Airlines Security

1. What is the definition of "Aircraft"?

a. Any vehicle that can move on the ground
b. Any machine that operates in the atmosphere using air reactions
c. Any vehicle designed for use in water
d. Any machine used for agricultural purposes

2. What does "Cabin baggage" refer to?

a. Luggage stored in the cargo hold of an aircraft
b. Personal items carried in the passenger cabin
c. Cargo transported on a commercial flight
d. Food and beverages served on board

3. What is the primary objective of "Security / Aviation Security"?

a. Ensuring timely departures of aircraft
b. Safeguarding civil aviation against unlawful interference
c. Enhancing in-flight entertainment
d. Reducing ticket prices for passengers

4. Who is responsible for the operation and safety of an aircraft during flight time?
a. Chief Airport Security Officer (CASO)
b. Pilot-in-command
c. Airport Council International (ACI)
d. Central Committee Control Room (CCCR)

5. What does "Isolation Bay" at an airport refer to?

a. A designated area for passenger check-in
b. A place where airport staff can take breaks
c. A parking bay for handling contingencies and threat situations
d. A secure area for baggage screening

6. Which organization is responsible for "Biometrics Integrated Passenger Profiling System"

(BIPPS)?
a. Airport Security Committee (ASC)
b. Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
c. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
d. Aviation Security Group (ASG)

7. What does "Non-restricted area" at an airport mean?

a. An area where only airport staff can access
b. A secure area for passengers
c. Areas accessible to both travelers and the public
d. A designated parking area for airport employees
8. Who are "Transfer passengers"?
a. Passengers who have arrived at the airport but didn't check-in
b. Passengers making direct connections between two different flights
c. Passengers departing from an airport on the same flight as their arrival
d. Passengers who have checked in but not reported for boarding

9. What does "Bomb threat" refer to?

a. A threat to hijack an aircraft
b. A threat involving chemical substances
c. A communicated threat suggesting danger from an explosive device
d. A threat to disrupt airport operations

10. What is the primary purpose of "Apron" at an airport?

a. Passenger check-in and security screening
b. Aircraft parking, loading, and unloading
c. Baggage sorting and makeup
d. Providing catering services to passengers

11. Expand CISF

a) Central international security force
b) Central industrial standard force
c) Central industrial security force
d) Central International standard force

12. What is Aircraft in service

a) An aircraft that either is parked for a period of more than 12 hours
b) The movement area of an airport
c) Any vehicle used to convey passengers to the airlines
d) A parked aircraft which is under surveillance sufficient to detect unauthorized access

13. Baggage intended for carriage in the cabin of an aircraft

a) Cargo
b) Cabin baggage
c) Baggage
d) Baggage sorting area

14. what is the full form of ASG

a) Aircraft security group
b) Aviation security group
c) Aviation squad group
d) aircraft Security general

15. what is check-in process in airport

a) The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for acceptance on a particular flight
b) checking the documents
c) The location of facilities at which check-in is carried out
d) None of the above
16) what is check-in position
a) The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for acceptance on a particular flight
b) checking the documents
c) The location of facilities at which check-in is carried out
d) None of the above

17) Expand EDS

a) Explosive detection system
b) Explosive device system
c) Expand detective system
d) Explosive detective system

18) OTP
a) Operating trace projection
b) Operating Test piece
c) Operating track piece
d) operating Test projection

19) passenger making direct connections between two different flights

a) Terminal
b) Transit passenger
c) Transfer passenger
d) Aviation security

20) Expand AC
a) Aerodrome committee
b) Airport council
c) Assistant Commissioner
d) Additional Commissioner

21. what is the primary objective of Aviation security

A) safety of Passengers
B) luxuries of passengers
C) Amenities provided by airline
D) Aviation operations

22. which of the following is an emergency threat faced by civil Aviation

A) safety
B) cyber terrorism
C) security
D) Traditional threats

23. where can the threats come from

A) Terrorist
B) courier infiltration
C) Airport employees
D) All the above
24. why is civil aviation considered as an attractive target
A) Instant publicity
B) luxuries
C) security
D) Safety

25. are those that are effective because their chemical action can cause death immediately
A) Biological weapons
B) Military weapons
C) Chemical weapons
D) Iron weapons

26. Which weapons effect people with deliberate release of dangerous bacteria and viruses
A) Chemical weapons
B) Radiological weapons
C) Biological weapons
D) Military weapons

27. Death or injury caused from effects of

an explosion by which type of weapon?
a) Radio logical weapon
B) Nuclear weapon
C) Military weapon
D) Biological weapon

28. ____ Is an act of placing someone in extreme fear

A) Terrorism
B) Helping
C) Judging
D) Recognising

29. which one of the following is a factor of contributing terrorism

A) Political factor
B) Training factor
C) Biological factor
D) safety factor

30. ___is unlawful seizure of Aircraft?

a) Bombs
b) knives
C) Hijacking
D) Endeavour

31. What does ICAO stand for in the context of international civil aviation security?
a) International Civil Aviation Organization
b) International Airline Control Office
c) International Airport Control Organization
d) International Aviation Safety Authority
32. Which UN agency is responsible for setting global aviation security standards?
a) UNICEF
b) WHO
c) ICAO
d) UNESCO

33. Which of the following is NOT considered a security measure at airports?

a) Passenger screening
b) Baggage inspection
c) Runway maintenance
d) Air marshal presence

