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Quantitative
Aptitude
Quantitative Aptitude
Aptitude
Quantitative Aptitude forms an integral part for aspirants preparing for any competitive examination. This
edition of Quantitative Apptitude For Competitive Examinations has been conceptualized for the aspirants
aiming for Bank, LIC, Railways, SSC and similar government vacancy examinations.
Each chapter of the book provides lucid, explicit and concise definitions and explanations of the basic
principles, which are well-supported with the fully–solved examples for better understanding of the aspirants.
The book comprises variety of problems followed by apt solutions along with previous years’ questions from
various competitive examinations. The huge repository of problems will enable aspirants to understand the
exam patterns and build proficiency in solving questions.
More than 7000 fully solved questions
Fully–solved solution of past 8 years’ (Available online also)
Short cut methods provided in each chapter with examples
Comprehensive coverage of topics
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Dinesh Khattar
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Size: 203x254mm Spine: 34mm ISBN: 9789353439552 Title Sub Title Edition Authors / Editors Name With CD Red Band Territory line URL Price mQuest
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The Pearson Guide to
Quantitative
Aptitude
For Competitive Examinations
This page is intentionally left blank
The Pearson Guide to
Quantitative
Aptitude
For Competitive Examinations
(Fourth Edition)
Dinesh Khattar
Acting Principal
Kirori Mal College
University of Delhi
Copyright © 2019 Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd
No part of this eBook may be used or reproduced in any manner whatsoever without the publisher’s
prior written consent.
This eBook may or may not include all assets that were part of the print version. The publisher
reserves the right to remove any material in this eBook at any time.
ISBN 978-93-534-3955-2
eISBN:
Head Office: 15th Floor, Tower-B, World Trade Tower, Plot No. 1, Block-C, Sector-16,
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www.in.pearson.com, Email: companysecretary.india@pearson.com
Contents
Since the publication of last edition of this book, I have received immense support from readers, and a lot of inputs
on how this book could be improved. With the aid of all this information, it gives me immense pleasure to present
a completely updated fourth edition of the book.
Following are noteworthy inclusion in this edition:
1. The book is updated with latest previous years’ questions asked in various competitive examination with
explanatory answers.
2. Alternated solutions have been given for teaching multiple approaches to learner.
3. Solution to each and every question in the book.
In order to provide a more focused approach, the obsolete previous years’ questions have been deleted in
every chapter, however the basic structure of the book has been kept intact. In preparing this fourth edition, I am
greatly indebted to many teachers at various coaching centers as wells students throughout the country who made
constructive criticism and extended valuable suggestions for the improvement of the book. Any suggestions to
ensure further improvement of the book will be greatly acknowledged.
I am extremely thankful to editorial team of Pearson Education for all the hard work they had put in this book
and made possible the publishing of this book in timely and precious manner.
Dinesh Khattar
Preface to the First Edition
With so many books available in the market on quantitative aptitude for students appearing in different competitive
examinations, the publication of yet another volume on the subject requires some explanation. It has been my
experience that the average student needs the treatment of theory in a manner easily understandable to him. An
effort, therefore, has been made, in this book to put across concepts in a lucid and unambiguous manner. The book
aims at helping students enhance their knowledge of quantitative aptitude and equipping them with the skills that
will enable them to succeed in any competitive examination.
The book is noteworthy in the following aspects:
1. Each chapter contains concise definitions and explanations of basic/fundamental principles, which are further
augmented with illustrative examples to enable students to learn and recall fast.
2. Each chapter has a separate section on short-cut methods covering all kinds of questions asked in competitive
examinations. In addition, each short-cut method is explained with the help of illustrative examples.
3. Completely worked-out solutions to a large range of problems have been included in the text. The number of
questions in each chapter has been kept sufficiently large to provide rigorous practice.
4. A large number of problems that have been asked in the competitive examinations in recent times are included
in every chapter with explanatory answers.
5. Practice exercises covering all the topics in each chapter are provided for self-assessment and to facilitate
understanding of the pattern and the type of questions asked in the examinations.
Every care has been taken to minimise typographical as well as factual errors. However, it is possible that a few
errors might have managed to dodge the vigilant eye. I will be grateful to the readers for bringing these errors to
my notice as also for their valuable suggestions. It is earnestly hoped that the book will help the students grasp
the subject and help them in obtaining a commendable score in the examination.
In preparing this edition, my deepest appreciation goes to many teachers at various coaching centres as well
as students throughout the editorial who made constructive criticism and extended valuable suggestions. I am also
extremely thankful to Pearson editorial team, for their unfailing cooperation.
