Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue or Black Ball Point Pen.
To mark answers on the OMR Sheet, use Blue or Black ball point pen only.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. There are questions of FOUR subjects in the paper namely
Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology. Questions of each subject are divided into two sections. Section-A
contains 35 Questions of a Subject all of which must be attempted. Section-B contains 15 Questions of
which any 10 can be attempted.
3. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. For each wrong answer, 1 (One) mark will be
deducted. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the
answer sheet. Maximum marks of the paper are 720.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 3 above.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any text material, printed or written, mobile phone or any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the OMR Sheet.
7. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations
of the Examination body.
SUBJECT SYLLABUS COVERED
PHYSICS Kinematics (Including Circular Motion) Laws of Motion
CHEMISTRY Periodic Properties, Chemical Bonding
BOTANY Plant Kingdom, Morphology of flowering plants
ZOOLOGY Animal Kingdom (Chordates), Cell – The unit of life, Biomolecules
 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A (PHYSICS) 140 MARKS
1. The upper half of an inclined plane with (1) s > k > r (2) s < k < r
inclination  is perfectly smooth. While the (3) s < k > r (4) s > r > k
lower half is rough. A body starting from rest at 6. Two weights w1 and w2 are suspended to the
the top will again come to rest at the bottom if two ends of a string passing over a smooth
the coefficient of friction for the lower half is pulley. If the pulley is pulled up with g then the
given by: tension in the string is
(1) 2 sin  (2) 2 cos  4w1w 2 2w1w 2
(1) (2)
(3) 2 tan  (4) tan  w1 + w 2 w1 + w 2
2. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined w1w 2 w1 + w 2
(3) (4)
surface with angle of inclination . The incline w1 + w 2 2
is given an acceleration a to keep the block
7. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
stationary. Then a is equal to:
wedge of inclination . The whole system is
accelerated horizontally so that block does not
slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the
wedge on the block has a magnitude.
(1) mg (2) mg cos 
(1) g/tan  (2) g cosec 
(3) mg/cos  (4) mg tan 
(3) g (4) g tan 
8. A boat of mass 300 kg moves according to the
3. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force equation x = 1.2 t2 – 0.2 t3. When the force will
F = kx with k = 15 N m–1. What will be its become zero?
initial acceleration if it is released from a point (1) 2 s (2) 1 s
20 cm away from the origin? (3) 6 s (4) 2.8 s
(1) 3 ms–2 (2) 15 ms–2
9. A window scrubber is used to brush up a
(3) 5 ms–2 (4) 10 ms–2
vertical window as shown in Fig. The brush
4. Assertion: Frictional force are conservative weigh 12 N and coefficient of kinetic friction of
forces 0.15. Calculate F:
Reason: Potential energy can be associated
with frictional forces
(1) A and R both are true and R is correct
explanation of A.
(2) A and R are true but R is not correct
explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) Both A and R are wrong
(1) 15 N (2) 10.2 N
5. Which is true for rolling friction (r), static
(3) 16.9 N (4) 18.1 N
friction (s) and kinetic friction (k)?

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 Vidyamandir Classes
10. A light spring of spring constant k is cut into 15. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are connected
two equal halves. Each half is connected in to each other with the help of a spring. If
Parallel then net spring constant of the pushing force is given to mass m1 providing
combination is: acceleration a to it, then acceleration of m2 is:
k k
(1) (2)
4 2
(3) 2k (4) 4k
11. Moment is closely related to: m1a − F F − m1a
(1) (2)
(1) force (2) impulse m2 m2
(3) velocity (4) kinetic energy F − m1a
(3) a (4)
12. A force F = kt( - t) acts on a particle of mass m1
m, which is at rest at t = 0 where k is a constant.
16. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 5 kg are at rest
Find the momentum of the force when the
on ground. The masses are connected by a
action of the force is discontinued. string passing over a frictionless pulley which
k 3 k 3 is under the influence of a constant upward
(1) (2)
2 3 force F = 50 N. The accelerations of 5 kg and 2
kg masses are:
k 3 k 3
(3) (4)
6 4
13. As shown in fig. mass of bodies is equal to m
each. If coefficient of friction between
horizontal surface and mass is 0.2. Find the
acceleration of the system.
(1) 0, 2.5 ms–2 (2) 0, 0
(3) 2.5 ms–2, 2.5 ms–2
(4) 1 ms–2, 2.5 ms–2
17. A mass of 2 kg is placed on a trolley of 20 kg
(1) 4 m/s 2
(2) 2 m/s 2 sliding on a smooth surface. The coefficient of
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 0.5 m/s2 friction between the mass and surface of trolley
is 0.25. A horizontal force of 2N is applied to
14. A body of weight 50 N is dragged on a
the mass. The acceleration of the system and
horizontal surface with a force of 28.2 N. The
the frictional force between the mass and
frictional force acting on the body and the
surface of trolley are
normal reactional force will be ( =0.9)

(1) 1.8 ms–2, 0.09 N

(2) 0.9 ms–2, 18 N
(1) 2N, 3N (2) 5N, 7N (3) 0.09 ms–2, 1.8 N
(3) 10N, 15N (4) 20N, 30N (4) 1 ms–2, 2 N

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 Vidyamandir Classes
18. A rope is stretched between two boats at rest. A (1) The common acceleration of two masses
sailor in the first boat pulls the rope with a is 1.3 ms–2 and tension in string is 5.3 N.
constant force of 100 N. First boat with the (2) Tension in the string is 14.9 N.
sailor has a mass of 250 kg whereas the mass of (3) Acceleration of the mass is 3 N.
second boat is double of that mass. If the initial (4) The acceleration of masses is 5.3 ms–2
distance between the boats was 100 m, the time and tension in the string is 1.3 N.
taken for two boats to meet each other is: 21. A mass M is hung with a light inextensible
string. Tension in horizontal part of string is:

(1) 13.8 s (2) 18.3 s (1) 3 Mg (2) 2 Mg

(3) 3.18 s (4) 31.8 s
(3) Mg/ 3 (4) Mg/2
19 A parachute of mass m starts coming down
with a constant acceleration a. Determine the 22. A ship of mass 3 × 107 kg initially at rest is
ballast mass to be released for the parachute to pulled by a force of 5 × 104 N through a
have an upward acceleration of same distance of 3 m. Assuming that resistance due
magnitude. Neglect air drag. to water is negligible, the speed of ship is:
(1) 0.2 ms–1 (2) 0.1 ms–1
(3) 1 ms–1 (4) 2 ms–1
23. A ball weighing 10g hits a hard surface
vertically with a speed of 5 ms–1 and rebounds
with the same speed. The ball remains in
contact with the surface for 0.01 s. The average
force exerted by the surface on ball is:
(1) 100 N (2) 10 N
2ma ma
(1) (2) (3) 1 N (4) 0.1 N
a+g a −g
24. Tension in rod of length L and mass M at a
ma 2ma distance y from F, when the rod is acted on by
(3) (4)
a+g a −g two unequal forces F1 and F2 where (F2 < F1) at
20. Two blocks connected by a massless string slide its ends is:
down an inclined plane having angle of inclination as
37°. The masses of two blocks are 4 kg and 2 kg with
, as 0.75 and 0.25 respectively. Which of the
statements is correct?

(1) F1(1 –y/L) + F2 (y/L)

(2) F2 (1 –y/L) + F1 (y/L)
(3) F1(1 + y/L) + F2(y/L)
(4) F2(l +y/L) + F1(y/L)

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 Vidyamandir Classes
25. The magnitude of force (in N) acting on a body 28. The pulleys and string shown in figure are
varies with time t (in N) as shown. AB, BC and smooth and of negligible mass. For the system
CD are straight line segments. The magnitude to remain in equilibrium, the angle  should be:
of total impulse of force on the body from t = 4
s to t = 16 s is:

(1) 0° (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 60°
29. An ideal spring with spring constant k is hung
(1) 6 × 10–3 Ns (2) 3 × 10–3 Ns
from the ceiling and a block of mass M is
(3) 5 × 10–3 Ns (4) 9 × 10–3 Ns
attached to its lower end. The mass is released
26. A spring of force constant K is cut into two with the spring initially unstretched. Then the
pieces such that one piece is double the length maximum extension in the spring is:
of the other. Then the long piece will have a (1) 4Mg/k (2) 2Mg/k
force constant of: (3) Mg/k (4) Mg/2k
30. A particle travels according to the equation
such that its acceleration a  – v2. Find the
distance covered when its velocity falls from v0
to v.
−1  1 1 
(1) (2/3) K (2) (3/2) K (1) x=  − 
k  v0 v 
(3) 3K (4) 6K
v0
27. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface (2) x=
k
very slowly. The coefficient of friction between
v0
the surface and the insect is 1/3. If the line (3) x = k loge
v
joining the centre of the hemispherical surface
1 v 
to the insect makes an angle  with the vertical, (4) x= loge  0 
k  v 
the maximum possible value of  is given by:
31. In uniform circular motion
(1) acceleration is variable.
(2) acceleration is uniform.
(3) the direction and magnitude of
acceleration both vary.
(1) cot  = 3 (2) tan  = 3
(4) if force applied is doubled in circular
(3) sec  = 3 (4) cosec  = 3
motion, then angular velocity becomes
double.

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 Vidyamandir Classes
32. Which of the following is correct?
(1) Radius of curvature of projectile motion
is uniform throughout.
(2) Radius of curvature of projectile motion
varies at each point.
(3) Radius of curvature is maximum at the
time of projection.
(4) Radius of curvature is maximum at the
highest point.
(4) it may have horizontal displacement but
acceleration is along vertical direction.
34. A particle moves from A to B diametrically
opposite in a circle of radius 5 cm with a
velocity 10 ms–1. Find the average acceleration.
(1) zero (2) 40/ ms–2
(3) 20/ ms–2 (4) None of these
35. A particle moves from A to B such that

33. A particle moves under gravity. It implies: x = t 2 + t – 3 . Its average velocity from t = 2 s
(1) its horizontal velocity is zero to t = 5 s is:
(2) its horizontal displacement is zero (1) 6 ms–1 (2) 8 ms–1
(3) its has only vertical displacement (3) 8.5 ms–1 (4) 7 ms–1

SECTION - B (PHYSICS) 40 MARKS

36. A body throws a ball to his friend 20 m away. 39. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity
The ball reaches to the friend in 4 s. The friend 5 ms–1. In 10 s, the velocity changes to 5 ms–1
then throws the ball back to boy and it reaches northwards. The average acceleration in this
the boy in 5 s. time is:
(1) The average velocity is 40/9 ms–1. 1 1 −2
(2) The average acceleration is zero. (1) ms −2 NE (2) ms N
2 2
(3) The average velocity is zero but average
1
acceleration is nonzero. (3) zero (4) ms −2 NW
2
(4) Average acceleration of the motion
cannot be defined. 40. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m
37. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity so without friction. When parachute opens, it
that it reaches a height h. Find the ratio of the decelerates at 2 ms–2. He reaches the ground
times in which it is at h/3. with a speed 3 ms–1. At which height did he bail
2 −1 3− 2 out?
(1) (2) (1) 91 m (2) 182 m
2 +1 3+ 2
(3) 293 m (4) 111 m
3 −1 1
(3) (4) 41. When a ball is thrown up vertically with a
3 +1 3
velocity v0 it reaches a height h. If one wishes
38. A projectile can have the same range R for two
to triple the maximum height then the ball be
angles of projectile. If t1 and t2 are the times of
thrown with a velocity.
flights in the two cases, then product of the
(1) 3 v0 (2) 3 v0
time of flights is proportional to:
(3) 9 v0 (4) 3/2 v0
(1) R2 (2) 1/R2
(3) 1/R (4) R