34. The Convention on International Civil Aviation, also known as the Chicago Convention, was
signed in which year?
a) 1944
b) 1955
c) 1966
d) 1977

35. Which international agency oversees the implementation of security measures like the No-Fly
List?
a) INTERPOL
b) TSA (Transportation Security Administration)
c) ICAO
d) FBI (Federal Bureau of Investigation)

36. What is the primary goal of international civil aviation security?

a) Ensure on-time departures
b) Enhance passenger comfort
c) Prevent acts of unlawful interference
d) Reduce airline ticket prices

37. Which security measure involves separating passengers into different risk categories for
screening purposes?
a) Racial profiling
b) Behavioural analysis
c) Random selection
d) Risk-based screening

38.What does the acronym "TSA" stand for in the context of U.S. aviation security?
a) Transportation Safety Authority
b) Terminal Security Administration
c) Transportation Security Administration
d) Travel Security Agency
39. Which organization plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of international
aviation security standards?
a) FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)
b) ICAO
c) DHS (Department of Homeland Security)
d) CIA (Central Intelligence Agency)

40. What is the purpose of the "No-Fly List" in aviation security?

a) To list airlines that are unsafe to fly
b) To identify passengers banned from flying due to security concerns
c) To track flight delays and cancellations
d) To promote eco-friendly flying practices

41. Which agency is responsible for conducting security checks on cargo transported by air?
a) FBI
b) TSA
c) FAA
d) CBP (Customs and Border Protection)

42. Which event in 2001 had a significant impact on international aviation security?
a) The introduction of budget airlines
b) The first transatlantic flight
c) The 9/11 terrorist attacks
d) The signing of the Kyoto Protocol

43. What is the purpose of an Air Marshals program?

a) To provide in-flight entertainment
b) To ensure pilots are well-rested
c) To have armed officers on certain flights to respond to security threats
d) To offer free Wi-Fi on airplanes

44. Which type of security checkpoint is used for screening passengers and their belongings before
boarding a flight?
a) Departure checkpoint
b) Arrival checkpoint
c) Immigration checkpoint
d) Customs checkpoint

45. In international aviation, what is the term for a false bomb threat or hoax?
a) Sabotage
b) Hijacking
c) Terrorism
d) Bomb scare
46. Which security measure involves securing the cockpit door to prevent unauthorized access?
a) Sky marshals
b) Hardened cockpit doors
c) In-flight entertainment systems
d) Security cameras

47. What is the role of the "black box" in aviation security?

a) It contains valuable passenger data
b) It records flight data and cockpit conversations for crash investigations
c) It is used to control in-flight entertainment systems
d) It is a device for tracking lost luggage

48. Which international agreement regulates the use of force against civil aircraft in flight?
a) Geneva Convention
b) Montreal Convention
c) Warsaw Convention
d) Hague Convention

49. What is the purpose of the IATA (International Air Transport Association) in relation to aviation
security?
a) To promote eco-friendly aviation practices
b) To set international aviation security standards
c) To manage airports worldwide
d) To provide free Wi-Fi on airplanes

50. Which type of security threat involves attempting to gain control of an aircraft while in flight?
a) Cybersecurity threat
b) Sabotage
c) Hijacking
d) Baggage mishandling

51. What is the primary responsibility of airport ground staff?

a) Baggage handling
b) Air traffic control
c) Cabin crew duties
d) Food service

52. Which department is responsible for security screening at the airport?

a) Airline operations
b) Customs and immigration
c) Transportation security
d) Airport maintenance

53. Which of the following is NOT a common airport job?

a) Pilot
b) Air traffic controller
c) Airport janitor
d) Flight attendant
54)What do air traffic controllers primarily manage at the airport?
a) Baggage handling
b) Runway maintenance
c) Airplane boarding
d) Aircraft movements

55. Which airport personnel ensure that passengers and crew follow safety regulations during
flights?
a) Pilots
b) Air traffic controllers
c) Airport security officers
d) Flight attendants

56. What is the primary purpose of an airport's control tower?

a) Providing customer service
b) Monitoring weather conditions
c) Managing airport finances
d) Directing aircraft movements

57. Which department handles the handling of aircraft on the ground, including refueling and
maintenance?
a) Airport security
b) Airline operations
c) Airport customs
d) Passenger services

58. What is the primary responsibility of airport security officers?

a) Assisting passengers with boarding
b) Checking passports and visas
c) Ensuring the safety of passengers and airport facilities
d) Managing airport finances

59. Which department is responsible for managing airport retail shops and restaurants?
a) Baggage services
b) Concessions and commercial services
c) Airline operations
d) Ground transportation

60. What do ramp agents do at the airport?

a) Direct air traffic
b) Load and unload cargo from aircraft
c) Check-in passengers
d) Serve food on planes

61. Which department handles the maintenance and repair of airport facilities?
a) Ground transportation
b) Airport maintenance
c) Airline operations
d) Customs and immigration
62. What is the primary duty of airport customer service representatives?
a) Repairing aircraft
b) Assisting passengers with inquiries and issues
c) Managing airport finances
d) Controlling air traffic

63. What is the main focus of airport customs and immigration officers?
a) Aircraft maintenance
b) Checking passengers' travel documents and goods
c) Air traffic control
d) Baggage handling

64. Which department is responsible for managing ground transportation options at the airport?
a) Airport security
b) Customs and immigration
c) Ground transportation
d) Passenger services