I am deeply indebted to my parents without whose encouragement this dream could not have been translated
into reality. And last, but not the least, it was the cherubic smiles of my daughters Nikita and Nishita that inspired
me to treat my work as worship.
Dinesh Khattar
Acknowledgement
I would like to express my gratitude to my father to whom I owe all my achievements. Whatever I have achieved
in life is because of the dreams and wishes which he has always nurtured about me.
ComPetitive eXaminations: an overview
The Scheme of the Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below:
●● 1st Tier-I Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
●● 2nd Tier-II Main Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
●● 3rd Tier-III Personality Test/Interview or Skill Test, where applicable Candidates opting for post of Sub-Inspector
in CPOs will be required to undergo Physical Endurance Test (PET)/Medical Examination at any convenient time
after declaration of result of Tier-I.
Tier-I of the Combined Graduate level Examination would be common for all categories of posts and will be held
in one session. Total duration of the examination = 2 hours.
Syllabus of Numerical Aptitude: The questions are designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers
and number sense of the candidate. It will test sense of order among numbers, ability to translate from one name
to another, sense or order of magnitude, estimation or prediction of the outcome of computation, selection of an
appropriate operation for the solution of real life problems and knowledge of alternative computation procedures
tofindanswers.Thequestionswouldalsobebasedonarithmeticalconceptsandrelationshipbetweennumbersand
not on complicated arithmetical computation (The standard of the questions will be of 10 + 2 level).
Tier-II of the Combined Graduate Level Examination is an objective multiple-choice and is conducted over two
days during a weekend. It will consist of three different papers/subjects and depending upon the category of posts
applied for, the candidate will be required to appear in one, two or three papers, as the case may be.
For the post of Assistants, Inspector of Income Tax/Inspector (Central Excise, Inspector (PO), Inspector
(Examiner), Sub Inspector in CBI, Inspector of Posts, Assistant Enforcement Officer, Divisional Accountants,
Accountants, Auditors, Tax Assistants, UDCS, the examination will consist of two papers as under:
xii Competitive Examinations: An Overview
For the post of Statistical Investigators GR.II & Compilers, the examination will consist of three papers as
under:
For The post of Sub-Inspector in Central Police Organisations, the examination will consist of one Paper as under:
Syllabus For Tier-I (Paper-I): Arithmetic Ability—This paper will include questions on problems relating to
Number Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers,
Fundamental Arithmetical Operations, Percentage, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount,
Use of Table and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, etc.
Clerks Grade Examination is conducted by the Staff Selection Commission for recruitment to the posts of clerks
for the following groups of services/offices:
Group X
●● Indian Foreign Service (B) Grade VI
●● Railway Board Secretarial Clerical Service Grade II
●● Central Secretariat Clerical Service—Lower Division Grade
●● Armed Forces Headquarters Clerical Service—Lower Division Grade
●● Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
●● President’s Secretariat
Group Y
●● Equivalent/comparable posts in Subordinate offices of Government of India located throughout India.
●● Offices of the Controller and Auditor General of India, Accountants General (Audit) and Accountants General
(Accounts and Estt.) in various states.
●● Controller General of Defence Accounts.
Competitive Examinations: An Overview xiii
Age
18 to 25 years on the 1stAugust of the year of examination. Upper age limit relaxable for SC/ST etc.
Educational Qualifications
Matriculation or equivalent.
examination
Plan of the Examination: The examination shall consist of two parts. Part I-Written Examination and Part II-
Typewriting Test for those candidates who attain such minimum standards in the written test as may be fixed by
the commission in their discretion.
Examination Subjects: The subjects of written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks for each
subject will be as follows:
Notes
(i) The questions in all the four tests will be Objective-Multiple Choice Type.
(ii) Candidates will be required to qualify in each of the tests separately.
Syllabus of Numerical Aptitude Test: Questions will be designed to test the ability of arithmetical computation
of whole numbers, decimals and fractions and relationship between numbers. The questions would be based on
arithmetical concepts and relationship between numbers and not on complicated arithmetical computation.
A competitive examination for the recruitment of the Assistant Administrative Officers etc, in Life Insurance
Corporation (LIC) it is held once a year, generally in the month of June. The blank application form and particulars
are published in the Employment News, usually the second week of May every year.
xiv Competitive Examinations: An Overview
Age
21 to 28 years on the 1st April of the year of examination. Upper age limit is relaxable for SC/ST, confirmed
L.I.C. employees, etc.
Educational Qualifications
Bachelor’s/Master’s Degree from a recognised Indian or Foreign University with a minimum of 50% marks (relaxable
in the case of SC/ST candidates to 40%) in aggregate in either of the degrees.
