2017 PAST QUESTIONS

DIPLOMA IN COMMUNITY HEALTH

COMMUNITY HEALTH EXTENSION WORKERS (CHEW)
PAPER I
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)
1. One of the following is not an acceptable behavior a professional should
have:
a. Generally positive attitude towards work with a cheerful personality
b. Genuine desire to help people
c. Should offer explanation to patients on charges for services in an honest
manner
d. Flare up with patients
2. NACHPN means:
a. National Association of Community Health Practitioners of Nigeria
b. National Association of Country Health Practitioners of Nigeria
c. National Association of Community Health Practice of the Nigeria
d. National Association of Concurred Health Practitioners of Nigeria
3. Which of the following is not a code of conduct of community health
practitioner:
a. Set a high standard
b. Use of standing orders
c. Knowing your colleague
d. Maintaining two way referral system
4. One of the following is not types of marriage:
a. Ghost marriage
b. Levirate marriage
c. Bigamy marriage
d. Social marriage
5. A person who always does not conform with the norms of the society is
called:
a. Uncompromising
b. Deviant
c. Extrovert
d. Aggressive person

1
 6. One of the following is not a form of defense mechanism:
a. Denial
b. Protection
c. Institution
d. Regression
7. Person who send message is known as:
a. Decoder
b. Encoder
c. Receiver
d. Messenger
8. One of the following is not an advantage of teaching aids:
a. Arouse interest
b. Welcoming of the participants
c. Helps teacher to make his point clear
d. Helps the teacher to consolidate his point
9. One of these is not a barrier of effective communication:
a. Personality
b. Poor listening
c. Poor planning
d. Adequate knowledge
10. A principle of health education is not:
a. Accountability
b. Clarity
c. Adaptability
d. Simplicity
11. One of the following is not educational technology used in communication:
a. Flannel graph
b. Tapes
c. Tele conference
d. Simulation
12. Which of the following constitute a positive development in the Nigeria
health system since 1985:
a. Making PHC pivot of National health policy
b. Preventive care
c. Curative care

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 d. infrastructural development
13. One of the following is an advantage of team work in health care delivery:
a. It is difficult to operate
b. It create a vacuum
c. Personality difference among members of the team
d. Promotes effective health care
14. Which of these is not a factor affecting health of Nigerians:
a. Environmental factors
b. Social factors
c. Cultural factors
d. Professional factors
15. Clinic function of CHEW does not include:
a. Spending 70% of time in clinic attending to patients
b. Carryout day to day clinic administration with CHO
c. Collect and collate monitoring and evaluation data
d. Provide integrated PHC services
16. One of these is not a component of PHC:
a. Maternal and health care
b. Exclusive breast feeding
c. Treatment of minor diseases and injuries
d. Provision of essential drugs
17. Conflict model means:
a. Having professional wrangling
b. A system that works competitively to produce justice
c. Working together
d. Conflict resolution
18. All are steps in conducting community diagnosis except:
a. Entry into the community through LGA
b. Identify the boundaries of the community
c. Make sketch map of the community
d. Make unimportant notes of community landmark
19. steps in planning for situation analysis include the following except:
a. Contacting the development committee

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 b. Obtaining men, materials and instruments to be used
c. Excluding members of the community in planning
d. Arranging logistics for interviewers
20. Community involvement means:
a. Identifying the demographic pattern of the community
b. Community participation in planning and implementation of programme
c. Indentify social, economic and environmental factors in a community
d. Indentify work done by the community
21. Pharmaco-vigilance is also known as:
a. Drug interaction
b. Drug safety
c. Drug composition
d. Drug allergy
22. One of the following is not classified according to function:
a. Antimalarial
b. Antibiotics
c. Capsule
d. Antiemetic
23. All are sources of drugs except:
a. Right time
b. Right dosage
c. Right patient
d. Right cost
24. One of the following is an step in setting drug revolving fund (DRF):
a. Provide accountability in drug management
b. Identify sources of fund initial seed stock
c. Reduce self-medication
d. Facilitates the availability of essential drugs
25. One of the following is not a reason for requisition of essential drugs:
a. Number of clinics in the area
b. Pattern of prevalent diseases
c. Financial resources
d. Demographic profile
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26. In PHC essential drugs are:
a. Expensive drugs
b. Drugs given in adequate dosage
c. Drugs used in the treatment of rare diseases
d. Drugs that was indispensable for health care needs of the majority
27. All are reasons of establishing essential drug list except:
a. Drug wastage
b. Drug abuse
c. National drug policy
d. High cost of health care
28. The referral of patient from primary to higher level is said to be complete
when:
a. The patient fully recovered
b. The patient dies
c. There is feedback
d. The patient partially recovered
29. The purpose of two way referral is to:
a. Make for good flow of patient
b. Ensure continuity of care
c. Make supervision easy and fair
d. Explain to the patient how to take drugs

