FT-48 Neet

Date : - 30 - 04 - 2024
Class : - XII (M) NEET
FULL TEST – 48 (2024)

Time : - 3 Hours Max.Marks : - 720
INSTRUCTIONS
Please ensure that the Question paper you have received contains ALL THEQUESTIONS in each Section
and PAGES. If you found some mistake like missingquestions of pages then contact immediately to the
Invigilator
1. The Test is of 3 hourse duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice question (one options with a
single correct answer) from PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, and BOTARY, ZOOLOGY. 50 Question in each subject
are divided into two section (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-Five) Question in each subject (Question Nos-001 to 035, 001 to 035 , 1 to
35, and 1 to 35)-All questions are compulsory
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) question in each subject (Question Nos-0.36 to 0.50, 0.36 to 50, 36 to 50,
and 36 to 50 . In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each
subject.
2. All Questions have four choices (1), (2), (3), (4) out of which only one is correct.
3. All Questions carry Four Marks.
4. There is Negative marking. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
5. Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.
6. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.
7. The answers of the questions must be marked by shading the circle against the question by dark black ball pen.
NOTE : General instructions for filling the OMR are given on the LAST PAGE.
USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights : AI = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, CI = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K = 39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48, Ba =
137, U = 238, Co = 59, B = 11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 ,Mo = 96
[ Take : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 × 10–19, mo = 9.1 × 10–31 kg]
Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

CLASS: XII MED
NEET
PHYSICS
SECTION – A (Q- 01 to 35)
1. Identify the correct statements from the following:
A) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket is negative.
B) Work done by a gravitational force in lifting a bucket out of a well by a rope tied to the bucket is
negative.
C) Work done by friction on a body sliding down on an inclined plane is positive.
D) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity
in zero.
E) Work done by the air resistance on an oscillating pendulum in negative.
1) B and E only 2) A and C only 3) B, D and E only 4) B and D only
2. A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. The approximate maximum speed of car
will be, if friction between tyres and road is 0.34 [take g = 10 m/s2]
1) 3.4 ms–1 2) 22.4 ms–1 3) 13 ms–1 4) 17 ms–1
3. The time taken by an object to slide down 450 rough inclined plane is n times as it takes to slide down
a perfectly smooth 450 incline plane. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the
incline plane
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) 1  (3) 1  (4) 1 
1 n2 n2 n2 n2
4. The nth division of main scale coincides with (n + 1)th division of vernier scale. Given one main scale
division is equal to ‘a’ unit. The least count of vernier callipers is
n a a
(1) (2) (3) an (4)
a 1 n 1 n
5. Surface tension of a soap bubble is 2.0 × 10–2 N/m. Work done to increase the radius of soap bubble
from 3.5 cm to 7 cm will be [Take  = 22/7]
1) 0.72 × 10–4 J 2) 5.76 × 10–4 J 3) 18.48 × 10–4 J 4) 9.24 × 10–4 J
6. If the temperature increases, the modulus of elasticity
1) Decreases 2) Increases 3) Remains constant 4) Becomes zero
0
7. A stone is projected at angle 30 to the horizontal the ratio of kinetic energy of the stone at point of
projection to its kinetic energy at the highest point of flight will be
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 4 3) 4 : 1 4) 4 : 3
8. In Young's double slit experiment, if the slit widths are in the ratio 1 : 9, then the ratio of the intensity at
minima to that at maxima will be
1) 1 2) 1/9 3) 1/4 4) 1/3
9. Find out the ratio of average translational kinetic energy of H2 and Argon at temperature 300C.
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 1 3) 3 : 5 4) 5 : 3
10. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Acceleration due to earth’s gravity decreases as you go up or down from earth’s surface.
Statement II: Acceleration due to earth’s gravity is same at a height h and depth d from earth’s surface,
if h = d
In the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
PERFECT EDUCATION, 17-18 Vinayak Vihar, Pharmacy Road, Sri Ganganagar -335001 Mob. 84321-00020, 7821822364 (2)
1) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
4) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
11. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T2) graph for a simple pendulum executing
simple harmonic motion.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12. A satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around the planet.

