Sample UPSC Prelims CSAT PYQ Book

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UPSC PRELIMS
CSAT
Previous Year Questions
Topic-wise Classification & Analysis
Since New Pattern (2011-2023)
Politics for India Publications https://politicsforindia.com

UPSC CSAT PYQ Book 2024 Edition Politics for India Publications
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Table of Contents
Graph: Section wise Questions Trend from year 2011-2023 ........................................................... 4
Reading Comprehension .................................................................................................................... 5

Graph: Year wise reading comprehension number of questions ....................................................... 5
Year 2023 Questions ......................................................................................................................... 5
Year 2022 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 16
Year 2021 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 24
Year 2020 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 34
Year 2019 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 43
Year 2018 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 53
Year 2017 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 61
Year 2016 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 71
Year 2015 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 79
Year 2014 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 88
Year 2013 Questions ....................................................................................................................... 97
Year 2012 Questions ..................................................................................................................... 106
Year 2011 Questions ..................................................................................................................... 116
Quantitative Ability ........................................................................................................................ 126

Chart: Topic wise number of questions of Quantitative Ability from year 2011-2023.................. 126
Graph: Year wise quantitative ability number of questions........................................................... 126
1. Numbers................................................................................................................................ 127
2. Averages ............................................................................................................................... 136
3. Percentage and Ratio ............................................................................................................. 140
4. Mixture ................................................................................................................................. 148
5. Linear Equations ................................................................................................................... 149
6. Simple Interest Compound Interest ....................................................................................... 161
7. LCM HCF ............................................................................................................................. 162
8. SETS ..................................................................................................................................... 164
9. Permutation Combination and Probability ............................................................................ 166
10. Data Interpretation ............................................................................................................ 172
11. Sequence and Series .......................................................................................................... 187
12. Calendar ............................................................................................................................ 200
13. Clock ................................................................................................................................. 201
14. Work and Time ................................................................................................................. 203
15. Time and Distance ............................................................................................................ 205
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16. Boat and Stream ................................................................................................................ 209

17. Geometry and Diagrams ................................................................................................... 210
Logical Reasoning ........................................................................................................................... 219

Chart: Topic wise number of questions of Logical Reasoning from year 2011-2023.................... 219
Graph: Year wise number of questions of Logical Reasoning ...................................................... 219
1. Directions .............................................................................................................................. 220
2. Inequalities ............................................................................................................................ 223
3. Coding Decoding .................................................................................................................. 224
4. Syllogism and Logical Deduction ......................................................................................... 226
5. Data Sufficiency.................................................................................................................... 233
6. Deductive Reasoning ............................................................................................................ 239
7. Ranking Puzzles .................................................................................................................... 248
8. Sitting Arrangement .............................................................................................................. 253
9. Relationship Puzzles ............................................................................................................. 255
10. Multiple Correlations Puzzles ........................................................................................... 257
Graph: Section wise Questions Trend from year 2011-2023
50
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
2010 2012 2014 2016 2018 2020 2022 2024
Comprehension Quant Reasoning
4
Reading Comprehension
Graph: Year wise reading comprehension number of questions
40
36
32
31
30 30 30
27 27 27
26
25
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022
Year 2023 Questions

Passage — 1
We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters. Of the 20 major river
systems, 14 are already water-stressed; of the population lives in water-stressed regions, a third of whom
live in water-scarce areas. Climate change, the demands of rising population and the need for agriculture
to keep pace, and increased rate of urbanization and industrialization will exacerbate water stress.
According to the Constitution of India, water is a state subject and not that of the Union, except for
regulation of inter-state rivers. Key to ensuring balance between competing demands of various
stakeholders is a basin-based approach to allocate water amongst constituent regions and States.
Allocating fair share of water to them requires assessments based on objective criteria, such as
specificities of the river basin, size of dependent population, existing water use and demand, efficiency
of use, projected future use, etc. while ensuring the environmental needs of the river and aquifers.
1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, practical, and immediate
action required to ensure fair and equitable allocation of water to different stakeholders?
[2023/1]
(a) A national, pragmatic, legal and policy framework for water allocation should be made.
(b) All river systems of the country should be linked and huge aquifers created.
(c) Water channels between regions of water surplus and regions of water deficit should
be created.
(d) To mitigate water crisis, water demand of sectors such as agriculture and industry
should be reduced.
Passage-2
More than half of Indian women and almost a quarter of Indian men of working age suffer from
anaemia. According to studies, they are anywhere from S-IS% less productive than they could be, as a
result thereof. India also has the largest tuberculosis burden in the world, costing 170 million workdays
to the country annually. But what is just as important as lost productivity now is lost potential in the
5
future. It is becoming increasingly clear that on many measures of cognitive ability, malnourished
Indian children perform two or three times worse than their adequately nourished peers. For an economy
that will be more dependent on highly skilled workers, this poses a significant challenge. And it is one
that really should be addressed given India's demographic outlook.
2. Which one of the following statements best reflects what is implied by the passage? [2023/2]
(a) Education system must be strengthened in rural areas.
(b) Large scale and effective implementation of skill development programme is the need
of the hour.
(c) For economic development, health and nutrition of only skilled workers needs special
attention.
(d) For rapid economic growth as envisaged by us, attention should be paid to health and
nutrition of the people.
Passage-3
In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive
capabilities to climate change, perhaps because of credit and other constraints. So, one cannot expect
autonomous adaptation to climate change. Even if it was possible, it would not be sufficient to offset
losses from climate change. To deal with this, adaptation to climate change is paramount, alongside at
fast mitigation response. Another solution is to have a planned or policy-driven adaptation, which would
require the government to come up with policy: recommendations. Perception is a necessary pre-
requisite for adaptation. Whether farmers are adapting agricultural practices to climate change depends
on whether they perceive it or not. However, this is not always enough for adaptation. It is important
how a farmer perceives the risks associated with climate change.
3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message
conveyed by the author of the passage? [2023/3]
(a) Adaptation to climate change and mitigation response are basically the responsibilities
of the government.
(b) Climate change causes a change in government policies regarding land use patterns in
the country.
(c) Risk perceptions of farmers are important for motivating them for the adaptation
decisions.
(d) Since mitigation is not possible, governments should come policies for quick response
to climate change.
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these
items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
The emissions humans put into the atmosphere now will affect the climate in the middle of the century
and onwards. Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future. transition away from fossil fuels
cheap or it might not, leaving the world with a terrible choice between sharply reducing emissions at
huge cost or suffering through the effects of unabated warming. Businesses that do not hedge against
the threat of uncertain outcomes fail. The world cannot afford such recklessness on climate change.
4. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author
of the passage? [2023/11]
(a) Businesses that cause emissions may need to close down or pay for pollution in future.
(b) The only solution is technological development related to the issues of climate change.
(c) Waiting to deal with carbon emissions until technology improves is not a wise strategy.
(d) Since future technological change is uncertain, new industries should be based on
renewable energy sources.
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Passage-2
Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce
environmental or health problems, but this idea appears almost impossible to adopt. With environmental
problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia.
With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death,
literally. And yet, barring a few, there seems to be the same collective lethargy towards making their
choices.
5. Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be
made from the passage [2023/12]
(a) We are likely to spend more money on cure than prevention
(b) It is the job of the government to solve our environmental and public health problems
(c) Health can be protected even if environmental problems go on unattended.
(d) Loss of traditional lifestyle and the influence of western values led to some unhealthy
ways of living.
Passage-3
Many people are not eating the right food. For some, it is simply a decision to stick with food they enjoy
but which is not too healthy. This is leading to an increase in non-communicable diseases. This in turn
leads to major burden on our health-care systems that have the potential to derail the economic progress
which is essential for the poor to improve their lives. For others, it is about limited access to nutritious
food or a lack of affordability, leading to monotonous diets that do not provide the daily nutrients for
them to develop fully. Part of the reason nutrition is under threat worldwide is that our food systems are
not properly responding to nutritional needs. Somewhere along that long road from farm to fork, there
are serious detours taking place.
6. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage? [2023/13]
(a) The scheme of Universal Basic Income should be implemented worldwide as a way of
poverty alleviation
(b) We must place food-based nutrition at the centre of our policy debate.
(c) Nutritional status of food should be improved by creating appropriate genetically
modified crops.
(d) Using modern food processing technologies, we must fortify food items with required
nutrient elements.

