Sardar Patel Institute of Public Administration (SPIPA)_WT11_AnsHints_13_03_2024

UPSC Prelims Training Program-2024

Mock Test Series_WeeklyTest-11
(General Studies – I)
Answer Hints

Que Key Explanation

Vyommitra is a female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot.

• A humanoid is a robot with the appearance of a human being. Hence

statement 1 is correct.

• It is developed by ISRO indigenously to function on board the

Gaganyaan.

• It will test the ground for human spaceflight and will be a very basic
version of a TARStype, artificial-intelligence-and-robotics system. Hence
1 B statement 2 is incorrect.

• The activities that Vyom mitra will be able to perform, once fully
developed for the unmanned flight, will include: procedures to use the
equipment on board the spacecraft’s crew module such as safety mechanisms
and switches, receiving and acting on commands sent from ground stations
attaining launch and orbital postures, responding to the environment,
generating warnings, replacing carbon dioxide canisters, operating switches,
monitoring of the crew module, receiving voice commands, responding via
speech (bilingual). Hence statement 3 is correct.

Conventional hydrocarbons can be extracted easily from permeable rocks, but

Shale gas is an unconventional hydrocarbon because the rock it is extracted
from acts as the source, reservoir, and cap rock and is trapped under low-
permeable rocks. The gas is produced, stored, and sealed within impermeable
shale and can be released only after the shale is drilled and artificially fractured
2 B during an extraction process. It requires pressurized water or chemicals to
break the low-permeable rocks and extract them. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• The Guar gum is actually in powder form, is made by grinding guar

seeds, and has unique thickening, emulsifying and binding properties.
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

• The shale gas industry uses the gum in fracking—a process where a
mixture of water (95 percent), Sand (4.5 percent), and guar gum (0.5 percent) is
injected under high pressure into an oil-or gas bearing rock to fracture it. The
gum's viscous property decreases fluid loss and friction, reducing energy
consumption and increasing gas or oil recovery. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• The consumption pattern of guar seeds is largely influenced by the

demands of the petroleum industry. India accounts for 80 percent of the world’s
guar produce, of which 72 percent comes from Rajasthan. About 90 percent of
guar gum processed in India is exported. So, Statement 3 is correct.

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a 100% government-owned entity under the
Department of Posts (DoP), announced the launch of 'Fincluvation' a joint
initiative to collaborate with the Fintech Startup community to co-create and
3 A
innovate solutions for financial inclusion. So, Option (a) is correct

• World Employment and Social Outlook is the flagship report of International

Labour Organisation (ILO).
4 B

The Household in the Rig Vedic society was a patriarchal family headed by the
father, as in Roman Society. It seems that several generations of the family lived
under the same roof. As it was a patriarchal society, the son's birth was
repeatedly desired, and people prayed to the gods for brave sons to fight the
wars. Possibly they were indicating matrilineal traces and a few examples of
sons being named after their mother, as in the case of Mamateya. So, Statement
1 is correct.

Rig Vedic women could offer sacrifices with their husbands and participate in
rituals but not in their own right. They participated in chariot races. The Rig
5 D Veda contains hymns composed by women. Such a presentation of women's
'high' position in Vedic society can be seen as a response to the oppression and
humiliation of colonial rule. They attended the Sabha and various social
gatherings. There are references to women's sages. The women sages mentioned
are also very few, and there is no mention of women priests or women receiving
dana or Dakshina. The mention of female scholars and sages of the Vedic age,
like Vac, Ambhrni, Romasa, Gargi, and Khona in the Vedic lore, corroborates
this view. These highly intelligent and greatly learned women, who chose the
path of Vedic studies, were called 'brahmavadinis,' and women who opted out of
education for married life were called 'sadyovadhus.' So, Statements 2 and 3 are
not correct.

Demerits of parliamentary form of government:

Instability: Since the governments sustain only as long as they can prove a
6 C majority in the house, there is instability if there is no single-largest party after
the elections. Coalition governments are generally quite unstable and short-
lived. Because of this, the executive has to focus on how to stay in power rather

2
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

than worry about the state of affairs/welfare of the people. Hence option 1 is
incorrect.

Demerits of presidential form of government:

Deadlocks between executive and legislature: Since there is a stricter

separation of powers here, there can be frequent tussles between both arms of
the government, especially if the legislature is not dominated by the president’s
political party. This can lead to an erosion in efficiency because of wastage of
time. Hence option 2 is incorrect.

Ecological Interactions

1. Commensalism: - Suckerfish are small tiny fish that are of length three feet.
They have an organ on their head which is modified into a suction cup. This
organ acts as a sucker and helps in the attachment of the fish to the sharks’
belly. The attachment of these fishes to the sharks benefits them greatly in
terms of providing food. They feed on the leftover food eaten by the sharks.
Hence, they don’t need to hunt and eat food. They also feed on the parasites
growing on the body of the shark helping them in having clear skin. As the
fishes are benefitted from the attachment and the sharks are neither benefited
nor are at a loss such type of association is known as commensalism.

2. Mutualism: - Sea anemones have stinging cells which are useful for both
stunning prey as well as for protection against possible predators. Hermit crab
also benefits as it gets protection from predators with sea anemone attached to
its shell. At the same time, sea anemone feeds on the prey that floats or swims
7 D into its tentacles. As the crab moves sea anemone has a greater chance of
utilizing different food sources.

3. Competition: - In the African Savanna, there are cats that hunt the same
prey species. For example, the lion and the cheetah both hunt zebras,
antelopes, gazelles, and wildebeest. To compete for this resource, lions have
adapted to hunt in packs and through teamwork. Cheetahs use speed to
succeed in catching prey.

4. Predation: - Owls are an example of predator organisms. They feed on

smaller organisms such as mice. The mice therefore serve as prey for the owls.
As predators, owls occur high in a food chain of forest organisms.

5. Parasitism: - Lice on the scalp is an example of a parasitic relationship, as

the lice benefit from feeding on the blood of the host (human) while the host is
harmed by the lice's presence and feeding activities.

Article 76- Provides for the office of attorney general of India. Hence option 1 is
correct.

The first serving attorney general of India and the longest serving is M.C.
8 B Setalwad. Hence option 2 is correct.

The President of India shall appoint a person who is qualified to be a judge of

supreme of court as attorney general of India and he holds office until the

3
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

pleasure of the president so the term of attorney general is uncertain. Hence

option 3 is incorrect.

1. The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by the Government of India. The
annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crores. But
this amount is not disbursed directly to MP but to the District Authority of
the chosen district. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
2. Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies and
Elected Members of Rajya Sabha can recommend works within the State of
Election. Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can
recommend works anywhere in the country Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
3. A Member of Parliament shall give his choice of Nodal District in Annexure I
of the guidelines to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation with a copy to the State Government and to the District
Magistrate of the chosen District. If a Lok Sabha Constituency is spread
9 A over more than one District, the Member of Parliament can choose any one
of the Districts as Nodal District in his/her constituency. The Rajya Sabha
MP can choose any District in his/her State of Election as Nodal District.
Nominated Members of both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can choose any
District in the country as Nodal District. Ministry of Statistics & Programme
is the nodal ministry. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
4. MPLADS works can also be implemented in the areas prone to or affected by
calamities like floods, cyclone, Tsunami, earthquake, hailstorm, avalanche,
cloud burst, pest attack, landslides, tornado, drought, and fire, chemical,
biological and radiological hazards.
5. MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 % of the
MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste
population and 5 % for areas inhabited by Scheduled Tribes population.