5
 2017 PAST QUESTIONS
DIPLOMA IN COMMUNITY HEALTH
COMMUNITY HEALTH EXTENSION WORKERS (CHEW)
PAPER I
SECTION B: EASY QUESTIONS
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1.
a. State four (4) ways in which you as a community health practitioner can
relate effectively with members of the community
b. Enumerate six (6) rights of a practicing health practitioner
c. State five (5) ways of maintain cordial relationship between the
patient/client as a community health practitioner
d. State five (5) general work ethic of a community health practitioner
2.
a. List five (5) qualities of a good poster
b. State five (5) verbal and five (5) non-verbal types of communication
c. State five (5) objectives of communication
3. State five (5) aims of primary health care (PHC)
4.
a. State six (6) socio-cultural behaviour that influence the health of the
comm.
b. Write short note on:
i. Coping mechanism
ii. Forgetting
iii. Self concept
iv. Attitudes
v. Memory
c. Write short note on:
i. Primary health care (PHC)
ii. Quality assurance
iii. Cost recovery
iv. Down-up approach
v. Use of appropriate technology
d. State five (5) reasons why integrated service delivery is difficult or may
fail

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 e. Discuss any tow (2) types of memory
5.
a. Explain the term situation analysis
b. Enumerate six (6) rationale of situation analysis
c. State six (6) roles of community diagnosis in PHC
d. Define advocacy
e. Explain the rationale for advocacy in PHC
6.
a. Discuss the drug misoprostol under the following headings:
i. Two indications for use
ii. Two contra-indications
iii. Two side effects
b. State four (4) reasons for drug-drug interactions
c. Write short notes on self-medication using the following:
i. Definition
ii. Two drugs that are abused
iii. Two preventive measures
d. State four (4) steps in quantification of drugs
7.
a. Enumerate eight (8) reasons for referral
b. Outline six (6) rationales for outreach mobile services
c. As CHEW working in Karu Health centre, state six (6) activities you will
carry on planning outreach services

7
 2017 PAST QUESTIONS
DIPLOMA IN COMMUNITY HEALTH
COMMUNITY HEALTH EXTENSION WORKERS (CHEW)
PAPER II
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1. Nutrient that does not protect against anemia is:
a. Iron
b. Meat
c. Yam
d. Egg
2. Amino acids are produced as a result of the breakdown of:
a. Vitamins
b. Sugar
c. Proteins
d. Fat
3. One of the following is not a format in using standing orders:
a. Complaints, examination, clinical judgement and action
b. Action, complaints, examination and clinical judgement
c. Examination, clinical judgement, action and complaints
d. Clinical judgement, examination, complaints and action
4. The normal body temperature in 0F is:
a. 98.6 0F
b. 96.8 0F
c. 86.9 0F
d. 89.6 0F
5. Touching to feel for an organ in a patient is referred to as:
a. Auscultation
b. Percussion
c. Inspection
d. Palpation
6. Open multi-dose vial policy has the following conditions except:

8
 a. The expiry data has not passed
b. The vaccine is not contaminated
c. There are too many patients
d. The vial have been stored under appropriate cold chain condition
7. Blood is not made up of:
a. Leucocytes
b. Osteocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
8. The internal environment of the body is control by:
a. Homeostasis
b. Negative feed-back mechanism
c. Temperature regulation
d. Positive feedback
9. The lining of the heart muscles are named from inside to outside as:
a. Myocardium, pericardium, endocardium
b. Pericardium, myocardium, endocardium
c. Endocardium, pericardium, myocardium
10. The total number of vertebral in human is:
a. 29
b. 33
c. 60
d. 81
11. The power house of the cell is:
a. Nucleus
b. Cellucose
c. Mitochondria
d. Chloroplast
12. Of microorganism is not:
a. Photosynthesis
b. Breaking down waste
c. Independent existence
d. Inspecting other organism
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13. One of the following is not a types of media commonly used to culture
microorganism:
a. Food agent
b. Nutrient broth
c. Nutrient agent
d. Blood agent
14. Contusion is another name for:
a. Abrasion
b. Incised wound
c. Bruises
d. Laceration
15. Normal pulse rate of new born baby is about:
a. 60 beats per minute
b. 120 beats per minute
c. 90 beats per minute
d. 80 beats per minute
16. The site for assessing the nutritional status of a child with stratus step is:
a. Mid-lower arm circumference
b. Mid fermium circumference
c. Mid-upper arm circumference
d. Mid arm circumference
17. Urine specimen to be used in the laboratory for test are obtain from the
following so except:
a. Terminal urine
b. Mid-night urine
c. First carly morning urine
18. One of the following is not on-the job training method:
a. Internship
b. In-service training
c. Meeting
d. Job rotation
19. One of these is not a reason for conducting human resource training
programme:
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 a. To ensure job satisfaction
b. To promote staff development
c. To update knowledge and skills of health worker
d. To encourage truancy among staff
20. Management is defined as:
a. Getting things done with people
b. Getting things done by delegation
c. Getting things done with resources
d. Getting things done with people through effective use of resources
21. The aspect of management which is concerned with comparing
achievement with objective is:
a. Evaluation
b. Programming
c. Decision making
d. Monitoring
22. The purpose of supervision is:
a. Operating simple accounting system
b. Resource allocation
c. To ensure achievement of objectives
d. Developing health plans
23. Delegation means:
a. Pushing all the work to a competent person
b. Assigning responsibility to a subordinate
c. Doing less at work and directing others to do more
d. Selecting a person you like and assign responsibilities
24. The book of original entry in account include the following except:
a. Sales book
b. Purchase book
c. Cash book
d. Store ledger
25. All are fixed assets except:
a. Fixture and fittings
b. Building
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 c. Plants and machine
d. Goods
26. Health indicators are grouped under the following subheading except:
a. Health policy indicators
b. Political and geographical indicators
c. Health status indicators
d. Social and economic indicators
27. All are levels of data collection in National Health Management Information
System (NHMIS) at PHC except:
a. Home level
b. Community level health facility level
c. Hospital level
28. In statistics range is defined as this:
a. Average of two numbers
b. Difference between two numbers
c. Difference between the highest and the lowest score
d. Commonest numbers
29. Which of the following is not the function of the skin:
a. Secretion of sebum
b. Protection against harmful stressors
c. Help in the formation of vitamin E when exposed to sunlight
d. Act as the sense organ of touch
30. The orgah that help us to maintain balance is located at the:
a. Skin
b. Eye
c. Ear
d. Lags

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 2017 PAST QUESTIONS
DIPLOMA IN COMMUNITY HEALTH
COMMUNITY HEALTH EXTENSION WORKERS (CHEW)
PAPER II
SECTION B: EASY QUESTIONS
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1.
a. As a CHEW that encourages patients to drink water, enumerate eight (8)
function of water
b. State six (6) factors affecting nutritional status of a community
c. Briefly explain six (6) preventive measure of nutritional problems of a
community
2.
a. A child aged 4 years was brought to your clinic with complain of falling
down from a height with pains and swelling. On examination, there is
pain, lendown and swelling and inability to move the limb. Manage the
condition with the standing order.
b. Enumerate four (4) characteristics of the normal pulse which should be
noted by the health worker
c. Mention six (6) reactions associated with injections administration
3.
a. Define the following:
i. Cold chain
ii. Herd immunity
iii. Immunization
b. State eight (8) factors to consider when storing vaccines
c. Enumerate four (4) ways of acquiring immunity
d. State five (5) factors that influence immunity
4.
a. Outline six (6) functions of a bone
b. State six (6) stages of healing mechanism of a broken bone
c. Enumerate four (4) diseases of the digestive system