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 Vidyamandir Classes
42. A car starts from rest, moves with an (B) varying velocity without having varying
acceleration a and then decelerates at b for speed.
some-time to come to rest. If the total time (C) nonzero acceleration without having
taken is t, the maximum velocity is: varying velocity
(1) abt/a + b (2) a2t/a + b (D) nonzero acceleration without having
(3) at/a + b (4) b2t/a + b varying speed.
43. From the top of a tower, two stones whose (1) A and B are correct
masses are in the ratio 1 : 2 are thrown, one (2) B and C are correct
straight up with an initial speed u and the (3) B and D are correct
second straight down with same speed u. (4) none of these
Neglecting air resistance: 48. A girl throws a water filled balloon on the eve
(1) the heavier stone hits the ground with a of Holi with a velocity 12 ms–1 at an angle of
higher speed. 60o with the horizontal. It hits a car at the same
(2) the lighter stone hits the ground with a height (of throw) approaching her at 15 ms–1.
higher speed. Find the distance of the car from her.
(3) both the stones will have same speed (1) 13 m (2) 31 m
when they hit the ground. (3) 44 m (4) 18 m
(4) the speed cannot be determined with the 49. A particle is thrown vertically upwards from
given data. ground. It takes time t1 to reach a height h. It
44. A particle moves according to the law a = –ky. continues to move and takes time t2, to reach
Find the velocity as a function of distance y, v0 the ground. Its maximum height is:
is initial velocity.
(1) v2 = v02 – ky2 (2) v2 = v02 – 2ky
(3) v2 = v02 – 2ky2 (4) None of these
45. A boat moves relative to water with a velocity v
and river is flowering with 2v. At what angle
the boat shall move with the stream to have
minimum drift?
(1) 30° (2) 60° g t1 + t 2 g 2 2
(1) (2) t1 + t 2
(3) 90° (4) 120° 2 2 2
46. An elevator is moving with 2.5 ms–1. A bolt in (3)
g 2 2 2
( t1 + t 2 ) (4) g( t12 + t 22 )
the elevator ceiling 3 m above the elevator falls. 8
How long does it take for the bolt to fall on the 50. A body travels 200 cm in the first two seconds
floor of elevator? and 220 cm in the next four seconds. What will
(1) 0.731 s (2) 0.762 s be the velocity at the end of 7th second from
(3) 0.782 s (4) 8.31 s the start?
47. An object may have: (1) 10 cms–1 (2) 20 cms–1
(A) varying speed without having varying (3) 15 cms–1 (4) 5cms–1
velocity

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A (CHEMISTRY) 140 MARKS
51. The correct order of decreasing polarizability of (3) One lone pair of electrons on carbon is
ion is: present only
(1) Cl−  Br −  I−  F− (4) 1 and 2 bonds between carbon and
oxygen are present
(2) F−  I−  Br −  Cl−
(3) I−  Br −  Cl−  F− 59. If Na + ion is larger than Mg 2+ ion and S2− is

(4) F−  Cl−  Br −  I− larger than Cl− ion, which of the following will
52. The species which does not show be more covalent.
paramagnetism is: (1) NaCl (2) Na 2S
(1) O2 (2) O +2 (3) MgCl2 (4) MgS

(3) O 22 − (4) H +2 60. Which one has minimum dipole moment?

(1) Butene- 1 (2) cis-Butene- 2
53. The molecule which has T-shaped structure is:
(3) Trans-Butene-2
(1) BCl3 (2) NH3
(4) 2- Methylpropene
(3) XeOF2 (4) PCl3
61. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is:
54. Which of the following will be planar trigonal? (1) (2)
CH2Cl2 BF3
(1) PCl3 (2) NH3
(3) NF3 (4) ClO2
(3) ClF3 (4) BCl3
62. Which of the following model best describes
55. Which of the following molecule has highest
the bonding in between the layers of the
dipole moment?
(1) BF3 (2) NH3
graphite structure?
(1) ionic forces
(3) NF3 (4) B2 H6
(2) metallic bonds
56. The pair having similar geometry is: (3) non- metallic covalent forces
(1) BF3 , NH3 (2) H2O, C2 H2 (4) Van der Waals forces
(3) CO2 , SO2 (4) NH3 ,PH3
63. Which has got the smallest bond angle?
57. Of the three molecules XeF4 , SF4 , SiF4 which (1) NH3 (2) AsH3
have tetrahedral structures? (3) PH3 (4) SbH3
(1) all the three (2) Only SiF4
64. Which of the following doesn’t undergo
(3) Both SF4 and XeF4
hydrolysis?
(4) Only SiF4 and XeF4 (1) (2)
NCl3 NF3
58. Which of the following statements is correct for (3) PCl3 (4) PCl5
carbon monoxide?
(1) A double bond between carbon and 65. The type of hybrid orbitals used by chlorine
oxygen is present in the most stable atom in ClO −2 is:
structure
(1) sp 3 (2) sp 2
(2) 1, 1 and 1-coordinate -bond between
carbon and oxygen is present (3) sp (4) dsp 2

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 Vidyamandir Classes
66. Which among the following does not have a (4) CO2 ,CH3+ ,SO 24−
hydrogen bond?
(1) Phenol (2) Liquid NH3 70. In which of the following there is change in
hybridisation of marked atom?
(3) Water (4) Liquid HCl
* *
67. Assertion(A): Ionization potential of Be (At. (1) N H3 + H + → N H 4+
No. 4) is less than B (At. No. 5). * *
(2) BF3 + NH3 → [BF3  NH3 ]
Reason(R): The first electron released in Be is
* *
from p-orbital but that of B is from an s-orbital. (3) C H 4 + Cl2 ⎯⎯→ C H3 − Cl
hv
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) None of these
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: 71. The molecule having formula AB3E2 where B
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is are surrounding atoms and E are the number of
the correct explanation of (A) lone pairs. The geometry and shape
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is respectively for the molecule is:
not the correct explanation of (A). (1) Octahedral, Planar
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (2) Tetrahedral, Planar
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (3) Trigonal bipyramidal, T-shape
68. Statement-I: HNO3 does not contain any co- (4) T-shape, Trigonal bipyramidal
Br OH Cl
ordinate bond.
Statement-II: N atom in HNO3 is sp 2 - 72. and
hybridised. Cl
In the light of the above statements, choose the Br , OH
most appropriate answer from the options given Respectively are with dipole moment () as:
below: (1)  = 0,  = 0,  = 0
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2)   0,   0,   0
correct. (3)  = 0,  = 0,   0
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4)  = 0,   0,   0
incorrect.
73. Percentage ionic character in ionic bond is
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
higher if:
incorrect.
(1) Polarizing power of cation is less
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
(2) Polarizing power of cation is more
is correct. (3) Polarizability of anion is more
69. The group of molecules containing sp 3 (4) Both (1) & (3)
hybridised atoms only are: 74. Bond angle of:
(1) NH3 is more than CH4
(1) PO34− , ClO 2− , ClO3−
(2) CO2 is more than BeCl2
(2) PCl5 ,BF3 ,BeCl2
(3) BF3 is more than NH3
(3) SF6 ,CH4 ,CCl4
(4) SO2 is more than CO2