Ecotone is a transition zone between two biomes where organisms can survive.
Ex: mangroves. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Ecoline can be defined as the zone where there is a continuous change from an
ecosystem to another ecosystem when there is no proper boundary present
between two different species present in that ecosystem. The flow that governs
10 B the ecoline is environmental gradients like changes in abiotic factors gradually.
It is determined by physiochemical factors such as humidity, temperature,
rainfall, and chemicals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Note: Ecoline includes both ecosystem as well as the transition zone, whereas
eco tone includes only transition zone.

Religious effects

o Reformed Hinduism, Lowered the prestige of the Brahmin, Checked the

propagation of Islam, Emergence of Sikhism, Setback to Buddhism,
11 C Improvement in the social relation between the Hindus and Muslims.

(Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 is correct).

Social impact

4
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

o the better social status of lower casts, Promotion of social service,

Development of composite art in the society, Enrichment of literature.

On 1 September 1798, the Nizam of Hyderabad, Nizam Ali Khan (Asaf Jah II)
entered into a subsidiary alliance with the English East India Company, thus
12 A making Hyderabad the first princely state to officially become a British
protectorate. (Hence option (a) is correct answer)

Dara Shikoh was the son of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan and brother of
Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. He was interested to read about various religious
apart from his own. He learnt from pundits and Christian priests about
13 C Hinduism and Christianity. He learnt the Sanskrit Language. He was inspired
by the Philosophy in the Upanishads that he translated them to Persian. He was
a follower of Qadiri order of Sufism. (Hence option (c) is correct answer)

o It is an award to recognize and honour the invaluable contribution and

selfless service rendered by individuals and organizations in India in the
field of disaster management. The award carries a cash prize of Rs. 51 lakh
and a certificate in the case of an institution and Rs. 5 lakh and a certificate
in the case of an individual. Statement 1 is incorrect
o Only Indian nationals and Indian institutions are eligible to apply for the
14 D award. Institutions, voluntary organisations, corporate entities,
academic/research institutions, response/ uniformed forces or any other
institution may apply as an institution for the award. The candidate for the
award must have worked in the area of Disaster Management like
Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Rescue, Response, Relief,
Rehabilitation, Research/ Innovations or Early Warning related work in
India. Statement 2 is incorrect

1. Space debris refers to man-made objects in Earth's orbit that no longer

serve a useful purpose. This includes defunct satellites, spent rocket stages,
and fragments of debris from collisions or other events. Of known and
tracked space junk 70 percent is in low-Earth orbit, which extends about
1,250 miles (2,000 km) above the Earth's surface. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
2. Project NETRA is an early warning system in space launched by the Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to detect debris and other hazards to
Indian satellites. ISRO has also set up a Centre for Space Debris Research
to monitor and mitigate the threat of space debris and the System for Safe
and Sustainable Operations Management (IS 4 OM) to continually monitor
15 C objects posing collision threats, predict the evolution of space debris, and
mitigate the risk posed by space debris. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3. The Kessler syndrome (also called the Kessler effect,[1][2] collisional
cascading, or ablation cascade), proposed by NASA scientist Donald J.
Kessler in 1978, is a scenario in which the density of objects in low Earth
orbit (LEO) due to space pollution is high enough that collisions between
objects could cause a cascade in which each collision generates space debris
that increases the likelihood of further collisions. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
4. The European Space Agency has launched the Clean Space initiative, aimed
at reducing the amount of space debris. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

5
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

• Neutrinos are the second most abundant particles in the Universe after
photons. They are produced in the cores of stars. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
• Every time atomic nuclei come together (like in the sun) or break apart (like
in a nuclear reactor), they produce neutrinos. Even a banana emits
16 B neutrinos—they come from the natural radioactivity of the potassium in the
fruit. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The study of neutrinos helps in studying the origin of the universe by
understanding the oscillations of neutrinos and their relations with mass.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The question asks for “incorrect code”

• Meteoroids are objects in space that range in size from dust grains to small
17 C asteroids and when they enter the Earth’s atmosphere, they are called a
meteor. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• If a meteoroid enters the Earth’s atmosphere and hits the ground, it is called
a meteorite. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Indian Data Relay Satellite System (IDRSS) helps to track and be
constantly in touch with Indian satellites, in particular those in low-earth
orbits. It is an Indian geostationary data relay satellite system consisting of
two geostationary satellites. IDRSS will facilitate the relay of information
18 A between various Indian spacecraft, in-flight launch vehicle monitoring, and
assist Indian Human Spaceflight Programme. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Currently, the US, Russia, China, and Europe have their data relay
satellites. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Applications of drones

Mapping of landslide areas, Aerial photography of journalism, Disaster

19 D management, Border control surveillance, Forecasting storms and hurricanes,
Crop damage assessment, Inspection of active volcanoes.

Hence option d is correct.

Prokaryotes: Cell Structure: Unicellular, Cell Organelles: Absent, DNA: Circular,

Nucleus: Absent, Cell Size: Small
20 C
Eukaryotes: Cell Structure: Multicellular, Cell Organelles: Present, DNA:
Linear, Nucleus: Present, Cell Size: Large.

• Nuclear Fusion is the fusing of two or more lighter atoms into larger ones.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Nuclear Fission is the splitting of a large atom into smaller ones. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
21 C • The energy released by the fusion reaction is more than the fission reaction.
The energy released by the nuclear fusion reaction is three to four times
greater than the energy released by the nuclear fission reaction. Hence
statement 3 is incorrect.
• Both nuclear fusion and fission occur in nature. Nuclear fusion powers

6
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

stars, including our sun, while nuclear fission occurs in some radioactive
isotopes, such as uranium-235 and plutonium-239, which decay by fission.
However, natural nuclear fission is a rare event, and most fission reactions
occur as a result of human activity, such as in nuclear power plants or
nuclear weapons. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Nuclear fission requires little energy to split two atoms whereas the nuclear
fusion reaction requires extremely high energy to fuse two or more atoms.
• A nuclear fusion reaction is used in nuclear plants whereas nuclear fusion
is still an experimental technique used for producing power.

Cratons are the oldest and most stable parts of the continental lithosphere,
which form the cores of continents. These regions are typically characterized by
thick, ancient rocks that have been tectonically stable for billions of years.
22 B Cratons are important geological structures because they provide clues about
the early history and evolution of the Earth's continents Hence Statement 2 is
correct.

Assam shares its borders with Bhutan

to the north and Bangladesh to the
south.

West Bengal shares its borders with

Bhutan to the north and Nepal to the
23 C northwest.

Mizoram shares its borders with

Bangladesh to the west and Myanmar
to the east and south. Therefore, all
three statements are correct.

Coastal Plains are narrow strips of land along the Arabian Sea and Bay of
Bengal, while Ghats are mountain ranges running parallel to the coast. The
24 A Western Ghats run parallel to the western coast of India, while the Eastern
Ghats run parallel to the eastern coast of India. These two mountain ranges are
separated by a narrow strip of Coastal Plain. Hence statement a is correct

• P-waves are primary waves that travel through the body of the Earth and
can travel through solid and liquid materials, while S-waves are secondary
waves that travel only through solid materials. Both these waves are in
interior of the earth and not on surface. Therefore, P-waves are body waves,
and S-waves are also body waves, not surface waves. Hence Statement 1 is
incorrect
• Surface waves, also known as Love and Rayleigh waves, are the most
25 B damaging waves because they travel along the surface of the Earth and
cause the ground to shake more intensely, leading to greater damage to
buildings and other structures. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• For each earthquake, there is an associated shadow zone, which is a region
on the Earth's surface where the seismic waves from that earthquake
cannot be detected by seismographs due to the bending of the waves as they
travel through the Earth's interior. However, this differs for each wave
depending upon the location and depth of an earthquake. Hence

7
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

Statement 3 is incorrect.
• The shadow zone of S-waves is much larger than that of P-waves because S-
waves cannot travel through the Earth's liquid outer core, which creates a
larger shadow zone for S-waves. In contrast, P-waves can travel through
both solid and liquid materials, so their shadow zone is smaller than that of
S-waves. Hence Statement 4 is correct

• The troposphere gets some of its heat directly from the Sun but mostly, it
heats up because of terrestrial radiations. These terrestrial radiations are
trapped by various gases in the troposphere. So, statement 1 is correct.
• In the stratosphere, ozone molecules absorb high-energy ultraviolet (UV)
light from the Sun and transform it into heat. The continuous interaction
between oxygen and UV rays leads to production of Ozone molecule which
again dissociates and releases heat. This reaction is possible because
oxygen is present in significant amount in this layer. The temperature in the
stratosphere increases with height. Thus statement 2 is correct.
26 D • Mesosphere experiences a drop in temperature with height despite greater
exposure to UV rays because the oxygen at this level is negligible for any
meaningful production of ozone. And without ozone, the UV rays cannot be
converted to heat. So, the layer experiences the highest temperature at
Stratopause and then the temperature reduces with height. So, statement 3
is correct.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that oxygen is the limiting factor that
leads to the variation in temperature in Stratosphere and Mesosphere.
Statement 4 is correct.

• Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of
the atmosphere. The winds blow from west to east in jet streams. The flow
often shifts seasonally to north and south. They are present in both
hemispheres. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The 50°-60° N/S region has the polar jet stream while the subtropical jet is
located around 30°N.
• Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air masses. Since
these hot and cold air boundaries are most pronounced in winter, jet
streams are the strongest for both the northern and southern hemisphere
27 A winters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• During the winter, thermal contrast increases, as does the intensity of the
high-pressure centre at the pole. It accelerates the formation of Jet Streams,
as well as their extension and velocity.
• Troughs create upper-level divergence which is associated with convergence
at the surface (low pressure – cyclonic conditions) and ridges create upper-
level convergence which is associated with divergence at the surface (high
pressure – anticyclonic conditions) i.e., Cyclonic flow at trough and anti-
cyclonic at crest/ridge. So, cyclonic and anti-cyclonic conditions are present
in every jet stream in both hemispheres. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Cumulus: This is a vertical cloud with a rounded top and horizontal base,
typical of humid tropical regions, associated with up-rising convectional
28 C currents. Its great white globular masses may look grey against the sun but
it is a fair-weather cloud.
• Cirrus: This looks fibrous like cotton wool in the blue sky. They exist in

8
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

patches and can be seen scattered here and there and have a flat base. It
indicates fair weather and often gives a brilliant sunset.
• Nimbus: It is also known as a 'rain cloud'. It brings continuous rain, snow
or sleet. In case of cumulonimbus, its black and white globular masses can
be seen in a range of shapes and is frequently seen in tropical afternoons.
When its cauliflower top spreads out like an anvil, it is also referred to as a
'thunder-cloud' and brings convectional rain, accompanied by lightning and
thunder.
• Stratus: These are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These
clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air
masses with different temperatures.

The correct increasing order of catchment areas of some major rivers in India is
29 D as follows: Cauvery < Narmada < Mahanadi < Brahmaputra < Krishna <
Godavari < Indus < Ganga

• Development of skills, at a young age, right at the school level, is very

essential to channelize them for proper job opportunities. (Hence
statement 1 is correct)
• There should be a balanced growth in all the sectors and all jobs should be
given equal importance. Every job aspirant would be given training in soft
skills to lead a proper and decent life.
• Skill development would reach the rural and remote areas also. Corporate
educational institutions, non-government organizations, Government,
academic institutions, and would help in the development of skills of the
youths so that better results are achieved in the shortest time possible.
30 C
• The country can reap the demographic dividend by improving the Total
Factor Productivity, a transition from agriculture to non-agriculture sectors
such as manufacturing/service sector, and from unorganized sector to the
organized. (Hence statements 3 and 5 are correct)
• Introducing social security schemes will not provide any permanent jobs
and might even increase the dependence on the government. Reducing
Infant mortality rates will have outcomes on the population and is not
related to obtaining benefits from the demographic dividend. Privatisation of
higher education may or may not improve the quality and access to
duration. (Hence statements 2 and 4 are incorrect)

• MGNREGA – 100 days of work for any household. (Hence scheme is not
mandated to BPL only)
• PM Ujjwala Yojana – In the original form, Ujjwala Yojana, in 2016, was
extended to only BPL household women. Now it is extended to all poor
households. (Hence scheme is not mandated to BPL only)
• Ayushman Bharat Yojana – Targets over 10 crore families belonging to poor
and vulnerable population based on Socio Economic and Caste Census
31 D 2011 (SECC). The beneficiaries are not mandatorily BPL. (Hence scheme is
not mandated to BPL only)
• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission: The
NRLM target households are identified through the Participatory
Identification of Poor (PIP) instead of the BPL. The PIP is a community driven
process, where the community based organizations themselves identify the
poor and vetted by the Gram Sabha. (Hence scheme is not mandated to BPL

9
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

only)

• Cheap money policy implies that the Central Bank reduces the interest rates
at which credit is available. This is often done in order to spur growth in the
economy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
32 D • Dear money policy implies that the Central Bank is raising the interest
rates. This is in order to mop up excess money in the market and thus, to
tackle inflation. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

The “Base Effect” refers to the impact of the rise in the price level (i.e., last
year’s inflation) in the previous year over the corresponding rise in the price
levels in the current year (i.e., current inflation). If the previous year rate of
33 B inflation is higher, then the current year rate of inflation would be lower. On the
other hand, if the inflation rate was too low in the corresponding period of the
previous year, even a relatively smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically
give a high rate of inflation in the current year.

• Fiat money is currency that has the government backing and is declared by
it to be legal tender. It is not backed by a physical commodity and thus
doesn't have any intrinsic value. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• High powered money is the total liability of the monetary authority of the
country. This is also called the monetary base and is created by the RBI.
High powered money includes currency (notes and coins), deposits of the
34 B government and reserves of commercial banks with RBI. (Hence statement 2
is correct)
• So, to sum up, high powered money is H = C + R Where
o H − High powered money
o C – Currency
o R − Cash Reserves of commercial banks

• Fiscal Deficit: Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total
expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing. (Hence statement 1 is
correct).

• Gross fiscal deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI +

Borrowing from abroad • Net borrowing at home includes that directly borrowed
from the public through debt instruments

35 C (for example, the various small savings schemes) and indirectly from
commercial banks through Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). The gross fiscal
deficit is a key variable in judging the financial health of the public sector and
the stability of the economy. From the way gross fiscal deficit is measured as
given above, it can be seen that revenue deficit is a part of fiscal deficit (Fiscal
Deficit = Revenue Deficit + Capital Expenditure non-debt creating capital
receipts). A large share of revenue deficit in fiscal deficit indicated that a large
part of borrowing is being used to meet its consumption expenditure needs
rather than investment. (Hence statement 2 is correct)

36 C GST council

10
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

• It is a constitutional body under Article 279A. It makes recommendations

to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service
Tax and was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First
Amendment) Act, 2016.
• The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other
members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers
in charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
• It is considered as a federal body where both the centre and the states get
due representation. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council
shall be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths of
the weighted votes of the members present and voting. (Hence statement 1
is correct)
• The vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one-third of
the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken
together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast, in that
meeting.
• The Supreme Court in a judgment championing the importance of
“cooperative federalism” for the well-being of democracy held that Union and
State legislatures have “equal, simultaneous and unique powers” to make
laws on Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the recommendations of the GST
Council are not binding on them. (Hence statement 2 is correct)

Environment is everything around us including living organisms and non-living

beings such as soil, air, water while ecosystem is a much broader term of which
environment is a part of. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The primary difference between environment and ecosystem is that the

environment relates to the immediate surroundings, whereas the ecosystem
37 A refers to a community of living species and their interactions with non-living
elements of the environment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Ecology is the study of the relationships between living organisms, including

humans, and their physical environment; it seeks to understand the vital
connections between plants and animals and the world around them. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.