Examination
Plan of the Examination: The examination comprises (i) written examination and (ii) interview of candidates who
qualify in the written test.
Examination Subjects: The written examination consists of the following papers:
Paper I (Objective)
1. Reasoning Ability (Bilingual)
2. General Knowledge and Current Affairs (Bilingual)
3. Numerical Ability (Bilingual): The purpose of this test is to ascertain how quick you are in working at numerical
calculations
4. English Language with special emphasis on grammar and vocabulary
Paper II (Descriptive)
1. Test on Essay (can be written in Hindi or English)
2. Precise and Comprehension in English
A competitive examination for the recruitment of Assistant Development Officers’ in the Life Insurance Corporation
is held once a year, generally in the month of September. The blank application forms and particulars are published
in the Employment News, generally in the month of July and the last date for submission of applications is generally
the first week of August.
Age
The applicants should have completed the age of 21 years on the 1st July of the year of examination.
Educational Qualifications
Candidates must hold a bachelor’s degree in arts, science, commerce, agriculture or law of an Indian or foreign
university or an equivalent qualification.
Examination
Plan of the Examination: The examination comprises (i) written examination (ii) interview of such candidates,
who qualify in the written test.
Examination Subjects: The written test will consist of (i) test of reasoning and numerical ability and (ii) general
English/Hindi and general knowledge. The test papers will be set bilingual and the candidates will have choice to
write answers either in English or in Hindi.
This examination is held once a year, generally in the month of August. The blank application and particulars are
published in the Employment News, usually in the month of March. The last date for the submission of applications
is usually first week of April every year.
Competitive Examinations: An Overview xv
Age
18 to 28 years on 1 June of the year of examination.
Educational Qualifications
Pass in higher secondary with 60% marks or graduate of a recognised university.
examination
Plan of the Examination: The examination comprises (i) written examination and (ii) interview of candidates
qualifying the written test.
Examination Subjects: (i) The written test will be objective type, consisting of test of reasoning, numerical ability,
clerical aptitude, English language and general knowledge. (ii) There will also be a descriptive test on essay, letter
and precise writing in English. Objective tests except English will be bilingual, i.e., both in English and Hindi.
Selection for this class I post is made on all-India basis by Reserve Bank of India Services Board, Hong Kong
Building, 6th Floor, M.G. Road, P.O. Box 10009, Hutatma Chow, Mumbai 400 001. Set up in July 1968, the Board
functions on the lines of the UPSC and conducts various examinations for recruitment of officers grade. There is
reservation of posts for SC/ST categories.
Age
21–26 years
Educational Qualifications
Bachelor’s/Master’sDegree(50%)orChartered/CostAccountantwithBachelor’sDegreeorDegreeinManagement.
examination
Subjects: Written test consists of
(i) Paper I (Objective Type)—Test of reasoning, test of quantitative aptitude, test of English language, general awareness.
(ii) Paper II (Descriptive Type)—English essay, precise writing/comprehension.
(iii) Paper III (Descriptive Type)—Economic and social problems. Those who qualify the written test are called for interview.
xvi Competitive Examinations: An Overview
Age
21–28 years (maximum 26 years for degree holders). Relaxable by 5 years for SC/ST and Ex-Servicemen, and by
3 years for OBC candidates.
Educational Qualifications
Min 60% marks (50% for SC/ST candidates) in bachelor’s degree as well as in 10th and 12th Standard.
Examination
Subjects: Written test consists of
(i) Phase 1: Paper I (Objective Type)—Test of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness and English Language.
Phase 2: Paper I—English (writing skills); Paper II—Economic and Social Issues; Paper III (optional)—Finance
and Management/ Economics/ Statistics.
Note
Written test is followed by interview which carries 50 marks.
This examination is held by Central Recruitment Board (State Bank Group) Madhuli, Second Floor, H/2 Shiv Nagar
Estate, Dr. Annie Besant Road, Worli, Mumbai 400 018 for recruitment of Probationary Officers in State Bank of
India and its associates banks, namely, State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank
of Indore, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Patiala, State Bank of Saurashtra and State Bank of Travancore.
There is reservation of posts for SC/ST, Ex-Servicemen, OBC, etc.
Age
18–26 years, relaxable for SC/ST, OBC and Ex-Servicemen
Educational Qualifications
Degree
Examination
Subjects: Written test consists of
(i) Paper I (Objective Type)—Test of Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English Comprehension, General Awareness.
(ii) Paper II (Descriptive Type)—Essay, letter writing or precise writing in English.