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 Vidyamandir Classes
75. The dipole moment of compound A, B and C 79. The size of species I, I+ and I− decreases in the
respectively are X, Z, Y. If Y > X > Z then the order:
respective compounds A, B and C can be: (1) I+  I−  I (2) I−  I  I+
(1) CH3Cl;CCl4 ;CHCl3
(3) I−  I+  I (4) I  I +  I−
(2) CHCl3 ;CH3Cl;CCl4
80. Which one of the following ions has the
(3) CHCl3 ;CCl4 ;CH3Cl smallest radius?
(4) CCl4 ;CHCl3 ;CH3Cl (1) Cl− (2) S2−
76. The correct molecular orbital diagram for N 2 (3) K+ (4) Ca 2+
is: 81. Which one of the following is smallest in size?
(1) N 3− (2) O 2−
(1)
(3) F− (4) Na +
82. The correct order of second ionization potential
of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is:
(2) (1) C > N> O > F
(2) O > N> F > C
(3) O > F > N > C
(3) (4) F >O > N > C
83. The electronegativity of the following elements
increases in the order:
(4) None of these (1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P
77. If N b are the number of electrons occupying (3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C
bonding orbitals and Na are number of 84. The radii of F, F− , O and O 2− are in the order:
electrons occupying antibonding orbitals. Then: (1) O2−  F−  F  O
(1) The molecule is stable when N b is
(2) F−  O2−  F  O
greater than Na
(3) O2−  O  F−  F
(2) The molecule is stable when Nb = Na
(4) O2−  F−  O  F
(3) The molecule is stable when Na is
85. Element X belongs to 4th period. It contains 18
greater than N b inner electrons and one electron in the valence
(4) The molecule will only exist when shell. Therefore, X can be classified as:
Nb = Na (1) Alkali element
(2) Transition element
78. Which of the following has the largest ionic
(3) Inert gas
radius?
(4) p-block metal
(1) Be+2 (2) Mg +2
(3) Ca +2 (4) Sr +2

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - B (CHEMISTRY) 40 MARKS
86. Which of the following combinations is not (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
allowed in the LCAO method for the formation incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
of a molecular orbital (consider x-axis as the
incorrect.
molecular axis)?
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
(1) s + pz (2) s+s
is correct.
(3) px + px (4) pz + pz
91. Assertion(A): F atom has a less negative
87. Which one of the following is incorrect for C 2 electron gain enthalpy than Cl atom.
Reason(R): Additional electrons are repelled
molecule?
more effectively by 3p electrons of Cl atom
(1) Double bond in C 2 consists of both pi
than by 2p electrons in F-atom.
bonds In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) The bond order of C 2 is 2 most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) In vapour phase C 2 molecule have been below:
detected as diamagnetic (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
(4) C 2 is thermodynamically more stable
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
than graphite not the correct explanation of (A).
88. What is hybridisation state of P in solid state of (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
phosphorus pentachloride? (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(1) sp3 ,sp3 (2) sp3 ,sp 2 92. An element with atomic number (107) will be
placed in:
(3) sp3 ,sp3d 2 (4) sp, sp (1) Group VIA (2) Group VIIB
(3) Group VIB (4) Group-VA
89. The correct statement for CO and CO+ is:
93. Which of the following is correct?
(1) CO  CO+ – (bond order) (1) Halogens have the most negative
(2) CO  CO+ – (bond order) electron gain enthalpies in their
respective periods
(3) CO  CO+ – (bond strength)
(2) The electron affinity of fluorine is less
(4) CO = CO+ – (bond length) than that of chlorine
90. Statement-I: Noble gases have highest (3) Electron gain enthalpy of inert gas are
ionization energies in their respective periods. positive
Statement-II: Noble gas have stable electronic (4) All of these
configuration. 94. Boiling point of inert gases increase while
In the light of the above statements, choose the going down the group due to increase in:
most appropriate answer from the options given (1) Hydrogen bonding
below: (2) London dispersion forces
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) Dipole-dipole interactions
coned (4) All of these

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 Vidyamandir Classes
95. Which of the following pairs of elements (3) Each group in Mendeleev’s periodic
belongs to the same period of the periodic table was divided into two sub groups
table? (4) The table consists of ten horizontal rows
(1) Cs, Sr (2) Sn, Sb or periods
(3) Sb, Se (4) Po, I 99. Consider the following statements.
96. What is the group number and period of I. The radius of anion is larger than that of
element having atomic number-52? parent atom
(1) Group 15, period 5 II. The ionization energy generally increases
(2) Group 16, period 5 with increase of atomic no. in a period
(3) Group 16, period 6 III. The electron affinity of an element is the
(4) Group 14, period 4 tendency of an isolated solid atom to
97. The successive ionisation energy in kJ/mol of attract an electron
an element X are 740, 1500, 7700, 10500. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which ion is the most likely to be formed when (1) I alone (2) II alone
X reacts with chlorine? (3) I and II (4) I, II and III