65. What do airline pilots primarily do at the airport?

a) Check passports and visas
b) Manage airport retail shops
c) Operate aircraft
d) Direct passengers to their gates

66. Which airport personnel are trained to handle emergency situations, such as evacuations?
a) Airport janitors
b) Flight attendants
c) Baggage handlers
d) Air traffic controllers

67. What does the term "ATC" stand for in the context of an airport?
a) Airport Terminal Control
b) Air Traffic Coordinator
c) Aircraft Tracking Centre
d) Air Traffic Control

68. Which department oversees the construction and expansion of airport infrastructure?
a) Airport security
b) Airport customs
c) Airport planning and development
d) Ground transportation

69. What do airport firefighters primarily respond to?

a) Lost luggage
b) Aircraft emergencies and fires
c) Customer complaints
d) Baggage handling issues
70. Which airport personnel ensure that passengers and luggage are safely transported between
terminals and aircraft?
a) Customs and immigration officers
b) Ground transportation staff
c) Airport janitors
d) Air traffic controllers

71. Which of the following is not a rule at the Airport airside area when moving
either by foot or by vehicle?
a) Must know the boundaries between airside, landside, SRA, and
controlled areas
b) Must use vehicle hazard lights and wear a reflective safety vest
c) Must follow non-prescribed vehicle routes on the apron
d) Must maintain radio contact with ATC

72. What should not be done while on the taxiway or runway?

a) Assume that it is safe to cross
b) Maintain radio contact with ATC
c) Observe airport speed limits and comply with movement rules
d) Follow prescribed vehicle routes on the apron

73. What are the checklists for good radio telephones?

a) Know the correct procedures
b) Use good microphone technique
c) Maintain radio discipline
d) All of the above

74. Which of the following is a good technique to use a microphone?

a) Hold microphone far from your mouth
b) Speak clearly and distinctly
c) Don't speak directly into the microphone
d) Cut your transmission with the microphone button

75. What you shouldn't do to maintain radio discipline?

a) Think before you speak
b) Listen before you transmit
c) Use slang
d) Keep it short and concise

76. What does 'S' represent in Phonetic alphabets?

a) Sierra
b) Siera
c) Serra
d) Sirea
77. What does 'Q' represent in Phonetic alphabets?
a) Quebic
b) Qubic
c) Quebecc
d) Quebec

78. What is the Phonetic figure of '4'?

a) Fower
b) Fow-er
c) Fov-er
d) Four

79. What is the correct phrase for 'Have I correctly received the following…?
Or did you correctly receive this message?
a) Confirm
b) Cleared
c) Correct
d) Checked

80. What is the correct phrase for 'I have received all of your last transmission'?
a) Over and out
b) I say again
c) Roger
d) Standby

81. What is the purpose of access control.

A. control the moment of aircraft
B. control the moment of cargo
C. control the moment of vehicles and people
D. control the moment of ramp services

82. Expand SRA

A. surveillance radar approach
B. surveillance radar access
C. static radar approach
D. stable radar approach

83. What are the types of access control points

A. external access control point
B. internal access control point
C. Both A and B
D. none of the above

84. Access control point equipment consist of

A. barriers, gate
B. communication equipment
C. SOP
D. all the above
85. Expand AACS
A. Automated access card system
B. Automated access control system
C. Automated airside control system
D. Automated airside card system

86. The equipment turnstile used for…

A. people
B. vehicle
C. animals
D. none of the above

87. Expand SOP

A. standard operating procedures
B. stand operating procedures
C. static operating procedures
D. service operating procedures

88. What are requiring access for legitimate need

A. airport employees
B. airline/Tenant employees
C. national Government representatives
D. All the above

89. which of the following is not an automated access control system

A. IRIS
B. DNA
C. Face Geometry
D. Coded card

90. what is the purpose of an airport perimeter fence

A. To prevent wildlife from entering the airport premises
B. To protect aircraft from adverse weather condition
C. To control access to the airport terminal building
D. To secure the airport area from unauthorized entry

91. AACS full form?

a) Aviation Access control system
b) Airport Access control system
c) Automated Access control system
d) Airport Access control services

92. what are the challenges of access control?

a) size of the airport
b) number of workers at an airport
c) 24 hours per day operations
d) All of the above
 93. Purpose of access control?
a) To control the movement of people and vehicles
b) To identify unauthorised articles
c) To control aircraft movement
d) To secure the area

94. ETD full form?

a) Explosive trace detection
b) Explosive transmission detection
c) Explosive transmission defection
d) Electrical trace detector

95. SOP full form?

a) Standard operating process
b) Standard operating procedure
c) Secure operating procedure
d) Standard organisation procedure

96. How will access control recognise suspicious behaviour?

a) Unknown person wearing cap
b) Unknown person without permit
c) Attempt to gain access to unrestricted area
d) Circumstance normal

97. which of the following is the content of access control point log?
a) The status of checkpoint equipment
b) Record of Incidents at the control point
c) Record of hours
d) both a and b

98. which of the following is not an automated access control system?

a) Coded card
b) IRIS
c) DNA
d) Face geometry

99. Access control means?

a) Giving access to authorized persons
b) Identifying authorized items
c) Identifying authorized vehicles
d) All of the above

100. Access control layers may consist of?

a) Non restricted areas
b) detection systems for explosive
c) Non-physical security measures
d) Identifying permits for workers
101. What is the main objective of vehicle access control point equipment verification?
a) Vehicle registration
b) Passenger safety
c) Verify equipment functionality
d) Cargo inspection