Note
Those who qualify the written test are called for interview.
This examination is generally held annually to recruit the clerical cadre in State Bank of India and its associate
banks. There is resonation of posts for SC/ST, Ex-Servicemen and OBC, etc.
Age
18–26 years, relaxable for various categories as per rules.
Educational Qualifications
Degree
Competitive Examinations: An Overview xvii
Examination
Subjects: Written test consists of
(i) Paper I—General Awareness, Reasoning Ability, English Language, Numerical Ability
(ii) Paper II—Essay writing, Letter writing, Precise writing
Nationalized Banks
In nationalized banks, the recruitment is made through competitive test held by Banking Service Recruitment Board.
There are 15 Banking Service Recruitment Boards in the country. These Boards recruit probationary officers and
clerical cadre for the nationalised banks. There is reservation of posits for SC/ST, Ex-Servicemen, etc.
Age
21–28 years, relaxable for SC/ST, OBC and Ex-Servicemen
Educational Qualifications
Degree
Examination
Subjects: Written test consists of
(i) Paper I (Objective Type)—Test of reasoning ability, quantitative aptitude, English comprehension, general awareness.
(ii) Paper II (Descriptive Type)—Essay (in English or regional language), letter writing or precise writing in English.
Age
18–26 years, relaxable for certain categories as per rules.
Educational Qualifications
For Clerks, Typists—Degree or 10 + 2 (50%) or diploma in banking (50%) or matriculation (60%).
For Stenographers—matriculation.
Relaxation in percentage of marks in qualifying examination for SC/ST, Ex-Servicemen and physically handicapped.
Examination
Subjects: Written examination (200 marks)
(i) Paper I (Objective Type)—Reasoning Ability, English language, Numerical Ability, Clerical Aptitude
(ii) Paper II (Descriptive Type)—Three out of four questions of short essay or exposition type on a given proposition,
situation to be answered in Hindi or English.
For the posts of typists and stenographers, proficiency in typing and shorthand with the following minimum speed
is required:
(i) English typing speed 30 wpm
(ii) English shorthand speed 80 wpm
(iii) Hindi typing speed 25 wpm
(iv) Hindi shorthand speed 60 wpm
Proficiency test for typist/stenographer is held if they qualify the written test. Those ranking high in the written
examination are called for an interview (100 marks). Final selection is on the basis of candidate’s performance in
written tests and interview taken together. Probationary period is six months.
xviii Competitive Examinations: An Overview
Age
24–32 years, relaxable for certain categories as per rules
Educational Qualifications
Master’s Degree in economics/agricultural economics (50%), Ph.D is desirable
Examination
Subjects: Written test consists of
Preliminary examination (objective type): General Awareness, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning
Ability.
Main examination:
(i) Paper I—General English and General Awareness
(ii) Paper II—Economic and Social Problems
(iii) Paper III—Economics/Agricultural Economics
Age
21–26 years. Relaxable for certain categories as per rules.
Educational Qualifications
Bachelor’s Degree/Master’s Degree (50%)
Examination
Subjects: Written test consists of
Preliminary Examination (Objective Type)—General Awareness, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability.
Main Examination:
(i) Paper I—General English and General Awareness.
(ii) Paper II—Economic and Social Problems.
CHAPT E R
1 Numbers
Illustration 1: We represent the number 309872546 Clearly, every natural number is a whole number
as shown below: but 0 is a whole number which is not a natural number.
Integers
Ten Thousand 104
Thousand 103
(million) 106
Hundred 102
Ten Lakhs
Lakhs 105
Units 100
Ten’s 101
The set of all rational numbers is denoted by Q. Note that the sum, difference or product of a rational
p and irrational number is irrational, e.g., 3 + 2 , 4 − 3 ,
That is, Q = {x:x = ; p, q ∈ I, q ≠ 0}
q 2
a - 5 , 4 3 , - 7 5 are all irrational.
Since every natural number ‘a’ can be written as , 5
1
every natural number is a rational number. Since 0 can even numbers
0 All those numbers which are exactly divisible by 2 are
be written as and every non-zero integer ‘a’ can be
1 called even numbers, e.g., 2, 6, 8, 10, etc., are even
a numbers.
written as , every integer is a rational number.
1
Every rational number has a peculiar characteristic
odd numbers
that when expressed in decimal form is expressible
either in terminating decimals or in non-terminating All those numbers which are not exactly divisible by
repeating decimals. 2 are called odd numbers, e.g., 1, 3, 5, 7, etc., are odd
1 1 22 numbers.
