2025-Jee Main - 1 - Paper 6 May

JEE Main - 1 | JEE-2025
Date: 06/05/2024 Maximum Marks: 300
Timing: 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM Duration: 3.0 Hours
General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other
question apart from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the
five previously answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :
Roll Number :
OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature
Syllabus
Physics: Electrostatics
Chemistry: Liquid Solutions, Chemical Kinetics (Class 1 to 4)
Mathematics: Functions, Inverse Trigonometry (Class 1 & 2)
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
PART I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. Two particles A and B having charges 20C and −5C respectively are held fixed at a separation of
5cm . At what position a third charged particle should be placed so that it does not experience a net
electric force?
(A) At midpoint between two charges
(B) At 5cm from −5C on the right side
(C) At 1.25cm from −5C between two charges
(D) At 5cm from 20C on the left side
2. The ratio of electrostatic forces between two small spheres with same charges when they are in air to
when they are in a medium of dielectric constant K is:
(A) 1: K (B) K :1 (C) 1: K 2 (D) K 2 :1
3. The magnitude of force applied by an electric field on a charged particle is:
(A) Not dependent on its charge (B) Inversely proportional to its charge
(C) Directly proportional to its charge (D) Directly proportional to square of its charge
4. A charged particle q is going in a circle around an infinite line charge of linear charge density −. What
is the speed of the particle, if its mass is m?
q q q q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 m 0 m 40 m 80 m
5. Six charges are placed on vertices of a regular hexagon of edge length a as shown in diagram. What is
the magnitude of dipole moment of this system?
(A) 3qa (B) 7qa (C) 10qa (D) 52qa

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Code A | Page 2 JEE Main – 1 | JEE-2025

6. A dipole is made by joining 2 charges +q and –q (mass m each) to the ends of a massless rod of length l.
This dipole is placed in an uniform electric field of magnitude E with the direction of dipole moment
aligned along the direction of electric field. Now it is given a small angular displacement keeping its
negative charge hinged. What is the time taken to return to its original position?
4ml ml ml ml
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
qE 2qE 4qE 8qE
7. 100 point charges q are uniformly placed on a circle as shown. If any one charge is removed, then what
is the electric field at the centre?
1 q 1 2q 1 49q 1 99q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40 R 2 40 R 2 40 R 2 40 R 2
8. Statement: 1 Electric potential is constant within and at the surface of a uniformly charged spherical
shell.
Statement: 2 Electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is zero.
(A) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
9. In a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of total charge Q and radius R, electric field E is plotted
as a function of distance from the centre. The corresponding graph will be:
(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. Electric field lines due to two-point charges are shown in figure. What can be the nature of charges q1
and q2?
(A) q1 is positive, q2 is negative (B) q1 is negative, q2 is negative

(C) q1 is negative, q2 is positive (D) q1 is positive, q2 is positive
11. A charge Q is situated at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through one of the faces of the cube is:
Q  Q   Q   Q 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
 0   2 0   4 0   6 0 
12. A particle that carries a negative charge ‘–q’ is released from rest in a uniform electric field of strength
10 N / C . It experiences a force and moves. In a certan time ‘t’, it is observed to aquire a velocity
10iˆ −10 ˆj m / s . The given electric field intersects a surface of area A m2 in the x-z plane. Electric flux
through the surface is:
5
(A) 5 2 A Nm 2 / C (B) A Nm2 / C
2
(C) 5 A Nm 2 / C (D) 10 A Nm 2 / C
13. If the electric flux through a closed surface is zero, which of the statements given below is correct?
(A) Electric Field should be zero everywhere on the surface
(B) Electric Field cannot be zero anywhere on the surface
(C) Electric Field may or may not be zero on the surface
(D) There must be some charge inside the closed surface
14. If Electric field in a region is given by E = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj, what is the potential difference between O(0,0) and
P(1,1). Electric field and coordinates are in SI unis.
(A) 2V (B) 3V (C) 5V (D) 13V

15. A ring having charge Q and radius R is fixed in space. A particle having mass m and charge −q is
released from the point on the axis of ring where the electric field strength of ring is maximum. Find the
speed of the particle when it reaches the centre of ring.
1/2 1/2
 ( 3 − 2) Qq   3 Qq 
(A)   (B)  
 20 mR   20mR 
1/2 1/2
 ( 3 − 2) Qq   Qq 
(C)   (D)  
 2 30 mR   2 30 mR 
16. Which of the following correctly represents an equi-potential surface around an infinite line charge?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
17. A bullet of mass m and charge q is fired towards a sphere of radius R having total charge + q uniformly
distributed in its volume. If it strikes the surface of sphere with speed u, find the minimum speed u so
that it can penetrate through the sphere.
(Neglect all resistive forces or friction acting on bullet except electrostatic forces).
q q q 3q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 mR 40 mR 80 mR 40 mR