102. Why is access to airside or Security Restricted Areas restricted?

a) To increase congestion
b) For operational convenience
c) For security and safety reasons
d) To allow visitor access

103. Which of the following is NOT an authorized vehicle category for airside access?
a) Immigration and other Government Agencies
b) Airport/Airline vehicles
c) Emergency Services
d) General public

104. What should security personnel check when taking over duty at an access control point?
a) Vehicle permits
b) Barriers, gates, and turnstiles
c) Weather conditions
d) Flight schedules

105. What information should a typical vehicle permit contain?

a) Driver's name
b) Periodic inspection date
c) Area of validity
d) Favourite colour

106. What should be checked before allowing a vehicle access to airside?

a) Driver's favourite colour
b) Vehicle make and model
c) Presence of Restricted/Prohibited articles
d) Vehicle age

107. Who is allowed to drive on the airside?

a) Any airport employee
b) Drivers with Advanced Driving Permits (ADP)
c) Visitors
d) Passengers

108. What equipment should be available for an effective vehicle search?

a) Dragon light
b) Music player
c) Coffee machine
d) Passenger seats
109. Where should attention be paid when searching a vehicle?
a) Only the driver's seat
b) Only the trunk or load area
c) Various parts including the engine compartment and roof
d) The exterior of the vehicle

110. How can sealed vehicles be granted access without further search?
a) By checking the driver's identification
b) By verifying the cargo manifest
c) By matching the serial number of the seal with a document
d) By contacting the vehicle owner

111. Which item is NOT typically used for conducting a vehicle search?
a) Adequate lighting
b) Under Vehicle Search System (UVSS)
c) X-ray scanner
d) Under Vehicle Search Mirror (UVSM)

112. What is the primary purpose of a vehicle search?

a) To identify the driver
b) To locate the vehicle's registration number
c) To check for Restricted/Prohibited articles
d) To verify the vehicle's colour

113. What information should be recorded in the Access Control Point Log?
a) The weather conditions
b) Incidents at the control point
c) The number of passengers
d) The flight schedules

114. Which of the following is NOT an authorized vehicle category for airside access?
a) High value goods carriers
b) Bonded goods carriers
c) Emergency Services
d) Visitors

115. Why is it important to verify the validity of a vehicle permit?

a) To check the driver's identity
b) To ensure the vehicle is the correct make and model
c) To confirm authorized access
d) To check for expired vehicle registration

116. What equipment can be used to check the underside of a vehicle during a search?
a) Dragon light
b) UVSS
c) UVSM
d) Metal detector
117. Who should have an Advanced Driving Permit (ADP) to drive on the airside?
a) Any vehicle driver
b) Only emergency service drivers
c) Only airport employees
d) Drivers allowed air side access

118. What is the main purpose of searching a vehicle before granting access?
a) To confirm the driver's identity
b) To ensure the vehicle is clean
c) To check for Restricted/Prohibited articles
d) To verify the vehicle's registration

119. Which of the following should NOT be searched during a vehicle inspection?
a) The engine compartments
b) The driver's seat
c) The underside of the vehicle
d) The roof of the vehicle

120. What should be checked to verify the authenticity of a sealed vehicle's access?
a) The driver's identification
b) Cargo manifest
c) Serial number of the seal matching a document
d) Vehicle registration

121. What is the primary purpose of explosive detection technology?

a) To enhance communication
b) To detect and prevent explosive threats
c) To improve transportation efficiency
d) To identify counterfeit currency

122. Which of the following is not a common explosive detection method at airports?
a) X-ray scanning
b) Sniffer dogs
c) Metal detectors
d) Thermal imaging

123.Which type of explosive device is often concealed within a vehicle or bag and can be remotely
detonated?
a) Time bomb
b) Suicide bomb
c) Remote-controlled bomb
d) Molotov cocktail
124. TSA Prechecks is a program in the United States that offers expedited security screening for
travellers who pass a background check. What is its primary goal?
a) To reduce security measures for all passengers
b) To increase the number of security personnel at airports
c) To streamline the security process for low-risk travellers
d) To conduct thorough security checks on all passengers

125.Which technology is commonly used to detect traces of explosives on passengers or their

belongings at security checkpoints?
a) MRI scanners
b) Body scanners
c) Full-body pat-downs
d) Breathalyzers

126. Which of the following items is typically prohibited in carry-on luggage for air travel?
a) Laptop
b) Toothpaste
c) small scissors
d) Wallet

127. Which organization is responsible for regulating and setting security standards for air travel in
the United States?
a) IATA (International Air Transport Association)
b) FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)
c) TSA (Transportation Security Administration)
d) FBI (Federal Bureau of Investigation)

128.What is the primary purpose of a metal detector at a security checkpoint?

a) To detect explosive materials
b) To identify concealed weapons made of metal
c) To scan for chemical residues
d) To measure body temperature

129.Which of the following is a potential indicator of a suspicious package?

a) Clear labelling
b) Regular shape and size
c) unexpected Odor
d) Proper documentation

130.What is the main reason for the use of sniffer dogs in security operations?
a) To provide companionship to security personnel
b) To identify illegal drugs
c) To detect explosives and other prohibited items
d) To perform crowd control
131. What is the purpose of a search procedure in aviation?
a) To locate lost baggage
b) To find the nearest airport
c) To search for missing aircraft or persons
d) To schedule flight routes