E
Statement I: Total energy of satellite is E and its potential energy is .
2
Statement II: Total energy of satellite is E and its kinetic energy is 2E.
1) Statement I & II both are correct 2) Statement I & II both are wrong
3) Statement I is right statement II is wrong 4) Statement I is wrong statement II is right.
13. If momentum of particle increases by 50%. Then percentage increase in kinetic energy is
1) 75% 2) 50% 3) 125% 4) 100%
14. Match the column I with column II
Column I Column II
(a) Temperature (p) Internal energy
(b) Heat (q) Kinetic energy
(c) Melting (r) No change in temperature
(d) Expansion of substance (s) Measurement of temperature
1) aq, bp, cs, dr 2) aq, br, cp, ds
3) ap, br, cq, ds 4) aq, bp, cr, ds
15. While measuring surface tension of water using capillary rise method the necessary precaution to be
taken is/are
1) capillary tube should be clean while water should have some grease
2) both capillary tube and water should be clean
3) no need to take care of temperature of water
4) none of these
16. Travelling microscope is used for
1) determination of focal length of convex mirror
2) determination of focal length of convex lens
3) determination of refractive index of a prism
4) determination of refractive index of glass slab
17. A block moving with speed 1 m/s comes to rest after moving for 20 cm over a rough surface. The
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and surface is (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 0.5 2) 0.6 3) 0.25 4) 0.4
18. The moment of inertia of a uniform ring of mass M and radius r about a tangent lying in its own plane
is
3 1
1) 2Mr2 2) Mr 2 3) Mr2 4) Mr 2
2 2
19. The first Bohr radius of a hydrogen atom is
1) 2.5 × 10–13 m 2) 1.0 × 10–12 m 3) 7.0 × 10–12 m 4) 0.53 × 10–10 m
20. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
I. Torque a. M0LT–2
II. Stress b. ML–1T–1
III. Coefficient of viscosity c. ML–1T–2
IV. Gravitational potential gradient d. ML2T–2
1) I  a, II  c, III  b, IV  d 2) I  d, II  b, III  c, IV  a
3) I  d, II  c, III  b, IV  a 4) I  a, II  c, III  d, IV  b
21. The angle between the dipole moment and electric field at any point on the equatorial plane is
1) 00 2) 450 3) 1800 4) 900
22. A transformer of efficiency 90% draws an input power of 4 kW. If the current in secondary coil is 6 A,
voltage across the secondary coil is
1) 600 V 2) 200 V 3) 666.67 V 4) 732 V
23. Frequency of input signal in a half wave rectifier (HWR) is f. The ripple frequency of output of half
wave rectifier(HWR) will be
1) f 2) 2f 3) f/2 4) 3f
24. A ball of mass ‘m’moving with velocity ‘v’ collides and sticks to the body of mass ‘2m’, initially at rest.
The final velocity of combined mass is
1) v/3 2) v/4 3) v/8 4) v/10
25. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60 on one face of a prism of refracting angle 300. The emergent
0
ray of light makes an angle of 300 with incident ray. The emergent ray is
1) Normal to the face through which it emerges
2) Inclined at 300 to the face through which it emerges
26. x(t) = t2 – 2t, speed of the particle at t = 2 sec is
1) 1 m/s 2) 2 m/s 3) 4 m/s 4) 6 m/s
27. The magnetic induction at a point 1Å away from a proton, measured along its axis of spin (the magnetic
moment of the proton 1.4×10–26 A-m)is
1)1.8×10–3 T 2) 2.8×10–3 T 3) 3.8×10–3 T 4) 4.8×10–3 T
28. If the variation of magnetic flux through a closed loop is given by = (3t2 – t)Wb, then induced emf at
t = 1 s is
1) 5 V 2) 2 V 3) 4 V 4) 1 V
29. A galvanometer of resistance 100  gives a full-scale deflection of a current of 10–5 Amp. To convert it
into an ammeter capable of measuring up to 1 Amp, we should connect a resistance of
1) 1  in parallel 2) 10–3  in a parallel 3) 105  in series 4) 100  in series
30. Which one of the series of hydrogen spectrum is in the visible region
1) Lyman series 2) Balmer series 3) Paschen series 4) Bracket series
31. Assertion: If three capacitors of capacitance C1 < C2 < C3 are connected in parallel then their equivalent
capacitance Cp > Cs
1 1 1 1
Reason: C  C  C  C
p 1 2 3
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
32. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum
1) Increase as we move from Ultraviolet rays to microwaves
2) Decrease as we move from Ultraviolet rays to microwaves
3) Is same for all rays
4) Is maximum for visible rays
33. If angular displacement of a particle moving on a curved path be given as,  = 1.5 t + 2t2, where t is in
sec, the angular velocity at t = 2 sec, will be
1) 1.5 rad/s 2) 2.5 rad/s 3) 9.5 rad/s 4) 8.5 rad/s
34. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
emitted from a metal surface is increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
1) 0.65 eV 2) 1.0 eV 3) 1.3 eV 4) 1.5 eV
35. Assertion: The coil is bound over the metallic frame in moving coil galvanometer.
Reason: The metallic frame helps in making steady deflection without any oscillation.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
SECTION- B
36. Assertion: In transverse wave particle velocity is perpendicular to the direction of wave velocity.
Reason: In wave motion energy always transferred in the direction of wave propagation.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason are false
37. A particle is dropped from a height H/4. The de-Broglie wavelength of the particle just before reaching
the ground is proportional to
1 1 3 3
 
