Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Correct Answers May of 2023

Pathophysiology Final EXAM Questions AND Correct
Answers MAY OF 2023

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PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS MAY OF 2023

1. What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)
o The build-up of infectious by-products in the lymph nodes
o Insufficient delivery of oxygenated bold to the myocardium
o Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs
o The build-up of bile in the stomach and gall bladder
2. (a) Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?
o PH 7.25, PaCO2 52mm Hg, PA02 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
o PH 7.50, PaCo2 30 mm Hg, Pa02 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
o PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, Pa02 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
(b) Identify the normal arterial blood gas values

o PH 7.26; PaCO2 55 mmHg; HCO3 18 MEq/L ; Pa02 75 mmHg
o PH 7.37; PaCO2 42 mmHg; HCO3 24 mEq/L; PaO2 90 mmHg
o pH 7.32; PaCO2 48 mmHg; HCO3 18 mEq/L; PaO2 82 mm Hg
3. What happens to a client with polycythemia?

o Deficient plasma in the blood
o Increased lymphatic fluid being produced
o Increased red blood cells being produced
o Deficient number of red blood cells
4. What condition can be caused by excessive amount of growth hormone (GH)released by

the pituitary gland in childhood before epiphyseal plates of the long bones have.
o Acromegaly
o Gigantism
o Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
o Dwarfism
5. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?
o Reversible with cognitive therapy with the infant client
o Transient and resolves in adulthood from physical therapy
o Manifested as an adult after normal childhood activities
o Irreversible and occurs before, during or after birth or infancy
6. What is reperfusion injury?

o Healing bone tissue after fracture
o Skin wound tunneling and shear
o Secondary injury after reestablishing blood flow
o Injury after blood transfusion
7. . Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following?

o Magnesium
o Sodium
o Chloride
o Bicarbonate
8. Which of the following stores electrolytes and acts as an electrolyte pool?

o Brain - Kidneys
o Bone - Nails
9. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate

antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
o Decreased insulin production
o Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production
o increased secretion of antidiuretic home (ADH)
o Increased production of insulin
10. . What causes secondary brain injury after head trauma?

o Brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage
o Brain injury resulting from initial trauma
o Injury as a result of medical therapy
o Focal areas of bleeding
11. Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis?

o Vascular spasm
o Platelet plug
o Coagulation
o Dissolving of the clot
12. What is the treatment for clients with hemophilia A?

o Chemotherapy
o Factor VIII replacement
o Heparin administration
o Bone marrow transplant
13. . Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension?
o The bladder and urethra
o The brain and skin
o The heart and kidneys
o The stomach and intestines
14.(a) What is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease noted on

histologic exam? Need to know
o Reed-Sternberg cells
o Red-stained cells
o Human Papillomavirus
o B-cells and T-cells
(b) A client has Reed-Sternberg cells noted on a lab histologic study.

What condition presents in this manner?
o Chronic myeloid leukemia
o Infectious mononucleosis
o Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
o Hodgkin’s lymphoma
15. Which of the following described what is occurring in the body of clients experiencing
hypovolemia?
o Increased urine retention
o Insufficient circulating blood volume
o Bounding peripheral pulses
o Crackles auscultated in the lungs
16. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?

o pulmonary edema
o Jugular venous distention
o Peripheral edema
o Reduced cardiac output
17. . What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function?

o The ability to perform complex mathematics
o Altered level of consciousness
o The lack of cerebrospinal fluid production
o Intact cranial nerve functions
18. Which of the following is NOT an example of clinical manifestations of

leukemia and lymphoma?
o Fatigue
o Increased risk bleeding
o Increased risk of infections
o Increased energy and strength
19. Right sided heart failure is characterized by:

o Immunosuppression
o Pulmonary edema
o Peripheral edema
o Coughing
20. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and/or chest tube placement as
treatment to which component of the pathophysiology of the condition?
o An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the
lungs to exchange gases.
o Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib
o A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space affecting both the lungs
and heart,
o Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli
21. what typically causes contact dermatitis
o Fungal infection
o Long term disorder from gout
o Contact with a skin allergen

o Staphylococcal infection
22. Which of the following are clinical manifestation of left sided heart failure? (Select
all that apply)
o Shortness of breath
o Peripheral edema
o Cough with frothy sputum

23. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?
o High sugar, low-fat diet
o Increased physical activity
o Tobacco use
o Low fat diet
24. what causes atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body
o Poor dietary modification
o Administration of statin medication
o Interruption of blood flow to the brain
o Injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries
25. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
(DIC)?
o Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
o Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
o Simultaneous clotting and insulin release

o Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting
26. . What of the following best describes sepsis?
o An overwhelming allergic reaction
o Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen ‘s endotoxins
o Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
o Poor nursing and health care provider interventions
27. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect
to find?
o Alkalosis and hyperventilation
o Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
o Alkalosis and high potassium
o Elevated sodium and acidosis
28. . What is the process of moving air into the lungs with subsequent distribution to
the alveoli called?
o Ventilation

o Aeration
o Enclosure vapor
o Residual volume
29. Which of the following can lead to impaired neurological function in clients with
increased intracranial pressure? (Select all that apply)
o Decreased perfusion of the brain tissue
o The ability of the tissue to autoregulate the pressure
o Inflammation of the brain
o Compression of the brain
o Increased tissue oxygenation
30. Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain
homeostasis?
o Antidiuretic hormones (ADH)
o Insulin
o Glucagon

o Thyroxine
31. A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities.
Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding?
o Contraindication
o Sign
o Symptom
o Subjective data
32. Which of the following is a cause of edema?
o Decreased plasma proteins
o Hypotension
o Dehydration
o Polyuria
33. Which clients are at highest for pneumonia?
o Those in their 20s and 0s and generally health
o Those who exercise regular and not exposed to pathogens

o Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised
o Those who have adequate respiratory function
34. Which of the following is found in clients with Parkinson’s diseases?
o Mobility and functioning
o The liver and kidneys
o Too much dopamine in the brain
o Skeletal muscle flaccidity
35. What causes osteoporosis?
o Poor nutrition in infancy
o Regularly weight bearing exercise
o Bone loss, frequently during aging
o Cerebral palsy and associated disorders
36.(52) What is the best way to prevent transmission of infection agents?
o Take antibiotics daily

o Call the practitioner for herbal supplements
o Wash hands
o Avoid public areas as much as possible
37. Helicobacter pylori (h. pylori) often causes which of the following?
o Colon cancer
o Hiatal hernia
o Peptic ulcer disease
o Esophageal varices
38. (a)Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with
thrombocytopenia?
o A decreased platelet cell count
o Decreased white blood cell count
o Increased red blood cell count
o An increased platelet cell count

(b) Thrombocytopenia is which disorder below?
o Increased blood coagulation
o Increased platelet production
o Increased number of infections
o Decreased platelet production
39. Disturbance in which of the following would cause a client to experience a gout?
o Serotonin receptors
o Uric acid metabolism
o Liver function
o Cardiac function
40. which of the following can occur with clients who have hyponatremia?
o The loss of more water than salt
o A gain of more salt than water
o Manifested by thirst

o Potentially fatal due to swelling in the brain
41. Which of the following describes passive immunity?
o Vaccination against the disease
o Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
o Cuts or wounds which are infected and heal
o Having the disease in question
42. Which of the following properties are found in clients with metastatic cancer?
o Tumors that are well encapsulated
o Tumors with slow, stable growth
o Cells that are genetically stable
o Cells invading local tissue and overrunning neighboring cells
43. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?
o Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
o Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

o Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
o Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
44. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain,
fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays ..
tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?
o Pseudomembranous colitis
o Peptic ulcer diseases
o Appendicitis
o Esophageal cancer
45. What physiological reaction happens to the body with the “Fight or flight” response?
o Increased heart rate
o Constricted pupils
o Decreased blood pressure
o Decreased heart rate

46. When a client has their “fight or flight” system activated, which below is a manifestation of
that?
o Decreased respiration rate
o Increased glucose levels
47. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?
o Tachycardia
o Constipation
o Weight gain
o fatigue
48. What is the pathophysiology of type I diabetes
o Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
o Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to
produce insulin

o Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
o A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone
production
49. What are the major mechanisms of the spinal cord injuries?
o Hypoextension, expansion, hyperflexion
o Hyperflexion, expansion, hypometabolism
o Hypermetabolism, compression, hyperextension
o Hyperextension, hyperflexion, compression
50. (a) Virchow’s triad includes which of the following factors (select all that apply.)
o Increased blood coagulability
o Damage to the arterial wall
o Venous blood hypermobility
o Damage to the venous wall
o Venous blood statis