18. A solid conducting sphere of radius r is given some charge. Then which of the following statements are
correct?
1. The charge is uniformly distributed over its surface, if there is no external electric field.
2. Distribution of charge over its surface will be non uniform if an external electric field exists in
space.
3. Electric field strength inside the sphere will be equal to zero only when no external electric field
exists
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 only (D) 1 only
19. Three concentric conducting shells are placed as shown. They are given charges Q, 2Q and 3Q
respectively. The ratio of charges on the inner and outer surface of the largest shell will be:
(A) −3:4 (B) −3:7 (C) −2:5 (D) −2  3

20. Two large parallel conducting plates of area A are kept distance d apart. If one of them is given a charge
Q and other –Q . What is the potential difference between them?
Qd Qd 2Qd
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
2 A0 A0 A0

SECTION-2
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
1. A charged particle A of 1C is fixed as shown in figure. Another charged particle B is suspended in air
above it at a distance of 1 m. Find the ratio of mass of B and charge of B in SI units. ( g = 10m / s 2 )
2. A block performs SHM on a frictionless surface as shown. The block carries a charge of 0.1 C and an
uniform electric field is switched on as shown. The shift in mean position of SHM after switching on the
electric field is ______ (in cm).
3. A circular ring has linear charge densities as shown in figure. Find electric field at its centre (in N/C).
4. Find the ratio of magnitude of electric field at an axial point and an equatorial point of a dipole, both of
which are at same distance from the dipole.
5. 512 identical drops of mercury are charged to a potential of 2 V each. The drops are joined to form a
single drop. The potential of this drop is______ V.

6. A dipole with dipole moment p = (10−2 Cm)iˆ is kept at origin. Find work done (in J) in moving a
charge of 5C from (−2, 0) to (2, 0) .
7. If potential due to a charge is given as V = 2 x 2 + 3 , what is the magnitude of electric field at (1, 2, 4)?
8. A charged particle A (with charge 8C , mass 6g) and B (with charge 16C , mass 3g) are placed at a
distance of 1m. Both of them are released from rest simultaneusly. Find velocity of particle A (in m/s)
when their separation becomes 2m.
9. There are two concentric conducting shells. The potential of outer shell is 10V and that of inner shell is
15V, if the outer shell is grounded the potential of inner shell becomes ____ V.
10. Two identical metal balls with charges +2Q and −Q are separated by large distance, and exert a force F
on each other. They are joined by a conducting wire, which is then removed. The force between them
will now be F/n. Find n.

PART II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100
SECTION-1
1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
(I) Brass : Cu + Zn
(II) Bronze : Cu + Sn
(III) German Silver : Cu + Zn + Ni
(A) I, II (B) II, III (C) I, III (D) I, II, III
2. Consider the reaction A → B , graph between half-life (t1/2 ) and initial concentration (a) of the reaction
is:
d[A]
Hence graph between − and time will be:
dt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. Which of the following statement is correct regarding K H ?

(I) Higher the value of K H , lower is the solubility of gas in liquid
(II) Value of K H changes with change in temperature
(III) Value of K H of H2  He at 293 K
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II (C) I, III (D) I only

4. Which of the following is correct order of value of i (Assume incomplete dissociation) for K 2SO4
(A) 0.1 m < 0.01 m < 0.001 m (B) 0.001 m < 0.01 m < 0.1 m
(C) 0.1 m = 0.10 m = 0.001 m (D) 0.1 m < 0.01 m = 0.001 m
5. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Elevation in boiling point for 1 molal aqueous solution is more than that of depression in
freezing point.
Reason (R): K f of water is more than that of K b .
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
6. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Mixture of Phenol and Aniline is an example of negative deviation from ideal behaviour.
Reason (R): The intermolecular hydrogen bonding between phenolic proton and lone pair of nitrogen
atom of aniline is weaker than respective intermolecular H-Bonding between similar molecule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
7. In aqueous solution of NaI, increasing amounts of solid HgI2 is added. The vapour pressure of the
solution.
(A) decreases to a constant value
(B) increase to a constant value
(C) decreases and then increases
(D) remains constant because HgI2 is sparingly soluble in water