(1) H 2 (2) H 2 (3) H 2 (4) H 2
38. Select the correct statement from the following
1) The orbital velocity of a satellite increases with the radius of the orbit
2) Escape velocity of a particle from the surface of the earth depends on the speed with which it is fired
3) The time period of a satellite does not depend on the radius of the orbit
4) The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to the square root of the radius of the orbit
39. If a projectile is thrown with speed u at an angle 150, the range obtained is 50 m. The range obtained if
the same particle is thrown at an angle of 450 with same speed u is
1) 50 m 2) 100 m 3) 200 m 4) 150 m
40. Column–I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column–II Gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities.
Match Column–I and Column–II with appropriate relations.
1) (A)–(R), (B)–(Q), (C)–(S), (D)–(P) 2) (A)–(R), (B)–(S), (C)–(P), (D)–(Q)
3) (A)–(R), (B)–(S), (C)–(Q), (D)–(P) 4) (A)–(R), (B)–(P), (C)–(S), (D)–(Q)
41. A particle experiences a force F = 5x N, work done when particle moves from x = 2 m to x = 4 m is
1) 30 J 2) 10 J 3) 20 J 4) 50 J
42. An air bubble of radius R with surface tension T is placed in water at depth ‘h’ Find P2 – P1.
Given, P1 = Atmospheric pressure; P2 = Pressure inside the bubble
2T 4T 4T
1) gh  2) gh  3) gh 4)
R R R
43. Work done by gas?
1) 100 J 2) 200 J 3) 300 J 4) 350 J

44. If 4 A current flows across a cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 2  (as shown) then terminal
potential difference across the cell will be
1) 10 V 2) 6 V 3) 8 V 4) 12 V
45. The focal length of a bi-convex lens is 80 cm in a medium. Radii of curvature of both surface of lens are
40 cm and 20 cm respectively and refractive index of material of lens is = 1.5. Refractive index of
medium in which lens is placed, is
1) 4/3 2) 6/5 3) 3/2 4) 9/7
46. The characteristics equation of logic circuit shown in the figure is
1) 2) 3) 4) Both (1) and (2)
47. Value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C = 20 F and 
= 100 rad/s, is (All symbols have their usual meaning)
1) 5 H 2) 5 mH 3) 2 mH
4) Cannot be calculated as R is unknown
48. An electric field is expressed as The potential difference (VB – VA) between two points A
(1, 2, 0) and B (2, 1, 3).
1) –1 V 2) 1 V 3) 2 V 4) 4 V
49. The variation of magnetic flux density B at a distance r from the axis a long straight cylindrical wire
carrying a steady current can be represented as (R is the radius of wire)
1) 2) 3) 4)
 5 
50. When a voltage Vs  100 2 sin  t   V applied to an ac circuit, the current in the circuit is found
 12 
 
to be i  sin  t   A, then average power consumed is
 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
CLASS: XII MED
NEET
CHEMISTRY
51. Select the correct statement(s) among the following
A) Molecular nitrogen comprises 78% by volume of the atmosphere
B) Moscovium is a synthetic radioactive element.
C) Nitrogen can from stable NI3
1) A, B, C 2) A, C only 3) A, B only 4) B only
52. Statement (S-I): Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon.
Statement (S-II): of graphite is taken as zero.
1) Only statement-I is correct 2) Only statement-II is correct
3) Both the statements are correct 4) Both the statements are incorrect
53. Of the following 0.10m aqueous solution, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression
1) KCl 2) C6H12O6 3) Al2(SO4)3 4) CuSO4
54. When 0.1 mol MnO4 is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise MnO42– to
2–
MnO4– is
1) 36500 C 2) 2×96500C 3) 9650C 4) 96.50C
55. Assertion (A): Ice melts earlier if NaCl is poured on it.
Reason (R): The freezing point of water is lowered on addition of NaCl
1) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct, and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
56. For the reversible reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) + heat. The equilibrium shifts in forward direc-
tion
1) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)
2) By decreasing the pressure
3) By decreasing the concentration of N2(g) and H2(g)
4) By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
57. For the reaction X2O4(l)  2XO2(g) U = 2.1 k cal, S =20 cal K–1 at300K Hence, G is
1) 2.7 k cal 2) – 2.7 k cal 3) 9.3 k cal 4) – 9.3 k cal
58. Assertion: Oxidation state of manganese is +7 in potassium permanganate
Reason: Mn is non-metal
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
59. Statement-I: Dipole moment of NH3 is more than NF3
Statement-II: Nitrogen is more electronegative than fluorine
1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
3) Both the statements are true 4) Both the statements are false
60. Oxidation state of Chlorine is maximum in
1) CaOCl2 2) NaClO3 3) KClO4 4) PCl5
61. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions
(At. Nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
1) Ti3+ 2) Ni2+ 3) Cr3+ 4) Mn2+
A) Haemoglobin, the red pigment of blood which acts as oxygen carrier is a coordination compound of
iron.
B) In animal systems excess copper and iron are removed by the chelating ligands D-penicillamine and
desferrioxime B via the formation of coordination compounds
C) EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poisoning
1) A, B only 2) A, B, C 3) B, C only 4) A only
63. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN 2 X  ?
1) 2) 3) 4)
64. The ratio of energies of first orbits of H, He+, Li+2, Be+3 is
1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 2) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 3) 4)
65. Longest period and longest group in the modern periodic table respectively are
1) 6th, IA 2) 6th, zero 3) 6th, IIIB 4) 5th, IVB
66. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from
0.75g of sample, neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is
1) 37.33 2) 45.33 3) 35.33 4) 43.33
67. H.V. Z reaction is not given by
1) CH3COOH 2) HCOOH 3) C6H5COOH 4) Both (2) and (3)
68. Identify Z in the sequence of reactions:
1) 2)
3) 4)
69. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom(Z=37) is
1) 2) 3) 4)