(b) What are the components of Virchow’s triad, which can lead the client to form blood
clots?
o Venous stasis, hypercoagulability
o Vessel wall injury, hypocoagulability
o Vessel wall injury, venous motility
o Venous motility, hypercoagulability
51. Signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include which of the
following?????
o Persistent chest pain which may radiate to the arm
o Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration
o Rapid respirations with left sided weakness and numbness
o Left upper quadrant abdominal pain which radiates to the back and shoulder
52. what is the phase of acute kidney injury that results in a decrease in urine output?

o Oliguric phase
o Diuresis phase
o Prodromal/asymptomatic phase
o Recovery phase
53. Which of the following clinical findings would be present in clients experiencing
shock? (Select all that apply)
o Hypertension
o Increased mental clarity
o Hypotension
o Tachycardia
54 Which of the following conditions results from excessive immune response?
o Rheumatoid arthritis
o Chronic renal failure
o Type II diabetes

o Onychomycosis
55 A client is bleeding. Platelets within the bloodstream begin aggregating to prevent further
blood loss. This is one of the first steps of which of the following processes?
o Hemokinetics
o Homeokinetics
o Hemostasis
o Homeostasis
56 Which of the following is used to classify seizures?
o Clinical symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG)
o Electroencephalogram (EEG) and electrocardiogram (ECG)
o Clinical symptoms and completer blood count (CBC)
o Clinical symptoms and electroencephalogram (EEF)
57 Hemophilia patients have severe pain in their:
o joints
o head

o abdomen
o chest
58 The client with human papillomavirus is at risk for which?
o Lung cancer
o Pancreatic cancer
o Stomach cancer
o Cervical cancer
59 How does unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris?
o Unstable angina pectoris can only be diagnosed by changes in cardiac
biomarkers
o Unstable angina pectoris manifests in electrocardiogram (ECG) changes only
o Unstable angina pectoris is not relived by periods of rest
o Unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina
60 What is the goal for treating sepsis?
o To identify the cause and treat

o Offer antibiotics if the client asks
o Restore cognitive functioning
o Restore kidney functioning
61 If a patient complains of dizziness, which term below best describes this felling?
o Contraindication
o Sign
o Objective data
o Symptom
62 Which of the following hormones do the kidney secrete to increase red blood cell
production?
o Erythropoietin
o Insulin and glycogen
o Testosterone
o Thyroid stimulating hormone

63 Which of the following causes hepatic encephalopathy?
o A brain infection
o Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
o Decreased albumin blood levels
o Untreated chronic bronchitis
64 What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in client who is experiencing
anaphylaxis?
o Dilated bronchioles constriction of peripheral blood vessels, decreased
capillary permeability
o Asthma, deep vein thrombosis, hepatic encephalopathy
o Narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels,
increased capillary permeability
o Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection
65 Which of the following is often the cause of a pulmonary embolism?
o An autoimmune disorder

o A venous blood clot from lower extremity
o An increase in intracranial pressure
o Hypotension
66 What symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD)?
o Dyspnea on exertion
o Normal lung sounds
o Normal arterial blood gases
o Onset of the disease during young adulthood
67 Which of the following describes the type of incontinence due to an increase in
intraabdominal pressure such as coughing, sneezing, and laughing?
o Overflow
o Stress
o Mixed
o Functional

68 When arterial blood pressure declines, the kidneys secrete a hormone to increase blood
pressure and peripheral resistance. What is this hormone called?
o Renin
o Antidiuretic hormone
o Atrial natriuretic
o Insulin
69 Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining?
o Incontinence
o Pyelonephritis
o Urinary calculi
o Cystic
70. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
o A blow to the head from a hard object
o Lack of blood flow to part of the brain
o Excessive exercise, such as running
o A raptured artery in the heart