Passage-1
To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use
of odd-even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning
the use of certain type of vehicles are a way forward. Even then the air is not clean. Vehicles more than
13 years old comprise one percent of the total; and taking them off the road will not make any difference.
Banning certain fuels and car types arbitrarily is not proper. Diesel engines produce more PM 2.5 and
less CO2 than petrol or CNG engines. On the other hand, both diesel and CNG engines produce more
NOx , than petrol engines. No one has measured the amount of NOx that CNG engines are emitting.
Arbitrary bans on vehicles that have passed mandated fitness tests and periodic pollution tests are unfair.
What is needed is the scientific and reliable information about the source of pollutants on a continuing
basis and the technologies that will work to reduce pollution from them.
7. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication
conveyed by the passage? [2023/21]
(a) Arbitrary curbs on vehicles to reduce pollution are difficult to implement.
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(b) Knee-jerk reactions cannot solve the problem of pollution hut an evidence-based
approach will be more effective.
(c) A heavy penalty should be enforced on those driving without periodic pollution tests.
(d) In the absence of laws to deal with the problems of pollution, the administration tends
to make arbitrary decisions.
Passage-2
Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A
fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda
worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance
enhances access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth, and
employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and
accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.
8. Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given
above? [2023/22]
(a) It is an important agenda of the countries around the world to ensure access to good
external financing.
(b) Good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms.
(c) International capital markets ensure that the firms maintain good corporate governance.
(d) Good corporate governance paves the way for robust supply chains
Passage -3
Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain
plant species, and allowing space for the regeneration of others, which in turn provide sustenance to
other herbivorous animals. Elephants eat plants, fruits, and seeds, propagating the seeds when they
defecate in other places as they travel. Elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals and
acts as a breeding ground for insects. In times of drought, they access water by digging holes which
benefits other wildlife.
9. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that
can be drawn from the passage? [2023/23]
(a) The home range of elephants needs to be a vast area of rich biodiversity.
(b) Elephants are the keystone species and they benefit the biodiversity.
(c) Rich biodiversity cannot be maintained in the forests without the presence of elephants.
(d) Elephants are capable of regenerating forests with species as per their requirement.
Directions for the following 5(five) items:

Passage - 1
In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal
sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which
leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all
this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and the rest), collection, recycling,
and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy
depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non- biodegradable component) and its
calorific value. The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is a little over SO per
cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.
10. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government
agencies.
2. Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by
private sector enterprises.
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Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? [2023/31]

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Generation of energy from municipal solid waste is inexpensive.
(b) Bio methanation is the most ideal way of generating energy from municipal solid waste.
(c) Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-
to-energy plants.
(d) The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is not adequate to
provide energy efficiently/effectively.
Passage -2
There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the
organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike,
are not only confused about what products are best for them. but sometimes use products in ways that
could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in
India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain
plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied
in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when
to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.
1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers.
2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? [2023/33]

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical
message conveyed by the author of the passage? [2023/34]
(a) In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional
farming.
(b) There are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers.
(c) In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming
sustainable.
(d) The aim of organic farming should not be to generate huge profits as there is still no
global market for its products.
Passage -3
Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has
resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has
increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition
For long, the Which of the assumptions given above is,'are agriculture sector focussed on increasing
food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous
traditional crops/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process.
Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security
problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.
9
14. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal,
monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition.
2. Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem.
3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security
4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways
and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider
Which of the above assumptions are valid? [2023/35]