A) ns1 and ns2 is outermost electronic configuration of s-block elements
B) Order of increasing metallic character is. P<Si<Be<Mg<Na
C) Order of electron affinity is S > Se > Te > O
D) Al2O3, As2O3 are neutral oxides
1) A, B, C only 2) A, B only 3) A, C only 4) A, C, D only
71. Match the following
List-I (Name of Vitamin) List-II (Deficiency disease)
I) Ascoric acid A) Beri-Beri
II) Retinol B) Cracked lips
III) Riboflavin C) Scurvy
IV) Thiamine D) Night blind ness
1) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D 2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
3) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A 4) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
72. Which of the following properties is not shown by NO?
1) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state 2) It is a neutral oxide
3) The oxidation state of nitrogen is +2 4) Its bond order is 2.5
73. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen of a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of number of
their molecules is:
1) 1:4 2) 7:32 3) 1:8 4) 3:16
2
74. In SN reactions the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2
CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is :
1)
2)
3)
4)
75. Assertion (A): Phenol is acidic in nature
Reason(R): Phenoxide is more stable than phenol
76. Assertion (A): Empirical formula of Benzene and acetylene is CH
Reason (R): If percentage composition is same, then empirical formula is same
77. In the reaction, The product C is :
1) Acetaldehyde 2) Acetylene 3) Ethylene 4) Acetyl chloride
78. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
A. XeF4 1. Distorted octahedral
B. XeF6 2. Tetrahedral
C. XeO3 3. Square planar
D. XeO4 4. Trigonal pyramidal
1) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
79. For the elementary reaction M  N, the rate of disappearance of M increases by a factor of 8 upon
doubling the concentrations of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M is:
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
80. In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property
indicated against it?
1) H2O < H2S < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength
2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te: increasing pKa values
3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3: increasing acidic character
4) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2: increasing oxidizing power
81. The electronic configuration of Gadolinium (At.no. = 64) is
1) [Xe] 4f85d96s2 2) [Xe] 4f75d16s2 3) [Xe]4f35d56s2 4) [Xe]4f65d26s2
82. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compound is:
1) III < I < II 2) III < II < I 3) I < II < III 4) II < I < III
83. In the reaction
Product [X] Will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
84.
If ‘R’is benzyl group then ‘C’ would be
1) Aniline 2) Benzylamine
3) N-methyl benzyl amine 4) N-methyl Aniline
85. Statement S-I: ZnSO4 is diamagnetic in nature
Statement S-II: K2MnO4 is Paramagnetic in nature
1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
3) Both the statements are true
4) Both the statements are false
SECTION – B
86. Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of:
1) Both belong to same group 2) Diagonal relationship
3) Lanthanide contraction 4) Having similar chemical properties
87. In a square planar complex of the type [Mabcx], the number of geometrical isomers can be:
1) No geometrical isomer 2) Three
3) Two 4) Four
88.
The above chemical reaction represents.
1) Rosenmund’s reaction 2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
3) Kolbe’s reaction 4) Etard’s reaction
89. The reaction is called as
1) Swarts reaction 2) Finkelstein reaction
3) Groove’s reaction 4) Wurtz reaction
90. 5 lit of N2 and 2 lit of H2 are reacted. The volume of ammonia formed as (all volumes are measured under
similar conditions)
1) 2lit 2) 3lit 3) 1.33lit 4) 5lit
91. IUPAC name of tertiary amyl alcohol is
1) 2-methyl-2-butanol 2) 3-methyl-2-butanol
3) 2-methyl-3-butanol 4) 1-methyl-2-butanol
92. Match the following:
The correct answer is:

A B C D
1) III II IV I
2) V II IV III
3) II V IV I
4) II III I V
93. The structure of XeOF4 is
1) Trigonal bipyramidal 2) Square planar
3) Square pyramidal 4) Pyramidal
94. The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d-orbital respectively are
1) 3,1 2) 1,2 3) 3,0 4) 2,1
95. The oxide of a metal contains 40% of oxygen. The valency of metal is 2. What is the atomic weight of the
metal?
1) 24 2) 12 3) 40 4) 36
96. Match the following colours of precipitates with the formula of the compounds formed in the Lassaigne’s
test for detecting the elements
List-I List-II
Colour Product
A) Prussian blue I) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–
B) Violet II) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
C) Blood red III) [Fe(SCN)]2+
D) Colour less IV) AgCl
The correct match is
A B C D
1) IV I III II
2) III I II IV
3) I II III IV
4) II I III IV
97. Which of the following gives blue colour in Borax bead test
1) Co+2 2) Fe+2 3) Mn+2 4) Al+3
98. Standard oxidation potential of H2– electrode at pH = 4
1) -0.236 V 2) +0.236 V 3) -0.015 V 4) +0.015 V
99. According to Arrhenius equation rate constant k is equal to Ae–Ea / RT, which of the following options
1
represents the graph ln k vs ?
T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
100. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N (Structural only)
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
CLASS: XII MED
NEET
BOTANY
101. Read the following statements
Statement (A): Ribulose Bisphosphate is the most abundant enzyme in the world.
Statement (B): Photorespiration doesn't occur in C4 plants.
Choose the correct option:
1) A is correct and B is incorrect 2) B is correct and A is incorrect
3) A and B are correct 4) A and B are incorrect
102. What is the fate of activated sludge in STP
a) A major part is anaerobically digested to produce CH4 gas
b) A small portion is pumped back into aeration tank to serve as inoculum
c) Major portion is used as a bio fertilizer
d) It is released into rivers
1) c and d only 2) b and c only 3) a and b only 4) a and d only
103. Assertion (A): During gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments move towards anode
Reason (R): DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules
1) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of the A
2) A and R are true, R is not a correct explanation of the A
3) A is true and R is false
4) Both A and R are false
104. When a desirable gene is inserted into the recognition site of ClaI of pBR322 and is introduced into a
host bacterium then the host bacterium will
1) Loose its resistance to tetracycline only
2) Loose its resistance to ampicillin only
3) Remain sensitive to both ampicillin and tetracycline
4) Become resistant to both tetracycline and ampicillin
105. In anaerobic respiration, pyruvic acid in muscles forms
1) ATP 2) Lactic acid 3) Acetyl Co –A 4) NAD
106. Chromosome number is reduced during meiosis because the process consists of
1) Two cell divisions without any chromosome replication
2) Two cell divisions and only a single round of chromosome replication
3) A single cell division without any chromosome replication
4) Four cell divisions with no chromosome replication
Column I Column II
(Biomolecules) (Examples)
A. Carbohydrates I. Trypsin
B. Protein II. Cholesterol
C. Nucleotide III. Inulin
D. Lipid IV. Adenylic acid
1) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II 2) A-II; B III; C – IV, D-I
3) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II 4) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
Column – I Column – II
a) F. Griffith 1. E. coli
b) Hershey and Chase 2. Bacteriophage
c) Meselson and Stahl 3. Faba beans
d) Taylor 4. Streptococcus
1) a – 4, b – 1, c – 2, d – 3 2) a – 4, b – 2, c – 1, d – 3
3) a – 2, b -1, c – 3, d – 4 4) a – 4, b -3, c – 2, d -1
109. What is untrue regarding the mustard flower?
1) Tetramerous flowers 2) False septum in ovary
3) Parietal placentation 4) Four stamens
110. Vegetative cell of pollen grains
1) Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell 2) Has large irregular shaped nucleus
3) Is smaller than generative cell 4) Produce male gametes by mitosis
111. Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of
a) Glycoproteins b) Glycolipids c) Nucleoproteins d) Protein synthesis
1) a and d only 2) b and c only 3) a and c only 4) a and b only
112. Ethylene is used for thinning of cotton. What is the meaning of thinning?
1) Removal of weeds
2) Uprooting some plants so that others grow well
3) Producing thin and long fibres
4) Abscission of excess flowers and young fruits to allow better growth of remaining fruits
List-I List-II
A) Rhizobium E) Free nitrogen fixer
B) Glomus F) Photosynthetic
C) Nostoc G) Mycorrhiza
D) Azospirillum H) Symbiotic nitrogen fixer
1) A---G, B---E, C---F, D---H 2) A---H, B---G, C---F, D---E
3) A---H, B---E, C---F, D---G 4) A---H, B---F, C---G, D---E
114. Which of the following heavy radioisotopes is not suitable for DNA labeling?
1) 3H 2) 32P 3) 15N 4) 35S
115. Which of the following step explains transformation with respect to Griffith experiment?
1) Mouse inoculated with normal living ‘R’ strain of bacteria
2) Mouse inoculated with normal living ‘S’ strain of bacteria
3) Mouse inoculated with heat killed ‘S’ strain of bacteria
4) Mouse inoculated with heat killed ‘S’ strain along with normal living ‘R’ strain of bacteria
116. Which of the following trait express in only homozygous condition
a) Yellow seed (cotyledon) colour b) Green pod colour
c) inflated pod shape d) Terminal position of flower
e) Yellow pod colour
1) Only e 2) a, b, c 3) a, b, c, d, e 4) d & e
117. RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of
1) tRNA, 5S rRNA, snRNA 2) hnRNA, snRNA, tRNA
3) 23S rRNA, 5S rRNA, snRNA 4) 28S rRNA, 58S rRNA, tRNA
118. A child with blood group genotype I I is born to a women with genotype IB IB. The father could not be
A B
a man of genotype
1) IA IA 2) IA IB 3) IB IB 4) IA I
119. If 16 chromosomes are present in somatic cell of a plant, then find the incorrect match:
1) Zygote – 16 2) Perisperm – 8 3) Nucellus – 16 4) Generative cell -8
120. Assertion (A): Multiple alleles cannot be observed in the genotype of an individual but can be observed
in a population
Reason (R): A gene may have more than two alleles, but two of them occur in a diploid individual at a
time.
1) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of the A
2) A and R are true, R is not a correct explanation of the A
3) A is true and R is false
4) Both A and R are false
121. Which of the following criteria must be fulfilled by a biomolecule that can act as genetic material?
A) It should be able to replicate
B) It should be structurally and chemically stable
C) It should be able to undergo mutations slowly
D) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian characters
1) All except D 2) All except A 3) A and B only 4) A, B, C and D
122. Virus with RNA as genetic material
a) TMV b) QB bacteriophage c) HIV d) Bacteriophage
1) a,b and d only 2) b,c and d only 3) a,c and d only 4) a,b and c only
123. Read the following statements with regard to dicot stem and select the right choice
a) The epidermis is devoid of cuticle
b) The cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains
c) The pericycle is present on the inner side of endodermis and above the phloem in the form of semi-
lunar patches of sclerenchyma
d) The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
1) c and d are incorrect 2) b, c and d are incorrect
3) a, b and d are correct 4) b, c and d are correct
124. Which of the following is not true w.r.t bacteria
1) They show most extensive metabolic diversity when compared with other groups of organisms
2) Mostly heterotrophic
3) Sexual reproduction occurs by gametic fusion
4) Cell walls are made up of heteropolysaccharides + aminoacids
125. Genes do not occur in pairs in
1) Somatic cell 2) Spore mother cell 3) Embryo 4) Gamete
126. Mycorrhizal association is found in the following