71. Determine the following arterial blood gas results:
PH = 7.30; PaCO2=55 mmHg; HCO3=24 mEq/L
o Respiratory acidosis
o Metabolic acidosis
o Respiratory alkalosis
o Metabolic alkalosis
72. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?
o Hemorrhage
o Pain and tissue damage
o Increased limp function
o Chronic kidney disease
73. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in a client experiencing
hypoventilation?
o Increased oxygenation in the alveoli
o Increased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream

o Decreased hemoglobin in the bloodstream
o Decreased carbon dioxide in the alveoli
74. increased calcium levels in the blood could be due to an imbalance of which of the following
hormones?
o Parathyroid hormone
o Calcitonin
o Melatonin
75. Which of the following leads to the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with emphysema?
o Peripheral edema
o Bacterial infections in the lungs
o Air trapping in the alveoli
o Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm
76. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?

o Bronchospasm after exercise
o IgE-mediated inflammatory response to antigen
o Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods
o Increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation
77. How does influenza immunization produce immunity?
o The virus from the vaccine remains in the body until the end of the season
o An attenuated virus caused immune system suppression & causes the body to be
immune
o The body identifies the virus and develops antibodies against the virus
o The vaccine stays in the injection site and produce immune cells
78. The condition of leukemia involves which of the following?
o A benign growth of skin cells
o A malignant growth of skin cells
o A malignant growth of white blood cells
o A benign growth of white blood cells

79. Peritonitis is a condition which can result in serious complications. Identify one of the
o complications
o increased peristalsis
o dizziness and malaise
o sepsis and shock
o nausea and vomiting
80. What part of the heart is responsible for starting the electrical impulse to
conduct a heart rhythm and contraction of the atria and ventricle?
o The Purkinje fibers in the ventricles
o The right & left bundle branches
o The atrioventricular node
o The sinoatrial node in the atrium
81. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?
o Chest pain; cough
o Diarrhea; wheezing

o Wheezing; dyspnea
o Tachypnea; constipation
82. Polycythemia Vera is due to excess red blood cells and results in what condition
o Tissue ischemia & necrosis
o Chronic pancreatitis
o Low blood pressure & hear rate
o Increased numbers of infections
83. What lab results would be noted in a client with leukocytosis?
o Increased white blood cells count
o Increased platelet cell count
o Decreased platelet cell count
84. What is common factor related to all forms of heart failure?

o Peripheral edema
o Pulmonary edema
o Jugular vein distention
85. What is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
o Anaphylaxis
o Indigestion
o Beta cell destruction
o ABO transfusion reaction
86. A client sustained a concussion and experiences headache, vomiting, blurred vision and loss
of consciousness. If the client has these symptoms, what does this indicate?
o Increased intracranial pressure
o Lower extremity compartment syndrome
o Consuming too much food at once

o Improved kidney function
87. What are the characteristics of the inflammatory process?
o Loss of function, coolness
o Pain, redness
o Heat, pallor
o Swelling, pallor
88. Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to which causes?
o Injury to the coronary artery endothelium
o Administration of statin medications
o Poor dietary modifications made
89. Hematopoiesis occurs primarily in the bone marrow. What cells are formed during this
process?
o Pancreatic beta cells
o Red blood cells
o Gastric parietal cells

o Neurons and glial cells
90. The best method to identity which type of stroke the client has is to do which below?
o Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram STAT
o Obtain a blood specimen for electrolytes and blood cultures
o Ask the client about current allergies
o Obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT
91. Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?
o Electroencephalogram (EEG) and ECG
o Seizure symptoms and complete blood count (CBC)
o Seizure symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG)
o Seizure symptoms and EEG

92. What function does aldosterone serve in the body?
o Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, decreases fluid volume, and
decreases blood pressure
o Aldosterone causes a retention of sodium in the body, increase fluid volume, and
increases blood pressure
o Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, increase fluid volume, and
decreased blood pressure.
o Aldosterone enhances intracellular sodium production and lower blood pressure
93. Cushing syndrome is characterized by which disorder?
o Hypocortisolism
o Exophthalamos
o Hypercotisolism
o Hyperpigmentation
94. The image below is representative of emphysema. What features result in impaired
oxygenation?