(a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

Passage-1
Scientists studied the vernal window transition period from winter to the growing season. They found
that warmer winters with less snow resulted in a longer lag time between spring events and a more
protracted vernal window. This change in the spring timetable has ecological, social and economic
consequences for agriculture, fisheries and tourism. AS the ice melts earlier the birds don't return,
causing a delay, or lengthening in springtime ecological events.
15. With reference to the above passage following assumptions have been made:
1. Global warming is causing spring to come early and for longer durations.
2. Early spring and longer period of spring is not good for bird populations.
Which of the above assumptions is/are correct? [2023/41]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-2
A global analysis of nitrogen use efficiency- a measure of the amount of nitrogen a plant takes in to
grow versus what is left behind as pollution - says that using too much fertilizers will lead to increased
pollution of waterways and the air. Currently, the global average for nitrogen use efficiency is
approximately 0.4, meaning 40 per cent of the total nitrogen added to cropland goes into the harvested
crop while 60 per cent is lost to the environment, says a study. More than half of the world's population
is nourished by food grow-n with fertilizers containing synthetic nitrogen, which is needed to produce
high crop yields. Plants: take the nitrogen they need to grow, and the excess is left in the ground, water,
and air. This results in significant emissions of nitrous oxide, a potent greenhouse and ozone depleting
gas, and other forms of nitrogen pollution, including eutrophication of lakes and rivers and
contamination of river water.
16. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial
message implied by the passage? [2023/42]
(a) An enhanced efficiency of use of nitrogen is imperative for both food production and
environment.
(b) Production of synthetic nitrogen fertilizers cannot be stopped as it will adversely affect
global food security.
(c) Alternatives to crops that require excess of nitrogen should he identified and cultivated.
(d) Conventional agriculture using synthetic fertilizers should be replaced with
agroforestry, agroecosystems, and organic farming.
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Passage-3
Along with sustainable lifestyles, climate justice is regarded as a significant principle in environmental
parlance. Both the principles have bearings on political and economic choices of the nation. So far, in
our climate change summits or compacts, both the principles have eluded consensus among nations.
Justice, in the judicial sense, is well defined. However, in the context of climate change, it has scientific
as well as socio-political connotations. The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources,
technologies and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change. Justice in climate is not
confined to actions relating to mitigation. but includes the wider notion of support for adaptation to
climate change and compensation by these natural numbers? for loss and damage.
17. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial
message conveyed by the passage? [2023/43]
(a) Climate justice should be ingrained in detail in the rules of all the new climate
compacts/agreements.
(b) Environmental resources are unevenly distributed and exploited across the globe.
(c) There is an impending issue of dealing with a huge number of climate change
victims/climate refugees.
(d) Climate change in all its connotations is mostly due to developed countries and
therefore their share of burden should he more.

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to
these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage-1
Sourcing food from non-agricultural lands (uncultivated systems such as forests, wetlands, pastures,
etc) in addition to agricultural lands enables a systemic approach to food consumption. It allows rural
and tribal communities to sustain themselves for the whole year and steer clear of natural disasters and
season-induced shortfalls of agricultural food. Since the productivity of trees is often more resilient to
adverse weather conditions than annual crops, forest foods often provide a safety net during periods of
food shortages caused by crop failure, forest foods also make important contributions during seasonal
crop production gaps.
18. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message
conveyed by the author of the passage? [2023/51]
(a) Food yielding trees should replace other trees in rural and tribal areas and community
owned lands.
(b) Food security cannot be ensured in India with the present practice of conventional
agriculture.
(c) Wastelands and degraded areas in India should be converted into agroforestry systems
to help the poor.
(d) Agroecosystems should be developed in addition to or along with conventional
agriculture.
Passage-2
While awareness on use/misuse and abuse of antibiotics is common knowledge, as is the impact of
dosing poultry with antibiotics, the environmental impact of antibiotics-manufacturing companies not
treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far Pollution from
antibiotics factories is fuelling the rise of drug- resistant infections. The occurrence of drug-resistant
bacteria surrounding the pharma manufacturing plants is well known.
19. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and practical message
conveyed by the passage? [2023/52]
(a) It is necessary to put proper effluent treatment protocols in place.
11
(b) It is necessary to promote environmental awareness among people.

(c) Spread of drug-resistant bacteria cannot be done away with, as it is inherent in modern
medical care.
(d) Pharma-manufacturing companies should be set up in remote rural areas, away from
crowded towns and cities.
Passage-3
Benefits of good quality school education accrue only when students complete and leave school after
having acquired the gateway skills Like one learns to walk before running, similarly one picks up
advanced skills only after picking the basic foundational skills. The advent of the knowledge economy
poses new challenges, and one of the severe consequences of having an uneducated workforce will be
our inability to keep pace with the global economy. Without a strong learning foundation at the primary
level, there can be no improvement in higher education or skill development.
(a) To become a global power, India needs to invest in universal quality education.
(b) India is unable to become a global power because it is not focussing or promoting
knowledge economy.
(c) Our education system should focus more on imparting skills during higher education.
(d) Parents of many school children are illiterate and are unaware of the benefits of quality
education.
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to
these items should be based on the passages only
Passage- 1
The paradox of choice is illustrated by the story of Buridan's ass. Jean Buridan, the 14th century
philosopher, wrote about free will and the inability to choose due to numerous choices and uncertainties.
In the story, a donkey stands between two equally appealing stacks of hay. Unable to decide which to
eat, it starves to death. Changes in technology and innovations such as smart phones and tablets only
exacerbate our glut of choices. Constant connectivity and by using both the Statements together.
overconsumption of real-time data and social media can leave little room for self-reflection and rest,
making decisions more difficult. Life is about choices. Many people are overwhelmed with attractive
life choices, yet find themselves unhappy and anxious.
21. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical message implied by the
above passage? [2023/60]
(a) Modern technology enfeebles societal structure and makes life difficult
(b) Modern life is full of uncertainties and endless difficult choices.
(c) We are influenced by the opinion of others and have no courage to follow our own
convictions.
(d) In our lives, having too few choices may not be a good thing, but having too many can
be equally as difficult.
Passage-2
Household finance in India is unique. We have a tendency to invest heavily in physical assets such as
gold and property. Steps to encourage the financialization of savings are critical. A populace accustomed
to traditional processes will not simply jump into financialization. Hurdles to change include onerous
bureaucracy, a scepticism of organized financial institutions, a lack of basic information about which of
the myriad services and providers is best for each family, and how (and even if) one can make the
transition between them if necessary.
22. Regarding the financialization of household savings, which of the following statements best
reflect the solutions that are implied by the passage? [2023/62]
12
1. A flexible environment is needed to develop solutions.