For example, = 0.2, = 0.333..., = 3.1428714287,
5 3 7
8 Prime numbers
= 0.181818 ..., etc.
44 A natural number other than 1, is a prime number if it
The recurring decimals have been given a short is divisible by 1 and itself only.
notation as For example, each of the numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, etc.,
are prime numbers.
0.333... = 0. 3
4.1555... = 4.05 composite numbers
0.323232... = 0.32 Natural numbers greater than 1 which are not prime,
are known as composite numbers.
Irrational numbers For example, each of the numbers 4, 6, 8, 9, 12,
etc., are composite numbers.
Those numbers which when expressed in decimal form
are neither terminating nor repeating decimals are known
Notes
as irrational numbers, e.g., 2 , 3 , 5 , π, etc.
1. The number 1 is neither a prime number nor a
22 22 composite number.
Note that the exact value of π is not ⋅ is rational
7 7 2. 2 is the only even number which is prime.
22
while π is irrational number. is approximate value of 3. Prime numbers up to 100 are:
7 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43,
π. Similarly, 3.14 is not an exact value of it. 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97, i.e.,
25 prime numbers between 1 and 100.
4. Two numbers which have only 1 as the common
real numbers factor are called co-primes or relatively prime to
The rational and irrational numbers combined together each other, e.g., 3 and 5 are co-primes.
13 2 3
to form real numbers, e.g., , , - , 3 , 4 + 2 , etc.
are real numbers.
21 5 7 Note that the numbers which are relatively prime
The set of all real numbers is denoted by R. need not necessarily be prime numbers, e.g., 16 and
17 are relatively prime, although 16 is not a prime
number.
Numbers 1.3
baSIc formulae
SHort-cut metHodS
Illustration 22: Two numbers when divided by a certain Solution: The required divisor
divisor give remainders 473 and 298, respectively. When
= 437 + 298 – 236 = 499.
their sum is divided by the same divisor, the remainder
is 236. Find the divisor.
exercISe-1
1. 7372 × 7372 + 7372 × 628 = ? 9. Which number should replace both the ‘*’s in
(a) 58976000 (b) 58967000 ∗ *
× = 1?
(c) 5897600 (d) None of these 21 189
2. 9999 + 8888 + 777 + ? = 19700 (a) 21 (b) 63
(c) 3969 (c) 147
(a) 36 (b) 16
(c) 64 (d) 26 10. In a division sum, the divisor is 12 times the quotient
and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder be 48,
3. 60 ? 6 × 111 = 666666 then the dividend is:
(a) 0 (b) 2 (a) 240 (b) 576
(c) 1 (d) 6 (c) 4800 (d) 4848
4. 3149 × 1 ? 5 = 425115 11. What least number must be subtracted from 1294 so
(a) 3 (b) 2 that the remainder when divided by 9, 11, 13 will
(c) 4 (d) 6 leave in each case the same remainder 6?
5. If the two digits of the age of Mr Manoj are reversed (a) 0 (b) 1
then the new age so obtained is the age of his wife. (c) 2 (d) 3
1
of the sum of their ages is equal to the difference 12. 24 is divided into two parts such that 7 times the
11 first part added to 5 times the second part makes
between their ages. If Mr Manoj is older than his wife
then find the difference between their ages. 146. The first part is:
(a) Cannot be determined (a) 11 (b) 13
(b) 8 years (c) 16 (d) 17
(c) 10 years 1 1
(d) 9 years 13. of a number subtracted from of the same number
4 3
(e) 7 years gives 12. The number is:
6. If in a long division sum, the dividend is 380606 (a) 144 (b) 120
and the successive remainders from the first to the (c) 72 (d) 63
last are 434, 125 and 413, then divisor is: 4
14. of a certain number is 64. Half of that number is:
(a) 451 (b) 843 3
(c) 4215 (d) 3372 (a) 32 (b) 40
x 3 6 y−x (c) 80 (d) 16
7. If = , then the value of + equals:
y 4 7 y+x 15. A fraction becomes 4 when 1 is added to both
the numerator and denominator; and it becomes 7
5 1 when 1 is subtracted from both the numerator and
(a) (b) 1
7 7 denominator. The numerator of the given fraction is:
(c) 1 (d) 2 (a) 2 (b) 3
8. The largest natural number by which the product of (c) 7 (d) 15
three consecutive even natural numbers is always
divisible, is: 16. Three numbers are in the ratio 3:4:5. The sum of
the largest and the smallest equals the sum of the
(a) 16 (b) 24 third and is 52. The smallest number is:
(c) 48 (d) 96
1.8 Chapter 1
18. If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction, the 27. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient
and five times the remainder. What is the dividend,
fraction becomes 1 . If 1 is added to the numerator, if the remainder is 46?