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 d. List four (4) diseases of the circulatory system
5.
a. Enumerate ten (10) laboratory safety rules
b. Explain the term
i. Disinfection
ii. Sterilization
c. Mention six (6) intestinal parasite that may be fund in a stool specimen
6.
a. Enumerate four (4) ways to identify training VVHWs and TBA in your
area of assignment
b. State four (4) advantage of the job-training during supervisory visits
c. State six (6) attributes of a leader
d. Identify six (6) causes of job dissatisfaction in an organization
7.
a. Enumerate eight (8) effects of improper budgeting in primary health
care
b. Mention seven (7) objectives of health management information system
c. State the formula of the following:
i. Fertility rate
ii. Neonatal mortality rate
iii. Still birth rate
iv. Prevalence rate
v. Case fatality rate

14
 2017 PAST QUESTIONS
DIPLOMA IN COMMUNITY HEALTH
COMMUNITY HEALTH EXTENSION WORKERS (CHEW)
PAPER III
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1. The component of environmental health as outlined by the World Health
Organization (WHO) does not include:
a. Vector and pest control
b. Food hygiene and safety
c. Improved medical services
d. Adequate water supply and basic sanitation
2. Physical hazard consists of:
a. Bacteria fungi and virus
b. Heat, light and sound
c. Plants and animals
d. Reagents, elements pesticides
3. The elements of reproductive health does not include:
a. Safe motherhood including breastfeeding
b. Adolescent reproductive health
c. Healthy sexual development
d. Prevention and management of abortion
4. The following are the tests that could be performed on an expectant
mother at the ante natal clinic except:
a. Blood pressure measurement
b. Cancer screening test
c. Weighing
d. Palpation
5. Which of the following female reproductive organ is not affected during
female genital mutilation:
a. Labia majora
b. Labia minora