132. Which agency is responsible for coordinating search and rescue (SAR) operations in aviation?
a) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
c) International Air Transport Association (IATA)
d) Civil Aviation Authority (CAA)

133. Which type of aircraft is often used for aerial search and rescue missions?
a) Commercial airliners
b) Helicopters
c) Cargo planes
d) Gliders

134. When initiating a search operation for a missing aircraft, what is the first step?
a) Notify the media
b) Activate an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)
c) Contact nearby airports
d) Consult with air traffic control

135. Which technology is commonly used to assist in search procedures for downed aircraft in
remote areas?
a) Radar
b) Sonar
c) Infrared cameras
d) GPS tracking

136. What is the standard frequency for distress calls and emergency communication in aviation?
a) 121.5 MHz
b) 108.0 MHz
c) 136.0 MHz
d) 156.0 MHz

137. In aviation, what does the acronym "SAR" stand for?

a) Search and Recovery
b) Safety and Regulation
c) Search and Rescue
d) Surveillance and Radar
138. What international agreement governs the procedures and protocols for aviation search and
rescue?
a) Warsaw Convention
b) Chicago Convention
c) Kyoto Protocol
d) Paris Agreement

139. During a search and rescue operation, what is the significance of the "golden hour"?
a) The hour when the weather is most favourable for searching
b) The first hour after an aircraft goes missing, considered critical for locating survivors
c) The hour when search aircraft should return to base
d) The optimal time for conducting radar sweeps

140.Which organization or agency typically conducts investigations to determine the cause of

aviation incidents?
a) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
b) Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
c) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
d) International Air Transport Association (IATA)

141. What is the primary purpose of patrolling and guarding?

a) To socialize with colleagues
b) To maintain security and prevent unauthorized access
c) To take breaks during work hours
d) To conduct inspections of equipment

142. Which of the following is NOT a common duty of a security guard?

a) Monitoring surveillance cameras
b) Providing medical assistance
c) Checking identification badges
d) Patrolling designated areas

143. When should a security guard typically conduct a patrol?

a) Randomly, without any schedule
b) Only during daytime hours
c) At the same time every day
d) Only in response to an emergency

144. What is the purpose of a security guard's uniform?

a) To be fashionable
b) To blend in with the environment
c) To be easily identifiable as a security presence
d) To keep the guard warm
145. Which of the following is a proactive security measure?
a) Responding to alarms after they trigger
b) Conducting regular patrols and inspections
c) Waiting for incidents to occur before taking action
d) Ignoring security protocols

146. What does CCTV stand for?

a) Closed Circuit Television
b) Centralized Control of Television
c) Camouflage Camera Television
d) Computerized Video Tracking

147. In patrolling, what is the purpose of keeping a logbook?

a) To track personal expenses
b) To record incidents, observations, and actions taken
c) To list favourite movies
d) To keep track of personal fitness routines

148. When approaching a potentially dangerous situation during a patrol, what should a security
guard prioritize?
a) Running away from the situation
b) Hiding and waiting for backup
c) Notifying the authorities immediately
d) Attempting to resolve the situation alone

149. What is the purpose of access control in security?

a) Allowing everyone unrestricted access
b) Restricting access to authorized individuals only
c) Making it difficult for security personnel to enter
d) Promoting unauthorized access

150. Which of the following is a common type of security patrol?

a) Food patrol
b) Water patrol
c) Foot patrol
d) Paper patrol

151. The area between any passenger inspection screening control point and aircraft into which
access is strictly controlled known as??
a) Sterile area
b) Passenger hold area
c) Security area
d) Departure hall
152. what do passengers require while entering security restricted area?
a) Boarding pass
b) Identification documents
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

153. which of the following is not a passenger screening location?

a) Centralised
b) Semi centralised
c) Un centralised
d) Decentralised

154. Which of the following is an equipment designed to scan people?

a) Communication devices
b) X-ray BIS
c) DFMD
d) Discreet alarm system

155. Which of the following is not an equipment used to detect explosives?

a) Frisking booth
b) Search table
c) Security check stamp
d) X-ray BIS

156. What is the abbreviation of HHMD?

a) Hand hold metal detector
b) Hand held metal detector
c) Hand held machine detector
d) Hand held metal device

157. Which of the following is an advantage of using WTMD?

a) Faster way to check a passenger
b) Cannot detect IED
c) Detects metals in a specific range
d) Not portable

158. Due to limitation of technical equipment which additional search is required?

a) Frisking
b) Manual hand search
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

159. The security staff will assist you with____?

a) Boarding
b) Screening procedure
c) Baggage handling
d) None of the above
160. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using DFMD?
a) Faster way to check a passenger
b) Helps to identify metals
c) Easy to operate
d) Cannot detect replicas of weapons

161. What is the primary purpose of aircraft protection systems?

a) To enhance in-flight entertainment
b) To ensure passenger comfort
c) To safeguard the aircraft and its occupants
d) To improve fuel efficiency

162. Which of the following is a common method for protecting aircraft from lightning strikes?
a) Rubber tires
b) Lightning rods
c) Anti-static paint
d) In-flight prayer

163. Which part of an aircraft is most vulnerable to bird strikes?

a) Wingtips
b) Tail section
c) Fuselage
d) Landing gear

164. What is TCAS in aviation?

a) Traffic Control and Avoidance System
b) Terrain Clearance and Avoidance System
c) Temperature Control and Alarm System
d) Tactical Combat and Avoidance System

