Low Vision

Weekly exam question set-1

1. A patient can consider as Low vision patient when his vision is-
a. vision less than 3/60 to 1/60, visual field b/w 5 degree to 10 degree
b. Vision less than 1/60 to light perception
c. No light perception
d. Vision less than 6/18 to 3/60
2. Which ocular condition is not consider as major cause of blindness in the
population of above 60 years-
a. Diabetic retinopathy b. Age related macular degeneration
c. Retinitis pigmentosa d. Cataract and glaucoma
3. In a low vision subject preliminary work up start from -
a. postural abnormality observation
b. History taking c. Vision examination
d. Observation of patient as he or she enters in examination room
4. In a low vision patient, head turn or tilt indicated-
a. Peripheral field defect b. Nystagmus null point
c. Adaption to significant glare or photophobia
d. Above all
5. ARMD, diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma are the causes of low vision in the
age group of -
a. Children b. Younger’s
c. Elderly people d. Above all
6. Functional vision means-
a. What a person can do with his/her or her available vision
b. A measure of how a person sees with glasses
c. Measurement of visual acuity
d. A measure whether a person functions well despite of visual
impairment
7. Impairment in vision can be associated with-
a. The passage of light from the lens to the retina
 b. The transmission of neural energy from the retina to the brain
c. Damage to the retina
d. Above all
8. The part of the eye that expands or contracts according to the amount of
light available is the -
a. Choroid b. lens
c. Iris d. Conjunctiva
9. The Layer of specialized cell at the posterior part of eye is-
a. Lens b. Optic nerve
c. Retina d. Pupil
10. Most of the visual impairments in school age children results from-
a. Accident or injury b. Anoxia
c. X-ray damage d. Hereditary or fetal infection
11. A clouding of the lens of eye is called-
a. Hypopion b. Retinopathy of prematurity
c. Glaucoma d. Cataract
12. The condition of infants where they receive excessive oxygen after birth is
called-
a. Glaucoma b. Fetal pigmentosa fibroplasia
c. Congenital cataract d. Retinopathy of prematurity
13. The Snellen’s chart measures-
a. Ocular pressure b. Cognitive ability
c. Functions of daily living d. Distance vision
14. Braille is-
a. A code rather than the language
b. Based on the series of twelve raised dots
c. A variation of Morse code
d. A specialized language of blind
15. Instruction in the use of low vision touches on the three areas, which is not
one of these three-
a. Listening to recorded materials
b. Environmental adaptation
 c. Integration of vision into activities
d. Enhancement of visual skill
16. Which of following is generally not accepted as an orientation and mobility
system for people with visual impairment-
a. sight guide b. guide dog
c. Electronic travel aid d. Echo travel
17. Orientation and mobility training refers to the process of teaching to visual
impairment students to-
a. Read and write in braille
b. Travel safely in their environment
c. Work and play with sighted peers
d. Use psychological and cognitive strategies.
18. A device that increases visual access to print for the students with visual
impairment is the-
a. Closed circuit television b. Braile writer
c. Kurzweil reading machine d. Taking sign
19. Contrast sensivity testing will help the examiner determine the need for
…………. When evaluating low vision patient-
a. increased illumination b. orientation and mobility services
c. a and b both d. None of them
20. If a patient having difficulty the beginning of next line when reading , the
following test should be performed-
a. Contrast sensitivity test b. Amsler’s grid test
c. Field test d. Above all
21. ERG testing provide information about-
a. Structure of retina b. Function of retina
c. a and b both d. None
22. Which method used for determining the lateral extent of retinal
detachment-
a. Keratometry b. ERG
c. B-scan d. Field testing
23. Which test done to evaluate the potential visual patients who are possible
referral for cataract surgery-
 a. Laser interferometry b. Bright flash electroretinography
c. All of them d. VEP and B-scan ultrasonography