2
the fraction becomes 1. The fraction is: (a) 5636 (b) 5536
4 5 (c) 5336 (d) 5436
(a) (b)
7 9 28. Which one of the following is the least number of
four digits divisible by 71?
2
(c) (c) 10 (a) 1006 (b) 1065
3 11 (c) 1094 (d) 1056
4 2 29. How many numbers up to 100 are divisible by 7?
19. of a number exceeds its by 8. The number is:
5 3 (a) 14 (b) 107
(c) 93 (d) 100
(a) 30 (b) 60
(c) 90 (d) None of these 30. How many numbers up to 500 are divisible by 23?
(a) 23 (b) 27
20. What is the sum of all prime numbers from 60 to 80?
(c) 21 (d) 19
(a) 361 (b) 341
(c) 351 (d) 349 31. How many numbers up to 200 are divisible 2 and
3 both?
21. The quotient arising from the division of 24446 by (a) 35 (b) 33
a certain divisor is 79 and the remainder is 35, what (c) 29 (d) 27
is the divisor?
32. How many numbers between 100 and 300 are
(a) 39 (b) 309 divisible by 11?
(c) 390 (d) 3009
(a) 11 (b) 10
22. In a division sum, the quotient is 120, the divisor (c) 12 (d) 18
456 and the remainder 333, find the dividend.
33. How many numbers between 150 and 500 are
(a) 5533 (b) 50553 divisible by 2, 3 and 7 together?
(c) 56053 (d) 55053 (a) 9 (b) 8
23. The quotient arising from a division of a number (c) 10 (d) 11
by 62 is 463 and the remainder is 60, what is the
34. The number of five figures to be added to a number
number?
of four fives to obtain the least number of six figures
(a) 28666 (b) 28766 exactly divisible by 357 is:
(c) 28576 (d) 28676
(a) 94762 (b) 94802
24. A number when divided by 221 gives a remainder (c) 94485 (d) None of these
43. What remainder will be obtained by dividing the
35. The nearest figure to 58701 which is divisible by
same number by 17?
567 is:
(a) 11 (b) 8
(a) 58968 (b) 58434
(c) 9 (d) 13
(c) 58401 (d) None of these
25. Which one of the following is the largest prime 36. The digits indicated by * in 3422213 ** so that this
number of three digits? number is divisible by 99 are:
Numbers 1.9
(a) 1, 9 (b) 3, 7 48. The difference between the squares of two consecutive
(c) 4, 6 (d) 5, 5 numbers is 35. The numbers are:
37. The least value to be given to * so that the number (a) 14, 15 (b) 15, 16
5 * 3457 is divisible by 11 is: (c) 17, 18 (d) 18, 19
(a) 2 (b) 3 49. Three-fourths of one-fifth of a number is 60. The
(c) 0 (d) 4 number is:
38. The nearest whole number to one million which is (a) 300 (b) 400
divisible by 537 is: (c) 450 (d) 1200
(a) 1000106 (b) 999894 50. The sum of squares of two numbers is 80 and the
(c) 1000437 (d) 999563 square of their difference is 36. The product of the
39. The smallest number between 400 and 500 which is two numbers is:
divisible by 9 is: (a) 22 (b) 44
(a) 414 (b) 405 (c) 58 (d) 116
(c) 423 (d) None of these
51. A number when divided by 357 gives a remainder 37.
40. Which one of the following is the greatest number By dividing the same number by 17, the remainder
of five digits divisible by 231? would be:
(a) 99792 (b) 99892
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 99692 (d) 99972
(c) 2 (d) None of these
41. Find the number nearest to 16386 which is exactly
divisible by 425. 52. The product of two numbers is 120. The sum of their
squares is 289. The sum of the two numbers is:
(a) 16575 (b) 16375
(c) 16050 (d) 16450 (a) 20 (b) 23
(c) 169 (d) None of these
42. Find the least number which must be subtracted from
9269 so that resulting number is exactly divisible by 73? 53. Three numbers are in the ratio 4:5:6 and their average
(a) 17 (b) 57 is 25. The largest number is:
(c) 71 (d) 63 (a) 42 (b) 36
43. Find the least number which must be added to 15463 (c) 30 (d) 32
so that the resulting number is exactly divisible by 54. A number exceeds 20% of itself by 40. The number is:
107? (a) 50 (b) 60
(a) 52 (b) 71 (c) 80 (d) 320
(c) 55 (d) 19 55. If 16% of 40% of a number is 8, the number is:
44. What is the number just more than 5000 which is (a) 200 (b) 225
exactly divisible by 73? (c) 125 (d) 320
(a) 5001 (b) 5009 56. 4767 exactly divides *** 341, the missing digits are:
(c) 5037 (d) 5027
(a) 468 (b) 586
45. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference (c) 363 (d) None of these
is 37. The difference of their squares is:
57. A number when divided by a certain divisor left remainder
(a) 37 (b) 100 241, when twice the number was divided by the same
(c) 63 (d) 3700 divisor, the remainder was 112. Find the divisor.