165. Which system is used to detect and prevent ice buildup on aircraft surfaces?
a) Anti-icing system
b) Air conditioning system
c) Radar system
d) GPS system

166. What does the abbreviation "FOD" stand for in aviation?

a) Flight Operations Division
b) Foreign Object Debris
c) Fuel Overload Detector
d) Flight Operations Director

167. Which system helps protect an aircraft from overheating during prolonged flights?
a) Air conditioning system
b) Fuel cooling system
c) Cabin pressure system
d) Anti-icing system
168. What is the purpose of the aircraft's emergency oxygen system?
a) To provide oxygen for the crew during meal breaks
b) To supply passengers with fresh air
c) To supply oxygen in case of cabin depressurization
d) To improve engine performance

169. Which type of fire protection system is typically used in aircraft cargo holds?
a) Water sprinklers
b) Foam suppression
c) Halon gas
d) Smoke detectors

170. What does the "ELT" acronym stand for in aviation?

a) Emergency Landing Terminal
b) Electronic Locator Transmitter
c) Emergency Lighting Technology
d) Elevated Landing Threshold

171. Which weather-related hazard can be detected and tracked by radar to protect aircraft?
a) Fog
b) Hail
c) Sunlight
d) Tornadoes

172. What is the primary purpose of an aircraft’s Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)?
a) To provide in-flight entertainment
b) To warn of potential collisions with the ground
c) To communicate with air traffic control
d) To manage cabin temperature

173. Which system helps protect an aircraft from the threat of missiles?
a) Air-to-air refuelling
b) Chaff and flare dispensers
c) Radar jamming
d) Autopilot

174. What is the primary function of a cockpit voice recorder (CVR)?

a) To record conversations between passengers
b) To capture engine sounds
c) To record cockpit conversations and sounds for accident investigation
d) To provide live communication with ground control

175. Which system helps maintain the correct altitude and attitude of an aircraft during flight?
a) Autopilot
b) Air conditioning
c) Fuel gauge
d) In-flight Wi-Fi
176. What does the abbreviation "EICAS" stand for in aviation?
a) Emergency In-Flight Control and Alert System
b) Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System
c) Electronic In-Cabin Announcement System
d) Environmental Impact Control and Alarm System

177.Which of the following is a common method for protecting aircraft from corrosion?
a) Painting the aircraft in bright colours
b) Applying a layer of wax
c) Using corrosion-resistant materials
d) Regularly washing the aircraft

178. What is the primary purpose of an aircraft's transponder?

a) To control cabin lighting
b) To communicate with other aircraft
c) To display weather information
d) To provide air traffic control with aircraft identification and altitude

179. Which system helps an aircraft maintain a stable and level flight path during turbulence?
a) Autopilot
b) Passenger oxygen masks
c) Wi-Fi system
d) In-flight entertainment

180. What is the primary purpose of the aircraft's emergency slides?

a) To provide a fun way to exit the aircraft
b) To assist passengers in evacuating the aircraft quickly in an emergency
c) To protect the aircraft from lightning strikes
d) To inflate and serve as a flotation device in case of a water landing

181. What is the primary reason for conducting a manual hand search of passengers and cabin
baggage after technical screening?
a) To detect non-metallic weapons
b) To expedite the screening process
c) To identify passengers
d) To prevent theft

182. In reasoned selection for hand searches, what is the focus of the effort?
a) Random selection of passengers
b) Concentrating on bags with unusual shapes
c) Concentrating on bags most likely to conceal prohibited items
d) Focusing on female passengers’ baggage

183. How often should random selection be used for hand searching bags?
a) One out of every five bags
b) One out of every ten bags
c) One out of every three bags
d) One out of every fifteen bags
184. Why should the passenger be present during the physical inspection of baggage?
a) To assist with the search
b) To prevent accusations of planting prohibited items
c) To speed up the search process
d) To ensure passenger comfort

185. What is the significance of asking the passenger to unlock the bag before searching?
a) To emphasize the passenger’s cooperation
b) To prevent activation of security protection systems
c) To speed up the search process
d) To identify the bag’s owner

186. When should surgical/disposable gloves be worn during the search?

a) To prevent theft
b) To make the search more personal
c) To protect against potential hazards
d) To keep the bag clean

187. Why is it important to check the balance of the bag before opening it?
a) To assess the passenger’s packing skills
b) To prevent theft
c) To ensure it’s not lopsided due to concealed items
d) To speed up the search process

188. What should be examined on the exterior of the bag during the search?
a) Signs of tampering or repair
b) The bag’s colour
c) The passenger’s name tag
d) Stains on the bag

189. Why should attention be given to containers capable of holding volatile liquids?
a) To assess the passenger’s taste in beverages
b) To check for potential theft
c) To ensure compliance with liquid restrictions
d) To identify prohibited items

190. What is the primary reason for checking for greasy stains and small holes on the bag’s
exterior?
a) To assess the bag’s cleanliness
b) To identify potential disguises for explosives
c) To determine the bag’s age
d) To speed up the search process

191. One of the documents which is part of the emergency or contingency plan is
A. List of passengers
B. Evacuation plan
C. Ships salient features
D. List of crews
192. The stage of a crisis when the way people react to warnings differs is
A. Warning stage
B. Impact stage
C. Evacuation stage
D. Recoil stage