2. Households need customised solutions.
3. Innovations in financial technology are required.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, and 3
Passage-3
Pharmaceutical patents grant protection to the patentee for the duration of the patent term. The patentees
enjoy the liberty to determine the prices of medicines, which is time-limited to the period of monopoly,
but could be unaffordable to the public. Such patent protection offered to the patentees is believed to
benefit the public over the longer term through innovations and research and development (R&D),
although it comes at a cost, in the nature of higher prices for the patented medicine. The patent regime
and price protection through a legally validated high price for the medicine during the currency of the
patent provide the patentee with a legitimate mechanism to get returns on the costs incurred in
innovation and research.
1. Patent protection given to patentees puts a huge burden on public's purchasing power in
accessing patented medicines.
2. Dependence on other countries for pharmaceutical products is a huge burden for developing
and poor countries.
3. Providing medicines to the public at affordable prices is a key goal during the public health
policy design in many countries.
4. Governments need to find an appropriate balance between the rights of patentees and the
requirements of the patients.
Which of the above assumptions are valid? [2023/63]
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Passage-4
India should ensure the growth of the digital economy while keeping personal data of citizens secure
and protected. No one will innovate in a surveillance-oriented environment or in a place where an
individual's personal information is compromised. The ultimate control of data must reside with the
individuals who generate it; they should be enabled to use, restrict, or monetise it as they wish.
Therefore, data protection laws should enable the right End of innovation- that is user-centric and
privacy protecting.
1. Protection of privacy is not just a right, but it has value to the economy.
2. There is a fundamental link between privacy and innovation.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? [2023/64]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Direction for the following 3 (three) items

13
Passage -1
In India, while the unemployment rate is frequently used measure of poor performance of the economy,
under conditions of rising school and college enrolment, it paints an inaccurate picture. The reported
unemployment rate is dominated by the experience of younger Indians who face higher employment
challenges and exhibit greater willingness to wait for the right job than their older peers. The
unemployment challenge is greater for people with secondary or higher education, and rising education
levels inflate unemployment challenges.
25. Which one of the following statements most likely reflects as to what the author of the passage
intends to say? [2023/71]
(a) Enrolment in schools and colleges is high but there is no quality education.
(b) Unemployment must be seen as a function of rising education and aspirations of young
Indians
(c) There are no labour-intensive industries to accommodate the huge number of
unemployed people.
(d) The education system should be properly designed so as to enable the educated people
to be self-employed
Passage -2
"Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate
them and point to a when the goal itself has not been rightly placed. What science needs is philosophy
- the analysis of scientific method and the coordination of scientific purposes and results; without this,
any science must be superficial. Government suffers, precisely like science, for lack of philosophy,
Philosophy bears to science the same relationship which statesmanship bears to politics: movement
guided by total knowledge and perspective, as against aimless and individual seeking. Just as the pursuit
of knowledge becomes scholasticism when divorced from the actual needs of men and life, so the
pursuit of politics becomes a following terms best expresses the ultimate destructive bedlam when
divorced from goal of the state? science and philosophy."
26. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, logical and practical
message conveyed by the passage? [2023/72]
(a) Modern statesmen need to be well trained in scientific methods and philosophical
thinking to enable them to have a better perspective of their roles, responsibilities, and
goals.
(b) It is not desirable to have Governments managed by empirical statesmen unless well
mixed with others who are grounded in learning and reflect wisdom
(c) As the statesmen/bureaucrats are the products of a society, it is desirable to have a
system of education in a society that focuses on training its citizens in scientific method
and philosophical thinking from a very early age.
(d) It is desirable that all scientists need to be philosophers as well to make their work goal-
oriented and thus purposeful and useful to the society.
Passage -3
"The last end of the state is not to dominate men, nor to restrain them by fear, rather it is so to free each
man from fear that he may live and act with full security and without injury to himself or his neighbour.
The end of the state, I repeat, is not to make rational beings into brute beasts and machines. It is to
enable their bodies and their minds to function safely. It is to lead men to live by, and to exercise, a free
reason; that they may not waste their strength in hatred, anger and guile, nor act unfairly toward one
another."
27. Based on the above passage, which one of the following terms best expresses the ultimate goal
of the state? [2023/73]
(a) Personal safety
(b) Health of body and mind
14
(c) Communal harmony

(d) Liberty
15
Year 2022 Questions

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these
Passage—1
The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the increasingly evident
unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on
fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. The close link
between economic growth and greenhouse gas emissions needs to be severed for human development
to become truly sustainable. Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by
expanding recycling and investing in public transport and infrastructure. But most developing countries
are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Developed countries need
to support developing countries' transition to sustainable human development.
28. Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following? [2022/1]

1.Heavy dependence on fossil fuels
2.Limited availability of resources
3.Expansion of recycling
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
29. Consider the following statements:

Developed countries can support developing countries' transition to sustainable human
development by
1. making clean sources available at low cost
2.providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates
3.encouraging them to change their production and consumption patterns
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [2022/2]
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage—2
Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible for destroying the country's environment are
checked in the near future and afforestation Of denuded areas is taken up on a massive scale, the
harshness of the climatic conditions and soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent
that agriculture, which is the mainstay of our people, will gradually become impossible. The desert
countries of the world and our own desert areas in Rajasthan are a grim reminder of the consequences
of large-scale deforestation. Pockets Of desert-like landscape are now appearing in other parts of the
country including the Sutlej-Ganga Plains and the Deccan Plateau. Where only a few decades back there
used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of
vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season.
30. According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to
which of the following? [2022/3]
1.Depletion of soil resource
16
2.Shortage of land for the common