46. The number of times 79 be subtracted from 50000, (a) 370 (b) 365
so that the remainder be 43759; is: (c) 380 (d) 456
(a) 69 (b) 79 58. Two numbers when divided by a certain divisor give
(c) 59 (d) None of these remainders 43 and 37 respectively, when their sum
47. The ratio between two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 13.
is 420. The greater of the two numbers is: Find the divisor.
(a) 71 (b) 67
(a) 175 (b) 200
(c) 57 (d) 77
(c) 240 (d) 315
1.10 Chapter 1
59. Two numbers are such that the ratio between them is 67. Sum of three numbers is 132. First number is twice
3:5; but if each is increased by 10, the ratio between the second and third number is one-third of the first.
them becomes 5:7. The numbers are: Find the second number.
(a) 3, 5 (b) 7, 9 (a) 18 (b) 36
(c) 13, 22 (d) 15, 25 (c) 20 (d) 16
60. Divide 50 into two parts so that the sum of their 68. What least number must be added to 7231 so that
reciprocals is 1/12. the resulting number is exactly divisible by 5 and 9
(a) 20, 30 (b) 24, 26 together?
(c) 28, 22 (d) 36, 14
(a) 20 (b) 18
61. The sum of seven numbers is 235. The average of (c) 14 (d) 16
the first three is 23 and that of last three is 42. The
fourth number is: 69. Find a number nearest to 9231 which is exactly
(a) 40 (b) 126 divisible by 3 as well as by 11.
(c) 69 (d) 195 (a) 9240 (b) 9340
62. The sum of squares of two numbers is 68 and the (c) 9540 (d) 9440
squares of their difference is 36. The product of the 70. Find a nearest number to 12199 which is exactly
two numbers is: divisible by the product of the first four prime
(a) 16 (b) 32 numbers.
(c) 58 (d) 104 (a) 12181 (b) 12179
63. What is the least value of K so that the number (c) 11281 (d) 11279
6735K1 is divisible by 9? 71. The sum of squares of two numbers is 90 and the
(a) 5 (b) 7 squares of their difference is 46. The product of the
(c) 4 (d) 3 two numbers is:
64. For what value of K, the number 7236K2 is divisible (a) 22 (b) 24
by 8? (c) 26 (d) 28
(a) 7 (b) 5
72. If 40% of a number is 360, what will be 15% of
(c) 4 (d) 9
that number?
65. Find the least values of x and y so that the number
5x423y is divisible by 88. 1 1
(a) 20 (b) 20
(a) 8, 2 (b) 7, 3 4 2
(c) 9, 4 (d) 6, 5 1 1
(c) 22 (d) 22
4 2
66. 24 is divided into two parts such that 7 times the
first part added to 5 times the second part makes 73. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 8. If
146. The first part is: the digits are reversed the number is increased by
54. Find the number.
(a) 13 (b) 15
(c) 17 (d) 19 (a) 17 (b) 19
(c) 21 (d) 23
exercISe-2
(baSed on memory)
1. N is the largest two digit number, which when 2. A and B are positive integers. If A + B + AB = 65
divided by 3, 4 and 6 leaves the remainder 1, 2 then What is the difference between A and B (A, B
and 4 respectively, What is the remainder when N ≤ 15)?
is divided by 5? (a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 6
(c) 0 (d) 1 [SSC CGL Tier-II CBE, 2018]
[SSC CGL Tier-II CBE, 2018]
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VI.
Much has been written about Jean François Millet, and mostly from
two points of view. The picturesque surroundings of the plain of
Barbizon and the peasant’s blouse have tempted the sentimental
biographer to dwell on the personal note of poverty, which we now
know was not the dominant one in Millet’s life. The picturesque writer
has amplified, with more or less intelligence, reflections suggested
by the subjects of his pictures. In all this, the painter’s point of view,
which is, after all, the only one that matters, has, so far as its
expression in print is concerned, been overlooked and omitted.