193. In a crisis management scenario involving a fire the central command team should consider
A. Finding out the cause of fire
B. Checking readiness of firefighting equipment
C. Taking head count of crew
D. All the above
194. Crew emergency procedures which are ship specific are developed by
A. The administration
B. The shipping company
C. The master
D. Company training officer

195. During the voyage operational tests of watertight doors shall take place
A. Half-yearly
B. Quarterly
C. Monthly
D. Weekly

196. The angel of heel on account of crowding of passengers to one side shall not exceed
A. 5 degrees
B. 10 degrees
C. 15 degrees
D. 20 degrees

197. A power-operated sliding watertight door shall be limited to a maximum clear opening of
A. 1.0 m
B. 1.2 m
C. 1.5 m
D. 1.7 m

198. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided

A. In the ships control room
B. On the navigation bridge
C. In the master’s cabin
D. In the chief engineer’s cabin

199. Emergency source of power shall not be located

A. Forward to the steering flat
B. Forward of the bridge
C. Forward of the engine room
D. Forward of the collision bulkhead
200. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being
A. Carried by hand to a fire
B. Carried or rolled to a fire
C. Recharged in the field
D. Used on class “B” Fire

201. What is the primary role of an airline security escort?

a) To serve in-flight meals
b) To provide medical assistance
c) To ensure the safety of passengers and crew
d) To entertain passengers with in-flight movies

202. During a security escort, what should a passenger expect when entering a restricted area
of the airport? **
a) A guided tour of the airport facilities
b) Enhanced security screening
c) A complimentary lounge passes
d) Priority boarding for their flight

203. What is the purpose of confinement in airline security?

a) To provide passengers with more space on the aircraft
b) To limit passenger movement during certain flight phases
c) To offer passengers additional legroom
d) To facilitate social distancing on board

204. When is passenger confinement most commonly enforced during a flight?

a) During in-flight meal service
b) During takeoff and landing
c) Only when passengers request it
d) When passengers are using electronic devices

205. What is the primary reason for confinement during takeoff and landing?
a) To give passengers a chance to rest
b) To reduce the workload for flight attendants
c) To enhance passenger comfort
d) To ensure passenger safety in case of emergencies

206. Which of the following best describes the term "escorting" in airline security?
a) Guiding passengers to the baggage claim area
b) Providing passengers with tour information about the destination
c) Supervising and assisting passengers during their travel journey
d) Delivering in-flight meals to passengers

207. During an emergency evacuation, what is the role of airline security personnel?
a) Provide passengers with blankets and pillows
b) Assist passengers in safely exiting the aircraft
c) Direct passengers to the nearest airport lounge
d) Coordinate in-flight entertainment
208. Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of airline security personnel during a
flight?
a) Monitoring passenger behaviour
b) Assisting with medical emergencies
c) Serving meals and beverages
d) Enforcing security protocols

209. Why is it important for airline security personnel to monitor passenger behaviour during a
flight?
a) To provide passengers with entertainment options
b) To ensure passengers are comfortable
c) To identify and respond to any security threats
d) To help passengers locate their baggage

210. In airline security, what does "SOP" stand for?

a) Special Operational Procedures
b) Standard Operating Procedures
c) Safety Oriented Protocols
d) Secure Onboard Practices

211: What is the primary purpose of protecting aircraft catering uplift?

a) Ensuring on-time departures
b) Preventing food waste
c) Ensuring the safety of passengers and crew
d) Reducing fuel consumption

212: Why is proper temperature control important during aircraft catering uplift?
a) To maintain food freshness and quality
b) To save on energy costs
c) To increase catering efficiency
d) To reduce cabin noise

213: What potential risks can contaminate catering items pose to an aircraft and its occupants?
a) Increased fuel efficiency
b) Enhanced passenger experience
c) Food poisoning and illness
d) Quieter cabin environment

214: Which regulatory body often provides guidelines for aircraft catering safety?
a) International Air Transport Association (IATA)
b) World Health Organization (WHO)
c) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
d) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
215: What is the purpose of conducting regular inspections of catering vehicles and equipment?
a) To monitor driver behaviour
b) To ensure accurate billing
c) To prevent unauthorized access
d) To identify potential sources of contamination

216: What is "cross-contamination" in the context of aircraft catering?

a) Mixing different types of foods to create new flavours
b) Using multiple utensils for cooking
c) Contaminating food with allergens from other foods
d) Offering a diverse range of meal options

217: How can catering staff contribute to the overall safety of aircraft catering uplift?
a) By prioritizing speed over accuracy
b) By using personal utensils for food handling
c) By following hygiene and safety protocols
d) By interacting directly with passengers

218: Why is proper packaging important for aircraft catering items?

a) It reduces catering costs
b) It prevents damage during transport
c) It makes the aircraft look more appealing
d) It decreases food preparation time

219: What should cater staff do if they notice any issues with the quality or safety of catering items
during the uplift process?
a) Ignore the issues to avoid delays
b) Report the issues to their supervisor and take appropriate action
c) Wait for the cabin crew to address the issues
d) Continue the uplift process as usual

220: How can airlines ensure effective communication between their operations team and
catering providers?
a) By using carrier pigeons for messages
b) By relying solely on verbal communication
c) By using a clear and structured communication process
d) By avoiding communication to maintain surprise

