CH3
H2O
CH3 OH

CH3
[O]
C CH CH3
CH3

CH3
C O + CH3 COOH
CH3

88. 3

89. 1

NaBH4 is less powerful reducing agent than LiAlH4. It is only powerful enough
to reduce aldehydes, ketones and acid chlorides to alcohols. Esters, amides,
acids and nitrites are not reduced.

90. 2

91. 2

Alc.
92. 3 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br CH3 CH2 CH CH2
KOH

93. 1
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 13

94. 2

95. 1

96. 1

97. 1

98. 4

99. 2

100. 2
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 14

BOTANY

101. 2 126. 2 NCERT- 243

102. 1 127. 2
103. 4 128. 3
104. 3 129. 4 NCERT- 231 & 250
105. 2 130. 2
106. 2 131. 4
107. 2 NCERT- 227 132. 4 NCERT- 223
108. 3 133. 4
109. 4 134. 3
110. 4 NCERT- 228 135. 4
111. 2 136. 4
112. 2 137. 1 NCERT- 237
113. 3 138. 3 NCERT- 233
114. 3 139. 3
115. 2 NCERT- 235 140. 4 Study material Level II -14
116. 2 141. 4 NCERT-243
117. 2 NCERT- 234 142. 3
118. 2 143. 2
119. 4 144. 2
120. 2 NCERT- 236 145. 4 NCERT- 257
121. 2 146. 1
122. 3 147. 3
123. 2 148. 3 NCERT-246
124. 4 149. 4
125. 2 150. 2
LT24G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[511] 15

ZOOLOGY

151. 4 176. 2
152. 3 177. 4
153. 1 178. 2
154. 2 179. 3
155. 3 180. 2
156. 2 181. 2
157. 3 182. 2
158. 2 183. 1
159. 1 184. 2
160. 2 185. 2
161. 1 186. 2
162. 3 187. 4
163. 1 188. 1
164. 4 189. 1
165. 4 190. 2
166. 3 191. 2
167. 1 192. 1
168. 2 193. 1
169. 2 194. 2
170. 1 195. 4
171. 1 196. 4
172. 1 197. 1
173. 1 198. 1
174. 2 199. 1
175. 2 200. 1