• An asset which can be easily transformed into cash in less time and with no
loss or little loss in value is known as a liquid asset. Liquid assets are
usually compared with cash as the value remains the same whenever sold.
This type of asset is commonly used by businesses and buyers.
38 B • M1 is known as narrow money as it includes only 100% liquid deposits
which is a very narrow definition of the money supply it includes the
components of Cash held by the public and Demand deposits of the
commercial banks. (Hence option b) is correct answer).

Effects of currency appreciation

39 D • Export costs rise: If the Indian Rupee (INR) appreciates, foreigners will find
Indian goods more expensive because they have to spend more for those
goods in INR. That means that with the higher price, the number of Indian

11
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

goods being exported will likely drop. This eventually leads to a reduction in
gross domestic product (GDP). (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• Cheaper imports: If Indian goods become more expensive on the foreign
market; foreign goods, or imports, will become cheaper in India. The length
to which 1 INR will stretch will go further, meaning one can buy more goods
imported from abroad. That leads to a benefit of lower prices, leading to
lower overall inflation. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

• Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food and

Public Distribution and Textiles, Shri Piyush Goyal launched the Foreign
Trade Policy 2023 saying that it is dynamic and has been kept open ended
to accommodate the emerging needs of the time.
• The Key Approach to the policy is based on these 4 pillars: (i) Incentive to
40 C Remission, (ii) Export promotion through collaboration - Exporters, States,
Districts, Indian Missions, (iii) Ease of doing business, reduction in
transaction cost and e-initiatives and (iv) Emerging Areas – ECommerce
Developing Districts as Export Hubs and streamlining SCOMET policy.
(Hence option (c) is correct answer)

• The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is committed to protecting the climate by
reducing short-lived climate pollutants.
• It is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society, and the
private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate
in the next few decades by reducing short-lived climate pollutants across
41 A sectors.
• The Coalition's initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• It is an initiative of Bangladesh, Mexico, Sweden, Ghana, Canada, and the
USA along with the UNEP. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Montreal Protocol is an agreement to stop the production of substances

causing ozone depletion.
• It was adopted on 16 September 1987.
• It has led to the phase-out of 99% of ozone-depleting chemicals in
refrigerators, air conditioners, and many other products. Hence statement 1
42 B is correct.
• It is the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified by all UN Member States.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India is a party to the Montreal Protocol since June 1992. Hence statement
3 is incorrect.

• In the Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR), the pre-germinated seeds are directly
drilled into the field by a tractor-powered machine.
• There is no nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method.
In this method, farmers have to only level their land and give one pre-
sowing irrigation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
43 C • With DSR, 15-18 irrigation rounds are required against 25 to 27 irrigation
rounds in traditional methods.
• DSR can save 810 to 1,080 billion litres of water every year if the entire rice
crop is brought under the technique.
• This technique can help save 15% to 20% of water compared to traditional

12
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

methods. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• DSR can solve labour shortage problems because, like the traditional
method, it does not require a paddy nursery and transplantation of a 30-
day-old paddy nursery into the main puddled field.

The field should be laser levelled and the spraying of herbicides must be done
simultaneously with sowing, and the first irrigation. Hence statement 3 is
correct

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory

body for disaster management in India. It is in accordance with the Disaster
Management Act of 2005.
• Its primary purpose is to coordinate response to natural or man-made
disasters and for capacity-building in disaster resiliency and crisis response.
It is also the apex body to lay down policies, plans and guidelines for
Disaster Management to ensure a timely and effective response to disasters.
• It is not a constitutional body as it is not mentioned in the Constitution of
India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It has Prime Minister as its chairman and nine other members, and one
such member to be designated as Vice-Chairperson. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• Functions and Responsibilities of NDMA
1. Approve the National Disaster Plan
2. Lay down policies on disaster management
3. Approve plans prepared by Ministries or Departments of the Central
Government in accordance with the National Plan
44 C
4. Lay down guidelines to be followed by State Authorities in drawing up
State Plan Lay down guidelines to be followed by different Ministries or
Departments of Central Government for purpose of integrating measures
for disaster prevention or mitigation of its effects in their development
plans and projects
5. Coordinate enforcement and implementation of disaster management
policy and plan
6. Recommend provision of funds for the purpose of mitigation
7. Provide such support to other countries affected by major disasters as
determined by Central Government
8. Take such other measures for prevention of disasters or mitigation or
preparedness and capacity building for dealing with threatening disaster
situations or disaster as it may consider necessary
9. Lay down broad policies and guidelines for the functioning of the
National Institute of Disaster Management

Hence statement 3 is correct.

• An oil spill refers to any uncontrolled release of crude oil, gasoline, fuels, or
other oil byproducts into the environment.
• Oil spills can pollute land, air, or water, though it is mostly used for oceanic
45 C oil spills. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It can be caused as a result of intensified petroleum exploration and
production on continental shelves and the transport of large amounts of oils
in vessels.

13
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

• Oil spills that happen in rivers, bays and the ocean most often are caused
by accidents involving tankers, barges, pipelines, refineries, drilling rigs,
and storage facilities, but also occur from recreational boats and natural
disasters.
• Natural disasters like very heavy storms in the oceans, shaking of the sea
floor due to earthquakes, and hurricanes have contributed to oil tanker ship
accidents or breakage/leakage of underground pipelines thereby causing
colossal oil spills.
• Hence it can be caused by both anthropological causes and natural causes.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It causes hypothermia in birds and threats to the aquatic ecosystem.
• Crude oil ruins the insulating and waterproofing properties of feathers and
fur of birds, and thus oil-coated birds and marine mammals may die from
hypothermia.
• Hypothermia is a decrease in body temperature to below-normal levels.
Oil on ocean surfaces is harmful to many forms of aquatic life because it
prevents sufficient amounts of sunlight from penetrating the surface, and it
also reduces the level of dissolved oxygen. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Quorum:

1. Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the

House before it can transact any business.

2. 1It is 10 members or 1/10th of the total number of members in each House

including the presiding officer. Hence option 1 is correct.

3. If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the

presiding officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until
there is a quorum.
46 C
Language:

1. The Constitution has declared Hindi and English to be the languages for
transacting business in the State Legislature.

2. However, the presiding officer can permit a member to address the House in
his/her mother tongue.

3. The State Legislature is authorized to decide whether to continue or

discontinue English as a floor language after the completion of fifteen years
from the commencement of the Constitution. Hence option 2 is correct.

• At present, 10 States namely Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat,

Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha,
Rajasthan and Telangana have Fifth Schedule Areas. PESA is an Act to
provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution
47 C relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas. In terms of section 2 of
this Act,
• “Scheduled Areas” means the Scheduled Areas as referred to in clause (1) of
article 244 of the Constitution. The State of Bihar is not covered under this
definition.

14
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

The Jan Chowkidar (People’s watch) is a Patna based NGO. Its plea centred
on Sections 62 of the RoPA 1951. Section 62 of the act said:

1. Only an elector can be a representative. If a person is not qualified to vote, he

cannot represent the people.

2. Section 62 implies that if a person is jailed or in lawful detention at the time

of elections, he shall not be eligible for voting. However, if a person is in
preventive custody, he can vote.

3. The question was that – If only an elector can be representative, then how
those who lose being an elector on account of their jail or custody, can contest
the elections?

4. In 2004, the Patna High Court had that when a person in custody is
disqualified from voting he or she must be disqualified from contesting in
elections too.