221. What is the primary purpose of briefing the crew prior to departure?
a. To share jokes and anecdotes
b. To ensure everyone is informed and prepared for the upcoming flight
c. To assign seating arrangements
d. To discuss crew members' personal preferences
222.What should be properly maintained and rolling shutters on both sides.
a) HLV
b) IFSO
c) ASG
d) WAC

223. Any other security controls prescribed by

a) Staff
b) Commissioner
c) security
d) cabin crew

224. The stores and supplies have been searched by

a) Hand (or) X-ray screened
b) Millimetre wave
c) Metal detectors
d) Xray

225. The stores and supplies have been obtained from an

a) Establishment
b) X-ray screened
c) The cleaning staffs
d) The caterer and transporter

226. Who is signed between both the agencies in written contract

a) Air operator and the caterer
b) Hi-lift/transporter
c) Meal carts/containers
d) The caterer and transporter

227. What is the primary concern when protecting aircraft catering uplift
a) Ensuring passenger’s comfort
b) Preventing food contamination
c) Maximizing catering compact profits
d)Minimizing aircraft weight

228. Which of the following is a key consideration in ensuring safe aircraft catering?
a) Rapid loading and unloading of food
b) frequent menu changes
c) Strict adherence to food expiration dates
d) Minimal communication with airline staff

229. Why is it important to maintain the cold chain during aircraft catering?
a) To ensure the food tastes better
b) To prevent food poisoning
c) To reduce catering costs
d) To speed up the catering process
230. Which organization typically regulates and sets guidelines for aircraft catering safety.
a) International air transport association (IATA)
b) World health organization (WHO)
c) Federal aviation administration (FAA)
d) International civil aviation organization (ICAO)

231. What is the primary purpose of protecting cargo and courier shipments?
a) Reducing shipping costs
b) Ensuring timely delivery
c) Safeguarding goods from damage and theft
d) Increasing cargo volume

232. Which of the following is a common security measure for protecting cargo during
transportation?
a) Regular maintenance of delivery vehicles
b) Overloading trucks to maximize efficiency
c) Ignoring shipment tracking
d) Using unmarked packaging

233. What does the term "chain of custody" refer to in cargo protection?
a) The physical strength of cargo containers
b) The sequence of people who handle a shipment
c) The type of locks used on cargo doors
d) The weight of the cargo being transported

234. To protect cargo from theft, which of the following should be avoided?
a) Installing GPS tracking devices
b) Sharing shipment details with authorized personnel only
c) Keeping cargo in well-lit and secure storage facilities
d) Leaving cargo unattended in public areas

235. What is a common way to protect sensitive cargo from environmental factors during transit?
a) Using climate-controlled containers
b) Packing cargo tightly without padding
c) Exposing cargo to extreme temperatures
d) Using minimal packaging materials

236. Which type of seal is commonly used to secure cargo containers and detect tampering?
a) QR code seal
b) Plastic zip ties
c) Bolt seal
d) Cloth tape

237. What is a bill of lading used for in the context of cargo protection?
a) Tracking shipment weight
b) Documenting the journey of the cargo
c) Assigning a value to the cargo
d) Controlling vehicle speed
238. What does the term "perishable goods" typically refer to?
a) Items that are easily damaged during transport
b) Goods that are not regulated by temperature
c) Non-food items
d) Items that can survive without proper packaging

239. Which security measure helps prevent cargo shifting and damage during transit?
a) Using proper load securing techniques
b) Driving at high speeds to reach the destination quickly
c) Overloading the cargo area
d) Avoiding the use of safety straps

240. What is the purpose of cargo insurance?

a) To increase transportation costs
b) To protect against losses due to damaged or lost cargo
c) To reduce the weight of the cargo
d) To avoid using secure packaging

241. What is passenger profiling in aviation security?

a) Identifying passengers based on their preferences
b) Analysing passenger behaviour and characteristics for security purposes
c) Profiling passengers for marketing purposes
d) None of the above

242. Which of the following is NOT a typical factor considered in passenger profiling?
a) Nationality
b) Ticket price
c) Travel history
d) Behaviour patterns

243. Why is passenger profiling important in aviation security?

a) To offer personalized services to passengers
b) To improve in-flight entertainment
c) To identify potential security threats
d) To increase airline profits

244. Which government agency is responsible for overseeing aviation security in the United
States?
a) TSA (Transportation Security Administration)
b) FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)
c) FBI (Federal Bureau of Investigation)
d) CIA (Central Intelligence Agency)

245. What is the primary goal of aviation security?

a) Ensuring on-time departures
b) Maximizing airline revenue
c) Protecting passengers and aircraft from threats
d) Reducing passenger inconveniences
246. Which technology is commonly used for passenger screening at airports?
a) Radar
b) X-ray machines
c) GPS
d) Sonar

247. What is a "no-fly list"?

a) A list of passengers who are not allowed to fly
b) A list of popular destinations
c) A list of airline employees
d) A list of in-flight entertainment options

248. Which of the following is an example of behavioural profiling?

a) Scanning passenger luggage
b) Identifying suspicious behaviour
c) Checking travel documents
d) Measuring body temperature

249. What is the purpose of the Secure Flight program?

a) Ensuring on-time flights
b) Reducing airport congestion
c) Matching passenger information against watchlists
d) Enhancing in-flight meals

250. What is the primary objective of random security checks at airports?

a) To identify VIP passengers
b) To deter potential threats
c) To improve airport aesthetics
d) To increase airport revenue