3.Lack of water for cultivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below,
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these
Passage -- 1
"In simple matters like shoe-making, we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose,'
but in politics, we presume that everyone who knows how to get votes knows how to administer a State.
When we are ill, we call for a trained physician, whose degree is a guarantee of specific preparation and
technical competence—we do not ask for the handsomest physician, or the most eloquent one: well
then, when the whole State is ill should we not look for the service and guidance of the wisest and the
best?"
31. Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?
[2022/11]
(a) We assume that in a democracy, any politician is qualified to administer a State.
(b) Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration.
(c) We need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office.
(d) As voters select their administrators, the eligibility of politicians to administer a State
cannot be questioned.
Passage—2
The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is
not only because of its extremely narrow definition of is poor' and the debatable methodology' used to
count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies
on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. One can better
categorize it by calling it income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human
well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it. Poverty of a life, in our view, lies not merely
in the impoverished state in which the person actually lives, but also in the lack of real opportunity
given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances—to choose other types of living. Even the
relevance of low incomes, meagre possessions, and other aspects of what are standardly seen as
economic poverty relate ultimately to their role in curtailing capabilities,
i.e., their role in severely restricting the choices people have to lead variable and valued lives.
32. Why is the method010U adopted in India to count the 'poor' debatable? [2022/12]
(a) There is some confusion regarding what should constitute the 'poverty line
(b) There are wide diversities in the condition of the rural and urban poor.
(c) There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty
(d) It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.
33. Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the 'poor’? [2022/13]
(a) It talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others.
(b) Other deprivations in a human life have nothing to do with lack of purchasing power.
(c) Income poverty is not a permanent condition, it changes from time to time.
(d) Income poverty restricts human choices only at a point of time.
17
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385. His toothbrush is finally [2011/69]

(a) in his bag
(b) in his bed
(c) in his handkerchief
(d) lost
Passage-3
In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three-month-old cubs. The mother bear has fasted
for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining
reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal
at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are
protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar
bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
386. Female polar bears give birth during [2011/70]

(a) spring
(b) summer
(c) autumn
(d) winter
387. Mother bear [2011/71]

(a) takes sides over cubs
(b) let’s the cubs fend for themselves
(c) feeds only their favourites
(d) see that all cubs get an equal share
388. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: [2011/72]
1. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability of prey.
2. Polar bears always give birth to triplets. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers to Reading Comprehension
Que 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A D C C A B B B B D C B C B A A A D A A
Que 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B D B C B A D A B C B D A A C A A C B A
Que 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D B D B D A B A C A C C C D B D C C D A
Que 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C A D D D C C C B A C D A B C B D C D
Que 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B D A C A B C B A C A B C D D B C D C D
Que 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans C C A C C B D D B B B A D C D B A A C C
Que 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
124
Ans B B A A C A D C C B D D B C B B A A B D
Que 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans C A D C D A D B C C B C D A B C B D D D
Que 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans B A C A D B B B A C D C D A D B D A C B
Que 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans A C D B A C C A C A B B C A D D A C D B
Que 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
Ans C A D C D A D B D B B A B B D B D C B A
Que 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
Ans D B C C A A D A D A B C D C B B D C B B
Que 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
Ans D B D D A C C A A C C D B A B C C D B B
Que 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
Ans A D B B A C C B C C C C B C A 0 0 0 0 0
Que 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
Ans 0 C D A A C B C B B C D A B C C B B B C
Que 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
Ans B D D A B C C D B A B B A C C C B D B C
Que 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
Ans D A A B D D B D D D A C B D C A B C B C
Que 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
Ans B C B C B C A C B A B D A D C D D C C C
Que 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
Ans C A D D B B B C A C C D D C D B D C D B
Que 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388
Ans A A A B C D B D
125
Quantitative Ability
Chart: Topic wise number of questions of Quantitative Ability from year 2011-2023
Topic 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022 2023 Total
Numbers 2 3 4 7 13 7 8 13 57
Averages 1 1 1 1 3 0 2 4 2 2 2 19
Percentage and
Ratio
2 1 4 5 6 7 2 7 6 6 4 0 50
Mixture 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 5
Linear Equations 2 7 5 8 5 7 4 10 7 9 5 7 76
Compound
Simple Interest
1 0 0 0 0 1 2
LCM HCF 1 2 1 1 0 1 1 1 2 10
SETS 3 1 1 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 7
Permutation
Combination and 1 1 5 3 2 1 0 1 3 10 8 35
Probability
Data
Interpretation
9 1 5 5 3 14 0 1 1 0 0 39
Sequence and
Series
1 2 6 6 3 5 5 3 5 4 4 44
Calendar 1 0 2 1 1 1 0 6
Clock 1 1 1 2 0 1 0 1 0 0 7
Work Time 1 1 3 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 9
Time and
Distance
2 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 0 20
Boat and Stream 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
Geometry and
Diagrams
6 2 1 1 3 4 6 7 3 3 2 2 4 44
Graph: Year wise quantitative ability number of questions
43 42
41 41 41
38
34
32
30
27 28
26
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022 2023
126
1. Numbers
1. What is the remainder when 85 X 87 X 89 X 91 X 95 X 96 is divided by 100? [2023/7]

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
2. What is the unit digit in the expansion of 572429x7x5x3x1 ? [2023/8]

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
3. Three of the five positive integers p, q, r. s. t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily
in order). Consider the following
1. p + q + r— s -t is definitely even
2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? [2023/14]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c.