8. A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 gram of water freezes at –0.2°C. As ice separates the freezing
point goes down to 0.25°C. How many gram of ice would have separated?
(A) 18 gram (B) 20 gram (C) 25 gram (D) 23 gram
1 1
9. The plots of (on y-axis) vs (on x-axis) (where XA and YA are the mole fractions of liquid A
XA YA
in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and y-intercept respectively.
PA0 (PA0 − PB0 ) PB0 (PA0 − PB0 )
(A) and (B) and
PB0 PB0 PA0 PB0
PA0 (PB0 − PA0 ) PB0 (PB0 − PA0 )
(C) and (D) and
PB0 PB0 PA0 PB0
10. Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure (in Torr) p = 265 −130 XA , where
XA is mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence p0A + p0B = (in Torr)

(A) 265 (B) 135 (C) 400 (D) 150
11. What is the mole ratio of benzene (PB0 = 150 torr) and toluene (PT0 = 50 torr) in vapour phase if the
given solution has a vapour pressure of 120 torr?
(A) 7:1 (B) 7:3 (C) 8:1 (D) 7:8
12. For different aqueous solutions of 0.1 M NaCl, 0.1 M urea, 0.1 M Na 2SO4 and 0.1 M Na3PO4
solution at 27°C, the correct statement is:
(A) The order of osmotic pressure is, urea > NaCl > Na 2SO4 > Na3PO4
(B) The order of vapour pressure is, Na3PO4 > Na 2SO4 > NaCl > urea
(C) The order of boiling point ( TB ) is, urea > NaCl > Na 2SO4 > Na3PO4
(D) The order of freezing point ( Tf ) is, urea > NaCl > Na 2SO4 > Na3PO4

13. The vapour pressure of water depends upon:
(A) Surface area of container (B) Volume of container
(C) Temperature (D) All
1
14. The rate of gaseous reaction is given by, r = k [A] [B]. If the volume of reaction vessel is reduced to
4
of initial volume the reaction rate relative to the original rate is:
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 8 (D) 16
16 8
15. Match of Column:
Rate Equation Units of K
(I) Rate = k [A] (a) Mole lit −1 sec −1
(II) Rate = k [A] [B] (b) lit 2 mole−2 sec−1
(III) Rate = k [A] [B]2 (c) sec−1
(IV) Rate = k (d) lit mole−1 sec−1
(A) I → d, II → c, III → a, IV → b (B) I → c, II → d, III → b, IV → a
(C) I → a, II → b, III → c, IV → d (D) I → b, II → a, III → d, IV → c
16. For the reaction A + 2 B + C → D + 2E the rate equation is, rate = k[A][B]0 [C] then the rate is:
(i) Doubled when [A] is doubled keeping B and C constant
(ii) Doubled when [C] is doubled keeping A and B constant
(iii) The same when [B] is doubled keeping A and B constant
(iv) Doubled when [B] is doubled keeping A and C constant
The correct combination is:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)

17. For a zero order reaction, the plot of dissociated concentration (x) vs time is linear with:
(A) +ve slope and zero intercept (B) –ve slope and zero intercept
(C) +ve slope and non-zero intercept (D) –ve slope and non-zero intercept
18. In the following reaction : xA ⎯⎯
→ yB
 d  A   d[B] 
log  −  = log  + 0.3010
 dt   dt 
where –ve sign indicates rate of disappearance of the reactant. Thus, x : y is:
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 3:1 (D) 3 : 10
19. Rate constant for the reaction is 5.78 10−5 sec−1 . What percentage of initial reactant will react in 10
hours?
(A) 12.5% (B) 25% (C) 87.5% (D) 75%
20. For a first order reaction (A → product) which among the following is incorrect?
(A) r  [A]
(B) t1/2 is independent of initial concentration of A
K
(C) Slope of graph of log [A] versus time is −
2.303
(D) t1/2  [A]1/2

SECTION-2
1. The value of observed and calculated molecular weight of Ca(NO3 )2 are 65.6 and 164 respectively.
The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO3 )2 is______________.
2. The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.45°C when 0.2 g of acetic acid is added to 20 g of benzene.
If acetic acid associates to form a dimer in benzene, percentage association of acetic acid in benzene will
be (x 10−1 )% . Value of x is ______________ k f of benzene = 5.12 k kg mol–1.
3. The henry law constant for dissolution of a gas in aqueous medium is 3102 atm. At what partial
5
pressure of the gas (in atm), the molality of gas in aqueous solution will be m . [Assume mole fraction
9
of solute is very small compared to mole fraction of solvent].
4. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60g mol−1 ) and 1.8 g of glucose
(molar mass = 180 g mol−1 ) in 100 mL of water at 27°C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is:
(R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)
5. 2.56 g of sulphur in 100 g of CS2 has depression in freezing point of 0.01°C. Kf = 0.1 molal−1 .
Hence, the atomicity of sulphur in CS2 is______________.

6. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 0.0693 min −1 . What is the time required (in minutes) for
reducing an initial concentration of 20 mol lit −1 to 2.5 mol lit −1 .

7. The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr.
NO(g) + Br2 (g) NOBr2 (g); NOBr2 (g) + NO(g) ⎯⎯

→ 2NOBr(g) (slow step)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is:
8. The order of the reaction (A + B → Product) with respect to reactant [A] and [B] is x and y. Sum of x
and y is:
[A] [B] Rate
(mol/L) (mol/L) −1 −1
(mol L s )
0.05 0.05 1.2 10−3
0.10 0.05 2.4 10−3
0.05 0.10 1.2 10−3
9. Observe the following reaction
A(g) + 3B(g) → 2C(g)
 d[A]  −3 −1 −1 d[B]
The rate of this reaction  −  is 3  10 mole lit min . The value of − is x 10−3 mole
 dt  dt
lit −1 min −1 . Value of x is:
10. Boiling point of n-pentane is 36°C. Assuming it obeys Trouton’s rule, the molar heat of vapourisation in
kJ mol −1 is _______________ (Report your answer in Nearest Integer)

PART III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100
SECTION-1
1. Let R1 and R2 be two relations defined on by aR1b  ab  0 and aR2b  a  b . Then:

(A) R1 is an equivalence relation but not R2
(B) R2 is an equivalence relation but not R1
(C) Both R1 and R2 are equivalence relations
(D) Neither R1 nor R2 is an equivalence relation
  1  
2. The domain of the function f ( x) = log 2  − log1/2 1 + 4  − 1 is:
  x 
(A) 0  x 1 (B) 0  x 1 (C) x 1 (D) x 1
1
3. The domain of the function f ( x) = is (where [.] denotes G.I.F)
[ x] − [ x] − 6
2
(A) (−, −2)  [4, ) (B) (−, −2]  [4, )

(C) (−, −2)  (4, ) (D) (−, −1)  (4, )
1
4. 
Let f : R → R be a periodic function such that f (T + x) = 1 + 1 − 3 f ( x) + 3 f ( x) − f
2
( x)3 3
where T
is a fixed positive number, then period of f ( x) is:

(A) T (B) 2T (C) 3T (D) 4T
5. The maximum integral value of x in the domain of f ( x) = log10 (log1/3 (log 4 ( x − 5)) is:
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

6. f ( x) = {x} + {x + 1} + {x + 2} + ......... + {x + 99}, then [ f ( 2)], (where {} denotes fractional part
function and [  ] denotes the greatest integer function) is equal to:
(A) 5050 (B) 4950 (C) 41 (D) 14
7. Which of the following is NOT periodic?
(A) sin x + cos x (B) 2 sin x − 3 cos x
(C) cos 2 x + sin x (D) 5
8. The number of solutions of the equation e x − log | x |= 0 is:
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
9. Which of the following is NOT an odd function?
 x4 + x2 + 1 
ln  2
 ( x + x + 1)2 
(A)
 
(B) sgn(sgn( x))
(C) sin(tan x)
1 1
(D) f ( x), where f ( x) + f   = f ( x)  f   x  R − 0 and f (2) = 33
 x  x
10. Range of the function f ( x) = log 2 (2 − log 2 (16sin 2 x + 1)) is:
(A) [0,1] (B) (−,1] (C) [−1,1] (D) [−, ]
11. If [ x] and {x} represent integral and fractional part of x then the function defined by
1000
 x + r
f ( x) = [ x] +  1000
is equal to:
r =1
(A) 2[ x] + {x} (B) 4x
(C) x (D) 4[ x] + 1000{x}

12. If 2 f ( x 2 ) + 3 f (1/ x 2 ) = x 2 − 1 for all x  R {0} . Then f ( x 2 ) is equal to:

1 − x4 (1 − x 2 )(3 + 2 x 2 )
(A) (B)
5x2 5x2
(1 − x 2 )(3 − 2 x 2 ) 1 − x2
(C) (D)
3x 2 5x2
13. ( ) ( )
If a = sin −1 sin ( 5 ) and b = cos −1 cos ( 5 ) , then a2 + b2 is equal to:
(A) 42 + 25 (B) 82 − 40 + 50

(C) 42 − 20 + 50 (D) 25
x
14. Let f : R → R be defined by f ( x) = , x  R . Then the range of f is:
1 + x2
 1 1  1 1
(A) R − − ,  (B) − 2 , 2  (C) (−1, 1) − {0} (D) R − [−1, 1]
 2 2
 1
15. The roots of the equation 6 sin−1  x3 − 6 x 2 + 8 x +  =  are:
 2
(A) in A.P. (B) in G.P.
(C) in A.P. and G.P. both (D) neither in A.P. nor in G.P.

