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21 05 2023 SR Super60 Nucleus&All Batch 1 Jee Adv2020 p1 Gta 26
21 05 2023 SR Super60 Nucleus&All Batch 1 Jee Adv2020 p1 Gta 26
21 05 2023 SR Super60 Nucleus&All Batch 1 Jee Adv2020 p1 Gta 26
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 21-05-2023_Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS&ALL_BT’S_Jee-Adv(2020-P1)_GTA-26_Q.P
JEE-ADVANCE-2020-P1-Model
Time: 3:00Hour’s IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 198
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs mark
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 6) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 6 18
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 7 – 12) 4 -2 6 24
Choice +1 partial marks
Questions with Numerical Value
Sec – III(Q.N : 13 – 18) 4 0 6 24
Answer Type
Total 18 66
CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 19 – 24) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 6 18
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 25 – 30) 4 -2 6 24
Choice +1 partial marks
Questions with Numerical Value
Sec – III(Q.N : 31 – 36) 4 0 6 24
Answer Type
Total 18 66
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 37 – 42) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 6 18
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 43 – 48) 4 -2 6 24
Choice +1 partial marks
Questions with Numerical Value
Sec – III(Q.N : 49 – 54) 4 0 6 24
Answer Type
Total 18 66
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 21-05-2023_Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS&ALL_BT’S_Jee-Adv(2020-P1)_GTA-26_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 66
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases
1. In the circuit shown in figure, the switch ' S ' is closed at t = 0. The value of current in the
resistor R3 , when it becomes steady (as compared to the steady current before closing the
switch S)
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains constant D) Becomes zero
2. A straight segment OP of length L of a circuit carrying current I ampere is placed along x-
axis. Two infinitely long straight wires A and B each extending from z to are
fixed at y meter to y meter respectively. Wires A and B, each carry current I
ampere along positive z-axis. Given that O is origin of the coordinate system. The
magnitude of force on segment OP is
0 2 L2 0 2 L2
A)
I n 1 B)
I n 1
2 2 2
0 2 2 0 2 2
C)
I n 1 D)
I n 1
L2 2 L2
3. A bobbin of mass M = 3 kg consists of a central cylinder of radius r = 5 cm and outer
radius R = 6 cm. It is placed on a slotted incline on which it will roll but not slip, and a
mass m = 4.5 kg is suspended from a cord wound around the bobbin, as shown in figure. It
is observed the system is in static equilibrium. What is the angle of tilt of the incline ?
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1 1
A) tan 1 B) tan 1
2 3 3 3
1 1
C) tan 1 D) tan 1
4 3 5 3
5. Wedge is fixed on horizontal surface. Triangular block A of mass M is pulled upward by
applying a constant force F parallel to incline of the wedge as shown in the figure and
there is no friction between the wedge and the block A, while coefficient of friction
between A and block B of mass m is . If there is no relative motion between A and B
then frictional force developed between A and B is
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F m M g sin
A) m cos
B) mg
m M
F m M g sin
C) m cos
D) mg / 2
m M
6. A cylinder is filled with a liquid of refractive index . The radius of the cylinder is
decreasing at a constant rate K. The volume of the liquid inside the container remains
constant at V. The observer and the object O are in a state of rest and at a distance L from
each other. The apparent velocity of the object as seen by the observer, (when radius of
cylinder is r)
SECTION – II
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: -2 In all other cases
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7. An electrical circuit is shown in the figure. It has two conducting sphere A and B of radii
3a and 6a respectively. When the inductor of inductance L is in its steady state the switch
is shifted from position-1 to position-2. Now choose the correct option(s)
V
A) Maximum charge on the sphere A is 80 aL
R
V
B) Maximum change on the sphere B is 40 aL
R
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A) The minimum distance during subsequent motion between the balls of mass m is
6q 2
3q 2 16m 0v 2
B) The minimum distance during subsequent motion between the balls of mass m is
3q 2
3q 2 16 m 0v 2
C) The maximum difference in electrostatic potential energy of the system during
2mv 2
subsequence motion is
3
D) The maximum difference in electrostatic potential energy of the system during
4mv 2
subsequent motion is
3
9. A particle of mass m = 3 kg is constrained to move along a straight line. A and B are two
fixed points on the line at a separation of L = 1m . When the particle is at some point P
N
between A and B, it is acted upon by two forces F 1 200 PA and
m
N
F 2 100 PB , where magnitudes of PA and PB are in metre. At time t = 0, the
m
10
particle is projected from A towards B with speed v m/s. Then
3
A) Particle reaches to B at t sec
30
B) Particle reaches to B at t sec
15
200
C) Oscillation energy of the particle is J
3
100
D) Oscillation energy of the particle is J
3
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10. In the Bohr’s hydrogen atom model, R, V and E represent the radius of the orbit, speed of
the electron and total energy of the electron respectively. Which of the following
quantities are proportional to the quantum number n ?