(1) X –2 (2) X+ 100. Elements A, B and C have atomic number 19,

37 and 55 respectively. Which of the following
(3) X +2 (4) X +3
statement is true for the ionisation energy (IE)?
98. Which of the following statements are true? (1) A has minimum IE
(1) Mendeleev’s periodic law is based on the (2) B will have IE in between A and C
atomic no. of the elements (3) C will have maximum IE
(2) The table represented by Mendeleev did (4) B would have maximum IE
not have the zero group

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A (BOTANY) 140 MARKS
101. Which one of the following statements is 105. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in
wrong? having:
(1) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space (1) seeds
food. (2) motile sperms
(2) Mannitol is stored food in (3) cambium (4) vessels
Rhodophyceae. 106. Read the following five statements (A – E) and
(3) Algin and carrageenan are products of answer as asked next to them.
algae. (A) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is
(4) Algin and carrageenan are products of retained on the parent sporophyte.
algae is obtained from brown and red (B) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not
algae respectively. independent.
(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more
102. In which of the following, gametophyte is not
developed than that in Polytrichum.
independent free living?
(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is
(1) Pteris (2) Pinus
isogamous.
(3) Funaria (4) Marchantia (E) The spores of slime moulds have cell
103. Read the following five statements (A to E) wall.
and select the option with all correct How many of the above statements are correct?
statements. (1) Two (2) Three
A. Mosses and lichens are the first (3) Four (4) One
organisms to colonise a bare rock.
107. Examine the figure given below and select the
B. Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
correct option giving all the four parts (A, B, C
C. Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM. and D) rightly identified:
D. Main plant body in bryophytes is
gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes
it is sporophytic.
E. In gymnosperms, male and female
gametophytes are present within
sporangia located on sporophyte.
(1) A, D and E (2) B, C and E
(3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D A B C D
Female Gemma
104. Which one of the following is wrong about (1) Archegoniophore
thallus cup
Rhizoids
Female
Chara? (2) Archegoniophore
thallus
Bud Foot
(1) Upper oogonium and lower round (3) Seta Sporophyte Protonema Rhizoids
antheridium Male
(4) Antheridiophore
thallus
Globule Roots
(2) Globule and nucule present on the same
108. Mannitol is the stored food in:
plant
(1) Porphyra (2) Fucus
(3) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(3) Gracillaria (4) Chara
(4) Globule is male reproductive structure

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 Vidyamandir Classes
109. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber
represents:
(1) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen
grains are stored after pollination.
(2) an opening in the megagametophyte
through which the pollen tube
approaches the egg.
(3) the microsporangium in which pollen
grains develop.
(4) a cell in the pollen grain in which the
sperms are formed.
110. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the
three of which one of the following sets?
(1) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
(2) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
(3) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
(4) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
111. A student observed an algae with chlorophyll
a, d and phycoerythrin, it should belong to:
(1) Phaeophyta (2) Rhodophyta
(3) Chlorophyta (4) Bacillariophyta
112. In ferns, meiosis takes place at the time of:
(1) spore formation
(2) spore germination
(3) gamete formation
(4) antheridia and archegonia formation
113. A gymnospermic leaf carries 16 chromosomes.
The number of chromosomes in its endosperm
will be:
(1) 12 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 24
114. Read the following statements & select the
correct option:
A. Gymnosperms do not show xerophytic
characters.
B. In Cycas coralloid roots are associated
with mycorrhiza
C. In conifers needle like leaves reduce the
surface area.
D. All gymnosperms are heterosporous
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How many above statements are correct &
incorrect?
(1) B - correct, D - incorrect
(2) C - correct, A - incorrect
(3) A - correct, C - incorrect
(4) 0 - correct, D – incorrect
115. The correct sequence of evolution is:
(1) Bryophyta>Pteridophyta>Gymnosperms
>Dicots > Monocots
(2) Pteridophyta > Gymnosperms > Dicots
> Monocots > Bryophyta
(3) Bryophyta > Gymnosperms > Dicots >
Monocots > Angiosperms
(4) Bryophyta>Pteridophyta>Gymnosperms
>Monocots > Dicots
116. Classification system are changing every now
and then because an attempt has been made to
evolve such a system ultimately which is able
to explain evolutionary relations in organisms.
What was the correct sequence of these types
of classification systems with respect to their
evolution:
(1) Practical > Artificial > Natural >
Phylogenetic > Numerical
(2) Artificial > Practical > Numerical >
Phylogenetic
(3) Practical > Artificial > Natural >
Numerical > phylogenetic
(4) Numerical > Artificial> Natural >
Practical > Phylogenetic
117. Vessels are found in:
(1) All angiosperms and some gymnosperm
(2) Most of the angiosperms and few
gymnosperms
(3) All angiosperms, all gymnosperms and
some pteridophyta
(4) All pteridophyte
118. Walking fern name of Adiantum is due to:
(1) Dispersal by animals
(2) Reproduction by spores
(3) Vegetative reproduction
(4) Power of locomotion
 Vidyamandir Classes
119. Select the mismatch. (1) 7 (2) 5
(1) Cycas, Dioecious (3) 4 (4) 6
(2) Salvinia, Heterosporous 127. Identify the A, B and C shown in this figure?
(3) Equisetum, Homosporous
(4) Pinus, Dioecious
120. In Pinus, endosperm cells have 30
chromosomes then how many chromosomes
are present in sieve cells:
(1) 30 (2) 60
(3) 10 (4) 15
121. Which of the following is homosporous?
(1) A–Gametophyte (n), B–Zygote (2n), C–
(1) Selaginella (2) Pinus
Gametogenesis
(3) Cycas (4) Lycopodium
(2) A–Zygote (2n), B–Gametophyte (n), C–
122. Which of the following is not monoecious Gametogenesis
plant? (3) A–Zygote (2n), B–Gametogenesis, C–
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus Gametophyte (n)
(3) Wheat (4) Mustard (4) A–Gametogenesis, B–Zygote (2n), C–
123. Algae, used in preparation of ice-creams and Gametophyte (n)
jellies are:
128. What indicates A, B and C in this figure.
(1) Gelidium and Chlorella
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Chara and Spirulina
(4) Chlorella and Spirulina
124. When both the phases of life cycle are
multicellular, i.e., haploid and diploid phases
are more than one celled:
(1) Life cycles are called haplodiplontic
(2) They differ in the dominant phase
(1) A–Dwarf shoot, B–Long shoot, C–Seeds
(3) They are in pteridophytes and bryophytes
(2) A–Long shoot, B–Seeds, C–Dwarf shoot
(4) All of these
(3) A–Long shoot, B–Dwarf shoot, C–Seeds
125. How many organisms show haplodiplontic life (4) A–Seeds, B–Long Shoot, C–Dwarf Shoot
cycle?
129. Select the incorrect matching:
Sphagnum, Volvox, Ulothrix, Marchantia, (1) Actinomorphic – When flower can be
Polytrichum, Selaginella, Pinus, Cedrus, divided into two equal radial halves in any
Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia radial plane passing through the centre.
(1) 8 (2) 6 (2) Zygomorphic – When flower can be
(3) 7 (4) 9 divided into two similar halves only in
126. How many organisms show diplontic life one particular vertical plane.
cycle? (3) Asymmetric – When flower cannot be
divided into two similar halves by any
Selaginella, Equisetum, Cycas, Cedrus,
vertical plane passing through centre.
Ectocarpus, Fucus, Sequoia
(4) All are correct