15
 c. Clitoris
d. Cervix
6. One of these is sued for the control of pre-eclampsia in pregnant women:
a. Magnesium sulphate
b. Magnesium sulphite
c. Magnesium choride
d. Magnesium fluoride
7. The signs and symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum include the following
except:
a. Ante partum haemorrhage
b. The urine is dark
c. The eyes are dull and sunken
d. The breath is offensive and smells acetone
8. One of these is not likely to benefit from family planning services:
a. Women over 30 years of age
b. Post-menopausal women
c. Women under 20 years of age
d. Women age 13 – 50 years
9. All are disease of the oral cavity except:
a. Cleft palate
b. Periodontitis
c. Dental caries
d. Calculus
10. At birth a baby is said to be under-weight if his/her weight is below:
a. 2.5 kg
b. 3.5 kg
c. 2.0 kg
d. 3.0 kg
11. Swelling at the scalp of a new born baby is known as:
a. Caput heamatoma
b. Caput succedaneum
c. Cephalic heamatoma
d. Cephalic succedaneum
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12. The following factors may influence the development of a child except:
a. Hereditary
b. Environment
c. Obstetric care during labour and delivery
d. Post-partum haemorrhage
13. The occupational disease commonly seen among textile company workers
is:
a. Asbestosis
b. Byssinosis
c. Silicosis
d. Bagasosis
14. One of these is not a preventive measure against occupational hazard:
a. Use of protective devices
b. Pre-employment medical examination
c. Removing those that are affected with a disease
d. Regular medical check-up
15. Aimless wandering, hoarding of rubbish, are symptoms of one of the
following:
a. Simple schizophrenia
b. Catatonic schizophrenia
c. Paranoid schizophrenia
d. Pseudo neurotic schizophrenia
16. On the following drugs is not used for the treatment of mental disorder:
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Promethazine
c. Haloperidol
d. Diazepam
17. Objectives of school health programme does not include:
a. Continuing appraisal of each child’s health status
b. Counselling of pupils, their parents and teachers
c. Simple laboratory investigation
d. Detection and correction of all defects and disorders
18. The following are the element of school health services except:
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 a. Medical inspection of school children
b. Screening for defects of hearing and sight
c. Nutrition
d. Sporting activities
19. Common health problem/challenges of the school child does not includes:
a. Tuberculosis
b. Ringworm
c. Scabies
d. Tinea capitis
20. A good food vendor must possess the following qualities except:
a. Neatness
b. Free from any disease
c. Knowledgeable on food combination and preparation
d. Must have children in the school
21. Leprosy is an infectious disease caused by:
a. Viruses
b. Bacilli
c. Rakettisia
d. Protozoa
22. The characteristics of non-communicable disease include the following
except:
a. The disease commonly affect the rich
b. The cause is idiopathic
c. The disease develop slowly over a period of years
d. They can be controlled or treated is detected in early stage
23. The reason for first aid is not:
a. To prevent minor illness from becoming major
b. To preserve the life of the patient
c. To complicate the condition
d. To immobilize the affected patient
24. The following are emergency situation that needs prompt attention except:
a. Acute abdomen
b. Severe haemorrhage
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 c. Asphyxia
d. Blurred vision
25. The study of ear, nose and throat is known as:
a. Rhinology
b. Neurology
c. Otology
d. Otolaryngology
26. Prevention and control of ear, nose and throat problems could best be
done by all the following except:
a. History taking
b. Treatment of ear problem promptly
c. Physical examination
d. Health education
27. Opthalmia Neonatorum cannot be prevented by:
a. Proper antenatal care
b. Immunization
c. Improved personal hygiene
d. Prompt treatment of sexually transmitted diseases
28. The following factors are suspected to be responsible for cataract except:
a. Ageing
b. Congenital
c. Long term treatment with corticosteroids
d. Frequent use of sun glasses
29. The services available to the aged are the following except:
a. Good neighbourhood schemes
b. Early payment of pensions and gratuities
c. Vigorous sporting activities
d. Home visiting
30. One of these is a characteristics of mentally retarded person except:
a. Lack of abstract thinking
b. Slow speed of learning
c. Lack of muscular co-ordination
d. Takes alcohol frequently
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 2017 PAST QUESTIONS
DIPLOMA IN COMMUNITY HEALTH
COMMUNITY HEALTH EXTENSION WORKERS (CHEW)
PAPER III
SECTION B: EASY QUESTIONS
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1.
a. Mention six (6) effect of poor housing in your locality
b. Enumerate six (6) characteristics of a sanitary well
c. State eight causes of industrial accident
2.
a. State four (4) cause of breech presentation
b. In a tabular form differentiate between True and False labour
c. State four (4) ways by which maternal mortality can be reduced in the
community
d. Enumerate six (6) advantages of oral contraceptive pills
3.
a. Define gingivitis
b. Enumerate two (2) cause of gingivitis
c. State five (5) preventive measures of gingivitis
d. Briefly explain the process of selecting the school food vendor under
these headings
i. six (6) physical assessment and investigation
ii. six (6) areas of home assessment of food vendor
4.
a. Define APGAR score
b. Enumerate the conditions to be considered in scoring child APGAR score
c. Outline four (4) advantages of integrated management of childhood
illness (IMCI)
d. Enumerate five (5) objectives of bandaging
e. State five (5) preventive measures of poisoning
5.

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 a. Discus cerebrospinal meningitis using the following heading
i. Definition
ii. Causative agent
iii. Mode of treatment
iv. Signs and symptoms
v. Preventive measures
b. Enumerate seven (7) risk factors associated with coronary Heart disease
6.
a. List six (6) objectives of community eye care
b. State four (4) preventive measure of eye problems
c. Enumerate five (5) causes of ear pain
d. State five (5) sign and symptoms of sinusitis
7.
a. State six (6) social problems of the aged
b. State three (3) causes of deafness that can occur during the delivery of
the baby
c. Enumerate three (3) causes of deafness occurring after birth of a baby
d. Mention eight (8) characteristics of a deaf child