 2   7   3 
16. sin −1  sin  + cos−1  cos  + tan −1  tan  is equal to:
 3   6   4 
11 17 31 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) −
12 12 12 4
17. The trigonometric equation Sin −1 x = 2Sin −1 a has a solution for:
1
(A) a (B) all real values of a
2
3 1
(C) a (D) a
4 2
18. The number of solutions of cos x = sin x, such that −4  x  4 is:
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12
19. Which of the following functions is odd?
 3− x 
(A) f ( x) = n   (B) f ( x) = n( x + x 2 + 1)
 5+ x 
2x
(C) f ( x) = (D) f ( x) = cos( x 2 )
(2 + 1)
x 2

20. Which of the following functions have period ?
2
(A) | sin x | − | cos x | (B) | tan x | − | cot x |
(C) sin 4 x + cos4 x (D) sin x + tan x

SECTION-2
1. The number of solutions of the equation [2 x] − [ x + 1] = 2 x is equal to ____________ where [ ] greatest
integer function.
4x 1   1   2   1996  
Let f ( x) = x . Then the value of f + f   + ... + f    is given by:
499   1997 
2.
4 +2  1997   1997  
3. Suppose that a function f : R → R satisfies f ( x + y ) = f ( x) f ( y) for all x, y  R and f (1) = 3 . If
n
 f (i) = 363, then n is equal to ____________ .
i =1
4. If a +  = 1, b +  = 2 and
1
f ( x) + f  
1   x  is ___________ .
af ( x) + f   = bx + , x  0, then the value of the expression
 x x x+
1
x
5. The complete set of values of x satisfying the inequality sin −1 (sin 5)  x 2 − 4 x is
(2 −  − 2,2 +  − 2 ), then  =

−1 −1 −1
6. The number of solutions of sin x + sin (1 + x) = cos x is/are______.
−1
7. The total number of ordered pairs ( x, y ) satisfying | y |= cos x and y = sin (sin x), where
x [−2, 3] is equal to______.
x 2 − 25
8. If the domain of the function f ( x) = + log10 ( x 2 + 2 x − 15) is (−, )  [, ), then
(4 − x ) 2
 2 + 3 is equal to______.
9. ( )
The number of real solutions of the equation x x + 3 | x | +5 | x − 1| +6 | x − 2 | = 0 is____.
2
10. Let R1 and R2 be relations on the set {1, 2,.......,50} such that
R1 = { ( p, p n ) : p is a prime and n  0 is an integer} and

R2 = { ( p, p n ) : p is a prime and n = 0 or 1}.
Then, the number of elements in R1 − R2 is ______ .

••• End of JEE Main – 1 | JEE – 2025 •••

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JEE Main - 1 | JEE-2025

Date: 06/05/2024 Maximum Marks: 300

Timing: 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM Duration: 3.0 Hours

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

OMR Bar Code Number :

PART I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100

(A) 3qa (B) 7qa (C) 10qa (D) 52qa

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(A) (B) (C) (D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(A) q1 is positive, q2 is negative (B) q1 is negative, q2 is negative

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(A) −3:4 (B) −3:7 (C) −2:5 (D) −2  3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PART II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. Which of the following statement is correct regarding K H ?

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XA is mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence p0A + p0B = (in Torr)

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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reducing an initial concentration of 20 mol lit −1 to 2.5 mol lit −1 .

NO(g) + Br2 (g) NOBr2 (g); NOBr2 (g) + NO(g) ⎯⎯

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PART III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100

1. Let R1 and R2 be two relations defined on by aR1b  ab  0 and aR2b  a  b . Then:

(A) (−, −2)  [4, ) (B) (−, −2]  [4, )

is a fixed positive number, then period of f ( x) is:

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12. If 2 f ( x 2 ) + 3 f (1/ x 2 ) = x 2 − 1 for all x  R {0} . Then f ( x 2 ) is equal to:

(A) 42 + 25 (B) 82 − 40 + 50

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R1 = { ( p, p n ) : p is a prime and n  0 is an integer} and

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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••• End of JEE Main – 1 | JEE – 2025 •••

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