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 Vidyamandir Classes
130. Asymmetric flower is found in:
(4)
(1) Pea (2) Datura
(3) Bean (4) Canna 134. Select the correct matching:
Column-I Column-II Column-III
131. How many of the following contains A. Gynoecium X. Mustard,
zygomorphic flower? 1. Hypogynous occupies the Brinjal, China
highest position rose
Pea, Gulmohur, Bean, Cassia, Mustard, B. Gynoecium is
Y. Plum, peach,
Datura, Chilli, Sesbania, Lupin, Muliathi 2. Epigynous situated in the
rose
(1) 6 (2) 7 centre
C. Margin of
(3) 4 (4) 8 thalamus grows
Z. Guava,
cucumber, ray
132. The reduced leaf found at the base of the 3. Perigynous upward
florets of
enclosing ovary
pedicel is known as: sunflower
completely
(1) Leaflet (2) Stipule (1) 1‒A‒X, 2‒B‒Y, 3‒C‒Z
(3) Bract (4) Calyx (2) 1‒A‒X, 2‒C‒Z, 3‒B‒Y
133. The floral formula of Liliaceae is (3) 1‒B‒Y, 2‒A‒X, 3‒C‒Z
(4) 1‒A‒X, 2‒B‒Z, 3‒C‒Y
(1)
135. Which flower posses superior ovary?
(2) (1) Mustard (2) China rose
(3) Brinjal (4) All of these
(3)
SECTION - B (BOTANY) 40 MARKS
136. If fruit is developed without fertilization of the D. Cotyledons are generally without food
ovary, it is called: reserve.
(1) Parthenocarpic fruit (1) A and B only
(2) Apomictic fruit (2) B and C only
(3) Fleshly fruit (3) C and D only
(4) A and D only
(4) Polyembryonic fruit
140. Following are the non-endospermic seed
137. Mango is developed from:
except:
(1) Monocarpellary inferior ovary
(1) Bean (2) Gram
(2) Monocarpellary superior ovary
(3) Pea (4) Castor
(3) Multicarpellary inferior ovary
(4) Multicarpellary superior ovary 141. Which layer is called aleurone layer?
(1) Protein (2) Carbohydrate
138. The following are dicots except:
(3) Lipid (4) All of these
(1) Bean (2) Gram
(3) Pea (4) Maize 142. The plumule and radical in monocot seed are
enclosed in sheaths which are called
139. Which of the following is correct about dicot
_________and _________ respectively.
seed?
(1) Coleoptile and scutellum
A. Micropyle is present above the hilum.
(2) Scutellum and coleorhiza
B. At the ends of embryonal axis the
(3) Coleoptile and coleorhiza
radicle and plumule is present.
(4) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
C. Seed coat has 3 layers.

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 Vidyamandir Classes
143. Select the incorrect statement among the (3) Gamosepalous (C), polypetalous (K),
following: diadelphous, superior ovary.
A. Monocot seeds are generally (4) Polyseplous (C), gamopetalous (C),
endospermic. epipetalous stamen, superior ovary.
B. In maize, the seed coat is membranous 147. ‘Lily’ family stands for:
and is generally fused with fruit wall. (1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae
C. In monocot seed, the single large shield (3) Fabaceae (4) Brassicaeae
shape cotyledon is known as scutellum. 148. Select the correct matching:
D. In orchids, the seeds are non- (1) Vegetable ‒ Colchicine
endospermic. (2) Medicine ‒ Tulip
(1) A and B only (3) Ornamental ‒ Asparagus
(2) C only (3) D only (4) Medicine ‒ Belladonna, ashwagandha
(4) None of these
149. The floral formula of Brassicaceae is:
144. Which family is known as the ‘potato’ family?
(1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae (1)
(3) Liliaceae
(2)
(4) Cruciferae (Brassicaceae)
145. Select from the following the total number of (3)
plant showing tricarpellary gynoecium. (4)
Gram, Arhar, Moong, Sesbania, Lupin, 150. Identify the A to D in this figure:
Muliathi, Soyabean, Tomato, Brinjal,
Belladona, Petunia, Tobacco, Tulip, Aloe,
Colchicine, Asparagus, Chilli, Ground nuts,
Indigofera, Sunhemp
(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) A–Petals, B–Carpel, C–Basel, D–
(3) 6 (4) 3 Androecium
146. Which of the following is correct about chilli? (2) A–Androecium, B–Basal, C–Carpel, D–
(1) Gamosepalous (K), gamopetalous (C), Petals
epipetalous stamen, superior ovary. (3) A–Basal, B–Androecium, C–Petals, D–
(2) Gamosepalous (C), stamen five, superior Carpel
ovary. (4) A–Carpel, B–Basal, C–Androecium, D–
Petals