24. Scanning laser ophthalmoscope used for-

a. Fluorescein and indocyanine green angiography
b. Microperimetry
c. Optic nerve head topography
d. Above all
25. Which statement is incorrect about albinism-
a. Associated nystagmus creates difficulty in using telescopic devices for
these patients
b. They have tendency of high refractive error
c. Albinism is a stable condition
d. Males are more affected then the females by ocular albinism
26. A patient of heredodegenerative optic atrophy may benefit from which of
the following-
a. Genetic counseling
b. Tinted lenses, both indoor and outdoor
c. Magnification at near and distance
d. Above all
27. Which ocular disorder would probably respond best to a multiple pinhole
lens-
a. Advance RP b. Advanced glaucoma
c. ARMD d. Corneal dystrophy
28. Most challenging pathology in terms of low vision management is-
a. Albinism b. Macular hole
c. Glaucoma d. Congenital nystagmus
29. Which ocular disorder in its advanced stages would respond best to
magnification-
a. Albinism b. Aniridia
c. Toxoplasmosis d. RP
30. Decrease central visual acuity in patient with RP is caused by-
a. Posterior sub capsular cataract
 b. Cystoid macular degeneration
c. a and b both
d. None
31. Pupillary aperture control contact lenses are appropriate management
for-
a. Albinism, cornea dystrophy , Keratoconus
b. Coloboma, Keratoconus and glaucoma
c. Aniridia, coloboma and dislocated lens
d. Above all
32. In a patient with fluctuating diabetes, which management plan should not
be consider-
a. Recommend the use of an inexpensive magnifier until his /her vision has
stabilized
b. Recommend a change in spectacle distance correction
c. Ask to patient regarding stability of blood sugar level
d. Refer the patient to endocrinologist
33. When using a magnifier to read the reading material should be held-
a. Closer than one focal length from the magnifier
b. In the front focal plane of the magnifier
c. a and b both
d. None
34. A corrected myope using a Galilean telescope removes his spectacles and
look through the telescope the telescope again. What changes occurs when
a myopic patient uses the telescope while uncorrected-
a. Lens magnification and shorter tube length
b. More magnification and shorter tube length
c. More magnification and longer tube length
d. Above all
35. What changes occurs when the hyperope uses the telescope Kaplerian
while uncorrected-
a. More magnification and longer tube length
b. More magnification and shorter tube length
 c. Less magnification and longer tube length
d. None of them
36. Distance devices that may help the low vision patient include all of the
following except-
a. Field awareness system b. Spectacle and contact lens
c. Absorptive lenses and coating d. Microscopes
37. Which of the following ophthalmic lens material should be recommended
for the monocular patient-
a. Crown b. Polycarbonate
c. High index plastic d. RGP contact lens
38. Chromatic aberrations and reflection may best be reduced by which of the
lens options-
a. Ultraviolet protective coating b. Tint
c. High index material d. Antireflective coating
39. The telescope that produce an erect image is -
a. Dutch telescope b. Kaplerian telescope
c. Astronomical telescope d. Above all
40. What is the tube length of telescope when the ocular lens is -40.0D and
objectives lens is +20.0D?
a. 2.0cm b. 3.0cm
c. 4.0cm d. 2.5cm
41. How much magnification is obtained when a telescope is composed of
+20.0D lens objective and +40.0D ocular lens? The system is focused for
infinity by an emmetropia patient?
a. 3.0x b. 3.3x
c. -3.0x d. -2.0x
42. When a prism is recommended for a patients with a bitemporal
hemianopia, the base of prism should be placed towards which aspect of
the spectacle lens-
a. Nasal b. Temporal
c. Central d. Inferior
43. The largest category of non optical devices is probably which of the
following-
 a. Relative distance devices b. writing devices
c. Relative size devices d. Mobility devices
44. The most common form of sensory substitution for the low vision patients
involve the use of-
a. Audition b. Olfactory
c. Taste d. Sight
45. How much visual field is the minimum required for good mobility safe
orientation-
a.10-20 degree b. 20-50 degree
c. 90-140 degree d. 140-180 degree
46. Which low vision patient would most likely experience the most difficulty
in driving with city traffic-
a. A patient with advanced glaucoma
b. A patient with ocular albinism
c. A patient with congenital nystagmus
d. A patient with one monochromatism
47. The LEA symbols and the broken wheel test are appropriate for-
a. Children older than 1 years
b. Children older than 3 years
c. Children with cognitive age more than 1 years
d. Children with cognitive age more than 3 year
48. Which of the following is not true regarding the tellers acuity card-
a. It is a near visual acuity test
b. It can be insensitive to strabismus Amblyopia
c. It is equivalent to the LEE symbols
d. It may not detect mild to moderate myopia
49. Alternate methods of testing visual field includes-
a. Finger “winggle” test b. Functional field test
c. Penlight field test d. Above all
50. Which statement is true about low vision chart-
a. These chart gives the percentage of loss of vision
b. Magnification require by particular person
 c. a and b both
d. None of them
51. Which chart is not used in the assessment of low vision-
a. Bausch and Lomb, Sloan chart b. Bailey Lovie log mar
c. Modified ETDRS d. None of them
52. Which is incorrect about increased magnification-
a. Working distance decreases b. Field of vision decreases
c. a and b both d. None of them
53. Magnification needed can be calculated if we know-
a. New size and reference size
b. Reference distance and new distance
c. a and b both
d. None of them
54. If the patient reads 5M and they desire to read 1M, the magnification
needed would be-
a. 1M b. 2M
c. 4M d. 5M
55. Which is not an Optical LVAs?
a. Magnifying spectacles
b. Telescopes
c. Hand magnifier and stand magnifier
d. Large print computers

Answer:
1.d 2.c 3.d 4.d 5.c 6.a 7.d 8.c 9.c 10.d 11.d 12.d 13.d 14.a 15.a
16.d 17.b 18.a 19.c 20.b 21.b 22.c 23.c 24.d 25.a 26.d 27.d 28.c
29.d 30.c 31.c 32.b 33.c 34.a 35.c 36.d 37.b 38.d 39.a 40.d 41.d
42.b 43.c 44.a 45.b 46.a 47.d 48.c 49.d 50.c 51.d 52.d 53.b
54.d 55.d