A) VR B) RE C) VE 1 D) RE 1
11. A ray of light is incident normally on one face 300 600 900 prism of refractive index
5 4
p immersed in water of refractive index m as shown in the figure.
3 3
5
A) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin 1
8
5
B) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin 1
4 3
C) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to
5
n by dissolving some substance.
2 3
D) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to
5
n by dissolving some substance.
6
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12. Nucleus A decays to B with decay constant 1 and B decays to C with decay constant 2 .
Initially at t = 0, number of nuclei of A and B are 2N 0 and N 0 respectively. At
t t0 ,number of nuclei of B stop changing. If at this instant number of nuclei of B are
3N0
.
2
1 4 1 1 4 1
A) the value of t0 is ln B) the value of t0 is ln
1 3 2 2 3 2
3 N 0 2 2 N 0 2
C) the value of N A at t0 is D) the value of N A at t0 is
2 1 3 1
SECTION – III
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated
to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks: 0 In all other cases
Find the time (in seconds) in which he gets to the other end of the plank. g 10m / sec 2
15. Two large plane mirrors M1 and M 2 are kept at an angle of 1200 as shown in figure. The
co–ordinate of intersection of plane mirror is (0, 2 meter). A man moves along
x–axis. Find the length (in meter) on x-axis for which man can see both the images of
point A formed by mirrors simultaneously. (take 3 1.73 and height of man is
negligible).
Sec: Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS&ALL_BT’S Space for rough work Page 9
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17. A 0.500 kg mass is attached to a spring of constant 150 N/m. A driving force F(t) = (12.0
N) cost is applied to the mass, and the damping coefficient b is 6.00 Ns/m. What is the
amplitude (in cm) of the steady-state motion of is equal to half of the natural frequency
0 of the system?
18. A beam of natural light falls on a system or N = 6 Nicol prisms whose transmission planes
are turned each through an angle 300 with respect to that of the foregoing prism. What
fraction of luminous flux passes through this system?
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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 66
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases
19. Sodium (atomic number = 11) belongs to first group and third period of modern periodic
table. Which of the following is/are correct?
A) Direction of angular momentum of an electron in the first orbit of Na 10 ion is given
by Bohr’s theory.
B) Second ionization energy is very higher than third ionization energy of Sodium atom
due to stable inert gas configuration of sodium(I) ion.
C) Sodium vapour emits two yellow lines of close wavelengths while excitation of 3s
electron.
D) If there are no electron-electron repulsions and no spin associated with nucleus and
electrons, the energy of highest energy electron in the ground state of isolated sodium
13.6
atom is 121 eV .