Lily Thomas v. Union of India case, 2004:

• SC ruled that any Member of Parliament (MP), Member of the Legislative

Assembly (MLA) or Member of a Legislative Council (MLC) who is convicted
48 B of a crime and given a minimum of two years' imprisonment, loses
membership of the House with immediate effect.
• This is in contrast to the earlier position, wherein convicted members held
on to their seats until they exhausted all judicial remedy in lower, state and
the Supreme Court of India. Further, Section 8(4) of the Representation of
the People Act, which allowed elected representatives three months to
appeal their conviction.

PUCL Case, 2004:

• SC upheld the constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in

elections. Supreme Court held that a Right to vote also includes a right
not to vote i.e. right to reject. Which has its genus in freedom of speech and
expression.
• Also, the Right to secrecy is an integral part of a free and fair election. While
the name of the voters who have not cast their votes was publicly disclosed,
but by casting a negative vote, secrecy will be maintained.
• The judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in this case, is significant not
only because it introduced the option of NOTA on the EVMs but also
because it dignified the right to vote
• In the LIC of India case, 1995, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is
an integral part of the Constitution.

A grazing food chain is a food chain that starts with green plants as the main
source of energy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

49 C The food chain is a feeding hierarchy in which organisms in an ecosystem are

grouped into trophic levels and are shown in a succession to represent the flow
of food energy and the feeding relationships between them. The grazing food

15
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

chain is present in both the terrestrial ecosystem (green plants) and the aquatic
ecosystem (phytoplankton) as the primary source of energy. Hence, statement 2
is incorrect.

The grazing food chain and the detritus food chain are linked to each other as
the initial energy source for the detritus food chain is the waste materials and
dead organic matter from the grazing food chain. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.

A detritus food chain is a food chain that starts with the dead remains of
organisms (not green plants) as a main source of energy. Hence, statement 4 is
incorrect.

Unitary feature of the constitution: 1. Strong Centre. 2. States Not

Indestructible. 3. Single Constitution. 4. Flexibility of the Constitution. 5. No
Equality of State Representation.

50 B 6. Emergency Provisions. 7. Single Citizenship. 8. Integrated judiciary. 9. All

India service. Hence option 1 is correct. 10. Appointment of the governor.
Hence option 2 is correct. 11. Veto over state bills 12. Integrated Audit
Machinery.

• Mitochondrial DNA (mt DNA) is double-stranded and circular whereas

Nuclear DNA is double-stranded and linear.
• Transcription of mt DNA is polycistronic whereas transcription of nuclear
DNA is monocistronic. Hence statement 1 is correct.
51 C • Mitochondrial DNA is not enveloped by a membrane whereas nuclear DNA is
enveloped by a membrane. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Its inheritance is only by maternal so mitochondrial diseases are inherited
maternally whereas the nuclear DNA gets inheritance equally from both
parents. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Biomagnification is any concentration of a toxin, such as pesticides, in the

tissues of tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Bioaccumulation is the gradual accumulation of substances, such as pesticides

52 A or other chemicals, in an organism. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Bioaccumulation often occurs in two ways, simultaneously: by eating

contaminated food, and by absorption directly from water. This second case is
specifically referred to as bioconcentration. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The evolution of mobile networks over the various generations

• "G" stands for "GENERATION". While connected to the internet, the speed of
the connection depends upon the signal strength that is shown in
53 C abbreviations like 2G, 3G, 4G, 5G, etc. on any mobile device.
• Each generation of wireless broadband is defined as a set of telephone
network standards that describe the technical implementation of the
system.
• 1G worked on analog radio signals and supported only voice calls. It was

16
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

launched in the 1980s. It has a bandwidth of up to 2.4 kbps. Hence

statement 1 is correct.
• 2G uses digital radio signals and supported both voice and data
transmission but cannot do video calls. It was launched in the 1990s. It has
a bandwidth of 64 Kbps. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• 3G can transmit telephone signals including digitised voice, video calls, and
conferencing. It was launched in the 2000s with a speed of 1 Mbps to 2
Mbps. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• 4G was launched in 2009 with a peak speed of 100 Mbps to 1 Gbps and it
also enables 3D virtual reality.
• 5G uses utilises much higher radio frequencies of 28 GHz. 4G uses lower
reading frequencies of 700 MHz to 2500 MHz
• 5G transfers more data over the air at faster speeds than 4G.
• 5G uses a millimetre wave spectrum which enables more devices to be used
within the same geographic area supporting around one million per square
kilometre whereas 4G support a lesser number of devices about 4,000
devices per square kilometre.
• 5G has a wider area in the frequency spectrum and lower latency when
compared to 4G. Latency refers to the delay before a transfer of data begins
following an instruction. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Warren Hastings, 1st Governor-General of Bengal with tenure of office from

1772-1785, was an enthusiastic supporter of the Orientalists. Warren Hastings
54 B was not in favour of introducing English laws and English ways in India. His
main idea was to rule the 'conquered in their own way.' So, Option (b) is correct.

The Regional Anti-Terrorism Structure (RATS) is a permanent organ of the

Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), which serves to promote cooperation
55 A of member states against terrorism, separatism and extremism, which
specifically deals with issues relating to security and defence. So, Option (a) is
correct.

In 1851, the reformers in Bombay - Naoroji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji and S.S.
Bengalee started a Religious Reform Association called the Rehnumai
Mazadayasan Sabha. It stood for the modernisation of Parsi religion and social
56 B customs. It launched a struggle for the introduction and spread of education
among women, grant of a legal status to them and for uniform laws of
inheritance and marriage for the Parsi community. So, Option (b) is correct.

Periyar E.V. Ramasamy was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement to defend
the rights of the socially underprivileged and marginalised section of the people.
The Self-Respect movement advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and
differences based on birth. It declared rationality and self-respect as the
birthright of all human beings, held more important than self-rule. So, Pair (1)
is correct. The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867in Bombay by Dr.
57 A Atmaram Pandurang. It was an off-shoot of Brahmo Samaj. It was a reform
movement within Hinduism and concentrated on social reforms like inter-
dining, inter-marriage, widow remarriage and uplift of women and depressed
classes. So, Pair (2) is not correct. The Dharma Sabha was founded in 1829 in
Calcutta by Radhakanta Deb. It was found as a rival to Brahmo Samaj. Its aim
was to defend orthodox Hinduism. So, Pair (3) is correct.

17
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

Joseph Francis Dupleix was Governor-General of French India and a rival of

Robert Clive under the British. In 1741, Dupleix became the Governor-General
of Pondicherry. He was the first European to interfere in the internal politics of
58 B the Indian rulers because he supported Muzaffar Jang for Hyderabad and
Chanda Sahib for Carnatic. His candidates emerged successful and, in return,
gave up great concessions to Dupleix. Dupleix was, in fact, the originator of the
practice of subsidiary alliance in India. So, Option (b) is correct.

Thomas Munro, Governor of Madras, established of Ryotwari System in 1820.

The Ryotwari system was a land revenue system in British India that allowed
the government to deal directly with the cultivator ('ryot') for revenue collection
59 C and gave the peasant freedom to cede or acquire new land for cultivation
whereas other systems do not directly deal with the cultivators for revenue
collection. So, Option (c) is correct.

• The OECD published detailed rules to assist in the implementation of a

landmark reform to the international tax system, which will ensure
Multinational Enterprises (MNEs) will be subject to a minimum 15% tax rate
from 2023. However, the rules are not legally binding. (Hence statement 1 is
incorrect)

• As many as 136 countries entered into an agreement earlier to

redistribute taxing rights and impose a global minimum corporate tax on large
60 B multinational corporations.