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A (ZOOLOGY) 140 MARKS
151. Classification of vertebrates is given in 154. Flying fish is the common name of:
following figure. Identify A, B, C and D (1) Hippocampus
and choose the correct answer. (2) Exocoetus
(3) Betta
(4) Pterophyllum
155. Select the correct match.
(1) Labeo – Persistent notochord
(2) Icthyophis - Limbless amphibia
(3) Bufo – Tree frog
(4) Pristis – Sting ray
A B C D
156. Complete the analog
(1) Phylum Acraniata Class Chondrichthyes
Labeo : Cycloid scales : : ____ : Placoid
Sub
(2) Acraniata Division Pisces sacles
class
(1) Scoliodon
(3) Division Gnathostomata Class Pisces
Sub
(2) Clarias
(4) Class Gnathostomata
class
Craniata (3) Hippocampus
(4) Catla
152. Select the incorrect match w.r.t animals
and their respiratory organs which 157. Presence of which of the following
participate in gaseous exchange. general feature is not a mammalian
(1) Locusta – Tracheal tubes feature?
(2) Pinctada – Feathery gills (1) Diaphragm (2) Ear pinna
(3) Pheretima – Moist cuticle (3) Body hair (4) Crop
(4) Psittacula – Air sacs 158. Read the following statements I and II and
153. In which one of the following, the genus choose the correct answer.
name, its two characters and its class are Statement -I: All Gnathostomes are
incorrectly matched? vertebrates but all vertebrates are not
Genus Two characters Class Gnathostomes.
(i) Circular mouth without
jaws Cyclostom-
Statement- II: All vertebrates are chordates but
(1) Petromyzon (ii) Body is devoid of scales ata all chordates are not vertebrates.
and paired find
(i) Tympanum represents (1) Only statement I is correct
the ear (2) Only statement II is correct
(2) Rana (ii) Respiration through Amphibia
buccal cavity, lungs and (3) Both statements I and II are correct
skin
(i) Presence of electric
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Torpedo organ Pisces
(ii) Poikilothermous 159. Theodore Schwann, a British Zoologist
(i) Presence of poison gland has a great contribution in formulation of
(4) Naja (ii) Limbs are completely Reptilia
absent cell theory. Select the correct statement
w.r.t. the hypothesis proposed by him.

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 Vidyamandir Classes
(1) All plants are composed of 164. (A) A specialised differentiated form of
different kinds of cells which form cell membrane.
the tissues of the plant (B) These are essentially infoldings of
cell membrane.
(2) Bodies of animals and plants are (C) Helps in cell wall formation,
composed of cells and products of cells respiration, secretion process, to
(3) New cells are formed from pre- increase surface area of plasma
existing cells. membrane and enzymatic content.
(4) Omnis cellula - e-cellula The above features (A-C) are attributed to
which of the given structures of prokaryotic
160. Which of the given cell organelles is found cell?
prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic cells? (1) Nucleoid (2) Plasmid
(1) Mitochondria (3) Mesosome (4) Pilli
(2) Microbodies 165. Refer the given statements, stating them
(3) Vacuoles (4) Ribosome true (T) or false (F) and select the correct
option.
161. Within the cell, ribosomes are found not A. The ribosomes of polysome
only in the cytoplasm but also in/on cell translate the mRNA into proteins.
organelles, that includes. B. Gas vacuoles are found in blue
green and purple and green
(A) Mitochondria
photosynthetic bacteria.
(B) Chloroplast C. Centrioles are present in all plant cells.
(C) Rough ER D. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are made
(D) Golgi body of two subunits 50 S and 40 S.
The correct set of options is: (1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
(2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T
(1) (A) and (B) only
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(2) Only (C) (3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T
(4) Only (D) 166. Consider the given diagram and select the
162. Arrange the following in ascending order correct option w.r.t labelled components
of their sizes. (A-D).
P. Red blood cells
Q. Mycoplasma
R. Bacteria
(1) Q < R < P (2) Q < P < R
(3) P < R < Q (4) R < Q < P
163. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cells and
their shapes. A B C D
Peripheral Integral
(1) White blood cells-Round and (1) Lipid Cholesterol
protein protein
biconcave Integral Peripheral
(2) Cholesterol
protein
Sugar
protein
(2) A tracheid - Elongated Peripheral Phospholipid Integral
(3) Nerve cell - Branched and long (3) Sugar
protein bilayer protein
Integral
(4) Columnar epithelial cells - Long (4) Sugar
protein
Cholesterol Lipid
and narrow

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 Vidyamandir Classes
167. Match the column-l with column-II and 172. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. various
select the correct option. layers of cell envelope in bacterial cells.
Column-I Column-II (1) The outermost layer determines the
Controls all the activities shape of cells
a. Golgi complex (i)
of eukaryotic cells (2) Glycocalyx is followed by cell wall
Endoplasmic
Helps in formation of (3) Glycocalyx can be seen either in
b. (ii) basal bodies which gives
reticulum
rise to cilia and flagella
the form of slime layer or capsule
Important site of in different types of bacteria
c. Nucleus (iii)
formation of glycoprotein (4) Cell wall is made of peptidoglycan
Often shows ribosomes
173. Glycosidic bonds are present in:
d. Centriole (iv) attached to their outer
a. Proteins b. Lipids
surface
c. Starch d. DNA
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Choose the correct option.
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) Only c (4) c and d
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
174. 'Ramachandran plot' is associated with:
168. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in (1) Triple helical structure of collagen
all of the given functions, except: (2) Ball and stick model of
(1) Maintenance of shape of cells biomicromolecules
(2) Mechanical support to cell (3) Linear structure of cellulose
(3)  -oxidation of fats (4) Secondary metabolites
(4) Motility 175. Read the following statements I and II and
169. How many centrioles are associated with choose the correct answer.
Statement-I: All the elements present in a
a centrosome?
sample of earth's crust are also present in
(1) 5 (3) 2
a sample of living tissue.
(2) 3 (4) 4
Statement-I: Relative abundance of
170. Which of the given are formed by the carbon and hydrogen with respect to other
process of packaging in the Golgi elements is higher in any living organism
apparatus? than in earth's crust.
(1) Lysosome (3) Centrioles (1) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Mitochondria (2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Chloroplast (3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct
171. In human beings, the membrane of the
176. Choose the option which correctly
erythrocyte has approximately A percent
represents their occurrence in filtrate and
proteins and B percent lipids. retentate during analysis of chemical
(1) A – 60, B – 40 compounds of living tissues.
(2) A –52, B – 40 Filtrate Retentate
(3) A – 40, B – 52 (1) Glucose Amino acid
(4) A –40, B – 60 (2) Alanine Palmitic acid
(3) Lipids Nucleic acids
(4) Proteins Copper sulphate