9
20. The boiling point of aqueous solution of a non-volatile and non-electrolyte solute (P) is
373.26 K. What mass of solute, in grams, should be added to 43 grams of solution of
given composition, therefore depression in freezing point becomes equal to 20/3 times
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22. Which property of fluorine is essential for the successful separation of 235UF6 and
238
UF6 in a gas centrifuge? (Gas diffusion method)
A) Elemental fluorine exists as diatomic molecules
B) Fluorine has only one naturally occurring isotope
C) Fluorine has the highest electro negativity of all elements
D) Fluorine is a gas at room temperature and pressure
23. Select the most suitable reactant for the given reaction.
3 i CF CO
3 H OH HO
+
ii H 3O HO H H OH
1 : 1
A) B) C) D)
24. The correct acidic strength order is :
(I) HCOOH (II) CHCl2COOH
COOH
Ph COOH
(III) (IV) Cl
A) I > II > IV > III B) II > IV > I > III
C) II > I > IV > III D) II > IV > III > I
SECTION – II
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: -2 In all other cases
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25. Vapours of one mole of aniline follows the equation of state, given as
RT a
P 2
V b V
Where V = Volume of the container with one mole of aniline vapour
P = pressure of the vapour, T = temperature in Kelvin scale.
a and b are temperature independent constants, called vander Waals constant.
Select the CORRECT statement(s).
A) Density of Aniline cannot be lowered above a temperature which is greater than critical
temperature by decreasing volume.
B) Aniline can always be liquefied without passing through liquid – vapour equilibrium
below critical temperature.
C) Compressibility factor at very low fixed temperature constantly decreases with
increase in pressure on aniline vapour.
D) Work done by one mole of aniline vapour in an adiabatic reversible expansion is given
V final
RT a
by V b
V2
dv .
Vinitial
26. Consider three-dimensional hexagonal close packing of identical rigid spheres. Two
different types of voids are formed. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
these voids?
A) There are two different types of tetrahedral voids in terms of volume of the void.
B) All the depressions of first layer are not completely covered by the spheres of the
second layer to form tetrahedral void at each depression.
C) There is only one type of octahedral voids in terms of volume of the void.
D) Centres of tetrahedral voids and octahedral voids are at same distance from the plane
of centres of spheres of one of the layers arranged in hexagonal close packing.
27. The CORRECT statement(s) about the Group-I metals is(are)
A) Reactivity of Group-I metals with water decreases down the group
B) Among the Group-I metals, Li spontaneously reacts with N 2 to give a red-brown
layer-structured material
C) Thermal stability of Group-I metal peroxides increases down the group
D) All the Group-I metal halides are generally high-melting colorless crystalline solids
Sec: Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS&ALL_BT’S Space for rough work Page 13
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28. If a mixture of NaCl, conc. H 2 SO4 and K 2Cr2O7 is heated in a dry test tube a red vapour
(P) is formed. This vapour (P) dissolves in aqueous NaOH to form a yellow solution,
which upon treatment with AgNO3 forms a red solid (Q). P and Q are, respectively
A) CrO2Cl2 B) Ag 2Cr2O7 C) Ag 2CrO4 D) Na2 CrOCl5
29. Which of the following reagent can be used to distinguish between an aldose and a ketose
sugar?
A) Bromine water B) Tollen’s reagent
C) Fehling’s solution D) Luca’s reagent
30. Compounds mentioned in which of the following pairs can be distinguished by Silver
mirror test ?
&
A) C6 H 5CHO and C6 H 5CH 2CHO B) O O
OH OH
&
C) O O D) C6 H 5CHO and C2 H 5CHO
SECTION – III
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated
to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks: 0 In all other cases
31. Gaseous decomposition of A(g) follows I st order kinetics. Pure A(g) is taken in a sealed
flask where decomposition occurs as shown.
A g 2 B g C g
After 10 seconds, a leak was developed in the flask. On analysis of the effused gaseous
mixture (Obeying Graham’s law) coming out initially, moles of B(g) were found to be
double of A. What is rate constant in sec1 ?