1. (p+c)/(p-c) can be even
2. 2P+C can be odd.
3. pc can be odd.
Which of the statements given above are correct? [2023/15]
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6-digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible
by ? [2023/17]
(a) 7 and 11 only
(b) 11 and 13 only
(c) 7 and 13 only
(d) 7, 11 and 13
6. How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number
11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions?
[2023/19]
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 36
(d) 72
7. If 7@9@10=8, 9@11@30=5, 11@17@21=13 what is the value of 23@4@15? [2023/24]

(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 13
127
(d) 15
8. A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?
[2023/27]
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 1
9. Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the
resulting number? [2023/28]
(a) 64
(b) 80
(c) 81
(d) 100
10. How many natural numbers are there which give a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by
these natural numbers? [2023/45]
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
11. Let pp, qq and rr be 2-digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp qq + rr tto, where tto is a 3-digit
number ending with zero, consider the following statements:
1. The number of possible values of p is S.
2. The number of possible values of q is 6.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. If today is Sunday, the which day is it exactly of 1010 th day? [2023/49]
(a) Wednesday
(b) Thursday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday
13. What is the remainder if 21^92 is divided by 6? [2023/74]

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
14. An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter
represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting
the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits
from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four
digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting
128
five digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2. Which of
the following is a possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number? [2022/5]
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12
15. Which number amongst 240 , 321 , 418 and 812 is the smallest? [2022/9]
(a) 240
(b) 321
(c) 418
(d) 812
16. A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2
more to C gives half of the coins and 2 more to D. The number of coins D has now, is the smallest
two- digit number. How many coins does A have in the beginning? [2022/28]
(a) 76
(b) 60
(c) 68
(d) 52
17. How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes, and x seconds?
[2022/35]
(a) 11580x
(b) 11581x
(c) 694860x
(d) 694861x
18. What is the remainder when 91x92x93x94x95x96x97x98x99 is divided by 1261? [2022/58]

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
19. What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6,
9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3? [2022/65]
(a) 1063
(b) 1073
(c) 1083
(d) 1183
20. Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a
prime number and q is a composite number.
1. p x q can be an odd number,
2. q/p can be a prime number,
3. p ± q can be a prime number.
Which of the above statements are correct? [2022/67]

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. If 15×14×13×...×3×2×1= 3𝑚 × n
where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m? [2022/74]
129
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4
22. If 32019 is divided by 10, then what is the remainder? [2021/5]

(a) a.1
(b) b.3
(c) c.7
(d) d.9
23. The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7.

What is the value of the digit P? [2021/6]
(a) a.1
(b) b.6
(c) c.7
(d) d.9
24. A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animals will double in size
every 12 years. The population at the beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to be 50 animals.
If P represents the population after n years, then which one of the following equations represents
the model of the class for the population? [2021/8]
(a) P = 12 + 50n
(b) P = 50 + 12n
(c) P = 50 + 212n
(d) P = 50 (2)n/12
25. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10? [2021/19]
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
26. Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits
which are multiples of 3. Let S be their sum.
Which of the following is/are correct?

1. S is always divisible by 74.
2. S is always divisible by 9.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [2021/36]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. What is the value of 'X' 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822? [2021/50]
(a) 603
(b) 605
(c) 607
(d) 608
28. When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111…).
What is the smallest such number? [2021/79]
(a) 15713
(b) 15723
130
(c) 15783
(d) 15873
29. How many zeroes are there at the end of the following product? [2020/7]
lx5x10x15x20x25x30x35x40x45x50x55x60
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 15
30. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers such that p - 2016 = q + 2017 = r - 2018 = s + 2019 which
one of the following is the largest natural number? [2020/9]
(a) p
(b) q
(c) q
(d) s
31. How many five-digit prime numbers can be obtained by using all the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
without repetition of digits? [2020/10]
(a) Zero
(b) One
(c) Nine
(d) Ten
32. How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by
4? [2020/37]
(a) 5
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
33. What is the largest number among the following? [2020/50]

1 −6
(a) ( )
2
1 −3
(b) ( )
4
1 −4
(c) ( )
3
1 −2
(d) ( )
6
34. What the greatest length x such that 3-1/2 m and 8-3/4' m are integral multiples of x? [2020/51]
1
(a) 1 m
2
1
(b) 1 m
3
1
(c) 1 m
4
3
(d) 1 m
4
35. The recurring decimal representation 1.272727... is equivalent to? [2020/53]

(a) 13/11
(b) 14/11
(c) 127/99
(d) 137/99
131
36. What is the least four-digit number when divided by 3, 4, 5 and 6 leaves a remainder 2 in each
case? [2020/54]
(a) 1012
(b) 1022
(c) 1122
(d) 1222
37. What is the remainder when 51 x 27 x 35 x 62 x 75 is divided by 100? [2020/56]

(a) 50
(b) 25
(c) 5
(d) 1
38. For what value of it, the sum of digits in the number (10^n + 1) is 2? [2020/58]
(a) For n: 0 only
(b) For any whole number n
(c) For any positive integer n only
(d) For any read number n
39. How many pairs of natural numbers are there such that the difference of whose squares is 63?
[2020/75]
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
40. Which one of the following will have minimum change in its value if 5 is added to both
numerator and the denominator of the fractions 2/3, 3/4, and 5/6? [2020/76]
(a) 2/3
(b) 3/4
(c) 4/5
(d) 5/6
41. A digit n > 3 is divisible by 3 but not divisible by 6. Which one of the following is divisible by
4? [2020/77]
(a) 2n
(b) 3n
(c) 2n+4
(d) 3n+1
42. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is? [2019/9]
(a) 269
(b) 271
(c) 300
(d) 302
43. In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football
player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer
if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is
assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football? [2019/15]
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
132
44. If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity
which is greater than zero, the resulting fraction is[2019/50]
(a) always less than the original fraction
(b) always greater than the original fraction
(c) always equal to the original fraction
(d) such that nothing can be claimed definitely
45. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all. How many
pages does the book have? [2019/53]
(a) 1040
(b) 1048
(c) 1049
(d) 1050
46. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is
given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is? [2019/60]
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
47. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the
three single digit odd prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus
one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two pieces together. The
length of the original sheet of paper is [2019/69]
(a) 13 units
(b) 15 units
(c) 16 units
(d) 30 units
48. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder O when divided by 3. How many values of B
are possible? [2019/75]
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
49. Consider the following sum:

•+1•+2•+•3+•1=21•
In the above sum, • stands for [2018/2]
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
50. If X is between -3 and -1, and Y is between -1 and 1, then X^2 - Y^2 is in between which of the
following? [2018/23]
(a) -9 and 1
(b) -9 and -1
(c) 0 and 8
(d) 0 and 9
51. X and Y are natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which of the following
represents the largest number? [2018/24]
(a) XY
133
(b) X/Y
(c) Y/X
(d) 4. (X+Y)/XY
52. While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the digit at
hundred's place is greater than the digit at ten's place, and the digit at tens place is greater than
the digit at unit's place? [2018/36]
(a) 61
(b) 64
(c) 85
(d) 91
53. Certain 3-digit numbers following characteristics:

1. All the three digits are different.
2. The number is divisible by 7.
3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7.
How many such 3-digit numbers are there? [2017/49]
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8
54. How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?
[2017/51]
(a) 64
(b) 80
(c) 90
(d) 104
55. What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to numbered from
1 to 150? [2017/80]
(a) 262
(b) 342
(c) 360
(d) 450
56. If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily
true? [2016/62]
(a) R - S is divisible by 5
(b) R + S is divisible by 10
(c) R x S is divisible by 25
(d) R^2 / S^2 is divisible by 5
57. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?
[2016/63]
(a) 110
(b) 111
(c) 112
(d) None of the above
134
Answers to Numbers
Que 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A A A D D C A A C C C B D A B D D D C D
Que 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B C B D D C C D A C A C C D B B A B A D
Que 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57
Ans D C B B C D D C D D A C B C B B A
135
2. Averages
1. In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are
100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different ways.
What is the value of n? [2023/65]
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 23
(d) 35
2. There are large number of silver coins weighing 2 gm, 5 gm, 10 gm, 25 gm, 50 gm each.
Consider the following statements:
1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins.
2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can use less than 7 coins.
Which of the following statement given above is/are correct? [2023/69]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. On one side of a 1•01 km long road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other.
What is the total distance between 5 consecutive plants? [2022/26]
(a) 40 m
(b) 40.4 m
(c) 50 m
(d) 50-5 m
4. The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight
of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F? [2022/80]
(a) 40.5 Kg
(b) 40.80 Kg
(c) 41 Kg
(d) Can not be determined as data is inadequate.
5. There are two Classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In Class-A the highest
score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In Class-B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Four
students are shifted from Class-A to Class-B.
Consider the following statements:

1. The average score of Class-B will definitely decrease.
2. The average score of Class-A will definitely increase.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following addition problem: 3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are

different digits. What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums? [2021/59]
(a) 102
(b) 120
(c) 202
(d) 220
136
Logical Reasoning
Chart: Topic wise number of questions of Logical Reasoning from year 2011-2023
Topic 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022 2023 Total
Directions 1 2 1 3 0 2 1 2 1 0 13
Inequalities 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 4
Coding
Decoding
1 1 2 0 2 1 0 1 8
Syllogism 4 7 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 2 29
Data
Sufficiency
1 0 2 5 5 5 5 23
Deductive
Reasoning
8 13 8 5 5 5 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 45
Ranking
Puzzles
1 2 1 3 5 2 4 0 5 0 0 0 1 24
Sitting
Arrangement
1 1 1 0 0 1 0 3 0 7
Relationship
Puzzles
2 0 1 1 0 1 1 6
Multiple
Correlations
3 10 13 7 2 12 5 9 0 1 0 0 62
Graph: Year wise number of questions of Logical Reasoning
32
25
23
18 18
17
16
13
12 12 12 12
11
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022 2023
219
1. Directions
2. Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and
reach a point, X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40 m. Then X turns left
and runs 50 m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and then stops. How far are the two
friends from each other now? [2022/6]
(a) 100m
(b) 90 m
(c) 60 m
(d) 50 m
3. A bank employee drives 10 towards South from her house and turns to her left and drives
another 20 km. She again turns left and drives 40 kin, then she turns to her right and drives for
another S ban. She again turns to her right and drives another 30 km to reach her bank where
she works. What is the shortest distance between her bank and her house? [2021/18]
(a) 20
(b) 2S
(c) 30 km
(d) 35 km
4. A woman runs 12 towards her North, then 6 towards her South and then 8 km towards her East.
In which direction is she from her starting point? [2021/20]
(a) An angle less than 45 degree South of East
(b) An angle less than 45 degree North of
(c) East An angle more than 45 degree South of
(d) East An angle more than 45 degree North of East
5. A man walks down the backside of his house straight 25 meters, then turns to the right and
walks 50 meters again; then he turns towards left and again walks 23 meters. If his house faces
to the East, what his direction from the starting point? [2020/31]
(a) South-East
(b) South-west
(c) North-East
(d) North-west
6. P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance
between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the South of P. What is the distance
between Q and R? [2019/30]
(a) 140 km
(b) 130 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 100 km
7. 'A' started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend B joined him. They
together walked 1O m in the same direction. Then 'A' turned left while 'B' turned right and
travelled 2 m and 8 m respectively. Again 'B' turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his
right to reach his office. 'A' turned right and travelled 12 m to reach his office. What is the
shortest distance between the two offices? [2019/57]
(a) 15 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 19 m
(d) 20 m
220
8. A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming
a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection
of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring
him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated? [2016/9]
(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north
9. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point 'O' on the ground in the direction of north-
east and reaches a point 'A' after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point 'A' he moves
to point 'B' in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the
person away from the starting point 'O'? [2016/49]
(a) 7 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 17 km
(d) 11 km
10. A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15
km due south. How far is he from the starting point? [2016/58]
(a) 5 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 37 km
(d) 61 km
11. Shahid and Rohit start from the same point in opposite directions. After each 1 km, Shahid
always turns left and Rohit always turns right. Which of the following statements is correct?
[2015/33]
(a) After both have travelled 2 km. the distance between them is 4 km.
(b) They meet after each has travelled 3 km.
(c) They meet for the first time after each has travelled 4 km
(d) They go on without ever meeting again.
12. Consider the following statements: [2014/10]