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 Vidyamandir Classes
177. When a tissue is fully burnt, 'Ash' is 182. Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an
obtained which contains all of the enzyme in order and choose the correct
following substances except. option.
(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (i) The enzyme releases product of the
(3) Carbon (4) Potassium reaction and gets free.
178. Co-enzymes differ from prosthetic groups (ii) The active site of enzyme is in
in that: close proximity of the substrate and
(1) They require metal ions for their breaks chemical bonds of the
activity substrate.
(2) They can act as cofactor for many (iii) The binding of substrate induces
enzymes the enzyme to alter its shape.
(3) They are tightly bound to (iv) The substrate binds to active sites
apoenzymes. of the enzyme.
(4) Their association with apoenzyme (1) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
is transient (2) (ii), (iv), (iii) (i)
(3) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
179. How many nitrogen atoms are present in
(4) (iii). (ii), (i), (iv)
Lecithin?
(1) 4 (2) 3 183. A proteinaceous molecule that joins a
(3) 2 (4) 1 cofactor to form a holoenzyme is:
(1) Coenzyme (2) Prosthetic group
180. Which of the following structures
(3) Inhibitors (4) Apoenzyme
represents zwitterion form of a particular
amino acid? 184. What is more likely reason for presence of
lipids in acid insoluble pool during
NH 2 H
| analysis of chemical composition of
|
(1) R − C − H (2) R − C − CH +2 tissues?
| | (1) It has very high molecular weight
COOH COOH
(2) It is a polymer of glycerol and fatty
NH 3+ H acids
| | (3) It has a very high density
(3) R − C − H (4) R − C − COO − (4) On grinding, the biomembranes are
| |
COO − NH 2 broken down into pieces and form
insoluble vesicles
181. The amino acids are acidic, basic and
185. Which of the following compounds
neutral based on the number of:
contribute maximum percentage in the
(1) Amino groups and hydrogen
total cellular mass of human body next to
(2) Amino and carboxyl group
water?
(3) Carboxyl groups and hydrogen
(1) Lipids (2) Proteins
(4) Only carboxyl groups
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Vitamins

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - B (ZOOLOGY)
186. Read the following statements I and II and
choose the correct answer.
Statement I: The most unique
mammalian feature is presence of
mammary glands.
Statement II: Two additional chambers
crop and gizzard are present in alimentary
canal of both insects and birds.
(1) Both statements I and II are
incorrect
(2) Both statement I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct
187. Which of the following is a true fish?
(1) Dogfish (2) Silverfish
(3) Cuttlefish (4) Whale
188. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. presence
of given features.
(1) Aves — Feather
(2) Reptilia — Creeping
(3) Mammalia — Body hairs
(4) Cyclostomata — Operculated gills
189. Complete the analogy
Penguin : Oviparous ::_: Viviparous
(1) Krait (2) Kangaroo
(3) Platypus (4) Sea horse
190. Which of the following is not a 197. The carbon atom of one pentose sugar
mammalian feature?
(1) They are homoiothermous
(2) Pulmonary respiration
(3) Internal fertilization
(4) Indirect development
191. Which of the given components of
oxysome contain ATP synthase enzyme?
(1) Base (2) Stalk
(3) Headpiece (4) Fo
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192. Which of the given components w.r.t.
chromosomes seal their ends and prevent
shortening or chromosome loss?
(1) Telomere (2) Kinetochore
(3) Centromere
(4) Primary constriction
193. Which of the given plastids store
proteins?
(1) Amyloplast (2) Elaioplast
(3) Aleuroplast (4) Chromoplast
194. Which of the following statements w.r.t.
chloroplast is incorrect?
(1) Stores starch
(2) Performs photosynthesis
(3) Outer membrane is relatively less
permeable to substances than inner
membrane
(4) Contains 70 S ribosomes
195. In which of the given chromosomes,
centromere is present at the centre?
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
196. Which of the following is not present in a
nucleotide?
(1) Pentose sugar
(2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Heterocyclic compound
(4) Phosphoric acid or phosphate
which combines with carbon atom of
other pentose sugar of succeeding
nucleotide by phosphodiester bond are:
(1) C 2 and C3 (2) C3 and C 4
(3) C3 and C5 (4) C 4 and C5
198. A short length of double stranded B-DNA
molecule has 150 purine molecules
having ratio of adenine and guanine 1:1.
What is the total number of nucleotides in
this DNA fragment?
(1) 75 (2) 150
(3) 300 (4) 600
 Vidyamandir Classes
199. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t (4) Enzymes catalyse many irreversible
enzymes. Reactions
(1) Enzymes require optimum 200. The most important form of energy
temperature for maximum activity
currency in living systems is the bond
(2) Enzymes are denatured at low
temperature energy in a chemical called:
(3) Bell-shaped graph is formed when (1) ATP (2) Glucose
enzyme activity at y-axis is plotted (3) GTP (4) Glycogen
against temperature at x-axis

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 Vidyamandir Classes

   End of (VPTS-2) VMC MEDICAL PRACTICE TEST SERIES -2A | NEET-2023   

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