o The bronchioles are inflamed and filled with mucus
o The alveoli have lost surfactant and collapse
o Enlarged, permanently inflated alveoli
o The accumulation of purulent fluid in the bronchioles
95. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.
o Allergies and onychomycosis
o Type II diabetes and smallpox
o Chronic renal failure and macular degeneration
o Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis
Patho Final exam
54. What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)
o The build-up of infectious by-products in the lymph nodes
o Insufficient delivery of oxygenated bold to the myocardium
o Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs
o The build-up of bile in the stomach and gall bladder
55.(a) Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?

o PH 7.25, PaCO2 52mm Hg, PA02 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
o PH 7.50, PaCo2 30 mm Hg, Pa02 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
(b) Identify the normal arterial blood gas values
o PH 7.26; PaCO2 55 mmHg; HCO3 18 MEq/L ; Pa02 75 mmHg
o PH 7.37; PaCO2 42 mmHg; HCO3 24 mEq/L; PaO2 90 mmHg
56. . What happens to a client with polycythemia?
o Deficient plasma in the blood
o Increased lymphatic fluid being produced
o Increased red blood cells being produced

57. . What condition can be caused by excessive amount of growth hormone (GH)released by
the pituitary gland in childhood before epiphyseal plates of the long bones have.
o Acromegaly
o Gigantism
o Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
o Dwarfism
58. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?
o Reversible with cognitive therapy with the infant client
o Transient and resolves in adulthood from physical therapy
o Manifested as an adult after normal childhood activities
o Irreversible and occurs before, during or after birth or infancy
59. What is reperfusion injury?
o Healing bone tissue after fracture
o Skin wound tunneling and shear

o Secondary injury after reestablishing blood flow
o Injury after blood transfusion
60. . Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following?
o Magnesium
o Sodium
o Chloride
o Bicarbonate
61. Which of the following stores electrolytes and acts as an electrolyte pool?
o Brain - Kidneys
o Bone - Nails

62. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
o Decreased insulin production
o Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production
o increased secretion of antidiuretic home (ADH)
o Increased production of insulin
63. . What causes secondary brain injury after head trauma?
o Brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage
o Brain injury resulting from initial trauma
o Injury as a result of medical therapy
o Focal areas of bleeding
64. Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis?
o Vascular spasm
o Platelet plug
o Coagulation
o Dissolving of the clot

65. What is the treatment for clients with hemophilia A?
o Chemotherapy
o Factor VIII replacement
o Heparin administration
o Bone marrow transplant
66. . Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension?
o The bladder and urethra
o The brain and skin
o The heart and kidneys
o The stomach and intestines
67.(a) What is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease noted on
histologic exam? Need to know
o Reed-Sternberg cells
o Red-stained cells
o Human Papillomavirus

o B-cells and T-cells
(b) A client has Reed-Sternberg cells noted on a lab histologic study.
What condition presents in this manner?
o Chronic myeloid leukemia
o Infectious mononucleosis
o Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
o Hodgkin’s lymphoma
68. Which of the following described what is occurring in the body of clients experiencing
hypovolemia?
o Increased urine retention
o Insufficient circulating blood volume
o Bounding peripheral pulses

69. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?
o pulmonary edema
o Peripheral edema
70. . What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function?
o The ability to perform complex mathematics
o The lack of cerebrospinal fluid production
o Intact cranial nerve functions
71. Which of the following is NOT an example of clinical manifestations of
leukemia and lymphoma?
o Fatigue
o Increased risk bleeding
o Increased risk of infections
o Increased energy and strength

72. Right sided heart failure is characterized by:
o Immunosuppression
o Pulmonary edema
o Peripheral edema
o Coughing
73. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and/or chest tube placement as
treatment to which component of the pathophysiology of the condition?
o An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the
lungs to exchange gases.
o Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib
o A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space affecting both the lungs
and heart,
o Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli

74. what typically causes contact dermatitis
o Fungal infection
o Long term disorder from gout
o Contact with a skin allergen
o Staphylococcal infection
75. Which of the following are clinical manifestation of left sided heart failure? (Select
all that apply)
o Shortness of breath
o Peripheral edema
o Cough with frothy sputum
76. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?
o High sugar, low-fat diet
o Increased physical activity
o Tobacco use

o Low fat diet
77. what causes atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body
o Poor dietary modification
o Administration of statin medication
o Injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries
78. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
(DIC)?
o Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
o Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
o Simultaneous clotting and insulin release
o Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting
79. . What of the following best describes sepsis?
o An overwhelming allergic reaction
o Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen ‘s endotoxins

o Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
o Poor nursing and health care provider interventions
80. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect
to find?
o Alkalosis and hyperventilation
o Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
o Alkalosis and high potassium
o Elevated sodium and acidosis
81. . What is the process of moving air into the lungs with subsequent distribution to
the alveoli called?
o Ventilation
o Aeration
o Enclosure vapor
o Residual volume

82. Which of the following can lead to impaired neurological function in clients with
increased intracranial pressure? (Select all that apply)
o Decreased perfusion of the brain tissue
o The ability of the tissue to autoregulate the pressure
o Inflammation of the brain
o Compression of the brain
o Increased tissue oxygenation
83. Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain
homeostasis?
o Antidiuretic hormones (ADH)
o Insulin
o Glucagon
o Thyroxine
84. A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities.
Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding?
o Contraindication

o Sign
o Symptom
o Subjective data
85. Which of the following is a cause of edema?
o Decreased plasma proteins
o Hypotension
o Dehydration
o Polyuria
86. Which clients are at highest for pneumonia?
o Those in their 20s and 0s and generally health
o Those who exercise regular and not exposed to pathogens
o Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised
o Those who have adequate respiratory function

87. Which of the following is found in clients with Parkinson’s diseases?
o Mobility and functioning
o The liver and kidneys
o Too much dopamine in the brain
o Skeletal muscle flaccidity
88. What causes osteoporosis?
o Poor nutrition in infancy
o Regularly weight bearing exercise
o Bone loss, frequently during aging
o Cerebral palsy and associated disorders
89.(52) What is the best way to prevent transmission of infection agents?
o Take antibiotics daily
o Call the practitioner for herbal supplements
o Wash hands
o Avoid public areas as much as possible

90. Helicobacter pylori (h. pylori) often causes which of the following?
o Colon cancer
o Hiatal hernia
o Peptic ulcer disease
o Esophageal varices
91. (a)Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with
thrombocytopenia?
o A decreased platelet cell count
o Increased red blood cell count
o An increased platelet cell count
(b) Thrombocytopenia is which disorder below?
o Increased blood coagulation
o Increased platelet production
o Increased number of infections

o Decreased platelet production
92. Disturbance in which of the following would cause a client to experience a gout?
o Serotonin receptors
o Uric acid metabolism
o Liver function
o Cardiac function
93. which of the following can occur with clients who have hyponatremia?
o The loss of more water than salt
o A gain of more salt than water
o Manifested by thirst
o Potentially fatal due to swelling in the brain
94. Which of the following describes passive immunity?
o Vaccination against the disease
o Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby

o Cuts or wounds which are infected and heal
o Having the disease in question
95. Which of the following properties are found in clients with metastatic cancer?
o Tumors that are well encapsulated
o Tumors with slow, stable growth
o Cells that are genetically stable
o Cells invading local tissue and overrunning neighboring cells
96. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?
o Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
o Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
o Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
o Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
97. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain,
fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating

the abdomen, the client displays .. tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to
be experiencing?
o Pseudomembranous colitis
o Peptic ulcer diseases
o Appendicitis
o Esophageal cancer
98. What physiological reaction happens to the body with the “Fight or flight” response?
o Increased heart rate
o Constricted pupils
99. When a client has their “fight or flight” system activated, which below is a manifestation of
that?
o Decreased respiration rate

o Increased glucose levels
100. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?
o Tachycardia
o Constipation
o Weight gain
o fatigue
101. What is the pathophysiology of type I diabetes
o Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
o Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to
produce insulin
o Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
o A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone
production

102. What are the major mechanisms of the spinal cord injuries?
o Hypoextension, expansion, hyperflexion
o Hyperflexion, expansion, hypometabolism
o Hypermetabolism, compression, hyperextension
o Hyperextension, hyperflexion, compression
103. (a) Virchow’s triad includes which of the following factors
(select all that apply.)
o Increased blood coagulability
o Damage to the arterial wall
o Venous blood hypermobility
o Damage to the venous wall
o Venous blood statis
(b) What are the components of Virchow’s triad, which can lead the client to form blood
clots?