Given : Molecular weight of A = 16u
Molecular weight of B = 4u
Molecular weight of C = 8u
[ln 3 = 1.1; ln 2 = 0.7]
Report your answer by multiplying it with 100.
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32. A metal strip (N) is placed in a 1L saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt MCl3 .
104 moles of N are reacted. The solubility product of MCl3 is a 10b (value a is
adjusted to a nearest single digit integer). What is the value of (a+b)?
Given R = 8.0 J/K-mol; E o M 3 / M =1.62 V and E o N 2 / N =0.62 V and all the
C H CHO
6 5 2 2 NH NH / OH
A
B
OH /
36. O
Degree of unsaturation of B is :
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MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 66
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases
2 4
A) 2 B) C) D)
2 2
39. Let ' R ' be a relation defined on set of real numbers and a R b a b3 . Then the relation
is
A) Reflexive B) Symmetric C) Transitive D) Not Transitive
40. If the four faces of a tetrahedron are represented by the equations
r. i j 0, r. j k 0 , r. k i 0 and r. i j k , then volume
of tetrahedron (in cubic units) (where , , , are positive numbers) is
1 3 3 2 3 3
A) B) C) D)
6 3 3 6
1
41. The value of n.2n 1 is equal to __________
n 1
A) ln2 B) 3 ln2 C) 2 ln2 D) 4 ln2
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z z
42. If z sin f x dx z 2 x sin f x dx where z > 0, then 1 z f | z cot f z is
0 0
equal to
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
SECTION – II
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: -2 In all other cases
43. Consider polynomials P x of degree at most 3, each of whose coefficients is an element
of 0,1, 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 . The number of polynomials which satisfy
P –1 –9 is K, then K is divisible by
A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 11
44.
Let f x sin 1 cos x cos 1 sin x , x 0,2 . Then which of the following is NOT
TRUE?
2 2
A) Range of f x is , B) x is a point of maxima
4 4
C) f (x) is continuous in 0,2 D) f x is differentiable in 0,2
9
45. Let f (x) be a continuous function and I x f x dx then which is/are TRUE?
1
D) If f x 0x 1,9 I 0
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46. Let P is a variable point on the curve z i 1 in argand plane such that
2 3 i
arg . Q be another point and area swept out by segment PQ is S (in
3 3 2 2
3 2 3
A) min 3 B) min 1 C) S D) S
3 4 3 4
47. Let KA = O where K, A, O are square matrices of order 3 and O is a null matrix. Let K be
1
an Idempotent matrix. Define G A K , then which is/are TRUE?
A) AG = I – K B) AG = I + K
C) AGA = A D) AGK = O …..(O is a null matrix)
48. Let a class have 20 students. The average marks of these students in the mathematics
examination is 62 and their variance is 30. A student fails in the examination if he/she gets
less than 40 marks, then the number of students that may fail is
A) 1 B) 0 C) 2 D) 3
SECTION – III
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated
to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks: 0 In all other cases
13 13 13 13
2 r 2 r r 3 r
49. Let a sin ; b cos ; c tan and d cot3 . Then the
28 28 28 28
r 1 r 1 r 1 r 1
50. The number of solutions of the equation sin cos sin x cos sin cos x in 0,
is ____
1 1
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52. Consider a triangle ABC with AB = 2, BC = 3 and AC = 4. Consider two points X,Y
such that X lies on AC, Y lies on BC, and triangle XYC has area half of that of ABC. The
a
minimum possible value of XY is (GCD (a, b) = 1) then the value of (a + b) is equal
b
to _______
2
a sin 2 x b 2 cos2 x 3 2
53. The value of 3 dx , where a 2 b2 , a b2 , ab 0 is equal to
4 2 4 2 4
0 a sin x b cos x
54. If the probability that a number selected from the set {1, 2, 3, …., 1000} is divisible by 3
m
but neither divisible by 5 nor by 7, is , then (n – m) is (where m and n are relatively
n
prime number)
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