There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F.
F is 1 km to the west of D.
B is 1 km to the east of E.
A is 2 km to the north Of E.
C is 1 km to the east Of A.
D is 1 km to the south of A.
Which three villages are in a line?
(a) A, C, B
(b) A, D. E
(c) C, B, F
(d) E, B, D
13. Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5 km
and 12 km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is
[2014/68]
(a) 60
(b) 13
(c) 17
(d) 7
221
14. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A's being on the western
side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of
D's house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C's house. In this context, which
one of the following statements is correct? [2011/51]
(a) C and D live on the same street.
(b) C's house faces south.
(c) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart.
(d) None of the above
Answers to Directions
Que 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans A B B D D B B B A B B B B
222
2. Inequalities
1. Consider the following:

I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B.
II. A - B means A is not greater than B.
III. A x B means A is not smaller than B.
IV. A ÷ B means A is neither greater nor equal to B.
V. A±B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B.
statement: P × Q, P-T, T ÷ R, R ± S
Conclusion-1: Q ± T
Conclusion-2: S+Q
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statement and the Conclusions?
[2023/70]
a. Only Conclusion-1 follows from the Statement.
b. Only Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.
c. Both Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 follow from the Statement.
d. Neither Conclusion-1 nor Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.
2. If Pen < Pencil, Pencil < Book and Book > Cap, then which one of the following is always true?
[2018/37]
(a) Pen > Cap
(b) Pen < Book
(c) Pencil = Cap
(d) Pencil > Cap
3. Consider the following statements:

1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B
2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements? [2016/32]
(a) A is older than B
(b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C
(d) A is older than C
4. Examine the following statements:

1. Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage.
2. Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger.
3. Cabbage is not tastier than peas.
The conclusion that can be drawn from these statements is that [2015/32]
(a) peas are as tasty as lady's finger.
(b) peas are as tasty as cauliflower and lady's finger.
(c) cabbage is the least tasty of the four vegetables.
(d) cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.
Answers to Inequalities
Que 1 2 3 4
Ans B B D D
223
3. Coding Decoding
1. 1f 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR, then how is 'PLAYER' written? [2023/37]

a. SOCAGT
b. SODBGT
c. SODBHT
d. SODBHU
2. A code language 'MATHEMATICS' is written as 'LBSIDNZUHDR'. How is CHEMISTRY

written in that code language? [2021/56]
(a) DIDLHRSSX
(b) BIDNHTSSX
(c) BIDLHTSSX
(d) DGFLIRUQZ
3. The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to 26 respectively. If GHI=1578 and DEF=912,
then what is ABC =? [2020/48]
(a) 492
(b) 468
(c) 262
(d) 246
4. What is the missing term in the following? [2020/49]

ACPQ : BESU:: MNGI: @
(a) NPJL
(b) NOJM
(c) NPIL
(d) NPJM
5. If LSJXVC is the code for MUMBAI, the code for DELHI is [2018/21]
(a) CCIDD
(b) CDKGH
(c) CCJFG
(d) CCIFE
6. If RAMON is written as 12345 and DINESH as 675849, then HAMAM will be written as
[2018/22]
(a) 92233
(b) 92323
(c) 93322
(d) 93232
7. In a certain code, '256' means 'red colour chalk', '589' means 'green colour flower' and '254'
means 'white colour chalk'. The digit in the code that indicates 'white' is [2017/60]
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 8
8. A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code,
FRACTION can be written as: [2016/61]
(a) CARFTION
(b) FRACNOIT
(c) NOITCARF
224
(d) CARFNOIT
Answers to Coding Decoding
Que 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans D B D D A B B D
225

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Graph: Section wise Questions Trend from year 2011-2023 ........................................................... 4

Reading Comprehension .................................................................................................................... 5

Quantitative Ability ........................................................................................................................ 126

16. Boat and Stream ................................................................................................................ 209

Logical Reasoning ........................................................................................................................... 219

Graph: Section wise Questions Trend from year 2011-2023

Comprehension Quant Reasoning

Year 2023 Questions

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Directions for the following 5(five) items:

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? [2023/31]

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? [2023/33]

Which of the above assumptions are valid? [2023/35]

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

(b) It is necessary to promote environmental awareness among people.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

1. A flexible environment is needed to develop solutions.

Direction for the following 3 (three) items

(c) Communal harmony

Year 2022 Questions

28. Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following? [2022/1]

29. Consider the following statements:

2.Shortage of land for the common

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

385. His toothbrush is finally [2011/69]

386. Female polar bears give birth during [2011/70]

387. Mother bear [2011/71]

Answers to Reading Comprehension

Que 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388

Graph: Year wise quantitative ability number of questions

1. What is the remainder when 85 X 87 X 89 X 91 X 95 X 96 is divided by 100? [2023/7]

2. What is the unit digit in the expansion of 572429x7x5x3x1 ? [2023/8]

4. Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c.

7. If 7@9@10=8, 9@11@30=5, 11@17@21=13 what is the value of 23@4@15? [2023/24]

13. What is the remainder if 21^92 is divided by 6? [2023/74]

18. What is the remainder when 91x92x93x94x95x96x97x98x99 is divided by 1261? [2022/58]

Which of the above statements are correct? [2022/67]

22. If 32019 is divided by 10, then what is the remainder? [2021/5]

23. The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7.

Which of the following is/are correct?

33. What is the largest number among the following? [2020/50]

35. The recurring decimal representation 1.272727... is equivalent to? [2020/53]

37. What is the remainder when 51 x 27 x 35 x 62 x 75 is divided by 100? [2020/56]

49. Consider the following sum:

53. Certain 3-digit numbers following characteristics:

Consider the following statements:

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [2021/37]

6. Consider the following addition problem: 3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are

Graph: Year wise number of questions of Logical Reasoning

12. Consider the following statements: [2014/10]

1. Consider the following:

3. Consider the following statements:

4. Examine the following statements:

1. 1f 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR, then how is 'PLAYER' written? [2023/37]

2. A code language 'MATHEMATICS' is written as 'LBSIDNZUHDR'. How is CHEMISTRY

4. What is the missing term in the following? [2020/49]

Answers to Coding Decoding

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