The important fact about Millet is not that he struggled with
poverty, or that he expressed on canvas the dignity of labour, but
that he was a great artist. As corollaries, he was a great
draughtsman and a great colourist. He was gifted with the
comprehension in its entirety of the import of any scene in nature
which he wished to render. An unerring analysis enabled him to
select what were the vital constituents of such a scene, and exquisite
perceptions, trained by incessant labour, to render them in fitting
terms in accordance with the tradition which governs the use of each
material.
It may seem that the process here summarized is after all only
that which governs all art production, and that the work of the
second-rate and the ordinary differs only from that of the master in
the degree of capacity exercised. But this is not so. It differs totally in
kind. The conception, conscious or unconscious, of the nature and
aim of art is in the two cases different, and, as a consequence, the
practice is different.
It would be affectation to ignore that, for good or for evil, Paris is
the art-centre of European painting, and that the most serious
training in drawing and painting that is procurable on European lines
is procurable in Paris. I should therefore consider it a service of great
utility to serious art if it were possible to make clear the reasons for
my conviction that the tendency of the mass of exhibition painting in
France, and, by reflection, in England, has been in an inartistic
direction, and has led inevitably to the sterile ideal of the
instantaneous camera. And, on the other hand, that the narrow
stream of purely artistic painting, that has trickled its more
sequestered course parallel with the broad flood of exhibition work,
owes its vitality to a profound and convinced reverence for tradition.
For the illustration of that tradition I can find no more convenient
source than the work of Jean François Millet, and for a typical
monument of its disregard, the more fair to cite in that it is
respectable in achievement, the work of Bastien-Lepage affords me
a timely and perhaps the most appropriate example possible.
What, then, is the main difference? How did Millet work, and with
what objects? How did Lepage work, and what is it he strove to
attain?
To begin with, Millet, ninety-nine times out of a hundred, had seen
his picture happen somewhere in nature. Its treatment generally
involved complex difficulties of suggestion of movement, or at least
of energy, to say nothing of those created by the variety of lighting
and atmospheric effect; the management of sunlight, of twilight, of
the lighting of interiors. All these elements he was enabled, by
means of a highly-trained artistic memory, to retain and render in the
summary method which we call inspiration, and which has nothing in
common with the piecemeal and futile copying of nature of a later
school. Dealing with materials in their essential nature living and
fleeting, his execution was in the main separated from his
observation. His observation was thus uninterrupted by the
exigencies of execution, and his execution untrammelled by the
fortuitous inconveniences incident on the moment of observation,
and undisturbed, moreover, by the kaleidoscopic shifting of the
pictorial elements which bewilder and mislead the mere plein-airiste.
He did not say to the woman at the washtub, “Do as if you were
washing, and stay like that for me for four or five hours a day, while I
paint a picture from you.” Or to the reaper, “Stay like that with the
scythe drawn back, pretending to reap.” “La nature ne pose pas”—to
quote his own words. He knew that if figures in movement were to be
painted so as to be convincing, it must be by a process of cumulative
observation. This truth one of the greatest heirs of the great school
of 1830 has not been slow to understand, and it is to its further and
more exquisite development that we owe the profoundly learned and
beautiful work of Degas. His field of observation is shifted from the
life of the village and the labour of the plains, to the sordid toil of the
greenroom and the hectic mysteries of stage illumination; but the
artistic problem remains the same, and its solution is worked out on
the same lines.
Millet observed and observed again, making little in the way of
studies on the spot, a note sometimes of movement on a cigarette-
paper. And when he held his picture he knew it, and the execution
was the singing of a song learned by heart, and not the painful
performance in public of a meritorious feat of sight-reading. The
result of this was that his work has style—style which is at the same
time in the best traditions and strictly personal. No one has been
more imitated than Millet, and no one is more inimitable.
Holding in the hollow of his hand the secrets of light and life and
movement, the secrets of form and colour, learnt from the visible
world, he was equipped, like the great masters of old, for the
treatment of purely fanciful themes; and, when he painted a reluctant
nymph being dragged through the woods by a turbulent crowd of
cupids, he was as much at home as when he rendered the recurring
monotone of the peasant’s daily labours. My quarrel with the
gentlemen who escape from the laws of anatomy and perspective by
painting full-length portraits of souls, and family groups of
abstractions, is, not that they paint these things, but that they have
not first learnt something about the laws which govern the incidence
of light on concrete bodies. It might be well if they would discover
whether they can paint their brother, whom they have seen, before
they elect to flounder perennially in Olympus.
Let it also be noted here that the work of Jean François Millet
was, with scarcely an exception, free from a preoccupation with the
walls of an exhibition. The scale of his pictures and their key were