• The tax will help in counter rising global inequality by making it tougher
for large businesses to pay low taxes by availing the services of tax havens.
(Hence statement 2 is correct)

• It will prevent the unilateral imposition of domestic laws by the

developed world over the developing countries. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of
goods and services. It is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-based tax:
comprehensive because it has subsumed almost all the indirect taxes except a
few state taxes The items which are outside the ambit of GST are, Alcoholic
Liquor, Electricity and Petroleum products (Petroleum Products such as
petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), High speed diesel, natural gas, and
61 C aviation turbine fuel. However, the taxes for these products will be charged as
per the structure before the introduction of GST.

The Products which are under the ambit of GST, kerosene (5%), naphtha and
LPG (both domestic (5%) and non-domestic (commercial liquefied LPG grades
(18%)) So, option (c) is correct.

The Ministry for Women and Child Development set up a task force to look into
the correlation between the age of marriage with issues of women’s nutrition,
prevalence of anemia, IMR, MMR and other social indices. The committee has
62 D recommended the age of marriage be increased to 21 years. This change will
empower girls and young women, increase their access to education, and
improve the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR).

18
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

So, Option (d) is correct.

Wet-Bulb Temperatures is a measure that combines heat and humidity. A wet-

bulb temperature of 31 degrees Celsius is extremely dangerous for humans,
63 A while a value of 35 degrees is not survivable for more than about six hours,
even for fit and healthy adults. So, Option (a) is correct.

A key difference that must be noticed is that the WPI does not take into account
the change in prices of services. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

While the CPI is heavily tilted towards the food of 50% weight (highest), the WPI
has a huge weight of manufactured items at 64.2%. So, Statement 2 is
correct.

The following image provides the information regarding the CPI and WPI for the
past 3 years.

64 B

So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Generally, CPI is used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation, as a tool by

the central bank and government for inflation targeting and for inspecting price
stability, and as a deflator in the national accounts. Likewise, normally,
changes in the wholesale price inflation (WPI) are taken as the headline inflation
for policy articulation and within the WPI, non-food manufactured products
inflation is considered the core inflation. So, Statement 4 is correct.

The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports runs a Central Sector Scheme, namely,
the ‘Khelo India – National Programme for Development of Sports’ Scheme
(Khelo India Scheme), of which one of the components, namely, ‘Promotion of
rural and indigenous/tribal games’, is specifically dedicated to the development
and promotion of rural and indigenous/tribal games in the country. Indigenous
games which have been identified for promotion under this Component are,

• Mallakhamb is a traditional sport that originated in the Indian

subcontinent. It involves a gymnast performing gymnastic or aerial exercises
65 C using a variety of objects, such as a hanging wooden pole, rope, or
stationary object. More than 20 states in India have also declared this sport
as a state sport.
• Kalaripayattu also known as Kalari, is a traditional form of Indian martial
arts that originated in the state of Kerala. It has a long history in the field of
Indian martial arts.
• Gatka is a traditional form of martial art associated with the Sikh
communities in Punjab. It involves using wooden sticks that are designed to
simulate swords. The term gatka, which literally means “mace,” is derived

19
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

from the Sanskrit word gada, which literally means “mace.”

• Thang-Ta or the art of the sword and the spear is a traditional martial art in
Northeast India. It combines the various weapons used in martial arts such
as the sword, dagger, and spear. This form of martial art is considered to be
part of the great tradition of the state of Manipur
• Yogasana is a group of spiritual, mental, and physical disciplines that
originated in ancient India. The central government has also decided to
promote this discipline as a competitive sport.
• Silambam is a martial art known as commonly practiced in South India. It
is regarded as one of the most popular forms of Indian martial arts. The
World Silambam Association is an organization that is responsible for
promoting this style of martial arts.
• So, Option (c) is correct.

Green hydrogen is defined as hydrogen produced by splitting water into

hydrogen and oxygen using renewable electricity. It is a colourless and
odourless gas. The Advantages of Green Hydrogen as a fuel are, 100 % eco-
friendly and non-polluting.

• Green hydrogen is easy to store as it is light in weight.

• It has a high energy density.
• It can be transformed into electricity or synthesis gas and has multiple
• It can be mixed with natural gas and transported through the presently
available pipelines and gas infrastructures.
• So, Statements 1 and 3 are not correct.
66 B
The Disadvantages of Green Hydrogen as a fuel are as follows,

• High cost of production.

• Highly volatile and flammable element.
• The production of green hydrogen requires more energy than other
fuels.
• The problem of Hydrogen embrittlement. This is the phenomenon in
which when the introduction and diffusion of hydrogen take place into
the material makes the metals brittle. So, Statements 2 and 4 are
correct.

The Kaziranga national park is home to large breeding populations of elephants,

wild water buffalo, and swamp deer, and it is recognized as an Important Bird
Area by Birdlife International for the conservation of avifaunal species.
Kaziranga National Park is spread across three districts such as Golaghat,
Nagaon and Sonitpur of Assam. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Kaziranga
national park, which hosts two-thirds of the world's great one-horned
rhinoceroses, is a World Heritage Site. According to the census held in March
67 C 2018, which was jointly conducted by the Forest Department of the Government
of Assam and some recognized wildlife NGOs, the rhino population in Kaziranga
National Park is 2,413. So, Statement 2 is correct. The swamp deer is a large
deer species with a height of 130 cm and weighing up to 180kg. These deer are
very active animals and graze both during the day as well as night.

Eastern Barasingha, the smallest of Barasinghas, has smaller tails and antlers

20
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

compared to other sub-species. Large off-white hair on the inner side of the ears
makes this Barasingha different from the other two subspecies. Eastern
Barasingha prefers tall alluvial grasslands, interspersed with swamps and is
found in North-Eastern India, especially in Protected areas of Assam such as
Kaziranga and Manas National Parks. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

The average rate of temperature decreases upward in the troposphere is about 6

degree Celsius per kilometre, extending to the tropopause. This vertical
temperature gradient is commonly referred to as the standard atmosphere or
normal lapse rate, but it varies in height, season, latitude and other factors. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
68 C
The average rate of decrease in temperature of the air as it moves upward in the
troposphere is about 6 degrees Celsius per km, extending to the tropopause.
The normal lapse rate is 6 degrees Celsius per 1000m meters, So, Statement 2
is correct.

Article 130 - The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or
69 C places, as the chief justice of India may, with the approval of the president, from
time to time, appoint.

Though Earth is at its farthest position on the 4th of July, this distance does
not have a significant impact on the temperature of the Earth. Though annual
insolation received by the earth on 3rd January is slightly more than the
70 C amount received on 4th July, this does not have a great effect on daily weather
changes on the surface of the earth. So, Option (c) is not correct. All other
statements are correct.

The Losar festival, or Tibetan New Year, is a religious celebration in Ladakh.

Tibetan Buddhists, who observe for 15 days, are the most enthusiastic people
who celebrate. Tibetan New Year marks the accordance with the lunar calendar.
Arunachal Pradesh also observes the Losar festival. The Monpa tribe celebrates
in the Tawang region, and here the festival lasts for three days. The Losar
festival is also celebrated in Nepal. So, Pair 1 is not correct.

The traditional festival Chapchar Kut is a popular spring festival celebrated by

the Mizo people of Mizoram. The Chapchar Kut festival celebrates the
completion of the jhum operations in the state. Jhumming or slash-and-burn
agriculture is a cultivation technique used in woodland or forested terrains. It is
71 A celebrated in early March every year that marks the various stages of the
agricultural cycle, the other two being Mim Kut and Pawl Kut. So, Pair 2 is not
correct.

On the banks of the Indus River in Leh, the Ladakh Singhey Khababs Sindhu
Festival is held. The celebration emphasizes the Indus River as a symbol of
India's complex cultural identity, which takes its name from the river. Local
handicrafts and ethnic foods are displayed in front of tourists during the event,
while folk songs and dances are performed. So, Pair 3 is correct.