1) Cycas 2) Pinus 3) Castor 4) Citrus
127. Read the following lists
List-I List-II
I) Fimbriae A) Antibiotic resistant genes
II) Chromatophores B) Cell wall formation
III) Mesosome C) Membranous extensions having pigments
IV) Plasmid D) Attachment of bacteria to host tissue
E) Buoyancy
1) I-C II-A III-D IV-B 2) I-D II-C III-A IV-B 3) I-D II-C III-B IV-A 4) I-E II-D III-A IV-C
128. Statement (A): Concentration of ions is significantly higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm.
Statement (B): Tonoplast facilitates active transport of ions against concentration gradient into vacuole.
Choose the correct option:
A) Two nucleotides of opposite strands are linked by phosphodiester bonds
B) The pitch of the DNA is 3600
C) The distance between the successive base pairs would be 3.4nm
D) B -DNA consist of ten purines and ten pyrmidines in each helix
1) A, B and C are correct 2) B, C and D are correct
3) B, C and D are incorrect 4) A, B, C are incorrect
130. The yield of ATP in krebs cycle per glucose at substrate level phosphorylation
1) 2 2) 24 3) 6 4) 28
131. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction?
1) NADH 2) NADPH 3) ATP 4) O2
132. Untrue about disc florets
1) Are bisexual 2) Shows basal placentation
3) Actinomorphic 4) Superior ovary
133. Which of the following strand act as template for DNA synthesis
1) 5'  3' 2) 3'  5' 3) Both of the strands 4) Either of the strands
134. Capping is-
1) Addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5' end
2) addition of adenylate residue at 3' end
3) addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate at 3' end
4) addition of adenylate residue at 5' end
135. The following events are/is not a part of „pollen pistil interaction?
A) Pollination B) Germination of pollen grain
C) Growth of pollen tube through style D) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule
E) Fertilisation
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and E 4) A, B, C, D and E
SECTION - B
136. Vascular bundles in dorsiventral leaves are A and having B xylem. Then A & B are
1) Conjoint and closed, Abaxial 2) Conjoint and closed, Adaxial
3) Radial and open, Abaxial 4) Radial and closed, Abaxial
137. Which of the following secondary metabolites are used as drugs?
A) Ricin B) Vinblastin C) Cellulose
D) Carotenoids E) Curcumin
1) A and E 2) B and D 3) B and E 4) A and C
138. Micropropagation is
1) Propagation of microbes in vitro 2) Propagation of plants in vitro
3) Propagation of cells in vitro 4) Growing plants on smaller scale
139. The term not related to ‘centriole’ structure is
1) Hub 2) Triplet
3) Cartwheel like organisation 4) Doublet
140. All of the given algae store mannitol as reserve food material, except
1) Laminaria 2) Ectocarpus 3) Fucus 4) Gelidium
141. Apocarpous condition is found in
a) Lotus b) Papaver c) Mustard d) Michelia
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 3) c and d only 4) a and d only
142. Statement (A): The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the TCA cycle requires the continued replen-
ishment of OAA, regeneration of NAD+ and FAD+ from NAD+ and FADH+
Statement (B): NADH is oxidised to NAD+ rather slowly in fermentation Choose the correct option:
143. Select the correct statement about G1 phase:
1) Cell is metabolically inactive 2) DNA in the cell does not replicate
3) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules 4) Cell stops growing
144. Choose the incorrect match:
1) Spooling – technique used to collect DNA, that is separated out after purification
2) Elution – separation of DNA fragments from gel plates
3) Biolistics – method to introduce recombinant DNA into nucleus of animal cells
4) Heat shock – is a procedure to transform bacterial host cells
145. Which one is not directly involved in translation
1) tRNA 2) mRNA 3) DNA 4) ATP
i) Prokaryotic mRNA is capless and tailless where as eukaryotic mRNA is with cap and tail
ii) The precursor of prokaryotic mRNA is hnRNA
iii) In eukaryotes transcription occurs in nucleus and translation in cytoplasm.
Which of the above statements are correct:
1) i & iii are correct 2) ii & iii are correct 3) i only is correct 4) i, ii, iii are correct
147. What is true regarding Cry protein?
a) It is produced by Cry gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
b) It is an insoluble inactive crystalline protein within bacteria
c) It turns active in the gut of insects due to alkaline PH
d) It is used as biofertilizer as well as biocontrol agent
1) a,c and d only 2) b,c and d only 3) a,b and d only 4) a,b and c only
148. Incorrect w.r.t Poaceae family:
1) root - fibrous 2) inflorescence - compound spike
3) fruit - caryopsis 4) ovary – inferior
149. Assertion: When plant having taproot, it may also contain adventitious roots
Reason: When plant is having fibrous root system is never having tap root in it
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) R is true but A is false
150. The term prothallus refers to
1) Reduced gametophyte of bryophytes 2) Reduced gametophyte of pteridophytes
3) Reduced sporophyte of pteridophytes 4) Reduced sporophyte of bryophytes
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. The epithelium lining alveoli of lungs is similar to
1) endometrium of uterus 2) endosteum of bone
3) endothelium of blood vessels 4) endomysium of muscle fibre
152. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffu-
sion) are:
1) pO2=104 and pCO2=40 2) pO2=40 and pCO2=45
3) pO2=95 and pCO2=40 4) pO2=159 and pCO2=0.3
153. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in
1) more diluted urine 2) more concentrated urine
3) no change in quality and quantity of urine 4) no urine formation
154. Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
1) Both A and R are correct and R of explanation is the correct A
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is not correct but R is correct
155. Persons with ‘AB’blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to:
1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
156. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood
(c) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
1) a and c only 2) b, d, and e only 3) a and e only 4) b and c only
157. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
1) in spermiogenesis, spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tu-
bules, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed
2) in spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation, spermatids are formed
3) in spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed
4) in spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are released through
seminiferous tubules
158. Choose the incorrect pair with respect to sex determination in different organisms.
1) Grasshopper = XO type 2) Birds = ZZ-ZW type
3) Drosophila = XX-XO type 4) Human = XX-XY type
159. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of
1) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
2) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
3) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
4) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
160. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in
environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Change in frequency of white winged moths in England after industrial revolution.
1) only (a) 2) (a) and (c) 3) (b), (c) and (d) 4) only (d)
161. Choose the correct statement.
1) All mammals are viviparous
2) All cyclostomes do not possess jaw and paired fins
3) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart
4) All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum
162. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs.
1) Testes  Bidder’s canal  Kidney  Vasa efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney Seminal vesicle Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
3) Testes  Vasa deferens  Bidder’s canal  Ureter  Cloaca
4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
163. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
2) The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contrac-
tion of the atria
3) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
4) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
164. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Epinephrine 1. Stimulates muscle growth
B. Testosterone 2. Decrease in blood pressure
C. Glucagon 3. Breakdown of liver glycogen
D. Atrial natriuretic factor 4. Increases heartbeat
A B C D
1) 2 1 3 4
2) 4 1 3 2
3) 1 2 3 4
4) 1 4 2 3
165. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis.
A) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
B) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) (E), (A), (D), (B), (C) 2) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D) 4) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
166. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent stages is
1) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
2) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
3) Neanderthals  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
4) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Neanderthals  Homo erectus
167. Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.
List-I List-II
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation
(b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
(c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following
parturition
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) a - iv, b - i, c - iii, d - ii 2) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
3) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d – iii 4) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d – iv
168. The ‘ART’ in which the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor and artificially
introduced into the uterus is
1) Intra uterine devices 2) Inter uterine insemination
3) Intra uterine insemination 4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
169. The extinction of few invertebrate species in the absence of Pisaster is due to
1) Predation 2) Competition 3) Parasitism 4) Ammensalism
170. Total percentage of genes, which codes for proteins is
1) 2% 2) 3% 3) 4% 4) 5%
171. The numbers of national parks, biosphere reserves and wildlife sanctuaries of India, respectively are
1) 90, 14, 448 2) 158, 62, 10 3) 58, 412, 10 4) 96, 412, 10
172. Animal of which phylum have hooks and suckers and are endoparasite in other animals?
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Annelida 3) Aschelminthes 4) Arthropoda
173. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from
1) Prothorax 2) Mesothorax
3) Metathorax 4) Prothorax and Mesothorax
174. Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
1) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
2) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
3) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
4) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
175. Injury localised to the hypothalamus would most likely to disrupt
1) short term memory 2) coordination during locomotion
3) executive function, such as decision making 4) regulation of body temperature
176. Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting is very well-known for its application in paternity testing in case of
disputes.
Reason (R): It employs the principle of DNA polymorphism.
177. Assertion (A): Cannabinoids are known for their effects on cardiovascular system of the body.
Reason (R): Cannabinoids is a class of diverse chemical compounds that activates cannabinoid recep-
tors present principally in brain.
178. Characteristics of cancer are
1) All viruses are oncogenic 2) All tumours are cancers
3) Cancerous cells show property of contact inhibition
4) Cancer cells show metastasis
179. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical structure of insulin.
1) Mature insulin molecule consists of three polypeptide chains-A, B and C.
2) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which contains extra stretch of C-peptide.
3) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin molecule.
4) Polypeptide chains A and B are linked by disulphide bridges.
180. Incorrect statements about the Humus
I) Dark coloured amorphous substance II) It serves as a reservoir of nutrients
III) Never degraded by microbial action IV) It is non colloidal in nature
1) I and III 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) III and IV
181. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer: 120 g Primary consumer: 60 g
Primary producer: 10 g
1) Upright pyramid of numbers 2) Pyramid of energy
3) Inverted pyramid of biomass 4) Upright pyramid of biomass
182. Available biomass for the consumption by heterotrophs is
1) Secondary productivity 2) Net primary productivity
3) Gross primary productivity 4) Gross secondary productivity
183. The ex-situ conservation methods of biodiversity for animals
1) Safari parks and sperm banks 2) Sacred grove and zoological park
3) Botanical garden and seed banks 4) Tissue culture method and pollen banks
184. In India, there are several types of rice that differ in grain size, texture, colour and aroma. This is due to
1) Species diversity 2) Ecosystem diversity 3) Genetic diversity 4) Gamma diversity
185. Nicotine intake stimulates the ....A... to release ...B.... and ....C.... into blood circulation. This lead to
increase in ...D... and an increase.... E .... .Identify A to E.
1) A–adrenal gland, B–epinephrine, C–nor-epinephrine, D–blood pressure, E–heart rate
2) A–thyroid gland, B–thyroxine, C–calcitonin, D–blood pressure, E–heart rate
3) A–adrenal gland, B–thyroxine, C–nor-adrenaline, D–blood pressure, E–heart rate
4) A–gonads B–epinephrine, C–nor-epinephrine, D–blood pressure, E–heart rate
SECTION-B
186. An important characteristic that hemichordates share with chordates is
1) absence of notochord 2) ventral tubular nerve cord
3) pharynx with gill slits 4) pharynx without gill slits
187. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans,
these cells are mainly present in
1) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct 2) eustachian tube and salivary duct
3) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes 4) bile duct and bronchioles
188. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select
the option, which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.
1) A–trachea–long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
2) B–pleural membrane–surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
3) C–alveoli–thin-walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases
4) D–lower end of lungs–diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
189. Statement-I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called Thrombins.
Statement-II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
190. Osmoreceptors activated in response to excessive loss of fluid from body stimulate the release of
1) ADH from neurohypophysis 2) Renin from JG cells
3) ADH from adenohypophysis 4) ANF from neurohypophysis
191. Match the following joints with the bones involved.
Column I Column II
A. Gliding joint 1. Between carpals and metacarpal of thumb
B. Hinge joint 2. Between atlas and axis
C. Pivot joint 3. Between the carpals
D. Saddle joint 4. Between humerus and ulna
A B C D
1) 3 4 2 1
2) 4 1 2 3
3) 4 2 3 1
4) 1 3 2 4
192. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
1) membranes of synaptic vesicles 2) pre-synaptic membrane
3) tips of axons 4) post-synaptic membrane
193. Select the correct statement.
1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. 2) Glucagon leads to hypoglycemia.
3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes. 4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
194. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because
1) follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation
2) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase
195. Steps in DNA fingerprinting are Isolation of DNA