o Venous stasis, hypercoagulability
o Vessel wall injury, hypocoagulability
o Vessel wall injury, venous motility
o Venous motility, hypercoagulability
104. Signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include
which of the following?????
o Persistent chest pain which may radiate to the arm
o Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration
o Rapid respirations with left sided weakness and numbness
o Left upper quadrant abdominal pain which radiates to the back and shoulder
105. what is the phase of acute kidney injury that results in a decrease in
urine output?
o Oliguric phase
o Diuresis phase
o Prodromal/asymptomatic phase

o Recovery phase
106. Which of the following clinical findings would be present in clients
experiencing shock? (Select all that apply)
o Hypertension
o Increased mental clarity
o Hypotension
o Tachycardia
70 Which of the following conditions results from excessive immune response?
o Rheumatoid arthritis
o Chronic renal failure
o Type II diabetes
o Onychomycosis

71 A client is bleeding. Platelets within the bloodstream begin aggregating to prevent further
blood loss. This is one of the first steps of which of the following processes?
o Hemokinetics
o Homeokinetics
o Hemostasis
o Homeostasis
72 Which of the following is used to classify seizures?
o Clinical symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG)
o Electroencephalogram (EEG) and electrocardiogram (ECG)
o Clinical symptoms and completer blood count (CBC)
o Clinical symptoms and electroencephalogram (EEF)
73 Hemophilia patients have severe pain in their:
o joints
o head
o abdomen

o chest
74 The client with human papillomavirus is at risk for which?
o Lung cancer
o Pancreatic cancer
o Stomach cancer
o Cervical cancer
75 How does unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris?
o Unstable angina pectoris can only be diagnosed by changes in cardiac
biomarkers
o Unstable angina pectoris manifests in electrocardiogram (ECG) changes only
o Unstable angina pectoris is not relived by periods of rest
o Unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina
76 What is the goal for treating sepsis?
o To identify the cause and treat
o Offer antibiotics if the client asks

o Restore cognitive functioning
o Restore kidney functioning
77 If a patient complains of dizziness, which term below best describes this felling?
o Contraindication
o Sign
o Objective data
o Symptom
78 Which of the following hormones do the kidney secrete to increase red blood cell
production?
o Erythropoietin
o Insulin and glycogen
o Testosterone
o Thyroid stimulating hormone

79 Which of the following causes hepatic encephalopathy?
o A brain infection
o Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
o Decreased albumin blood levels
o Untreated chronic bronchitis
80 What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in client who is experiencing
anaphylaxis?
o Dilated bronchioles constriction of peripheral blood vessels, decreased
capillary permeability
o Asthma, deep vein thrombosis, hepatic encephalopathy
o Narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels,
increased capillary permeability
o Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection
81 Which of the following is often the cause of a pulmonary embolism?
o An autoimmune disorder
o A venous blood clot from lower extremity

o An increase in intracranial pressure
o Hypotension
82 What symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD)?
o Dyspnea on exertion
o Normal lung sounds
o Normal arterial blood gases
o Onset of the disease during young adulthood
83 Which of the following describes the type of incontinence due to an increase in
intraabdominal pressure such as coughing, sneezing, and laughing?
o Overflow
o Stress
o Mixed
o Functional

84 When arterial blood pressure declines, the kidneys secrete a hormone to increase blood
pressure and peripheral resistance. What is this hormone called?
o Renin
o Atrial natriuretic
o Insulin
85 Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining?
o Incontinence
o Pyelonephritis
o Urinary calculi
o Cystic
70. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
o A blow to the head from a hard object
o Lack of blood flow to part of the brain
o Excessive exercise, such as running
o A raptured artery in the heart