Pandharpur Wari, also known as Wari (Vari), is a yearly yatra to Pandharpur,

21
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

the home of the Hindu god Vithoba in the Indian State of Maharashtra.
Whereas the tribes Santals are the largest tribe in Jharkhand and West Bengal
side, and they are not native to Maharastra. So, Pair 4 is not correct.

The Soviet Union had seized the islands at the end of World War II and, by
1949, had expelled its Japanese residents. Tokyo claims the disputed islands
have been part of Japan since the early 19th century. Japan described these
72 C Islands as under Russia's "illegal occupation".

So, Option (c) is correct.

The term FASTER platform could be referred from the given above options key
words like stay orders and bail orders of the Supreme Court, as there are fast
track courts exist, and with these keywords, Option (c) could have arrived.
Recently, the Chief Justice of India launched FASTER (Fast and Secured
73 C Transmission of Electronic Records), a digital platform to communicate interim
orders, stay orders, bail orders, etc., of the Supreme Court to authorities
concerned through a secured electronic communication channel. So, Option (c)
is correct.

Sunda strait lies between the Java and Sumatra islands, connecting the Java
74 D Sea to the Indian Ocean. So, Option (d) is correct.

The Ujh project is a multipurpose (Hydropower, Irrigation and Drinking) River

valley scheme in Jammu and Kashmir State. The proposed project is on the
River Ujh, which is one of the main tributary of River Ravi. The Ujh
75 D Multipurpose Project after completion has the irrigation potential of 91,073
hectare, with a power generation capacity of 89.50 MW. So, Option (d) is
correct.

Total Internal Reflection happens when a ray of light enters from a denser
medium to a rarer medium. So, Statement 1 is not correct. When the light is
reflected by a surface, some fraction of it normally gets transmitted. Therefore,
the reflected ray is always less intense than the incident ray, however, smooth
the reflecting surface may be. In total internal reflection, on the other hand, no
transmission of light takes place as cent percent (100%) light is reflected at a
76 C transparent boundary. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Some of us might have noticed that while moving in a bus or a car during a hot
summer day, a distant patch of road appears to be wet, especially on a highway.
But we do not find any evidence of wetness when we reach that spot. This is
also due to mirage. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Sacred groves are patches of natural vegetation preserved by ancient societies

on religious and cultural grounds. These patches of vegetation are rich in
biodiversity and act as habitats for many endangered and threatened plant
77 C species. In India, sacred groves are found mainly in tribal-dominated areas and
are known by different names in ethnic terms (Bhakat 1990), such as Sarna or
Dev in Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Jharkhand, Devrai or Deovani in
Maharashtra, Orans in Rajasthan, Devaravana or Devarakadu in Karnataka,

22
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

Sarpakavu, Kovil Kadu and Kavu in Tamil Nadu and Kerala, Dev van in
Himachal Pradesh, Law Lyngdoh or Law Kyntang etc. in Meghalaya, Sarana or
Jaherthan in Jharkhand and Lai umang in Manipur. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Sacred groves are protected and maintained by the village community on

religious grounds and traditional beliefs. Sacred groves are community-
conserved land parcels, usually given legal protection with a significant religious
connotation for protecting the community. They can be notified as Community
Conserved Areas under Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002. So,
Statement 2 is correct.

It is a personal representative of the leader of a member country at an

international Summit. So, Option (b) is correct. India holds the Presidency of
78 B the G20 from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023. The 43 Heads of
Delegations- the largest ever in G20-will be participating in the final New Delhi
Summit.

The Marathas defeated the Nizam of Hyderabad, and Peshwa Baji Rao I forced
him to sign a peace treaty on March 6, 1728, in the village of Mungi-Paithan.
The Nizam agreed to make some concessions to the Peshwa under the Munji
79 B Shivagaon Treaty. Thus, Baji Rao enhanced the power and prestige of the
Maratha Empire by defeating the Nizam of Hyderabad, the Rajput Governor of
Malwa and the Governor of Gujarat. So, Option (b) is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: If the Council of States has declared by

resolution supported by not less than two third of the members present and
voting that is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so,
Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all India service.
Or the parliament can create a new all-India service provided that the Rajya
Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

• Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 309 of the Indian constitution

80 A empowers the central and state government to regulate recruitment and
conditions of service of persons appointed to public service and posts through
an act of the appropriate legislature.

• Statement 3 is Incorrect: For the deputation of all Indian service officer’s

concurrence of both union and state government is necessary. In case of
disagreement, the decision of the central government will prevail over the state
government. State government concerned shall give effect to the decision of the
central government. However, no time limit is mentioned.

Ajanta is mostly about beautiful paintings made on cave walls on the theme of
Buddhism. It includes masterpiece paintings of Buddhist religious art, with
figures of the Buddha and depictions of the stories that tell about the previous
lives of Buddha. Ellora is all about sculpture and architecture belonging to
81 D three different religions prevailing in the country during those times—
Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism. The cave consists of 17 Hindu (caves 13–
29), 12 Buddhist (caves 1–12) and 5 Jain (caves 30–34) caves, each group
representing deities and mythologies prevalent in the 1st millennium CE, as
well as monasteries of each respective religion. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

23
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

Ajanta also has excavated double-storeyed caves, but at Ellora, the triple-storey
is a unique achievement. In Ellora, Buddhist caves are big in size and are of
single, double and triple storeys. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The Satavahanas kings were the first in Indian history to make tax-free land
grants to Buddhists and Brahmanas to gain religious merit. Offering land
grants was an important development of the Satavahana. The Satavahanas are
82 B known for giving royal land grants to Brahmans and Buddhist monks, including
those associated with tax exemptions (fiscal exemptions). This practice of land
grants was also continued under the Guptas and subsequently expanded under
the patronage of rulers of the Post-Guptan period. So, Option (b) is correct.

The Vijayanagar empire was founded in the fourteenth century. In 1336, the
Vijayanagar kingdom was established by Harihara and Bukka, two brothers
who served in the army of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. The military chiefs in the
Vijayanagar empire exercised power, controlled forts, and had armed
supporters. They were called Nayakas, and these chiefs often moved from one
area to another. In many cases, they were accompanied by peasants looking for
fertile land, and the nayakas usually spoke Telugu or Kannada. So, Statement
1 is correct.

The Amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara

83 B Empire. The Amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given
territories to govern by the raya.

Each nayaka was given an area for administration. The nayaka was responsible
for expanding agricultural activities in his area. They collected taxes and other
dues from peasants, crafts persons and traders in the area and retained part of
the revenue for personal use and maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses
and elephants. These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an
effective fighting force that brought the entire southern peninsula under their
control. Some of the revenue was also used to maintain temples and irrigation
works. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Amir Khusrau (l252-1325) was one of the most notable writers in medieval India
who was a follower of Nizamuddin Auliya. Khusrau took pride in being an
Indian and looked at the history and culture of Hindustan as a part of his
tradition. He wrote verses in Hindi (Hindawi) and employed the Persian meter in
Hindi. Khusrau wrote a large number of poetical works, including historical
84 C romances. He experimented with all the poetical forms and created a new style
of Persian which came to be called the sabaq-i- hindi or the style of India. By
the fifteenth century, Hindi had begun to assume a definite shape and Bhakti
saints such as Kabir used it extensively. Sabaq-i- hindi of Amir Khusrau
represents the Persian writing style composed in the Indian Context. So, Option
(c) is correct.

Article 30 of the Indian Constitution speaks about the right of minorities to

establish and administer educational institutions. This Article consists of
85 A provisions that safeguard various rights of the minority community in the
country, keeping in mind the principle of Equality as well. Thus, Article 30 of
the constitution speaks specifically of religious and linguistic minorities. So,

24
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

Option (a) is correct.