Digestion of DNA by (A)

Separation of DNA by (B)

Transferring of DNA to (C)

DNA hybridisation using (D)

Detecting of hybridised DNA by (E)
Complete the accompanying A, B, C, D and E in the flowchart:
1) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Electrophoresis, C-Nitrocellulose or nylon, D-Labelled VNTR probe,
E-Autoradiography
2) A-Electrophoresis, B-Restriction endonuclease, C-Nitrocellulose or nylon, D-Labelled VNTR probe,
E-Autoradiography
3) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Electrophoresis, C-Labelled VNTR probe, D-Nitrocellulose or ny-
lon, E-Autoradiography
4) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Electrophoresis, C-Nitrocellulose or nylon, D-Autoradiography, E-
Labelled VNTR probe
196. Which of the following statements is not true?
1) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
2) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
3) Homology indicates common ancestry
4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
197. Match the columns:
1) A – II, B – IV, C-III, D-I 2) A – II, B – I, C-IV, D-III

3) A – III, B – IV, C-II, D-I 4) A – IV, B – II, C-III, D-I
198. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of
genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
1) Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
2) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
3) Lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
4) Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
199. Assertion (A): Plants need the help of insects and animals for pollinating their flowers and dispersing
their seeds.
Reason (R): Plants offer rewards in the form of pollen and nectar for pollinators and juicy and nutritious
fruits for seed dispersers.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false 4) Both A and R are false
200. Match the column:
1) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (iii) 2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)

3) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii) 4) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii)

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Date : - 30 - 04 - 2024

Class : - XII (M) NEET

FULL TEST – 48 (2024)

3. All Questions carry Four Marks.

[ Take : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 × 10–19, mo = 9.1 × 10–31 kg]

Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

12. A satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around the planet.

1) 100 J 2) 200 J 3) 300 J 4) 350 J

1) 2) 3) 4) Both (1) and (2)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

70. Select the correct statement(s) among the following

83. In the reaction

Product [X] Will be

The correct answer is:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

1) A – II, B – IV, C-III, D-I 2) A – II, B – I, C-IV, D-III

1) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (iii) 2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)

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