21
 2017 PAST QUESTIONS
DIPLOMA IN COMMUNITY HEALTH
COMMUNITY HEALTH EXTENSION WORKERS (CHEW)
PAPER I
SECTION B: MODEL ANSWER
1.
a. way by which community health practitioner can relate effectively with
member of the community:
i. Listen, learn and understand the members of the community
ii. Talk, discuss and decide with the members of the community
iii. Encourage, organize members of the community to participate,
encourage them to take up health behaviors and habits
iv. Be involved and actively participate in the community development
activities
b. Right of a practicing health practitioner are:
i. Practicing in accordance with the scope, which is legally permissible
for specific practice
ii. Proper orientation and goal-directed in-service education in respect
of the modes and methods of treatment and procedure relevant to
her working situation
iii. Negotiation with the employer for such continuing professional
education
iv. Advocacy for protection of patients and personnel for whom he/she
has accepted responsibility
v. Equal and full participation in such policy determination, planning
and decision making as may concern the treatment and care of the
patient
vi. A safe working environment, which is equipped with at least
minimum physical, materials and personal requirement
vii. Refusing to carry out a task reasonably regarded as outside the scope
of his/her practice and for which he/she has insufficient training or
for which he/she has insufficient knowledge or skill

22
 viii. Withholding participation in unethical practice
ix. Obtaining written policy guideline and prescriptions concerning the
management of his/her working environment
x. Refusing to implement a prescription or to participate in activities,
which according to his/her professional knowledge and judgment,
are not in the interest of the patient
xi. Disclosure to his/her the diagnosis of patients for whom he/she
accepts responsibility
xii. A working environment, which is free of threats, intimidation or
interference
xiii. A medical support or referral system to handle emergency situations
effectively
xiv. A manageable workload so that adequate standards of health care
can be maintained
xv. Wages commensurate to health service rendered
c. Five ways of maintaining cordial relationship between the patient/client
i. Respect a client/patient irrespective of his/her rank, religion, culture,
severity of the condition
ii. Use professional skill and the standing orders as a guide to manage
the clients
iii. Maintain absolute confidentiality on information concerning the
client/patient, which has been reveal to him/her
iv. Provide adequate client/patient care regardless social status, age,
and ethnicity
v. Share information concerning client using critical judgment
vi. Be honest in personal and professional activities of the clients
vii. Be an adviser to the instead of a decision maker
viii. Give quality care to the client
ix. Explain all procedures to be carried out on the client and make sure
he understands and give consent
x. Be aware of the dangers of each procedure to be carried out on a
client and prepare for treatment
xi. Where necessary, refer immediately. And not to delay
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d. General work ethics of community health practitioner:
i. Act with sense of maturity: person and professional skills contribute
to the achievement of maturity. Maturity is an achievement which is
not dependent on age but on several aspects of personality of many
skills such as the practice of positive habits, attitudes and skills
contribute to maturity.
ii. Develop the sense of self-motivation: have the willingness to learn
new ideas duties and procedures, especially a willingness to learn
about the communities; being served by the health facility. Being
alert when in the health facility and in the community enables the
health practitioner to observe and understand problems that need to
be solved and to anticipate the client/patient’s or community needs.
iii. Be accurate in all activities: an error in health practice even when
minor could have a lasting effect on the individual, family or the
community. All data, information education, introduction of health
activities and programmes, should be as accurate as humanly
possible.
iv. Practice thoroughness: provide a careful and complete attention to
all details of all information and health activities provided. This
involves the ability to: listen attentively, take ample notes and pay
attention to the who, when, why, where and how answer and verify
information given to you buy the client/patient and/or by the
relation.
v. Practice dependability: that is involve other specialists in health
practice and communicates willingly to work as a team member. The
dependable health practitioner: ask questions and repeats
instruction to avoid mistakes, ask for assistance with unfamiliar tasks
from other colleagues and health practitioners and take complete
data.
vi. Be flexible: that is respond calmly to even last minutes activities,
avoid being under pressure and handle complex situations with calm,
develop the ability, implement new ideas, and good suggestions with
confidence are mark of flexibility.
24
vii. Have good judgement: us the knowledge, experience and logic to
assess all aspect of a situation; to ensure for a sound decision. It
inspire the confidence of client/patients and members of the
community.

25