The quality of oxygen used up by microorganisms at 27ºC and in darkness for 3

days in breaking down organic wastes in a water body is called its biological
oxygen demand (BOD). Its value is a standard criterion for managing water
pollution by computing oxygen levels in a water body. An evaluation is made by
determining oxygen concentration in water before and after incubation at 20ºC
in dark for 5 days. The B.O.D. value of an aquatic system depends upon the
following,

1. the type and amount of organic waste

2. the organisms acting on it
3. temperature and pH

So, Statement 1 is correct.

86 A
The BOD value is calculated from the depletion and the size of the sample used.
The DO readings are usually in parts per million (ppm). Higher BOD indicates
more oxygen is required, signifying lower water quality. Low BOD means
less oxygen is being removed from the water, so the water is usually purer in
quality. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The chemical oxygen demand (COD) is an indicative measure of the amount of

oxygen that can be consumed by reactions in a measured solution. It is the
most accurate method to measure water and wastewater quality because it
shows more accuracy than BOD (with a 5-10% relative standard deviation) and
it offers a relatively short analysis time (2-hour digestion time), compared to the
5-day BOD test. The COD test is also often used to monitor water treatment
plant efficiency. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Recently, the Turkish President warned Greece to demilitarize islands in the

Aegean Sea. Greece and Turkey have had a regional issue concerning the
87 B Aegean Sea since the 1970s, with both countries asserting rival claims over
their borders in the Sea. So, Option (b) is correct.

They are considered biological supermarkets because they are comparable to

rainforests and coral reefs for their diversity of food supply and wildlife species.
88 C And also, for having extensive food webs, rich biodiversity, and unique habitats.
So, Option (c) is correct.

Kodavas are the original settlers of the Kodagu (Coorg) district in Karnataka.
89 C Kodagu and Kodavas need Constitutional protection to preserve our unique
culture and traditions. So, Option (c) is correct.

Coniferous forests are also known as Taiga or Boreal forests. They extend as a
continuous belt across north America and north Eurasia below the arctic
tundra. These are characterized by conifers (gymnosperms), as trees that grow
needles instead of leaves and cones instead of flowers. So, Statement 1 is
90 B correct.

Conifers or Taiga tends to be evergreen (not deciduous) they bear needles all
year long, and they are evergreen, drought resistant, and woody in nature. In

25
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

many species, the canopy is cone-shaped. These adaptations help conifers

survive in areas that are very cold or dry. Some of the more common conifers
are spruces, pines, and firs. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Productivity is defined as the total accumulated amount of energy stored by the

autographic primary producers per unit area per unit time. The productivity of
the tropical rainforest biome is the highest of all biome types of the world.
Productivity of tundra biome is the least.

The productivity of the Taiga biome is 3500 kilocalories/square meter/year and

productivity of temperate grasslands is 2000 kilocalories/square meter/year.
Hence, the productivity of Taiga Biome is greater than Temperate Grassland.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

The cold winters (and short summers) make the taiga a challenging biome for
reptiles and amphibians, which depend on environmental conditions to regulate
their body temperatures. There are only a few species in the boreal forest,
including red-sided garter snake, common European adder, blue-spotted
salamander, northern two-lined salamander, Siberian salamander, wood frog,
northern leopard frog, boreal chorus frog, American toad, and Canadian toad.
Most hibernate underground in winter. So, Statement 4 is correct.

The first galaxies may have formed much earlier than thought. A new study
suggests - just 200 million years after the Universe's birth. Hence it is not
formed immediately after the Big Bang. Using several different telescopes,
astronomers have discovered a distant galaxy whose stars appear to have
formed 200 million years after the Big Bang, the explosive event that brought
the Universe into being. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Universe was born with the Big Bang as an unimaginably hot, dense point.

When the Universe was just 10-34 of a second or so old - that is, a hundredth
of a billionth of a trillionth of a second in age - it experienced an incredible
burst of expansion known as inflation. In that space, itself expanded faster than
the speed of light. During this period, the Universe doubled in size (not
91 D remaining the same) at least 90 times, going from subatomic-sized to golf-ball-
sized almost instantaneously.

According to NASA, after inflation, the growth of the Universe continued, but at
a slower rate. As space expanded, the Universe cooled and matter formed. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

The galaxies are not moving through space; they are moving in space because
space is also moving. In other words, the Universe has no centre; everything is
moving away from everything else. Suppose you imagine a grid of space with a
galaxy every million light-years; after enough time passes, this grid will stretch
out so that the galaxies are spread to every two million light years, and so on,
possibly into infinity. So, Statement 3 is correct.

• Article 352 Proclamation of Emergency - The Constitution employs the

92 A expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote the National Emergency only
due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

26
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

• An Emergency due to the failure of the constitutional machinery in the

states (Article 356) is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known by
other two names- ‘State Emergency’ or ‘constitutional Emergency’. However, the
Constitution does not use the word ‘emergency’ for this situation.

• Financial Emergency is proclaimed under Article 360 - due to a threat to

the financial stability or credit of India.

Statement1: The value of the vote of an MLA is calculated by dividing the

population of the state as per 1971 census. So, it differs from state to state.

93 C Statement2: Value of the vote of an MP remains same for every state because
the value of the states is divided by the total number of elected members of the
parliament.

The Department of science and technology started KIRAN scheme to provide

94 A career opportunities to women scientists and technologists and promote women
in science. So, option (a) is correct.

Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP) is implemented by

Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM),
Ministry of Rural Development, as a sub-scheme since 2016. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.

It’s objective is to support the rural poor come out of poverty, supporting them
setup enterprises and provide support till the enterprises stabilize, SVEP
95 C focusses on providing self-employment opportunities with financial assistance
(capital) and training in business management and soft skills (technical) while
creating local community cadres for promotion of enterprises. So, Statement 2
is correct.

Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India (EDII), Ahmedabad is the

technical support partner of SVEP. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: The legislature is not involved in the process of

appointment of judges. Thus, it is believed that party politics would not play a
role in the process of appointment of judges.

Statement 2 is correct: The constitution prescribes a very difficult procedure

96 B for the removal of judges. The constitution makers believed that a difficult
procedure of removal would provide security of office to the judiciary members.

Statement 3 is correct: The judiciary is not financially dependent on the

executive or legislative. The constitution provides that the salaries and
allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature.

A poison pill is a defence tactic, which listed companies use to deter activist
investors or acquirers from building large stakes or staging a takeover without
97 A the board's consent and without paying a premium to all shareholders. A
shareholder rights plan, more commonly known as a poison pill, is a company’s
defence against a potentially hostile or unsolicited takeover attempt. So, Option

27
SPIPA Weekly Test-11_ Answer Hints Dt. 13/03/2024

(a) is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court in the KS Puttaswami case held

that Aadhar would remain mandatory for filing income tax returns and
allotment of Permanent account numbers and for availing benefits under
98 A various government-run social welfare schemes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Supreme Court Judgment, It would
not be mandatory to link Aadhar to bank accounts and telecom service
providers cannot seek its linking of Aadhar for mobile connections.

• Statement 1 is not correct: Fundamental rights can be amended by

constitution amendment till they do not violate the basic structure of the
constitution and thus they are not sacrosanct.

• Statement 2 is correct: are available against the actions of both State and
99 C private individuals. Few Rights like Abolition of Untouchability etc are available
against private citizens also.

• Statement 3 is correct: These rights limit the power of the Executive and
legislature and thus prevent tyranny of the executive and legislature.

• Option1 is one of the fundamental duties mentioned in Part IV-A of the Indian
constitution. • Option 2 is a part of Directive Principles of State Policy.

• Swaran Singh Committee recommended duty to pay taxes should be included

in the fundamental duties but it was not accepted. Hence, option 3 is not a
100 A fundamental duty.

• Casting vote is also not included in the fundamental duties so option 4 is also
not correct.

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

28