96. Determine the following arterial blood gas results:
PH = 7.30; PaCO2=55 mmHg; HCO3=24 mEq/L
o Respiratory acidosis
o Metabolic acidosis
o Respiratory alkalosis
o Metabolic alkalosis
97. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?
o Hemorrhage
o Pain and tissue damage
o Increased limp function
o Chronic kidney disease
98. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in a client experiencing
hypoventilation?
o Increased oxygenation in the alveoli
o Increased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream

o Decreased hemoglobin in the bloodstream
o Decreased carbon dioxide in the alveoli
99. increased calcium levels in the blood could be due to an imbalance of which of the following
hormones?
o Parathyroid hormone
o Calcitonin
o Melatonin
100. Which of the following leads to the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with
emphysema?
o Peripheral edema
o Bacterial infections in the lungs
o Air trapping in the alveoli
o Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm
101. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise- induced
asthma?

o Bronchospasm after exercise
o IgE-mediated inflammatory response to antigen
o Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods
o Increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation
102. How does influenza immunization produce immunity?
o The virus from the vaccine remains in the body until the end of the season
o An attenuated virus caused immune system suppression & causes the body to be
immune
o The body identifies the virus and develops antibodies against the virus
o The vaccine stays in the injection site and produce immune cells
103. The condition of leukemia involves which of the following?
o A benign growth of skin cells
o A malignant growth of skin cells
o A malignant growth of white blood cells
o A benign growth of white blood cells

104. Peritonitis is a condition which can result in serious complications.
Identify one of the
o complications
o increased peristalsis
o dizziness and malaise
o sepsis and shock
o nausea and vomiting
105. What part of the heart is responsible for starting the electrical impulse to
conduct a heart rhythm and contraction of the atria and ventricle?
o The Purkinje fibers in the ventricles
o The right & left bundle branches
o The atrioventricular node
o The sinoatrial node in the atrium
106. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?
o Chest pain; cough

o Diarrhea; wheezing
o Wheezing; dyspnea
o Tachypnea; constipation
107. Polycythemia Vera is due to excess red blood cells and results in what condition
o Tissue ischemia & necrosis
o Chronic pancreatitis
o Low blood pressure & hear rate
o Increased numbers of infections
108. What lab results would be noted in a client with leukocytosis?
o Increased white blood cells count
o Increased platelet cell count
o Decreased platelet cell count

109. What is common factor related to all forms of heart failure?
o Peripheral edema
o Pulmonary edema
o Jugular vein distention
110. What is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
o Anaphylaxis
o Indigestion
o Beta cell destruction
o ABO transfusion reaction
111. A client sustained a concussion and experiences headache, vomiting, blurred vision
and loss of consciousness. If the client has these symptoms, what does this indicate?
o Increased intracranial pressure
o Lower extremity compartment syndrome

o Consuming too much food at once
o Improved kidney function
112. What are the characteristics of the inflammatory process?
o Loss of function, coolness
o Pain, redness
o Heat, pallor
o Swelling, pallor
113. Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to which causes?
o Injury to the coronary artery endothelium
o Administration of statin medications
o Poor dietary modifications made
114. Hematopoiesis occurs primarily in the bone marrow. What cells are formed during
this process?
o Pancreatic beta cells
o Red blood cells

o Gastric parietal cells
o Neurons and glial cells
115. The best method to identity which type of stroke the client has is to do which below?
o Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram STAT
o Obtain a blood specimen for electrolytes and blood cultures
o Ask the client about current allergies
o Obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT
116. Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?
o Electroencephalogram (EEG) and ECG
o Seizure symptoms and complete blood count (CBC)
o Seizure symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG)
o Seizure symptoms and EEG

117. What function does aldosterone serve in the body?
o Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, decreases fluid volume, and
decreases blood pressure
o Aldosterone causes a retention of sodium in the body, increase fluid volume, and
increases blood pressure
o Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, increase fluid volume, and
decreased blood pressure.
o Aldosterone enhances intracellular sodium production and lower blood pressure
118. Cushing syndrome is characterized by which disorder?
o Hypocortisolism
o Exophthalamos
o Hypercotisolism
o Hyperpigmentation
119. The image below is representative of emphysema. What features result in
impaired oxygenation?

o The bronchioles are inflamed and filled with mucus
o The alveoli have lost surfactant and collapse
o Enlarged, permanently inflated alveoli
o The accumulation of purulent fluid in the bronchioles
120. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.
o Allergies and onychomycosis
o Type II diabetes and smallpox
o Chronic renal failure and macular degeneration
o Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis

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